ELEX OT

1.) Why is a two-pole magnetic field set up around Because separate lines of Magnetic force link and
a coil? combine their effects.

2.) To turn off the SCR, which of the following is Reduce anode voltage to zero.
done?

3.) A logic circuit has an output 0 when the input NOT Gate
is 1, and vice versa.

4.) Why is it that the magnitude of magnetomotive Because air has the lowest relative permeability
force required for air gap is much greater than that
required for iron part of a magnetic circuit?

5.) For a parallel AC Circuit, ______ is used as a VOLTAGE

reference phasor.

6.) Moving-iron instrument has what scale? Squared

7.) For a series AC circuit, ______ is not used as a Voltage

reference phasor

8.) The state of SR latch when both signals are "1" NOT ALLOWED

9.) Is also called as a "Bistable Multivibrator Flip-Flop

Circuit".

10.) Hysteresis refers to the ____ between the flux Lagging Effect
density of the material and the magnetizing force
applied.

11.) In a P-channel JFET The drain is negative relative to source

12.) The characteristic of UJT that determines its Standoff Ratio

turn-on point

13.) The symbol ICBO signifies the current flows In the reverse direction to the collector junction
when some DC voltage is applied with the emitter open-circuited

14.) A circuit that operates in such a way that its AND

output is high when all its inputs are high.

15.) In a source follower, which of the electrodes The Gate

of FET receives the input signal?

16.) If the capacitor has a negative temperature Its value decreases as the temperature rises
coefficient:

17.) As the number of turns in a coil increases, the Increases

reactance:

18.) If the ratio of Xc/R is 1, the phase angle is: -45 Degrees

19.) A hot-wire ammeter Can measure AC as well as DC

20.) In an N-channel JFET, the pinch-off occurs Very Negative

when the gate bias is:
21.) It can also be used to locate the source of RF Meter
field, and to measure the performance of radio
frequency shielding.

22.) The input impedance of a MOSFET: Is Extremely High

23.) The tester is essentially a high-range Megger

resistance meter with a built-in direct-current
generator.

24.) The class-A circuit would not work well as: A Television transmitter PA

25.) An oscillator might fail to start for any of the In-Phase feedback
following reasons except:

26.) In a household circuit, the 234 V power has: THREE PHASES

27.) The distance between the capacitor plates Decreases two times
increases two times, then its capacitance.

28.) The permeability of permalloy is Very much greater that permeability of air

29.) The AC load line differs from the DC load line The effective AC collector resistance is less that
because the DC collector resistance.

30.) The gigabyte is a unit commonly used to Data Storage Capacity

measure of

31.) Drain current in the constant-current region The gate-to-source bias voltage decreases
increases when

32.) Equivalent of decimal value of 178 in straight 10110010, 101111000

binary code and in BCD

33.) What maximum voltage can be applied across Surge Voltage

the capacitor for very short period of time?

34.) If voltage across the plates of 2 F capacitor is Increase by 4 C

increased by 4 V, then charge on the plates will

35.) The specified value of holding current for an The device will turn off when the anode current
SCR means that falls below this value

36.) All voltmeters except one of the following are Electrostatic

operated by the passage of current.

37.) An SCR whose state is controlled by the light LASCR

falling upon a silicon semiconductor layer of the
device.

38.) For a certain magnetic material, the ____ the Greater, larger
area inside the hysteresis loop, the ____ the
hysteresis losses.

39.) A theorem which states that an electric Ampere's Theorem

current flowing in a circuit produces a magnetic
field at external points equivalent to that due to a
magnetic shell whose bounding edge is the
conductor and whose strength is equal to the
strength of the current.

40.) What is that value of current below which the Holding Current
SCR switches from the conduction state to the
forward blocking region under stated conditions?

1.) Magnetic flux can always be attributed to Motion of Charge Particles

2.) What does K-shell mean? First Orbit

3.) A substance with high retentivity is best suited A Permanent Magnet

for

4.) Consider two copper wires. One has twice the The longer wire has twice the resistance of the
length of the other. How does the resistances of shorter wire
these two wires compare?

5.) What is the value of resistor with color bands R= 2.6 ± 10%
from left: Red-Blue-Gold-Silver?

6.) As the capacitor plate area decreases, all things The capacitance decreases
being equal.

7.) The power in the reactance is: Imaginary Power

8.) What kind of instrument an ammeter is? Indicating Instrument

9.) As the deflection of the moving system Increases

increases, the controlling torque in an indicating
instrument

10.) Which is the best type of meter movement? D' Arsonval

11.) Which dynamometer type has uniform scale? Wattmeter

12.) When both deflecting and controlling torque Rest

act, the pointer of an indicating instrument comes
to

13.) Which of the following describes the speed of It is inversely proportional to flux per pole
a DC motor?

14.) What drives low-speed alternators? Hydraulic Turbines

15.) What drives high-speed alternators? Steam Turbines

16.) The common 9-V flat battery for transistor Six
radio has how many cells connected in series?

17.) For the same rating, the size of low-speed More than
alternator is ______ that of high-speed alternator.

18.) Which of the following is NOT a secondary Silver Oxide

cell?

19.) Which of the following is NOT at primary cell? Edison Cell

20.) The brush voltage drop in a DC machine is 2 Volts

about how much?

21.) Why carbon brushes are used in a DC Because carbon lubricates and polishes the
machine? commutator

22.) What are considered as the main types of Carbon-zinc, dry cell, and lead-sulfuric wet cell
battery?

23.) Which of the following is the main function of To change electrical energy to mechanical energy
a DC motor?

24.) Which motor has the best speed regulation? Shunt

25.) The output voltage of a thermocouple Increases with temperature

26.) An instrument in which the magnitude of the Analog Instrument

measured quantity is indicated by means of a
pointer.

27.) If the pointer of an indicating instrument is in Damping and controlling torques

motion, then what opposes deflecting torque?

28.) How can electrical currents be induced with a By moving either the magnet of the coil.
coil and a magnet?

29.) When should a fuse be replaced with a higher Never

rated unit?

30.) Suppose a certain current in the Will increase

galvanometer causes the needle to deflect 20
degrees and the current is doubled. The needle
deflection:

31.) A thermocouple: Gets warm when the current flows through it.

32.) The meter movement in an illumination Current

meter measures

33.) The voltmeter should generally have Large internal resistance

34.) How many electrons are there in the fourth One

orbit of a copper atom?

35.) What is the maximum permissible number of 18

electrons in the third orbit?
36.) Varactor diodes are commonly used As a voltage controlled capacitance

37.) What is the reason why electrons are not Because of the centrifugal force or outward force
pulled into the nucleus of an atom? created by their orbital motion.

38.) The electrons in the largest orbit travel ____ More slowly
than the electrons in the smaller orbits.

39.) What transistor configuration has the lowest Common Base

current gain?

40.) What do you call a semiconductor in its purest Intrinsic Semiconductor

form?

41.) Valence orbit is the other term for Outer orbit

42.) For either germanium or silicon diodes, the 2 Mv

barrier potential decreases ___ for each Celsius
degree rise.

43.) When transistor is conducting as much as it In Saturation

possible can, it is said to be:

44.) The ripple frequency of the full-wave rectifier Twice that of the half-wave circuit
is

45.) It is a two-port transistor arrangement in Common-base

which the base shares a common point with the
input and output terminals.

46.) The principal advantage of the voltage Poor regulation

multiplier

47.) What type of secondary cell can be recharged Sealed rechargeable cell
but with an electrolyte that cannot be refilled?

48.) What is the nominal open-circuit voltage of 1.1 V

silver-cadmium which is a secondary cell?

49.) What is the most commonly used method of By varying field strength
speed control of a DC motor?

50.) Measured by the output impedance Zo (the Impedance Match

driving-point impedance looking into the output
port with the load removed)

51.) The bipolar transistor or JFET in the multi- A common-emitter or common source
vibrator is arrangement

52.) An oscillator might fail to start for any of the In-phase feedback
following reasons except

53.) A spectrum analyzer displays: Signal strength as the function of frequency

54.) Which of the digital IC is least susceptible to Transistor-transistor logic

noise?

55.) A CMOS integrated circuit Is susceptible to damage to static

56.) Which type of IC is used to determine whether A Comparator
voltage levels are the same or not?

57.) It is a thin polished slice of a semiconductor Wafer

crystal on which integrated circuit can be
fabricated often in duplicate, for cutting into
individual slice.

58.) The channel in a zero-biased JFET is normally All the way open

59.) What is a CMOS IC? A chip with p-channel (Pmos) and n-channel
(Nmos)

60.) Which of the following voltage could normally +4 V

represent a "1" in a positive logic?

61.) If X is low, what is the state of X AND Y? Low

62.) The advantage of J-K over R-S flipflop is that The J-K always has predictable output.

63.) A logic circuit has four inputs A, B, C, and D. 16

How many possible input combinations are there?

64.) In the tunnel diode, the tunneling current is at Minimum

what level when the forbidden gap of the N-type
material is at the same energy level as the empty
states of the P-type material?

65.) The SCR is primarily used for what function. Switching power on or off

66.) When an SCR is forward biased, what is A Gate Signal

needed to cause it to conduct?

67.) When used for AC current control, during During both alternations
which alternation of the AC cycle does the TRIAC
control current flow?

68.) What is a typical light-to-dark resistance ratio 1:1000

for a photocell?

69.) What is the resistance level of a photodiode Very High

in total darkness?

70.) The only way to stop an SCR that is conducting Reverse-bias triggering
is by

71.) For a UJT, the intrinsic standoff ratio is Always less than 1

72.) The PUT is Much like the UJT

73.) What do you call a group of cells that generate Battery

electric energy from their internal chemical
reaction?

74.) Which of the following is the main function of To provide a source of steady DC voltage of fixed
a battery? polarity
75.) What diode modeling circuit considers the Piecewise linear model
threshold voltage, average resistance and switch
as the diode's equivalent circuit?

76.) In which of the following a transformer will In AC only

work on?

77.) In a chemical cell, what is current? It is the movement of positive and negative ions

78.) What is the nominal output of an automotive 12 Volts

battery having six lead-acid cells in series?

79.) A device that reverses magnetic field polarity A commutator

to keep a DC motor rotating is

80.) If all the delta connected resistor are identical, R/3

what is the equivalent value of the resistor in WYE
connection?

81.) The superposition theorem is used when the A number of voltage sources
circuit contains _____.

82.) An AC circuit draws 5A current and consumes 0.91

1000 Watts of power. What is the power factor?

83.) What is a method of converting chemical Voltaic Cell

energy intro electrical energy by dissolving two
different conducting materials in an electrolyte?

84.) Why a commulatively compounded motor Because of the presence of shunt winding
does not run at dangerous speed at light loads?

85.) DC shunt motors are used in those Practically constant speed

applications where what is required?

86.) What cell is otherwise known as Galvanic Cell? Voltaic Cell

87.) What is the voltage regulation of an alternator Greater than

with a power factor of 0.8 lagging compared at
unity power factor?

88.) Which is the most suitable for punch presses? Commulatively compounded motor

89.) In a vacuum cleaner, what motor is generally Series

used?
1.) A ferromagnetic matter Concentrates magnetic flux lines within itself

2.) The rotating part of a dynamo, consisting An Armature Coil

essentially of copper wire wound around an iron
core is

3.) Represents magnetomotive-force Ampere-turn

4.) Alternating voltages and currents are Give comparison with DC

expressed in rms because

5.) The value that a circuit has attained after it has Transient Value
long been switched is called

6.) In an RLC series circuit, the circuit frequency is Xc > XL

below resonant frequency, then

7.) If all the delta connected resistor are identical 10 ohms

resistance of 30 ohms, what is the equivalent
value of the resistor in WYE connection?

8.) With permeability tuning, moving a core Increases the inductance

further into a solenoidal coil

9.) What is the value of resistor with color bands: R = 57 kilo ohms ± 10%
Green-Violet-Orange-Silver?

10.) As the capacitor plate area increases, all The capacitance increases
things being equal

11.) Measures the equivalent series resistance of ESR meter

capacitors

12.) To measure the power supply voltage being Is placed in parallel with the circuit that works
used by a circuit, a voltmeter from the supply

13.) It is used to display the phase of the colors in Spectrum analyzer

color TV

14.) The force between two electrically charge Electrostatic Force

objects is called

15.) The configuration most often used for The collector

matching a high input impedance to a low output
impedance puts signal group at:

16.) The junction FET, the control electrode is Gate

usually the

17.) In a P-channel JFET The majority carrier are holes

18.) A Zener diode would most likely to be used in A power supply regulator circuit
19.) In a PNP bipolar transistor The collector is negative relatively to the emitter

20.) An audio oscillator that uses two amplifiers in Multivibrator

cascade, with positive feedback from the output
of the second stage to the input of the first stage.
This is known as

21.) The oscillating frequency of the quartz crystal Placing a small variable capacitor across the crystal
can be varied slightly by:

22.) Negative feedback in an amplifier Reduces the gain

23.) ECL is high speed because The operating transistors being unsaturated

24.) The term used to describe a technique for Thin-film

depositing passive circuit elements on an
insulating substrate with coating to a thickness of
0.0001 centimeter.

25.) Chips that contain from 10 to about 100 gates Medium Scale Integration (MSI)
are called

26.) In a RAM: It's easy to get data out and put it in

27.) The data in volatile computer memory Vanishes if the power is remove

28.) A packet A piece of a file sent over a Net

29.) Common types of thyristors include Diacs and Triacs

30.) A 4-layer diode turns on when the anode to The forward-breakover voltage
cathode voltage exceeds

31.) The SCR differs from the 4-layer diode It has a gate terminal
because

32.) In the forward-blocking region, the SCR is In the OFF State

33.) In a phototransistor, the base current is Directly proportional to the light intensity

34.) A semiconductor device with four alternating Insulated-gate bipolar transistor (IGBT)
layers (P-N-P-N) that are controlled by a metal-
oxide-semiconductor (MOS) gate structure
without regenerative action.

35.) A three-terminal single PN junction device UJT

that exhibits a negative resistance characteristic

36.) In two-phase generators, the electrical 90 degrees

displacement between the two phases or
windings is ___ electrical degrees.

37.) In a transformer, two coils are wound around An alternating current source connecting to the
a common iron core. To operate properly the primary coil
transformer requires
38.) The basic requirement of a DC armature A closed one
winding is that it must be

39.) A wave winding must go at least ___ around Twice

the armature before it closes back where it
started.

40.) In DC generators, armature reaction is Load current in armature

produced actually by

41.) In a DC generator, the effect of armature Reduce it and Distort it

reaction on the main pole flux is to

42.) How many different ways can we implement Three

the inversion operation in a logic circuit?

43.) Why the AC system is preferred to DC system? Because AC voltage system can be easily changed

44.) The active and reactive components of line 0.707 leading

current of a capacitive circuit are equal. The power
factor is

45.) A high resistance is connected in series with A Voltmeter

the internal coil of a galvanometer to make

46.) Which device can be used to increase voltage Induction coil

from a source of direct current?

47.) To increase the brightness of a desk lamp, a Less resistance and draws more current
student replaces a 50 W light bulb with a 100 W
light bulb. Compared to the 60 W light bulb, the
100 W light bulb has?

48.) At series resonance Circuit power factor is unity

49.) Why is the resistance of a conductor different Because of skin effect

for RF current than for DC?

50.) The difference in energy between the valence Band gap

and the conduction band of a semiconductor is
called

51.) Overdriving can be considered a form of The output is not a faithful reproduction of the
distortion for which of the following reasons? input

52.) An intrinsic electronic semiconductor behave An insulator

as ____ at absolute temperature.

53.) Equivalent circuit model commonly used in Hybrid-Pi or Giacoletto

small signal analysis at high frequencies

54.) Another name for Esaki Diode Tunnel Diode

55.) A digital word consisting of only 4 bits is called Nibble

a
56.) Which of the LC oscillators makes use of a Armstrong
tuned transformer?

57.) FET is a unipolar device because Its conduction is due only to one type of charged
carrier.

1.) Power absorbed in a pure inductive circuit is Power factor of the circuit is zero
zero because

2.) In an AC circuit with inductive reactance, the Current through the inductance lags its induced
voltage by 90◦

3.) What is the characteristic of the current flow in The current circulating in the parallel elements is
a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? at a minimum

4.) Drain current in the constant-current region The gate-to-source bias voltage decreases
decreases when

5.) A universal gate is a NAND gate and NOR gate

6.) To prevent a DC return between source and Capacitor between source and load
load, it is necessary to use

7.) The only way to stop an SCR that is conducting Low-current dropout
is by

8.) Dynamic gates drive multiple-input static Leakage

CMOS gates are susceptible to
9.) An RLC series circuit is underdamped. To make Increased
it overdamped, the value of R has to be

10.) How is the efficiency of a power amplifier Efficiency = (RF power out / DC power in) x 100%
determined?

11.) For a UJT, the intrinsic standoff ratio is Always less than 1

12.) What factors determine the capacitance of a Area of the plates, distance between the plates,
capacitor? and the dielectric constant of the material
between the plates

13.) An IC constructed entirely on a single silicon Monolithic

chip.

14.) Two coils have their axes perpendicular to 0 (There is no mutual coupling when their axes are
each other. The coefficient of coupling k is perpendicular)

15.) When two parallel current-carrying wires Attract one another

have common in the same direction, the wires

16.) Which class of amplifier has the highest Class A

linearity and least distortion

17.) What type of linear regulator is used in A series regulator

applications requiring efficient utilization of the
primary power source?

18.) It is used to display the phase of the colors in Vectorscope

color TV

19.) What is the major advantage of a Pierce It doesn't require an LC tank circuit
oscillator?

20.) An oscillator might fail to start for any of the In-phase feedback
following reasons except

21.) What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel A negative resistance region

diode?

22.) What class amplifier is distinguished by the Class B

flow of the current in the output essentially 180-
degree pulses?

23.) The lower power factor of the circuit means Less line current
that it will

24.) What is the purpose of a multiplier resistor A multiplier resistor is not used with a voltmeter
used with a voltmeter?

25.) When negative current feedback is applied to Increases

an amplifier, its output impedance

26.) What is the characteristic of the current flow The current circulating in the parallel elements is
in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? at a maximum.
27.) The magnetism of ferromagnetic materials, Spin angular momentum
such as iron, has its origin in the intrinsic magnetic
moment of electrons that is associated with their

28.) Under what condition does resonance occur When inductive and capacitive reactances are
in an electrical circuit? equal

29.) A phase difference of 180 degrees in the ½ revolution

circular model represents

30.) What order of Q is required by a tank-circuit Approximately 12

sufficient to reduce harmonics to an acceptable
level?

31.) In an RLC series circuit, the circuit frequency Xc > XL

is below the resonant frequency, then

32.) Conventional flow assumes charges flow from Positive to Negative

33.) The features of CASCODE amplifier are: Large output impedance

34.) For a full-wave rectifier, the output frequency Equals to two times the input frequency

35.) How can a class-C amplifier be made linear? A class-C amplifier cannot be made linear

36.) In a two stage CE amplifier circuit, the AC Input impedance of second stage
collector resistance of the first stage depends on

37.) Electric field lines start At positive charges or at infinity

38.) In a circuit where the AC voltage and current By multiplying the apparent power times the
are out of phase, how can the true power be power factor
determined?

39.) A device that can characterize active devices Vector Network Analyzer
such as transistors and amplifiers using S-
parameters, as long as they are operating in their
linear mode of operation.

40.) A transistor has two P-N junctions. The Both junctions are forward biased, and the other
batteries should be connected such that is reverse biased

41.) A logic gate which produces an output which NAND

is false only if all its inputs are true.

42.) What happens to photoconductive material The conductivity of the material increases
when light shines on it?

43.) The junction FET, the control electrode is Gate

usually the:

44.) Three resistance of 15 ohms each are 5 ohms

connected in delta. The resistance of equivalent
star will have a value of

45.) The electric flux through a surface of a fixed Perpendicular to Electric Field
area is maximum when the surface is
46.) The ratio of W/VA in an AC circuit means Power Factor

47.) In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used A Low Level

to represent a logic 1?

48.) The PUT is Triggered on and off by the gate-to-anode voltage

49.) Inductive susceptance is Negative imaginary

50.) As the capacitor plate area increases, all thing The capacitance increases
being equal

51.) In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used A high level

to represent a logic 0?

52.) An ammeter shunt is useful because It allows for measurements of a wide range of
current

53.) Pulse width measurements on the 50% amplitude

oscilloscope are normally made at

54.) A small-signal amplifier Is always a common-emitter amplifier

55.) Assuming a power source to have a fixed The load impedance equals the internal
value of internal impedance, maximum power will impedance of the source
be transferred to the load when:

56.) Wave A=100 sin wt, and wave B = 100 cos wt RMS values of the two waves are equal

57.) In a p-channel FET, the charge carriers are Holes

58.) A simple pi-network with inductors on each High Pass Filter

leg and a capacitor in the center is a:

59.) The principal disadvantage of the voltage Poor regulation

multiplier

60.) The AC load line differs from the DC load line The effective AC collector resistance is less that
because the DC collector resistance.

61.) If the load impedance for the oscillator is too It's not cause for worry; it can't be too high
high:

62.) What is the term for the time it takes for a One time constant
charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to
36.8% of its initial value of stored charge?

63.) The oscillating frequency of the quartz crystal Placing a small variable capacitor across the crystal
can be varied slightly by:

64.) The state of clock JK flip-flop when Q=1, J=1, Toggle

and K=1 is

65.) If an electron moves from right to left across rom the bottom to the top of the page
this page and suddenly is subjected to a magnetic
field directed into the page, what is the direction
of the magnetic force on the electron?
66.) According to Lenz's Law, the induced emf It opposes either a rise of a fall in current
produced by a change in current in an inductive
circuit tends to have what effect on the current?

67.) An SCR differs from the 4-layer diode because It has a gate terminal

68.) What is the function of a decade counter Produce one output pulse for every ten input
digital IC? pulses.

69.) The meter movement in an illumination Current

meter measures.

1.) The βDC of a transistor is Current Gain

2.) When both inputs of R-S flip-flop are 0 The outputs stay as they are

3.) Movement of holes in a semiconductor Results in a certain amount of electric current

4.) The atomic weight of an element is The number of neutrons plus the number of
approximately determined by protons

5.) In some batteries, chemical energy can be Charging it

replenished by

6.) In positive-edge triggering, the change of state The pulse level is going from high to low
occurs

7.) Which of the following is (are) related to an The input and output signals are in phase, The
emitter-follower configuration? voltage gain is slightly less than 1, Output is drawn
from the emitter terminal

8.) If two waves have the same frequency and the Has a magnitude equal to the sum of the two
same phase, the composite wave originals

9.) A ferromagnetic material Concentrates magnetic flux lines within itself

10.) If there is an internal open between the drain VDD

and source in a CS amplifier, the drain voltage is
equal to

11.) The maximum voltage output from a voltage Is equal to the supply voltage
divider

12.) For the BJT to operate in the active (linear) Forward, Reverse
region, the base-emitter junction must be ___
biased and the base collector junction must be
____ biased.

13.) Good engineering practice usually requires From resistors that are all same
that a series-parallel resistive network be made

14.) A transistor can be protected from needless Current-limiting resistors

overheating by

15.) In a semiconductor crystal, the atoms are held The interaction of valence electrons, Forces of
together by attraction, Covalent bonds
16.) A volume control in a stereo compact-disc A logarithmic taper potentiometer
player would probably be

17.) Magnetic flux can always be attributed to Motion of charged particles

18.) A potentially lethal electric current is on the 0.1A or 100mA

order of

19.) Half-wave rectification means that Half of the AC wave is chopped off.

20.) Which of these can represent magnetomotive The ampere-turn

force?

21.) Biasing in an amplifier circuit Can be done using voltage dividers

22.) Which of the following units can represent The Gauss

magnetic flux density?

23.) An EMF of one volt Can sometimes produce a large current

24.) A trivalent impurity is added to silicon to A P-type semiconductor

create

25.) For operation of an amplifier, the base of an Positive with respect to the emitter
NPN transistor must be

26.) The voltage in a battery Is more than the voltage in a cell of the same kind

27.) The current in a semiconductor is produced by Both electrons and holes

28.) If R increases in an RC circuit, but the Get longer and rotate counterclockwise
capacitance and the frequency are nonzero and
constant, then the vector in the RC plane will

29.) A diode is in the ____-state if the current On

established by the applied sources is such that its
direction matches that of the arrow in the diode
symbol and Vo≥0.7V for Si and Vo≥0.3V for Ge.

30.) Susceptance and conductance add to form Admittance

31.) A resistor between the base of an NPN bipolar Provide proper bias
transistor and the positive supply voltage is used
to

32.) In which of the following FET amplifier types Class B

does drain current flow for 50% of the signal
cycle?

33.) What range of resistor values would you get 100Ω to a few kΩ, exceeding 100kΩ
when checking a transistor for forward and
reverse biased conditions by an ohmmeter?

34.) In a transformer, a center tap would probably The balanced winding

found in

35.) The nucleus of an atom is made up of Protons and neutrons

36.) In a step-up transformer The primary voltage is less than the secondary
voltage

37.) In general, the greater the absolute value of The less the flow of alternating current.
the impedance in the circuit

38.) A PN junction is formed by The boundary of a P-type and an N-type material

39.) The low frequency response of an amplifier is The coupling capacitors

determined in part by

40.) If the load resistance of a capacitor filtered Increases

full-wave rectifier is reduced, the ripple voltage

41.) As the size of the plates in a capacitor The value of Xc decreases negatively
increases, all other things being equal

42.) If you are checking a 60-Hz full wave bridge Then there is an open diode
rectifier and observe that the output has a 60Hz
ripple

43.) For the BJT to operate in the saturation Forward, Forward

region, the base-emitter junction must be ____-
biased and the base-collector junction must be
___-biased

44.) Each point in the RL plane Corresponds to a unique combination of

resistance and inductive reactance

45.) A material with a high dielectric constant Acts to increase capacitance per unit volume

46.) Power factor is equal to True power divided by the apparent power

47.) Recombination is when An electron falls into a hole

48.) An advantage of a rheostat over a A rheostat can handle more current

potentiometer is that

49.) The current from a solar panel is increased by Connecting solar cells in parallel

50.) Which of the following ratings is true? Si diodes have higher PIV and wider temperature
ranges than Ge diodes

51.) Figure shows a chopper feeding RLE load, the The thyristor is off
freewheeling diode conducts when

52.) Valence electrons are In the most distance orbit from the nucleus

53.) To forward-bias a diode An external voltage is applied that is positive at the

anode and negative at the cathode, An external
voltage is applied that is positive at p-region and
negative at the n-region

54.) Lines of magnetic flux are said to originate At a north pole

55.) What is (are) the function(s) of the coupling To create an open circuit for DC analysis, To isolate
capacitors, C1 and C2 in an FET circuit? the DC biasing arrangement from the applied
 signal and load, To create a short-circuit
equivalent for AC analysis.

56.) As the spacing between the plates in a The capacitance increases

capacitor is made smaller, all other things being
equal

57.) Which of the following is (are) true to achieve The effect of R1 and R2 must be considered as the
a good overall voltage gain for the circuit? product and evaluated individually

58.) The high-frequency response of an amplifier The internal transistor capacitances

is determined in part by

59.) A JFET always operates with The gate-to-source pn junction reverse-biased

60.) The internal resistance of the photodiode Decreases with light intensity when forward-
biased

61.) The transistor in a Class C amplifier conducts A very small percentage of the input cycle
for

62.) An OLED differs from a conventional LED in Has layers of organic material in the place of a pn
that is junction, Can be implemented using an inkjet
printing process

63.) A resistor has a value of 680 ohms, and you ¼ W

expect it will have to draw 1mA maximum
continuous current. What power rating is best for
this application?

64.) Which of the following amplifier types Class-A

produces the least distortion of the signal
waveform?

65.) Negative feedback in an amplifier Reduces the gain

66.) Which type of digital IC is least susceptible to Transistor-transistor logic

noise?

67.) Every known element has A unique type of atom

68.) An absolute limit on IC component density is The size of the semiconductor atoms

69.) If X=0 and Y=1, then X(Y+Z) is Always 0

70.) A positive ion is formed when There are more holes than electrons in the outer
orbit.

71.) An advantage of an electromagnet over a An electromagnet can be switched on and off

permanent magnet is that

72.) The magnetic flux around a straight, current- Is strongest near the wire
carrying wire

73.) By what other name(s) are the cutoff Corner Frequency, Break Frequency, Half-power
frequencies in a frequency response plot called? Frequency
74.) The difference between the insulator and a A wider energy gap between the valence band and
semiconductor is the conduction band, The number of free
electrons, The atomic structure

75.) The emitter current is always Greater than the base current, Greater than the
collector current

76.) Ideally, the equivalent circuit of a FET contains A current source between gate and source
terminals

77.) The atomic number of an element is The number of protons

determined by

78.) Good engineering practice usually requires From resistors that are all the same.
that a series-parallel resistive network be made

1.) What is the rms value of a square wave? Equals its peak value

2.) A device that reverses magnetic field polarity An armature coil

to keep a DC motor rotating is
3.) When two coils of identical reactance are in Twice
parallel without mutual inductance, the reactance
of the combination is ____ the reactance of each
coil.

4.) The rate of doing work is referred to as Power

5.) Which of the following dielectric materials Mica

makes the lowest-capacitance capacitor?

6.) For maximum peak-to-peak output voltage, the At the center of the AC load line
Q point should be

7.) How is the output of a differentiator related to The output of a differentiator is inversely
the input in an op-amp? proportional to the rate of change of the input.

8.) The power rating of a transistor can be Using a heat sink

increased by

9.) A CB amplifier has a very low input resistance A low emitter AC resistor re shunts all other
because resistances

10.) An alternative name for a DIAC is Bidirectional trigger diode

11.) A CMOS integrated circuit Susceptible to damage to static

12.) What is the main advantage of temporary A magnetic flux can be changed
magnets?

13.) In a RAM: It's easy to get data out and put it in

14.) A resistor wound with a wire doubled back on Bifilar resistor

itself to reduce the inductance

15.) The voltmeter should generally have Large internal resistance

16.) The symbol ICBO signifies the current that In the reverse direction to the collector junction
flows when some DC voltage is applied with the emitter open-circuited

17.) The superposition theorem is used when the A number of voltage source
circuit contains

18.) The primary cause on linear distortion in Unequal phase shift in component frequency
amplifier is

19.) A coulomb Is an extremely large number of charge carriers

20.) The area of capacitor plates increases two Increases two times
times, then the capacitance

21.) Convert 111101.011012 to octal 75.328

22.) Lower cut-off frequency of an amplifier is Capacitance of coupling and bypass capacitors
primarily determined by the

23.) A NOR gate is on only when all its inputs are Off
24.) The bandwidth of a class C amplifier Q inceases
decreases when the

25.) The force between two magnetic poles is ____ Directly proportional to
their pole strengths

26.) The quiescent collector current is the same as DC collector current

the

27.) When the movable plates of a gang capacitor Maximum

completely overlap the fixed plates, the
capacitance of the capacitor is

28.) In small inductance Energy is stored and released quickly

29.) For a UJT, the intrinsic standoff ratio is Always less than 1

30.) What component of dielectric current is Reactive current

proportional to the rate of accumulation of
electric changes within the dielectric?

31.) The circuit efficiency of a class A amplifier can Transformer-coupled load

be increased by using

32.) If the inductance is decreased, the impedance Decreases

of the circuit containing a resistor, a capacitor, and
an inductor connected in series to an AC source

33.) What is automatically compensated in a Inductive reactance

wattmeter?

34.) Transformer coupling is an example of AC coupling

35.) Plastic dual-in-line for insertion into sockets N and P

has a package suffix code of

36.) When current and voltage are in phase in an Reactance

AC circuit, the ____ is equal to zero

37.) A hot-wire ammeter Can measure AC as well as DC

38.) The field-effect transistor (FET) Depends on the variation of the depletion-layer
width reverse voltage for its operation

39.) The power gain of an amplifier Equals output power divided by an input power

40.) In a JFET, as external bias applied to the gate Pinch-off voltage is reached at lower values of ID
is increased

41.) An ideal amplifier has Noise factor of unity

42.) Push-pull is almost always used with Class B

43.) The transistor-terminal voltage is considered The terminal is more positive than the common
positive if terminal
44.) If all the delta connected resistor are identical, R/3
what is the equivalent value of the resistor in WYE
connection?

45.) The signal handling capacity of an amplifier is The operating point is selected near the biasing
high if region

46.) To measure power-supply voltage being used Is placed in parallel with the circuit that works
by a circuit, a voltmeter from the supply

47.) Which of the following will not cause a major A small change in the resistance to be measured
error in an ohmmeter?

48.) When the SCR is off, the current in the circuit Small leakage current
is

49.) One of the effects of negative feedback in Decrease the harmonic distortion
amplifier is to

50.) In an N-channel JFET, pincfoff occurs when Very negative

the gate bias is

51.) What is the temperature coefficient of Almost zero

resistance of Eureka?

52.) A DIAC has how many semiconductor layers? Three

53.) The UJT may be used as A Sawtooth Generator

54.) The first stage of a preamp is Small signal

55.) The rate of gain reduction in operational 20 db per decade (-20db/decade)

amplifiers

56.) Process of growing a thin layer of silicon Oxidation

dioxide over a semiconductor

57.) A normally operated SCT has an anode which Positive

is ____ with respect to cathode.

58.) In Boolean algebra, a high signal added to 10

another high signal is

59.) Transient period is considered over after 5τ

60.) What is the typical turn-on time of an SCR? 1μs

61.) The reason why alternating current can It has a varying magnetic field
induce voltage is

62.) An alternating current whose average value is Less heat than

1A will produce _____ 1A DC under similar
conditions

63.) In an AC circuit with XL and R in series, the Voltage across R lags the voltage across XL by 90°

64.) A 4-layer diode turns on when the anode to The forward-breakover voltage
cathode voltage exceeds
65.) Which of the following is the normal way to By appropriate gate current
turn on an SCR?

66.) The three terminals of a TRIAC are Two main terminals, and a gate terminal

67.) A multiplexer Has multiple inputs and a single output

68.) When two in-phase sine waves that have Twice

identical frequency and amplitude are added
together, then the result is a sine wave with ___
the amplitude of either.

69.) Pure metals generally have High conductivity and large temperature
coefficient

70.) A frequency synthesizer makes use of A divider

71.) Which device exhibits negative resistance UJT

region?

11.11 special super sale

The Thevenin resistance is equal in value to the Internal resistance of a Norton ckt

To get the Norton current, you have to Short the load resistor

The Norton current is sometimes called the Shorted load current

What is the resistance of a 100-ft length of copper 2.59 ohms

wire with a diameter of 0.020 in. at 20°C?

A ___ is like two parallel SCRs having a common Triacs

gate and connected opposite directions.

The change in the direction of a compass needle, Electromagnetic deflection

when the current-carrying wire is brought near, is

Which of the following can vary with AC, but on Frequency

DC?

A diode that can be used as a variable capacitance Varactor

As the number of turn in a coil increases, the Decrease to near zero

current in the coil will eventual:
Optocoupler is otherwise known as Optoisolator

The base-emitter voltage is usually Less than the base supply voltage

The voltage where avalanche occurs is called the Breakdown voltage

Process of growing a thin layer of silicon dioxide Oxidation

over a semiconductor

When a free electron recombines with a hole in Valence electron

the base region, the free electron becomes

Universal gate AND gate

Which of the following describes a p-type Neutral

semiconductor?

To measure power-supply voltage being used by a Is places in parallel with the circuit that works from
circuit, a voltmeter the supply

Holes are the minority carriers in which type of N-type

semiconductor?

The JFET circuit essentially never has A forward-biased P-N junction

What is the barrier potential of a silicon diode at 0.7 V

room temperature?

In a silicon diode the reverse current is usually Very small

In small inductance: Energy is stored and released slowly

An IC formed by interconnecting a number of Hybrid

individual chips or by a combination of film and
monolithic ICs.

Which of the following is approximately equal to 25 deg C

room temperature?

To produce a large forward current in a silicon 0.7

diode, the applied voltage must be greater than

Suppose a certain current in the galvanometer Will increase

causes the needle to deflect 20 degrees, and the
current is doubled. The needle deflection:

Diffusion of free electrons across the junction of Depletion layer

an unbiased diode produces

Most of the electrons in the base of an npn Have a long lifetime

transistor do not recombine because they

The value of a bypass capacitor should be chosen one-tenth or less the parallel resistance at the
so that its Xc value is lowest frequency to be bypassed

pure metals generally have high conductivity and large temperature coeff

the Thevenin voltage is the same as the Open-load voltage

If the base current is 100 mA and the current gain 3 A
is 30, the collector current is

The current gain of a transistor is the ratio of the Collector to base

A 2-kW generator will deliver approximately how 17 A

much current, reliably, at 117V?

Treating a connecting wire as a conductor with Ideal approximation

zero resistance is an example of the

Convert BA2.23C16 to binary. 101110100010.0010001111

A circuit breaker is rated at 15 A at 117 V. This 1.76

represent approximately how many kilowatts?

If the load resistance is 1kohm, a stiff current More than 100 kohm
source has a resistance of

An advantage of a toroid core over a solenoid core The toroid confines the magnetic flux
is

An ideal voltage source and an internal resistance Second approximation

is an example of the

The damping factor of an active filter determines The response characteristic

Which of the ff amplifier produce the most Class C

distortion?

The only way to stop an SCR that is conducting is Low current dropout
by

For a UJT, the intrinsic standoff ratio is Always less than 1

If X is low, what is the state of X AND Y? Low

The fact that only a few holes are in the base Lightly doped
region means the base is

What type of insulator is used in a MOSFET? Silicon oxide (SiO2)

The input of an R-S flip-flop are known as Set and reset

The date in volatile computer memory Vanishes if the power is removed

An RL circuit has an inductive of 88mH. The 78 deg

resistance is 95 ohms. What is the phase angle at
800 Hz?

A small collector current with zero base current is Collector diode

caused by the leakage current of the

Which of the ff cannot move? Holes

The cut-off frequency of a filter is the frequency at Reduced to 70.7% of its maximum
which the output voltage is
Most of the electrons that flow through the base Flow into collector
will

Diffusion of free electrons across the junction of Depletion layer

an unbiased diode produces

If you wanted to produce a p-type semiconductor, Acceptor

which of these would you use?
 Assumed lumabas

Radio transmission 800 KHz - vertical

CEPT 30 2PCM - 139.264

Less full - echo

Ideal reverberation - step and baud

Equiprobable 8bits - 256

Channel 7 offset by 10KHz - 175.24MHz

Radio spec - 8.254 MHz

Most appropriate - network

SCA subcarrier - 67

For computation of ideal reverberation time, which formula is applicable?

• Stephen and Bate

What is the dBSPL of an auditorium with contemporary music?

• 95-100 dB

Std. coax impedance of catv?

75ohms?

The alignment of the three color guns to a common point is known as

• Convergence

What us the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic super group?

• 312 to 552 kHz

Direct broadcast satellite based allocation

• 12.2 – 12.7 GHz for downlink and 17.3 – 17.8 GHz for uplink
Interfering - dummy

Channel 14-38 - 195.2

Dig to analog - equalizer

Electron emission - edison effect

Impedance most driver - 8 ohms

Reverberation - 0.3s

Attenuator - variable res.

Suppose the signal - 0.498

ISDN Basic - 64 kbps

Lightning - 30cm

Mathematical- J. fourier

SSB genre - crystal

Data line - DTE

Radio data - ARQ

Reduce - push-pull

Simple =OmegaL angle

Delta - 1 bit

Enhancer - excited

3color gun - convert

Super group d25 - 2652

10dB - front to back

Coax - 75 ohms

Auditorium - 95-100

Binary load modem - gray code

U600 - 2520 khz

Major parts of fiber optics: core, cladding, coating

DTE – a system that performs parallel-to-serial and serial-to-parallel conversion of a data link

A router interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical data link and network layers.

A gateway interconnects LAN that have totally different protocols and format.

A bridge that interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical and data link layers.

Echoplex – mode of transmission achieves less than full-duplex but more than half-duplex.

2520 kHz – bandwidth of U600 mastergroup.

The transmission range of cellular telephony is generally about 80 km.

In 1950, computers and terminals start communicating with each other over long distance.

The process of sending and receiving started as early as 1840.

Distortion enhances intelligibility when an exciter is added.

The mobile-to-base frequency assignment for GSM system is 890-915 MHz

20 Hz to 20 kHz – audio frequency range.

10 Hz to 20 kHz – bass frequency range.

5000 Hz to 10 kHz – high frequency range of audio signals.

65 is the dB SPL of a voice paging in an office.

95-100 is the dB SPL of an auditorium with contemporary music.

80-85 is the church dB SPL with speech reinforcement only.

80-84 kHz is the output frequency at the channel combiner of channel 7.

Shanon-Hartley theorem sets the limit on the maximum capacity if a channel with a given noise level.

For computation of ideal reverberation time, Stephen and Bate is applicable.

When the average absorption is greater than 0.2, Norris-Eyring formula is used to compute the actual reverberation
time.

The highest frequencies are found in x-rays.

Blue – light of which has the shortest wavelength

An acoustic modem converts a computer digital signal into audio tones.

Digital to analog converter in synchronous modems send signals to the equalizer.

Session layer determines if the user can send or receive based on whether they can send and receive simultaneously
or alternately.
2 lines carry 96 channels.

A supergroup has 60 channels

ISO adapted the seven-layer OSI model in 1983

Message switching – a store and forward switching

Binary codes are transformed in modem into Gray code.

The best type of data communications test equipment is a protocol analyzer.

The data rate of the ISDN Basic access B channel is 64 kbps

The data rate of the ISDN Basic access D channel is 16 kbps

Baudot code uses 5 bits per symbol (EBCIDIC - 8; ASCII - 7)

Intelligent terminal can be programmed to perform new functions.

EBCDIC character code is used without parity bit.

Modem is used when the host computer and the terminal are in separate locations.

Front end processor is a data communications hardware that assists the host computer in handling input and output
tasks.

Transmission of binary signals requires more bandwidth than analog.

The modulation rate of the CCITT V.26 modem is 1200 baud

The input to the Digital-to-Analog Converter of a PCM decoder circuit is a series of bits

The output of the DAC at a PCM decoder circuit is a parallel output of binary-coded digits

Delta modulation is a 1-bit differential PCM system

Delta modulation – alternative way of digitizing analog signals.

E region is most ionized at midday

In testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, dummy type of antenna must be used

Lightning rods must be mounted a top structure not less than 30 cm above the highest point

You can increase the gain of an antenna by focusing the radiated energy in one desired direction

Front to back ratio – comparing the signal strength arriving at the driven element from the desired direction to the
signal strength reaching the driver from the opposite direction

Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of 50 ohms resistive

Limiter – a particular circuit that rids FM of noise

Information theory was developed by Shannon

Bit is the smallest unit of information in binary transmission system.

Null modem – a device that connects 2 data terminal equipment (DTE) directly by emulating the physical connections
of a data communications equipment (DCE)

Common channel signaling – a signaling method relating to a multiplicity of circuits is conveyed over a single channel
by labeled messages.

A packet format has an error detecting code at the end of packet framing

Message switching is store and forward network

Packet switching is hold and forward network

Buffer – region of a physical memory storage used to temporarily store data while it is being moved from one place
to another.

RS232C interface had 25 numbers of pin

Broadband is the technique of using modulation and FDM to transmit multiple data channels of a common medium

Gaussian or White or Thermal Noise – noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal energy per cycle
over a specified total frequency band

Shannon-Hartley theorem sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level.

White noise is measured on a circuit when it is correctly terminated but does not have any traffic

Atmospheric noise is produced by lightning discharge in thunderstorms

800 Hz is the reference frequency of CCITT phosphometric noise measurement

Atmospheric noise becomes less severe at frequencies above 30 MHz

Noise can be reduced by narrowing the bandwidth

The twists in twisted wire pairs reduced electromagnetic interference

The characteristic impedance of a transmission does not depend upon its length

If K-factor is greater then 1, the array beam is bent towards the earth

The antenna separations (in meters) required for optimum operation of a space diversity system can be calculated
from S = 3λR / L

An AM transmitter antenna current is measured with no modulation and found to be 2.6 A. With modulation the
current rises to 2.9 A. The percentage of modulation is 70%

Tunnel diode does not ordinarily operate with reverse bias

Low-power Gunn diodes are replacing reflex klystrons

In a klystron amplifier, velocity modulation of the electron beam is produced by the catcher cavity

A reflex klystron is used as an oscillator

300 to 3400 Hz is the “standard” frequency bandwidth for voice transmission

Green wire is used to transmit the signal

For channel 1, transmit/receive frequency is 825.015-870.015 MHz.

Null is a very low signal strength in antenna

The carrier frequency of the supergroup D25 is 2652 kHz

So called “1/f” noise is also called pink noise

Statistical TDM is also known as asynchronous TDM

Fourier analysis indicate that a square wave can be represented as a fundamental sine wave and odd harmonics

Noise figure is a measure of how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal

The typical voltage needed to “ring” a telephone is 90 volts, 20 hertz AC

Pre-emphasis is used to increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies.

The Shannon Limit is given by C = B log2(1 + S/N)

Phone traffic is measured in erlangs

When is the ionosphere most ionized? Midday

Direct broadcast satellite based allocation: 12.2-12.7 GHz for downlink and 17.3-17.8 GHz for uplink

What is the polarization of a discone antenna? Vertical

What is the sound pressure level (SPL) of a sound having a RMS pressure of 200 N/m2? 140 dB

What is the intensity of the sound whose RMS pressure is 200 N/m2? 97.9 W/m2

Three basic parts of optical fiber: core, cladding, coating

Pulse dialing has 10 pulses/sec rate

 EST-1Q2019V2

1. When a quarter-wave section transmission line is terminated by a short circuit and is connected to an RF source at
the other end, its input impedance is
a. inductive
b. capacitive
c. resistive
d. equivalent to a parallel resonant LC circuit

2. The velocity factor for a transmission line

a. depends on the dielectric constant of the material used

b. increases the velocity along the transmission line
c. is governed by the skin effect
d. is higher for a solid dielectric than for air

3. Transmission lines when connected to antennas have

a. capacitive load
b. resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic impedance of the line
c. resistive load whose resistance is less than the characteristic impedance of the line
d. resistive load at the resonant frequency

4. One (1) Erlang is equal to _______.

a. 360 CCS
b. 36 CCS
c. 3.6 CCS
d. 100 CCS

5. The standard analog telephone channel bandwidth.

a. 300-3400 Hz
b. 1200 Hz
c. 200-3200 Hz
d. 300-3000 Hz

6. The amount of uncertainty in a system of symbols is also called

a. bandwidth
b. loss
c. entropy
d. quantum

7. What is the expected critical frequency for a 120 mm thick brick wall? Assume a longitudinal wave velocity in brick
of 2350 m/s and that the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s.

a. 114.5 Hz
b. 214.5 Hz
c. 314.5 Hz
d. 414.5 Hz
8. What is the sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit time?

a. Loudness
b. Coherence
c. Sound pressure
d. Sound intensity

9. What is the dB SPL of an auditorium with contemporary music?

a. 80-95
b. 85-90
c. 95-100
d. 100-105

10. Distortion enhances intelligibly when an ________ is added.

a. Equalizer
b. Igniter
c. Exciter
d. Emulsifier

11. When the average absorption is greater than 0.2, __________ formula is used to compute the actual
reverberation time.

a. Sabine
b. Stephen and Bate
c. Norris-Eyring
d. Notch

12. For computation of ideal reverberation time, which formula is applicable?

a. Sabine
b. Stephen and Bate
c. Norris-Eyring
d. Notch

13. What is the sound intensity for an RMS pressure of 200 Pascal?

A. 90 W/m^2
B. 98 W/m^2
C. 108 W/m^2
D. 88 W/m^2

14. Calculate the reverberation time of the room, which has a volume of 8700 ft^3 and total sound absorption 140
sabins.

A. 0.3 sec
B. 3.5 sec
C. 3 sec
D. 0.53 sec
15. A loudspeaker radiates an acoustic power of 1 mW if the electrical input is 10 W. What is its rated efficiency?

A. -10 dB
B. -20 dB
C. -30 Db
D. -40 dB

16. The impedance of most drivers is about __________ ohms at their resonant frequency.

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10

17. The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses

a. LC networks
b. mechanical resonators
c. crystals
d. RC networks and op-amps

18. The frequency of an SCA channel subcarrier is _______.

a. 38 kHz
b. 15 kHz
c. 67 kHz
d. 53 kHz

19. What theorem sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level?

A. Nyquist theorem
B. Hartley law
C. Shannon-Hartley theorem
D. Shannon theorem

20. If the current ratios of the two or more elements must be held 5% and the phase angle to 3° the antenna is called
a

A. end fire array

B. critical phased array
C. broadband array
D. wideband array

21. In testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type of antenna must be used?

A. Void antenna
B. Dummy antenna
C. Hertzian antenna
D. Isotropic antenna
22. Top loading is used in an antenna in order to increase its ______.

A. practical height
B. beamwidth
C. effective height
D. input capacitance

23. What determines antenna polarization?

A. The frequency of the radiated wave

B. The direction of the radiated wave
C. The direction of the magnetic field vector
D. The direction of the electric field vector

24. How will you increase the gain of an antenna?

A. By adding several antennas in parallel

B. By focusing the radiated energy in one desired direction
C. By making antenna rods thicker
D. By making the antenna size larger

25. What is the front-to-back ratio of an antenna which radiates 500 watts in a northernly direction and 50 watts in a
southernly direction?

A. 25000 dB
B. 10 dB
C. 100 dB
D. 20 dB

26. A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates the strongest signal

A. at 45 degrees to its axis

B. parallel to its axis
C. at right angles to its axis
D. at 60 degrees to its axis

27. What is the gain, in dB of a helical antenna with diameter of λ/3, 10 turns at pitch of λ/4, used at 100 MHz?

A. 16
B. 41.1
C. 31.4
D. 1.25

28. The physical length of a Hertz dipole resonant at a 100 MHz is

a. 9.84 ft
b. 4.92 ft
c. 4.68 ft
d. 2.46 ft
29. A special type of transmission line that consist of conducting metallic tube through which high frequency
electromagnetic energy is propagated

a. medium
b. microstrip
c. stripline
d. waveguide

30. What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as horizontally polarized?

A. The electric field is parallel to the earth.

B. The magnetic field is parallel to the earth.
C. Both the electric and magnetic fields are horizontal
D. Both the electric and magnetic fields are vertical

31. Most AM broadcasts employ ___ polarization while most FM broadcasts employ ___ polarization of the radio
wave.

A. vertical, vertical
B. vertical, horizontal
C. horizontal, vertical
D. horizontal, horizontal

32. Calculate the reverberation time of a living room 8 ft high, 13 ft wide and 20 ft long. The total absorption of the
building structure inside the room is 180.7 sabines with four persons present in the room.

A. 0.5 ms
B. 0.05 s
C. 0.5 s
D. 5 ms

33. What phenomenon causes the radio-path horizon distance to exceed the geometric horizon?

A. Diffraction
B. Ducting
C. Reflection
D. Refraction

34. A transmitted signal 5 meters in wavelength is received by an antenna coil having a 50-Ω resistance and a 0.01 H
inductance. What is the capacitance of the tuner shunting the antenna coil at this point?

A. 0.704 fF
B. 0.704 μF
C. 0.704 nF
D. 0.704 mF

35. What is the highest frequency that can be sent straight upward and be returned to earth?

A. MUF
B. Gyro frequency
C. Skip frequency
D. Critical frequency
36. What is known as the alignment of the three color guns to a common point?

A. Confetti
B. Divergence
C. Convergence
D. Synchronization

37. A dielectric waveguide for the propagation of electromagnetic energy at light frequencies

a. Stripline
b. Microstrip
c. Laser beam
d. Fiber optics

38. Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes the interface at an angle with what relationship to the
critical angle?

a. Less than
b. Greater than
c. Equal to
d. Zero

39. The operation of the fiber-optic cable is based on the principle of

a. Refraction
b. Reflection
c. Dispersion
d. Absorption

40. The time from the transmission of a radar pulse to its reception is 0.12 ms. The distance to the target is how
many nautical miles?

A. 4.85 nmi
B. 9.7 nmi
C. 11.2 nmi
D. 18.4 nmi

41. Calculate the lowest resonant frequency for a brick partition 120 mm thick, 4m by 2min area with longitudinal
wave velocity of 2350 m/s. (Assume that it is supported at its edges.)

a. 10 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 30 Hz
d. 40 Hz

42. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. Find the absorption effect of the
materials used in metric sabines.

a. 35.3
b. 10.96
c. 379.8
d. 109.6
43. What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the pressure is doubled?

a. 2 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 6 dB
d. 4 dB

44. What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the intensity is doubled?

a. 2 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 4 dB
d. 6 dB

45. An underwater swimmer shines a flash light beam upward at an angle of incidence of 40
degrees. The angle of refraction is 60 degrees. The index of refraction of water is

a. 0.67
b. 1.3
c. 0.74
d. 1.5

46. A system that performs parallel-to-serial and serial-to-parallel conversion of data link.

A. DCE
B. DTE
C. Modem
D. PC

47. The line control unit (LCU) operates on the data digital form.

A. Data communications equipment (DCE)

B. UART
C. Modem
D. Data terminal equipment (DTE)

48. A seven-bit character can represent one of _________ possibilities.

A. 14
B. 64
C. 128
D. 7

49. A _________ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical and data link layers.

A. All of these
B. bridge
C. router
D. Gateway
50. When was the UHF channel (14-83) of television were added?

A. 1852
B. 1904
C. 1947
D. 1952

51. How much does the radiated power of an antenna increases if its current increased by 3.3 times?

A. 6.6 times
B. 3.3 times
C. 10.89 times
D. 9.9 times

52. The tendency of the sound energy to spread.

A. Rarefaction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffraction

53. Type of PCM which is designed to take advantage of the sample-to-sample redundancies in the typical speech
waveform

a. Single – bit PCM code

b. Pulse Code Modulation
c. Differential PCM
d. Delta modulation

54. It is a numerical indication of how efficiently a PCM code is utilized

a. Coding efficiency
b. Companding
c. Pre-emphasis
d. Dynamic Range

55. It is the process of compressing and expanding and is a means of improving the dynamic range of
communications system.

a. Pre-emphasis
b. Filtering
c. De-emphasis
d. Companding

56. The supergroup pilot is

a. applied to each multiplexing bay

b. used to regulate the gain of individual repeaters
c. applied at each adjustable equalizer
d. fed in at a GTE
57. Type of PCM that uses single-bit PCM code 62. Lightning rods must be mounted a top
to achieve digital transmission of analog structure not less than ___ above the highest
signals point.

a. Adaptive delta modulation A. 10 cm

b. Pulse code modulation B. 20 m
c. Differential modulation C. 30 cm
d. Delta modulation D. 40 cm

58. A magnetic field is used in the cavity 63. What is the data rate of the ISDN Basic
magnetron to access B channel?

a. Prevent anode current in the absence of A. 192 kbps

oscillations B. 32 kbps
b. Ensure that the oscillations are pulsed C. 64 kbps
c. Help in focusing the electron beam, thus D. 144 kbps
preventing spreading
d. Ensure that the electrons will orbit around 64. The transformer signal coding method for
the cathode T1 carrier is

59. A microwave tube amplifier uses an axial A. Binary

magnetic field and a radial electric field. This is B. NRZ
the C. Manchester
D. Bipolar
a. reflex klystron
b. coaxial magnetron 65. Which of the following fall under the high
c. traveling-wave magnetron frequency band of the radio spectrum?
d. CFA
A. 8.2345 MHz
60. Waveguides are used mainly for microwave B. 150.50 MHz
signals because C. 2.4555 MHz
D. 35.535 MHz
a. they depend on straight-line propagation
which applies to microwaves only 66. The critical frequency at a particular time is
b. losses would be too heavy at lower 11.6MHz. What is the MUF for a transmitting
frequencies station if the required angle of incidence for
c. there are no generators powerful enough to propagation to a desired destination is 70
excite them at lower frequencies degrees?
d. they would be too bulky at lower
frequencies a. 34 MHz
b. 45 MHz
61. What is the loudness level of a 1KHz tone if c. 40 MHz
its intensity is 1 x 10-5W/cm2? d. 15.5 MHz

A. 100 phons
B. 105 phons
C. 110 phons
D. 100 phons
67. Binary codes are sometimes transformed in 73. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a
modems into telephone is:

a. Hexadecimal a. 48 volts DC
b. Huffman codes b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC
c. Gray code c. 90 volts DC
d. Complementary codes d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC

68. He is credited with inventing PCM in 1937 74. Identical telephone numbers in different
parts of the country are distinguished by their
a. N. S. Kapany
b. A. H. Reeves a. Access codes
c. E. H. Alpine b. Country codes
d. A. C. S. Van Heel c. Trunk prefixes
d. Area codes
69. What type of mastergroup that can be
further multiplexed and used for higher- 75. Pulse dialing has _____ rate
capacity microwave radio systems?
a. 20 pulses/min
A. A600 b. 10 pulses/min
B. U600 c. 10 pulses/sec
C. L600 d. 80 pulses/sec
D. L400
76. In the telecommunications industry, the
70. International broadcasting (short wave) most commonly used fiber(s) are
uses frequency between _____ accordance
with international agreements a. 50 micron
b. 62.5 micron
a. 7012 and 26100 kHz c. 50 and 62.5 micron
b. 6409 and 26100 kHz d. 125 micron
c. 5950 and 26100 kHz
d. 10950 and 26100 kHz 77. Indicate the false statement. In order to
combat noise,
71. Direct broadcast satellite based allocation
a. the channel bandwidth may be increased
a. 12.2 – 12.7 GHz downlink b. redundancy may be used
b. 17.3 – 17.8 GHz for uplink c. the transmitted power may be increased
c. 3.7 – 4.2 GHz for downlink d. the signaling rate may be reduced
d. 12.2 – 12.7 GHz for downlink and 17.3 –
17.8 GHz for uplink 78. Telephone traffic is measured

72. Coaxial cable for distribution system has an a. with echo cancellers
impedance of b. by the relative congestion
c. in terms of the grade of service
a. 50 ohms d. in erlangs
b. 75 ohms
c. 150 ohms
d. 300 ohms
79. Short-circuited stubs are preferred to 84. Under which conditions does an initially
open-circuited stubs because the latter are relaxed system become unstable ?

a. more difficult to make an connect (A) only if bounded input generates

b. made of a transmission line with a different unbounded output
characteristic impedance (B) only if bounded input generates bounded
c. liable to radiate output
d. incapable of giving a full range of reactances (C) only if unbounded input generates
unbounded output
80. In MSK, the difference between the (D) only if unbounded input generates bounded
higher and lower frequency is output

85. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is:

a. Same as the bit rate
b. Half of the bit rate
A. I = kTB
c. Twice of the bit rate B. C = 2Blog2M
d. Four time the bit rate C. C = Blog2(1 + S/N)
D. FS = 2FMAX
81. Indicate the false statement. Fourier
analysis shows that a sawtooth wave consist of 86. Hartley’s Law is:

a. fundamental and subharmonic sine waves A. I = kTB

b. a fundamental sine wave and an infinite B. C = 2Blog2M
number of harmonics C. C = Blog2(1 + S/N)
c. fundamental and harmonic sine waves D. FS = 2FMAX
whose amplitude decreases with the harmonic
number 87. The Shannon-Limit theorem is:
d. sinusoidal voltages, some of which are small
enough to ignore in practice A. I = kTB
B. C = 2Blog2M
82. Damped sinusoids are _____ C. C = Blog2(1 + S/N)
D. FS = 2FMAX
(A) sinusoid signals multiplied by growing
exponentials 88. What is the exact picture carrier frequency
(B) sinusoid signals divided by growing for frequency for channel 7 offset by – 10 KHz?
exponentials
(C) sinusoid signals multiplied by decaying A. 175.25 MHz
exponentials B. 175.26 MHZ
(D) sinusoid signals divided by decaying C. 174 MHz
exponentials D. 175.24 MHz

83. A system is said to be shift invariant only

if______ 89. The bandwidth of U600 mastergroup is
2520 kHz
(A) a shift in the input signal also results in the
corresponding shift in the output
90. The line data rate (in Mbps) for level 4 of
(B) a shift in the input signal does not exhibit
CEPT 30 + 2 PCM multiplex hierarchy is 139.264
the corresponding shift in the output
(C) a shifting level does not vary in an input as
well as output
(D) shifting at input does not affect the output
91. The baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup is 312 to 552 kHz

92. Network layer determines which network configuration is most appropriate

93. Alex Reeves – inventor of pulse-code modulation for the digital encoding of the speech signals

94. The carrier frequency of the supergroup D25 is 2652 kHz

95. ARQ – error control used in high frequency radio data transmission

96. Echoplex mode of transmission achieves less than full-duplex but more than half-duplex

97. Digital to analog converter in synchronous modems send signals to the equalizer

98. The data rate of the ISDN Basic access B channel is 64 kbps

99. The input to the Digital-to-Analog Converter of a PCM decoder circuit is a series of bits

1. The mobile-to-base frequency assignment for GSM system is

- 890-915 MHz

2. The output at the channel combiner of channel 7 is

- 80-84 kHz

3. The highest frequencies are found in

- X-rays

4. Fourier analysis indicate that a square wave can be represented as

- A fundamental sine wave and odd harmonics

5. Pre-emphasis is used to:

- Increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies

6. Three basic parts of optical fiber

- Core, cladding, coating

7. The transmission range of cellular telephony is generally about

- 80 km

8. In ___, computers an terminals start communicating with each other over long distance
- 1950

9. Is the dB SPL of a voice paging in an office

- 65

10. Is the church dB SPL with speech reinforcement only

- 80-85

11. An acoustic modem converts a computer digital signal into

- Audio tones

12. 2 lines carry

- 96 channels
13. ISO adapted the seven-layer OSI model in
- 1983

14. A super group has

- 60 channels

15. The best type of data communications test equipment is a

- Protocol analyzer

16. Can be programmed to perform new functions

- Intelligent terminal

17. Transmission of binary signals

- Requires more bandwidth than analog

18. E region is most ionized at

- Midday

19. A particular that rids FM of noise

- Limiter

20. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of

- 50 ohms resistive

21. Region of a physical memory storage used to temporarily store data while it is being moved from one place to another
- Buffer

22. Is the technique of using modulation and FDM to transmit multiple data channels of a common medium
- Broadband

23. Noise from a random acoustic or electric noise that has equal energy per cycle over a specified total frequency band
- Gaussian or White or Thermal Noise
24. Is the frequency of CCITT phosphometric noise measurement
- 800 Hz

25. The twists in twisted wire pairs

- Reduce electromagnetic interference

26. The antenna separations (in meters) required for optimum operation of a space diversity system can be calculated from:
- S =3(lambda)R/L

27. For channel 1, transmit/receive frequency is

- 825.015-870.015 MHz

28. Very low signal strength in Antenna

- Null

29. Statistical TDM is also known as

- Asynchronous TDM

30. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is:

- Half the carrier power

31. When the is the ionosphere most ionized?

- Midday

32. What is the polarization of a discone antenna?

- Vertical

33. What us the sound pressure level (SPL) of a sound having a RMS pressure of 200N/m2?
- 140 dB

EST-OT-REVISED-WITH-ANSWERS

1. In a digital transmission, signal degradation can be improved using

A. Filter
B. Amplifier
C. Regenerative repeater
D. All of the above
2. Quantizing noise (quantization noise)

A. decreases as the bits per sample decreases

B. decreases as the bits per sample increases
C. decreases as the sample rate decreases
D. decreases as the sample rate increases

3. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is:

A. 1.544 Mbps
B. 64 kbps
C. 56 kbps
D. 8kbps

4. The Nyquist rate can be expressed in:

A. C = Blog2(1+S/N)
B. C = 2Blog2(M)
C. I = ktB
D. fS = 2fMAX

5. The immediate result of sampling is:

A. PCM
B. PAM
C. PWM
D. PPM

6. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitalize an analog signal with frequency
components ranging from 300 Hz to 3300 Hz?

A. 600 samples/sec
B. 3300 samples/sec
C. 6600 samples/sec
D. 6000 samples/sec

7. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 Hz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 15?

A. 16 kbps
B. 32 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. None of the choices

8. Use Hartley’s Law to find how much time it would take to send 100,000 bits over a channel with a bandwidth of
2,000 Hz and a channel constant of k = 10.

A. 0.5 secs
B. 500 secs
C. 5 secs
D. None of the choices

9. These are the bits added to a digital signal to help the receiver detect the beginning and end of data frames.
A. Synchronization bits
B. Framing bits
C. Bit Padding
D. Parity

10. A series of pulses in which the amplitude of the information signal at a given time is coded as a binary number.

A. PAM
B. PSK
C. PPM
D. PCM

11. Speed at which data is transmitted in a digital communication system.

A. Bit Rate
B. Baud Rate
C. Transmission Rate
D. Symbol Rate

12. Digital modulation scheme that represents a bit pattern by a change in phase from the previous state.

A. QAM
B. PSK
C. Phase Modulation
D. PPM
13. The telephone local loop that combines analog telephone service with data communications

A. HDSL
B. SHDSL
C. ADSL
D. VDSL

14. Codec stands for

A. Compress-Decompress
B. Coder-Decoder
C. Coded Carrier
D. Control-Decode

15. Distortion created by using too low sampling rate when coding an analog signal for digital transmission

A. Aliasing
B. Overload Distortion
C. Sampling Error
D. Quantization Error

16. For a resolution of 0.04 V, determine the voltage for a linear 7 bit sign-magnitude PCM code as 0000011.

A. +0.04V
B. -0.04V
C. +0.12V
D. -0.12V

17. Most common compression value for μ-law

A. 87.6
B. 100
C. 255
D. 300

18. The number of levels required in a PCM system whose SNR is 40 dB

A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256

19. The DC component problem is handled in AM through ______

A. Transition at the beginning of each bit interval

B. Transition at the middle of each bit interval
C. Alternate positive and negative amplitude for the 1 bits
D. Alternative positive and negative amplitude for the 0 bits

20. Bipolar violation

A. Represents a zero bit followed by one bit

B. Occurs when two successive pulses have the same polarity and are separated by a zero level C. Occurs when two
successive pulses have the same polarity and are separated by one level
D. Represents as one bit followed by a zero bit

21. How many voice channels are supported in an E-1 line?

A. 24
B. 30
C. 60
D. 300

22. Which of the following uses modulo-11 in implementation

A. CRC
B. LRC
C. ISBN-10
D. ISBN-13

23. Statistical TDM is also known as

A. Asynchronous TDM
B. Synchronous TDM
C. Isochronous TDM
D. Multilayer TDM

24. Bandwidth efficiency for 16 QAM with a rate of 10 Mbps

A. 1 bit/cycle
B. 2 bits/cycle
C. 3 bits/cycle
D. 4 bits/cycle

25. Determine the minimum bandwidth for 16-QAM modulator with an input bit rate of 20 Mbps

A. 5 MHz
B. 10 MHz
C. 15 MHz
D. 20 MHz

26. What is the value of net susceptance at resonance?

A. Equal to one
B. Equal to zero
C. Equal to 1/R
D. Is greater than 1

27. What is the voltage gain in dB at the break frequency?

A. 0 dB
B. -3 dB
C. 1 dB
D. 0.707 dB

28. It is the continued exchange of energy in an AC circuit that produces a damped sine wave at the resonant
frequency

A. Skin Effect
B. Damping Effect
C. Capture Effect
D. Flywheel Effect

29. A parallel LC circuit has the following values: L = 100 μH and C = 67 pF, and a Q = 150. What is the
bandwidth?

A. 1.94 MHz
B. 12.96 kHz
C. 13.16 kHz
D. 1.5 MHz

30. What is the difference in phase of the source voltage and the line current at resonance?

A. +90 degrees
B. -90 degrees
C. 0 degrees
D. 180 degrees

31. What is the range of Intermediate frequencies used in AM receivers?

A. 535 kHz – 1605 kHz
B. 54 MHz – 216 MHz
C. 88 MHz – 108 MHz
D. 450 kHz – 460 kHz

32. Frequencies that are generally referred to as light

A. Ultraviolet
B. Visible Light
C. Infrared
D. Optics

33. Determine the noise current for a diode with a forward bias current of 1 mA and over a 100-kHz bandwidth.

A. 2.4 mA
B. 5.6 nA
C. 11.8 nA
D. None of the choices

34. All kinds of two-way radio communication take place in this frequency band.

A. MF
B. UHF
C. VHF
D. HF

35. Determine the wavelength of a signal whose frequency is 500 MHz.

A. 0.6 m
B. 0.7 m
C. 0.8 m
D. 0.9 m

36. Both FM and PM are types of what kind of modulation?

A. Pulse Modulation
B. Digital Modulation
C. Angle Modulation
D. Amplitude Modulation

37. What is the approximate frequency of the modulating signal having a bandwidth (using Carson’s rule) of 15 kHz
and a frequency deviation of 6 kHz.

A. 1.5 kHz
B. 7.5 kHz
C. 9 kHz
D. 3 kHz

38. The primary disadvantage of FM is

A. Noise immunity
B. Simple circuitry
C. Excessive use of spectrum space
D. Frequency instability

39. A 100 MHz carrier is deviated 50 kHz by a 4 kHz signal. The modulation index is

A. 2
B. 12.5
C. 25
D. 50

40. What is the amount of carrier swing necessary to produce an 80% modulation for FM broadcasting?

A. 180 kHz
B. 120 kHz
C. 240 kHz
D. 60 kHz

41. A modulator circuit performs what mathematical operation on its two inputs?

A. Addition
B. Multiplication
C. Division
D. Subtraction

42. In the designation of bandwidth and emission, what letter in the first symbol represents an SSBC signal?

A. J
B. B
C. H
D. R

43. A bandwidth of 6 MHz becomes available for assignment. Determine the number of AM stations that could be
broadcast simultaneously if the maximum modulating frequency is limited to 5 kHz.

A. 600
B. 1200
C. 300
D. 3000

44. An antenna transmits an AM signal having a total power content of 15 kW. Determine the power being
transmitted at each of the sidebands when the percent modulation is 85%.

A. 2709 W
B. 5418 W
C. 4950 W
D. 1990 W

45. The type of AM signal that is used in TV broadcasting is called ____.

A. B8E
B. C3F
C. F3F
D. F3C

46. Indicate the false statement regarding the advantages of SSB over double sideband, full carrier AM.

A. More channel space available

B. Transmitter circuit must be more stable, giving better reception
C. The signal is more noise-resistant
D. Much less power is required for the same signal strength

47. When the modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also doubled. The AM system
being used is _____

A. H3E
B. C3F
C. J3E
D. A3E

48. Indicate which one of the following advantages of the phase cancellation method of obtaining SSB over the filter
method is false:

A. Switching from one sideband to the other is simpler

B. It is possible to generate SSB at any frequency
C. SSB with lower audio frequencies present can be generated
D. There are more balance modulators; therefore, the carrier is suppressed better.

49. The image frequency of a super heterodyne receiver

A. Is created within the receiver itself

B. Is due to insufficient adjacent channel rejection
C. Is not rejected by the IF tuned circuits
D. Is independent of the frequency to which the receiver is tuned

50. One of the main functions of the RF amplifier in a super heterodyne receiver is to

A. Provide improved tracking

B. Permit better adjacent-channel rejection
C. Increase the tuning range of the receiver
D. Improve the rejection of the image frequency

51. When the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains
constant. The modulation system is ____.

A. Amplitude Modulation
B. Phase Modulation
C. Frequency Modulation
D. Any one of the three

52. Indicate which one of the following is not an advantage of FM over AM:
A. Better noise immunity is provided
B. Lower bandwidth is required
C. The transmitted power is more useful
D. Less modulating power is required

53. In the spectrum of a frequency modulated wave

A. The carrier frequency disappears when the modulation index is large

B. The amplitude of any sideband depends on the modulation index
C. The total number of sidebands depend on the modulation index
D. The carrier frequency cannot disappear

54. The difference between the phase and frequency modulation

A. is purely theoretical because they are the same in practice

B. is too great to make the two system compatible
C. In the poorer audio response of the phase modulation
D. lies in the different definitions of the modulation index

55. Indicate the false statement. From the transmitter, the signal deterioration because of noise is usually ____

A. Unwanted energy
B. Predictable in character
C. Present in the transmitter
D. Due to any cause

56. A (75 – j50) load is connected to a coaxial transmission line of Zo = 75, at 10 GHz. The best method of matching
consists of connecting

A. A short circuited stub at the load

B. An inductance at the load
C. A capacitance at some specific distance from the load
D. A short circuited stub at some specific distance from the load.

57. The velocity factor of a transmission line.

A. Depends on the dielectric constant of the material used

B. Increase the velocity along the transmission line
C. Is governed by skin effect
D. Is higher for a solid dielectric than air

58. For a transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a

A. Balun
B. Broadband directional coupler
C. Double Stub
D. Single stub of adjustable position

59. Indicate the true statement below. The directional coupler is

A. A device used to connect a transmitter to a directional antenna

B. A coupling device for matching impedance
C. A device used to measure transmission line power
D. An SWR measuring instrument

60. Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of

A. Ground waves
B. Sky waves
C. Surface waves
D. Space Waves

61. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequencies in the following range

A. HF
B. VHF
C. UHF
D. VLF

62. The ground wave eventually disappears, as one move away from the transmitter, because of

A. Interference due to sky wave

B. Loss of line of sight conditions
C. maximum single hop distance limitations
D. tilting

63. Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they

A. Pass into a medium of different dielectric constant

B. Are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation
C. Encounter a perfectly conducting surface
D. Pass through small slot in a conducting plane

64. Helical antennas are often used for satellite tracking at VHF because of

A. Troposcatter
B. Superrefraction
C. Ionospheric refraction
D. Faraday’s effect

65. Diffraction of electromagnetic wave

A. Is caused by reflections from the ground

B. Arises only with the spherical wave fronts
C. Will occur when the waves pass through a large slot
D. May occur around the edge of a sharp obstacle

66. Indicate the antenna that is not wideband:

A. Discone
B. Folded Dipole
C. Helical
D. Marconi

67. Indicate which of the following reason for use of an earth mat with antennas is false:

A. Impossibility of a good ground connection

B. Provision of an earth for the antenna
C. Protection of personnel working underneath
D. Improvement of radiation pattern of the antenna

68. The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is the

A. Infinitesimal Dipole
B. Isotropic Antenna
C. Elementary Doublet
D. Half wave dipole

69. Top loading is sometimes used with an antenna in order to increase its

A. Effective height
B. bandwidth
C. beam width
D. input capacitance

70. One of the following is not an omnidirectional antenna

A. Half wave dipole

B. Log periodic
C. Discone
D. Marconi

71. Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission line is infinity; the line is terminated in

A. A short circuit
B. A compound impedance
C. An open circuit
D. A pure resistance

72. Impedance inversion may be obtained with

A. A short circuited stub

B. An open circuited stub
C. A quarter wave line
D. A half wave line

73. Indicate which one of the following terms applies to troposcatter propagation

A. SIDs
B. Fading
C. Atmospheric storms
D. Faraday Rotation

74. In electromagnetic waves, polarization

A. Is caused by reflection
B. Is due to the transverse nature of the waves
C. Results from the longitudinal natures of the waves
D. Is always vertical in an isotropic antenna

75. As electromagnetic waves travel in free space, one of the following can happen to them:

A. Absorption
B. Attenuation
C. Refraction
D. Reflection

76. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends on

A. Their frequency
B. Their distance from the transmitter
C. The polarization of the waves
D. The polarization of the atmosphere

77. An antenna that is circularly polarized is the

A. Helical
B. Small circular loop
C. Parabolic reflector
D. Yagi-uda

78. One of the following is very useful as a multiband HF receiving antenna. This is the

A. Conical Horn
B. Folded Dipole
C. Log-periodic
D. Square Loop

79. Which of the following antenna is best excited from a waveguide?

A. Biconical
B. Horn
C. Helical
D. Discone

80. Indicate the false statement. When the free space wavelength of a signal equals the cutoff wavelength of the
guide

A. the group velocity of the signal becomes zero

B. the phase velocity of the signal becomes infinite
C. the characteristic impedance of the guide becomes infinite
D. the wavelength within the wave guide becomes infinite

81. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications field?

A. ITU-T
B. IEEE
C. FCC
D. ISOC

82. What oscillator frequency is needed to heterodyne 626 kHz up to 3.58 MHz?

A. 2.954 MHz
B. 4.832 MHz
C. 4.210 MHz
D. 2.328 MHz

83. The best insulation at UHF is:

A. Black rubber
B. Bakelite
C. Paper
D. Mica

84. A transmitter is required to deliver 100 W to an antenna through 5 m of coaxial cable with a loss of 3 dB / 100 m.
What must be the output power of the transmitter, assuming the line is matched?

A. 136 W
B. 153 W
C. 151 W
D. 116815 W

85. IS-95 system uses direct sequence spread spectrum with a chipping rate of

A. 1.23 MHz
B. 200 kHz
C. 500 MHz
D. 10.7 MHz

86. How often will hand-offs occur when vehicle travels through a CMTS at 100 km per hour speed if the distance
between cell sites is 10 km?

A. 6 mins
B. 12 mins
C. 395 sec
D. 10 hrs

87. An ambulance travels down a highway at a speed of 75.0 mi/h with its siren transmitting a sound with a
frequency of 400 Hz. What frequency is heard by a passenger in a card traveling at 55 mi/h in the opposite direction
as it approaches the ambulance?

A. 443 Hz
B. 475 Hz
C. 339 Hz
D. 345 Hz
88. A satellite receives an uplink frequency of _____ MHz from a ground station of 3700 MHz

A. 8150 MHz
B. 1475 MHz
C. 2225 MHz
D. 5925 MHz

89. A telephone exchange has a subscriber loop limit of 1800 ohms, excluding the telephone instrument. What is the
farthest distance, in miles, that a subscriber can be located away from the telephone exchange if AWG 26 cable,
which has a resistance of 4.31 ohms/loop mile, is used?

A. 5.95
B. 8.18
C. 3.9
D. 4.18

90. The minimum depth for an underground entrance conduit under areas used for vehicular traffic inside private
property

A. 300 mm
B. 600 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 1 m

91. How much time in seconds is saved if we use Touch Tone Dialing instead of Pulse Dialing to call telephone
number 781-10-05?

A. 3.55
B. 7.75
C. 7.55
D. 7.15

92. With attenuation limit at 6 dB, what is the length of cable using gauge 26 with attenuation of 1.61 dB per km

A. 1.3 km
B. 4.7 km
C. 3.7 km
D. 2.5 km

93. The backboard color for the house or riser cable

A. Yellow
B. White
C. Blue
D. Red
94. OC-1 (STS-1) line rate is

A. 51.84 Mbps
B. 1.544 Mbps
C. 3 Mbps
D. 2.048 Mbps

95. Duration of vertical blanking

A. 1333 us
B. 10.2 us
C. 2.5 us
D. 63.5 us

96. CATV superband channel

A. J
B. KK
C. GG
D. V

97. A three-stage amplifier is to have an overall noise temperature no greater than 70 K. The overall gain of the
amplifier is to be atleast 45 dB. The amplifier is to be built by adding a low-noise first stage with existing
characteristics as follows stage 2 has 20 dB power gain 3 dB noise figure. Stage 3 has 15 dB power gain and 6 dB
noise figure. Calculate the maximum noise figure (in dB) that the first stage can have

A. 0.267 dB
B. 0.56 dB
C. 1.235 dB
D. 0.985 dB

98. In measuring noise in a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -70 dBm. Convert the reading
into pWp.

A. 53
B. 93
C. 63
D. 83

99. A phase modulator has Kp = 2 rad/V. What RMS voltage of a sine wave would cause a peak phase deviation of
30 degrees?

A. 0.158 V
B. 0.185 V
C. 0.518 V
D. 0.815 V

100. What are the three major oscillator circuits often used in radio equipment?

A. Taft, Pierce, and Negative Feedback

B. Colpitts, Hartley and Taft
C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce
D. Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce

101. Hearing loss due to non-occupational noise sources e.g. household noises, TV, and road traffic

A. Presbycusis
B. Sosiocusis
C. Nasocusis
D. Oldysicus

102. A mechanism used by hosts and gateways to send notification of datagram problems back to the sender

A. IGMP
B. UDP
C. TCP/IP
D. ICMP

103. Which technical specification group does not belong to 3GPP working organizations?

A. TSG SA Service and System Aspects

B. TSG CN Core Network
C. TSG EFA Error Function Aspects
D. TSG T Terminals

104. The main benefit of the HSCSD feature compared to other data enhancements introduced is that it is

A. The maximum data rate is limited to 64 kbps

B. Up to eight times the bit rate on the single slot full-rate traffic channel
C. The maximum data rate in these early networks
D. An inexpensive way to implement higher data rates

105. Are intended to carry either encoded speech or user data

A. Multiplexed channel
B. Traffic channel
C. Association Channel
D. Central Channel

106. A scheme in which the transmitter alternatively uses the two antennas to transmit bursts or to decorrelate the
fading profile of each alternate burst

A. Frequency hopping
B. Frame hopping
C. Antenna hopping
D. Time hopping

107. Refers to its spatial diversity where transmission or reception is performed simultaneously at two or more base
station and used to combat fast fading
A. Macrodiversity
B. Microdiversity
C. Space diversity
D. Spatial diversity

108. It is the work-effort that is required to provide a given spectral efficiency at a given grade of service

A. Spatial efficiency
B. Operational efficiency
C. Strategical efficiency
D. Light efficiency

109. It provides MAC enhancements to support LAN applications with CoS requirements

A. IEEE 802.16
B. IEEE 802.11e
C. IEEE 802.16.2
D. IEEE 802.12a/b

110. It suffers a known plaintext attack recovering the pseudorandom string by XORing the plaintext and ciphertext
of challenge, which can be eavesdropped from the air

A. Deciphering
B. Key Management
C. Mutual authentication
D. Shared-key authentication

111. Introduced the term PAN to denote a communication between proximal electronic devices by using the body as
a conduct for information

A. Zimmerman
B. Shockley
C. Shannon
D. Torricelli

112. How can we represent the number 21 in one’s complement arithmetic using only four bits

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

113. The telephone receiver, as a converter of electrical energy to acoustic energy, has comparatively low efficiency
on the order of

A. 2% to 3%
B. 10% to 15%
C. 20% to 35%
D. 40% to 50%

114. In Digital Network Performance Requirements, a blocking probability of ____ is the Quality of Service (QoS)
objective. With judicious of alternative routing, a blocking probability of 0.005 might be expected
A. B = 1
B. B = 0.01
C. B = 0
D. B = Infinity

115. For North American DTMF Code, the digit “2” has ____ Multifrequency Push-Button Tone

A. 852 Hz, 1477 Hz

B. 852 Hz, 1209 Hz
C. 624 Hz, 1776 Hz
D. 697 Hz, 1336 Hz

116. It is required to match a 73-ohm antenna to a 600 ohm polyethylene coaxial feeder line, with a velocity factor of
0.66 by means of a quarter wave matching a transformer. At a frequency of 150 MHz, the impedance of the matching
section is ____ ohms.

A. 209.28
B. 310.5
C. 150.28
D. 450.82

117. A Fade Margin of 28 dB has a reliability of

A. 99%
B. 99.9%
C. 99.99%
D. 99.999%

118. A wave propagated in a parallel plane waveguide. The frequency is 6 GHz and the plane separation is 3 cm. The
cut-off wavelength for the dominant mode, the group and phase velocity are:

A. 6 cm, 166 Mm/sec, 543 Mm/sec

B. 6 cm, 106 Mm/sec, 543 Mm/sec
C. 6 cm, 543 Mm/sec, 166 Mm/sec
D. 6 cm, 543 Mm/sec, 106 Mm/sec

119. A satellite communication link between Pinugay Earth Station, Philippines and Mt. Fucino Earth Station, Italy
is to be established. If the assigned uplink frequency at Panugay Earth Station is 6175 MHz, what is the downlink
frequency at Mt. Fucino Eart Station, in MHz?

A. 4545
B. 3950
C. 3789
D. 4200

120. If the frequency fed to the pre-amplifier of a basic transmitter with multipliers is composed of a pair of triplers
and a doubler is 196 MHz, what frequency should the oscillator operate?

A. 11 MHz
B. 33 MHz
C. 22 MHz
D. 66 MHz

121. When microwave signal follows the curvature of the earth, this is known as:

A. Faraday Effect
B. Ducting
C. Tropospheric Scatter
D. Ionospheric Reflection

122. A half-wave dipole antenna is capable of radiating 1kW and has a 2.15 dB gain over an isotropic antenna. How
much power must be delivered to the isotropic (omnidirectional) antenna, to match the field strength directional
antenna?

A. 1640 W
B. 1550 W
C. 1320 W
D. 1730 W

123. The direction of rotation of a CD is

A. clockwise
B. anti-clockwise
C. clockwise or anti-clockwise depending on the frequency of data stored
D. mostly anti-clockwise but sometimes clockwise

124. It is a solicitation from the primary to a secondary to determine if the secondary has data to transmit

A. Selection
B. Error Control
C. Polling
D. Master Control

125. A 9600-baud rate signal can pass over the voice grade telephone line if which kind of modulation is used

A. BPSK
B. DPSK
C. QPSK
D. QAM

126. The analog signal m(t) is given below m(t) = 4 cos 100πt + 8sin 200π + cos 300πt, the Nyquist sampling rate
will be

A. 1/100
B. 1/300
C. 1/200
D. 1/600
127. The characters making up the message in a synchronous transmission are collectively referred to as the data
A. Set
B. Block
C. Sequence
D. Collection

128. In a Laplace transform, multiplication by e-at in time domain becames

A. translation by a in s domain
B. translation by (-a) in s domain
C. multiplication by e-as in s domain
D. none of the above

129. In a TV receiver antenna, the length of reflector rod

A. is the same as that of dipole

B. is less than that of dipole
C. is more than that of dipole
D. may be equal, more, or less than that of dipole

130. A radio station works at 800 kHz and uses AM. If this is a public broadcast system, it should transmit using

A. parabolic reflector to transmit all round

B. turnstile antenna for the required land
C. half wave long horizontal wave
D. a vertical antenna less than quarter for practical reasons

131. Entropy gives

A. measure of uncertainty
B. rate of information
C. average information
D. probability of information

132. The noise performance of a square law demodulator of AM signal is

A. better than that of an envelope detector

B. better than that of a synchronous detector
C. identical with that of a synchronous detector
D. poorer than that of an envelope detector

133. Which of the following is correct?

A. The bit rate may be greater than the baud rate

B. The baud rate may be greater than the bit rate
C. The bit and baud rate are always the same
D. The bit and baud rate are not related

134. Function of data link protocol that coordinates hop-to-hop data delivery where a hop may be a computer, a
network controller, or a network-connecting device such as router.

A. Flow Control
B. Line Discipline
C. Error Control
D. Selection

135. Which one is a linear system?

A. y[n] = x[n] x x[n-1]

B. y[n] = x[n] + x[n-10]
C. y[n] = x2[n]
D. (A) and (C)

136. A form of switching which is stored and forward

A. Packet switching
B. Message switching
C. Circuit switching
D. Digital switching

137. Which of the following is an indirect way of generating FM?

A. Armstrong modulator
B. Varactor diode modulator
C. Reactance FET modulator
D. Reactance bipolar transistor

138. In a multiplexing system similar to conventional time-division multiplexing except that it was developed to be
used with optical fibers

A. SONET
B. ATM
C. Frame relay
D. X.25

139. The data rate for IEEE 802.11b is ____.

A. 10 Mbps
B. 2.048 Mbps
C. 1.544 Mbps
D. 11 Mbps

140. The result whenever the sampling rate is less than twice the highest audio frequency

A. Peak limiting
B. Overload distortion
C. Alias
D. Quantizing noise

141. Ten bit error occurs in two million transmitted. The bit error rate is

A. 2 x 10-5
B. 5 x 10-6
C. 5 x 10-5
D. 2 x 10-6
142. If output power of a radio receiver is doubled, its volume is increased by ____ dB.

A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. -3

143. It is a function of the carrier-to-noise power ratio and the number of possible encoding conditions used

A. probability of error
B. error control
C. error detection
D. bit error rate

144. To eliminate ghosts in the picture

A. Use a longer transmission line

B. Connect a booster
C. Change the antenna orientation or location
D. twist the transmission line

145. Sixteen different levels (symbols) are used to encode binary data. The channel bandwidth is 36 MHz. The
maximum channel capacity is

A. 18 Mbps
B. 288 Mbps
C. 72 Mbps
D. 2.176 Gbps

146. What is the minimum bandwidth required to transmit a 56 kbps binary signal with no noise?

A. 14 kHz
B. 28 kHz
C. 56 kHz
D. 112 kHz

147. Which of the following does not cause losses in optical fiber cables?

A. Stepped index operation

B. Impurities
C. Microbending
D. Attenuation in glass

148. It is the thermal noise power normalized to 1-Hz bandwidth

A. Power density ratio

B. Thermal noise
C. Noise power density
D. Ambient temperature noise
149. Any rounded-off errors in the transmitted signal are reproduced when the code is converted back to analog in
the receiver.

A. Aperture error
B. Quantization error
C. Aperture distortion
D. Slope overload

150. As per Shannon-Hartley theorem, a noiseless Gaussian channel has

A. zero capacity
B. infinite capacity
C. small capacity
D. none of the above

151. T1 stands for

A. Transmission One
B. Telecommunication One
C. Telex One
D. Transmission Line One

152. Fourier analysis indicates that a square wave can be represented as

A. A fundamental sine wave and odd harmonics

B. A fundamental sine wave and even harmonics
C. A fundamental sine wave and harmonics
D. Fundamental and subharmonic sine waves

153. The OSI layer that provides the control functions necessary to establish, manage, and terminated the
connections as required to satisfy the user request

A. Application layer
B. Network layer
C. Session layer
D. Physical layer

154. Which of the following steps is not included in the process of reception?

A. Decoding
B. Storage
C. Encoding
D. Interpretation

155. Amplitude modulation is the process of

A. Super imposing a low frequency on a high frequency

B. Super imposing a high frequency on a low frequency
C. Carrier interruption
D. Frequency shift and phase shift
156. What type of mastergroup that can be further multiplexed and used for higher-capacity microwave radio
systems?

A. A600
B. L600
C. U600
D. L400

157. In order to separate channels in the TDM receiver, it is necessary to use

A. AND gates
B. Differentiation
C. Bandpass filters
D. Integration

158. To provide two or more voice circuits with the same carrier, it is necessary to use

A. ISB
B. Carrier reinsertion
C. SSB with pilot carrier
D. Lincompex

159. VLF waves are used for some type of services because

A. Of the low powers required

B. The transmitting antennas are of convenient size
C. They are very reliable
D. They penetrate the ionosphere easily

160. A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by the atmosphere than the others is called

A. Window
B. Critical Frequency
C. Gyro frequency range
D. Resonance in the atmosphere

161. High frequency waves are

A. Absorbed by the F2 layer

B. Reflected by the D layer
C. Capable of use for long-distance communications on the moon
D. Reflected by the solar cycle

162. What is the purpose of peak clipper circuits in radio transmitters?

A. To prevent overmodulation
B. To reduce bandwidth
C. To increase bandwidth
D. To regulate oscillator I/P voltage
163. It is found that a ship to ship communication suffers from fading. This can be avoided using

A. Space diversity
B. Frequency diversity
C. Broadband diversity
D. Directional Antenna

164. Find the Doppler stuff caused by a vehicle moving toward a radar at 60mph, if the radar operates at 10 GHz.

A. 3.5 kHz
B. 1.75 kHz
C. 7 kHz
D. 0.875 kHz

165. Calculate the beam width in the E-plane of a pyramid form antenna that has an aperture of 60 mm in the E-
plane, 80 mm in the H-plane, and operating at 60 GHz.

A. 46.67 deg
B. 83.33 deg
C. 47.63 deg
D. 82.93 deg

166. Calculate the earth bulge 2 miles away from transmitter for a 25 miles terrestrial microwave link.

A. 30.67 ft
B. 68.66 ft
C. 3.61 ft
D. 61.34 ft

167. A province in the Philippines has an area of 2000 sq. km. It has to be covered by cellular mobile telephone
service using cells with radius of 2km. Assuming hexagonal cells, find the number of cell sites needed.

A. 155 cells
B. 290 cells
C. 128 cells
D. 145 cells

168. Calculate the blocking probability for 5-channel cell with an offered of 1.66 erlang.

A. 5%
B. 2%
C. 4%
D. 7%

169. Determine the speed of sound in air at STP (Used y = 1.4 for air, p = 1.23 kg/m3, P = 1 atm = 1.013 x 106 Pa)

A. 335 m/s
B. 332 m/s
C. 223 m/s
D. 126 m/s

170. A flute with all of the holes closed can be considered as a tube with both ends open. It has a fundamental
frequency of 261.6 Hz (which is Middle C). Calculate the 3rd decade of this fundamental generated.
A. 764.8 Hz
B. 1046.4 Hz
C. 2.1 Hz
D. 261.6 Hz

171. You are at a party and talking with a group of people. They all produce sound levels of the same magnitudes at
your position. The combined level when all four talks at once is 70 dB. What is the sound level from one person?

A. 32 dB
B. 64 dB
C. 16 dB
D. 126 dB

172. If the RMS sound pressure is 5 lb/ft2, what is the sound pressure level?

A. 7.58 dB
B. 3.79 dB
C. 11.37 dB
D. 15.16 dB

173. A candle power that is located 12 feet from a surface provides how many lux?

A. 37.375 lux
B. 74.75 lux
C. 15.32 lux
D. 67.33 lux

174. The beam antenna has a height of 10 meters over a service area. Determine the beam tilt angle.

A. 0.088˚
B. 9.2˚
C. 8.8˚
D. 0.9˚

175. Which of the following microphones has the lowest output impedance?

A. Crystal
B. Moving coil
C. Ribbon
D. Condenser

176. If e(t) = 10 sin[108t + 3 sin(104t)], then the modulation index is

A. 10
B. 3
C. 108
D. 104

177. Quadrature refers to a ____ (degree) phase difference.

A. 60
B. 90
C. 45
D. 180

178. The quadrature detector input circuit produces a varying ____ as the input frequency changes.

A. Power
B. Phase shift
C. Voltage
D. Phase difference

179. The signal in a channel is measure to be 23 dB while the noise in the same channel is measure to be 9 dB. The
signal-to-noise ration therefore is ____.

A. 9/23 dB
B. 32 dB
C. 23/9 dB
D. 14 dB

180. In Pulse Code Modulation system

A. Large bandwidth is required

B. Quantizing noise can be overcome by companding
C. Quantizing noise can be reduced by decreasing the number of standard levels
D. Suffers from the disadvantage of its incompatibility with TDM

181. A LAN device that is used to interconnect two networks that use different protocols and formats.

A. Gateways
B. Bridges
C. Routers
D. Hubs

182. A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50Ω has an equivalent noise resistance of 30Ω.
Calculate the receiver’s noise figure in decibels.

A. 1.61 dB
B. 2.04 dB
C. 3.22 dB
D. 4.08 dB

183. Calculate the noise voltage at the input of a television RF amplifier, using a device that has a 200Ω equivalent
noise resistance and a 300Ω input resistor. The bandwidth of the amplifier is 6 MHz, and the temperature is 17˚C.

A. 4.71 μV
B. 9.05 μV
C. 2.49 μV
D. 6.93 μV

184. A broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 kW when the modulation percentage is 60. How much is the carrier
power?
A. 8.47 kW
B. 3.33 kW
C. 6.66 kW
D. 1.67 kW

185. The antenna current of an AM broadcast transmitter, modulated to a depth of 40% by audio sine wave, is 11A.
It increase to 12A as a result of simultaneous modulation by another audio sine wave. What is the modulation index
due to the 2nd wave?

A. 0.757
B. 0.512
C. 0.643
D. 0.828

186. What is the modulation index of an FM system in which the modulating frequency is 2 kHz and the maximum
deviation is 10 kHz.

A. 5
B. 20
C. 10
D. 2

187. It is required to match a 200Ω load to 300Ω transmission line, to reduce the SWR along the line to 1. What must
be the characteristic impedance of the quarter wave transformer used for this purpose, if it is connected directly to the
load?

A. 500Ω
B. 245Ω
C. 100Ω
D. 325Ω

188. The maximum power output of a standard A earth station over the total band allocated to satellite
communication is about

A. 0.5 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 8 kW
D. 50 kW

189. Which of the following is not an actual amount of power?

A. dB
B. dBm
C. dBw
D. dBk
190. Indicate which one of the following types of noise does not occur in transistors.

A. Shot noise
B. Flicker noise
C. Partition noise
D. Resistance noise

191. In a communication system, noise is likely to affect signal

A. At the transmitter
B. In the channel
C. In the information source
D. At the destination

192. This type of noise has a power spectrum which decreases with increasing frequency. It is most important at low
frequencies from 0 to about 100 Hz.

A. Shot noise
B. Flicker noise
C. Diode noise
D. BJT noise

193. A power level of 50 μW could be expressed as:

A. 1.39 dBm
B. -4.3 dBm
C. 1 dBm
D. -13 dBm

194. Signal waveform perturbation or deviation caused by imperfect response of the system to the desired signal.

A. Noise
B. Aliasing
C. Distortion
D. Interference

195. Signal attenuation can be corrected by:

A. Filtering
B. Modulation
C. Equalization
D. Amplification

196. Signal contamination by extraneous or external sources, such as other transmitters, power lines, and machinery.

A. Noise
B. Distortion
C. Harmonics
D. Interference
197. Which circuit contributes most to the noise at the receiver?

A. RF amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Detector
D. Local oscillator

198. The new signal produced by modulation are called

A. Spurious emissions
B. Harmonics
C. Intermodulation products
D. Sidebands

199. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is 70Ω and has a load of 35Ω. The SWR and reflection
coefficient are ____ and ____ respectively.

A. 2 and 0.333
B. 1 and 0.666
C. 2 and 0.666
D. 1 and 0.333

200. The mismatch between antenna and transmission line impedance cannot be corrected by:

A. Using an LC network
B. Adjusting the antenna length
C. Using a balun
D. Adjusting the length of the transmission line

201. A pattern of voltage and current variation along a transmission line not terminated in its characteristic
impedance is called

A. An electric field
B. Radio wave
C. Standing wave
D. Magnetic field

202. The most desirable value of SWR on a transmission line is

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Infinity

203. In transmission lines, the most desirable reflection coefficient is

A. Zero
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. Infinity

204. At frequencies below 1.5 MHz, what propagation provides the best coverage?
A. Ground wave
B. Space Wave
C. Sky Wave
D. All of these

205. Which of these causes the wavefront to tilt progressively forward?

A. Gradient density
B. Electric field intensity
C. Absorption coefficient
D. Magnetic field intensity

206. The curvature of the earth presents a horizon to space wave propagation which is approximately 4/3 that of the
optical horizon.

A. Standard atmosphere
B. Optical horizon
C. Radio horizon
D. All of these

207. A special condition which occurs when the density of the lower atmosphere is such that electromagnetic waves
are trapped between it and earth’s surface

A. Duct propagation
B. Sky wave propagation
C. Space wave propagation
D. Ground wave propagation

208. Refers to the shortest distance in which sky-wave signal will be returned to the earth. It includes the maximum
ground-wave range and the width of the skip zone.

A. Hop
B. Skip distance
C. Actual distance
D. Critical distance

209. Concerns to the highest frequency that is able to return to earth when beamed at a certain angle of incidence

A. Relative frequency
B. Optimum frequency
C. Resonant frequency
D. Maximum usable frequency, MUF

210. In _____, the distance of each succeeding hop from earth to ionosphere and back is also the skip distance.

A. Hop Transmission
B. Single Transmission
C. Unihop Transmission
D. Multihop Transmission

211. Concerns to the single reflection of a radio wave from the ionosphere back to earth.

A. Jog
B. Hop
C. Skip
D. Fading

212. Which layer does not disappear at night?

A. D
B. E
C. F1
D. F2

213. What theorem sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level?

A. Nyquist theorem
B. Hartley law
C. Shannon-Hartley theorem
D. Shannon theorem

214. What is the impedance of a balance 4-wire with a diameter of 0.25 cm and spaced 2.5 cm apart using an
insulator with a dielectric constant of 2.56?

A. 100Ω
B. 65Ω
C. 75Ω
D. 50Ω

215. The random and unpredictable electrical signal from natural causes, both internal and external to the system is
known as ____.

A. Distortion
B. Noise
C. Attenuation
D. Interference

216. The equation for a full-carrier AM is:

A. v(t) = (Ec + Em) x sin(ωct)

B. v(t) = (Ec + Em) x sin(ωmt) + sin(ωct)
C. v(t) = (Ec x Em) x sin(ωmt) x sin(ωct)
D. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(ωmt)) x sin(ωct)

217. The SC in SSBSC stands for:

A. Single-Carrier
B. Suppressed-Carrier
C. Sideband-Carrier
D. None of the choices

218. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called:

A. The Capture Effect

B. The Threshold Effect
C. The “Two-Stations” Effect
D. None of the above
219. The two basic specifications for a receiver are:

A. The sensitivity and the selectivity

B. The number of converters and the numbers of IFs
C. The spurious response and the tracking
D. The signal and the noise

220. “Skin-effect” refers to:

A. The way radio signals travels across a flat surface

B. The tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal
C. The increase of wire resistance with frequency
D. None of the above

221. Image frequencies occur when two signals:

A. Are transmitted on the same frequency

B. Enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency
C. Enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF D. Enter the mixer,
and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF

222. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:

A. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor

B. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer
C. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer
D. none of the above

223. Hartley’s Law is:

A. I = kTB
B. C = 2Blog2M
C. C = Blog2(1 + S/N)
D. FS = 2FMAX

224. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is:

A. I = kTB
B. C = 2Blog2M
C. C = Blog2(1 + S/N)
D. FS = 2FMAX

225. The Shannon-Limit theorem is: :

A. I = kTB
B. C = 2Blog2M
C. C = Blog2(1 + S/N)
D. FS = 2FMAX
226. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: :

A. I = kTB
B. C = 2Blog2M
C. C = Blog2(1 + S/N)
D. FS = 2FMAX

227. DTMF stands for: :

A. Digital Telephone Multiple Frequency

B. Dial Tone Master Frequency
C. Dual Tone Multifrequency
D. Digital Trunk Maser Frequency

228. PSTN stands for:

A. Public Switched Telephone Network

B. Private Switched Telephone Network
C. Primary Service Telephone Network
D. Primary Service Telephone Numbers

229. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is:

A. 20 μA to 80 μA
B. 200 μA to 800 μA
C. 2 mA to 8mA
D. 20 mA to 80 mA

230. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is:

A. 6
B. 12
C. 24
D. 60

231. ASCII stands for:

A. American Standard Character-set 2

B. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
C. American Standard Code 2
D. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange

232. An example of an unbalanced line is:

A. A coaxial cable
B. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable
C. An open-wire-line cable
D. All of the above
233. As frequency increases, the resistance of the wire:

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same
D. Changes periodically

234. For best matching, the load on a cable should be:

A. Lower than ZO
B. Higher than ZO
C. Equal to ZO
D. 50 Ω

235. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a SHORT-CIRCUIT:

A. would reflect as a positive pulse

B. would reflect as a negative pulse
C. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
D. would not reflect at all

236. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its CHARACTERISTIC IMPEDANCE:

A. would reflect as a positive pulse

B. would reflect as a negative pulse
C. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
D. would not reflect at all

237. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an OPEN-CIRCUIT:

A. would reflect as a positive pulse

B. would reflect as a negative pulse
C. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
D. would not reflect at all

238. The optimum value for SWR is:

A. Zero
B. One
C. As large as possible
D. There is no optimum value

239. Which is the possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave:

A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Circular
D. All of the above

240. The “attenuation of free space” is due to:

A. Losses in the characteristic impedance of free space
B. Losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere
C. The decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront
D. The decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront

241. Spaces waves are:

A. line-of-sight
B. reflected off the ionosphere
C. same as sky waves
D. radio waves used for satellite communications

242. A “repeater” is used to:

A. Sends a message multiple times over a channel

B. Send a message over multiple channels at the same time
C. Extend the range of radio communication systems
D. Cancels the effects of fading

243. NTSC stands for:

A. National Television Systems Commission

B. National Television Systems Committee
C. National Television Systems Council
D. Nippon Television Systems Commission

244. The relation between information and bandwidth is called:

A. Information Theory
B. Fourier Analysis
C. FFT
D. Hartley’s Law

245. Mathematically, the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of

A. Ordinary trigonometry and algebra

B. Bessel functions
C. Taylor series
D. Fractals

246. Skin effect refers to

A. The way radio signals travel across a flat surface

B. The tissue-burning effect of a strong rf signal
C. The increase of wire resistance with frequency
D. None of the above

247. Distortion in a receiver can occur in

A. The mixer
B. The detector
C. The if amplifiers
D. All of the above

248. Image frequencies occur when two signals

A. Are transmitted on the same frequency

B. Enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency
C. Enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF
D. Enter the mixer, and difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF

249. Which polarization can be reasonably will received by a circularly polarized antenna

A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Circular
D. All of the above

250. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is the impedance measured at the ___ when its length is
infinite.
A. Shorted end of the line
B. Midsection
C. Input
D. Output

251. Consists of structure made of wire erected at short distance above the ground and insulated from the ground.

A. Earth Mat
B. Guy
C. Counterpoise
D. Top loading

252. Probably the most significant advantage of angle modulation over AM is

A. Noise performance
B. Capture effect
C. Noise immunity
D. Power utilization & efficiency

253. Produce popping sound if amplified in an audio system, hence the name popcorn noise or 1/f2

A. Shot noise
B. Burst noise
C. Flicker noise
D. Partition noise

254. In a klystron, the cavity that removes some of the energy from the electron beam and transfers it in the form of
microwave energy to the output.

A. Burscher
B. Circulator
C. Cavity
D. Catcher

255. A metal object threaded into a waveguide to add capacitance or inductance

A. Stipline
B. Short wave structure
C. Tuning screw
D. Magnetron

256. Abrut variations in the timing of a digital signal

A. Phase bits
B. Jitter
C. Drop outs
D. Wonders

257. In a monopole antenna, a wire extending along the surface of the ground or just below it, away from the
antenna.

A. Radical
B. Helix
C. Radial
D. Earth Mat

258. The direction straight up from the horizontal plane

A. Nadir
B. Perigee
C. Apogee
D. Zenith

259. A memory location that stores the telephone numbers to be used on the system

A. Mobile Switching Center (MSC)

B. Mobile Switching Telephone Office (MTSO)
C. Number Assignment Module (NAM)
D. System Identification Number (SID)

260. Changing the time order of a digital information before transmission to reduce the effect of burst errors in the
channel.

A. Synchronization
B. Interleaving
C. Polling
D. Preamble

261. In a photodetector, the current that flows in the absence of light

A. Photoelectric current
B. Skin effect current
C. Dark current
D. Transient current

262. The relationship between the output current and input power for a photodetector

A. Sensitivity
B. Responsivity
C. Threshold
D. Transfer Response

263. The North American digital cellular standard for personal communication service in the 1990 MHz band similar
to European GSM

A. DECT
B. TDMA
C. CDMA
D. GSM

264. A form of CDMA where a digital code is used to continually change the frequency of the barrier

A. Direct sequence (DS)

B. Frequency Hopping (FH)
C. Hybrid DS/FH
D. Spread Spectrum

265. Used for allocating whole channel (TCH) to the mobile and location updating and sending short text message to
idle mobile

A. SACCH
B. FACCH
C. SDCCH
D. PCH

266. Used to distinguish co-channel frequency used in the neighboring cell

A. MSISDN
B. BSIC
C. LAI
D. TMSI

267. Entry of a designed frequency channel in the agreed plan, adopted by the ITU, for use by one or more nations
for a terrestrial or space radio communication services is one or more identified counties or geographic areas and
under specified conditions.

A. Allocation allotment
B. Assignment admission

268. An American, demonstrated telecommand by sending an electronic current over a mile of wire to activate an
electromagnet which caused a bell to strike, thus wire telegraphy was born

A. Michael Faraday
B. Samuel F. B. Morse
C. Joseph Henry
D. Hans Christian Oersted

269. In equally tampered musical scale, an octave is divided into

A. 12 intervals
B. 10 intervals
C. 7 intervals
D. 5 intervals

270. Invented AM and successfully transmits a few words using spark gap transmitter

A. Henrich Hertz
B. Guglieolmo Marconi
C. Reginald Aubrey Faraday
D. Major Edwin Armstrong
271. Noise that is opposite of pink noise is that doubles the amount of energy each time you go up to 1 octave

A. Brown Noise
B. Blue Noise
C. Purple Noise
D. Orange Noise

272. Its provides MAC enhancements to support LAN application with QoS requirements

A. IEEE 802.16
B. IEEE 802.12e
C. IEEE 802.162
D. IEEE 802

Frenzel-QNA
Chapter 1: Introduction to Elec Comm

1. Communication is the process of

Ans: exchanging information

2. Two key barriers to human communication are

Ans: distance and language

3. Electronic communications was discovered in which century?

Ans: 19th
4. Which of the following is not a major communications medium?
Ans: Water

5. Random interference to transmitted signals is called

Ans: noise

6. The communications medium causes the signal to be

Ans: attenuated

7. Which of the following is not a source of noise?

Ans: Another communications signal

8. One-way communications is called

Ans: simplex

9. Simultaneous two-way communications is called

Ans: Full duplex

10. The original electrical information signal to be transmitted is called the

Ans: Baseband signal

11. The process of modifying a high frequency carrier with the information to be transmitted is called
Ans: modulation

12. The process of transmitting two or more information signals simultaneously over the same channel is called
Ans: Multiplexing

13. Continuous voice or video signals are referred to as being

Ans: Baseband
14. Recovering information from a carrier is known as
Ans: Detection

15. Transmission of graphical information over the telephone network is accomplished by

Ans: facsimile

16. Measuring physical conditions at some remote location and transmitting this data for analysis is the process of
Ans: Telemetry

17. Receiving electromagnetic emissions from stars is called

Ans: Radio-astronomy

18. A personal communications hobby for individuals is

Ans: ham radio

19. Radar is based upon

Ans: reflected radio signals

20. A frequency of 27MHz has a wavelength of approximately

Ans: 11m

21. Radio signals are made up of

Ans: Electric and magnetic fields

22. The voice frequency range is

Ans: 300 to 3000 Hz

23. Another name for signals in the HF range is

Ans: shortwaves

24. Television broadcasting occurs in which ranges?

Ans: VHF

25. Electromagnetic waves produced primarily by heat are called

Ans: infrared rays

26. A micron is
Ans: One-millionth of a meter

27. The frequency range of infrared rays is approximately

Ans: 0.7 to 100μm

28. The approximately wavelength of red light is

Ans: 7000 Ǻ

29. Which of the following is not used for communications

Ans: X-rays
30. A signal occupies the spectrum spacefrom 1.115 to 1.122 GHz. The bandwidth is
Ans: 7 MHz

31. In the united states, the electromagnetic spectrum is regulated and managed by
Ans: FCC
32. For a given bandwidth signal, more channel space is available for signals in the range of
Ans: EHF

Chapter 2: AM and SSB Modulation

1. Having an information signal change some characteristic of a carrier signal is called

Ans: modulation

2. Which of the following is not true about AM?

Ans: The carrier frequency changes

3. The opposite of modulation is

Ans: Demodulation

4. The circuit used to produced modulation is called a

Ans: demodulator

5. A modulator circuit performs what mathematical operation on its two inputs?

Ans: Multiplication

6. The ratio of the peak modulating signal voltage to the peak carrier voltage is referred to as
Ans: the modulation index

7. If m is greater than 1, what happens?

Ans: information signal is distorted

8. For ideal AM, which of the following is true?

Ans: m = 1

9. The outline of the peaks of a carrier has the shape of the modulating signal and is called the
Ans: envelop

10. Overmodulation occurs when

Ans: Vm > Vc

11. The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8 and 0.3. The percentage of
modulation is
Ans: 80.6 %

12. The new signals produced by modulation are called

Ans: sidebands

13. A carrier of 880 kHz is modulated by a 3.5 kHz sine wave. The LSB and USB are, respectively,
Ans: 876.5 and 883.5 kHz

14. A display of signal amplitude versus frequency is called the

Ans: frequency domain

15. Most of the power in an AM signal is the

Ans: Carrier

16. An AM signal has a carrier power of 5 W. The percentage of modulation is 80 percent. The total sideband power
is
Ans: 1.6 W

17. For 100 percent modulation, what percentage of power is in each sideband?
Ans: 25 percent
18. An AM transmitter has a percentage of modulation of 88. The carrier power is 440 W. The power in one
sideband is
Ans: 85 W

19. An AM transmitter antenna current is measured with no modulation and found to be 2.6 A. With modulation, the
current rises to 2.9 A. The percentage of modulation is
Ans: 70 percent

20. What is the carrier power in the problem above if the antenna resistance is 75 ohms?
Ans: 507 W

21. In an AM signal, the transmitted information is contained within the

Ans: sidebands

22. An AM signal without the carrier is called a(n)

Ans: DSB
23. What is the minimum AM signal needed to transmit information?
Ans: One sideband

24. The main advantage of SSB over standard AM or DSB is

Ans: Less spectrum space is used

25. In SSB, which sideband is the best to use?

Ans: neither upper or lower

26. The typical audio modulating frequency range used in radio and telephone communications is
Ans: 300 Hz to 3 kHz

27. An AM signal with a maximum modulating signal frequency of 4.5 kHz has a total bandwidth of
Ans: 9 kHz

28. Distortion of the modulating signal produces harmonics which cause an increase in the signal
Ans: bandwidth

29. The process of translating a signal, with or without modulation, to a higher or lower frequency for processing is
called
Ans: frequency conversion

30. Frequency translation is carried out by a circuit called a

Ans: converter

31. An input signal of 1.8 MHz is mixed with a local oscillation of 5 MHz. A filter selects the difference signal. The
output is
Ans: 3.2 MHz

32. The output of an SSB transmitter with a 3.85 MHz carrier and a 1.5 kHz sine wave modulating tone is
Ans: 3.85, 3.8485, and 3.8515 MHz

33. An SSB transmitter produces a 400 V peak-to-peak signal across a 52 ohms antenna load. The PEP output is
Ans: 384.5 W
Solution:
400𝑉
( )
2√2 ⁄
𝑃𝐸𝑃 = (52Ω) = 384.5 𝑊

34. The output power of an SSB transmitter is usually expressed in terms of

Ans: Peak envelope power
35. An SSB transmitter has a PEP rating of 1 kW. The average output power is in the range of
Ans: 250 to 333 W
Solution:
𝑃𝐸𝑃
𝑉𝑎𝑣𝑔1 = = 333 𝑊
3
𝑃𝐸𝑃
𝑉𝑎𝑣𝑔2 = = 250 𝑊
4
Chapter 3: AM Circuits

1. Amplitude modulation is the same as

Ans: Analog multiplication

2. In a diode modulator, the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a(n)

Ans: Tuned circuit

3. Amplitude modulation can be produced by

Ans: Having the carrier vary a resistance

4. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signal by passing it through an
attenuator work on the principle of
Ans: Variable resistance

5. In Fig. 3-4, D1 is a
Ans: Variable resistor

6. The component used to produce AM at very high frequencies is a

Ans: Varactor

7. Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage or power amplitude is known as

Ans: Low-level modulation

8. A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48 V. The peak-to-peak amplitude of the modulating signal for 100
percent modulation is
Ans: 96 V
Solution:
Vmp-p = 2Vc . m = 96 V

9. A collector modulated transmitter has a supply voltage of 24 V and a collector current of 0.5 A. The modulator
power for 100 percent modulation is
Ans: 12 W

Solution:
P = VI = 24 x 0.5 = 12 W

10. The circuit that recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal is known as a
Ans: demodulator

11. The most commonly used amplitude demodulator is the

Ans: Envelope detector

12. A circuit that generates the upper and lower sidebands but no carrier is called a(a)
Ans: Balanced modulator

13. The inputs to a balanced modulator are 1 MHz and a carrier of 1.5 MHz. The
outputs are
Ans: 500 kHz and 2.5 MHz
14. A widely used balanced modulator is called the
Ans: lattice modulator

15. In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like

Ans: switches

16. The output of a balanced modulator is

Ans: DSB

17. The principal circuit in the popular

1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a
Ans: Differential amplifier

18. The most commonly used filter in SSB generator uses

Ans: RC networks and op-amps

19. The equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal is a

Ans: Series resonant circuit and parallel resonant circuit

20. A crystal lattice filter has crystal frequencies of 27.5 and 27.502 MHz. The bandwidth is approximately
Ans: 2 kHz

Solution:
BW = f2 – f1 = 27.502MHz–27.5MHz = 2 kHz

21. An SSB generator has a sideband filter centered at 3.0 MHz. The modulating signal is 3 kHz. To produce both
upper and lower sidebands, the following carrier frequencies must be produced:
Ans: 2997 and 3003 kHz

Solution:
LSB = 3.0 MHz – 3 kHz = 2997 kHz
USB = 3.0 MHz + 3 kHz = 3003 kHz

22. In the phasing method of SSB generation, one sideband is canceled out due to
Ans: phase shift

23. A balanced modulator used to demodulate a SSB signal is called a(n)

Ans: converter

24. Frequency translation is done with a circuit called a

Ans: mixer

25. The inputs to a mixer are fo and fm. In down conversion, which of the following mixer output signals is selected
Ans: fo – fm
26. Mixing for frequency conversion is the same as
Ans: Liner summing

27. Which of the following can be used as a mixer

Ans: Balanced modulator, FET and Diode modulator

28. The desired output from a mixer is usually selected with a

Ans: Crystal filter

29. The two main inputs to a mixer are the signal to be translated and a signal from a(n)
Ans: Local oscillator
30. An NE602 mixer IC has a difference output of 10.7 MHz. The input is 146.8 MHz. The local oscillator frequency
is
Ans: 157.5 MHz
Solution:
fo = 146.8 MHz + 10.7 MHz
Chapter 4: FM
1. The amount of frequency deviation from the carrier center frequency in an FM
transmitter is proportional to what characteristic of the modulating signal?
Ans: Amplitude

2. Both FM and PM are types of kind of modulation?

Ans: Angle

3. If the amplitude of the modulating signal decreases, the carrier deviation

Ans: decreases

4. On an FM signal, maximum deviation occurs at what point on the modulating signal?

Ans: Both positive and negative peak amplitude

5. In PM, a frequency shift occurs while what characteristic of the modulating signal is changing?
Ans: Amplitude

6. Maximum frequency deviation of a PM signal occurs at

Ans: Zero crossing points

7. In PM, carrier frequency deviation is not proportional to:

Ans: Carrier amplitude and frequency

8. To compensate for increases in carrier frequency deviation with an increase in

modulating signal frequency, what circuit is used between the modulating signal and the phase modulator?
Ans: Low-pass filter

9. The FM produced by PM is called

Ans: Indirect FM

10. If the amplitude of the modulating signal applied to a phase modulator is constant, the output signal will be
Ans: The carrier frequency

11. A 100 MHz carrier is deviated 50 kHz by a 4 kHz signal. The modulation index is
Ans: 12.5

Solution:
𝑚 = 50,000⁄4,000 = 12.5

12. The maximum deviation of an FM carrier is 2 kHz by a maximum modulating signal of 400 Hz. The deviation
ratio is
Ans: 5
Solution:

𝑚 = 2,000⁄400 = 5
13. A 70 kHz carrier has a frequency deviation of 4 kHz with a 1000 Hz signal. How many significant sideband pairs
are produced?
Ans: 7

Solution:
𝒎 = 𝟒, 𝟎𝟎𝟎⁄𝟏, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 = 𝟒
By using Bessel’s Table, a modulation index of 4, has 7 significant sidebands.

14. What is the bandwidth of the FM signal described in question 13 above?

Ans: 14 kHz

Solution:
BW = 2Nfmax
BW = 2 (7) (1000) = 14 kHz

15. What is the relative amplitude of the third pair of sidebands of an FM signal with m = 6
Ans: 0.11

16. A 200 kHz carrier is modulated by a 2.5 kHz signal. The fourth pair of sidebands are spaced from the carrier by
Ans: 10 kHz

Solution:
4th sideband = 4 (2.5 kHz) = 10 kHz

17. An FM transmitter has a maximum deviation of 12 kHz and a maximum modulating frequency of 12 kHz. The
bandwidth by Carson’s rule is
Ans: 48 kHz

Solution:
BW = 2 (δmax + fmax)
BW = 2 (12 kHz + 12 kHz) = 48 kHz

18. The maximum allowed deviation of the FM sound signal in TV is 25 kHz. If the actual deviation is 18 kHz, the
percent modulation is
Ans: 72%
Solution:
𝑚 = 18,000⁄25,000 = 0.72

19. Which of the following is not a major benefit of FM over AM?

Ans: Lower complexity and cost

20. The primary disadvantage of FM is its

Ans: Excessive use of spectrum space

21. Noise is primarily

Ans: High frequency spikes
22. The receiver circuit that rids FM of noise is the
Ans: Limiter

23. The phenomenon of a strong FM signal dominating a weaker signa on a common frequency is referred to as the
Ans: capture effect

24. The AM signals generated at a low level may only be amplified by what type of amplifier?
Ans: Linear

25. Frequency modulation transmitters are more efficient because their power is increased by what type of amplifier
Ans: class C

26. Noise interferes mainly with modulating signals that are

Ans: high frequencies

27. Pre-emphasis circuits boost what modulating frequencies before modulation?

Ans: high frequencies

28. A pre-emphasis circuit is a

Ans: high pass filter

29. Pre-emphasis is compensated for at the receiver by

Ans: low-pass filter

30. The cut-off frequency of pre-emphasis and de-emphasis circuits is

Ans: 2.122 kHz

Chapter 5: FM Circuits

1. Another name for a VVC is

Ans: varactor diode

2. The depletion region in a junction diode forms what part of a capacitor

Ans: dielectric

3. Increasing the reverse bias on a varactor diode will cause its capacitance
Ans: decrease

4. The capacitance of a varactor diode is in what general range

Ans: pF

5. In Fig. 5-3, the varactor diode is biased by which components?

Ans: R1, R2

6. In Fig. 5-3, if the reverse bias on D1 is reduced, the resonant frequency of C1

Ans: decreases

7. The frequency change of a crystal oscillator produced by a varactor diode is

Ans: small

8. A phase modulator varies the phase shift of the

Ans: carrier

9. The widest phase variation is obtained with a(n)

Ans: LC resonant circuit

10. In Fig. 5-7, R4 is the

Ans: deviation control

11. The small frequency change produced by a phase modulator can be increased by using a(n)
Ans: frequency multiplier

12. A crystal oscillator whose frequency can be changed by an input voltage is called a(n)
Ans: VXO

13. Which oscillators are preferred for carrier generators because of their good frequency stability?
Ans: crystal

14. Which of the following frequency demodulators requires an input limiter?

Ans: Foster-Seeley discriminator
15. Which discriminator averages pulses in a low-pass filter?
Ans: Quadrature detector
16. Which frequency demodulator is considered the best overall?
Ans: PLL

17. In Fig. 5-8, the voltage at point A when the input frequency is below the FM center frequency is
Ans: positive

18. In Fig. 5-8, R3 and C6 form which kind of circuit?

Ans: De-emphasis

19. In Fig. 5-10, the voltage across C6 is

Ans: directly proportional to frequency deviation

20. In a pulse averaging discriminator, the pulses are produced by a(n)

Ans: zero crossing detector

21. A reactance modulator looks like a capacitance of 35 pF in parallel with the oscillator-tuned circuit whose
inductance is 50 μH and capacitance is 40 pF. What is the center frequency of the oscillator prior to FM?
Ans: 206 MHz
Solution:
𝟏
𝒇= = 𝟐. 𝟔𝑴𝑯𝒛
𝟐𝝅√(𝟓𝟎𝝁𝑯)(𝟕𝟓𝒑𝑭)
22. Which of the following is true about the NE566 IC?
Ans: it is a VCO

23. An FM demodulator that uses a differential amplifier and tuned circuits to convert frequency variations into
voltage variations is the
Ans: Differential peak detector

24. The output amplitude of the phase detector in a quadrature detector is proportional to
Ans: pulse width

25. The input to a PLL is 2 MHz. In order for the PLL to be locked, the VCO output must be
Ans: 2 MHz

26. Decreasing the input frequency to a locked PLL will cause the VCO output to
Ans: jump to the free-running frequency

27. The range of frequencies over which a PLL will track input signal variations is known as the
Ans: lock range

28. The band of frequencies over which a PLL will acquire or recognize an input signal is called the
Ans: capture range

29. Over a narrow range of frequencies, the PLL acts like a

Ans: Bandpass filter

30. The output of a PLL frequency demodulator is taken from

Ans: low-pass filter

Chapter 6: Radio Transmitters

1. Which of the following circuits is not typically part of every radio transmitter?
Ans: mixer

2. Class C amplifiers are not used in which type of transmitter?

Ans: SSB

3. A circuit that isolates the carrier oscillator from load changes is called a
Ans: buffer amplifier
4. A class B amplifier conducts for how many degrees of an input sine wave?
Ans: 180o
5. Bias for a class C amplifier produced by an input RC network is known as
Ans: signal bias

6. An FM transmitter has a 9 MHz crystal carrier oscillator and frequency multipliers of 2, 3, 4. The output frequency
is
Ans: 216 MHz
Solution
f = 9 MHz x 2 x 3 x 4 = 216 MHz
7. The most efficient RF power amplifier is which class amplifier?
Ans: C

8. Collector current in a class C amplifier is a

Ans: Pulse

9. The maximum power of typical transistor RF power amplifiers is in what range?

Ans: Hundreds of watts

10. Self-oscillation in a transistor amplifier is usually caused by

Ans: internal capacitance

11. Neutralization is the process of

Ans: cancelling the effect of internal device capacitance

12. Maximum power transfer occurs when what relationship exists between the generator impedance Z I and the
load impedance Zl?
Ans: Zi = Zl
13. Which of the following is not a benefit of a toroid RF inductor?
Ans: Self-supporting

14. A toroid is a
Ans: Magnetic core

15. Which of the following is not commonly used for impedance matching in a transmitter?
Ans: Resistive attenuator

16. To a match a 6 Ω amplifier impedance to a 72 Ω antenna load, a transformer must have a turns ration NP/NS of
Ans: 0.289

Solution:
𝑁𝑃 𝑍𝑃
=√
𝑁𝑆 𝑍𝑆

𝑁𝑃 6
= √ = 0.289
𝑁𝑆 72

17. Impedance matching in a broadband linear RF amplifier is handled with a(n)

Ans: balun

18. A class C amplifier has a supply voltage of 24 V and a collector current of 2.5 A. Its efficiency is 80 %. The RF
output power is
Ans: 48
Solution:
@ 100 %:
P100 = VI = 60 W
@ 80 %:
P80 = 0.8 P100
P80 = 0.8 (60) = 48 W

19. Which of the following is not a benefit of speech-processing circuits?

Ans: improved frequency stability

20. In an AM transmitter, a clipper circuit eliminates

Ans: splatter

21. In a speech-processing circuit, a lowpass filter prevents

Ans: excessive signal bandwidth

22. The gain of a transistor amplifier is

Ans: directly proportional to collector current

23. What values of L and C in an L network are required to match a 10 Ω transistor amplifier impedance to a 50 Ω
load at 27 MHz?
Ans: L = 118 nH, C = 236 pF

Solution:

𝑋𝐿 = √𝑅1 𝑅2 − 𝑅12
𝑋𝐿 = √(10)(50) − 102 = 20 Ω

𝑋𝐿 = 2𝜋𝑓𝐿

𝑋𝐿
𝐿= = 117.89 𝑛𝐻 ≅ 118𝑛𝐻
2𝜋(27𝑀)

𝑅1 𝑅2 (10)(50)
𝑋𝐶 = = = 25
𝑋𝐿 20

1 1
𝐶= = = 235.78 𝑝𝐹
2𝜋𝑓𝑋𝐶 (2𝜋)(27𝑀)(25)

Chapter 7: Communications Receivers

1. The simplest receiver is a(n)

Ans: tuned circuit

2. The key conceptual circuit in a superhet receiver is the

Ans: mixer

3. Most of the gain and selectivity in a superhet is obtained in the

Ans: IF amplifier

4. The sensitivity of a receiver depends upon the receiver’s overall

Ans: Gain
5. The ability of a receiver to separate one signal from others on closely adjacent frequencies is called the
Ans: selectivity

6. A mixer has a signal input of 50 MHz and an LO frequency of 59 MHz. The IF is

Ans: 9 MHz

Solution:
IF = fo – fs = 59 MHz – 50 MHz = 9 MHz

7. A signal 2 times the IF away from the desired signal that causes interference is referred to as a(n)
Ans: Image

8. A receiver has a desired input signal of 18 MHz and an LO frequency of 19.6 MHz. The image frequency is
Ans: 21.2 MHz

Solution:
IF = 19.6 MHz – 18 MHz = 1.6 MHz
fsi = fs + 2IF
fsi = 18 MHz + 2 (1.6 MHz)
fsi = 21.2 MHz

9. The main cause of image interference is

Ans: Poor front-end selectivity

10. For best image rejection, the IF for a 30 MHz signal would be
Ans: 55 MHz

11. A tuned circuit is resonant at 4 MHz. Its Q is 100. The bandwidth is

Ans: 40 kHz

Solution:
BW = fr / Q = 4 MHz / 100 = 40 kHz

12. A crystal filter has a 6 dB bandwidth of 2.6 kHz and a 60 dB bandwidth of 14 kHz. The shape factor is
Ans: 5.38
Solution:
Shape factor = 60 dB BW / 6 dB BW
Shape factor = 14 kHz / 2.6 kHz = 5.38

13. Most internal noise comes from

Ans: thermal agitation
14. Which of the following is not a source of external noise
Ans: thermal agitation

15. Noise can be reduced by

Ans: narrowing the BW

16. Noise at the input to a receiver can be as high as several

Ans: microvolts

17. Which circuit contributes most to the noise in a receiver?

Ans: mixer

18. Which noise figure represents the lowest noise

Ans: 1.6 dB (smallest value)

19. Which filter shape factor represents the best skirt selectivity?
Ans: 1.6 (smallest value)
20. Which input signal below represents the best receiver sensitivity?
Ans: 0.5 μV

21. Transistor with the lowest noise figure in the microwave region is a(n)
Ans: MESFET

22. The AGC circuits usually control the gain of the

Ans: IF amplifier

23. Selectivity is obtained in most receivers from

Ans: double-tuned circuits

24. Widest bandwidth in a double-tuned circuit is obtained with

Ans: overcoupling

25. Automatic gain control permits a wide range of signal amplitudes to be accommodated by controlling the gain of
the
Ans: IF amplifier

26. In an IF amplifier with reverse AGC, a strong signal will cause the collector current to
Ans: decrease

27. Usually AGC voltage is derived by the

Ans: demodulator

28. An AFC circuit is used to correct for

Ans: frequency drift in the LO

29. A circuit keeps the audio cut off until a signal is received is known as
Ans: a squelch

30. A BFO is used in the demodulation of which types of signals?

Ans: SSB or CW
31. Which of the following circuits are not typically shared in an SSB transceiver?
Ans: mixers
32. The basic frequency synthesizer circuit is a(n)
Ans: PLL

33. The output frequency increment of a frequency synthesizer is determined by the

Ans: reference input to the phase detector

34. The output of the frequency synthesizer is changed by varying the

Ans: frequency division ratio

35. In Fig 7-28, if the input reference is 25 kHz and the divide ratio is 144, the VCO output frequency
Ans: 3.6 MHz

36. The bandwidth of a parallel LC circuit can be increased by

Ans: decreasing XL
37. The upper and lower cutoff frequencies of a tuned circuit are 1.7 and 1.5 MHz respectively. The circuit Q is
Ans: 8

Solution:
BW = 1.7 MHz – 1.5 MHz = 200 kHz
fr = 1.5 MHz + (200 kHz / 2) = 100 kHz
Q = fr / BW = 8

38. The noise voltage across a 300 Ω input resistance to a TV set with a 6 MHz
bandwidth and a temperature of 30oC is
Ans: 5.5 μV

Solution:
V = 4kTBWR
V = 4k(273+ 30)(6MHz)(300)
Where k = 1.3806503 x 10−23
V = 5.5 μV

39. The stage gains in a superheterodyne are follows RF amplifier, 10dB; mixer, 6dB; two IF amplifiers, each 33 dB;
detector, -4 dB; AF amplifier, 28 dB. The total gain is
Ans: 106

Solution:
GT = G1 + G2 + .. + Gn
GT = 10 + 6 + 33 + 33 + -4 + 28 = 106 dB

40. A tuned circuit resonates at 12 MHz with an inductance of 5 μH whose resistance is 6 _. The circuit bandwidth is
Ans: 191 kHz

Solution:
XL = 2πfL = 2π(12 MHz)( 5 μH) = 376.99
Q = XL / R = 376.99 / 6 = 62.83
BW = fr / Q = 12 MHz / 62.83 = 190.99 kHz

41. In a receiver with noise-derived squelch, the presence of an audio signal causes the audio amplifier to be
Ans: enabled

Chapter 8: Multiplexing

1. Multiplexing is the process of

Ans: sending multiple signals simultaneously over a single channel

2. In FDM, multiple signals

Ans: share a common bandwidth

3. Each signal in a an FDM system

Ans: modulates a subcarrier

4. Frequency modulation in FDM systems is usually accomplished with a

Ans: VCO

5. Which of the following is not a typical FDM application

Ans: secure communications

6. The circuit the performs demultiplexing in an FDM system is a(n)

Ans: Bandpass filter
7. Most FDM telemetry systems use
Ans: FM

8. The best frequency demodulator is the

Ans: PLL discriminator

9. The modulation used in FDM telephone systems is

Ans: SSB
10. The FDM telephone systems accommodate many channels by
Ans: using multiple levels of multiplexing

11. In FM stereo broadcasting, the L + R signal

Ans: modulates the FM carrier

12. In FM stereo broadcasting, the L – R signal

Ans: DSB modulates a subcarrier

13. The SCA signal if used in FM broadcasting is transmitted via

Ans: A 67 kHz subcarrier
14. In TDM, multiple signals
Ans: take turns transmitting
15. In TDM, each signal may use he full bandwidth of the channel
Ans: True

16. Sampling an analog signal produces

Ans: PAM

17. The maximum bandwidth that an analog signal use with a sampling frequency of 108 kHz is
Ans: 54 kHz

Solution:
fn = fb / 2 = 108 kHz / 2 = 54 kHz

18. Pulse-amplitude modulation signals are multiplexed by using

Ans: FET switches

19. In PAM demultiplexing, the receiver clock is derived from

Ans: The PAM signal itself

20. In PAM/TDM system, keeping the multiplexer and DEMUX channels step with one another is done by a
Ans: Sync pulse

21. Transmitting data as serial binary words is called

Ans: PCM

22. Converting analog signals to digital is done by sampling and

Ans: Quantizing

23. A quantizer is a(n)

Ans: A/D converter

24. Emphasizing low-level signals and compressing higher-level signals is called

Ans: Companding

25. Which of the following is not a benefit of companding?

Ans: Minimizes signal bandwidth

26. A telephone system using TDM and PCM is called

Ans: T-1

27. An IC that contains A/D and D/A converters, companders and parallel-toserial converters is called
Ans: Codec

28. Pulse-code modulation is preferred to PAM because of its

Ans: Superior noise immunity
Chapter 9: Antennas and Transmission
Lines

1. The most commonly used transmission line is a

Ans: Coax

2. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its
Ans: none of the above

Choices were:
Length, Conductor Diameter and
Conductor spacing

3. Which of the following is not a common transmission line impedance?

Ans: 120 Ω

4. For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the relationship between the characteristic impedance of the
line ZO and the load impedance Zl should be
Ans: ZO = Zl
5. The mismatch between antenna and transmission line impedances cannot be corrected for by
Ans: Adjusting the length of transmission line

6. A pattern of voltage and current variations along a transmission line not

terminated in its characteristic impedance is called
Ans: Standing waves

7. The desirable SWR on a transmission line is

Ans: 1

8. A 50 Ω coax is connected to a 73 Ω antenna. The SWR is

Ans: 1.46

Solution:
If RL > ZO :
SWR = RL / ZO = 73 / 50 = 1.46

9. The most desirable reflection coefficient is

Ans: 0

10. A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a transmission line is know as the
Ans: Reflection coefficient

11. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the maximum voltage is 390 V. The SWR is
Ans: 1.5
Solution:
𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 − 𝑉𝑚𝑖𝑛 390 − 260
|𝑟| = = = 0.2
𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 + 𝑉𝑚𝑖𝑛 390 + 260
1 + |𝑟| 1 + 0.2
𝑆𝑊𝑅 = = = 1.5
1 − |𝑟| 1 − 0.2

12. Three feet is one wavelength at a frequency of

Ans: 328 MHz

13. At very high frequencies, transmission lines are used as

Ans: Tuned Circuits
14. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(n)
Ans: Parallel Resonant

15. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(n)
Ans: Series Resonant Circuit

16. A popular half-wavelength antenna is the

Ans: Dipole

17. The length of a doublet at 27 MHz is

Ans: 17.33 ft

Solution:
468 468
𝐿= = = 17.33 𝑓𝑡
𝑓𝑀𝐻𝑧 27

18. A popular vertical antenna is the

Ans: Ground plane

19. The magnetic field of an antenna is perpendicular to the earth. The antenna’s polarization
Ans: is horizontal

20. An antenna that transmits or receives equally well in all directions is said to be
Ans: Omnidirectional

21. The horizontal radiation pattern of a dipole is a

Ans: figure of 8

22. the length of a ground plane vertical at 146 MHz is

Ans: 1.6 ft
Solution:
𝐿 468 468
= = = 1.6 𝑓𝑡
2 2𝑓𝑀𝐻𝑧 2(146)

23. The impedance of a dipole is about

Ans: 73 Ω

24. A direction antenna with two or more elements is known as a(n)

Ans: Array

25. The horizontal radiation pattern of a vertical dipole is

Ans: circle

26. In a Yagi antenna, maximum direction of radiation is toward the

Ans: Director

27. Conductors in multielement antennas that do not receive energy directly from the transmission line are known
as
Ans: Parasitic elements

28. A coax has an attenuation of 2.4 db per 100 ft. The attenuation for 275 ft is
Ans: 6.6 db

Solution:
𝟐. 𝟒 𝒅𝑩
𝑨𝒅𝑩 = × 𝟐𝟕𝟓 = 𝟔. 𝟔 𝒅𝑩
𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝒇𝒕
29. An antenna has a power gain of 15. The power applied to the antenna is 32 W. The effective radiated power is
Ans: 480 W

Solution:
P = GTPT = (15)(32) = 480 W

30. Which beamwidth represents the best antenna directivity

Ans: 7O

31. The radiation pattern of collinear and broadside antennas

Ans: Bidirectional

32. Which antenna has a unidirectional radiation pattern and gain

Ans: Yagi

33. A wide-bandwidth multielement driven array is the

Ans: Log-periodic

34. Ground-wave communications is most effective in what frequency range?

Ans: 300 kHz to 3 MHz

35. The ionosphere causes radio signals to be

Ans: refracted

36. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals in what frequency range?
Ans: 3 to 30 MHz

37. The type of radio wave responsible for long-distance communications by multiple skips is the
Ans: Skywave

38. Microwave signals propagate by way of the

Ans: Direct wave
39. The line-of-sight communications is not a factor in which frequency range?
Ans: HF

40. A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550 ft high. The receiving antenna is 200 ft high. The maximum
transmission distance is
Ans: 53.2 mi.

Solution:
𝑑 = √2ℎ𝑡 + √2ℎ𝑟
𝑑 = √2(550) + √2(400) = 53.16 𝑚𝑖

41. To increase the transmission distance of a UHF signal, which of the following should be done?
Ans: Increase antenna height

42. A coax has a velocity factor of 0.68. What is the length of a half wave at 30 MHz?
Ans: 11.2 ft

Solution:
𝜆 𝑉𝑝 𝑐 𝑉𝑓 (300)(0.68)
= = = = 3.4 𝑚
2 2𝑓𝑀𝐻𝑧 2𝑓𝑀𝐻𝑧 2(30)

𝜆 3.28 𝑓𝑡
= 3.4 𝑚 × = 11.152 𝑓𝑡
2 1𝑚
43. Which transmission line has the lowest attenuation?
Ans: Twin lead

44. Refer to Fig. 9-39. The beam width of this antenna patter is approximately
Ans: 60o
45. A receiver-transmitter station used to increase the communications range of VHF, UHF, and microwave signals
is called a(n)
Ans: Repeater

Chapter 10: Microwave Techniques

1. The main benefit of using microwaves is

Ans: More spectrum space

2. Radio communications are regulated in the United States by the

Ans: Federal Communications Commission

3. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of microwaves?

Ans: higher-cost equipment

4. Which of the following is a microwave frequency

Ans: 22 GHz

5. Which of the following is not a common microwave application?

Ans: mobile radio

6. Coaxial cable is not widely used for long microwave transmission lines because of its
Ans: high loss

7. Stripline and microstrip transmission lines are usually made with

Ans: PCBs

8. The most common cross section of a wave guide is a

Ans: rectangular

9. A rectangular waveguide has a width of 1 in. and a height of 0.6 in. Its cutoff frequency is
Ans: 5.9 GHz

Solution:
1 𝑖𝑛 = 0.0254 𝑚

𝑐 3 × 108
𝑓= = = 5.9 𝐺𝐻𝑧
2 𝑤𝑖𝑑𝑡ℎ 2(0.0254)

10. A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of 17 GHz. Which of the signals will not be passed by the waveguide?
Ans: 15 GHz

11. Signal propagation in a waveguide is by

Ans: Electric and magnetic fields

12. When the electric field in a waveguide is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, the mode is said to
be
Ans: Transverse electric

13. The dominant mode in most waveguides is

Ans: TE0,1
14. A magnetic field is introduced into a waveguide by a
Ans: Probe

15. A half-wavelength, closed section of a waveguide that acts as a parallel resonant circuit is known as a(n)
Ans: Cavity resonator

16. Decreasing the volume of a cavity causes its resonant frequency to

Ans: Increase

17. A popular microwave mixer diode is the

Ans: Gunn
18. Varactor and step-recovery diodes are widely used in what type of circuit
Ans: Frequency multiplier

19. Which diode is a popular microwave oscillator

Ans: Gunn

20. Which type of diode does not ordinarily operate with reverse bias
Ans: Tunnel

21. Low-power Gunn diodes are replacing

Ans: Reflex klystrons

22. Which of the following is not a microwave tube?

Ans: Cathode-ray tube

23. In a klystron amplifier, velocity modulation of the electron beam is produced by the
Ans: Buncher cavity

24. A reflex klystron is used as a(n)

Ans: Oscillator

25. For proper operation, a magnetron must be accompanied by a

Ans: Permanent magnet

26. The operating frequency of klystrons and magnetrons is set by the

Ans: Cavity resonator

27. A magnetron is used only as a(n)

Ans: oscillator

28. A common application for magnetrons is in

Ans: Radar

29. In a TWT, the electron beam is density modulated by a

Ans: Helix

30. The main advantage of a TWT over a klystron for microwave amplification is
Ans: Wider bandwidth

31. High-power TWTs are replacing what in microwave amplifiers?

Ans: klystrons

32. The most widely used microwave antenna is a

Ans: horn antenna

33. What happens when a horn antenna is made longer?

Ans: Gain increases
34. A pyramidal horn used at 5 GHz has an aperture that is 7 by 9 cm. The gain is about
Ans: 10.5 db

Solution:
(7)(9)
4𝜋𝐴 4𝜋(0.5) ( 1000 )
𝐺= 2 = 2 = 10.9956
𝜆 3 × 108
( )
5 × 109

GdB = 10 log 10.9956 = 10.41 dB

35. Given the frequency and dimensions in Question 34 above the beamwidth is about
Ans: 53o
Solution:
𝟖𝟎 𝟖𝟎
𝑮=𝒘 = = 𝟓𝟑. 𝟑𝟑°
⁄𝝀
𝒘
3 × 108
( 9)
( 5 × 10 )

36. The diameter of a parabolic reflector should be at least how many wavelengths at the operating frequency?
Ans: 10

37. The point where the antenna is mounted with respect to the parabolic reflector is called
Ans: Focal point

38. Using a small reflector to beam waves to the larger parabolic reflector is known as
Ans: Cassegrain feed

39. Increasing the diameter of a parabolic reflector causes which of the following
Ans: Decreasing beamwidth and increasing gain

40. A helical antenna is made up of a coil and a

Ans: Reflector

41. The output of a helical antenna is

Ans: Circularly polarized

42. A common omnidirectional microwave antenna is the

Ans: Bicone

Chapter 11: Introduction to Sat-Com

1. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite
Ans: Increases

2. The main functions of a communications satellite is a a(a)

Ans: Repeater
3. The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the
Ans: Transponder
4. A circular orbit around the equator with a 24 h period is called a(n)
Ans: Geostationary orbit

5. A satellite stays in orbit because the following 2 factor are balanced

Ans: Gravitational pull and inertia

6. The height of a satellite in a synchronous equatorial orbit is

Ans: 22300 mi

7. Most satellites operate in which frequency band?

Ans: 3 GHz to 30 GHz

8. The main power sources for a satellite are

Ans: Solar cells

9. The maximum height of an elliptical orbit is called

Ans: Apogee

10. Batteries are used to power all satellite subsystems

Ans: During eclipse periods

11. The satellite subsystem that monitors and controls the satellite is the
Ans: Telemetry, tracking and command subsystem

12. The basic technique used to stabilize a satellite is

Ans: Spin

13. The jet thrusters are usually fired to

Ans: Maintain altitude

14. Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which bands?

Ans: C and Ku

15. How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same frequency
Ans: Frequency reuse

16. The typical bandwidth of a satellite band is

Ans: 500 MHz

17. Which of the following is not usually a part of a transponder

Ans: Modulator

18. The satellite communications channels in a transponder are defined by the

Ans: Bandpass filter

19. The HPAs in most satellites are

Ans: Klystrons

20. The physical location of a satellite is determined by its

Ans: Latitude and longtitude

21. The receive GCE system in an earth station performs what function(s)
Ans: Demodulation and demultiplexing

22. Which of the following types of HPA is not used in earth stations
Ans: Magnetron

23. A common up-converter and downconverter IF is

Ans: 70 MHz

24. The type of modulation used on voice and video signals is

Ans: FM

25. The modulation normally used with digital data is

Ans: QPSK
26. Which of the following is not a typical output from a GPS receiver?
Ans: Speed
----------------------------------------------------------
Chapter 12: Data Communications

1. Data communications refer to the transmission of

Ans: Voice, Video, and Computer data

2. Data communications uses

Ans: Digital methods

3. Which of the following is not primarily a type of data communications

Ans: Teletype

4. The main reason that serial transmission is preferred to parallel transmission is that
Ans: Serial requires multiple channels

5. Mark and space refer respectively to

Ans: Binary 1 and binary 0

6. The number of amplitude, frequency, or phase changes that take place per second is known ad the
Ans: Baud rate

7. Data transmission of one character at a time with start and stop bits is known as what type of transmission?
Ans: Asynchronous

8. The most widely used data communications code is

Ans: ASCII

9. The ASCII code has

Ans: 7 bits

10. Digital signals may be transmitted over the telephone network if

Ans: they are converted to analog first.
11. Start and stop bits, respectively, are
Ans: Space and mark

12. Which of the following is correct?

Ans: The bit rate may be greater than the baud rate

13. A modem converts

Ans: both analog signals to digital and digital signals to analog signals

14. Slow-speed modems use

Ans: FSK

15. A carrier recovery circuit is not needed with

Ans: DPSK

16. The basic modulator and demodulator circuits in PSK are

Ans: Balanced modulators

17. The carrier used with a BPSK demodulator is

Ans: The BPSK signal itself

18. A 9600 baud rate signal can pass over the voice-grade telephone line if which kind of modulation is used?
Ans: QAM

19. Quadrature amplitude modulation is

Ans: AM plus QPSK

20. A QAM modulator does not use a(n)

Ans: XNOR

21. A rule or procedure that defines how data is to be transmitted is called a(n)
Ans: Protocol

22. A popular PC protocol is

Ans: Xmodem

23. A synchronous transmission usually begins with which character?

Ans: SYN

24. The characters making up the message in a synchronous transmission are collectively referred to as a data
Ans: Block

25. Bit errors in data transmission are usually cause by

Ans: Noise

26. Which of the following is not a commonly used method of error detection?
Ans: Redundancy

27. Which of the following words has the correct parity bit? Assume odd parity. The last bit is the parity bit
Ans: 1100110 1

28. Another name for parity is

Ans: Vertical redundancy check

29. Ten bit errors occur in two million transmitted. The bit error rate is
Ans: 5 x 10-6
Solution:
𝟏𝟎
𝒆= = 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟔
𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎𝟔

30. The building block of a parity or BCC generator is a(n)

Ans: XOR

31. A longitudinal redundancy check produces a(n)

Ans: Block check character

32. Dividing the data block by a constant produces a remainder that is used for error detection. It is called the
Ans: CRC

33. A CRC generator uses which components?

Ans: Shift register

34. Which of the following is not a LAN?

Ans: Cable TV system

35. The fastest LAN topology is the

Ans: Bus

36. Which is not a common LAN medium?

Ans: Twin Lead
37. A mainframe computer connected to multiple terminals and PCs usually uses which configuration?
Ans: Star

38. A small telephone switching system that can be used as a LAN is called a
Ans: PBX

39. Which medium is the least susceptible to noise?

Ans: Fiber-optic cable

40. Which medium is the most widely used in LANs?

Ans: Twisted pair

41. Transmitting the data signal directly over the medium is referred to as
Ans: Baseband

42. The techniques of using modulation and FDM to transmit multiple data channels of a common medium is known
as
Ans: Broadband

43. What is the minimum bandwidth required to transmit a 56 kbits/s binary

signal with no noise?
Ans: 28 kHz

Solution:
BW = fb/2 = 56 kbits/2 = 28 kHz

44. Sixteen different levels (symbols) are used to encode binary data. The
channel bandwidth is 36 MHz. The maximum channel capacity is
Ans: 288 Mbits/s

Solution
𝐶 = 2𝐵𝑊 log 2 𝑀
𝐶 = 2(36𝑀𝐻𝑧)(log 2(16)) = 288 𝑀𝑏𝑖𝑡𝑠/𝑠

45. What is the bandwidth required to transmit at a rate of 10Mbits/s in the

presence of a 28-db S/N ratio?

Ans: 1.075 MHz

Solution:
𝐶 = 𝐵𝑊 log 2 (1 + 𝑆⁄𝑁)

𝑆⁄ 𝑆
𝑁𝑑𝐵 = 10 log( ⁄𝑁)
𝑆
𝑁𝑑𝐵
( 10 )
𝑆
= 10 = 630.96
𝑁
10𝑀𝑏𝑖𝑡𝑠/𝑠
𝐵𝑊 = = 1.075𝑀𝐻𝑧
log 2 (1 + 630.96)

46. Which circuit is common to bot frequency-hopping and direct-sequence SS transmitters?

Ans: Frequency of operation

47. Spread spectrum stations sharing a band are identified by and distinguished
from one another by
Ans: PSN code

48. The type of modulation most often used with direct-sequence SS is

Ans: PSK

49. The main circuit in a PSN generator is a(n)

Ans: XOR
50. To a conventional narrowband receiver, an SS signal appears to be like
Ans: Noise
51. Which of the following is not a benefit of SS?
Ans: Noise proof

52. Spread spectrum is a form of multiplexing

Ans: true

53. The most critical and difficult part of receiving a direct-sequence SS signal is
Ans: Synchronism

Chapter 13: Fiber Optic Communications

1. Which of the following is not a common application of fiber-optic cable?

Ans: Consumer TV

2. Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes the interface at an angle
with what relationship to the critical angle?
Ans: greater than

3. The operation of a fiber-optic cable is based on the principle of

Ans: Reflection

4. Which of the following is not a common type of fiber-optic cable?

Ans: Single-mode grade-index

5. Cable attenuation is usually expressed in terms of

Ans: dB/km

6. Which cable length has the highest attenuation?

Ans: 2 km

7. The upper pulse rate and information carrying capacity of a cable is limited by
Ans: Attenuation

8. The core of a fiber-optic cable is made of

Ans: Glass

9. The core of a fiber-optic cable is surrounded by

Ans: Cladding

10. The speed of light in plastic compared to the speed of light in air is
Ans: Less

11. Which of the following is not a major benefit of fiber-optic cable?

Ans: Lower cost

12. The main benefit of light-wave communications over microwaves or any other communications media are
Ans: Wider bandwidth

13. Which of the following is not part of the optical spectrum

Ans: X-rays
14. The wavelength of visible light extends from
Ans: 400 to 750 nm

15. The speed of light is

Ans: 300,000,000 m/s

16. Refraction is the

Ans: Bending of light waves

17. The ratio of the speed of light in air to the speed of light in another substance
is called the
Ans: Index of refraction

18. A popular light wavelength in fiber-optic cable is

Ans: 1.3 μm

19. Which type of fiber-optic cable is the most widely used?

Ans: Multimode step-index

20. Which type of fiber-optic cable is best for very high speed data?
Ans: Single mode step-index

21. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion?
Ans: Single mode step-index

22. Which of the following is not a factor in cable light loss?

Ans: Reflection

23. A distance of 8 km is the same as

Ans: 5 mi

24. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15 db/km. The attenuation in a cable 1000ft
long is
Ans: 4.57 dB
Solution:
1000ft = 0.3048 km
σ = 15 ×0.3048 = 4.57dB

25. Fiber-optic with attenuations of 1.8, 3.4, 5.9 and 18 dB are linked together. The
total loss is
Ans: 29.1 dB
Solution:
LossT = 1.8 + 3.4 + 5.9 + 18 = 29.1 dB

26. Which light emitter is preferred for highspeed data in a fiber-optic system?
Ans: Laser

27. Most fiber-optic light sources emit light in which spectrum?

Ans: Visible

28. Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with

Ans: Forward bias

29. Single-frequency light is called

Ans: Monochromatic

30. Laser light is very bright because it is

Ans: Coherent

31. Which of the following is not a common detector?

Ans: Photovoltaic diode

32. Which of the following is the fastest light sensor?

Ans: Avalanche photodiode
33. Photodiodes operate properly with
Ans: Reverse bias

34. The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-optic system is 2Gbits-km/s.
What is the maximum rate at 5 km?
Ans: 400 Mbits/s
Solution:
20 𝐺𝑏𝑖𝑡𝑠 − 𝑘𝑚/𝑠
𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑎𝑥 = = 400𝑏𝑖𝑡𝑠/𝑠
5 𝑘𝑚
35. Which fiber-optic system is better?
Ans: 3 repeaters

Chapter 14: Modern Comm Apps

1. Printed documents to be transmitted by fax are converted into a baseband electrical signal by the process of
Ans: Scanning

2. The most commonly used light sensor in a modern fax machine is a

Ans: Charge coupled device

3. In FM fax, the frequencies for black and white are

Ans: 1500 and 2300 Hz

4. Which resolution produces the best quality fax?

Ans: 400 lines per inch

5. Group 2 fax uses which modulation?

Ans: Vestigial sideband AM

6. The most widely used fax standard is

Ans: Group 3

7. Group 3 fax uses which modulation?

Ans: QAM
8. Most fax printers are of which type?
Ans: Thermal

9. Facsimile standards are set by the

Ans: CCITT

10. What type of graphics is commonly transmitted by radio fax?

Ans: Satellite weather photos

11. The transmission speed of group 4 fax is

Ans: 56 kbits/s

12. The master control center for a cellular telephone system is the
Ans: Mobile telephone switching office

13. Each cell site contains a

Ans: Repeater

14. Multiple cells within an area may use the same channel frequencies
Ans: True

15. Cellular telephones use which type of operation?

Ans: Full-duplex

16. The maximum frequency deviation of an FM cellular transmitter is

Ans: 12 kHz

17. The maximum output power of a cellular transmitter is

Ans: 3 W

18. Receive channel 22 is 870.66 MHz. Receive channel 23 is

Ans: 870.69 MHz

Solution:
fCH 23 = fCH 22 + 30 kHz*
fCH 23 = 870.66 MHz + 30 kHz
fCH 23 = 870.69 MHz
*in cellular radio systems, receive channels
are spaced 30 kHz apart

19. A transmit channel has a frequency of 837.6 MHz. The receive channel frequency is
Ans: 882.6 MHz

Solution:
freceive = ftransmit + 45 MHz*
freceive = 837.6 MHz + 45 MHz
freceive = 882.6 MHz
*in cellular radio systems, the transmit and
receive frequencies are spaced 30 kHz apart

20. A receive channel frequency is 872.4 MHz. To develop an 82.2 MHz IF, the frequency synthesizer must supply
an LO signal of
Ans: 954.6 MHz

Solution:
fLO = fr + IF
fLO = 872.4 MHz + 82.2 MHz
fLO = 954.6 MHz

21. The output power of a cellular radio is controlled by the

Ans: MTSO

22. When the signal from a mobile cellular unit drops below a certain level, what
action occurs?
Ans: The unit is “handed off” to a closer cell

23. In a cellular radio, the duplexer is a

Ans: Pair of sharp bandpass filter

24. The time from the transmission of a radar pulse to its reception is 0.12 ms. The distance to the target is how
many nautical miles?
Ans: 9.7 nmi
Solution:
𝑇 120𝜇2
𝐷= = = 9.7𝑛𝑚𝑖
12.36 12.36

25. The ability of a radar to determine the bearing to a target depends upon the
Ans: Antenna directivity

26. The pulse duration of a radar signal is 600 ns. The PRF is 185 pulses per second. The duty cycle is
Ans: 1.1 %

Solution:
 𝟏 𝟏
𝑷𝑹𝑻 = = = 𝟓. 𝟒𝟎𝟓 𝒎𝒔
𝑷𝑹𝑭 𝟏𝟖𝟓
𝑷𝑾𝑻
𝑫𝒖𝒕𝒚 𝑪𝒚𝒄𝒍𝒆 =
𝑷𝑹𝑻
𝟔𝟎𝟎 𝒏𝒔
𝑫𝒖𝒕𝒚 𝑪𝒚𝒄𝒍𝒆 = × 𝟏𝟎𝟎 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟏𝟏
𝟓. 𝟒𝟎𝟓 𝒎𝒔

27. The Doppler effect is used to produce modulation of which type of radar signal?
Ans: CW (Continuous-wave)

28. The Doppler Effect allows which characteristics of a target to be

measured?
Ans: Speed

29. The Doppler Effect is a change in what signal characteristic produced by relative motion between the radar set
and a target?
Ans: Frequency

30. The most widely used radar transmitter component is a

Ans: Magnetron

31. Low-power radar transmitters and receiver LOs use which component?
Ans: Gunn diode

32. What component in a duplexer protects the receiver from the high-power transmitter output?
Ans: Spark gap

33. Most radar antennas usa a

Ans: Horn and parabolic reflector

34. The most common radar display is the

Ans: Plan position indicator

35. A radar antenna using multiple dipoles or slot antennas in a matrix with variable phase shifters is called a(n)
Ans: Phased array

36. Police radars use which technique?

Ans: CW (Continuous-wave)

37. Which of the following is a typical radar operating frequency?

Ans: 10 GHz

38. The TV signal uses which types of modulation for picture and sound respectively?
Ans: AM, FM

39. If a TV sound transmitter has a carrier frequency of 197.75 MHz, the picture carrier is
Ans: 193.25 MHz
Solution:
SCARRIER = PCARRIER + 4.5 MHz
PCARRIER = SCARRIER - 4.5 MHz
PCARRIER = 197.75 MHz - 4.5 MHz
PCARRIER = 193.25 MHz

40. The total bandwidth of an NTSC TV signal is

Ans: 6 MHz
41. What is the total number of interlaced scan lines in one complete frame of a
NTSC U.S. TV signal?
Ans: 525

42. What keeps the scanning process at the receiver in step with the scanning in the
picture tube at receiver?
Ans: Sync pulses

43. What is the black-and-white or monochrome brightness signal in TV

called
Ans: Luminance Y

44. What is the name of the solid-state imaging device used int TV cameras that converts the light in a scene into
an electrical signal?
Ans: CCD

45. The I and Q composite color signals are multiplexed onto the picture carrier by modulating a 3.58 MHz
subcarrier using
Ans: DSB AM

46. The assembly around the neck of a picture tube that produces the magnetic fields that deflect and scan the
electron beams is called the
Ans: Yoke

47. The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a TV receiver IF are respectively
Ans: 45.75 and 41.25 MHz

48. The sound IF in a TV receiver is

Ans: 41.25 MHz

49. What type of circuit is used to modulate and demodulate the color signals?
Ans: Balanced demodulator

50. What circuit in the TV receiver is used to develop the high voltage needed to operate the picture tube?
Ans: horizontal output

51. What ensures proper color synchronization at the receiver?

Ans: 3.58 MHz color burst

52. Which of the following is not a benefit of cable TV?

Ans: Lower-cost reception

53. What technique is used to permit hundreds of TV signals to share a common cable?
Ans: FDM
 MALVINO-69 pages

Chapter 1: Introduction b. Open-load voltage

c. Ideal source voltage
1. An ideal voltage source has d. Norton voltage
a. Zero internal resistance
b. Infinite internal resistance 8. The Thevenin resistance is equal in value to
c. A load-dependent voltage the
d. A load-dependent current a. Load resistance
b. Half the load resistance
2. A real voltage source has c. Internal resistance of a Norton circuit
a. Zero internal resistance d. Open-load resistance
b. Infinite internal resistance
c. A small internal resistance 9. To get the Thevenin voltage, you have to
d. A large internal resistance a. Short the load resistor
b. Open the load resistor
3. If a load resistance is 1 kohm, a stiff voltage c. Short the voltage source
source has a resistance of d. Open the voltage source
a. At least 10 ohm
b. Less than 10 ohm 10. To get the Norton current, you have to
c. More than 100 kohm a. Short the load resistor
d. Less than 100 kohm b. Open the load resistor
c. Short the voltage source
4. An ideal current source has d. Open the current source
a. Zero internal resistance
b. Infinite internal resistance 11. The Norton current is sometimes called the
c. A load-dependent voltage a. Shorted-load current
d. A load-dependent current b. Open-load current
c. Thevenin current
5. A real current source has d. Thevenin voltage
a. Zero internal resistance
b. Infinite internal resistance 12. A solder bridge
c. A small internal resistance a. may produce a short
d. A large internal resistance b. may cause an open
c. is useful in some circuits
6. If a load resistance is 1 kohm, a stiff current d. always has high resistance
source has a resistance of
a. At least 10 ohm 13. A cold-solder joint
b. Less than 10 ohm a. shows good soldering technique
c. More than 100 kohm b. usually produces an open
d. Less than 100 kohm c. is sometimes useful
d. always has low resistance

14. An open resistor has

a. Infinite current through it
b. Zero voltage across it
c. Infinite voltage across it
d. Zero current through it
7. The Thevenin voltage is the same as the
a. Shorted-load voltage
Chapter 1: Introduction 20. Thevenin’s theorem replaces a
complicated circuit facing a load by an
15. A shorted resistor has a. Ideal voltage source and parallel resistor
a. Infinite current through it b. Ideal current source and parallel resistor
b. Zero voltage across it c. Ideal voltage source and series resistor
c. Infinite voltage across it d. Ideal current source and series resistor
d. Zero current through it
21. Norton’s theorem replaces a complicated
16. An ideal voltage source and an internal circuit facing a load by an
resistance is an example of the a. Ideal voltage source and parallel resistor
a. Ideal approximation b. Ideal current source and parallel resistor
b. Second approximation c. Ideal voltage source and series resistor
c. Higher approximation d. Ideal current source and series resistor
d. Exact model
22. One way to short a device is
17. Treating a connecting wire as a conductor a. With a cold-solder joint
with zero resistance is an example of the b. With a solder bridge
a. Ideal approximation c. By disconnecting it
b. Second approximation d. By opening it
c. Higher approximation
d. Exact model 23. Derivations are
a. Discoveries
18. The voltage out of an ideal voltage source b. Inventions
a. Is zero c. Produced by mathematics
b. Is constant d. Always called theorems
c. Depends on the value of load resistance
d. Depends on the internal resistance 24. Laws are proved by
a. Definition
19. The current out of an ideal current source b. Experiment
a. Is zero c. Mathematics
b. Is constant d. Formulas
c. Depends on the value of load resistance
d. Depends on the internal resistance 25. Definitions are
a. Man made
b. Invented
c. Made up
d. All of the above
Chapter 2: Semiconductors
8. Silicon atoms combine into an orderly
1. The nucleus of a copper atom contains how pattern called a
many protons? a. Covalent bond
a. 1 b. Crystal
b. 4 c. Semiconductor
c. 18 d. Valence orbit
d. 29
9. An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes
2. The net charge of a neutral copper atom is in it at room temperature. What causes these
a. 0 holes?
b. +1 a. Doping
c. -1 b. Free electrons
d. +4 c. Thermal energy
d. Valence electrons
3. Assume the valence electron is removed
from a copper atom. The net charge of the 10. Each valence electron in an intrinsic
atom becomes semiconductor establishes a
a. 0 a. Covalent bond
b. + 1 b. Free electron
c. -1 c. Hole
d. +4 d. Recombination

4. The valence electron of a copper atom 11. The merging of a free electron and a hole
experiences what kind of attraction toward the is called
nucleus? a. Covalent bonding
a. None b. Lifetime
b. Weak c. Recommendation
c. Strong d. Then-nal energy
d. Impossible to say
12. At room temperature an intrinsic silicon
5. How many valence electrons does a silicon crystal acts approximately like
atom have? a. A battery
a. 0 b. A conductor
b. 1 c. An insulator
c. 2 d. A piece of copper wire
d. 4
13. The amount of time between the creation
6. Which is the most widely used of a hole and its disappearance is called
semiconductor? a. Doping
a. Copper b. Lifetime
b. Germanium c. Recombination
c. Silicon d. Valence
d. None of the above
14. The valence electron of a conductor is also
7. How many protons does the nucleus of a called a
silicon atom contain? a. Bound electron
a. 4 b. Free electron
b. 14 c. Nucleus
c. 29 d. Proton
d. 32
Chapter 2: Semiconductors 22. At room temperature an intrinsic
semiconductor has
15. A conductor has how many types of flow? a. A few free electrons and holes
a. 1 b. Many holes
a. b, 2 c. Many free electrons
b. 3 d. No holes
c. 4
23. The number of free electrons and holes in
16. A semiconductor has how many types of an intrinsic semiconductor increases when
flow? the temperature
a. 1 a. Decreases
b. 2 b. Increases
c. 3 c. Stays the same
d. 4 d. None of the above

17. When a voltage is applied to a 24. The flow of valence electrons to the left
semiconductor, holes will flow means that holes are flowing to the
a. Away from the negative potential a. Left
b. Toward the positive potential b. Right
c. In the external circuit c. Either way
d. None of the above d. None of the above

18. A conductor has how many holes? 25. Holes act like
a. Many a. Atoms
b. None b. Crystals
c. Only those produced by thermal energy c. Negative charges
d. The same number as free electrons d. Positive charges

19. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number 26. Trivatent atoms have how many valence
of free electrons electrons?
a. Equals the number of holes a. 1
b. Is greater than the number of holes b. 3
c. Is less than the number of holes c. 4
d. None of the above d. 5

20. Absolute zero temperature equals 27. A donor atom has how many valence
a. -273 degrees C electrons?
b. 0 degrees C a. 1
c. 25 degrees C b. 3
d. 50 degrees C c. 4
d. 5
21. At absolute zero temperature an intrinsic
semiconductor has 28. If you wanted to produce a p-type
a. A few free electrons semiconductor, which of these would you
b. Many holes use?
c. Many free electrons a. Acceptor atoms
d. No holes or free electrons b. Donor atoms
c. Pentavalent impurity
d. Silicon
29. Holes are the minority carriers in which 36. How many electrons are there in the
type of semiconductor? valence orbit of a silicon atom within a
a. Extrinsic crystal?
b. Intrinsic a. 1
c. n-type b. 4
d. p-type c. 8
d. 14
30. How many free electrons does a p-type
semiconductor contain? 37. Positive ions are atoms that have
a. Many a. Gained a proton
b. None b. Lost a proton
c. Only those produced by thermal energy c. Gained an electron
d. Same number as holes d. Lost an electron

31. Silver is the best conductor. How many 38. Which of the following describes an n-type
valence electrons do you think it has? semiconductor?
a. 1 a. Neutral
b. 4 b. Positively charged
c. 18 c. Negatively charged
d. 29 d. Has many holes

32. Suppose an intrinsic semiconductor has 1 39. A p-type semiconductor contains holes
billion free electrons at room temperature. If and
the temperature changes to 75'C, how many a. Positive ions
holes are there? b. Negative ions
a. Fewer than 1 billion c. Pentavalent atoms
b. 1 billion d. Donor atoms
c. More than 1 billion
d. Impossible to say 40. Which of the following describes a p-type
semiconductor?
33. An external voltage source is applied to a a. Neutral
p-type semiconductor. If the left end of the b. Positively charged
crystal is positive, which way do the majority c. Negatively charged
carriers flow? d. Has many free electrons
a. Left
b. Right 41. Which of the following cannot move?
c. Neither a. Holes
d. Impossible to say b. Free electrons
a. Ions
34. Which of the following doesn't fit in the c. Majority carriers
group?
a. Conductor
b. Semiconductor
c. Four valence electrons
d. Crystal structure

35. Which of the following is approximately

equal to room temperature?
a. 0 degrees C
b. 25 degrees C
c. 50 degrees C
d. 75degrees C
42. What causes the depletion layer? 46. Surface-leakage current is part of the
a. Doping a. Forward current
b. Recombination b. Forward breakdown
c. Barrier potential c. Reverse current
d. Ions d. Reverse breakdown

43. What is the barrier potential of a silicon 47. The voltage where avalanche occurs is
diode at room temperature? called the
a. 0.3 V a. Barrier potential
b. 0.7 V b. Depletion layer
a. c 1 V c. Knee voltage
c. 2 mV per degree Celsius d. Breakdown voltage

44. To produce a large forward current in a 48. Diffusion of free electrons across the
silicon diode, the applied voltage must be junction of an unbiased diode produces
greater than a. Forward bias
a. 0 b. Reverse bias
b. 0.3 V c. Breakdown
c. 0.7 V d. The depletion layer
d. 1 V
49. When the reverse voltage increases from 5
45. In a silicon diode the reverse current is to 10 V, the depletion layer
usually a. Becomes smaller
a. Very small b. Becomes larger
b. Very large c. Is unaffected
c. Zero d. Breaks down
d. In the breakdown region
50. When a diode is forward-biased, the
recombination of free electrons and holes may
produce
a. Heat
b. Light
c. Radiation
d. All of the above
Chapter 3: Diode Theory 9. How much current is there through the
second approximation of a silicon diode when
1 . When the graph of current versus voltage it is reverse biased?
is a straight line, the device is referred to as a. 0
a. Active b. 1 mA
b. Linear c. 300 mA
c. Nonlinear d. None of the above
d. Passive
10. How much forward diode voltage is there
2. What kind of device is a resistor? with the ideal-diode approximation?
a. Unilateral a. 0
b. Linear b. 0.7 V
c. Nonlinear c. More than 0.7 V
d. Bipolar d. 1 V

3. What kind of a device is a diode? 11. The bulk resistance of a 1N4001 is

a. Bilateral a. 0
b. Linear b. 0.23 ohm
c. Nonlinear c. 10 ohm
d. Unipolar d. 1 kohm

4. How is a nonconducting diode biased? 12. If the bulk resistance is zero, the graph
a. Forward above the knee becomes
b. Inverse a. Horizontal
c. Poorly b. Vertical
d. Reverse c. Tilted at 450
d. None of the above
5. When the diode current is large, the bias is
a. Forward 13. The ideal diode is usually adequate when
b. Inverse a. Troubleshooting
c. Poor b. Doing precise calculations
d. Reverse c. The source voltage is low
d. The load resistance is low
6. The knee voltage of a diode is
approximately equal to the 14. The second approximation works well
a. Applied voltage when
b. Barrier potential a. Troubleshooting
c. Breakdown voltage b. Load resistance is high
d. Forward voltage c. Source voltage is high
d. All of the above
7. The reverse current consists of minority-
carrier current and
a. Avalanche current
b. Forward current
c. Surface-leakage current
d. Zener current

8. How much voltage is there across the

second approximation of a silicon diode when
it is forward biased?
a. 0
b. 0.3 V
c. 0.7 V
d. 1 V
15. The only time you have to use the third 18. How much load current is there in Fig. 3-
approximation is when 19 with the third approximation?
a. Load resistance is low a. 0
b. Source voltage is high b. 14.3 mA
c. Troubleshooting c. 15 mA
d. None of the above d. 50 mA

16. How much load current is there in Fig. 3- 19. If the diode is open in Fig. 3-19, the load
19 (see your textbook) with the ideal diode? voltage is
a. 0 a. 0
b. 14.3 mA b. 14.3 V
c. 15 mA c. 20 V
d. 50 mA d. -15 V

17. How much load current is there in Fig. 3- 20. If the resistor is ungrounded in Fig. 3-19,
19 (see your textbook) with the second the voltage measured with a DMM between
approximation? the top of the resistor and ground is closest to
a. 0 a. 0
b. 14.3 mA b. 15 V
c. 15 mA c. 20 V
d. 50 mA d. -15 V

21. The load voltage measures zero in Fig. 3-

19. The trouble may be
a. A shorted diode
b. An open diode
c. An open load resistor
d. Too much supply voltage
Chapter 4: Diode Circuits 8. What is the peak load voltage in a full-wave
rectifier if the secondary voltage is 20 V rms?
1. If N1/N2 = 2, and the primary voltage is 120 a. 0 V
V, what is the secondary voltage? b. 0.7 V
a. 0 V c. 14.1 V
b. 36 V d. 28.3 V
c. 60 V
d. 240 V 9. We want a peak load voltage of 40 V out of
a bridge rectifier. What is the approximate
2. In a step-down transformer, which is larger? rms value of secondary voltage?
a. Primary voltage a. 0 V
b. Secondary voltage b. 14.4 V
c. Neither c. 28.3 V
d. No answer possible d. 56.6 V

3. A transformer has a turns ratio of 4: 1. 10. With a full-wave rectified voltage across
What is the peak secondary voltage if 115 V the load resistor, load current flows for what
rms is applied to the primary winding? part of a cycle?
a. 40.7 V a. 0 degrees
b. 64.6 V b. 90 degrees
c. 163 V c. 180 degrees
d. 650 V d. 360 degrees

4. With a half-wave rectified voltage across the 11. What is the peak load voltage out of a
load resistor, load current flows for what part bridge rectifier for a secondary voltage of 15 V
of a cycle? rms? (Use second approximation.)
a. 0 degrees a. 9.2 V
b. 90 degrees b. 15 V
c. 180 degrees c. 19.8 V
d. 360 degrees d. 24.3 V

5. Line voltage may be from 105 V rms to 125 12. If line frequency is 60 Hz, the output
rms in a half-wave rectifier. With a 5:1 step- frequency of a half-wave rectifier is
down transformer, the maximum peak load a. 30 Hz
voltage is closest to b. 60 Hz
a. 21 V c. 120 Hz
b. 25 V d. 240 Hz
c. 29.6 V
d. 35.4 V

6. The voltage out of a bridge rectifier is a

a. Half-wave signal
b. Full-wave signal
c. Bridge-rectified signal
d. Sine wave

7. If the line voltage is 115 V rms, a turns ratio

of 5: 1 means the rms secondary voltage is
closest to
a. 15 V
b. 23 V
c. 30 V
d. 35 V
13. If line frequency is 60 Hz, the output 17. If the load current is 5 mA and the filter
frequency of a bridge rectifier is capacitance is 1000uF, what is the peak-to-
a. 30 Hz peak ripple out of a bridge rectifier?
b. 60 Hz a. 21.3 pV
c. 120 Hz b. 56.3 nV
d. 240 Hz c. 21.3 mV
d. 41.7 mV
14. With the same secondary voltage and filter,
which has the most ripple? 18. The diodes in a bridge rectifier each have a
a. Half-wave rectifier maximum dc current rating of 2 A. This
b. Full-wave rectifier means the dc load current can have a
c. Bridge rectifier maximum value of
d. Impossible to say a. 1 A
b. 2 A
15. With the same secondary voltage and filter, c. 4 A
which produces the least load voltage? d. 8 A
a. Half-wave rectifier
b. Full-wave rectifier 19. What is the PIV across each diode of a
c. Bridge rectifier bridge rectifier with a secondary voltage of 20
d. Impossible to say V rms?
a. 14.1 V
16. If the filtered load current is 10 mA, which b. 20 V
of the following has a diode current of 10 mA? c. 28.3 V
a. Half-wave rectifier d. 34 V
b. Full-wave rectifier
c. Bridge rectifier 20. If the secondary voltage increases in a
d. Impossible to say bridge rectifier with a capacitor-input filter,
the load voltage will
a. Decrease
b. Stay the same
c. Increase
d. None of these

21. If the filter capacitance is increased, the

ripple will
a. Decrease
b. Stay the same
c. Increase
d. None of these
Chapter 5: Special-Purpose Diodes 7. The load voltage is approximately constant
when a zener diode is
1. What is true about the breakdown voltage a. Forward-biased
in a zener diode? b. Reverse-biased
a. It decreases when current increases. c. Operating in the breakdown region
b. It destroys the diode. d. Unbiased
c. It equals the current times the resistance.
d. It is approximately constant. 8. In a loaded zener regulator, which is the
largest current?
2. Which of these is the best description of a a. Series current
zener diode? b. Zener current
a. It is a rectifier diode. c. Load current
b. It is a constant-voltage device. d. None of these
c. It is a constant-cuffent device.
d. It works in the forward region. 9. If the load resistance decreases in a zener
regulator, the zener current
3. A zener diode a. Decreases
a. Is a battery b. Stays the same
b. Has a constant voltage in the breakdown c. Increases
region d. Equals the source voltage divided by the
c. Has a barrier potential of 1 V series resistance
d. Is forward-biased
10. If the load resistance decreases in a zener
4. The voltage across the zener resistance is regulator, the series current
usually a. Decreases
a. Small b. Stays the same
b. Large c. Increases
c. Measured in volts d. Equals the source voltage divided by the
d. Subtracted from the breakdown voltage series resistance

5. If the series resistance decreases in an 11. When the source voltage increases in a
unloaded zener regulator, the zener current zener regulator, which of these currents
a. Decreases remains approximately constant?
b. Stays the same a. Series current
c. Increases b. Zener current
d. Equals the voltage divided by the resistance c. Load current
d. Total current
6.In the second approximation, the total
voltage across the zener diode is the sum of- 12. If the zener diode in a zener regulator is
the breakdown voltage and the voltage across connected with the wrong polarity, the load
the voltage will be closest to
a. Source a. 0.7 V
b. Series resistor b. 10 V
c. Zener resistance c. 14 V
d. Zener diode d. 18 V
13. At high frequencies, ordinary diodes don't 21. When the reverse voltage increases, the
work properly because of capacitance
a. Forward bias a. Decreases
b. Reverse bias b. Stays the same
c. Breakdown c. Increases
d. Charge storage d. Has more bandwidth

14. The capacitance of a varactor diode 22. The varactor is usually

increases when the reverse voltage across it a. Forward-biased
a. Decreases b. Reverse-biased
b. Increases c. Unbiased
c. Breaks down d. Operated in the breakdown region
d. Stores charges
23. The device to use for rectifying a weak ac
15. Breakdown does not destroy a zener diode signal is a
provided the zener current is less than the a. Zener diode
a. Breakdown voltage b. Light-emitting diode
b. Zener test current c. Varistor
c. Maximum zener current rating d. Back diode
d. Banier potential
24. Which of the following has a negative-
16. To display the digit 8 in a seven-segment resistance region?
indicator, a. Tunnel diode
a. C must be lighted b. Step-recovery diode
b. G must be off c. Schottky diode
c. F must be on d. Optocoupler
d. All segments must be on
25. A blown-fuse indicator uses a
17. A photodiode is normally a. Zener diode
a. Forward-biased b. Constant-cuffent diode
b. Reverse-biased c. Light-emitting diode
c. Neither forward- nor reverse-biased d. Back diode
d. Emitting light
26. To isolate an output circuit from an input
18. When the light increases, the reverse circuit, which is the device to use?
minority carrier current in a photodiode a. Back diode
a. Decreases b. Optocoupler
b. Increases c. Seven-segment indicator
c. Is unaffected d. Tunnel diode
d. Reverses direction

19. The device associated with voltage-

controlled capacitance is a
a. Light-emitting diode
b. Photodiode
c. Varactor diode
d. Zener diode

20. If the depletion layer gets wider, the

capacitance
a. Decreases
b. Stays the same
c. Increases
d. Is variable
27. The diode with a forward voltage drop of 28. For typical operation, you need to use
approximately 0.25 V is the reverse bias with a
a. Step-recovery diode a. Zener diode
b. Schottky diode b. Photodiode
c. Back diode c. Varactor
d. Constant-current diode d. All of the above
Chapter 6: Bipolar Transistor 8. The base of an npn transistor is thin and
a. Heavily doped
1. A transistor has how many doped regions? b. Lightly doped
a. 1 c. Metallic
b. 2 d. Doped by a pentavalent material
c. 3
d. 4 9. Most of the electrons in the base of an npn
transistor flow
2. What is one important thing transistors do? a. Out of the base lead
a. Amplify weak signals b. Into the collector
b. Rectify line voltage c. Into the emitter
a. C. Regulate voltage d. Into the base supply
c. Emit light
10. Most of the electrons in the base of an npn
3. Who invented the first junction transistor? transistor do not recombine because they
a. Bell a. Have a long lifetime
b. Faraday b. Have a negative charge
c. Marconi c. Must flow a long way through the base
d. Schockley d. Flow out of the base

4. In an npn transistor, the majority carriers 11. Most of the electrons that flow through the
in the base are base will
a. Free electrons a. Flow into the collector
b. Holes b. Flow out of the base lead
c. Neither c. Recombine with base holes
d. Both d. Recombine with collector holes

5. The barrier potential across each silicon 12. The current gain of a transistor is the ratio
depletion layer is of the
a. 0 a. Collector current to emitter current
b. 0.3 V b. Collector current to base current
c. 0.7 V c. Base current to collector current
d. 1 V d. Emitter current to collector current

6. The emitter diode is usually 13. Increasing the collector supply voltage will
a. Forward-biased increase
b. Reverse-biased a. Base current
c. Nonconducting b. Collector current
d. Operating in the breakdown region c. Emitter current
d. None of the above
7. For normal operation of the transistor, the
collector diode has to be 14. The fact that only a few holes are in the
a. Forward-biased base region means the base is
b. Reverse-biased a. Lightly doped
c. Nonconducting b. Heavily doped
d. Operating in the breakdown region c. Undoped
d. None of the above
15. In a normally biased npn transistor, the 22. A small collector current with zero base
electrons in the emitter have enough energy to current is caused by the leakage current of
overcome the barrier potential of the the
a. Base-emitter junction a. Emitter diode
b. Base-collector junction b. Collector diode
c. Collector-base junction c. Base diode
d. Recombination path d. Transistor

16. When a free electron recombines with a 23. A transistor acts like a diode and a
hole in the base region, the free electron a. Voltage source
becomes b. Current source
a. Another free electron c. Resistance
b. A valence electron d. Power supply
c. A conduction-band electron
d. A majority carrier 24. If the base current is 100 mA and the
current gain is 30, the collector current is
17. What is the most important fact about the a. 300 mA
collector current? b. 3 A
a. It is measured in milliamperes. c. 3.33 A
b. It equals the base current divided by the d. 10 A
current gain.
c. It is small. 25. The base-emitter voltage of an ideal
d. It approximately equals the emitter transistor is
current. a. 0
b. 0.3 V
18. If the current gain is 200 and the collector c. 0.7 V
current is 100 mA, the base current is d. 1 V
a. 0.5 mA
b. 2 mA 26. If you recalculate the collector-emitter
c. 2 A voltage with the second approximation, the
d. 20 A answer will usually be
a. Smaller than the ideal value
19. The base-emitter voltage is usually b. The same as the ideal value
a. Less than the base supply voltage c. Larger than the ideal value
b. Equal to the base supply voltage d. Inaccurate
c. More than the base supply voltage
d. Cannot answer

20. The collector-emitter voltage is usually

a. Less than the collector supply voltage
b. Equal to the collector supply voltage
c. More than the collector supply voltage
d. Cannot answer

21. The power dissipated by a transistor

approximately equals the collector current
times
a. Base-emitter voltage
b. Collector-emitter voltage
c. Base supply voltage
d. 0.7 V
27. In the active region, the collector current 28. The base-emitter voltage of the second
is not changed significantly by approximation is
a. Base supply voltage a. 0
b. Base current b. 0.3 V
c. Current gain c. 0.7 V
d. Collector resistance d. 1 V

29. If the base resistor is open, what is the

collector cuffent?
a. 0
b. 1 mA
c. 2 mA
d. 10 mA
Chapter 7: Transistor Fundamentals 7. Ignoring the bulk resistance of the collector
diode, the collector-emitter saturation voltage
1. The current gain of a transistor is defined is
as the ratio of the collector current to the a. 0
a. Base current b. A few tenths of a volt
b. Emitter current a. C. 1 V
c. Supply current c. Supply voltage
d. Collector current
8. Three different Q points are shown on a
2. The graph of current gain versus collector- load line. The upper Q point represents the
current indicates that the current gain a. Minimum current gain
a. Is constant b. Intermediate current gain
b. Varies slightly c. Maximum current gain
c. Varies significantly d. Cutoff point
d. Equals the collector current divided by the
base current 9. If a transistor operates at the middle of the
load line, an increase in the base resistance
3. When the collector current increases, what will move the Q point
does the current gain do? a. Down
a. Decreases b. Up
b. Stays the same c. Nowhere
c. Increases d. Off the load line
d. Any of the above
10. If a transistor operates at the middle of
4. As the temperature increases, the current the load line, an increase in the current gain
gain will move the Q point
a. Decreases a. Down
b. Remains the same b. Up
c. Increases c. Nowhere
d. Can be any of the above d. Off the load line

5. When the base resistor decreases, the 11. If the base supply voltage increases, the Q
collector voltage will probably point moves
a. Decrease a. Down
b. Stay the same b. Up
c. Increase c. Nowhere
d. Do all of the above d. Off the load line

6. If the base resistor is very small, the 12. Suppose the base resistor is open. The Q
transistor will operate in the point will be
a. Cutoff region a. In the middle of the load line
b. Active region b. At the upper end of the load line
c. Saturation region c. At the lower end of the load line
d. Breakdown region d. Off the load line
13. If the base supply voltage is disconnected, 20. A circuit with a fixed emitter current is
the collector-emitter voltage will equal called
a. 0 V a. Base bias
b. 6 V b Emitter bias
c. 10.5 V c Transistor bias
d. Collector supply voltage d. Two-supply bias

14. If the base resistor is shorted, the 21. The first step in analyzing emitter-based
transistor will probably be circuits is to find the
a. Saturated a. Base current
b. In cutoff b. Emitter voltage
c. Destroved c. Emitter current
d. None of the above d. Collector current

15. If the collector resistor decreases to zero in 22. If the current gain is unknown in an
a base-biased circuit, the load line will become emitter-biased circuit, you cannot calculate
a. Horizontal the
b. Vertical a. Emitter voltage
c. Useless b. Emitter current
d. Flat c. Collector current
d. Base current
16. The collector current is 10 mA. If the
current gain is 100, the base current is 23. If the emitter resistor is open, the collector
a. 1 microamp voltage is
b. 10 microamp a. Low
c. 100 microamp b. High
d. 1 mA c. Unchanged
d. Unkiiown
17. The base current is 50 microamp. If the
current gain is 125, the collector current is 24. If the collector resistor is open, the
closest in value to collector voltage is
a. 40 microamp a. Low
b. 500 microamp b. High
c. 1 mA c. Unchanged
d. 6 mA d. Unknown

18. When the Q point moves along the load

line, the voltage increases when the collector
current
a. Decreases
b. Stays the same
c. Increases
d. Does none of the above

19. When there is no base current in a

transistor switch, the output voltage from the
transistor is
a. Low
b. High
c. Unchanged
d. Unknown
25. When the current gain increases from 50 26. If the emitter resistance decreases, the
to 300 in an emitter-biased circuit, the collector voltage
collector current a. Decreases
a. Remains almost the same b. Stays the same
b. Decreases by a factor of 6 c. Increases
c. Increases by a factor of 6 d. Breaks down the transistor
d. Is zero
27. If the emitter resistance decreases, the
a. Q point moves up
b. Collector current decreases
c. Q point stays where it is
d. Current gain increases
Chapter 8: Transistor Biasing 8. VDB normally operates in the
a. Active region
1. For emitter bias, the voltage across the b. Cutoff region
emitter resistor is the same as the voltage c. Saturation region
between the emitter and the d. Breakdown region
a. Base
b. Collector 9. The collector voltage of a VDB circuit is not
c. Emitter sensitive to changes in the
d. Ground a. Supply voltage
b. Emitter resistance
2. For emitter bias, the voltage at the emitter is c. Current gain
0.7 V less than the d. Collector resistance
a. Base voltage
b. Emitter voltage 10. If the emitter resistance increases in a
c. Collector voltage VDB circuit, the collector voltage
d. Ground voltage a. Decreases
b. Stays the same
3. With voltage-divider bias, the base voltage is c. Increases
a. Less than the base supply voltage d. Doubles
b. Equal to the base supply voltage
c. Greater than the base supply voltage 11. Base bias is associated with
d. Greater than the collector supply voltage a. Amplifiers
b. Switching circuits
4. VDB is noted for its c. Stable Q point
a. Unstable collector voltage d. Fixed emitter current
b. Varying emitter current
c. Large base current 12. If the emitter resistance doubles in a VDB
d. Stable Q point circuit, the collector current will
a. Double
5. With VDB, an increase in emitter resistance b. Drop in half
will c. Remain the same
a. Decrease the emitter voltage d. Increase
b. Decrease the collector voltage
c. Increase the emitter voltage 13. If the collector resistance increases in a
d. Decrease the emitter current VDB circuit, the collector voltage will
a. Decrease
6. VDB has a stable Q point like b. Stay the same
a. Base bias c. Increase
b. Emitter bias d. Double
c. Collector-feedback bias
d. Emitter-feedback bias 14. The Q point of a VDB circuit is
a. Hypersensitive to changes in current gain
7. VDB needs b. Somewhat sensitive to changes in current
a. Only three resistors gain
b. Only one supply c. Almost totally insensitive to changes in
c. Precision resistors current gain
d. More resistors to work better d. Greatly affected by temperature changes
15. The base voltage of two-supply emitter 21. The Q point of TSEB does not depend on
bias (TSEB) is the
a. 0.7 V a. Emitter resistance
b. Very large b. Collector resistance
c. Near 0 V c. Current gain
d. 1.3 V d. Emitter voltage

16. If the emitter resistance doubles with 22. The majority carriers in the emitter of a
TSEB, the collector current will pnp transistor are
a. Drop in half a. Holes
b. Stay the same b. Free electrons
c. Double c. Trivalent atoms
d. Increase d. Pentavalent atoms

17. If a splash of solder shorts the collector 23. The current gain of a pnp transistor is
resistor of TSEB, the collector voltage will a. The negative of the npn current gain
a. Drop to zero b. The collector current divided by the emitter
b. Equal the collector supply voltage current
c. Stay the same c. Near zero
d. Double d. The ratio of collector current to base
current
18. If the emitter resistance increases with
TSEB, the collector voltage will 24. Which is the largest current in a pnp
a. Decrease transistor?
b. Stay the same a. Base current
c. Increase b. Emitter current
d. Equal the collector supply voltage c. Collector current
d. None of these
19. If the emitter resistor opens with TSEB,
the collector voltage will 25. The currents of a pnp transistor are
a. Decrease a. Usually smaller than npn currents
b. Stay the same b. Opposite npn currents
c. Increase slightly c. Usually larger than npn currents
d. Equal the collector supply voltage d. Negative

20. In TSEB, the base current must be very 26. With pnp voltage-divider bias, you must
a. Small use
b. Large a. Negative power supplies
c. Unstable b. Positive power supplies
d. Stable c. Resistors
d. Grounds
Chapter 9: AC Models 9. When the ac base voltage is too large, the ac
emitter current is
1. For dc, the current in a coupling circuit is a. Sinusoidal
a. Zero b. Constant
b. Maximum c. Distorted
c. Minimum d. Alternating
d. Average
10. In a CE amplifier with a large input signal,
2. The current in a coupling circuit for high the positive half cycle of the ac emitter current
frequencies is is
a. Zero a. Equal to the negative half cycle
b. Maximum b. Smaller than the negative half cycle
c. Minimum c. Larger than the negative half cycle
d. Average d. Equal to the negative half cycle

3. A coupling capacitor is 11. Ac emitter resistance equals 25 mV divided

a. A dc short by the
b. An ac open a. Quiescent base current
c. A dc open and an ac short b. DC emitter current
d. A dc short and an ac open c. AC emitter current
d. Change in collector current
4. In a bypass circuit, the top of a capacitor is
a. An open 12. To reduce the distortion in a CE amplifier,
b. A short reduce the
c. An ac ground a. DC emitter current
d. A mechanical ground b. Base-emitter voltage
c. Collector current
5. The capacitor that produces an ac ground is d. AC base voltage
called a
a. Bypass capacitor 13. If the ac voltage across the emitter diode is
b. Coupling capacitor 1 mV and the ac emitter current is 0.1 mA, the
c. Dc open ac resistance of the emitter diode is
d. Ac open a. 1 ohm
b. 10 ohm
6. The capacitors of a CE amplifier appear c. 100 ohm
a. Open to ac d. 1 kohm
b. Shorted to dc
c. Open to supply voltage
d. Shorted to ac

7. Reducing all dc sources to zero is one of the

steps in getting the
a. DC equivalent circuit
b. AC equivalent circuit
c. Complete amplifier circuit
d. Voltage-divider biased circuit

8. The ac equivalent circuit is derived from the

original circuit by shorting all
a. Resistors
b. Capacitors
c. Inductors
d. Transistors
14. A graph of ac emitter current versus ac 17. The voltage across the load resistor of a CE
base-emitter voltage applies to the amplifier is
a. Transistor a. Dc and ac
b. Emitter diode b. DC only
c. Collector diode c. AC only
d. Power supply d. Neither dc nor ac

15. The output voltage of a CE amplifier is 18. The ac collector current is approximately
a. Amplified equal to the
b. Inverted a. AC base current
c. 180 degrees out of phase with the input b. AC emitter current
d. All of the above c. AC source current
d. AC bypass current
16. The emitter of a CE amplifier has no ac
voltage because of the 19. The ac emitter current times the ac emitter
a. DC voltage on it resistance equals the
b. Bypass capacitor a. Dc emitter voltage
c. Coupling capacitor b. AC base voltage
d. Load resistor c. AC collector voltage
d. Supply voltage

20. The ac collector current equals the ac base

current times the
a. AC collector resistance
b. DC current gain
c. AC current gain
d. Generator voltage
Chapter 10: Voltage Amplifiers 9. The emitter of a swamped amplifier
a. Is grounded
1. The emitter is at ac ground in a b. Has no de voltage
a. CB stage c. Has an ac voltage
b. CC stage d. Has no ac voltage
c. CE stage
d. None of these 10. A swamped amplifier uses
a. Base bias
2. The output voltage of a CE stage is usually b. Positive feedback
a. Constant c. Negative feedback
b. Dependent on re' d. A grounded emitter
c. Small
d. Less the one 11. In a swamped amplifier, the effects of the
emitter diode become
3. The voltage gain equals the output voltage a. Important to voltage gain
divided by the b. Critical to input impedance
a. Input voltage c. Significant to the analysis
b. AC emitter resistance d. Unimportant
c. AC collector resistance
d. Generator voltage 12. The feedback resistor
a. Increases voltage gain
4. The input impedance of the base increases b. Reduces distortion
when c. Decreases collector resistance
a. Beta increases d. Decreases input impedance
b. Supply voltage increases
c. Beta decreases 13. The feedback resistor
d. AC collector resistance increases a. Stabilizes voltage gain
b. Increases distortion
5. Voltage gain is directly proportional to c. Increases collector resistance
a. Beta d. Decreases input impedance
b. Ac emitter resistance
c. DC collector voltage 14. The ac collector resistance of the first
d. AC collector resistance stage includes the
a. Load resistance
6. Compared to the ac resistance of the b. Input impedance of first stage
emitter diode, the feedback resistance of a c. Emitter resistance of first stage
swamped amplifier should be d. Input impedance of second stage
a. Small
b. Equal
c. Large
d. Zero

7. Compared to a CE stage, a swamped

amplifier has an input impedance that is
a. Smaller
b. Equal
c. Larger
d. Zero

8. To reduce the distortion of an amplified

signal, you can increase the
a. Collector resistance
b. Emitter feedback resistance
c. Generator resistance
d. Load resistance
15. If the emitter bypass capacitor opens, the 20. If the bypass capacitor is open, the ac
ac output voltage will input voltage will
a. Decrease a. Decrease
b. Increase b. Increase
c. Remain the same c. Remainthe same
d. Equal zero d. Equal zero

16. If the collector resistor is shorted, the ac 21. If the output coupling capacitor is open,
output voltage will the ac input voltage will
a. Decrease a. Decrease
b. Increase b. Increase
c. Remain the same c. Remain the same
d. Equal zero d. Equal zero

17. If the load resistance is open, the ac 22. If the emitter resistor is open, the ac
output voltage will input voltage will
a. Decrease a. Decrease
b. Increase b. Increase
c. Remain the same c. Remain the same
d. Equal zero d. Equal zero

18. If any capacitor is open, the ac output 23. If the collector resistor is open, the ac
voltage will input voltage will
a. Decrease a. Decrease
b. Increase b. Increase
c. Remain the same c. Remain the same
d. Equal zero d. Equal approximately zero

19. If the input coupling capacitor is open, 24. If the emitter bypass capacitor is shorted,
the ac input voltage will the ac input voltage will
a. Decrease a. Decrease
b. Increase b. Increase
c. Remain the same c. Remain the same
d. Equal zero d. Equal zero
Chapter 11: Power Amplifiers 8. When the Q point is at the center of the ac
load line, the maximum peak-to-peak output
1. For class B operation, the collector current voltage equals
flows a. VCEQ
a. The whole cycle b. 2VCEQ
b. Half the cycle c. ICQ
c. Less than half a cycle d. 2ICQ
d. Less than a quarter of a cycle
9. Push-pull is almost always used with
2. Transformer coupling is an example of a. Class A
a. Direct coupling b. Class B
b. AC coupling c. Class C
c. DC coupling d. All of the above
d. Impedance coupling
10. One advantage of a class B push-pull
3. An audio amplifier operates in the amplifier is
frequency range of a. Very small quiescent current drain
a. 0 to 20 Hz b. Maximum efficiency of 78.5 percent
b. 20 Hz to 20 kHz c. Greater efficiency than class A
c. 20 to 200 kHz d. All of the above
d. Above 20 kHz
11. Class C amplifiers are almost always
4. A tuned RF amplifier is a. Transformer-coupled between stages
a. Narrowband b. Operated at audio frequencies
b. Wideband c. Tuned RF amplifiers
c. Direct coupled d. Wideband
d. Impedance coupled
12. The input signal of a class C amplifier
5. The first stage of a preamp is a. Is negatively clamped at the base
a. A tuned RF stage b. Is amplified and inverted
b. Large signal c. Produces brief pulses of collector current
c. Small signal d. All of the above
d. A dc amplifier
13. The collector current of a class C amplifier
6. For maximum peak-to-peak output voltage, a. Is an amplified version of the input voltage
the Q point should be b. Has harmonics
a. Near saturation c. Is negatively clamped
b. Near cutoff d. Flows for half a cycle
c. At the center of the dc load line
d. At the center of the ac load line 14. The bandwidth of a class C amplifier
decreases when the
7. An amplifier has two load lines because a. Resonant frequency increases
a. It has ac and dc collector resistances b. Q increases
b. It has two equivalent circuits c. XL decreases
c. DC acts one way and ac acts another d. Load resistance decreases
d. All of the above
Chapter 11: Power Amplifiers 22. In a class A amplifier, the collector current
flows for
15. The transistor dissipation in a class C a. Less than half the cycle
amplifier decreases when the b Half the cycle
a. Resonant frequency increases c Less than the whole cycle
b. coil Q increases d. The entire cycle
c. Load resistance decreases
d. Capacitance increases 23. With class A, the output signal should be
a. Unclipped
16. The power rating of a transistor can be b. Clipped on positive voltage peak
increased by c. Clipped on negative voltage peak
a. Raising the temperature d. Clipped on negative current peak
b. Using a heat sink
c. Using a derating curve 24. The instantaneous operating point swings-
d. Operating with no input signal along the
a. AC load line
17. The ac load line is the same as the dc load b. DC load line
line when the ac collector resistance equals c. Both load lines
the d. Neither load line
a. DC emitter resistance
b. AC emitter resistance 25. The current drain of an amplifier is the
c. DC collector resistance a. Total ac current from the generator
d. Supply voltage divided by collector current b. Total dc current from the supply
c. Current gain from base to collector
18. If RC = 3.6 kohm and RL = 10 kohm, the d. Current gain from collector to base
ac load resistance equals
a. 10 kohm 26. The power gain of an amplifier
b. 2.65 kohm a. Is the same as the voltage gain
c. I kohm b. Is smaller than the voltage gain
d. 3.6 kohm c. Equals output power divided by input
power
19. The quiescent collector current is the d. Equals load power
same as the
a. DC collector current 27. Heat sinks reduce the
b. AC collector current a. Transistor power
c. Total collector current b. Ambient temperature
d. Voltage-divider current c. Junction temperature
d. Collector current
20. The ac load line usually
a. Equals the dc load line
b. Has less slope than the dc load line
c. Is steeper than the dc load line
d. Is horizontal

21. For a Q point near the center of the dc

load line, clipping is more likely to occur on
the
a. Positive peak of input voltage
b. Negative peak of output voltage
c. Positive peak of output voltage
d. Negative peak of emitter voltage
28. When the ambient temperature increases, 29. If the load power is 3 mW and the dc
the maximum transistor power rating power is 150 mW, the efficiency is
a. Decreases a. 0
b. Increases b. 2 percent
c. Remains the same c. 3 percent
d. None of the above d. 20 percent
Chapter 12: Emitter Followers 7. If Beta = 200 and re = 150 ohm, the input
impedance of the base is approximately
1. An emitter follower has a voltage gain that a. 30 kohm
is b. 600 n
a. Much less than one c. 3 kohm
b. Approximately equal to one d. 5 kohm
c. Greater than one
d. Zero 8. The input voltage to an emitter follower is
usually
2. The total ac emitter resistance of an emitter a. Less than the generator voltage
follower equals b. Equal to the generator voltage
a. re' c. Greater than the generator voltage
b. re d. Equal to the supply voltage
c. re + re'
d. RE 9. The ac emitter current is closest to
a. VG divided by re
3. The input impedance of the base of an b. vin divided by re'
emitter follower is usually c. VG divided by re'
a. Low d. vin divided by re
b. High
c. Shorted to ground 10. The output voltage of an emitter follower is
d. Open approximately
a. 0
4. The dc emitter current for class A emitter b. VG
followers is c. vin
a. The same as the ac emitter current d. Vcc
b. VE divided by RE
c. Vc divided by Rc 11. The ac load line of an emitter follower is
d. The same as the load current usually
a. The same as the dc load line
5. The ac base voltage of an emitter follower is b. More horizontal than the dc load line
across the c. Steeper than the dc load line
a. Emitter diode d. Vertical
b. DC emitter resistor
c. Load resistor 12. If the input voltage to an emitter follower is
d. Emitter diode and external ac emitter too large, the output voltage will be
resistance a. Smaller
b. Larger
6. The output voltage of an emitter follower is c. Equal
across the d. Clipped
a. Emitter diode
b. DC collector resistor 13. If the Q point is at the middle of the dc
c. Load resistor load line, clipping will first occur on the
d. Emitter diode and external ac emitter a. Left voltage swing
resistance b. Upward current swing
c. Positive half cycle of input
d. Negative half cycle of input
14. If an emitter follower has VCEQ = 5 V, ICQ 21. If the load resistor of Fig. 12-la in your
= 1 mA, and re = 1 kohm, the maximum peak- textbook is shorted, which of the following are
to-peak unclipped output is different from their normal values:
a. 1 V a. Only ac voltages
b. 2 V b. Only dc voltages
c. 5 V c. Both dc and ac voltages
d. 10 V d. Neither dc nor ac voltages

15. If the load resistance of an emitter follower 22. If R1 is open in an emitter follower, which
is very large, the external ac emitter resistance of these is true?
equals a. DC base voltage is Vcc
a. Generator resistance b. DC collector voltage is zero
b. Impedance of the base c. Output voltage is normal
c. DC emitter resistance d. DC base voltage is zero
d. DC collector resistance
23. Usually, the distortion in an emitter
16. If an emitter follower has re' = 10 ohm and follower is
re = 90 ohm, the voltage gain is approximately a. Very low
a. 0 b. Very high
b. 0.5 c. Large
c. 0.9 d. Not acceptable
d. 1
24. The distortion in an emitter follower is
17. A square wave out of an emitter follower a. Seldom low
implies b. Often high
a. No clipping c. Always low
b. Clipping at saturation d. High when clipping occurs
c. Clipping at cutoff
d. Clipping on both peaks 25. If a CE stage is direct coupled to an
emitter follower, how many coupling
18. A Darlington transistor has capacitors are there between the two stages?
a. A very low input impedance a. 0
b. Three transistors b. 1
c. A very high current gain c. 2
d. One VBE drop d. 3

19. The ac load line of the emitter follower is 26. A Darlington transistor has a Beta of
a. The same as the dc load line 8000. If RE = 1 kohm and RL = 100 ohm, the
b. Different from the dc load line input impedance of the base is closest to
c. Horizontal a. 8 kohm
d. Vertical b. 80 kohm
c. 800 kohm
20. If the generator voltage is 5 mV in an d. 8 Mohm
emitter follower, the output voltage across the
load is closest to
a. 5 mV
b. 150 mV
c. 0.25 V
d. 0.5 V
27. The transistors of a class B push-pull
emitter follower are biased at or near 32. In the two-transistor voltage regulator, the
a. Cutoff output voltage
b. The center of the dc load line a. Is regulated
c. Saturation b. Has much smaller ripple than the input
d. The center of the ac load line voltage
c. Is larger than the zener voltage
28. Thermal runaway is d. All of the above
a. Good for transistors
b. Always desirable 33. For a class B push-pull emitter follower to
c. Useful at times work properly, the emitter diodes must
d. Usually destructive a. Be able to control the quiescent current
b. Have a power rating greater than the
29. The ac resistance of compensating diodes output power
a. Must be included c. Have a voltage gain of I
b. Is usually small enough to ignore d. Match the compensating diodes
c. Compensates for temperature changes
d. Is very high 34. The maximum efficiency of a class B
push-pull amplifier is
30. A small quiescent current is necessary a. 25 percent
with a class B push-pull amplifier to avoid b. 50 percent
a. Thermal runaway c. 78.5 percent
b. Destroying the compensating diodes d. 100 percent
c. Crossover distortion
d. Excessive current drain 35. The ac emitter resistance of an emitter
follower
31. The zener current in a zener follower is a. Equals the dc emitter resistance
a. Equal to the output current b. Is larger than the load resistance
b. Smaller than the output current c. Has no effect on MPP
c. Larger than the output current d. Is usually less than the load resistance
d. Prone to thermal runaway
Chapter 13: JFETs 9. RDS equals pinchoff voltage divided by the
a. Drain current
1. A JFET b. Gate current
a. Is a voltage-controlled device c. Ideal drain current
b. Is a current-controlled device d. Drain current for zero gate voltage
c. Has a low input resistance
d. Has a very large voltage gain 10. The transconductance curve is
a. Linear
2. A unipolar transistor uses b. Similar to the graph of a resistor
a. Both free electrons and holes c. Nonlinear
b. Only free electrons d. Like a single drain curve
c. Only holes
d. Either one or the other, but not both 11. The transconductance increases when the
drain current approaches
3. The input impedance of a JFET a. 0
a. Approaches zero b. ID(sat)
b. Approaches one c. IDSS
c. Approaches infinity d. IS
d. Is impossible to predict
12. A CS amplifier has a voltage gain of
4. The gate controls a. gmrd
a. The width of the channel b. gmrs
b. The drain current c. gmrs/(l + gmrs)
c. The proportional pinchoff voltage d. gmrd/(l + gmrd)
d. All the above
13. A source follower has a voltage gain of
5. The gate-source diode of a JFET should be a. gmrd
a. Forward-biased b. gmrs
b. Reverse-biased c. gmrs/(l + gmrs)
c. Either forward- or reverse-biased d. gmrd/(l + gmrd)
d. None of the above
14. When the input signal is large, a source
6. Compared to a bipolar transistor, the JFET follower has
has a much higher a. A voltage gain of less than one
a. Voltage gain b. A small distortion
b. Input resistance c. A high input resistance
c. Supply voltage d. All of these
d. Current

7. The pinchoff voltage has the same

magnitude as the
a. Gate voltage
b. Drain-source voltage
c. Gate-source voltage
d. Gate-source cutoff voltage

8. When the drain saturation current is less

than IDSS, a JFET acts like a
a. Bipolar transistor
b. Current source
c. Resistor
d. Battery
15. The input signal used with a JFET analog 20. If a JFET has IDSS = 10 mA and VP = 2 V,
switch should be then RDS equals
a. Small a. 200 ohm
b. Large b. 400 ohm
c. A square wave c. 1 kohm
d. Chopped d. 5 kohm

16. A cascode amplifier has the advantage of 21. The easiest way to bias a JFET in the
a. Large voltage gain ohmic region is with
b. Low input capacitance a. Voltage-divider bias
c. Low input impedance b. Self-bias
d. Higher gm c. Gate bias
d. Source bias
17. VHF stands for frequencies from
a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz 22. Self-bias produces
b. 3 to 30 MHz a. Positive feedback
c. 30 to 300 MHz b. Negative feedback
d. 300 MHz to 3 GHz c. Forward feedback
d. Reverse feedback
18. When a JFET is cut off, the depletion
layers are 23. To get a negative gate-source voltage in a
a. Far apart self-biased JFET circuit, you must have a
b. Close together a. Voltage divider
c. Touching b. Source resistor
d. Conducting c. Ground
d. Negative gate supply voltage
19. When the gate voltage becomes more
negative in an n-channel JFET, the channel 24. Transconductance is measured in
between the depletion layers a. Ohms
a. Shrinks b. Amperes
b. Expand c. Volts
c. Conduct d. Mhos or Siemens
d. Stop conducting
25. Transconductance indicates how
effectively the input voltage controls the
a. Voltage gain
b. Input resistance
c. Supply voltage
d. Output current
Chapter 14: MOSFETs 9. VGS(on) is always
a. Less than VGS(th)
1. Which of the following devices b. Equal to VDS(on)
revolutionized the computer industry? c. Greater than VGS(th)
a. JFET d. Negative
b. D-MOSFET
c. E-MOSFET 10. With active-load switching, the upper E-
d. Power FET MOSFET is a
a. Two-terminal device
2. The voltage that turns on an EMOS device b. Three-terminal device
is the c. Switch
a. Gate-source cutoff voltage d. Small resistance
b. Pinchoff voltage
c. Threshold voltage 11. CMOS devices use
d. Knee voltage a. Bipolar transistors
b. Complementary E-MOSFETs
3. Which of these may appear on the data c. Class A operation
sheet of an enhancement-mode MOSFET? d. DMOS devices
a. VGS(th)
b. ID(on) 12. The main advantage of CMOS is its
c. VGS(on) a. High power rating
d. All of the above b. Small-signal operation
c. Switching capability
4. The VGS(on) of an n-channel E-MOSFET is d. Low power consumption
a. Less than the threshold voltage
b. Equal to the gate-source cutoff voltage 13. Power FETs are
c. Greater than VDS(on) a. Integrated circuits
d. Greater than VGS(th) b. Small-signal devices
c. Used mostly with analog signals
5. An ordinary resistor is an example of d. Used to switch large currents
a. A three-terminal device
b. An active load 14. When the internal temperature increases
c. A passive load in a power FET, the
d. A switching device a. Threshold voltage increases
b. Gate current decreases
6. An E-MOSFET with its gate connected to its c. Drain current decreases
drain is an example of d. Saturation current increases
a. A three-terminal device
b. An active load
c. A passive load
d. A switching device

7. An E-MOSFET that operates at cutoff or in

the ohmic region is an example of
a. A current source
b. An active load
c. A passive load
d. A switching device

8. CMOS stands for

a. Common MOS
b. Active-load switching
c. p-channel and n-channel devices
d. Complementary MOS
15. Most small-signal E-MOSFETs are found
in 18. With CMOS, the upper MOSFET is
a. Heavy-current applications a. A passive load
b. Discrete circuits b. An active load
c. Disk drives c. Nonconducting
d. Integrated circuits d. Complementary

16. Most power FETS are 19. The high output of a CMOS inverter is
a. Used in high-current applications a. VDD/2
b. Digital computers b. VGS
c. RF stages c. VDS
d. Integrated circuits d. VDD

17. An n-channel E-MOSFET conducts when it 20. The RDS(on) of a power FET
has a. Is always large
a. VGS > VP b. Has a negative temperature coefficient
b. An n-type inversion layer c. Has a positive temperature coefficient
c. VDS > 0 d. Is an active load
d. Depletion layers
Chapter 15: Thyristors 9. A SCR is usually turned on by
a. Breakover
1. A thyristor can be used as b. A gate trigger
a. A resistor c. Breakdown
b. An amplifier d. Holding current
c. A switch
d. A power source 10. SCRs are
a. Low-power devices
2. Positive feedback means the returning b. Four-layer diodes
signal c. High-current devices
a. Opposes the original change d. Bidirectional
b. Aids the original change
c. Is equivalent to negative feedback 11. The usual way to protect a load from
d. Is amplified excessive supply voltage is with a
a. Crowbar
3. A latch always uses b. Zener diode
a. Transistors c. Four-layer diode
b. Feedback d. Thyristor
c. Current
d. Positive feedback 12. An RC snubber protects an SCR against
a. Supply overvoltages
4. To turn on a four-layer diode, you need b. False triggering
a. A positive trigger c. Breakover
b. low-current drop out d. Crowbarring
c. Breakover
d. Reverse-bias triggering 13. When a crowbar is used with a power
supply, the supply needs to have a fuse or
5. The minimum input current that can turn a. Adequate trigger current
on a thyristor is called the b. Holding current
a. Holding current c. Filtering
b. Trigger current d. Current limiting
c. Breakover current
d. Low-current drop out 14. The photo-SCR responds to
a. Current
6. The only way to stop a four-layer diode that b. Voltage
is conducting is by c. Humidity
a. A positive trigger d. Light
b. Low-current drop out
c. Breakover 15. The diac is a
d. Reverse-bias triggering a. Transistor
b. Unidirectional device
7. The minimum anode current that keeps a c. Three-layer device
thyristor turned on is called the d. Bidirectional device
a. Holding current
b. Trigger current
c. Breakover current
d. Low-current drop out

8. A silicon controlled rectifier has

a. Two external leads
b. Three external leads
c. Four external leads
d. Three doped regions
16. The triac is equivalent to 20. The trigger voltage of an SCR is closest
a. A four-layer diode to
b. Two diacs in parallel a. 0
c. A thyristor with a gate lead b. 0.7 V
d. Two SCRs in parallel c. 4 V
d. Breakover voltage
17. The unijunction transistor acts as a
a. Four-layer diode 21. Any thyristor can be turned off with
b. Diac a. Breakover
c. Triac b. Forward-bias triggering
d. Latch c. Low-current drop out
d. Reverse-bias triggering
18. Any thyristor can be turned on with
a. Breakover 22. Exceeding the critical rate of rise
b. Forward-bias triggering produces
c. Low-current dropout a. Excessive power dissipation
d. Reverse-bias triggering b. False triggering
c. Low-current drop out
19. A Shockley diode is the same as a d. Reverse-bias triggering
a. four-layer diode
b. SCR 23. A four-layer diode is sometimes called a
c. diac a. Unijunction transistor
d. triac b. Diac
c. pnpn diode
d. Switch

24. A latch is based on

a. Negative feedback
b. Positive feedback
c. The four-layer diode
d. SCR action
Chapter 16: Frequency Effects 7. If the voltage gain is 10, the decibel voltage
gain is
1. Frequency response is a graph of voltage a. 6 dB
gain versus b. 20 dB
a. Frequency c. 40 dB
b. Power gain d. 60 dB
c. Input voltage
d. Output voltage 8. If the voltage gain is 100, the decibel
voltage gain is
2. At low frequencies, the coupling capacitors a. 6 dB
produce a decrease in b. 20 dB
a. Input resistance c. 40 dB
b. Voltage gain d. 60 dB
c. Generator resistance
d. Generator voltage 9. If the voltage gain is 2000, the decibel
voltage gain is
3. The stray-wiring capacitance has an effect a. 40 dB
on the b. 46 dB
a. Lower cutoff frequency c. 66 dB
b. Midband voltage gain d. 86 dB
c. Upper cutoff frequency
d. Input resistance 10. Two stages have decibel voltage gains of
20 and 40 dB. The total ordinary voltage gain
4. At the lower or upper cutoff frequency, the is
voltage gain is a. a.1
a. 0.35Amid b. 10
b. 0.5Amid c. 100
c. 0.707Amid d. 1000
d. 0.995Amid
11. Two stages have voltage gains of 100 and
5. If the power gain doubles, the decibel power 200. The total decibel voltage gain is
gain increases by a. 46 dB
a. A factor of 2 b. 66 dB
b. 3 dB c. 86 dB
c. 6 dB d. 106 dB
d. 10 dB
12. One frequency is 8 times another
6. If the voltage gain doubles, the decibel frequency. How many octaves apart are the
voltage gain increases by two frequencies?
a. A factor of 2 a. 1
b. 3 dB b. 2
c. 6 dB c. 3
d. 10 dB d. 4

13. If f = 1 MHz, and f2 = 10 Hz, the ratio f/f2

represents how many decades?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
14. Semilogarithmic paper means
a. One axis is linear, and the other is logarithmic
b. One axis is linear, and the other is semi-logarithmic
c. Both axes are semi-logarithmic
d. Neither axis is linear

15. If you want to improve the high-frequency response of an amplifier, which of these would you try?
a. Decrease the coupling capacitances.
b. Increase the emitter bypass capacitance.
c. Shorten leads as much as possible.
d. Increase the generator resistance.

16. The voltage gain of an amplifier decreases 20 dB per decade above 20 kHz. If the midband voltage
gain is 86 dB, what is the ordinary voltage gain at 20 MHz?
a. 20
b. 200
c. 2000
d. 20,000
Chapter 17: Differential Amplifiers 9. The input impedance of a diff amp equals
re' times
1. Monolithic ICs are a. 0
a. Forms of discrete circuits b. RC
b. On a single chip c. RE
c. Combinations of thin-film and thick-film d. 2 times Beta
circuits
d. Also called hybrid ICs 10. A dc signal has a frequency of
a. 0
2. The op amp can amplify b. 60 Hz
a. AC signals only c. 0 to over 1 MHz
b. DC signals only d. 1 MHz
c. Both ac and dc signals
d. Neither ac nor dc signals 11. When the two input terminals of a diff
amp are grounded,
3. Components are soldered together in a. The base currents are equal
a. Discrete circuits b. The collector currents are equal
b. Integrated circuits c. An output error voltage usually exists
c. SSI d. The ac output voltage is zero
d. Monolithic ICs
12. One source of output error voltage is
4. The tail current of a diff amp is a. Input bias current
a. Half of either collector current b. Difference in collector resistors
b. Equal to either collector current c. Tail current
c. Two times either collector current d. Common-mode voltage gain
d. Equal to the difference in base currents
13. A common-mode signal is applied to
5. The node voltage at the top of the tail a. The noninverting input
resistor is closest to b. The inverting input
a. Collector supply voltage c. Both inputs
b. Zero d. Top of the tail resistor
c. Emitter supply voltage
d. Tail current times base resistance 14. The common-mode voltage gain is
a. Smaller than voltage gain
6. The input offset current equals the b. Equal to voltage gain
a. Difference between two base currents c. Greater than voltage gain
b. Average of two base currents d. None of the above
c. Collector current divided by current gain
d. Difference between two base-emitter
voltages

7. The tail current equals the

a. Difference between two emitter currents
b. Sum of two emitter currents
c. Collector current divided by current gain
d. Collector voltage divided by collector
resistance

8. The voltage gain of a diff amp with a

differential output is equal to RC divided by
a. re'
b. re'/2
c. 2re'
d. RE
15. The input stage of an op amp is usually a 19. The common-mode rejection ratio is
a. Differential amplifier a. Very low
b. Class B push-pull amplifier b. Often expressed in decibels
c. CE amplifier c. Equal to the voltage gain
d. Swamped amplifier d. Equal to the common-mode voltage gain

16. The tail of a diff amp acts like a 20. The typical input stage of an op amp has
a. Battery a
b. Current source a. Single-ended input and single-ended
c. Transistor output
d. Diode b. Single-ended input and differential
output
17. The common-mode voltage gain of a diff c. Differential input and single-ended
amp is equal to RC divided by output
a. re' d. Differential input and differential output
b. re'/2
c. 2re' 21. The input offset current is usually
d. 2RE a. Less than the input bias current
b. Equal to zero
18. When the two bases are grounded in a diff c. Less than the input offset voltage
amp, the voltage across each emitter diode is d. Unimportant when a base resistor is used
a. Zero
b. 0.7 V 22. With both bases grounded, the only
c. The same offset that produces an error is the
d. High a. Input offset current
b. Input bias current
c. Input offset voltage
d. Beta
Chapter 18: Operational Amplifiers 7. The initial slope of a sine wave is directly
proportional to
1. What usually controls the open-loop cutoff a. Slew rate
frequency of an op amp? b Frequency
a. Stray-wiring capacitance c. Voltage gain
b. Base-emitter capacitance d. Capacitance
c. Collector-base capacitance
d. Compensating capacitance 8. When the initial slope of a sine wave is
greater than the slew rate,
2. A compensating capacitor prevents a. Distortion occurs
a. Voltage gain b. Linear operation occurs
b. Oscillations c. Voltage gain is maximum
c. Input offset current d. The op amp works best
d. Power bandwidth
9. The power bandwidth increases when
3. At the unity-gain frequency, the open-loop a. Frequency decreases
voltage gain is b. Peak value decreases
a. 1 c. Initial slope decreases
b. Amid d. Voltage gain increases
c. Zero
d. Very large 10. A 741C uses
a. Discrete resistors
4. The cutoff frequency of an op amp equals b. Inductors
the unity-gain frequency divided by c. Active-load resistors
a. the cutoff frequency d. A large coupling capacitor
b. Closed-loop voltage gain
c. Unity 11. A 741C cannot work without
d. Common-mode voltage gain a. Discrete resistors
b. Passive loading
5. If the cutoff frequency is 15 Hz and the c. Dc return paths on the two bases
midband open-loop voltage gain is 1,000,000, d. A small coupling capacitor
the unity-gain frequency is
a. 25 Hz 12. The input impedance of a BIFET op amp is
b. 1 MHz a. Low
c. 1.5 MHz b. Medium
d. 15 MHz c. High
d. Extremely high
6. If the unity-gain frequency is 5 MHz and
the midband open-loop voltage gain is 13. An LF157A is a
200,000, the cutoff frequency is a. Diff amp
a. 25 Hz b. Source follower
b. 1 MHz c. Bipolar op amp
c. 1.5 MHz d. BIFET op amp
d. 15 MHz
14. If the two supply voltages are plus and
minus 15 V, the MPP value of an op amp is
closest to
a. 0
b. +15V
c. -15 V
d. 30 V
15. The open-loop cutoff frequency of a 741C
is controlled by 23. A 741C has supply voltages of plus and
a. A coupling capacitor minus 15 V. If the load resistance is large, the
b. The output short circuit current MPP value is
c. The power bandwidth a. 0
d. A compensating capacitor b. +15 V
c. 27 V
16. The 741C has a unity-gain frequency of d. 30 V
a. 10 Hz
b. 20 kHz 24. Above the cutoff frequency, the voltage
c. 1 MHz gain of a 741C decreases approximately
d. 15 MHz a. 10 dB per decade
b. 20 dB per octave
17. The unity-gain frequency equals the c. 10 dB per octave
product of closed-loop voltage gain and the d. 20 dB per decade
a. Compensating capacitance
b. Tail current 25. The voltage gain of an op amp is unity at
c. Closed-loop cutoff frequency the
d. Load resistance a. Cutoff frequency
b. Unity-gain frequency
18. If funity is 10 MHz and midband open- c. Generator frequency
loop voltage gain is 1,000,000, then the open- d. Power bandwidth
loop cutoff frequency of the op amp is
a. 10 Hz 26. When slew-rate distortion of a sine wave
b. 20 Hz occurs, the output
c. 50 Hz a. Is larger
d. 100 Hz b. Appears triangular
c. Is normal
19. The initial slope of a sine wave increases d. Has no offset
when
a. Frequency decreases 27. A 741C has
b. Peak value increases a. A voltage gain of 100,000
c. Cc increases b. An input impedance of 2 Mohm
d. Slew rate decreases c. An output impedance of 75 ohm
d. All of the above
20. If the frequency is greater than the power
bandwidth,
a. Slew-rate distortion occurs
b. A normal output signal occurs
c. Output offset voltage increases
d. Distortion may occur

21. An op amp has an open base resistor. The

output voltage will be
a. Zero
b. Slightly different from zero
c. Maximum positive or negative
d. An amplified sine wave

22. An op amp has a voltage gain of 500,000.

If the output voltage is 1 V, the input voltage
is
a. 2 microvolts
b. 5 mV
c. 10 mV
d. 1 V
28. The closed-loop voltage gain of an
inverting amplifier equals 30. The voltage follower has a
a. The ratio of the input resistance to the a. Closed-loop voltage gain of unity
feedback resistance b. Small open-loop voltage gain
b. The open-loop voltage gain c. Closed-loop bandwidth of zero
c. Feedback resistance divided by the input d. Large closed-loop output impedance
resistance
d. The input resistance 31. A summing amplifier can have
a. No more than two input signals
29. The noninverting amplifier has a b. Two or more input signals
a. Large closed-loop voltage gain c. A closed-loop input impedance of infinity
b. Small open-loop voltage gain d. A small open-loop voltage gain
c. Large closed-loop input impedance
d. Large closed-loop output impedance
Chapter 19: Negative Feedback
8. In a VCVS amplifier, any decrease in open-
1. With negative feedback, the returning loop voltage gain produces an increase in
signal a. Output voltage
a. Aids the input signal b. Error voltage
b. Opposes the input signal c. Feedback voltage
c. Is proportional to output current d. Input voltage
d. Is proportional to differential voltage gain
9. The open-loop voltage gain equals the
2. How many types of negative feedback are a. Gain with negative feedback
there? b. Differential voltage gain of the op amp
a. One c. Gain when B is 1
b. Two d. Gain at funity
c. Three
d. Four 10. The loop gain AOLB
a. Is usually much smaller than 1
3. A VCVS amplifier approximates an ideal b. Is usually much greater than 1
a. Voltage amplifier c. May not equal 1
b. Current-to-voltage converter d. Is between 0 and 1
c. Voltage-to-current converter
d. Current amplifier 11. The closed-loop input impedance with an
ICVS amplifier is
4. The voltage between the input terminals of a. Usually larger than the open-loop input
an ideal op amp is impedance
a. Zero b. Equal to the open-loop input impedance
b. Very small c. Sometimes less than the open-loop
c. Very large impedance
d. Equal to the input voltage d. Ideally zero

5. When an op amp is not saturated, the 12. With an ICVS amplifier, the circuit
voltages at the noninverting and inverting approximates an ideal
inputs are a. Voltage amplifier
a. Almost equal b. Current-to-voltage converter
b. Much different c. Voltage-to-current converter
c. Equal to the output voltage d. Current amplifier
d. Equal to +15 V
13. Negative feedback reduces the
6. The feedback fraction B a. Feedback fraction
a. Is always less than 1 b. Distortion
b. Is usually greater than 1 c. Input offset voltage
c. May equal 1 d. Loop gain
d. May not equal 1
14. A voltage follower has a voltage gain of
7. An ICVS amplifier has no output voltage. A a. Much less than 1
possible trouble is b. 1
a. No negative supply voltage c. More than 1
b. Shorted feedback resistor d. A
c. No feedback voltage
d. Open load resistor
15. The voltage between the input terminals of 23. Negative feedback does not improve
a real op amp is a. Stability of voltage gain
a. Zero b. Nonlinear distortion in later stages
b. Very small c. Output offset voltage
c. Very large d. Power bandwidth
d. Equal to the input voltage
24. An ICVS amplifier is saturated. A possible
16. The transresistance of an amplifier is the trouble is
ratio of its a. No supply voltages
a. Output current to input voltage b. Open feedback resistor
b. Input voltage to output current c. No input voltage
c. Output voltage to input voltage d. Open load resistor
d. Output voltage to input current
25. A VCVS amplifier has no output voltage. A
17. Current cannot flow to ground through possible trouble is
a. A mechanical ground a. Shorted load resistor
b. An ac ground b. Open feedback resistor
c. A virtual ground c. Excessive input voltage
d. An ordinary ground d. Open load resistor

18. In a current-to-voltage converter, the 26. An ICIS amplifier is saturated. A possible

input current flows trouble is
a. Through the input impedance of the op a. Shorted load resistor
amp b. R2 is open
b. Through the feedback resistor c. No input voltage
c. To ground d. Open load resistor
d. Through the load resistor
27. An ICVS amplifier has no output voltage.
19. The input impedance of a current-to- A possible trouble is
voltage converter is a. No positive supply voltage
a. Small b. Open feedback resistor
b. Large c. No feedback voltage
c. Ideally zero d. Shorted load resistor
d. Ideally infinite

20. The open-loop bandwidth equals

a. funity
b. f2(OL)
c. funity/ACL
d. fmax
21. The closed-loop bandwidth equals
a. funity
b. f2(OL)
c. funity/ACL
d. fmax
22. For a given op amp, which of these is
constant?
a. f2(OL)
b. Feedback voltage
c. ACL
d. ACLf2(CL)
28. The closed-loop input impedance in a
VCVS amplifier is
a. Usually larger than the open-loop input
impedance
b. Equal to the open-loop input Z
c. Sometimes less than the open-loop input
impedance
d. Ideally zero
Chapter 20: Linear Op-Amp Circuits 9. The input signal for an instrumentation
amplifier usually comes from
1. In a linear op-amp circuit, the a. An inverting amplifier
a. Signals are always sine waves b. A transducer
b. Op amp does not go into saturation c. A differential amplifier
c. Input impedance is ideally infinite d. A Wheatstone bridge
d. Gain-bandwidth product is constant
10. In the classic three op-amp
2. In an ac amplifier using an op amp with instrumentation amplifier, the differential
coupling and bypass capacitors, the output voltage gain is usually produced by the
offset voltage is a. First stage
a. Zero b. Second stage
b. Minimum c. Mismatched resistors
c. Maximum d. Output op amp
d. Unchanged
11. Guard driving reduces the
3. To use an op amp, you need at least a. CMRR of an instrumentation amplifier
a. One supply voltage b. Leakage current in the shielded cable
b. Two supply voltages c. Voltage gain of the first stage
c. One coupling capacitor d. Common-mode input voltage
d. One bypass capacitor
12. In an averaging circuit, the input
4. In a controlled current source with op resistances are
amps, the circuit acts like a a. Equal to the feedback resistance
a. Voltage amplifier b. Less than the feedback resistance
b. Current-to-voltage converter c. Greater than the feedback resistance
c. Voltage-to-current converter d. Unequal to each other
d. Current amplifier
13. A D/A converter is an application of the
5. An instrumentation amplifier has a high a. Adjustable bandwidth circuit
a. Output impedance b. Noninverting amplifier
b. Power gain c. Voltage-to-current converter
c. CMRR d. Summing amplifier
d. Supply voltage
14. In a voltage-controlled current source,
6. A current booster on the output of an op a. A current booster is never used
amp will increase the short-circuit current by b. The load is always floated
a. ACL c. A stiff current source drives the load
b. Beta dc d. The load current equals ISC
c. funity
d. Av

7. Given a voltage reference of +2.5 V, we can

get a voltage reference of +15 V by using a
a. Inverting amplifier
b. Noninverting amplifier
c. Differential amplifier
d. Instrumentation amplifier

8. In a differential amplifier, the CMRR is

limited mostly by
a. CMRR of the op amp
b. Gain-bandwidth product
c. Supply voltages
d. Tolerance of resistors
15. The Howland current source produces a 20. When we trim a resistor, we are
a. Unidirectional floating load current a. Making a fine adjustment
b. Bidirectional single-ended load current b. Reducing its value
c. Unidirectional single-ended load current c. Increasing its value
d. Bidirectional floating load current d. Making a coarse adjustment

16. The purpose of AGC is to 21. A D/A converter with four inputs has
a. Increase the voltage gain when the input a. Two outputs
signal increases b. Four outputs
b. Convert voltage to current c. Eight outputs
c. Keep the output voltage almost constant d. Sixteen outputs
d. Reduce the CMRR of the circuit
22. An op amp with a rail-to-rail output
17. 1 ppm is equivalent to a. Has a current-boosted output
a. 0.1% b. Can swing all the way to either supply
b. 0.01% voltage
c. 0.001% c. Has a high output impedance
d. 0.0001% d. Cannot be less than 0 V.

18. An input transducer converts 23. When a JFET is used in an AGC circuit, it
a. Voltage to current acts like a
b. Current to voltage a. Switch
c. An electrical quantity to a nonelectrical b. Voltage-controlled current source
quantity c. Voltage-controlled resistance
d. A nonelectrical quantity to an electrical d. Capacitance
quantity
24. If an op amp has only a positive supply
19. A thermistor converts voltage, its output cannot
a. Light to resistance a. Be negative
b. Temperature to resistance b. Be zero
c. Voltage to sound c. Equal the supply voltage
d. Current to voltage d. Be ac coupled
Chapter 21: Active Filters
8. The approximation that distorts digital
1. The region between the passband and the signals the least is the
stopband is called the a. Butterworth
a. Attenuation b. Chebyshev
b. Center c. Elliptic
c. Transition d. Bessel
d. Ripple
9. If a filter has six second-order stages and
2. The center frequency of a bandpass filter is one first-order stage, the order is
always equal to a. 2
a. The bandwidth b. 6
b. Geometric average of the cutoff c. 7
frequencies d. 13
c. Bandwidth divided by Q
d. 3-dB frequency 10. If a Butterworth filter has 9 second-order
stages, its rolloff rate is
3. The Q of a narrowband filter is always a. 20 dB per decade
a. small b. 40 dB per decade
b. equal to BW divided by f0 c. 180 dB per decade
c. less than 1 d. 360 dB per decade
d. greater than 1
11. If n = 10, the approximation with the
4. A bandstop filter is sometimes called a fastest rolloff in the transition region is
a. Snubber a. Butterworth
b. Phase shifter b. Chebyshev
c. Notch filter c. Inverse Chebyshev
d. Time-delay circuit d. Elliptic

5. The all-pass filter has 12. The elliptic approximation has a

a. No passband a. Slow rolloff rate compared to the Cauer
b. One stopband b. Rippled stopband
c. the same gain at all frequencies c. Maximally-flat passband
d. a fast rolloff above cutoff d. Monotonic stopband

6. The approximation with a maximally-flat 13. Linear phase shift is equivalent to

passband is a. Q = 0.707
a. Chebyshev b. Maximally-flat stopband
b. Inverse Chebyshev c. Constant time delay
c. Elliptic d. Rippled passband
d. Bessel
14. The filter with the slowest rolloff rate is
7. The approximation with a rippled passband the
is a. Butterworth
a. Butterworth b. Chebyshev
b. Inverse Chebyshev c. Elliptic
c. Elliptic d. Bessel
d. Bessel
15. A first-order active-filter stage has 23. If BW increases, the
a. One capacitor a. Center frequency decreases
b. Two op amps b. Q decreases
c. Three resistors c. Rolloff rate increases
d. a high Q d. Ripples appear in the stopband

16. A first-order stage cannot have a 24. When Q is greater than 1, a bandpass
a. Butterworth response filter should be built with
b. Chebyshev response a. Low-pass and high-pass stages
c. Maximally-flat passband b. MFB stages
d. Rolloff rate of 20 dB per decade c. Notch stages
d. All-pass stages
17. Sallen-Key filters are also called
a. VCVS filters 25. The all-pass filter is used when
b. MFB filters a. High rolloff rates are needed
c. Biquadratic filters b. Phase shift is important
d. State-variable filters c. A maximally-flat passband is needed
d. A rippled stopband is important
18. To build a 10th-order filter, we should
cascade 26. A second-order all-pass filter can vary the
a. 10 first-stage stages output phase from
b. 5 second-order stages a. 90 degrees to -90 degrees
c. 3 third-order stages b. 0 degrees to -180 degrees
d. 2 fourth-order stages c. 0 degrees to -360 degrees
d. 0 degrees to -720 degrees
19. To get a Butterworth response with an
8th-order filter, the stages need to have 27. The all-pass filter is sometimes called a
a. Equal Q's a. Tow-Thomas filter
b. Unequal center frequencies b. Delay equalizer
c. Inductors c. KHN filter
d. Staggered Q's d. State-variable filter

20. To get a Chebyshev response with a 12th- 28. The biquadratic filter
order filter, the stages need to have a. Has low component sensitivity
a. Equal Q's b. Uses three or more op amps
b. Equal center frequencies c. Is also called Tow-Thomas filter
c. Staggered bandwidths d. All of the above
d. Staggered center frequencies and Q's

21. The Q of a Sallen-Key second-order stage

depends on the
a. Voltage gain
b. Center frequency
c. Bandwidth
d. GBW of the op amp

22. With Sallen-Key high-pass filters, the pole

frequency must be
a. Added to the K values
b. Subtracted from the K values
c. Multiplied by the K values
d. Divided by the K values
29. The state-variable filter 30. If GBW is limited, the Q of the stage will
a. Has a low-pass, high-pass, and bandpass a. Remain the same
output b. Double
b. Is difficult to tune c. Decrease
c. Has high component sensitivity d. Increase
d. Uses less than three op amps
31. To correct for limited GBW, a designer
may use
a. A constant time delay
b. Predistortion
c. Linear phase shift
d. A rippled passband
Chapter 22: Nonlinear Op-Amp Circuits 7.If pulse width decreases and the period stays
the same, the duty cycle
1. In a nonlinear op-amp circuit, the a. Decreases
a. Op amp never saturates b. Stays the same
b. Feedback loop is never opened c. Increases
c. Output shape is the same as the input d. Is zero
shape
d. Op amp may saturate 8. The output of a relaxation oscillator is a
a. Sine wave
2. To detect when the input is greater than a b. Square wave
particular value, use a c. Ramp
a. Comparator d. Spike
b. Clamper
c. Limiter 9. If AOL = 200,000, the closed-loop knee
d. Relaxation oscillator voltage of a silicon diode is
a. 1 uV
3. The voltage out of a Schmitt trigger is b. 3.5 uV
a. A low voltage c. 7 uV
b. A high voltage d. 14 uV
c. Either a low or a high voltage
d. A sine wave 10. The input to a peak detector is a triangular
wave with a peak-to-peak value of 8 V and an
4. Hysteresis prevents false triggering average value of 0. The output is
associated with a. 0
a. A sinusoidal input b. 4 V
b. Noise voltages c. 8 V
c. Stray capacitances d. 16 V
d. Trip points
11. The input voltage to a positive limiter is a
5. If the input is a rectangular pulse, the triangular wave of 8 V pp and an average value
output of an integrator is a of 0. If the reference level is 2 V, the output is
a. Sine wave a. 0
b. Square wave b. 2 Vpp
c. Ramp c. 6 Vpp
d. Rectangular pulse d. 8 Vpp

6. When a large sine wave drives a Schmitt 12. The discharging time constant of a peak
trigger, the output is a detector is 10 ms. The lowest frequency you
a. Rectangular wave should use is
b. Triangular wave a. a.10 Hz
c. Rectified sine wave b. b.100 Hz
d. Series of ramps c. 1 kHz
d. 10 kHz

13. A comparator with a trip point of zero is

sometimes called a
a. Threshold detector
b. Zero-crossing detector
c. Positive limit detector
d. Half-wave detector
14. To work properly, many IC comparators 21. In an op-amp integrator, the current
need an external through the input resistor flows into the
a. Compensating capacitor a. Inverting input
b. Pullup resistor b. Noninverting input
c. Bypass circuit c. Bypass capacitor
d. Output stage d. Feedback capacitor

15. A Schmitt trigger uses 22. An active half-wave rectifier has a knee
a. Positive feedback voltage of
b. Negative feedback a. VK
c. Compensating capacitors b. 0.7 V
d. Pullup resistors c. More than 0.7 V
d. Much less than 0.7 V
16. A Schmitt trigger
a. Is a zero-crossing detector 23. In an active peak detector, the discharging
b. Has two trip points time constant is
c. Produces triangular output waves a. Much longer than the period
d. Is designed to trigger on noise voltage b. Much shorter than the period
c. Equal to the period
17. A relaxation oscillator depends on the d. The same as the charging time constant
charging of a capacitor through a
a. Resistor 24. If the reference voltage is zero, the output
b. Inductor of an active positive limiter is
c. Capacitor a. Positive
d. Noninverting input b. Negative
c. Either positive or negative
18. A ramp of voltage d. A ramp
a. Always increases
b. Is a rectangular pulse 25. The output of an active positive clamper is
c. Increases or decreases at a linear rate a. Positive
d. Is produced by hysteresis b. Negative
c. Either positive or negative
19. The op-amp integrator uses d. A ramp
a. Inductors
b. The Miller effect 26. The positive clamper adds
c. Sinusoidal inputs a. A positive dc voltage to the input
d. Hysteresis b. A negative dc voltage to the input
c. An ac signal to the output
20. The trip point of a comparator is the input d. A trip point to the input
voltage that causes
a. The circuit to oscillate 27. A window comparator
b. Peak detection of the input signal a. Has only one usable threshold
c. The output to switch states b. Uses hysteresis to speed up response
d. Clamping to occur c. Clamps the input positively
d. Detects an input voltage between two
limits
Chapter 23: Oscillators 8. Initially, the loop gain of a Wien-bridge
oscillator is
1 . An oscillator always needs an a. 0
amplifier with b. 1
a. Positive feedback c. Low
b. Negative feedback d. High
c. Both types of feedback
d. An LC tank circuit 9. A Wien bridge is sometimes called a
a. Notch filter
2. The voltage that starts an oscillator is b. Twin-T oscillator
caused by c. Phase shifter
a. Ripple from the power supply d. Wheatstone bridge
b. Noise voltage in resistors
c. The input signal from a generator 10. To vary the frequency of a Wien bridge,
d. Positive feedback you can vary
a. One resistor
3. The Wien-bridge oscillator is useful b. Two resistors
a. At low frequencies c. Three resistors
b. At high frequencies d. One capacitor
c. With LC tank circuits
d. At small input signals 11. The phase-shift oscillator usually has
a. Two lead or lag circuits
4. A lag circuit has a phase angle that is b. Three lead or fag circuits
a. Between 0 and +90 degrees c. A lead-lag circuit
b. Greater than 90 degrees d. A twin-T filter
c. Between 0 and -90 degrees
d. The same as the input voltage 12. For oscillations to start in a circuit, the
loop gain must be greater than 1 when the
5. A coupling circuit is a phase shift around the loop is
a. Lag circuit a. 90 degrees
b. Lead circuit b. 180 degrees
c. Lead-lag circuit c. 270 degrees
d. Resonant circuit d. 360 degrees

6. A lead circuit has a phase angle that is 13. The most widely used LC oscillator is the
a. Between 0 and +90 degrees a. Armstrong
b. Greater than 90 degrees b. Clapp
c. Between 0 and -90 degrees c. Colpitts
d. The same as the input voltage d. Hartley

7. A Wien-bridge oscillator uses 14. Heavy feedback in an LC oscillator

a. Positive feedback a. Prevents the circuit from starting
b. Negative feedback b. Causes saturation and cutoff
c. Both types of feedback c. Produces maximum output voltage
d. An LC tank circuit d. Means B is small
15. When Q decreases in a Colpitts oscillator, 23. The kind of oscillator found in an
the frequency of oscillation electronic wristwatch is the
a. Decreases a. Armstrong
b. Remains the same b. Clapp
c. Increases c. Colpitts
d. Becomes erratic d. Quartz crystal

16. Link coupling refers to 24. A monostable 555 timer has the following
a. Capacitive coupling number of stable states:
b. Transformer coupling a. 0
c. Resistive coupling b. 1
d. Power coupling c. 2
d. 3
17. The Hartley oscillator uses
a. Negative feedback 25. An astable 555 timer has the following
b. Two inductors number of stable states:
c. A tungsten lamp a. 0
d. A tickler coil b. 1
c. 2
18. To vary the frequency of an LC oscillator, d. 3
you can vary
a. One resistor 26. The pulse width out of a one-shot
b. Two resistors multivibrator increases when the
c. Three resistors a. Supply voltage increases
d. One capacitor b. Timing resistor decreases
c. UTP decreases
19. Of the following, the one with the most d. Timing capacitance increases
stable frequency is the
a. Armstrong 27. The output waveform of a 555 timer is
b. Clapp a. sinusoidal
c. Colpitts b. triangular
d. Hartley c. rectangular
d. elliptical
20. The material with the piezoelectric effect is
a. Quartz 28. The quantity that remains constant in a
b. Rochelle salts pulse-width modulator is
c. Tourmaline a. Pulse width
d. All the above b. Period
c. Duty cycle
21. Crystals have a very d. Space
a. Low Q
b. High Q
c. Small inductance
d. Large resistance

22. The series and parallel resonant

frequencies of a crystal are
a. Very close together
b. Very far apart
c. Equal
d. Low frequencies
29. The quantity that remains constant in a 30. When a PLL is locked on the input
pulse-position modulator is frequency, the VCO frequency
a. Pulse width a. Is less than f0
b. Period b. Is greater than f0
c. Duty cycle c. Equals f0
d. Space d. Equals fin

31. The bandwidth of the low-pass filter in a

PLL determines the
a. Capture range
b. Lock range
c. Free-running frequency
d. Phase difference
Chapter 24: Regulated Power Amplifiers
8. If the output of a voltage regulator varies
1. Voltage regulators normally use from 15 to 14.7 V between the minimum and
a. Negative feedback maximum load current, the load regulation is
b. Positive feedback a. 0
c. No feedback b. 1%
d. Phase limiting c. 2%
d. 5%
2. During regulation, the power dissipation of
the pass transistor equals the collector-emitter 9. If the output of a voltage regulator varies
voltage times the from 20 to 19.8 V when the line voltage varies
a. Base current over its specified range, the source regulation
b. Load current is
c. Zener current a. 0
d. Foldback current b. 1%
c. 2%
3. Without current limiting, a shorted load will d. 5%
probably
a. Produce zero load current 10. The output impedance of a voltage
b. Destroy diodes and transistors regulator is
c. Have a load voltage equal to the zener a. Very small
voltage b. Very large
d. Have too little load current c. Equal to the load voltage divided by the load
current
4. A current-sensing resistor is usually d. Equal to the input voltage divided by the
a. Zero output current
b. Small
c. Large 11. Compared to the ripple into a voltage
d. Open regulator, the ripple out of a voltage regulator
is
5. Simple current limiting produces too much a. Equal in value
heat in the b. Much larger
a. Zener diode c. Much smaller
b. Load resistor d. Impossible to determine
c. Pass transistor
d. Ambient air 12. A voltage regulator has a ripple rejection of
-60 dB. If the input ripple is 1 V, the output
6. With foldback current limiting, the load ripple is
voltage approaches zero, and the load current a. -60 mV
approaches b. 1 mV
a. A small value c. 10 mV
b. Infinity d. 1000 V
c. The zener current
d. A destructive level 13. Thermal shutdown occurs in an IC
regulator if
7. A capacitor may be needed in a discrete a. Power dissipation is too high
voltage regulator to prevent b. Internal temperature is too high
a. Negative feedback c. Current through the device is too high
b. Excessive load current d. All the above occur
c. Oscillations
d. Current sensing
14. If a linear three-terminal IC regulator is
more than a few inches from the filter 22. An increase of line voltage into a power
capacitor, you may get oscillations inside the supply usually produces
IC unless you use a. A decrease in load resistance
a. Current limiting b. An increase in load voltage
b. A bypass capacitor on the input pin c. A decrease in efficiency
c. A coupling capacitor on the output pin d. Less power dissipation in the rectifier
d. A regulated input voltage diodes

15. The 78XX series of voltage regulators 23. A power supply with low output
produces an output voltage that is impedance has low
a. Positive a. Load regulation
b. Negative b. Current limiting
c. Either positive or negative c. Line regulation
d. Unregulated d. Efficiency

16. The 78XX-12 produces a regulated output 24. A zener-diode regulator is a

voltage of a. Shunt regulator
a. 3 V b. Series regulator
b. 4 V c. Switching regulator
c. 12 V d. Zener follower
d. 40 V
25. The input current to a shunt regulator is
17. A current booster is a transistor in a. Variable
a. Series with the IC regulator b. Constant
b. Parallel with the IC regulator c. Equal to load current
c. Either series or parallel d. Used to store energy in a magnetic field
d. Shunt with the load
26. An advantage of shunt regulation is
18. To turn on a current booster, we can drive a. Built-in short-circuit protection
its base-emitter terminals with the voltage b. Low power dissipation in the pass transistor
across c. High efficiency
a. A load resistor d. Little wasted power
b. A zener impedance
c. Another transistor 27. The efficiency of a voltage regulator is high
d. A current-sensing resistor when
a. Input power is low
19. A phase splitter produces two output b. Output power is high
voltages that are c. Little power is wasted
a. Equal in phase d. Input power is high
b. Unequal in amplitude
c. Opposite in phase
d. Very small

20. A series regulator is an example of a

a. Linear regulator
b. Switching regulator
c. Shunt regulator
d. Dc-to-dc converter

21. To get more output voltage from a buck

switching regulator, you have to
a. Decrease the duty cycle
b. Decrease the input voltage
c. Increase the duty cycle
d. Increase the switching frequency
28. A shunt regulator is inefficient because
a. It wastes power
b. It uses a series resistor and a shunt transistor
c. The ratio of output to input power is low
d. All of the above

29. A switching regulator is considered

a. Quiet
b. Noisy
c. Inefficient
d. Linear

30. The zener follower is an example of a

a. Boost regulator
b. Shunt regulator
c. Buck regulator
d. Series regulator

31. A series regulator is more efficient than a shunt regulator because

a. It has a series resistor
b. It can boost the voltage
c. The pass transistor replaces the series resistor
d. It switches the pass transistor on and off

32. The efficiency of a linear regulator is high when the

a. Headroom voltage is low
b. Pass transistor has a high power dissipation
c. Zener voltage is low
d. Output voltage is low

33. If the load is shorted, the pass transistor has the least power dissipation when the
regulator has
a. Foldback limiting
b. Low efficiency
c. Buck topology
d. A high zener voltage

34. The dropout voltage of standard monolithic linear regulators is closest to

a. 0.3 V
b. 0.7 V
c. 2 V
d. 3.1 V

35. In a buck regulator, the output voltage is filtered with a

a. Choke-input filter
b. Capacitor-input filter
c. Diode
d. Voltage divider
36. The regulator with the highest efficiency is the
a. Shunt regulator
b. Series regulator
c. Switching regulator
d. Dc-to-dc converter

37. In a boost regulator, the output voltage is filtered with a

a. Choke-input filter
b. Capacitor-input filter
c. Diode
d. Voltage divider

38. The buck-boost regulator is also

a. A step-down regulator
b. A step-up regulator
c. An inverting regulator
d. All of the above
 MergedElexV2

Electricity/Magnetism Fundamentals

1. Whenever a conductor cuts magnetic flux, an emf is induced in it. This is known as
a. Ohm’s
b. Coulomb’s law
c. Joule’s law
d. Faraday’s law *

2. Lenz’ law states that the direction of the induced emf and hence current
a. Always opposes the cause producing it *
b. Is determined by the rate of current flux
c. Is found by the right hand rule
d. Is found by the left hand rule

3. The volt is the standard unit of:

a. Current
b. Charge
c. Electromotive force *
d. Resistance

4. A stroke of lightning:
a. Builds up between clouds
b. Has a very low current
c. Is caused by a movement of holes in an insulator
d. Is a discharge of static electricity *

5. At 60 cycle, a sinusoidal current has a magnitude of 5A at 6.25msec. Its maximum value is

a. 2.73A
b. 3.54A
c. 6.50A
d. 7.07A *

6. Electrons pass to the right through a wire cross section at the rate of 9.4 x 1021 electrons per
minute. What is the current in the wire?
a. -25.5 A
b. -25.1 A *
c. -24.5 A
d. -24.1 A
Electrical Circuits

Prob. 7 – 20

7. The resistance of a wire is 25 Ω. Another wire of the same material and at the same temperature
has a diameter twice as great and a length six times as great. Find the resistance of the second
wire.
a. 37.5 Ω *
b. 37.1 Ω
c. 38.1 Ω
d. 38.5 Ω

8. A wire-wound resistor is to be made from 0.2-mm-diameter constantan wire wound around a cylinder
that is 1 cm in diameter. How many turns of wire are required for a resistance of 50 Ω at 20°C?
a. 100 turns
b. 102 turns *
c. 104 turns
d. 108 turns

9. What resistor draws a current of 5 A when connected across terminals a and b of the circuit
below?

a. 4Ω
b. 5Ω
c. 6Ω *
d. 10 Ω

10. In the circuit show below, what resistor RL will absorb maximum power?

a. 20 Ω
b. 25 Ω
c. 27.33 Ω
d. 30 Ω *

11. A resistance of 100 Ω, a coil of 4.50 uH and a capacitance of 220 pF in parallel. What is the
admittance vector at 6.50 MHz?
a. 100 + j0.00354
 b. 0.010 + j0.0054 *
c. 100 – j0.0144
d. 0.010 + j0.0144

12. A 0.1-uF capacitor, initially charged to 230V is discharged through a 3-MHz resistor. Find the
capacitor voltage 0.2 s after the capacitor starts to discharge.
a. 118V *
b. 119V
c. 120V
d. 121V

13. Closing a switch connects in series a 300-V source, a 2.7-MΩ resistor, and a 2-uF capacitor charged
to 50V with its positive plate toward the positive terminal of the source. Find the capacitor current
3s after the switch closes.
a. 48.9 uA
b. 51.5 uA
c. 53.1 uA *
d. 55.2 uA

14. A fully loaded 10-hp induction motor operates from a 480-V, 60-Hz line at an efficiency of 85 percent
and a 0.8 lagging power factor. Find the overall power factor when a 33.3-uF capacitor is placed in
parallel with the motor.
a. 0.882
b. 0.891
c. 0.901
d. 0.922 *

15. Each point in the RC plane:

a. Corresponds to unique inductance
b. Corresponds to unique capacitance
c. Corresponds to unique combination of resistance and capacitance
d. Corresponds to unique combination of resistance and reactance *

16. What will happen to the susceptance of the capacitor of if the frequency is doubled, all other things
is being equal?
a. It will decease to half its former value
b. It will not change
c. It will double *
d. It will be quadruple.

17. The power in a reactance

a. Radiated
b. True power
c. Imaginary power *
d. Apparent power

18. A triangular wave:

a. Has a fast rise time and a slow decay time
 b. Has a slow rise time and a fast decay time
c. Has equal rise and decay rates. *
d. Rise and falls abruptly.

19. Which of the following is not a general characteristic of an AC wave:

a. The wave shape is identical for each cycle
b. The polarity reverse periodically
c. The electrons always flows in the same direction *
d. There is a definite frequency

20. The absolute-value impedance Z of a parallel RLC circuit, where R is the resistance and X is the
net reactance, is found according to the formula:
a. Z2 = R2 + X2
b. Z2 = RX / (R2 + X2) *
c. Z = 1 / (R2 + X2)
d. Z = R2X2 / (R + X)

Test and Measurement

Prob21 to 24
 21. What instrument determines the concentration of substances by their absorption of nearly
monochromatic radiation at a wavelength selected by filters or by simple radiation-dispersing
system?
a. radiometer
b. reflectometer
c. bolometer
d. absorptiometer *

22. The meter movement in an illumination meter measures:

a. Power
b. Current *
c. Energy
d. Voltage

23. Measures the equivalent series resistance of capacitors

a. VU meter
b. LCR meter
c. Psophometer
d. ESR meter *

24. Which of the following with not cause a major error in an ohmmeter?
a. A small voltage between points under test.
b. A slight change in switchable internal resistance.
c. A small chance in the resistance to be measured. *
d. A slight error in the range switch selection

Solid State Devices State Devices

Prob25 to 30

25. A semiconductor material is made into N type by:

a. Injecting electrons
b. Taking electrons away
 c. Adding an acceptor impurity
d. Adding a donor impurity *

26. Equivalent circuit model commonly used in small signal analysis at high frequencies.
a. Ideal model
b. H parameters
c. Ebers-Moll *
d. Hybrid-Pi or Giacoletto

27. The amplifier with the conduction angle for the transistor is 180 degrees.
a. Class A
b. Class B *
c. Class C
d. Class D

28. A voltage-doubler power supply is best for use in

a. Low-voltage devices
b. High-current appliances
c. Circuits that need low current at high voltage *
d. Broadcast transmitter power amplifiers

29. The JFET circuit essentially never has:

a. Forward-biased P-N junction *
b. Holes are the majority carriers
c. A high input impedance
d. A pinched-off channel

30. In a P-channel JFET

a. The drain is positive with respect to the source
b. The gate must be grounded
c. The majority carriers are holes *
d. The source receives the input signal

Electronic(Audio/RF) circuit/analysis/design

Prob31-36

31. A tank circuit consisting of two series-connected coils in parallel with a capacitor, with an amplifier
between the relatively high impedance across the entire LC tank and the relatively low
voltage/high current point between the coils.
a. Hartley oscillator *
b. Pierce oscillator
 c. Armstrong oscillator
d. Wien bridge oscillator

32. Which is not a type of RC oscillator?

a. Phase-shift oscillator
b. Ring oscillator *
c. Wien bridge oscillator
d. Twin-T oscillator

33. A Colpitts is a form of:

a. Amplifier
b. Detector
c. Modulator
d. Oscillator *

34. Which of the following amplifier produce the least distortion?

a. Class A *
b. Class AB
c. Class B
d. Class C

35. At what frequency will an inductor of 5 mH have the same reactance as a capacitor of 0.1 uF?
a. 7.12 Hz
b. 7.12 kH *
c. 7.12 MHz
d. 7.12 GHz

36. The bandwidth of a single stage amplifier is ________ that of multistage amplifier.
a. Equal to
b. Less than
c. More than *
d. Independent

Microelectronics

Prob37 to 40

37. Process of growing a thin layer of silicon dioxide over a semiconductor.

a. Metalization
b. Photolithographic process
c. Oxidation *
d. Isolation

38. The equation for Einstein Relation is

 a. D/u = kTq
b. D/u = T/(kq)
c. D/u = qT/k
d. D/u = kT/q *

39. A pn junction employs the following doping levels: NA = 1016 cm-3 and ND = 51015 cm-3.
Determine the hole and electron concentrations on the two side.
a. np = 1.1 x 104 cm-3 and pn = 2.3 x 104 cm-3 *
b. np = 1.5 x 104 cm-3 and pn = 2.3 x 104 cm-3
c. np = 1.1 x 104 cm-3 and pn = 2.5 x 104 cm-3
d. np = 1.0 x 104 cm-3 and pn = 2.2 x 104 cm-3

40. In nMOS transistor, which operation is for cut-off mode?

a. Vgs < Vt *
b. Vgs >Vt, Vgd = Vgs, and Vds = 0
c. Vgs > Vt, Vgs <Vgd, and Vds>Vgs-Vt
d. Vgs > Vt, Vgs >Vgd>Vt, and 0<Vds<Vgs-Vt

Computer Principles

Prob41 -46

41. De Morgan’s theorem is

a. X’ + Y’ = Y’ + X’
b. X’ + Y’ + Z’ = X’ + (Y’ + Z’)
c. (X + Y)’ = X’ Y’ *
d. (XY)’ = X’Y’

42. The largest possible decimal number that can be represented by six binary digits (bits) is:
a. 63 *
 b. 64
c. 128
d. 256

43. Which type of memory remembers even when the power is turned off?
a. Volatile
b. Cache
c. RAM
d. Non-Volatile *

44. The input of an R-S flip-flop are known as

a. Set and reset *
b. Low and High
c. Asynchronous
d. Synchronous

45. The acronym FPAA stands for:

a. field-programmable amplifier array
b. field-programmable analog array *
c. fast-programmable analog array
d. feedback path analog amplifier

46. The advantage of J-K over R-S flip-flop is that

a. The J-K always has predictable output. *
b. The J-K flip-flop is faster
c. The J-K can attain more states
d. An R-S flip-flop is superior to a J-K.

Industrial Electronics/principles/application

Prob47 to 50

47. For a UJT, the intrinsic standoff ratio is

a. always less than 1 *
b. always greater than 1
c. equal to 1
d. usually around 1k or so

48. An alternative name for a diac is:

a. Four-layer diode
b. Silicon unilateral switch
c. Silicon bilateral switch
d. Bidirectional trigger diode *
49. A ____ is like two parallel SCRs having a common gate and connected opposite directions.
a. Diacs
b. PUTs
c. Triacs *
d. UJTs

50. A device that combines feature of MOSFET and the BJT and used mainly for high-voltage
switching applications.
a. LASCR
b. IGBT *
c. SCS
d. UJT
Electricity/Magnetism Fundamentals

51. A ferromagnetic matter:

a. Increases the total magnetomotive force around a current-carrying wire.
b. Concentrates magnetic flux lines within itself. *
c. Causes an increase in the current in a wire.
d. Increase the number of ampere-turns in a wire.

52. If a wire coil has 15 turns and carries 250 mA of current, what is the magnetic force in ampere-
turn?
a. 3750
b. 375
c. 3.75 *
d. 0.017

53. A substance with high retentivity is best suited for making

a. A dc electromagnet
b. A permanent magnet *
c. An ac electromagnet
d. An electrostatic shield

54. A cell of 2.5V supplies 200 mA for three hours and thirty minutes, and then it is replace. It has
supplied:
a. 6.60 Ah
b. 6.60 Wh
c. 660 mWh
d. 660 mAh *

55. The rotating part of a dynamo, consisting essentially of copper wire wound around an iron core is.
a. A commutator
b. A solenoid
c. An armature coil *
d. A field coil

56. Which of these can represent magnetomotive force?

a. The volt-turn
b. The ampere-turn *
c. The gauss
d. The gauss-turn

Electrical Circuits
57. Three resistors are connected in parallel to a 20V-supply. The resistances are R1=10Ω, R2=8Ω,
and R3. If R3 can only absorb 20W, the total current of the circuit is closest to?
a. 5 A
b. 5.25 A
c. 5.5 A *
d. 5.75 A

58. The value that a circuit has attained after it has long been switched is called
a. transient value
b. time constant value
c. leakage value
d. steady state value *

59. Determine the maximum power that can be supplied to a load by source with Vth=120V and Rth=2.5
ohms.
a. 3600W
b. 5760W
c. 1440W *
d. 1800W

60. The rms value of the waveform of the figure is

a. 2.887A *
b. 3.266A
c. 4A
d. 1.43A

61. In an RLC series circuit, the circuit frequency is below the resonant frequency, then
a. XC = XL
b. XC > XL *
c. XC < XL
d. Z = R

62. If all the delta connected resistor are identical résistance of 30 ohms, what is the equivalent value
of the resistor in WYE connection?
a. 30 ohms
b. 15 ohms
c. 10 ohms *
d. 7 ohms

63. With permeability tuning, moving a core further into a solenoidal coil
a. Increases the inductance *
 b. Decreases the inductance
c. Has no effect of the inductance but increases the current-carraying capacity of the coil
d. Raises the frequency.

64. An AWG #12 copper wire, a size in common use in residential wiring, contains approximately
2.77x1023 free electrons per meter length, assuming one free conduction electron per atom. What
percentage of these electrons will pass a fixed cross section if the conductor carries a constant
current of 25.0 A?
a. 3.38% *
b. 4.22%
c. 3.05%
d. 4.58%

65. A 4500-VA load at power factor 0.75 lagging is supplied by a 60-Hz source at effective voltage 240V.
Determine the parallel capacitance in microfarads necessary to improve the power factor to 0.90
lagging.
a. 58.6 uF
b. 64.8 uF
c. 59.4 uF
d. 61.8 uF *

66. Determine the Thevenin equivalent resistance.

a. 25 Ω
b. 15 Ω
c. 10 Ω
d. 4Ω*

67. What is the value of resistor with color bands: Green-Violet-Orange-Silver?

a. R= 46 kΩ ± 10%
b. R= 57 kΩ ± 10% *
c. R= 67 kΩ ± 10%
d. R= 56 kΩ ± 10%

kΩ

68. A two-element series circuit has average power 940W and power factor 0.707 leading. Determine
the circuit elements if the applied voltage is v = 99 cos(6000t +300)V.
 a. 58.2 uF
b. 62.3 uF
c. 64.1 uF *
d. 66.0 uF

69. As the capacitor plate area increases, all things being equal
a. the capacitance increases *
b. the capacitance decreases
c. the capacitance does not change
d. the voltage-handling ability decreases

Test and Measurement

70. Measures the equivalent series resistance of capacitors

a. VU meter
b. LCR meter
c. ESR meter *
d. Psophometer

71. To measure power-supply voltage being used by a circuit, a voltmeter

a. Is placed in series with the circuit that works from the supply
b. Is places between the positive pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
c. Is places between the negative pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
d. Is places in parallel with the circuit that works from the supply *

72. It is used to displays the phase of the colors in color TV

a. Network analyzer
b. Spectrum analyser
c. Vectorscope *
d. Sweep generator

73. The force between two electrically charge objects is called:

a. Electromagnetic deflection
b. Electrostatic force *
c. Magnetic force
d. Electrostatic force

Solid State Devices State Devices

74. The configuration most often used for matching a high input impedance to a low output impedance
puts signal group at:
 a. The emitter
b. The base
c. The collector *
d. Any point; it doesn’t matter

75. The junction FET, the control electrode is usually the:

a. Source
b. Gate *
c. Emitter
d. Drain

76. In a P-channel JFET:

a. The majority carrier are holes *
b. The drain is positive with respect to the source
c. The gate must be grounded
d. The source receives the input signal

77. A Zener diode would most likely be used in:

a. A mixer
b. A voltage-controlled oscillator
c. A detector
d. A power supply regulator circuit *

78. In a PNP bipolar transistor:

a. The collector is negative relatively to the emitter *
b. The collector is positive relatively to the emitter
c. The collector must be at ground potential.
d. The collector is at the same voltage as the emitter.

Electronic(Audio/RF) circuit/analysis/design

79. An amplifier has an output signal voltage that is 35 times the input signal voltage. This is a gain of:
a. 15 dB
b. 31 dB *
c. 35 dB
d. 350 dB
 80. An audio oscillator that uses two amplifier in cascade, with positive feedback from the output of the
second stage to the input of the first stage, is known as a:
a. Colpitts circuit
b. Hartley circuit
c. Multivibrator *
d. Clapp circuit

81. The oscillating frequency of the quartz crystal can he varied slightly by:
a. Changing the bias on the transistor
b. Changing the voltage across each one.
c. Reversing the power supply polarity
d. Placing a small variable capacitor across the crystal. *

82. Negative feedback in an amplifier

a. Causes oscillation
b. Increases sensitivity
c. Reduces the gain *
d. Is used in an Armstrong oscillator

83. An amplifier has a bandwidth of 20 kHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback, if 1% negative
feedback is applied. The bandwidth with feedback is
a. 13.3 kHz
b. 30 kHz *
c. 10 kHz
d. 40 kHz

84. A feedback amplifier has an open loop gain of 600 and feedback factor β = 0.01. Find the closed
loop gain with feedback.
a. 83.5
b. 84.3
c. 85.7 *
d. 86.4

85. The features of CASCODE amplifier are

a. Large output impedance *
b. Small input impedance
c. Larger bandwidth
d. Reduced distortion

Microelectronics

86. ECL is high speed because

a. Operation is in the low noise negative supply region
b. Construction in small geometries
c. The use of gallium arsenide conductors
d. The operating transistors being unsaturated *
 87. The term used to describe a technique for depositing passive circuit elements on an insulating
substrate with coating to a thickness of 0.0001 centimeter.
a. Monolithic
b. Thin-film *
c. Hybrid
d. Thick-film

88. It is characterized by high switching speed (in some cases upwards of 125 MHz ), and relative
immunity to noise.
a. Emitter-coupled logic
b. Base-coupled logic
c. N-channel-couple logic
d. Transistor-transistor logic *

89. CMOS is sometimes referred to except

a. Non-Real Time Clock *
b. Non-Volatile RAM
c. Non-Volatile BIOS memory
d. COS-MOS

Computer Principles

90. Chips that contain from 10 to about 100 gates are called
a. SSI
b. MSI *
c. LSI
d. VLSI

91. In a RAM:
a. It’s hard to get data out and easy to put it in
b. It’s easy to get data out and hard to put it in
c. It’s easy to get data out and put it in *
d. It’s hard to get data out and put it in

92. The data in volatile computer memory

a. Is stored on the magnetic disk
b. Cannot be used by the a microprocessor
c. Consist of analog waveforms
d. Vanishes if the power is remove. *

93. A packet
a. A computer memory module
b. A unit of 210 bytes
 c. A piece of a file sent over a Net *
d. A picture element in a computer monitor

Industrial Electronics/principles/application

94. Common types of thyristors include

a. BJTs and SCRs
b. UJTs and PUTs
c. FETs and Triacs
d. Diacs and Triacs *

95. A 4-layer diode turns on when the anode to cathode voltage exceeds
a. 0.7 V
b. The forward-breakover voltage *
c. The gate voltage
d. The forward-blacking voltage

96. The SCR differs from the 4-layer diode because

a. It has a gate terminal *
b. It is not a thyristor
c. It does not have a four layers
d. It cannot be turned on or off

97. In the forward-blocking region, the SCR is

a. Reverse-biased
b. In the off state *
c. In the on state
d. At the point of breakdown

98. In a phototransistor, the base current is

a. Set by a bias voltage
b. Directly proportional to the light *
c. Inversely proportional to the light
d. Not a factor

99. A semiconductor device with four alternating layers (P-N-P-N) that are controlled by a metal-
oxide-semiconductor (MOS) gate structure without regenerative action.
a. Triac
b. SCR
c. Thyristor
d. IGBT *

100. A three-terminal single pn junction device that exhibits a negative resistance characteristic
a. Triac
b. UJT *
c. Thyristor
d. PUT
Electricity/Magnetism Fundamentals

101. Electric field lines start

a. At positive charges or at infinity. *
b. At negative charges or infinity.
c. At infinity and end at positive charges.
d. Midway between positive charges and negative charges.

102. The electric flux through a surface of fixed area is maximum when the surface is
a. Parallel to the electric field.
b. Antiparallel to the electric field.
c. Perpendicular to the electric field. *
d. At an angle of 45◦ to the electric field.

103. The head of a nail is attracted to the north pole of a magnet and repelled by the magnet’s south
pole.
a. The nail is aluminum.
b. The nail is copper.
c. The nail is initially not magnetized.
d. The nail is magnetized. *

104. If an electron moves from right to left across this page and suddenly is subjected to a magnetic
field directed into the page, what is the direction of the magnetic force on the electron?
a. Into the page
b. Out of the page
c. From the bottom to the top of the page *
d. From the top to the bottom of the page

105. The magnetism of ferromagnetic materials, such as iron, has its origin in the intrinsic magnetic
moment of electrons that is associated with their
a. Orbital angular momentum.
b. Spin angular momentum. *
c. Electric charge.
d. Being magnetically soft.

106. When two parallel current-carrying wires have currents in the same direction, the wires
a. Attract one another. *
b. Repel one another.
c. Exert no forces on one another.
d. Exert equal and opposite repulsive forces on one another perpendicular to the plane of
the wires.
Electrical Circuits

107. The impedance of R-C series circuit is 100Ω. If circuit current leads the applied voltage by 60o.
the capacitive reactance is____
a. 50Ω
b. 70.7Ω
c. 86.6Ω *
d. 200Ω

108. Power absorbed in a pure inductive circuit is zero because

a. Reactive component of the current is zero
b. Active component of the current is maximum
c. Power factor of the circuit is zero *
d. Reactive and active components of the current cancel out

109. At series resonance, the voltage across L or C is

a. Equal to the applied voltage
b. Less than the applied voltage
c. Much more than the applied voltage *
d. Equal to the voltage across R

110. The resistance of a certain wire is 20Ω. Another wire of the same material and at the same
temperature has a diameter one-third as great and a length twice as great. Find the resistance of
the second wire.
a. 360 Ω *
b. 180 Ω
c. 40 Ω
d. 240 Ω

111. A wire 50 m in length and 2 mm2 in cross section has a resistance of 0.56 Ω. A 100-m length of
wire of the same material has a resistance of 2 Ω at the same temperature. Find the diameter of
this wire.
a. 1.8 mm
b. 1.4 mm
c. 1.2 mm *
d. 1.0 mm

112. Find the current I in the circuit shown.

a. 0.234 A
b. 0.334 A *
c. 0.394 A
d. 0.424 A
113. For the circuit shown, what load impedance ZL absorbs maximum average power?

a. -8.46  2.61o
b. -8.92  2.31o
c. 8.22  2.44o
d. 8.46  2.81o *

114. Find the power factor of a fully loaded 5-hp induction motor that operates at 85 percent efficiency
while drawing 15 A from a 480-V line.
a. 0.678 lagging
b. 0.609 lagging *
c. 0.645 lagging
d. 0.589 lagging

115. The package of the resistor is rated at 56 Ω, plus or minus 10 percent. You test them with an
ohmmeter. Which of the following values indicate a reject?
a. 50.0 Ω *
b. 53.0 Ω
c. 59.7 Ω
d. 61.1 Ω

116. A phase difference of 180 degrees in the circular model:

a. ¼ revolution
b. ½ revolution *
c. A full revolution
d. Two full revolution

117. Inductive susceptance is

a. Equal to capacitive reactance
b. The measure of the opposition a coil offers to ac.
c. Negative imaginary *
d. The reciprocal of inductance

118. The low power factor of the circuit means that it will
a. draw more active power
b. less line current
c. cause less voltage drop in the line
d. draw more reactive power *

119. As the capacitor plate area increases, all things being equal
 a. the capacitance decreases
b. the capacitance do not change
c. the voltage-handling ability increases
d. the capacitance increases *

120. In an RLC series circuit, the circuit frequency is below the resonant frequency, then
a. Z = R
b. XC = XL
c. XC > XL *
d. XC < XL

Test and Measurement

121. A ammeter shunt is useful because

a. It prevents overheating of the meter
b. It makes a meter more physically rugged
c. It allows for measurements of a wide range of current
d. It increases meter sensitivity *

122. It is used to displays the phase of the colors in color TV

a. Vectorscope *
b. Network analyzer
c. Spectrum analyser
d. Sweep generator

123. The meter movement in an illumination meter measures:

a. Voltage
b. Power
c. Current *
d. Energy

124. A device that can characterize active devices such as transistors and amplifiers using S-
parameters, as long as they are operating in their linear mode of operation.
a. Vector Network analyzer *
b. Spectrum analyzer
c. Vectorscope
d. Sweep generator
Solid State Devices State Devices

125. A small-signal amplifier

a. always has an output signal in the mV range
b. uses only a small portion of its load line *
c. goes into saturation once on each input cycle
d. is always a common-emitter amplifier

126. The junction FET, the control electrode is usually the:

a. Source
b. Emitter
c. Gate *
d. Drain

127. Equivalent circuit model commonly used in small signal analysis at high frequencies.
a. ideal model
b. Hybrid-Pi or Giacoletto
c. H parameters
d. Ebers-Moll *

128. A silicon sample at room temperature has an intrinsic carrier concentration of n i = 5×109 cm-3. It is
doped with ND = 6.1×1016 arsenic atoms/cm3 and NA = 6×1012 boron atoms/cm3. The electron
mobility is measured as µn = 1600 cm2/V·s and the hole mobility is µp = 480 cm2/V·s. What is the
hole concentration?
a. p =6x1012 /cm3
b. p =2.5x1019 /cm3
c. p =4.1x102 /cm3 *
d. p =6.1x1016 /cm3

129. In a p-channel FET, the charge carriers are …..

a. electrons
b. holes *
c. both holes and electrons
d. ions

130. The principal advantage of the voltage multiplier

a. Poor regulation *
b. Insufficient rectification
c. Excessive current
d. Excessive voltage

Electronic(Audio/RF) circuit/analysis/design
 131. The ac load line differs from the dc load line because
a. The effective dc collector resistance is less than the dc collector resistance.
b. The effective ac collector resistance is less than the ac collector resistance.
c. The effective ac collector resistance is less than the dc collector resistance. *
d. The effective ac collector resistance is greater than the dc collector resistance.

132. An oscillator might fail to start for any of the following reasons except:
a. Low power supply voltage
b. Low stage gain
c. Very low output impedance
d. In-phase feedback *

133. How can a class-C amplifier be made linear?

a. By reducing the bias
b. A class-C amplifier cannot be made linear *
c. By increasing the drive
d. By using two transistor in push-pull

134. If the load impedance for the an oscillator is too high:

a. It’s not a cause for worry; it can’t be too high *
b. The frequency might drift
c. The power output might be reduce
d. The oscillator might file to start

135. The oscillating frequency of the quartz crystal can he varied slightly by:
a. Changing the bias on the transistor
b. Changing the voltage across each one.
c. Reversing the power supply polarity
d. Placing a small variable capacitor across the crystal. *

136. The features of CASCODE amplifier are

a. Reduced distortion
b. Small input impedance
c. Large output impedance *
d. Larger bandwidth

Microelectronics

137. An IC constructed entirely on a single silicon chip.

a. Thin-film
b. Thick-film
c. Monolithic *
 d. Hybrid

138. In nMOS transistor, which operation is for saturation mode?

a. Vgs > Vt, Vgs >Vgd>Vt, and 0<Vds<Vgs-Vt
b. Vgs > Vt, Vgs <Vgd, and Vds>Vgs-Vt *
c. Vgs >Vt, Vgd = Vgs, and Vds = 0
d. Vgs = 0 and Vgd is high

139. Dynamic gates drives multiple-input static CMOS gates are susceptible to
a. Hot spots
b. Minority carrier injection
c. Leakeage
d. Back-end coupling *

140. Drain current in the constant-current region decreases when

a. the gate-to-source bias voltage decreases
b. the gate-to-source bias voltage increases *
c. the drain-to-source voltage increases
d. the drain-to-source voltage decreases

Computer Principles

141. A universal gate is a

a. NOR gate *
b. OR gate
c. AND gate
d. NOT gate

142. A logic gate which produces an output which is false only if all its inputs are true
a. NOR
b. NAND *
c. OR
d. AND

143. The state of asynchronous enable SR latch when both signals are ‘1’ and enable is ‘1’.
a. No change
b. Reset
c. Set
d. Not allowed *

144. The state of clocked JK flip-flop when Q=1, J=1 and K = 1 is

a. Toggle *
b. Reset
c. Set
d. Not allowed

145. Convert 111101.011012 to octal

 a. 75.238
b. 75.328
c. 76.328 *
d. 75.228

146. Convert BA2.23C16 to binary.

a. 101110100010.00110011112
b. 101110100010.00100011112 *
c. 101110100110.00100011112
d. 101111100010.00100011112

Industrial Electronics/principles/application

147. For a UJT, the intrinsic standoff ratio is

a. usually around 1k or so
b. equal to 1
c. always greater than 1
d. always less than 1 *

148. The only way to stop an SCR that is conducting is by

a. breakover
b. low-current drop out *
c. reverse-bias triggering a positive trigger
d. a positive trigger

149. The PUT is

a. Not a thyristor
b. Much like the UJT
c. Not a four-layer device
d. Trigger on and off by the gate-to-anode *

150. An SCR differs from the 4-layer diode because

a. it has a gate terminal *
b. it is not a thyristor
c. it does not have four layers
d. it cannot be turned on and off
Electricity/Magnetism Fundamentals

151. The force between two magnetic poles is _____ their poles strength.
a. equal to
b. directly proportional to *
c. inversely proportional to
d. directly proportional to the square root of

152. Hysteresis refers to the ______ between flux density of the material and the magnetizing
force applied.
a. Leading effect
b. Ratio
c. Equality
d. Lagging effect *

153. The magnetic flux of 2000 lines is how many Maxwells?

a. 1000
b. 2000 *
c. 4000
d. 8000

154. Hysteresis refers to the ______ between flux density of the material and the magnetizing force
applied.
a. Ratio
b. Equality
c. Lagging effect *
d. Leading effect

155. The permeability of permalloy is

a. Slightly less than permeability of air
b. Slightly greater than permeability of air
c. Very much greater than permeability of air *
d. Equal to the permeability of air

156. The magnetic field of a magnetized iron bar when strongly heated
a. Becomes weaker *
b. Becomes stronger
c. Reverses in direction
d. is unchanged
Electrical Circuits

157. Find Thevenin equivalent of the circuit of Figure 1 seen from terminals AB.

Figure 1

a. Vth = 12V , Rth = 15Ω

b. Vth = 15V , Rth = 12Ω
c. Vth = 12V , Rth = 12Ω
d. Vth = 12V , Rth = 17Ω *

158. In the circuit of Fig. 2, find v2 and i2.

Figure 2

a. v2 = -4V and i2 = -0.4A

b. v2 = -5V and i2 = -0.5A *
c. v2 = -6V and i2 = -0.6A
d. v2 = -7V and i2 = -0.7A

159. Obtain the conductance and susceptance corresponding to a voltage V = 85.0  2050 V and a
resulting current I = 41.2 141.00 A.
a. 0.471S;0.117S (capacitive) *
b. 0.471S;0.117S (inductive)
c. -0.471S; -0.117S (capacitive)
d. -0.471S; -0.117S (inductive)

160. A 100-kVA transformer is at 80 percent of rated load at power factor 0.85 lagging. How many kVA
in additional load at 0.60 lagging power factor will bring the transformer to full rated load?
a. 21.8 kVA
b. 22.2 kVA
c. 21.2 kVA *
d. 22.4 kVA

161. In the circuit of Fig 3, v1 = 10V and v2 = 5sin2000t. Find i.

 Fig. 3

a. i = 1 - 0.35sin(2000t + 450 )
b. i = 1 - 0.35sin(2000t - 450 ) *
c. i = 1 + 0.35sin(2000t - 450 )
d. i = 1 + 0.35sin(2000t + 450 )

162. A certain passive network has equivalent impedance Z = 3+4 Ω and an applied voltage
v=42.5cos(1000t + 300) V. Determine the power factor (pf).
a. pf = 0.6 lagging *
b. pf = 0.6 leading
c. pf = 0.7 lagging
d. pf = 0.7 leading

163. A three-phase, three-wire, ABC system with a balanced load has effective line voltage 200V and
(maximum) line current IA = 13.61  600 A. Obtain the total power.
a. 2807 W
b. 2708 W
c. 2887 W *
d. 2788 W

164. A coil is represented by a series combination of L = 50 mH and R = 15 Ω. Calculate the quality

factor at 10kHz.
a. Qcoil = 1047
b. Qcoil = 845
c. Qcoil = 326
d. Qcoil = 209 *

165. If the capacitor has a negative temperature coefficient:

a. Its value decreases as the temperature rises. *
b. Its value increases as the temperature rises.
c. Its value does not chance with temperature.
d. It must be connected with the correct polarity

166. As the number of turns in a coil increases, the reactance:

a. Increases *
b. Decrease
c. Stay the same
d. Is stored on the core material

167. Each point in the RC plane

a. Corresponds to a unique inductance
 b. Corresponds to a unique capacitance
c. Corresponds to a unique combination of resistance and capacitance
d. Corresponds to a unique combination of resistance and reactance *

168. If the ratio of Xc / R is 1, the phase angle is:

a. 0 degrees
b. -45 degrees *
c. -90 degrees
d. 45 degrees

169. Inductive susceptance is a measured in

a. Ohms
b. Henrys
c. Farads
d. Siemens *

170. In a household circuit, the 234V power has

a. One phase
b. Two phases
c. Three phases *
d. Four phases

Test and Measurement

171. The tester is essentially a high-range resistance meter with a built-in direct-current generator.
a. Viscometers
 b. Curve Tracers
c. Pyrometers
d. Megger *

172. A hot-wire ammeter:

a. Can measure ac as well as dc *
b. Can indicate very low voltages
c. Measure electrical energy
d. Works only when current flows in one direction.

173. It
can also be used to locate the source of a field, and to measure the
performance of radiofrequency shielding.
a. Oscilloscope
b. Logic analyzer
c. RF Meter *
d. Spectrum analyzer

174. Often used to characterize two-port networks such as amplifiers and filters, but they can be used
on networks with an arbitrary number of ports.
a. Vector Network analyzer *
b. Spectrum analyzer
c. Vectorscope
d. Sweep generator

Solid State Devices State Devices

175. A Zener diode has the specifications VZ = 5.2 V and PD max = 260 mW. Assume RZ = 0. Find the
maximum allowable current iZ when the Zener diode is acting as a regulator
a. iZ = 30mA
b. iZ = 45mA
 c. iZ = 50mA *
d. iZ = 60mA

176. A silicon sample at room temperature has an intrinsic carrier concentration of n i = 5×109 cm-3. It is
doped with ND = 6.1×1016 arsenic atoms/cm3 and NA = 6×1012 boron atoms/cm3. The electron
mobility is measured as µn = 1600 cm2/V·s and the hole mobility is µp = 480 cm2/V·s. What is the
hole concentration?
a. p =4.1x102 /cm3 *
b. p =6x1012 /cm3
c. p =6.1x1016 /cm3
d. p =2.5x1019 /cm3

177. In the circuit below, the Zener diode has a breakdown voltage V ZT = 8.0 V and a measurement
has shown that VZ = 8.6 V when IZ = 30 mA. What is the value of Vout when RL becomes infinitely
large?
a. Vout = 0 V
b. Vout = 8.2 V
c. Vout = 8.8 V *
d. Vout = 8.4 V

178. A p-channel MOSFET operating in the enhancement mode is characterized by VT = - 3V and

IDQ= -8 mA when VGSQ = -4.5 V. Find VGSQ if IDQ = -16 mA.
a. VGSQ =- 0.80 V
b. VGSQ = - 0.88 V *
c. VGSQ = - 0.94 V
d. VGSQ = - 0.78 V

179. In an N-channel JFET, the pinchoff occurs when the gate bias is:
a. Slight positive
b. Zero
c. Slight negative
d. Very negative *

180. In a source follower, which of the electrodes of FET receives the input signal?
a. None of them
b. The source
c. The gate *
d. The drain

181. The input impedance of a MOSFET:

a. Is lower than the JFET
b. Is lower than the bipolar transistor
c. Is between that of the bipolar transistor and a JFET
d. Is extremely high *

182. In a P-channel JFET:

 a. The drain of is forward-biased
b. The gate-source junction is forward biased
c. The drain is negative relative to the source *
d. The gate must be at the dc ground.

183. The gate of a JFET has:

a. Forward bias
b. High impedance *
c. Low reverse resistance
d. Low avalanche voltage

Electronic(Audio/RF) circuit/analysis/design

184. The ac load line differs from the dc load line because
a. The effective ac collector resistance is less than the dc collector resistance. *
b. The effective ac collector resistance is less than the ac collector resistance.
c. The effective dc collector resistance is less than the dc collector resistance.
d. The effective ac collector resistance is greater than the dc collector resistance.

185. It is a method of stabilizing the voltage gain.

a. Darlington pair
b. Swamping *
c. Differential mode
d. Common mode

186. Each stage of a four-stage amplifier has a voltage gain of 15. The overall voltage gain is
a. 15
b. 60
c. 3078
d. 50,625 *

187. If the dc emitter current in a certain transistor amplifier is 3 rnA, the approximate value of r’e is
a. 3 kΩ
b. 3 Ω
c. 8.33 Ω *
d. 0.33 kΩ

188. A class-A circuit would not work well as:

a. A stereo hi-fi amplifier
b. A television transmitter PA *
c. A low-level microphone preamplifier
d. The first stage in the radio receiver

189. An oscillator might fail to start for any of the following reasons except:
a. Low power supply voltage
b. Low stage gain
c. In-phase feedback *
 d. Very low output impedance

190. A CS amplifier has a load resistance of 10 kΩ and RD = 820 Ω. If gm = 5 mS and Vin = 500 mV,
the output signal voltage is
a. 1.89 V *
b. 2.05 V
c. 25 V
d. 0.5 V

Microelectronics

191. Drain current in the constant-current region increases when

a. the gate-to-source bias voltage decreases *
b. the gate-to-source bias voltage increases
c. the drain-to-source voltage increases
d. the drain-to-source voltage decreases

192. A MOSFET differs from a JFET mainly because

a. of the power rating
b. the MOSFET has two gates
c. the JFET has a pn junction *
d. MOSFETs do not have a physical channel

193. On combinational circuit design, which of the following NOT cascadeable circuit?
a. Pseudo-nMOS
b. Complementary Pass Transistor Logic
c. Static CMOS
d. Dynamic *

194. The major advantage of Silicon-on-Insulator are the following except:

a. Lower diffusion capacitance
b. Higher diffusion capacitance *
c. Lower dynamic power consumption
d. Nominals threshold voltage must be very high

Computer Principles

195. A logic circuit has an output 0 when the input is 1, and vice versa.
a. NOR gate
b. OR gate
c. NOT gate *
d. XOR gate
 196. The gigabyte is a unit commonly used to measure of
a. Data access time
b. Data transfer time
c. Data communication accuracy
d. Data storage capacity *

197. The state of SR latch when both signals are ‘1’.

a. No change
b. Reset
c. Set
d. Not allowed *

198. The state of clocked JK flip-flop when Q=0, J=1 and K = 1 is

a. high *
b. low
c. 0
d. No change

199. ____________ is called bistable multivibrator circuit

a. an NAND gate
b. an XOR gate
c. a flip-flop *
d. a clock

200. One or the other input can be true for the output to be false.
a. AND
b. NOR *
c. OR
d. XNOR

Industrial Electronics/principles/application

201. A 4-layer diode turns on when the anode-to-cathode voltage exceeds

a. the forward-breakover voltage *
b. the forward-blocking voltage
c. 0.7 V
d. the gate voltage

202. An SCR differs from the 4-layer diode because

 a. it is not a thyristor
b. it does not have four layers
c. it has a gate terminal *
d. it cannot be turned on and off

203. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the UJT?

a. intrinsic standoff ratio
b. bilateral conduction *
c. negative resistance
d. peak-point voltage

204. The specified value of holding current for an SCR means that
a. the device may be damaged if the anode current exceeds this value
b. the gate current must equal or exceed this value to turn the device on
c. the device will turn on when the anode current exceeds this value
d. the device will turn off when the anode current falls below this value *

205. The characteristic of UJT that determines it turn-on point.

a. Trigger current
b. Transfer gain
c. Standoff ratio *
d. DC current ratio
Which unit of charge contains 6.25 × 1018 electrons?

A. An ampere
B. A coulomb
C. A volt
D. A joule

A switch is a device that:

A. short circuits complex circuits

B. holds a fuse
C. has double poles
D. opens or completes a current path

The term used to designate electrical pressure is:

A. voltage
B. current
C. resistance
D. conductance

Which electronics material opposes the movement of free electrons?

A. Conductor
B. Insulator
C. Semiconductor
D. Element

Current is considered as the movement of:

A. electrons
B. protons
C. charge
D. nuclei

Which type of test equipment is used to measure resistors?

A. ohmmeter
B. ammeter
C. voltmeter
D. watt meter

Resistance is:
A. the opposition to current flow accompanied by the dissipation of heat
B. symbolized by R, measured in ohms, and directly proportional to conductance
C. directly proportional to current and voltage
D. represented by the flow of fluid in the fluid circuit

If resistance decreases, then current will:

A. decrease
B. increase
C. remain the same
D. double

A wire with a smaller cross-sectional area will produce:

A. less heat
B. more conductance
C. less resistance
D. more heat

The normal operation of JFET is

A. constant voltage region

B. constant current region
C. both constant voltage and constant current regions
D. either constant voltage or constant current region

In a class B push-pull amplifier, the transistors are biased slightly above cutoff to avoid

A. crossover distortion
B. unusually high efficiency
C. negative feedback
D. a low input impedance

The depletion-mode MOSFET

A. can operate with only ac

B. can operate with only dc
C. cannot operate in the ohmic region
D. can operate with ac as well as dc voltages

Three different points are shown on a dc load line. The upper point represents the

A. minimum current gain

B. quiescent point
C. saturation point
D. cutoff point

Which of the following conditions are needed to properly bias an npn transistor amplifier?

A. Forward bias the base/emitter junction and reverse bias the base/collector junction.
B. Forward bias the collector/base junction and reverse bias the emitter/base junction.
C. Apply a positive voltage on the n-type material and a negative voltage on the p-type material.
D. Apply a large voltage on the base.

The capacitor that produces an ac ground is called a(n)

A. coupling capacitor
B. dc open
C. bypass capacitor
D. ac open

The frequency of the output voltage of a full-wave rectifier is ________ the frequency of its input
voltage.

A. the same as
B. twice
C. one-half
D. one-third

A type of regulator circuit that is quite popular for its efficient transfer of power to the load is the
________.

A. current-limiting voltage regulator

B. switching regulator
C. foldback limiting regulator
D. op-amp series regulator

The output resulting from a rectifier is a(n) ________.

A. ac voltage
B. pure dc voltage
C. pulsating dc voltage
D. None of the above

In a full-wave rectifier, the dc voltage level is ________ the ripple voltage level.

A. smaller than
B. the same as
C. larger than
D. None of the above

The carriers of n channel JFET are

A. free electrons and holes

B. holes
C. free electrons or holes
D. free electrons

The depletion layer around p-n junction in JFET consists of

A. hole
B. electron
C. immobile charges
D. none of the above

When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually operate in the:

A. active region
B. breakdown region
C. saturation and cutoff regions
D. linear region

Three different Q points are shown on a dc load line. The upper Q point represents the:

A. minimum current gain

B. intermediate current gain
C. maximum current gain
D. cutoff point

A transistor has a βdc of 250 and a base current, IB, of 20 uA. The collector current, IC, equals:

A. 500 uA
B. 5 mA
C. 50 mA
D. 5A

A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called:

A. beta
B. theta
C. alpha
D. omega

With the positive probe on an NPN base, an ohmmeter reading between the other transistor terminals
should be:

A. open
B. infinite
C. low resistance
D. high resistance

In a C-E configuration, an emitter resistor is used for:

A. stabilization
B. ac signal bypass
C. collector bias
D. higher gain

Voltage-divider bias provides:

A. an unstable Q point
B. a stable Q point
C. a Q point that easily varies with changes in the transistor's current gain
D. a Q point that is stable and easily varies with changes in the transistor’s current gain

To operate properly, a transistor's base-emitter junction must be forward biased with reverse bias
applied to which junction?

A. collector-emitter
B. base-collector
C. base-emitter
D. collector-base

The ends of a load line drawn on a family of curves determine:

A. saturation and cutoff

B. the operating point
C. the power curve
D. the amplification factor

The C-B configuration is used to provide which type of gain?

A. voltage
B. current
C. resistance
D. power

The Q point on a load line may be used to determine:

A. VC
B. VCC
C. VB
D. IC

A transistor may be used as a switching device or as a:

A. fixed resistor
B. tuning device
C. rectifier
D. variable resistor

Which is beta's current ratio?

A. IC/IB
B. IC/IE
C. IB/IE
D. IE/IB

A collector characteristic curve is a graph showing:

A. emitter current (IE) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCE) with (VBB) base bias voltage held
constant
B. collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCE) with (VBB) base bias voltage held
constant
C. collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VC) with (VBB) base bias voltage held
constant
D. collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCC) with (VBB) base bias voltage held
constant

With low-power transistor packages, the base terminal is usually the:

A. tab end
B. middle
C. right end
D. stud mount

When a silicon diode is forward biased, what is VBE for a C-E configuration?

A. voltage-divider bias
B. 0.4 V
C. 0.7 V
D. emitter voltage

What is the current gain for a common-base configuration where IE = 4.2 mA and IC = 4.0 mA?

A. 16.80
B. 1.05
C. 0.20
D. 0.95

With a PNP circuit, the most positive voltage is probably:

A. ground
B. VC
C. VBE
D. VCC

The symbol hfe is the same as:

A.

B.

C. hi-fi

D.

Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor flow:

A. out of the base lead

B. into the collector
C. into the emitter
D. into the base supply

In a transistor, collector current is controlled by:

A. collector voltage
B. base current
C. collector resistance
D. all of the above

Total emitter current is:

A. IE – IC
B. IC + IE
C. IB + IC
D. IB – IC

Often a common-collector will be the last stage before the load; the main function(s) of this stage is to:

A. provide voltage gain

B. provide phase inversion
C. provide a high-frequency path to improve the frequency response
D. buffer the voltage amplifiers from the low-resistance load and provide impedance matching
for maximum power transfer

For a C-C configuration to operate properly, the collector-base junction should be reverse biased, while
forward bias should be applied to which junction?

A. collector-emitter
B. base-emitter
C. collector-base
D. cathode-anode

The input/output relationship of the common-collector and common-base amplifiers is:

A. 270 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 0 degrees

If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a decrease in the current gain will move the Q
point:

A. off the load line

B. nowhere
C. up
D. down

Which is the higher gain provided by a C-E configuration?

A. voltage
B. current
C. resistance
D. power

The input resistance of the base of an emitter-follower is usually _________.

A. very low
B. very high
C. shorted to ground
D. open

Base bias provides _________.

A. a very stable Q point

B. a very unstable Q point
C. no current gain
D. zero current in the base and collector circuits

VCE approximately equals ________ when a transistor switch is cut off.

A. VCC
B. VB
C. 0.2 V
D. 0.7 V

What are often called square law devices?

A. Transistors
B. Diodes
C. SCRs
D. JFETs

When a JFET is cut-off, the depletion layers are

A. Touching
B. Separated
C. Very far apart
D. Close together

The voltage that turns on an enhancement-mode device is the

A. Gate-source cut-off voltage
B. Pinch off voltage
C. Threshold voltage
D. Knee voltage

Depletion-mode MOSFET acts mostly as

A. A JFET
B. A voltage source
C. A resistor
D. Enhancement-mode MOSFET
What is the most important factor of a power transistor?
A. Output resistance
B. Heat dissipation
C. Input voltage
D. Output parameter

When the electron transmit time through the base region is very short, this
A. Creates a higher potential barrier
B. Makes the transistor unable to amplify its signal
C. Provides higher cut-off frequency
D. Provides a zener effect

When the transistors are used in video amplifiers, its main limitation is
A. Low peak voltage
B. Poor frequency response
C. Low peak current
D. Poor filtering of signals

Which of the items below describes an RF amplifier which will amplify a weak signal voltage in relatively
the same proportion as it will amplify a stronger signal voltage?
A. Class A amplifier
B. Linear amplifier
C. Non-linear amplifier
D. Inverting amplifier

Its maximum amount of reverse voltage which can be applied on a diode before breakdown point is
reached.
A. Zener voltage
B. Peak inverse voltage
C. Breakdown voltage
D. Threshold voltage

The purpose of adding an impurity atom to an intrinsic crystal is

A. To alter its insulating property
B. To increase its electric conductivity
C. To stop conduction
D. To increase the resistivity of the semiconductor material

A is a group of cells that generates electric energy from their internal chemical reaction
A. battery
B. regulator
C. power supply
D. solar energy
Volt is a unit of
A. electromotive force
B. energy
C. force
D. magneto motive force

What is the nominal output of an automotive battery having six lead acid cells in series?
A. 12V
B. 24V
C. 6V
D. 3V

Which voltage source converts chemical energy to electrical energy?

A. Electrical generator
B. Battery
C. Solar cell
D. Electronic power supply

How many valence shell electrons are there in semiconductor atoms?

A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 2

A lead-acid battery is an example of a

A. solar cell
B. fuel cell
C. primary battery
D. secondary battery

A basic electric circuit is made up of what components?

A. A load, a resistor, and a conductive path for current

B. A voltage source, a load, and a conductive path for current
C. A voltage source, a conductive path for current, and a battery
D. A conductive path for current, a battery, and a copper wire

An ammeter is used to measure

A. voltage
B. current
C. resistance
D. All of the above

What do you call a diagram that shows the electrical connections of a circuit's components?

A. A schematic diagram
B. A pictorial diagram
C. A block diagram
D. An electrical diagram

A short circuit will have:

A. a small current flow

B. a large current flow
C. no current flow
D. some current flow

The basic difference between a fuse and a circuit breaker is

A. a fuse is slower
B. a fuse is reusable
C. a circuit breaker is reusable
D. a circuit breaker is more reliable

A secondary cell generates dc via chemical activity; a primary cell generates dc:

A. electrically
B. thermally
C. optically
D. chemically

If an electrical system is compared to a fluid system, the electrical current corresponds to the:

A. pressure
B. pump
C. water wheel
D. water flow

The capacity of a battery cell is measured by the amount of __________ that can be supplied over time.

A. current
B. voltage
C. coulombs
D. joules
A rheostat is ___.

A. a three-terminal device that controls current

B. a two-terminal device that controls current
C. a two-terminal device that divides voltage
D. a three-terminal device that divides voltage

The open circuit test on a transformer gives

A. copper losses
B. iron losses
C. friction losses
D. total losses

The greatest percentage of power loss in a dc motor is due to

A. wind age loss
B. core loss
C. copper loss
D. friction loss

In a practical transformer, copper losses account for how many percent of the total losses?
A. 75%
B. 25%
C. 85%
D. 95%

By laminating the core of a transformer, decreases

A. leakage reactance
B. eddy current loss
C. hysteresis loss
D. copper loss

Which of the following amplifier is considered linear?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Either A or B

The voltage gain of a common collector configuration is

A. Unity
B. Zero
C. Very high
D. Moderate

A two-transistor class B power amplifier is commonly called

A. Push-pull amplifier
B. Dual amplifier
C. Symmetrical amplifier
D. Differential amplifier

If a transistor is operated in such a way that output current flows for 160 degrees of the input signal,
then it is operation.
A. Class A
B. Class C
C. Class B
D. Class AB

Which coupling has the best frequency response?

A. Direct
B. RC
C. Transformer
D. Transistor

A transistor amplifier has high output impedance because

A. Emitter is heavily doped
B. Collector is wider than emitter or base
C. Collector has reverse bias
D. Emitter has forward bias

Which of the following is considered an amplifier figure of merit?

A. Gain-bandwidth product
B. Beta(􀳦)
C. Alpha(a)
D. Temperature

What type of coupling is generally used in power amplifiers?

A. Transformer
B. Direct
C. RC
D. Inductive

Which amplifier whose output current flows for the entire cycle?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class AB

The coupling capacitor Cc must be large enough to in an RC coupling scheme.

A. Pass dc between the stages
B. Dissipate high power
C. Prevent attenuation of low frequency
D. Prevent attenuation of high frequency

What is the point of intersection of dc and ac load lines called?

A. Operating point
B. Cut off point
C. Saturation point
D. Breakdown

What is the operating point in the characteristic curve called?

A. Quiescent point
B. Load point
C. Biasing point
D. Saturation point

Oscillators operate on the principle of

A. Positive feedback
B. Negative feedback
C. Signal feedthrough
D. Attenuation

In a class A amplifier, the output signal is

A. Distorted
B. The same as the input
C. Clipped
D. Smaller in amplitude than the input

Which power amplifier has the highest collector efficiency?

A. Class A
B. Class C
C. Class B
D. Class AB

What is a non-linear type of amplifier?

A. Class C
B. Class AB
C. Class B
D. Class A

What represents common-emitter small signal input resistance?

A. hie
B. hfe
C. hib
D. hoe

Class C is an amplifier whose output current flows for

A. Less than one-half the entire input cycle
B. The entire input cycle
C. Twice the entire input cycle
D. Greater than one-half the entire input cycle

If gain without feedback and feedback factor are A and 􀳦 respectively, then gain with negative feedback
is given by
A. Al l-A 􀳦
B. A/ 1+ A 􀳦
C. l+A 􀳦 l A
D. (l+A 􀳦) A

For a parallel AC circuit, is used as a reference phasor.

A. Voltage
B. Power
C. Current
D. Resistance

For a series AC circuit, is not used as a reference phasor.

A. Voltage
B. Impedance
C. Current
D. Conductance

Which of the following materials has the lowest dielectric strength?

A. Glass
B. Paper
C. Mica
D. Teflon

______ is the region in a transistor that is heavily doped

A. Collector
B. Ground
C. Base
D. Emitter

Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion
A. Class A
B. Class AB
C. Class C
D. Class B
The capacitor that produces an ac ground is called a
a. Bypass capacitor
b. Coupling capacitor
c. Dc open
d. Ac open

A coupling capacitor is
a. A dc short
b. An ac open
c. A dc open and an ac short
d. A dc short and an ac open

What is the reciprocal of quality factor?

A. Power factor
B. Reactive factor
C. Dissipation factor
D. 1/Q factor

In a household circuit, the 234V power has

a. one phase
b. two phase
c. three phase
d. four phase

High voltage is used in long-distance power transmission because:

A. It is easier to regulate than low voltage.
B. The I2R losses are lower.
C. The electromagnetic fields are stronger.
D. Smaller transformers can be used.

A transformer has a secondary-to-primary turns ratio of 0.167. This

transformer is:
A. A step-up unit.
B. A step-down unit.
C. Neither step-up nor step-down.
D. A reversible unit.

An advantage of a toroid core over a solenoid core is:

A. The toroid works at higher frequencies.
B. The toroid confines the magnetic flux.
C. The toroid can work for dc as well as for ac.
D. It’s easier to wind the turns on a toroid.

In a transformer, a center tap would probably be found in:

A. The primary winding.
B. The secondary winding.
C. The unbalanced winding.
D. The balanced winding.
An autotransformer:
A. Works automatically.
B. Has a center-tapped secondary.
C. Has one tapped winding.
D. Is useful only for impedance matching

Which of these core types, in general, is best if you need a winding inductance
of 1.5 H?
A. Air core.
B. Ferromagnetic solenoid core.
C. Ferromagnetic toroid core.
D. Ferromagnetic pot core.

Two waves are 180 degrees out of phase. This is a difference of:
A. 1/8 cycle.
B. 1/4 cycle.
C. 1/2 cycle.
D. A full cycle.
E. Two full cycles.

The input signal to a transistor amplifier results in saturation during part of the
cycle. This produces:
A. The greatest possible amplification.
B. Reduced efficiency.
C. Avalanche effect.
D. Nonlinear output impedance

A resistor between the base of an NPN bipolar transistor and the positive supply voltage is used to:
A. Provide proper bias.
B. Provide a path for the input signal.
C. Provide a path for the output signal.
D. Limit the collector current.

The frequency at which a crystal oscillator functions is determined mainly by:

A. The values of the inductor and capacitor.
B. The thickness of the crystal.
C. The amount of capacitance across the crystal.
D. The power-supply voltage.

Where do we used bypass capacitor

– feedback

Drain current is maximum

– pinch off

When a transformer is subjected to high frequency

– high core loss

Diode used in microwave transmitters

– IMPATT diode

Power output divided by driven power

– maximum power efficiency

Push pull amplifier

– class B

Characteristic of FET
– negative source

Time domain frequency display

– oscilloscope

Used in oscillators
– varactor

360°
– Class A

180° / a transistor class amplifier that has the efficiency of 50%

– Class B

Efficiency of Class C transistorized

– 33%

Amplifier configuration with one at positive alternation and another at negative, looking a lot like
complementary configuration
– Quasi Complementary push-pull configuration

Has the highest efficiency

– Common emitter, common source

Combination of N and P type technology

– CMOS
Most stable for RF
– common base

Two transistor directly coupled as common collector

– Darlington

Ratio of differential gain and common mode gain

– CMRR

Maximum rate at which w/c amp output can change

– Slew rate

Minimized through the use of small feedback resistance

– input bias current

Significant if OP AMP is used as comparator

– Open loop gain

Electrode is nickel hydroxide and cadmium

– Edison cell

Step up transformer:
– primary voltage is less than secondary voltage

In class A amplifier, the Q point is set at:

– the center

Disadvantage of voltage multiplier

– poor regulation

A mathematical process of determining the area under a curve

– integration

The transfer curve of Shockley’s equation is not for:

– enhancement-type MOSFET

Disk ceramic capacitor have a value of:

– 100 pf

Paper capacitor might have a value of:

– 0.01 uf
Power diodes mostly used:
– silicon

A transformer which has a secondary-to-primary turns ratio of 0.167

– step down unit

Class A maximum efficiency

– 50%

Reference component of improved shunt regulator

– Zener diode
 CORRELATION_EST_2016_3_retake
93. What oscillator frequency is needed to heterodyne 626 kHz up to 3.58 MHz?

A. 2.954 MHz
B. 4.832 MHz
C. 4.210 MHz
D. 2.328 MHz

44. You are at a party and talking with a group of people. They all produce sound
levels of the same magnitudes at your position. The combined level when all four talks
at once is 70dB. What is the sound level from one person?

A. 16dB
B. 32dB
C. 64dB
D. 128dB

7. To make antenna more directional, either its size must be increased or

A. the number of its feed horns must be increased

B. the frequency of its transmission must be increased
C. its effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP)
D. its footprint must be increased

39. It suffers a known plaintext attack; recovering the pseudorandom string by XORing
the plaintext and ciphertext of challenge, which can be eavesdropped from the air

A. Deciphering
B. Key management
C. Mutual authentication
D. Shared-key authentication

31. Which of the following is correct?

A. The baud rate may be greater than the bit rate

B. The bit and baud rate are always the same
C. The bit and baud rates are not related
D.The bit rate may be greater than the baud rate
3. A certain sound has 10000 times more energy than another sound. The number of
times it would sound stronger to a listener is

A. 40
B. 10000
C. 400
D. 100

50. Camera signal output without sync is called

A. black burst
B. generator lock video
C. composite video
D. non-composite video

68. What is the purpose of peak clipper circuits in radio transmitters?

A. To reduce bandwidth
B. To increase bandwidth
C. To regulate oscillator I/P voltage
D. To prevent overmodulation

73. In AM broadcast, the transmitter must be capable of maintaining the operating

frequency within the limits of ______.

A. +/- 10 Hz
B. +/- 20 Hz
C. +/- 25 Hz
D. +/- 75 Hz

53. Sixteen different levels (symbols) are used to encode binary data. The channel
bandwidth is 36 MHz. The maximum channel capacity is

A. 18 Mbps
B. 72 Mbps
C. 2.176 Gbps
D. 288 Mbps
85. If e = 10 sin(108 t + 3 sin 104 t) then the modulation index is

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

23. It is an indirect method of evaluating the phase delay characteristics of the circuit

A. phase delay distortion

B. envelope delay distortion
C. non-linear distortion
D. linear distortion

43. If S represents the carrier synchronization at the receiver and r represents the
bandwidth efficiency, then the correct statement for the coherent binary PSK is

A. r = 0.5, S is not required

B. r = 1.0, S is not required
C. r = 0.5, S is required
D. r = 1.0, S is required

17. Which one is a linear system?

A. y[n] = x[n] x x[n - 1]

B. y[n] = x[n] + x[n - 10]
C. y[n] = x2[n]
D. (a) and (c)

75. The power of any conducted spurious emission shall be attenuated below the
maximum level of carrier frequency in accordance with the following formula:

A. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 20 log P

B. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + log P
C. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 10 log P
D. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + log P/10

94. The best insulation at UHF is

A. Black rubber
B. Bakelite
C. Paper
D. Mica
51. The main benefit of the HSCSD feature compared to other data enhancements
introduced is that it is

A. an inexpensive way to implement higher data rates

B. the maximum data rate is limited to 64 kbps
C. up to eight times the bit rate on the single-slot full-rate traffic channel
D. the maximum data rate in these early networks

33. The energy of the photon is

A. Directly proportional to its bandwidth

B. Directly proportional to the Planck’s constant
C. Directly proportional to Boltzmann’s constant
D. Inversely proportional to the Avogadro’s number.

62. Which technical specification group does not belong to 3GPP working
organizations?

A. TSG EFA Error Function Aspects

B. TSG T Terminals
C. TSG SA Service and System Aspects
D. TSG CN Core Network

13. The number of days when Earth's shadow falls on a geosynchronous satellite is

A. 88
B. 277
C. 5
D. 10

89. Thermal noise has a power spectral density which is quite uniform up to
frequencies in the order of

A. 100 Hz
B. 10^6 Hz
C. 10^9 Hz
D. 10^13 Hz
35. Commonly used electro-optic crystal for polarization modulation

A. Lithium Niobate
B. Tourmaline
C. Sodium Chlorate
D. Sphalerite

58. As per Shannon-Hartley theorem, a noise less Gaussian channel has

A. zero capacity
B. small capacity
C. large capacity
D. infinite capacity

97. How often will hand-offs occur when vehicle travels through a CMTS at 100 km per
hour speed if the distance between cellsites is 10 km?

A. 6 mins
B. 12 mins
C. 395 sec
D. 10 hrs

11. The backboard color for the house or riser cable.

A. White
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Yellow

84. Entropy gives

A. measure of uncertainty
B. rate of information
C. average information
D. probability of information
67. An audio signal (say from 50 Hz to 10000 Hz) is frequency translated by a carrier
having a frequency of 106 Hz. The values of initial (without frequency translation) and
final (after frequency translation) fractional change in frequency from one band edge
to the other are

A. 200 and 1.01

B. 200 and 10.01
C. 200 and 100.1
D. 200 and 200.1

8. In Digital Network Performance Requirements, a blocking probability of ___ is the

quality of service (QoS) objective. With judicious use of alternative routing, a blocking
probability of 0.005 might be expected.

A. B = 0.01
B. B = 0
C. B = 1
D. B = infinity

61. A mechanism used by hosts and gateways to send notification of datagram

problems back to the sender.

A. ICMP
B. IGMP
C. UDP
D. TCP/IP

A line slightly longer than length and short circuited at far end behaves as

A. an inductance
B. a capacitance
C. L and C in series
D. L and C in parallel

77. A radio station works at 800 kHz and uses AM. If this is a public broadcast system,
it should transmit using

A. parabolic reflector to transmit all round

B. turnstile antenna for the required land
C. half wave long horizontal wave
D. a vertical antenna less than quarter for practical reasons
76. Which of the following Ethernet fiber optic standards uses synchronous,
centralized clock?

A. 10Base-FL (Link)
B. 10Base-FP (Passive)
C. 10Base-FB (backbone)
D. All of the above

29. Modal dispersion is caused by the

A. Dependence of wavelength on index of refraction

B. Dependence of propagation constant on index of refraction
C. Dependence of the propagation constant on the wavelength
D. Dependence of the propagation constant on the mode number

83. A three-stage amplifier is to have an overall noise temperature no greater than 70

K. The overall gain of the amplifier is to be at least 45 dB. The amplifier is to be built
by adding a low-noise first stage with existing characteristics as follows: stage 2 has
20 dB power gain and 3 dB noise figure. Stage 3 has 15 dB power gain and 6 dB
noise figure. Calculate the maximum noise figure (in dB) that the first stage can have.

A. 0.267 dB
B. 0.56 dB
C. 1.235 dB
D. 0.985 dB

45. The HV anode supply for the picture tube of a TV receiver is generated in the

A. mains transformer
B. vertical output stage
C. horizontal output stage
D. horizontal deflection oscillator

78. Refers to the direction in space of electric vector of the electromagnetic wave
radiated from an antenna and is parallel of the antenna itself.

A. Propagation
B. Coordination
C. Azimuth
D. Polarization
90. A phase modulator has Kp= 2 rad/V. What RMS voltage of a sine wave would
cause a peak phase deviation of 30 degrees?

A. 0.158 V
B. 0.185 V
C. 0.518 V
D. 0.815 V

20. The analog signal m(t) is given below m(t) = 4 cos 100 pt + 8 sin 200 pt + cos 300
pt, the Nyquist sampling rate will be
1/1
A. 1/100
B. 1/200
C. 1/300
D. 1/600

27. Infrared range for fiber optics

A. 400 – 700 nm
B. 700 – 1200 nm
C. 300 – 2000 nm
D. 400 – 7000 nm

32. Determine the speed of sound in air at STP. (Used γ =1.4 for air; ρ =1.23 kg/m3; P
=1atm = 1.013 x 10^6 Pa)

A. 126m
B. 332m
C. 335m
D. 223m

57. Which of the following is a possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in a
self – excited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting poor frequency stability to hold a
constant frequency oscillation?

A. DC and RF AC heating of resistor which cause a change in values

B. Heating and expansion of oscillator coil
C. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
D. Power supply voltage changes
60. Which organization has authority over interstateand international commerce in the
communications field?

A. FCC
B. ISOC
C. ITU-T
D. IEEE

92. If the frequency fed to the pre-amplifier of a basic transmitter with multipliers is
composed of a pair of triplers and a doubler is 198 MHz, what frequency should the
oscillator operate?

A. 11 MHz
B. 33 MHz
C. 22 MHz
D. 66 MHz

64. If a TV sound transmitter has a carrier frequency of 197.75 MHz, the picture carrier
is

A. 191.75 MHz
B. 193.25 MHz
C. 202.25 MHz
D. 203.75 MHz

71. The maximum power output of a standard A earth station over the total band
allocated to satellite communication is about

A. 0.5 kW
B. 8 kW
C. 20 kW
D. 50 kW

34. The magnitude of a quantum in quantization of PCM codes.

A. Resolution
B. Coding level
C. Maximum decodable voltage
D. Dynamic range
55. It is the thermal noise power normalized to 1-Hz bandwidth

A. power density ratio

B. thermal noise
C. noise power density
D. ambient temperature noise

15. Calculate the earth bulge 2 miles away from a transmitter for a 25 miles terrestrial
microwave link
0/1
A. 3.61 ft
B. 61.34 ft
C. 30.67 ft
D. 68.66 ft

79. Determine the fourth Fresnel radius of a microwave link having a transmitter-
receiver distance of 50 km, operating at a frequency of 7 GHz. An obstruction is found
15 km from the transmitting station.

A. 21 meters
B. 42 meters
C. 63 meters
D. 84 meters

1. Which one of the following statements regarding compandor is FALSE?

A. It compresses the higher-amplitude parts of a signal before modulation and expands them
back to normal again after demodulation.
B. It gives preferential treatment to the weaker parts of the signal
C. For weaker signals it gives a poor ratio of signal strength to quantizing error
D. Weaker signals, traverse more quantum steps than they would do otherwise and so quantizing
error is reduced.

80. A sinusoidal carrier voltage, having frequency 1000 Hz is amplitude modulated by

a sinusoidal voltage of frequency 15 kHz. The frequency of upper and lower
sidebands will be

A. 1015 kHz and 985 kHz

B. 1030 kHz and 970 kHz
C. 13 kHz and 17 kHz
D. 14 kHz and 16 kHz
4. The most effective anti-jamming technique is

A. frequency hopping
B. spread-spectrum modulation
C. key leverage
D. once-only key

2. In a stop-and-wait ARQ system, the transmitting terminal

A. waits for positive or negative acknowledgement from the receiving terminal after sending a
block
B. sends another block if positive acknowledge is received through ACK character
C. resends the previous block if negative acknowledgement is received through a NAK character
D. does not wait for acknowledgement after sending a block

65. A wave is propagated in a parallel plane waveguide. The frequency is 6 GHz and
the plane separation is 3 cm. The cut-off wavelength for the dominant mode, the group
and phase velocities are

A. 5 cm, 166 Mm/sec,543 Mn/sec

B. 5 cm, 543 Mm/sec,166 Mn/sec
C. 6 cm, 166 Mm/sec,543 Mn/sec
D. 6 cm, 543 Mm/sec,166 Mn/sec

88. When Pc is the unmodulated carrier power and Pt is the total power in the
modulated wave, then the maximum power in AM wave is

A. Pt = 1.5 Pc
B. Pt = 2.5 Pc
C. Pt = √2
D. Pt = 2√2 Pc

95. A transmitter is required to deliver 100 W to an antenna through 5 m of coaxial

cable with a loss of 3 dB / 100 m. What must be the output power of the transmitter,
assuming the line is matched?
0/1
A. 136 W
B. 153 W
C. 151 W
D. 116.815 W
59. A candle power that is located 12 feet from a surface provides how many lux?

A. 15.32lux
B. 37.38 lux
C. 67.33lux
D. 74.75lux

10. With attenuation limit at 6 dB, what is the length of cable using gauge 26 with
attenuation of 1.61 dB per km.

A. 1.3 km
B. 4.7 km
C. 2.5 km
D. 3.7 km

37. It is the work-effort that is required to provide a given spectral efficiency at a given
grade of service.

A. Operational efficiency
B. Strategical efficiency
C. Light Efficiency
D. Spectral efficiency

26. Band loss is

0/1
A. A reduction in transmitter power caused by earth’s surface curvature
B. A reduction in strength of the signal caused by folded dipole bends
C. An attenuation increase caused by bends radiating from the side of the fiber
D. All of these

69. It is found that a ship to ship communication suffers from fading. This can be
avoided by using

A. space diversity
B. broad band antenna
C. directional antenna
D. frequency diversity
6. The period of the function cos π/4 (t-1)

A. (1/8)s
B. (1/4)s
C. 8s
D. 4s

70. The minimum depth for an underground entrance conduit under areas used for
vehicular traffic inside private property

A. 1 m
B. 150 mm
C. 300 mm
D. 600 mm

81. The antenna current of an AM transmitter is 8 A. When only the carrier is sent, but
it increases to 8.93 A. When the carrier is sinusoidally modulated. The percentage
modulation is nearly

A. 90%
B. 80%
C. 75%
D. 70%

48. A radome protecting a microwave transmitting antenna has a relative permittivity

of 4, and is designed as a half-wavelength relfectionless slab at operating frequency of
10 GHz. Determine its thickness.

A. 0.5 cm
B. 0.75 cm
C. 0.377 cm
D. 0.577 cm

25. A weighting technique that assumes a perfect receiver only, therefore its weighting
curve corresponds to the frequency response of the ear only.

A. relative noise weighting

B. above relative noise weighting
C. C-message noise weighting
D. psophometric noise weighting
41. The telephone receiver, as a converter of electrical energy to acoustic energy, has
a comparatively low efficiency, on the order of

A. 2% to 3%
B. 10% to 15%
C. 20 to 35%
D. 40 to 50%

21. The characters making up the message in a synchronous transmission are

collectively referred to as the data

A. set
B. sequence
C. collection
D. block

36. Which modulation methods are the most widely used in optical systems?

A. Phase and frequency modulations

B. Polarization modulation and phase modulation
C. Intensity modulation and phase modulation
D. Intensity modulation and polarization modulation

100. Refers to a spatial diversity where transmission or reception is performed

simultaneously at two or more base station sites and used to combat fast fading.

A. Macrodiversity
B. Microdiversity
C. Space diversity
D. Spatial diversity

30. A signal m(t) is multiplied by a sinusoidal waveform of frequency fc such that

v(t)=m(t) cos 2pfct. If Fourier transform of m(t) is M(f), Fourier transform of v(t) will be

A. 0.5 M(f + fc)

B. 0.5 M(f - fc)
C. 0.5 M(f + fc) + 0.5 M(f - fc)
D. 0.5 M(f - fc) + 0.5 M(f - fc)
47. Calculate the beamwidth in the E-plane of a pyramid horn antenna that has an
aperture of 60 mm in the E-plane, 80 mm in the H-plane and operating at 60 GHz.

A. 47.63°
B. 46.67°
C. 83.33°
D. 82.93°

82. In equally tampered musical scale, an octave is divided into

A. 12 intervals
B. 10 intervals
C. 7 intervals
D. 5 intervals

72. OC-1 (STS-1) line rate is

A. 51.84 Mbps
B. 1.544 Mbps
C. 3 Mbps
D. 2.048 Mbps

28. The following are the cause of light attenuation in fiber optics except

A. Backscattering
B. Absorption
C. Refraction
D. Microbends

96. IS-95 system uses direct sequence spread spectrum with a chipping rate of

A. 1.23 MHz
B. 200 kHz
C. 500 MHz
D. 10.7 MHz

74. Duration of vertical blanking

A. 10.2 µs
B. 2.5 us
C. 63.5 us
D. 1333us
56. How do you eliminate radio frequency variation of an oscillator transmitter caused
by its supply voltage?

A. use of a regulated power supply

B. use of a new power supply
C. use of high capacitor in the supply circuit
D. loosen power supply shielding

87. In measuring noise in a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -
70 dBm (F1A weighted), convert the reading into pWp.

A. 53
B. 93
C. 63
D. 83

63. It is the light flux intercepted by a one-foot-square surface that is one-foot from a
one-candlepower source.

A. candela
B. footcandle
C. lux
D. lumens

19. A 9600-baud rate signal can pass over the voice grade telephone line if which kind
of modulation is used?

A. QAM
B. QPSK
C. DPSK
D. BPSK

40. How can we represent the number 21 in one’s complement arithmetic using only
four bits?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
46. Find the Doppler shift caused by a vehicle moving toward a radar at 60 mph, if the
radar operates at 10 GHz.

A. 1.75KHz
B. 3.5KHz
C. 7KHz
D. 0.875KHz

12. An ambulance travels down a highway at a speed of 75.0 mi/h with its siren
transmitting a sound with a frequency of 400 Hz. What frequency is heard by a
passenger in a car traveling at 55 mi/h in the opposite direction as it approaches the
ambulance?

A. 339Hz
B. 345Hz
C. 443Hz
D. 475Hz

49. If the RMS sound pressure is 5lb/ft2, what is the sound pressure level?

A. 3.79dB
B. 7.58dB
C. 11.37dB
D. 15.16dB

91. What are the three major oscillator circuits often used in radio equipment?

A. Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback

B. Colpitts, Hartley, and Taft
C. Taft, Hartley, and Pierce
D. Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce

52. To eliminate ghosts in the picture

A. use a longer transmission line

B. connect a booster
C. twist the transmission line
D. change the antenna orientation of location
99. A scheme in which the transmitter alternately uses the two antennas to transmit
bursts or to decorrelate the fading profile of each alternate burst.

A. Frequency hopping
B. Frame hopping
C. Antenna hopping
D. Time Hopping

42. A flute with all of the holes closed can be considered as a tube with both ends
open. It has a fundamental frequency of 261.6 Hz (which is middle C). Calculate the
3rd decades of this fundamental generated.

A. 2.1Hz
B. 261.6Hz
C. 784.8Hz
D. 1046.4Hz

16. Function of data link protocol that coordinates hop-to-hop data delivery where a
hop maybe a computer, a network controller or a network-connecting device such as
router.

A. Flow control
B. Error control
C. Line discipline
D. Selection

86. The noise performance of a square law demodulator of AM signal is

A. better than that of an envelope detector

B. better than that of a synchronous detector
C. identical with that of a synchronous detector
D. poorer than that of an envelope detector

98. Are intended to carry either encoded speech or user data.

A. Multiplexed channel
B. Traffic channels
C. Allocation channel
D. Control channel
66. Fourier analysis indicate that a square wave can be represented as

A. a fundamental sine wave and even harmonics

B. a fundamental sine wave and harmonics
C. fundamental and subharmonic sine waves
D. a fundamental sine wave and odd harmonics

54. It is required to match a 73-ohm antenna to a 600 ohm polyethylene coaxial feeder
line, with a velocity factor of 0.66 by means of a quarter wave matching a transformer.
At a frequency of 150MHz, the impedance of the matching section is____ ohms.

A. 150.28
B. 209.28
C. 310.5
D. 450.82

24. It is a distortion formed if SSB is used where the information bandwidth is greater
than half of the carrier frequency.

A. near-far effect
B. hauffman effect
C. kendall effect
D. herringbone effect

38. It provides MAC enhancements to support LAN applications with QoS

requirements

A. IEEE 802.11e
B. IEEE 802.16
C. IEEE 802.16.2
D. IEEE 802.12a/b

18. A form of switching which is stored and forward

A. Message switching
B. Packet switching
C. Circuit switching
D. Digital switching
9. How much time in seconds is saved if we use Touch Tone Dialing instead of Pulse
Dialing to call telephone number 781-10-05?

A. 3.55
B. 7.15
C. 7.75
D. 7.55
CORRELATION_EST_2017_2
68. The minimum depth for an underground entrance conduitunder areas used for
vehicular traffic inside private property

600 mm
1m
50 mm
300 mm

56. Sixteen different levels (symbols) are used to encode binarydat The channel
bandwidth is 36 MHz. The maximumchannel capacity is

18 Mbps
2.176 Gbps
288 Mbps
72 Mbps

33. In Laplace transform, multiplication by e-at in time domain becomes

multiplication by e-as in s domain

none of the above
translation by (-a) in s domain
translation by a in s domain

67. A form of CDMA where a digital code is used to continuallychange the frequency
of the carrier.

Spread Spectrum
Hybrid DS/FH
Direct Sequence (DS)
Frequency Hopping (FH)
41. You are at a party and talking with a group of people. They all produce sound
levels of the same magnitudes at your position. The sound level from one person is 64
dB What is the combined level when all four talks at once?

32dB
140dB
70dB
256dB

7. A PM modulator has a phase deviation sensitivity of 2.5 rad/Vand modulating

signal . Calculate thepeak phase deviation.

12.5 rad
5 rad
7.5 rad
2.5 rad

23. Calculate the maximum and minimum hopping rate for theBluetooth system.

1600 Hz
4800 Hz
1200 Hz
3200 Hz

61. Which of the following does not cause losses in optical fibrecables?

Attenuation in glass
Stepped index operation
Microbending
Impurities

40. It is a multiplexing system similar to conventional time-division multiplexing except

that it was developed to be used with optical fibers

SONET
X.25
Frame relay
ATM
45. The North American digital cellular standard for personalcommunication service
operating in the 1990 MHz bandsimilar to European GSM.

CDMA
GSM
DECT
TDMA

93. Which one is a linear system?

y[n] = x2[n]
y[n] = x[n] + x[n - 10]
(a) and (c)
y[n] = x[n] x x[n - 1]

16. In a klystron, a cavity that removes some of the energy fromthe electron beam and
transfers it in the form of microwaveenergy to the output.

Cavity
Circulator
Buncher
catcher

86. If the frequency fed to the pre-amplifier of a basic transmitterwith multipliers is

composed of a pair of triplers and adoubler is 198 MHz, what frequency should the
oscillatoroperate?

66 MHz
22 MHz
33 MHz
11 MHz

75. OC-1 (STS-1) line rate is75. OC-1 (STS-1) line rate is

3 Mbps
2.048 Mbps
51.84 Mbps
1.544 Mbps
36. Which of the following is correct?

The bit and baud rates are not related

The bit and baud rate are always the same
The baud rate may be greater than the bit rate
The bit rate may be greater than the baud rate

91. An ambulance travels down a highway at a speed of 75.0 mi/h with its siren
emitting a sound with a frequency of 400Hz. What frequency is heard by a passenger
in a car traveling at 55 mi/h in the opposite direction as it approaches the ambulance?

475 Hz
525Hz
339Hz
443Hz

84. If eFM(t) = 10 sin(108 t + 3 sin 104 t) then the modulation index is

104
10
3
108

76. Calculate the blocking probability for 5-channel cell with anoffered traffic of 1.66
erlangs.

2%
5%
7%
3%

9. Calculate the approximate break frequency for FM broadcastband pre-emphasis

circuit. (FCC standards)

4.24 KHz
1.06 KHz
0.53 KHz
2.12 KHz
46. The data rate for IEEE 802.11b is _____.

1.544 Mbps
11 Mbps
10 Mbps
2.048 Mbps

53. For North American DTMF Code, the digit “2” has ___Multifrequency Push-Button
Tone

697 Hz,1336 Hz
852 Hz,1209 Hz
524 Hz,1776 Hz
852 Hz,1477 Hz

72. When the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulationindex is halved, and the
modulating voltage remainsconstant. The modulation system is

AM
PM
FM
QAM

65. A Fade Margin of 28 dB has a reliability of

99.999%
99.9%
99.99%
99%

30. Calculate the beam width of a helical antenna if the optimumdiameter is 80 mm,
pitch of 6.25 mm, width eight turns andwill operate at 1.2 GHz.

36.6 degrees
73.2 degrees
18.3 degrees
18.9 degrees
43. What fade margin is required for a microwave LOS link with atime availability
requirements of 99.997%?

27.14 dB
62.11 dB
45.77 dB
56.82 dB

28. The analog signal m(t) is given below m(t) = 4 cos 100πt + 8sin 200 πt + cos 300
πt, the Nyquist sampling rate will be

1/200
1/600
1/300
1/100

97. Multi-channel capacity which is 45 Mbps according to U.S.standards and 34 Mbps

according to European/Internationalstandards.

Narrowband
Wideband
Midband
Broadband

8. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free running frequencyof 10 MHz. As the
frequency of the reference input isgradually raised from zero, the loop locks at 8 MHz
andcomes out of lock again at 14Mhz. Determine the lock range.

22MHz
8MHz
6MHz
24MHz

26. In a photodetector, the current that flows in the absence oflight.

Transient current
Skin effect current
Dark current
Piezoelectric current
29. Calculate the earth bulge 22 mi away from a transmitter for a 25 mi terrestrial
microwave link.

44 ft.
57 m
83 m
22 ft.

85. Invented AM and successfully transmits a few words usingspark gap transmitter.

Reginald Aubrey Fessenden

Heinrich Hertz
Major Edwin Armstrong
Gugliemo Marconi

24. A single-mode fiber has a numerical aperture of 0.15. What isthe maximum core
diameter it could have for use withinfrared light with a wavelength of 820 nm?

3.4 µm
1.8 µm
2.1 µm
2.7 µm

5. A DSB – SC system must suppress the carrier by 50 dB from its original value of 10
W. To what value must the carrier be reduced?

200 µW
100 µW
50 µW
150 µW

25. Find the energy, in electron-volts, in one photon at awavelength of 1 µm.

0.62 eV
1.24 eV
2.48 eV
3.72 eV
73. Used to distinguish co-channel frequency used in theneighboring cell.

MSISDN
TMSI
BSIC
LAI

100. It means I have no further traffic

Out
Break
Copy
Clear

20. The direction straight up from the horizontal plane.

Apogee
Zenith
Perigee
Nadir

57. It protects networks operators from different types of fraudfound in today’s cellular
world

EIR
AuC
VLR
HLR

34. Determine the surface refractivity for a potential microwavesite 250 m above sea
level with a sea level refractivity of312.

312.67
208.93
472.17
303.86
50. High frequency waves are

Affected by the solar cycle

Capable of use for long-distance communications on the moon
Absorbed by the F2 layer
Reflected by the D layer

69. The antenna current of an AM broadcast transmitter,modulated to a depth of 40%

by an audio sine wave, is 11 Itincreases to 12A as a result of simultaneous modulation
byanother audio sine wave. What is the modulation index due tothe 2nd wave?

0.757
0.643
0.512
0.828

11. Calculate the toatal harmonic distortion if the % 2nd order and%3rd order are
2.5% and 1.25% respectively andfundamental amplitude of 8V.

2.795%
5.59%
1.86%
7.45%

87. A transmitter is required to deliver 100 W to an antennathrough 5 m of coaxial

cable with a loss of 3 dB / 100 m.What must be the output power of the transmitter,
assumingthe line is matched?

136 W
151 W
116.815 W
153 W

37. Solve for the total height extended in feet for an obstaclesituated 27 mi away from
a 35 mi microwave systemassuming if the tree growth exists, add 40 ft for the trees
and10 ft for additional growth (use 6 GHz and 0.6F1).

202 ft
101 ft
314 ft
110 ft
89. IS-95 system uses direct sequence spread spectrum with achipping rate of

1.23 MHz
200 kHz
10.7 MHz
500 MHz

47. The main benefit of the HSCSD feature compared to otherdata enhancements
introduced is that it is

the maximum data rate is limited to 64 kbps

up to eight times the bit rate on the single-slot full-rate traffic channel
the maximum data rate in these early networks
an inexpensive way to implement higher data rates

71. To provide two or more voice circuits with the same carrier, itis necessary to use

SSB with pilot carrier

Lincompex
Carrier reinsertion
ISB

14. A parallel tuned circuit at the input of a radio receiver is tuned to resonate at 125
MHz by a capacitance 23.5 pF. The Qfactor of the circuit is 40 and with a channel
bandwidth of thereceiver limited to 10 kHz by the audio sections. Determinethe
effective noise voltage of this radio receiver tuned circuit.

0.589µV
0.467µV
0.674µV
0.367µV

3. Calculate the modulating voltage of an audio signal necessaryto provide 100%

modulation of a 100-V carrier that issimultaneously modulated by 2 audio waves with
m1 and m2equal to 75% and 45% respectively.

51.5 V
24.25 V
26.25 V
48.5 V
64. A coherent binary phase shift keyed BPSK transmitteroperates at a bit rate of 20
Mbps with a carrier-to-noise ratioC/N of 8.8 d Find the Eb /No.

7.6 dB
9.2 dB
8.8 dB
8.2 dB

55. To eliminate ghosts in the picture

use a longer transmission line

change the antenna orientation of location
connect a booster
twist the transmission line

80. In a TV receiver antenna the length of reflector rod

is less than that of dipole

is more than that of dipole
is the same as that of dipole
may be equal, more or less than that of dipole

98. With attenuation limit at 6 dB, what is the length of cable usinggauge 26 with
attenuation of 1.61 dB per km.
0/1
4.7 km
3.7 km
2.5 km
1.3 km

10. Probably the most significant advantage of angle modulationover AM is noise

immunity.

Noise Immunity
Capture Effect
Noise Performance
Power Utilization & Efficiency
38. Determine the speed of sound in air at STP.(Used γ =1.4 for air; ρ =1.23 kg/m3; P
=1atm = 1.013 x 106 Pa)

223m
335m
126m
332m

4. Calculate the power in one sideband of an AM signal whose carrier power is 50

watts. The unmodulated current is 2 Awhile the modulated current is 2.4

15.5 W
5.5 W
22 W
11 W

19. In a monopole antenna, a wire extending along the surface ofthe ground or just
below it, away from the antenna

Helix
Radical
Radial
Earth Mat

31. Calculate the effective height of a 100 ft obstruction situated10 mi from the
receiving end of a 25 mi radio link for k=4/3.

350 ft
175 ft
600 ft
300 ft

79. Entry of a designated frequency channel in the agreed plan,adopted by the ITU,
for use by one or more nations for aterrestrial or space radio communication services
in one ormore identified countries or geographic areas and underspecified conditions.

Assignment
Allocation
Allotment
Admission
94. A LEO communications satellite is orbiting the earth at 27, 000kph (7, 500 m/s).
Calculate the frequency received by amobile station antenna due to Doppler shift 450
km below ifthe satellite is operating at 1.28 GHz.

1.276563GHz
1.283224GHz
1.279968GHz
1.283452GHz

18. Abrupt variations in the timing of a digital signal.

Phase hits
Jitter
Drop outs
Wanders

99. Calculate the beamwidth in the E-plane of a pyramid hornantenna that has an
aperture of 60 mm in the E-plane, 80mm in the H-plane and operating at 60 GHz

83.33°
46.67°
47.63°
82.93°

42. It is required to match a 200Ω load to a 300Ω transmissionline, to reduce the SWR
along the line to 1. What must bethe characteristic impedance of the quarter wave
transformerused for this purpose, if it is connected directly to the load?

325Ω
245Ω
100Ω
500Ω

82. An American, demonstrated telecommand by sending anelectronic current over

one mile of wire to activate anelectromagnet which caused a bell to strike, thus
wiretelegraphy was born.

Samuel F. Morse
Michael Faraday
Hans Christian Oersted
Joseph Henry
27. The relationship between output current and input light powerfor a photodetector.

Threshold
Sensitivity
Responsivity
Transfer Response

21. A memory location that stores the telephone Number(s) to beused on the system.

System Identification Number (SID)

Number Assignment Module (NAM)
Mobile Switching Center (MSC)
Mobile Switching Telephone Office (MTSO)

54. How often will hand-offs occur when vehicle travels through aCMTS at 100 kph
speed if the distance between cellsites is10 kms?

180s
1000s
360s
720s

78. Duration of vertical blanking

1333us
63.5 us
10.2 µs
2.5 us

13. An amplifier operating over 5 MHz bandwidth has a 100 ohmsinput resistance. It is
operating at 27degrees Celsius, has avoltage gain of 200 and an input signal of
6µVrms. Calculatethe output rms noise.

2.16 µV
2.88 µV
8.64 µV
5.76 µV

17. A metal object threaded into a waveguide to add capacitanceor inductance.

0/1
Slow-wave structure
Stripline
Tuning screw
Magnetron
6. A phase modulator has kp = 2 rad/V. What RMS voltage of asine wave would cause
a peak phase deviation of 30degrees?

0.2775 V
0.37 V
0.185V
0.0925 V

58. It is required to match a 73-ohm antenna to a 600 ohmpolyethylene coaxial feeder

line, with a velocity factor of 0.66by means of a quarter wave matching a transformer.
At afrequency of 150MHz, the impedance of the matchingsection is____ ohms.

150.28
209.28
450.82
310.5

74. The maximum power output of a standard A earth station overthe total band
allocated to satellite communication is about

50 kW
20 kW
0.5 kW
8 kW

44. A directional coupler is

A device used to measure transmission line power

A coupling device for matching impedance
An SWR measuring instrument
A device used to connect a transmitter to a directional antenna

63. For a satellite communication channel, the uplink C/No ratio is 80 dB/Hz. And the
downlink value is 90 dB/Hz. Calculate the overall C/No ratio in dB/Hz

73.267 dB/Hz
79.586 dB/Hz
63.873 dB/Hz
83.265 dB/Hz
60. Used for responding to the paging, location updating or tomake call access by
asking for a signaling channel.

PCH
BCC
FCCH
RACH

92. It provides MAC enhancements to support LAN applicationswith QoS requirements

IEEE 802.11e
IEEE 802.16
IEEE 802.16.2
IEEE 802.12a/b

1. Consists of a structure made of wire erected at short distance above the ground
and insulated from the ground

Guy
Counterpoise
Top loading
Earth Mat

35. What type of mastergroup that can be further multiplexed andused for higher-
capacity microwave radio systems?

L600
U600
A600
L400

95. What is the actual length in feet of one half wavelengths of acoax with velocity of a
0.63 at 28 MHz.

22.14 ft
3.08 ft
5.535 ft
11.07 ft
52. It is a function of the carrier-to-noise power ratio and thenumber of possible
encoding conditions used

error detection
bit error rate
probability of error
error control

62. It is the thermal noise power normalized to 1-Hz bandwidth

noise power density

thermal noise
ambient temperature noise
power density ratio

15. A pulsed magnetron operates with an average power of 1.2kW and a peak power
of 18.6 kW. One pulse is generatedevery 10 ms. Find the duty cycle and the length of
a pulse.

22.32 ms
120 ms
0.65 ms
1.86 ms

32. The characters making up the message in a synchronoustransmission are

collectively referred to as the data

collection
Set
Block
Sequence

48. A province in the Philippines has an area of 2000 sq. kms. Ithas to be covered by
cellular mobile telephone service usingcells with radius of 2 kms. Assuming hexagonal
cells, findthe number of cellsites needed

138 cells
153 cells
135 cells
145 cells
39. Calculate the 5th Fresnel zone radius to clear a 35 mi radiolink operating at 12
GHz if the 1st Fresnel zone radius is61.57 ft.

98.62 ft.
157.76 ft
137.67 ft
163.62 ft

96. How much time in seconds is saved if we use Touch ToneDialing instead of Pulse
Dialing to call telephone number781-10-05?

7.55
3.55
7.15
7.75

49. A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by theatmosphere than the
others is called

Gyro frequency range

Critical frequency
Window
Resonance in the atmosphere

12. Produce popping sound if amplified in an audio system, hencethe name popcorn
noise or 1/f2.

Burst noise
Shot noise
Partition noise
Flicker noise

88. Noise that is the opposite of pink noise in that doubles theamount of energy each
time you go up 1 octave.

Purple Noise
Blue Noise
Orange Noise
Brown Noise
2. An AM signal has the following characteristics: carrier frequency = 150 MHz ;
Modulating frequency = 3 MHz; peak carrier voltage = 40 volts; and peak Modulating
voltage is 30 volts; Calculate the peak voltage of the lower Sideband frequency.

15 Volts
12 Volts
18 Volts
21 Volts

81. A radio station works at 800 kHz and uses AM. If this is apublic broadcast system,
it should transmit using

parabolic reflector to transmit all round

turnstile antenna for the required land
a vertical antenna less than quarter for practical reasons
half wave long horizontal wave

66. It is found that a ship to ship communication suffers fromfading. This can be
avoided by using

directional antenna
space diversity
frequency diversity
broad band antenna

51. Calculate the theoretical number of full duplex channelsavailable in a cluster for a
cellular system where there are 20clusters, each consisting of 10 cells with 16
channels eachcell.

200 full duplex channels

160 full duplex channels
320 full duplex channels
3200 full duplex channels

83. In equally tampered musical scale, an octave is divided into

10 intervals
12 intervals
5 intervals
7 intervals
77. The direction of rotation of a CD is

clockwise
mostly anticlockwise but sometimes clockwise
anticlockwise
clockwise or anticlockwise depending on frequency of data stored

90. Are intended to carry either encoded speech or user data

Allocation channel
Multiplexed channel
Control channel
Traffic channels

22. Changing the time order of digital information before transmission to reduce the
effect of burst errors in the channel.

Synchronization
Interleaving
Polling
Preamble

59. What is the minimum bandwidth required to transmit a 56 kbpsbinary signal with
no noise?

14 kHz
112 kHz
56 kHz
28 kHz

70. Used for allocating voice channel (TCH) to the mobile andlocation updating and
sending short text message to idlemobile.

FACCH
SACCH
PCH
SDCCH
ELECS (01.07.17)
A ferromagnetic matter

A. Increases the total magnetontotive force around a current-carrying wire.

B. Concentrates magnetic flux lines within itself.
C. Causes an increase in the current in a wire.
D. Increase the number of ampere-turns in a wire

If a wire coil has 15 turns and carries 250 mA of current, what is the magnetic force in ampere-
turn?
A.3750
B. 3.75
C. 375
D. 0.017

A substance with high retentivity is best suited for making

A. A do electromagnet
B. A permanent magnet
C. An ac electromagnet
D. An electrostatic shield

A cell of 2.SV supplies 200 mA for three hours and thirty minutes, and then it is replace. It has
supplied:
A. 6.60 Ah
B. 660 mWb
C. 6.60 Wh A
D. 660 mAh

The rotating part of a dynamo, consisting essentially of copper wire wound around an iron core
is.
A. A commutator
B. A solenoid
C. An armature coil
D. A field coil
Which of these can represent magnetomotive force?

A. The volt-turn
B. The gauss
C. The ampere-tum
D. The gauss-turn

Alternating voltages and currents are expressed in rms values because

A. they can be easily determined

B. calculations become very simple
C give comparison with dc
D. they produce more heat

Three resistors are connected in parallel to a 20V

supply. The resistances are Ri=1002, R 812, and Rs. If Rj can only absorb 20W, the total
current of the circuit is closest to?

A. 5A
B. 5.5A
C. 5.25A
D. 5.75A

The value that a circuit has attained after it has long been switched is called

A. transient value
B. time constant value
C. leakage value
D. steady state value

Determine the maximum power that can be supplied to

a load by source with V.- 120V and R 2.5 ohms.

A. 3600W
D. 1440W
C. 5760W
D. 1800 W
The rms value of the waveform of the figure is

A 2.887A
B. 4A
C. 3.266A
D. 1.43A

In an RLC series circuit, the circuit frequency is below the resonant frequency, then

A. Xc=XL
B. X
C. Xc>XL
D. ZER

If all the delta connected resistor are identical

résistance of 30 ohms, what is the equivalent value of the resistor in WYE connection?

A. 30 ohms
B. 10 ohms
C. 15 ohms
D. 7 ohms

With permeability tuning, moving a core further into a

solenoidal coil

A Increases the inductance

B Decreases the inductance
C. Has no effect of the inductance but increases the current-carraying capacity of the coil
D. Raises the frequency.

An AWG #12 copper wire, a size in common use in residential wiring, contains approximately
2.77x10free electrons per meter length, assuming one free conduction electron per atom. What
percentage of these electrons will pass a fixed cross section if the conductor carries a constant
current of 25.0 A?

A 3.38%
B. 3.05%
C. 4.22%
D. 4.58%
A 4500-VA load at power factor 0.75 lagging is
supplied by a 60-Hz source at elective voltage 240V.Determine the parallel capacitance in
microfarads necessary to improve the power factor to 0.90 Ingging,

A 58.6 uf
B. 59.4 uF
C. 64.8 uF
D. 61.8 uF

What is the value of resistor with color bands: Green-Violet-Orange-Silver?

A. R=46 kohm + 10%

B. R=67 kohm 10%
C. R=57 kohm 10%
D. R=56 kohm 10%

A two-element series circuit has average power 940W and power factor 0.707 leading.
Determine the circuit elements if the applied voltage is 99 cos (6000t +30° .

A. 58.2 uF
B. 64.1 uF
C. 62.3 uF
D. 66.0 uF

As the capacitor plate area increases, all things being

equal

A the capacitance increases

B. the capacitance decreases
C. the capacitance does not change
D. the voltage-handling ability decreases

Measures the equivalent series resistance of capacitors

A. VU meter
B. ESR meter
C. LCR meter
D. Psophometer
To measure power-supply voltage being used by a
circuit, a voltmeter

A. Is placed in series with the circuit that works from

the supply
B. Is places between the positive pole of the supply
and the circuit working from the supply
C. is places between the negative pole of the supply
and the circuit working from the supply
D. Is places in parallel with the circuit that works from the supply

It is used to displays the phase of the colors in color

тv

A Network analyzer
B. Spectrum analyser
C Vectorscope
D. Sweep generator

The force between two electrically charge objects is called.

A. Electromagnetic deflection
B Electrostatic force
C. Magnetic force
D. Electrostatic force

The configuration most often used for matching a high input impedance to a low output
impedance puts signal
group at:

A The emitler
B. The base
C.The collector
D. Any point, it doesn't matter

The junction FET. the control electrode is usually the

A Soruce
B. Emitter
C.Gate
D. Drain
In a P-channel JFET:

A. The majority carrier are holes

B. The drain is positive with respect to the source
C. The gate must be grounded
D. The source receives the input signal

A Zener diode would most likely be used in

A A mixer
B. A voltage-controlled oscillator
C. A detector
D. A power supply regulator circuit

In a PNP bipolar transistor:

A.The collector is negative relatively to the emitter

B. The collector is positive relatively to the emitter
C. The collector must be at ground potential.
D. The collector is at the same voltage as the emitter.

An amplifier has an output signal voltage that is 35

times the input signal voltage. This is a gain of:

A. 15 dB
B. 35 dB
C 31 dB
D. 350 dB

An audio oscillator that uses two amplifier in cascade, with positive feedback from the output of
the second stage to the input of the first stage, is known as a:

A. Colpitts circuit
B. Multivibrator
C. Hartley circuit
D. Clapp circuit
The oscillating frequency of the quartz crystal can he varied slightly by:

A. Changing the bias on the transistor

B. Changing the voltage across cach one
C. Reversing the power supply polarity
D. Placing a small variable capacitor across the crystal

Negative feedback in an amplifier

A. Causes oscillation
B. Increases sensitivity
C. Reduces the gain
D. Is used in an Armstrong oscillator

An amplifier has a bandwidth of 20 kHz and a mid-band gain of 50 without feedback, if 1%

negative feedback is applied. The bandwidth with feedback is

A. 13.3 kHz
B 10 kHz
C 30 kHz
D. 40 kHz

A feedback amplifier has an open loop gain of 600 and Feedback factor of -0.01. Find the
closed loop with feedback

A. 83.5
B. 85.7
C. 84.3
D. 86.4

The features of CASCODE amplifier are

A. Large output impedance

B. Small input impedance
C. Larger bandwidth
D. Reduced distortion
ECL is high speed because

A. Operation is in the low noise negative supply

region
B. Construction in small geometries
C. The use of gallium arsenide conductors
D. The operating transistors being unsaturated

The term used to describe a technique for depositing passive circuit elements on an insulating
substrate with coating to a thickness of 0.0001 centimeter.

A Monolithic
B. Hybrid
C. Thin-film
D. Thick-film

It is characterized by high switching specd in some

cases upwards of 125 MHz), and relative immunity to noise.

A. Emitter-coupled logic
B. Base-coupled logic
C. N -channel-couple logic
D. Transistor-transistor logic

CMOS is sometimes referred to except

A.Non-Real Time Clock

B. Non-Volatile RAM
C. Non-Volatile BIOS memory
D. COS-MOS

Chips that contain from 10 to about 100 gates are

called

A. SSI
B. LSI
C.MSI
D. VLSI
In a RAM:

A. It's hard to get data out and easy to put it in

B. It's easy to get data out and hard to put it in
C. It's easy to get data out and put it in
D. It's hard to get data out and put it in

The data in volatile computer memory

A. Is stored on the magnetic disk

B. Cannot be used by the a microprocessor
C. Consist of analog waveforms
D. Vanishes if the power is remove

A packet

A. A computer memory module

B. A unit of 2 bytes
C. A piece of a file sent over a Net
D. A picture element in a computer monitor

Common types of thyristors include

A BTS and SCRS

B. UJTs and PUTs
C. FETS and Triacs
D Diacs and Triacs

A 4-Iayer diode turns on when the anode to cathode voltage exceeds

A 0.7 V
B. The forward-breakover voltage
C. The gate voltage
D. The forward-blacking voltage

The SCR differs from the 4-layer diode because

A. it has a gate terminal

B. It is not a thyristor
C. It does not have a few layers
D. It cannot be undone of
In the forward-blocking region, the SCR is

A. Reverse-biased
B. In the off state
C. In the on state
D. At the point of breakdown

In a phototransistor, the base current is

A Set by a bias voltage

B. Directly proportional to the light
C. Inversely proportional to the light
D. Not a factor

A semiconductor device with four alternating layers (P-N-P-N) that are controlled by a metal-
oxidesemiconductor (MOS) gate structure without regenerative action.

A. Triac
B. Thyristor
C. SCR
D. IGBT

A three-terminal single pn junction device that exhibits a negative resistance characteristic

A. Triac
B. Thyristor
C. UJT
D. PUT

An electric motor draws 150 amperes of current while operating at 240 volts. What is the power
rating of this motor?

A. 2.1 x 10 W
B 3.6 x 10 W
C. 2.7 x 10 W
D. 4.1 x 105 W
In two-phase generators, the electrical displacement between the two phases or windings is
degrees________ electrical

A. 90
B. 180
C. 120
D. 360

The transformer on a power pole steps down the

voltage from 10,800 volts to 120 volts. If the secondary coil contains 360 turns, how many turns
are found on the primary coil?

A. 603
B. 15,000
C. 900
D 32,400

In a transformer, two coils are wound around a common iron core. To operate properly the
transformer requires

A. More turns in the secondary coil than in the primary coil

B. More turns in the primary coil than in the
C. Secondary coil A direct current source connecting to the secondary coil
D. An alternating current source connecting to the primary coil

The basic requirement of a dc armature winding is that it must be

.
A. Closed one
B. Lap winding
C. Wave winding
D. either B or C

A wave winding must go at least armature before it closes back where it started.

A. once
B. thrice
C. twice
D. four times
In dc generators, armature reaction is produced actually by

A. Its field current

B. Armature conductors
C. Field pole winding
D. Load current in armature

In a dc generator, the effect of armature reaction on the main pole flux is to

A. reduce it
B distort it
C.reverse it
D. Both A and B

What is the frequency of emf generated in an 8-pole

alternator running at 900 rpm?

A. 50 Hz
B. 60 Hz
C. 120 Hz
D. 240 Hz

A four-pole, DC generator with lap winding has 48

slots and 4 elements per slot. How many coils does it have?

A. 48
B. 192
C. 384
D. 96

Calculate the storage time in a transistor switching

network if too is 56 ns, t = 14 ns, and t 20 ns.

A.40 ns
B. 42ns
C. 41 ns
D. 43 nS
How many different ways can we implement the
inversion operation in a logic circuit?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Why the ac system is preferred to do system?

A. Because ac voltage system can be easily changed

B. Because all systems depend on ac supply
C. Because de voltage system is not applicable for
domestic appliances
D. Because dc systems are very difficult to control

Convert 1000 1001 011 (BCD) to its decimal

equivalent.

A. 798
B. 897
C.457
D. 101

Find V. for the following circuit

1 Data: L= 1H C=1F , R1=R2=1 ohm and zero initial conditions

A. 0V
B 3V
C. 5V
D 2V

A coil is rotating in a uniform field of an 8-Pole

generator. The number of cycles generated in 2 revolutions is

A. 2
B. 8
C. 4
D. 16
Calculate the effective resistance seen looking into the primary of a 20:1 transformer connected
to an 8 ohm load.
A. 2.3 kohm
B. 3.4 kohm
C. 3.2 kohm
D. 2.5 kohm

An ac generator having 8 poles and running at

1800rpm will generate an alternating voltage of frequency .

A. 120 Hz
B. 60 Hz
C. 240 Hz
D. 85 Hz

Two 60Hz currents i, = 20 cos (377t-20) A and in

10 sin (3770 - 759A, the phase angle between the two currents is

A. 35°
B. 105°
C. 55°
D. 160°

In a purely resistive circuit, the instantaneous voltage and current are given by y = 250 sin 31 4t
volts and i = 10 sin 3141 amps. What is the peak power of the circuit?

A. 1250w
B. 1768w
C. 1590w
D. 2500w

The active and reactive components of line current of a capacitive circuit are equal. The power
factor is

A. 1
B. 0.707 lagging
C. 0.5 leading
D. 0.707 leading
A series RLC circuit is connected to a 200V ac source. If factor of the coil is 10, the voltage
across C at resonance is

A. 20V
B. 210V
C. 200V
D. 2000V

Calculate the dc voltage across a 2-k

-20 F). The de voltage filter section (R-500,
- 50 V. across the initial tiltor capacitor is V

A 47.78 V
B. 46.18 V
C.45.68 V
D. 48.78 V

A load of (20 - j45) is connected across a 240V

source. The circuit power factor is

A. 0.4 leading
B. 0.6 leading
C. 0.5 leading
D. 0.8 leading

An alternating voltage is given by y 100sin 3141 V. If a voltmeter is used, the reading will be

A. 50 V
B. 70.7 V
C. 63.7 V
D. 100 V

Determine lco at a tenperature of 175°C iflco - 2mA at 25°C for RE/RE-20 due to the S(3)
stability factor

A. 4.217 mA
B. 7.421 mA
C. 1.427 mA
D. 2.417 mA
A coil is supplied with 200V and takes a current of 2A at 450 lagging. The Q of the coil is

A. 1
B. 25
C. 10
D. 100

A high resistance is connected in series with the

Internal coil of a galvanometer to make?

A. An senmeter
B. A generator
C. A motor
D. A voltmeter

Convert (B2Fs to octal.

A. 5547
B. 7547
C 5457
D. 11010

Calculate the temperature coefficient in %/° C of a 10V nominal Zener diode at 25° C if the
nominal voltage is 10.2 V at 100° C.

A. 0.0267
B. 0.0712
C. 0.02791
D. 0.0123

Which device can be used to increase voltage from a source of direct current?

A Generato
B. Induction coil
C. Electroscope
D. Mass spectrometer
A sine voltage of 200 Vrms. 50Hz is applied to an SCR through 100-ohm resistor. The firing
angle is 60°. Consider no voltage drop. What is the output voltage in rms?

A 89.7 V
B. 166.7 V
C. 126.7 V
D. 20012 V

To increase the brightness of a desk lamp a student replaces a 50 W light bulb with a 100 W
light bulb. Compared to the 60 W light bulb, the 100 W light bulb has?

A. Less resistance and draws more current

B. Less resistance and draws less current
C. More resistance and draws more current
D. More resistance and draws less current

An electric dryer consumes 6.0 x 10 joules of energy when operating at 220 volts for 30
minutes. During operation the dryer draws a current of approximately?

A 10A
B. 20 A
C. 15A
D. 25 A

At series resonance,

A. circuit Impedance is very large is zero

B. voltage across L or
C. circuit power factor is minimum
D. circuit power factor is unity

Calculate the harmonic distortion component for an output signal having a fundamental
amplitude of 3 V and a second harmonic amplitude of

A. 85.15%
B. 73.89%
C. 93.3%
D. 83.3%
Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF current than for DC?

A.Because of higher voltage

B. Because of skin effect
C. Because the insulation conducts current a radio frequencies
D. Because conductors are non-linear devices
mA

The difference in energy between the valence and the conduction bands of a semiconductor is
called

A. band gap
B conductivity
C. extrinsic photo effect
D. energy density

Determine the total discharge time for the capacitor in a clamper having C -0.01 pF and R = 500
kohm

A. 25 ms
B. 15 ms
C. 30 ms
D. 10 ms

Overdriving can be considered a form of distortion for

which of the following reasons?

A. The output is not in phase with the input

B. The output does not have the same polarity as the input.
C. The output is not a faithful reproduction of the input
D. The output does not have the same amplitude as the input

The input power to a device is 10,000 W at 1000 V.

The output power is 500 W. and the output impedance is 100 . Find the voltage gain in decibels.

A. -13.01 dB
B. 13.01 dB
C. -11.13 dB
D. 11.13 dB
An intrinsic electronic semiconductor behaves as
at absolute temperature.

A. A variable resistor
B. A conductor
C. A superconductor
D. An insulator

Equivalent circuit model commonly used in small

signal analysis at high frequencies.

a. Ebers-Moll
b. ideal model
c. Hybrid-Pi or Giacoletto
d. H parameters

The minimized expression of

ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC is

A. C
B. A+C
C. BC
D. C

p - q is logically equivalent to

A -p -> q
B. -p ^ q
C. -p v q
D. -q→p

Which of the following is the negation of the

statement, "2 is even and -3 is negative"?

A. 2 is even and -3 is not negative.

B. 2 is odd and --3 is not negative.
C. 2 is even or --3 is not negative.
D. 2 is odd or --3 is not negative.
The truth table for p V g) v (
p truth table for

A. (p V q) (p v r)
B. (p V q) (p ^ r)
C. p v q
D. (p ^ q) v p

The Boolean function [-(-p ^ q) ^ -(-p ^ -q)] v (p^r) is equal to the Boolean function

A. q
B. p
C. p ^ q
D. p v r

Which of the following functions is the constant 1 function?

A (p ^ q) V (-p v (p ^-q))
B. -p v (p ^ q)
C. (p ^ -q) ^ (-p v q)
D.(-p v q) v (p ^ q)

Another name for Esaki diode

a. Shockley diode
b. diac
c. hot-carrier diode
d. tunnel diode

A digital word consisting of only 4 bits is called a

a. dibit
b. pixel
c. nibb le
d. cun t
Which of the LC oscillators makes use of a tuned transformer?

a. Hartley
b. Armstrong
c. Colpitts
d. Clapp

FET is a unipolar device because

a. It needs only one supply

b. There is only one current direction
c. It has only one main terminal
d. Its conduction is due only to one type of charged carrier
ELECS (01.07.17), ELECS
A ferromagnetic matter

A. Increases the total magnetontotive force around a current-carrying wire.

B. Concentrates magnetic flux lines within itself.
C. Causes an increase in the current in a wire.
D. Increase the number of ampere-turns in a wire

The maximum voltage output from a voltage divider:

A. Is a fraction of the power supply

B. Depends on the total resistance
C. Is equal to the supply voltage.
D. Depends on the ratio of the resistances.

If a wire coil has 15 turns and carries 250 mA of current, what is the magnetic force in ampere-turn?
A.3750
B. 3.75
C. 375
D. 0.017

A certain bipolar transistor PA is 66 percent efficient. The output power is 33 W. The dc collector power
input is:

A. 22 W
B. 50 W
C. 100 W
D. 2.2 kW

A substance with high retentivity is best suited for making

A. A do electromagnet
B. A permanent magnet
C. An ac electromagnet
D. An electrostatic shield
The permeability of permalloy is

A. Slightly less than permeability of air

B. Slightly greater than permeability of air?
C. Very much greater than permeability of air
D. Equal to the permeability of air

A cell of 2.SV supplies 200 mA for three hours and thirty minutes, and then it is replace. It has supplied:
A. 6.60 Ah
B. 660 mWb
C. 6.60 Wh A
D. 660 mAh

Power absorbed in a pure capacitive circuit is zero because

A. reactive and active components of the current

cancel out
B. reactive component of the current is zero
C. active component of the current is maximum
D. power factor of the circuit is zero

The rotating part of a dynamo, consisting essentially of copper wire wound around an iron core is.
A. A commutator
B. A solenoid
C. An armature coil
D. A field coil

The ac load line differs from the dc load line because

A. The effective ac collector resistance is less than the dc collector resistance.

B. The effective ac collector resistance is less than the ac collector resistance.
C. The effective de collector resistance is less than
the dc collector resistance.
D. The effective ac collector resistance is greater than the dc collector resistance.
Which of these can represent magnetomotive force?

A. The volt-turn
B. The gauss
C. The ampere-tum
D. The gauss-turn

Which of the following is not a characteristic of mica capacitors?

A. High efficiency
B. Small size
C. Capability to handle high voltages
D. Low loss

Alternating voltages and currents are expressed in rms values because

A. they can be easily determined

B. calculations become very simple
C give comparison with dc
D. they produce more heat

Gaas is a/an

A. Compound
B. Element
C. Conductor
D. Gas

Three resistors are connected in parallel to a 20V

supply. The resistances are Ri=1002, R 812, and Rs. If Rj can only absorb 20W, the total current of the
circuit is closest to?

A. 5A
B. 5.5A
C. 5.25A
D. 5.75A
Hysteresis refers to the between flux density of
the material and the magnetizing force applied.

A. leading effect
B. ratio
C. equality
D. lagging effect

The value that a circuit has attained after it has long been switched is called

A. transient value
B. time constant value
C. leakage value
D. steady state value

Determine the maximum power that can be supplied to

a load by source with V.- 120V and R 2.5 ohms.

A. 3600W
D. 1440W
C. 5760W
D. 1800 W

A gain of -15 dB in the circuit means

A. The input signal is stronger than a output

B. The output signal is stronger than the input
C. The input signal is 15 times as stronger as the output
D. The output signal is 15 times as stronger as the
input.

The rms value of the waveform of the figure is

A 2.887A
B. 4A
C. 3.266A
D. 1.43A
A 100-KVA transformer is at 80 percent of rated load at power factor 0.85 lagging. How many kVA in
additional load at 0.60 lagging power factor will bring the transformer to full rated load?

A. 21.8 kVA
B. 22.2 kVA
C. 21.2 KVA
D. 22.4 kVA

In an RLC series circuit, the circuit frequency is below the resonant frequency, then

A. Xc=XL
B. X
C. Xc>XL
D. ZER

A p-channel MOSFET operating in the enhancement mode is characterized by V1 = - 3V and 1px=-8 mA

when Vg5o = -4.5 V. Find Vaso if Ipo = -16 mA.

A. VGsQ = 0.80 V
B. Vaso = - 0.88 V
C. Vaso = -0.94 V
D. Vaso =-0.78 V

If the capacitor has a negative temperature coefficient:

A. Its value decreases as the temperature rises.

B. Its value increases as the temperature rises.
C. Its value does not chance with temperature.
D. It must be connected with the correct polarity

If all the delta connected resistor are identical

résistance of 30 ohms, what is the equivalent value of the resistor in WYE connection?

A. 30 ohms
B. 10 ohms
C. 15 ohms
D. 7 ohms
With permeability tuning, moving a core further into a
solenoidal coil

A Increases the inductance

B Decreases the inductance
C. Has no effect of the inductance but increases the current-carraying capacity of the coil
D. Raises the frequency.

As the number of turns in a coil increases, the reactance:

A. Increases
B. Decrease
C. Stay the same
D. Is stored on the core material 15.

An AWG #12 copper wire, a size in common use in residential wiring, contains approximately
2.77x10free electrons per meter length, assuming one free conduction electron per atom. What
percentage of these electrons will pass a fixed cross section if the conductor carries a constant current
of 25.0 A?

A 3.38%
B. 3.05%
C. 4.22%
D. 4.58%

If the ratio of Xc/R is 1, the phase angle is:

A. 0 degrees
B. -45 degrees
C -90 degrees
D. 45 degrees

A 4500-VA load at power factor 0.75 lagging is

supplied by a 60-Hz source at elective voltage 240V.Determine the parallel capacitance in microfarads
necessary to improve the power factor to 0.90 Ingging,

A 58.6 uf
B. 59.4 uF
C. 64.8 uF
D. 61.8 uF
A hot-wire ammeter.

A. Can measure ac as well as dc

B. Can indicate very low voltages
C. Measure electrical energy
D. Works only when current flows in one direction.

Determine the Thevenin equivalent resistance.

A. 25 ohm
B. 10 ohm
C. 15 ohm
D. 4 ohm

In small inductance:

A. Energy is stored and release slowly.

B. The current flow is always large.
C. The current flow is always small
D. Energy is stored and release quickly.

What is the value of resistor with color bands: Green-Violet-Orange-Silver?

A. R=46 kohm + 10%

B. R=67 kohm 10%
C. R=57 kohm 10%
D. R=56 kohm 10%

Selenium works especially well in

A. High-frequency detectors
B. Radio-frequency power amplifiers
C . Photocells
D. Voltage regulators
Hysteresis refers to the between flux density of
the material and the magnetizing force applied.

A. Ratio
B. Equality
C. Lagging effect
D. Leading effects

A two-element series circuit has average power 940W and power factor 0.707 leading. Determine the
circuit elements if the applied voltage is 99 cos (6000t +30° .

A. 58.2 uF
B. 64.1 uF
C. 62.3 uF
D. 66.0 uF

As the capacitor plate area increases, all things being

equal

A the capacitance increases

B. the capacitance decreases
C. the capacitance does not change
D. the voltage-handling ability decreases

The distance between the capacitor plates increases two times, then its capacitance

A. increases two times

B. increases four times
C. decreases two times
D. decreases four times

Measures the equivalent series resistance of capacitors

A. VU meter
B. ESR meter
C. LCR meter
D. Psophometer
What is the minimum fan-out of TTL?

A. 5
B. 20
C. 10
D. 2

To measure power-supply voltage being used by a

circuit, a voltmeter

A. Is placed in series with the circuit that works from

the supply
B. Is places between the positive pole of the supply
and the circuit working from the supply
C. is places between the negative pole of the supply
and the circuit working from the supply
D. Is places in parallel with the circuit that works from the supply

The period of an ac wave is

A. The same as the frequency

B. Not related to the frequency
C. Equal to 1 divided by the frequency
D. Equal to the amplitude divided by the frequency

It is used to displays the phase of the colors in color

ту

A Network analyzer
B. Spectrum analyser
C Vectorscope
D. Sweep generator

In the circuit below, the Zener diode has a breakdown voltage Vzr = 8.0 V and a measurement has
shown that Vz= 8.6 V when Iz = 30 mA. What is the value of out when RL becomes infinitely large?

A. Vout=0V
B. Vout = 8.2 V
C. Vout = 8.8 V
D. Vout= 8.4 V
The force between two electrically charge objects iscalled.

A. Electromagnetic deflection
B Electrostatic force
C. Magnetic force
D. Electrostatic force

It can also be used to locate the source of a field, and to measure the performance of radio frequency
shielding.

A. Oscilloscope
B. Logic analyzer
C. RF Meter
D. Spectrum analyzer

The configuration most often used for matching a his inut impedance to a low output impedance puts
signal
group at:

A The emitler
B. The base
C.The collector
D. Any point, it doesn't matter

A class-A circuit would not work well as:

A. A stereo hi-fi amplifier

B. A television transmitter PA
C. A low-level microphone preamplifier
D. The first stage in the radio receiver

An oscillator might fail to start for any of the following reasons except:

A. Low power supply voltage

B. Low stage gain
C. In-phase feedback
D. Very low output impedance
The junction FET. the control electrode is usually the

A Soruce
B. Emitter
C.Gate
D. Drain

In a P-channel JFET:

A. The majority carrier are holes

B. The drain is positive with respect to the source
C. The gate must be grounded
D. The source receives the input signal

The term "semiconductor" arises from

A. Resistor-like properties of metal oxides

B. Variable conductive properties of some materials
C. The fact that there's nothing better to call silicon
D. Insulator properties of silicone and GaAs

A Zener diode would most likely be used in

A A mixer
B. A voltage-controlled oscillator
C. A detector
D. A power supply regulator circuit

A certain passive network has equivalent impedance Z => 3+4 N and an applied voltage v=42.5cos(1000
+ 30 V. Determine the power factor (pf).

A. pf=0.6 lagging
B. pf=0.6 leading
C. pf=0.7 lagging
D. pf=0.7 leading
In a PNP bipolar transistor:

A.The collector is negative relatively to the emitter

B. The collector is positive relatively to the emitter
C. The collector must be at ground potential.
D. The collector is at the same voltage as the emitter.

What maximum power can a silicon transistor (Tmax = 200°C) dissipate into free air at an ambicnt
temperature of 80°C?

A. 0.5W
B. 1W
C. 2W
D. 3W

An amplifier has an output signal voltage that is 35

times the input signal voltage. This is a gain of:

A. 15 dB
B. 35 dB
C 31 dB
D. 350 dB

In a P-channel JFET:

A. The drain of is forward-biased

B. The gate-source junction is forward biased
C. The drain is negative relative to the source
D. The gate must be at the dc ground.

An audio oscillator that uses two amplifier in cascade, with positive feedback from the output of the
second stage to the input of the first stage, is known as a:

A. Colpitts circuit
B. Multivibrator
C. Hartley circuit
D. Clapp circuit
Which of the following with not cause a major error in an ohmmeter?

A. A small voltage between points under test.

B. A small chance in the resistance to be measured.
C. A slight error in the range switch selection
D. A slight change in switchable internal resistance.

Often used to characterize two-port networks such as amplifiers and filters, but they can be used on
networks with an arbitrary number of ports.

A. Vector Network analyzer

B. Spectrum analyzer
C. Vectorscope
D. Sweep generator

The oscillating frequency of the quartz crystal can he varied slightly by:

A. Changing the bias on the transistor

B. Changing the voltage across cach one
C. Reversing the power supply polarity
D. Placing a small variable capacitor across the crystal

Negative feedback in an amplifier

A. Causes oscillation
B. Increases sensitivity
C. Reduces the gain
D. Is used in an Armstrong oscillator

A MOSFET differs from a JFET mainly because

A. of the power rating

B. the MOSFET has two gates
C. the JFET has a pn junction
D. MOSFETs do not have a physical channel
An amplifier has a bandwidth of 20 kHz and a mid-band gain of 50 without feedback, if 1% negative
feedback is applied. The bandwidth with feedback is

A. 13.3 kHz
B 10 kHz
C 30 kHz
D. 40 kHz

An unimportant factor concerning the frequency at which a P-N junction will work effective is:

A. The type of semiconductor materials

B. The cross-sectional area of the junction
C. The reverse current
D. The capacitor with reverse bias.

A feedback amplifier has an open loop gain of 600 and Feedback factor of -0.01. Find the closed loop
with feedback

A. 83.5
B. 85.7
C. 84.3
D. 86.4

The major advantage of Silicon-on-Insulator are the following except:

A. Lower diffusion capacitance

B. Higher diffusion capacitance
C. Lower dynamic power consumption
D. Nominals threshold voltage must be very high

The features of CASCODE amplifier are

A. Large output impedance

B. Small input impedance
C. Larger bandwidth
D. Reduced distortion
In the voltage divider network, the total resistance

A. Should be large to minimize current drain.

B. Should be as small as the power supply will allow.
C. Is not important
D. Should be such that the current is kept to 100mA

ECL is high speed because

A. Operation is in the low noise negative supply

region
B. Construction in small geometries
C. The use of gallium arsenide conductors
D. The operating transistors being unsaturated

The term used to describe a technique for depositing passive circuit elements on an insulating substrate
with coating to a thickness of 0.0001 centimeter.

A Monolithic
B. Hybrid
C. Thin-film
D. Thick-film

A coil is represented by a series combination of L = 50mH and R = 15 12. Calculate the quality factor at
10kHz.

A. Qcoil = 1047
B. Qcoil = 845
C. Qcoil = 326
D. Qcoil = 209

It is characterized by high switching specd in some

cases upwards of 125 MHz), and relative immunity to noise.

A. Emitter-coupled logic
B. Base-coupled logic
C. N -channel-couple logic
D. Transistor-transistor logic
The input impedance of a MOSFET:

A. Is lower than the JFET

B. Is lower than the bipolar transistor
C. Is between that of the bipolar transistor and a JFET
D. Is extremely high

CMOS is sometimes referred to except

A.Non-Real Time Clock

B. Non-Volatile RAM
C. Non-Volatile BIOS memory
D. COS-MOS

The gigabyte is a unit commonly used to measure of

A. Data access time

B. Data transfer time
C. Data communication accuracy
D. Data storage capacity

Chips that contain from 10 to about 100 gates are

called

A. SSI
B. LSI
C.MSI
D. VLSI

Drain current in the constant-current region increases when

A. the gate-to-source bias voltage decreases

B. the gate-to-source bias voltage increases
C. the drain-to-source voltage increases
D. the drain-to-source voltage decreases
In a RAM:

A. It's hard to get data out and easy to put it in

B. It's easy to get data out and hard to put it in
C. It's easy to get data out and put it in
D. It's hard to get data out and put it in

The magnetic field of a magnetized iron bar when

strongly heated O

A. Becomes weaker
B. Becomes stronger
C. reverses in direction
D. is unchanged

The data in volatile computer memory

A. Is stored on the magnetic disk

B. Cannot be used by the a microprocessor
C. Consist of analog waveforms
D. Vanishes if the power is remove

Calculate the harmonic distortion

output signal having fundamental an
uculate the harmonic disertion components for an
oral amplitude of 2.1 V. und harmonic amplitude ofo 3V, third harmonic 0.1 V. and fourth harmonic
component component of 0.1 V. and fourth of 0.05 V.

A. 14.3%,4.8%2.4%
B. 14.3%.4.2%,2.8%
C. 12.3%,4.8%2.4%
D. 12.3%,4.2%,2.8%

A packet

A. A computer memory module

B. A unit of 2 bytes
C. A piece of a file sent over a Net
D. A picture element in a computer monitor
The principal disadvantage ofa voltage multipliers

A. Excessive current
B. Excessive voltage
C. Insufficient rectification
D. Poor regulation

The input signal to a transistor amplifier results in

saturation during part of the cycle. This produces:

A. The greatest possible amplification

B. Reduced efficiency
C. Avalanche effect
D. Nonlinear output impedance

Common types of thyristors include

A BTS and SCRS

B. UJTs and PUTs
C. FETS and Triacs
D Diacs and Triacs

A 4-Iayer diode turns on when the anode to cathode voltage exceeds

A 0.7 V
B. The forward-breakover voltage
C. The gate voltage
D. The forward-blacking voltage

A 4-layer diode turns on when the anode-to-cathode voltage exceeds

A. the forward-break-over voltage

B. the forward-blocking voltage
C. 0.7 V
D. the gate voltage
The SCR differs from the 4-layer diode because

A. it has a gate terminal

B. It is not a thyristor
C. It does not have a few layers
D. It cannot be undone of

The rms value is the same as the peak value of

A. Perfect square waves

B. Saw-tooth waves
C. Perfect triangle waves
D. Perfect sine waves

In the forward-blocking region, the SCR is

A. Reverse-biased
B. In the off state
C. In the on state
D. At the point of breakdown

An SCR differs from the 4-layer diode because

A. it is not a thyristor
B. it does not have four layers
C. it has a gate terminal
D. it cannot be turned on and off

In a phototransistor, the base current is

A Set by a bias voltage

B. Directly proportional to the light
C. Inversely proportional to the light
D. Not a factor
To measure power-supply voltage being used by a
circuit, a voltmeter

A. is placed in series with the circuit that works from the supply
B. Is places between the positive pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
C. Is places between the negative pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
D. Is places in parallel with the circuit that works
from the supply

A semiconductor device with four alternating layers (P-N-P-N) that are controlled by a metal-
oxidesemiconductor (MOS) gate structure without regenerative action.

A. Triac
B. Thyristor
C. SCR
D. IGBT

A changing magnetic field

A. results from a steady electric current

B. magnetizing the earth
C. produce an electric current in the insulator
D. produce a fluctuation electric field

A three-terminal single pn junction device that exhibits a negative resistance characteristic

A. Triac
B. Thyristor
C. UJT
D. PUT

It is a method of stabilizing the voltage gain.

A. Darlington pair
B. Swamping
C. Differential mode
D. Common mode
An electric motor draws 150 amperes of current while operating at 240 volts. What is the power rating
of this motor?

A. 2.1 x 10 W
B 3.6 x 10 W
C. 2.7 x 10 W
D. 4.1 x 105 W

How can a class C amplifier be made linear?

A. By reducing the bias

B. by increasing the drive
C. by using two transistor in push-pull
D. A class C amplifier cannot be made linear

In two-phase generators, the electrical displacement between the two phases or windings is
degrees________ electrical

A. 90
B. 180
C. 120
D. 360

Why is a two-pole magnetic field set up around a coil?

A. because separate lines of magnetic force link, and combine their effects
B. because concentric lines of force cross at right angles and combine
C. because lines of force are separated and bent at the coils ends
D. because separate lines of force are attracted to the two poles of the coil

The transformer on a power pole steps down the

voltage from 10,800 volts to 120 volts. If the secondary coil contains 360 turns, how many turns are
found on the primary coil?

A. 603
B. 15,000
C. 900
D 32,400
the gain of a transistor in n common-emitter circult is 100 at n frequency of 1000 Hz. The gain is 70.7 nt
335 KHz. The gain drops to 1 to 210 MHz. The alplan cut off:

A. 1Khz
B. 335 kHz
C. 210 MHz
D. 70.7 kHz

In a transformer, two coils are wound around a common iron core. To operate properly the transformer
requires

A. More turns in the secondary coil than in the primary coil

B. More turns in the primary coil than in the
C. Secondary coil A direct current source connecting to the secondary coil
D. An alternating current source connecting to the primary coil

The basic requirement of a de armature winding is that it must be

.
A. Closed one
B. Lap winding
C. Wave winding
D. either B or C

To turn off the SCR, which of the following is done?

A. Reduce gate voltage to zero,

B. Reverse bias the gate.
C. Reduce anode voltage to zero
D. Reduce cathode voltage to zero

A wave winding must go at least armature before it closes back where it started.

A. once
B. thrice
C. twice
D. four times
A logic circuit has an output O when the input is 1, and vice versa.

A: NOR gate
B. OR gate
C. NOT gate
D. XOR gate

In dc generators, armature reaction is produced actually by

A. Its field current

B. Armature conductors
C. Field pole winding
D. Load current in armature

A device has a voltage gain of 23 dB. The input

voltage is 33 V. The output voltage is:

A 76 V
B. 47 V
C. 660 V
D. 56 V

In a dc generator, the effect of armature reaction on the main pole flux is to

A. reduce it
B distort it
C.reverse it
D. Both A and B

A class-A circuit would not work well as:

A. A television transmitter PA
B. A stereo hi-fi amplifier
C. A low-level microphone preamplifier
D. The first stage in a radio receiver
What is the frequency of emf generated in an 8-pole
alternator running at 900 rpm?

A. 50 Hz
B. 60 Hz
C. 120 Hz
D. 240 Hz

Why is it that the magnitude of magnetomotive force required for air gap is much greater than that
required for iron part of a magnetic circuit?

A. Because air is a gas.

B. Because air has the highest relative permeability.
C. Because air is a conductor of magnetic flux.
D. Because air has the lowest relative permeability.

A four-pole, DC generator with lap winding has 48

slots and 4 elements per slot. How many coils does it have?

A. 48
B. 192
C. 384
D. 96

for a paralle1 AC circuit_______ is used as a reference phasor.

A. voltage
B. power
C. current
D. resistance

Calculate the storage time in a transistor switching

network if too is 56 ns, t = 14 ns, and t 20 ns.

A.40 ns
B. 42ns
C. 41 ns
D. 43 nS
A transformer has a secondary-to-primary turn ratio is 0.6. This transformer is

A. A step-up unit
B. A step-down unit
C. Neither step-up and step-down unit
D. A reversible unit

How many different ways can we implement the

inversion operation in a logic circuit?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

For a series AC circuit, ____________is not used as a reference phasor,

A. voltage
B. impedance
C. current
D. conductance

The meter movement in an illumination meter

measures:

A. Current
B. Energy
C. Voltage
D. Power

Why the ac system is preferred to do system?

A. Because ac voltage system can be easily changed

B. Because all systems depend on ac supply
C. Because de voltage system is not applicable for
domestic appliances
D. Because dc systems are very difficult to control
Convert 1000 1001 011 (BCD) to its decimal
equivalent.

A. 798
B. 897
C.457
D. 101

A silicon power transistor is operated with a heat sink(Osa = 1.5°C/W). The transistor, rated at 150 W
(25°C).has Ojc=0.5°C/W, and the mounting insulation has less 0.6°C/W. What maximum power can be
dissipated if the ambient temperature is 40°C and Tjmax = 200°C?

A. 63.5W
B. 57.5W
C. 61.5 W
D. 58.2W

Find V. for the following circuit

1 Data: L= 1H C=1F , R1=R2=1 ohm and zero initial conditions

A. 0V
B 3V
C. 5V
D 2V

It is a thin polished slice of a semiconductor crystal on which integrated circuit can be fabricated often in
duplicate, for cutting into individual slice.

A. Silicon
B. Wafer
C. Indium
D. Gallium

A coil is rotating in a uniform field of an 8-Polo

generator. The number of cycles generated in 2 revolutions is

A. 2
B. 8
C. 4
D. 16
A electric power line carries a current of 1400 A in a location where the earth's magnetic field is 5.0 x
104 T. The line makes an angle of 75° with respect to the field. Determine the magnitude of the
magnetic force on a 120-m length of line.

A. 8.50 N
B. 8.11N
C. 7.82N
D. 8.66N

Calculate the effective resistance seen looking into the primary of a 20:1 transformer connected to an 8
ohm load.
A. 2.3 kohm
B. 3.4 kohm
C. 3.2 kohm
D. 2.5 kohm

In Boolean algebra, a high signal added to another low

signal is
A. 10
B. 1
C. 11
D. 0

One or the other input can be true for the output to the false.

A. AND
B. NOR
C. OR
D. XNOR

Two 60Hz currents i, = 20 cos (377t-20) A and in

10 sin (3770 - 759A, the phase angle between the two currents is

A. 35°
B. 105°
C. 55°
D. 160°
In a purely resistive circuit, the instantaneous voltage and current are given by y = 250 sin 31 4t volts
and i = 10 sin 3141 amps. What is the peak power of the circuit?

A. 1250w
B. 1768w
C. 1590w
D. 2500w

The magnetic flux through a wire loop in n magnetic field does not depend on the

A. area of the loop

B. magnitude of the field
C. shape of the loop
D. angle between the plane of the loop and the
direction

The active and reactive components of line current of a capacitive circuit are equal. The power factor is

A. 1
B. 0.707 lagging
C. 0.5 leading
D. 0.707 leading

A defect than can be described as a pair of vacant

lattice sites, an anion site and a cation site.

A. Schottky defect
B. Planar Defects
C. Line Defects
D. Frenkel defect

A series RLC circuit is connected to a 200V ac source. If factor of the coil is 10, the voltage across C at
resonance is

A. 20V
B. 210V
C. 200V
D. 2000V
The nine's complement of 3 is

A. 8
B. 6
C. 3
D. 9

Calculate the dc voltage across a 2-k

-20 F). The de voltage filter section (R-500,
- 50 V. across the initial tiltor capacitor is V

A 47.78 V
B. 46.18 V
C.45.68 V
D. 48.78 V

A load of (20 - j45) is connected across a 240V

source. The circuit power factor is

A. 0.4 leading
B. 0.6 leading
C. 0.5 leading
D. 0.8 leading

If a certain circuit has a current that is lagging the voltage by 45°, then it displays

A. pure inductive reactance

B. resistance and capacitive reactance
C. resistance and inductive reactance
D. pure capacitive reactance

An alternating voltage is given by y 100sin 3141 V. If a voltmeter is used, the reading will be

A. 50 V
B. 70.7 V
C. 63.7 V
D. 100 V
In an N-channel JFET, pinchoff occurs when the gate bias is

A. Slight negative
B. Very negative
C. Slight positive
D. Zero

A semiconductor device with four alternating layers (P-N-P-N) that are controlled by a metal-oxide
semiconductor (MOS) gate structure without regenerative action.

A. SCR
B. Thyristor
C. IGBT
D. Triac

Determine lco at a tenperature of 175°C iflco - 2mA at 25°C for RE/RE-20 due to the S(3) stability factor

A. 4.217 mA
B. 7.421 mA
C. 1.427 mA
D. 2.417 mA

A coil is supplied with 200V and takes a current of 2A at 450 lagging. The Q of the coil is

A. 1
B. 25
C. 10
D. 100

A current surge take place when a power supply is

turned on because

A. The transformer core is suddenly magnetize

B. The diode suddenly start to conduct
C. The filter capacitor(s) must be initially charged.
D. Arcing takes place in the power switch
A high resistance is connected in series with the
Internal coil of a galvanometer to make?

A. An senmeter
B. A generator
C. A motor
D. A voltmeter

What maximum voltage can be applied across the capacitor for very short period of time

A. Working voltage
B. Surge voltage
C. Stray voltage
D. Peak voltage

Convert (B2Fs to octal.

A. 5547
B. 7547
C 5457
D. 11010

Calculate the total harmonic distortion for the

amplitude components given D2-0.10, D3-0.4, and D4-0.2

A. 11%
B. 10.75%
C 11.95%
D. 10.95%

Calculate the temperature coefficient in %/° C of a 10V nominal Zener diode at 25° C if the nominal
voltage is 10.2 V at 100° C.

A. 0.0267
B. 0.0712
C. 0.02791
D. 0.0123
A______is like two parallel SCRs having a common gate and connected opposite directions.

A. UJTS
B. PUTS
C. Diacs
D. Triacs

Which device can be used to increase voltage from a source of direct current?

A Generato
B. Induction coil
C. Electroscope
D. Mass spectrometer

Which of the following voltmeter has the most

inaccurate reading?

A. Low sensitive, 900 micro ohms.

B. Low sensitive, 90 milli ohms.
C. Low sensitive, 90 micro ohms.
D. Low sensitive, 900 k ohms.

A frequency synthesizer makes use of

A. The hexadecimal numbering

B. A divider
C. An OR gate
D. An octal numbering system

A sine voltage of 200 Vrms. 50Hz is applied to an SCR through 100-ohm resistor. The firing angle is 60°.
Consider no voltage drop. What is the output voltage in mms?

A 89.7 V
B. 166.7 V
C. 126.7 V
D. 20012 V
To increase the brightness of a desk lamp a student replaces a 50 W light bulb with a 100 W light bulb.
Compared to the 60 W light bulb, the 100 W light bulb has?

A. Less resistance and draws more current

B. Less resistance and draws less current
C. More resistance and draws more current
D. More resistance and draws less current

When phase shifting an SCR, what two things must be phase shifted?

A. variable resistor and gate current

B. variable resistor and capacitor
C. variable inductor and gate current
D. variable capacitance and gate current

An electric dryer consumes 6.0 x 10 joules of energy when operating at 220 volts for 30 minutes. During
operation the dryer draws a current of approximately?

A 10A
B. 20 A
C. 15A
D. 25 A

CE amplifier is characterized by

A. A low voltage gain

B. Moderate power gain
C. Signal phase reversal
D. Very high output impedance

At series resonance,

A. circuit Impedance is very large is zero

B. voltage across L or
C. circuit power factor is minimum
D. circuit power factor is unity
For a certain magnetic material, the________ the area
inside the hysteresis loop, the________the hysteresis losses.

A. greater, larger
B. smaller, larger
C. greater, smaller
D. smaller, smaller

Calculate the harmonic distortion component for an output signal having a fundamental amplitude of 3
V and a second harmonic amplitude of

A. 85.15%
B. 73.89%
C. 93.3%
D. 83.3%

The number of protons in the nucleus of an element is the:

A. Electron Number
B. Valence Number
C. Proton Number
D. Atomic Number

Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF current than for DC?

A.Because of higher voltage

B. Because of skin effect
C. Because the insulation conducts current a radio frequencies
D. Because conductors are non-linear devices
mA

A theorem which states that an electric current flowing in a circuit produces a magnetic field at external
points equivalent to that due to a magnetic shell whose bounding edge is the conductor and whose
strength is equal to the strength of the current.

A.Joule's law
B. Faraday's law
C. Volia's theorem
D Ampere's theorem
The difference in energy between the valence and the conduction bands of a semiconductor is called

A. band gap
B conductivity
C. extrinsic photo effect
D. energy density

Find the counter emf of a motor when the terminal

voltage is 240V and the armature current is 50 A. The armature resistance is 0.08 12. The field current is
negligible.

A. 244 V
B. 240 V
C. 236 V
D. 232 V

Determine the total discharge time for the capacitor in a clamper having C -0.01 pF and R = 500 kohm

A. 25 ms
B. 15 ms
C. 30 ms
D. 10 ms

The current going into a point in a dc circuit is always equal to the current:

A. Flowing out of the point.

B. Delivered by the power supply.
C. Through any one of the resistances.
D. At any other point

Overdriving can be considered a form of distortion for

which of the following reasons?

A. The output is not in phase with the input

B. The output does not have the same polarity as the input.
C. The output is not a faithful reproduction of the input
D. The output does not have the same amplitude as the input
What is that value of current below which the SCR
switches from the conduction state to the forward blocking region under stated conditions?

A. Holding current
B. Forward current
C. Reverse current
D. Trigger current

The input power to a device is 10,000 W at 1000 V.

The output power is 500 W. and the output impedance is 100 . Find the voltage gain in decibels.

A. -13.01 dB
B. 13.01 dB
C. -11.13 dB
D. 11.13 dB

A coil is wound with 4000 turns of No. 20 copper wire. If the average amount of wire in a turn is 3 in,
how much is the total resistance of the coil?

A. 19.6712
B. 9.9512
C. 11.122
D. 10.352

An intrinsic electronic semiconductor behaves as

at absolute temperature.

A. A variable resistor
B. A conductor
C. A superconductor
D. An insulator

Equivalent circuit model commonly used in small

signal analysis at high frequencies.

a. Ebers-Moll
b. ideal model
c. Hybrid-Pi or Giacoletto
d. H parameters
In a RAM:

A. It's easy to get data out and hard to put it in

B. It's hard to get data out and easy to put it in
C. It's hard to get data out and put it in
D. It's easy to get data out and put it in

The minimized expression of

ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC is

A. C
B. A+C
C. BC
D. C

Calculate the efficiency of a class B amplifier for a

supply voltage of Vcc=24 V with peak output voltages of Vlo) = 22V.

A. 90%
B. 72%
C. 87%
D. 75%

If X is low, what is the state of X AND Y?

A. Not enough information to tell.

B. High
C. Low
D. This logic makes no sense

p - q is logically equivalent to

A -p -> q
B. -p ^ q
C. -p v q
D. -q→p
Which of the following is the negation of the
statement, "2 is even and -3 is negative"?

A. 2 is even and -3 is not negative.

B. 2 is odd and --3 is not negative.
C. 2 is even or --3 is not negative.
D. 2 is odd or --3 is not negative.

How can electrical currents be induced with a coil and a magnet?

A. By placing the coil parallel to the magnetic field

B. By placing the coil at right angles with the magnetic field
C. By moving either the magnet or the coil
D. By keeping the coil and the magnet perfectly
stationary

The truth table for p V g) v (

p truth table for

A. (p V q) (p v r)
B. (p V q) (p ^ r)
C. p v q
D. (p ^ q) v p

The PUT is

A. Trigger on and off by the gate-to-anode

B. Much like the UST
C. Not a four-layer device
D. Not a thyristor

The Boolean function [-(-p ^ q) ^ -(-p ^ -q)] v (p^r) is equal to the Boolean function

A. q
B. p
C. p ^ q
D. p v r
Which of the following functions is the constant 1 function?

A (p ^ q) V (-p v (p ^-q))
B. -p v (p ^ q)
C. (p ^ -q) ^ (-p v q)
D.(-p v q) v (p ^ q)

In negative-edge triggering, the change of state occurs when:

A. The pulse level is high

B. The pulse level is going from high to low
C. The pulse level is going from low to high
D. The pulse level is low

Another name for Esaki diode

a. Shockley diode
b. diac
c. hot-carrier diode
d. tunnel diode

A digital word consisting of only 4 bits is called a

a. dibit
b. pixel
c. nibb le
d. cun t

Which of the LC oscillators makes use of a tuned transformer?

a. Hartley
b. Armstrong
c. Colpitts
d. Clapp
FET is a unipolar device because

a. It needs only one supply

b. There is only one current direction
c. It has only one main terminal
d. Its conduction is due only to one type of charged carrier
 ELECS 12/3/17

What is the rms value of a square wave?

A. Equals its peak value
B. Equals its peak-to-peak value
C. Peak divided by square root of two
D. Peak divided by pi

A device that reverses magnetic field polarity to keep a dc motor rotating is:
A. A solenoid
B. A commutator
C. An armature coil
D. A field coil

When two coils of identical reactance are in parallel without mutual inductance, the reactance of the
combination is _____________ the reactance of each coil.
A. one half
B. twice
C. four times
D. one fourth

The rate of doing work is referred to as

A. Energy
B. Power
C. Force
D. Acceleration

Which of the following dielectric materials makes the lowest-capacitance capacitor?

A. Paper
B. Mica
C. Air
D. Electrolyte
For maximum peak-to-peak output voltage, the Q point should be
A. At the center of the ac load line
B. Near saturation
C. Near cutoff
D. At the center of the dc load line

How is the output of a differentiator related to the input in an op-amp?

A. The output of a differentiator is proportional to the rate of change of the input.
B. The output of a differentiator is inversely proportional to the rate of change of the input
C. The two parameters are not related
D. The two parameters are always equal to each other

The power rating of a transistor can be increased by

A. Raising the temperature
B. Using a derating curve
C. Operating with no input signal
D. Using a heat sink

A CB amplifier has very low input resistance because

A. A low emitter ac resistor ra shunts all other resistances
B. It handles small input signals
C. Emitter bulk resistance is small
D. Its base is at ac ground

An alternative name for a diac is:

A. Silicon unilateral switch (SUS)
B. Silicon bilateral switch
C. Bidirectional trigger diode
D. Four-layer diode

A CMOS integrated circuit

A. Requires considerable power to function
B. Need very high voltage
C. Can only work at low frequencies
D. Susceptible to damage to static
What is the main advantage of temporary magnets?
A. The magnetic flux can be changed
B. Hysteresis can be decreased
C. Magnetic materials can be used
D. Abundance of ferromagnetic material that can be temporarily magnetized

In a RAM:
A. It's hard to get data out and easy to put it in
B. It's easy to get data out and hard to put it in
C. It's easy to get data out and put it in
D. It's hard to get data out and put it in

A resistor wound with a wire doubled back on itself to reduce the inductance.
A. Bifilar resistor
B. Wire-wound resistor
C. Anti-inductive resistor
D. Bleeder resistor

The voltmeter should generally have:

A. Low internal resistance
B. Large internal resistance
C. Maximum possible sensitivity
D. Able to withstand large currents

The symbol Icbo signifies the current that flows when some dc voltage is applied
A. In the reverse direction to the collector junction with the emitter open-circuited
B. In the forward direction to the collector junction with the emitter open-circuited
C. In the reverse direction to the emitter junction with the collector open-circuited
D. In the forward direction to the emitter junction with the collector open-circuited

The superposition theorem is used when the circuit contains ______________

A. a single voltage source
B. passive elements only
C. a number of voltage sources
D. active elements only
The primary cause on linear distortion in amplifier is
A. Change of gain with frequency
B. Unequal phase shift in component frequencies
C. Reactances associated with the circuit and active amplifying element
D. Inherent limitations of the active device

A coulomb
A. Represents a current of one ampere
B. Flows through a 100-watt light bulb
C. Is one ampere per second
D. Is an extremely large number of charge carriers

The area of capacitor plates increases two times, then its capacitance
A. increases two times
B. increases four times
C. decreases two times
D. decreases four times

Convert 111101.01101 to octal

A. 78.32
B. 75.23
C. 75.32
D. 75.22

Lower cut-off frequency of an amplifier is primarily determined by the

A. Internal capacitances of the active device used
B. Stray capacitance between its wiring and ground
C. AC Beta value of its active devices
D. Capacitances of coupling and bypass capacitors

A NOR gate is on only when all its inputs are

A. on
B. positive
C. high
D. off
How much energy in joules is required to move a charge of 6 C through a difference in potential of 3 V?
A. 17 J
B. 18 J
C. 19 J
D. 20 J

A Zener diode has the specifications Vz = 5.2 V and Pdmax = 260 mW. Assume Rz = 0. Find the maximum
allowable current iz when the Zener diode is acting as a regulator
A. iz = 30mA
B. iz = 45mA
C. iz = 50mA
D. iz = 60mA

In an astable multivibrator
A. B = 1
B. BA = 1
C. B > 1
D. B < 1

The bandwidth of a class C amplifier decreases when the

A. Resonant frequency increases
B. XL decreases
C. Load resistance decreases
D. Q increases

The force between two magnetic poles is ___________ their pole strengths
A. directly proportional to
B. the sum of
C. inversely proportional to
D. the product of

The quiescent collector current is the same as the

A. AC collector current
B. Total collector current
C. DC collector current
D. Voltage-divider current
When the movable plates of a gang capacitor completely overlap the fixed plates, the capacitance of the
capacitor is
A. halfway between maximum and minimum
B. maximum
C. minimum
D. zero

Calculate the gain of an inverting amplifier, If V = 4mV, calculate the output voltage
A. 10, 40mV
B. -10, 40mV
C. 10, -40mV
D. -10, -40mV

Negative peak of emitter with class A the output voltage should be

A. Clipped on positive voltage peak
B. Clipped on negative voltage peak
C. Unclipped
D. Clipped on negative current peak

In a class A amplifier, condition extends over 360 degrees because Q-point is

A. Located on load line
B. Located near saturation point
C. Centered on load line
D. Located at or near cut-off point

In small inductance
A. Energy is stored and release slowly
B. The current flow is always large
C. current flow is always small
D. Energy is stored and release quickly

Two capacitors of capacitance 9 uF and 18 uF in series with each other have a total capacitance of
A. 27 uF
B. 162 uF
C. 6 uF
D. 180 uF
For a UJT, the intrinsic standoff ratio is
A. always less than 1
B. always greater than 1
C. equal to 1
D. usually around 1k or so

What component of dielectric current is proportional to the rate of accumulation of electric charges
within the dielectric?
A. Reactive current
B. Apparent current
C. Inductive current
D. Absorption current

Find the current i in the circuit shown.

A. 0.334 A
B. 0.394 A
C. 0.424 A
D. 0.454 A

The circuit efficiency of a class A amplifier can be increased by using

A. Low dc power input
B. Direct-coupled load
C. Low-rating transistor
D. Transformer-coupled load

In a phototransistor, the base current is

A. Set by a bias voltage
B. Directly proportional to the light
C. Inversely proportional to the light

If the inductance is decreased, the impedance of the circuit containing a resistor, a capacitor and an
inductor connected in series to an ac source
A. decreases
B. increases
C. decreases or increases
D. decreases, increases or remains the same
Determine the maximum power that can be supplied to a load by source with Vth = 120V and Rth = 2.5
ohms.
A. 5760W
B. 3600W
C. 1520W
D. 1440W

What is automatically compensated in a wattmeter?

A. Line resistance
B. Overdamping
C. Inductive reactance
D. Power factor

Transformer coupling is an example of

A. Direct coupling
B. AC coupling
C. DC coupling
D. Impedance coupling

The junction FET, the control electrode is usually the

A. Source
B. Emitter
C. Drain
D. Gate

Plastic dual-in-line for insertion into sockets has a package suffix code of
A. N
B. P
C. Both A and B
D. J

In nMOS transistor, which operation is for saturation mode?

A. Vgs = 0 and Vgd is high
B. Vgs > Vt, Vgs < Vgc and Vds > Vgs - Vt
C. Vgs > Vt, Vgd = Vgs, and Vds = 0
D. Vgs > Vt, Vgs>Vgc>Vt, and 0<Vds<Vgs-Vt
When current and voltage are in-phase in an ac circuit, the ___________ is equal to zero
A. resistance
B. reactance
C. inductance
D. capacitance

A hot-wire ammeter
A. Measure electrical energy
B. Can measure ac as well as dc
C. Can indicate very low voltages
D. Works only when current flows in one direction

The field-effect transistor (FET)

A. Has three NP-junctions
B. Incorporates a forward-biased junction
C. Depends on the variation of a magnetic field for its operation
D. Depends on the variation of the depletion-layer width reverse voltage for its operation

The power gain of an amplifier

A. Equals output power divided by input power
B. Equals load power
C. Is the same as the voltage gain
D. Is smaller than the voltage gain

In a JFET, as external bias applied to the gate is increased

A. Channel resistance is decreased
B. Drain current is increased
C. Pinch-off voltage is reached at lower values of Id
D. Size of depletion regions is reduced

An ideal amplifier has

A. Noise figure of less than 1 dB
B. Noise factor of unity
C. Output S/N more than input S/N
D. Noise figure of more than 0 dB
Push-pull is almost always used with
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. All of the above

The transistor terminal voltage is consider positive if

A. The terminal is more negative than the common terminal
B. The terminal is more positive than the common terminal
C. The terminal is the output terminal
D. The terminal is connected to P-type material

If all the delta connected resistor are identical, what is the equivalent value of the resistor in WYE
connection?
A. R
B. R/3
C. R/2
D. R/4

The signal handling capacity of an amplifier is high if

A. The operating point is selected near the cut-off region
B. The operating point is selected near the saturation region
C. The operating point is selected near the biasing region
D. The operating point is selected near the operating point

To measure power-supply voltage being used by a circuit, a voltmeter

A. Is placed in series with the circuit that works from the supply
B. Is placed between the positive pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
C. Is placed between the negative pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
D. Is placed in parallel with the circuit that works from the supply

A wire of one kilometer length has a resistance of 20 ohms, if the length is halved, then the new
resistance is ___________ the original resistance
A. half
B. twice
C. one-fourth
D. three times
Which of the following will not cause a major error in an ohmmeter?
A. A small change in the resistance to be measured
B. A small voltage between points under test
C. A slight change in switchable internal resistance
D. A slight error in the range switch selection

When the SCR is OFF, the current in the circuit is

A. exactly zero
B. large leakage current
C. small leakage current
D. thermal current

Which of the following can vary with AC, but not DC?
A. Power
B. Voltage
C. Frequency
D. Magnitude

One of the effects of negative feedback in amplifier is to

A. Increase the noise
B. Decrease the harmonic distortion
C. Decrease the bandwidth
D. Increase the harmonic distortion

In an N-channel JFET, pinchoff occurs when the gate bias is

A. Slight positive
B. Very negative
C. Zero
D. Slight negative

What is the temperature coefficient of resistance of Eureka?

A. Infinity
B. Negative
C. Almost zero
D. Positive
A diac has how many semiconductor layers?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. Five

The rms value of the waveform of the figure is

A. 3.266 A
B. 4 A
C. 2.887 A
D. 1.43 A

The UJT may be used as

A. an amplifier
B. a sawtooth generator
C. a rectifier
D. a multivibrator

The first stage of a preamp is

A. Small signal
B. A tuned RF stage
C. Large signal
D. A dc amplifier

The rate of gain reduction in operational amplifiers.

A. 5 dB per decade (-5dB/decade)
B. 6 dB per decade (-6dB/decade)
C. 10 dB per decade (-10db/decade)
D. 20 dB per decade (-20db/decade)

Process of growing a thin layer of silicon dioxide over a semiconductor.

A. Photolithographic process
B. Isolation
C. Metallization
D. Oxidation
A normally operated SCR has an anode which is ___________ with respect to cathode
A. negative
B. at zero potential
C. positive
D. at infinite potential

In Boolean algebra, a high signal added to another high signal is

A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 11

Transient period is considered over after

A. 5 Tau
B. 100 Tau
C. 1 Tau
D. 6 Tau

To increase the brightness of a desk lamp a student replaces a 50 W light bulb with a 100 W light bulb.
Compared to the 60 W light bulb, the 100 W light bulb has?
A. More resistance and draws more current
B. More resistance and draws less current
C. Less resistance and draws more current
D. Less resistance and draws less current

What is the typical turn-on time of an SCR?

A. 1 us
B. 10 us
C. 5 us
D. 3 us

A wire 50 m in length and 2 mm^2 in cross section has a resistance of 0.56 ohms. A 100-m length of wire
of the same material has a resistance of 2 ohms at the same temperature. Find the diameter of this
wire.
A. 1.0 mm
B. 1.2 mm
C. 1.4 mm
D. 1.8 mm
Which of the following does not affect resistance?
A. Resistivity
B. Mass
C. Cross-sectional area
D. Length

The ac system is preferred to dc system because

A. ac voltage system can be easily changed
B. dc voltage system is not applicable for domestic appliances
C. dc systems are very difficult to control
D. all systems depend on ac supply

The reason why alternating current can induce voltage is

A. It has a high peak value
B. It has a stronger magnetic field than direct current
C. It has a constant magnetic field
D. It has a varying magnetic field

An alternating current whose average value is 1A will produce _____________ 1A dc under similar
conditions
A. less heat than
B. the same heat as
C. more heat than
D. extreme heat than

In an ac circuit with XL and R in series, the

A. voltages across R and XL are in phase
B. voltage across R lags the voltage across XL by 90 degrees
C. voltages across R and XL are 180 degrees out-of-phase
D. voltage across R leads the voltage across XL by 90 degrees

A 4-layer diode turns on when the anode to cathode voltage exceeds

A. 0.7 V
B. The gate voltage
C. The forward-blocking voltage
D. The forward-breakover voltage
Which of the following is the normal way to turn on an SCR?
A. By breakover voltage
B. By appropriate anode current
C. By appropriate cathode current
D. By appropriate gate current

The three terminals of a triac are

A. drain, source, gate
B. two main terminals and a gate terminal
C. cathode, anode, gate
D. anode, source, gate

The impedance of R-C series circuit is 100ohms. If circuit current leads the applied voltage by 60
degrees, the capacitive reactance is ______________.
A. 50 ohms
B. 70.7 ohms
C. 86.6 ohms
D. 200 ohms

In an ac circuit with XL and R in series, the

A. voltages across R and XL are in phase
B. voltage across R lags the voltage across XL by 90 degrees
C. voltages across R and XL are 180 degrees out-of-phase
D. voltage across R leads the voltage across XL by 90 degrees

A multiplexer
A. stores data in multiple bits
B. multiplies four 4-bit words
C. has multiple inputs and a single output
D. has a single input and multiple outputs

When two in-phase sine waves that have identical frequency and amplitude are added together, then
the result is a sine wave with ___________ the amplitude of either.
A. half
B. four times
C. twice
D. one-fourth
Pure metals generally have
A. low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
B. low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
C. high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
D. high conductivity and large temperature coefficient

A diac has how many semiconductor layers?

A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. Five

A frequency synthesizer makes use of

A. An OR gate
B. An octal numbering system
C. The hexadecimal numbering
D. A divider

What is the complex impedance of a circuit with an absolute resistance of 300 ohms?
A. 0 + j300 ohms
B. 0 - j300 ohms
C. 300 + j90 ohms
D. 300 + j0 ohms

If the EMF of one volt is placed across a resistance of two ohms, then the current is:
A. Half an ampere
B. One ampere
C. Two ampere
D. One ohm

Which device exhibits negative resistance region?

A. Diac
B Transistor
C. Triac
D. UJT
A relay coil having a pick up current of 10 mA is connected in series with an inductance. The total
resistance is 100 mH. If 20V DC source is applied at time t=0, at which time will the relay pick up?
A. 6.93 x 10^-5 sec
B. 1 x 10^-3 sec
C. 1 x 10^3 sec
D. 5.13 x 10^-5 sec

Search
 ELECS 3/12/17
If a certain circuit has a current that is lagging the voltage by 45 degrees, then it displays
A. pure inductive reactance
B. resistance and capacitive reactance
C. resistance and inductive reactance
D. pure capacitive reactance

Which is the following units can represent magnetic flux density?

A. The volt-turn
B. The ampere-turn
C. The gauss
D. The gauss-turn

A silicon diode has a maximum allowable junction temperature of 150 C. Find the maximum allowable
power dissipation at 25 C ambient temperature if the diodes thermal resistance is 0.4 C/mW.
A. 238 mW
B. 566 mW
C. 313 mW
D. 117 mW

A positive electric pole

A. Has a deficiency of electrons
B. Has a fewer electrons than a negative pole
C. Has an excess of electrons
D. Has more electrons than the negative pole

The power factor of a certain circuit in which the voltage lags behind the current is 80%. To increase the
power to 100%, it is necessary to add ____________ to the circuit.
A. inductance
B. resistance
C. capacitance
D. impedance
When a charge builds up without a flow of current, the charge is said to be:
A. Inciting
B. Electronic
C. Molecular
D. Static

When a factor of a junction transistor is 0.98, the factor would be equivalent to __________ value of
transistor's beta.
A. 49
B. 20
C. 60
D. 38

A dc electromagnet
A. Has constant polarity
B. Require a core with high retentivity
C. Will not attract or repel a permanent magnet
D. Require a core with low retentivity

The v-i characteristics of a FET is shown in figure. In which region is the device biased for small signal
amplification
A. AB
B. CD
C. BC
D. BD

A long cylindrical solenoid with 200 turns/cm carries a current of 4.0 amps. The diameter of the solenoid
is 0.4 cm and the length is 8.0 cm and the mass of the moon is 7.35E22 kg. What is the magnetic field
inside the solenoid?
A. 0.1005 T
B. 0.0105 T
C. 1.0500 T
D. 10.050 T

In the circuit of figure the function of resistor R and diode D are

A. to limit the current and to protect LED against over voltage
B. to limit the voltage and to protect LED against over current
C. to limit the current and protect LED against reverse breakdown voltage
D. none of the above
Determine how long a battery will last whose rating is 100Ah; 24Volts and will run a 300W electronic
equipment and a 60W light.
A. 3.33 hrs
B. 6.33 hrs
C. 3.67 hrs
D. 6.67 hrs

In the series circuit shown in figure, for series resonance, the value of the coupling coefficient, k will be
A. 0.25
B. 0.1
C. 0.5
D. 1

There are three resistor in parallel, with values of 22 ohms, 27 ohms and 33 ohms. A 12-V battery is
connected across this combination. What is the current drawn by the 33 ohms resistor.
A. 1.36 A
B. 0.82 A
C. 0.99 A
D. 0.37 A

Electron flow assumes charges flow from

A. negative to positive
B. negative to negative
C. positive to negative
D. positive to positive

You have an unlimited supply of 1 W, 100 ohms resistors. You need to get a 100 ohms, 10 W resistor.
This can be done most cheaply by means of series-parallel matrix of:
A. 3 x 3 resistors
B. 4 x 4 resistors
C. 4 x 3 resistors
D. 2 x 5 resistors
If a transistor is operated in such a way that output current flows for 160 degrees of the input signal,
then its is ______________ operation.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class AB

In a series-connected string of holiday ornamental bulbs, if one gets shorted out, which of these is most
likely?
A. All the other bulb will go out
B. The current is the string will go up
C. The current is the string will go down
D. The current is the string will go stay the same

Series resonance occurs when

A. XL=Xc
B. Z=R
C. XL=R
D. Both A and C

The maximum voltage output from a voltage divider

A. Is a fraction of the power supply
B. Depends on the total resistance
C. Is equal to the supply voltage
D. Depends on the ratio of the resistances

The transistor of following figure in Si diode with a base current of 40 uA and Icbo=0, if Vgs=6V,
Re=2kohms and B=90, Ibq=20uA then Rb=
A. 200 kohms
B. 150 kohms
C. 265 kohms
D. 100 kohms

A degree of phase represents:

A. 6.28 cycles
B. 1/6.28 cycles
C. 57.3 cycles
D. 1/360 cycles
The result of rust in electrical (wire) connection is
A. inductance
B. impedance
C. conductance
D. resistance

Two inductors, each of 100 uH, are in series. The coefficient of coupling is 0.40. The net inductance, if
the coil fields reinforce each other, is:
A. 50 uH
B. 200 uH
C. 120 uH
D. 280 uH

What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.6
MHz and Q of 218?
A. 1.65 kHz
B. 16.5 kHz
C. 16.5 MHz
D. 165 kHz

The resistor of 51 ohms, an inductor of 22 uH and a capacitance of 150 pF are in parallel. The frequency
is 1 Mhz. What is the complex impedance, R + jX?
A. 51 - j14.9
B. 46.2 - j14.9
C. 51 + j14.9
D. 46.2 + j14.9

What are the two possible breakdown mechanisms in pn junction diodes?

A. Reverse and breakdown effects
B. Threshold and knee effects
C. Avalanche and forward effects
D. Zener and avalanche effects

In two-phase generators, the electrical displacement between the two phases or windings is
_____________ electrical degrees.
A. 90
B. 180
C. 120
D. 360
Varactor diodes are commonly used
A. as a voltage controlled capacitance
B. as a constant current source
C. as voltage multiplier
D. as a constant voltage source

A coil is supplied with 200V and takes a current of 2A at 45 degrees lagging. The Q of the coil is
A. 1
B. 25
C. 10
D. 100

To amplify dc signals, multistage amplifier uses what coupling?

A. RC
B. Transformer
C. Direct
D. Resistor

A device that can characterize active devices such as transistors and amplifiers using S-parameters, as
long as they are operating in their linear mode of operation.
A. Vector Network analyzer
B. Spectrum analyzer
C. Vectorscope
D. Sweep generator

In order to have more voltage gain from a transistor amplifier the transistor used should have
A. thin collector
B. wide emitter
C. thin base
D. thin emitter

Which of the following will not cause a major error in an ohmmeter?

A. A small voltage between points under test
B. A slight change in switchable internal resistance
C. A small change in the resistance to be measured
D. A slight error in the range switch selection
What is the purpose of the bypass capacitor in a common-emitter amplifier?
A. It increases voltage gain
B. It decreases voltage gain
C. It provides ac grounding
D. No effect in the circuit

Emitter follower is a _____________ circuit.

A. voltage feedback
B. current feedback
C. both voltage and current feedback
D. none of the above

VL = Vc in a series RLC circuit when

A. the value of the impedance is minimum
B. the power factor is zero
C. the current leads the total voltage by 90 degrees
D. the total voltage is zero

The output and input voltages of an emitter follower have a phase difference of ____________.
A. 180 degrees
B. 0 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 270 degrees

The capacitors are considered _______________ in the dc equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier.
A. short
B. open
C. partially short
D. partially open

A small-signal amplifier
A. always has an output signal in the mV range
B. goes into saturation once on each input cycle
C. is always a common-emitter amplifier
D. uses only a small portion of its load line
When the number of free electrons is increased in doped semiconductor , it becomes a/an
_____________ semiconductor.
A. n type
B. pn type
C. p type
D. np type

An OTA is basically
A. Voltage-to-controlled amplifier
B. Current-to-voltage amplifier
C. Current-to-controlled amplifier
D. Voltage-to-voltage amplifier

As applied to a series RLC circuit, bandwidth means

A. the frequency range for maximum power transfer
B. the difference between the highest and lowest frequencies of the oscillator
C. the separation of the half-power points
D. the frequency at which XL = Xc

In a common-emitter amplifier with voltage-divider bias, Rin(base)=68 kohms, R1=33 kohms, and R2=15
kohms. The total input resistance is
A. 68 kohms
B. 22.2 kohms
C. 8.95 kohms
D. 12.3 kohms

At what frequency will an inductor of 5mH have the same reactance as a capacitor of 0.1 uF?
A. 7.12 kHz
B. 7.12 MHz
C. 7.12 Hz
D. 7.12 GHz

The lowest frequency passed by a low-pass filter is

A. 1 Hz
B. 0 Hz
C. 10 Hz
D. Dependent on critical frequency
What is the disadvantage of impedance matching?
A. It gives distorted output
B. It requires a transformer
C. It gives low power output
D. It is expensive

The damping factor of an active filter determines

A. The voltage gain
B. The critical frequency
C. The response characteristic
D. The roll-off rat

Delta to wye or wye to delta transformation technique is applied to a _____________ network.

A. one-terminal
B. three-terminal
C. two-terminal
D. complex

A certain class A power amplifier has a Vcbo=12 V and Icq=1 A. The power output is
A. 6 W
B. 1 W
C. 12 W
D. 0.707 W

The input impedance of an amplifier ____________ when negative current feedback is applied.
A. remains unchanged
B. decreases
C. increases
D. becomes zero

The output of a certain two-supply class B push-pull amplifier has a Vcc of 20 V. If the load resistance is
50 ohms, the value of I(sat) is
A. 5 mA
B. 40 mA
C. 4 mA
D. 0.4 A
What is the purpose of capacitors in a transistor amplifier?
A. To protect the transistor
B. To cool the transistor
C. To couple or bypass ac component
D. To provide biasing

An IGBT is generally used in

A. Low-power applications
B. RF applications
C. High-voltage applications
D. Low-current applications

How many electrons are there in the fourth orbit of a copper atom?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4

In a phototransistor, base current is

A. Set by a bias voltage
B. Inversely proportional to the light
C. Directly proportional to the light
D. Not a factor

In figure, Vbe=0.6 V, B=99, Vcc=20 V, Rb=400 kohms, Rc=5.4 kohms. Then Vc and Ic are
A. 9.3 V and 1.98 mA respectively
B. 4.6 V and 1.98 mA respectively
C. 9.3 V and 0.02 mA respectively
D. 4.6 V and 0.02 mA respectively

A ___________ is like two parallel SCRs having a common gate and connected opposite directions.
A. UJTs
B. PUTs
C. Triacs
D. Diacs
The ratio of W/VA in an ac circuit means
A. power factor
B. quality factor
C. reactive factor
D. load factor

If the angle of incident of a light ray is greater than the critical angle, the light will be
A. Absorbed
B. Amplified
C. Reflection
D. Refraction

How many coulombs are delivered by a storage battery in 24 hours if it is supplying current at the rate
of 3 A?
A. 2.592 x 10^5 C
B. 2.592 x 10^8 C
C. 2.592 x 10^4 C
D. 2.592 x 10^10C

In an RLC series circuit, the circuit frequency is above the resonant frequency, then
A. Xc = XL
B. Xc < XL
C. Xc > XL
D. Z = R

What is the principal characteristic of a zener diode?

A. A constant current under conditions of varying voltage
B. A high forward current rating
C. A constant voltage under conditions of varying current
D. A very high PIV

To measure power supply voltage being by the circuit, a voltmeter:

A. Is placed in series with the circuit that works from the supply
B. Is placed between the negative pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
C. Is placed between the positive pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
D. Is placed in parallel with the circuit that works from the supply
An emitter follower is equivalent to
A. common emitter amplifier
B. common collector amplifier
C. common base amplifier
D. hybrid connection

When a differential amplifier is operated single-ended,

A. the output is grounded
B. one input is grounded and a signal is applied to the other
C. both inputs are connected together
D. the output is not inverted

The collector voltage of a Class B push pull amplifier with Vcc=40 Volts swings down to a minimum of 4
volts. The total power dissipation in both the transistors is 36 watts. Compute the total dc power input.
A. 123.32 W
B. 122.85 W
C. 155.65 W
D. 199.56 W

A device that displays a representation of the signal level in audio equipment.

A. VU meter
B. ESR meter
C. LCR meter
D. Psophometer

When the collector resistor in a common emitter amplifier is increased in value the voltage gain
A. increases
B. remain the same
C. decreases
D. becomes erratic

An XOR gate produces an output only when its two inputs are
A. High
B. different
C. low
D. same
What is usually employed at the output stage of an amplifier?
A. Class A power amplifier
B. Push-pull amplifier
C. Pre-amplifier
D. Differential amplifier

An SCS can be turned off by any of the following except

A. Positive pulse on the anode gate
B. Negative pulse on the cathode gate
C. Reduce anode current above holding value
D. Completely interrupt anode current

The operating point is generally located at ___________ of dc load line in class A operation.
A. the middle
B. cut-off point
C. saturation point
D. end point

A wattmeter shows 57 watts of VA power in a circuit. The resistance is known to be 50 ohms, and the
true power is known to be 40 watts. What is the absolute-value impedance?
A. 50 ohms
B. 71 ohms
C. 57 ohms
D. 65 ohms

The output signal of a CE amplifier is always

A. out of phase with the input signal
B. equal to the input signal
C. in phase with the input signal
D. larger than the input signal

What does HDL stands for

A. Hardware Description Language
B. Hardware Data Language
C. Hardware Data Logic
D. Hardware Date Lullaby
For an P-channel enhancement type MOSFET, determine the drain current if K=0.278 x 10^-3 A/V^2,
Vgs=4 V, Vt=2 V, Voltage equivalent at 27 C = 26 mV.
A. 10 mA
B. 0.751 mA
C. 1.11 mA
D. 46.98 mA

Which of the following does NOT a main CMOS technology?

A. Twin-well process
B. N-well process
C. Triple-well process
D. Quad-well process

What determines the magnitude of electric current?

A. The rate at which electrons are produced
B. The type of material used
C. The current carrying capacity of the circuit
D. The rate at which electrons pass a given point

What is the minimum fan-out of TTL?

A. 2
B. 10
C. 3
D. 20

Synchronous circuits that are synchronized to a specific ____________ signal

A. clock
B. event
C. pulse
D. flop

Which of the following is a way of decreasing mutual inductance?

A. Moving the coils closer
B. Moving the coils apart
C. Decreasing the number of turns of either coil
D. Increasing the number of turns of either coil
The state of JK latch when both signals are " 1 ".
A. No change
B. Reset
C. Toggle
D. Set

Which of the following is not a characteristic of UJT?

A. Intrinsic standoff ratio
B. Negative resistance
C. Peak-point voltage
D. Bilateral conduction

When the net reactance in a series coil-capacitor circuit is zero at frequency f, the nature of its reactance
of frequency 2f is
A. inductive
B. resistive
C. capacitive
D. infinite

An advantage of rheostat over a potentiometer is that

A. A rheostat is more precise
B. A rheostat can handle higher frequencies
C. A rheostat can handle more current
D. A rheostat work better with dc

A linear circuit is one whose parameters

A. change with change in voltage
B. change with change in current
C. do not change with voltage and current
D. change with change in voltage and current

Which of the following does NOT have rail-to-rail output?

A. Static CMOS
B. PPL
C. Pseudo-nMos
D. CMOSTG
Photoconductive effect means
A. the decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction
B. the increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction
C. the conversion of photonic energy to electromagnetic energy
D. the conversion of an electromagnetic energy to photonic energy

An ac series circuit is composed of a resistance of 20 ohms, inductive reactance of 40 ohms, and a

capacitive reactance of 15 ohms. If a current of 1 ampere is flowing, what is the applied voltage?
A. 320 V
B. 220 V
C. 32 V
D. 22 V

In an emitter follower, we employ __________ negative current feedback.

A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 25%

What happens to photoconductive material when light strikes on it?

A. The conductivity of the material decreases
B. Nothing important happens
C. The conductivity of the material stays the same
D. The conductivity of the material increases

The gain of an amplifier without feedback is 50 whereas with negative voltage feedback, it falls to 25. If
due to ageing, the amplifier gain falls to 40, find the percentage reduction in stage gain with negative
feedback.
A. 20%
B. 11.2%
C. 14.5%
D. 9.4%

What is the maximum permissible number of electrons in the third orbit?

A. 18
B. 32
C. 8
D. 2
Which of these is not a required condition for a balanced system?
A. Ia + Ib + Ic = 0
B. Van + Vbn + Vcn = 0
C. source voltages are 120 degrees out of phase with each other
D. load impedances for the three phases are equal

What is the reason why a common collector is used for impedance matching?
A. Its output impedance is very high
B. Its output impedance is very low
C. Its input impedance is very low
D. Its input impedance is very high

The state of SR latch when both signals are " 1 "

A. Hold state
B. Set
C. Reset
D. Not allowed

Which of the following is NOT one of the three distinct regions in the characteristic curve of a diode?
A. Forward bias region
B. Reverse bias region
C. Breakdown region
D. Saturation region

The input resistance of a common-base amplifier is

A. very low
B. very high
C. the same as a CE
D. the same as a CC

The charging of a capacitor through a resistance obeys

A. exponential law
B. linear law
C. logarithmic law
D. square law
 ELECS 4/7/17
A moving system force in analog instruments which causes the moving system to deflect from its zero
position.
A. Deflecting force
B. Damping force
C. Return-to-zero force
D. Controlling force

Two RC coupled amplifiers are connected to form a 2 stage amplifier. If the lower and upper cutoff
frequencies of each individual amplifier respectively are 100 Hz and 20 kHz, what these frequencies are
for the 2 stage amplifier?
A. 153.5 Hz and 12.3 kHz
B. 145.5 Hz and 12.8 kHz
C. 153.5 Hz and 11.3 kHz
D. 155.5 Hz and 12.8 kHz

Asynchronous circuits has no __________ signal

A. clock
B. event
C. pulse
D. flop

Which of the following types of routine charges follows the nameplate data in restoring a battery to its
charged condition during the ordinary cycle of operation?
A. Initial
B. Normal
C. Floating
D. Fast

The geomagnetic field

A. Is what makes a compass work
B. Runs exactly through a geomagnetic pole
C. Is what makes an electromagnetic work
D. Makes the earth like a huge horseshoe magnet
What is/are the purpose(s) of the PN junction diode?
A. To rectify only
B. To rectify and amplify
C. To amplify only
D. To switch

A vector is a quantity that has a

A. Magnitude and direction
B. Resistance and inductance
C. Resistance and reactance
D. Inductance and reactance

What are the majority current carriers in a PNP transistor?

A. Electrons
B. N-type
C. Holes
D. PN-type

The coefficient of coupling between two coils is a measure of what factor?

A. The turns ratio of the coils
B. The distance between the coils
C. The relative positive of the coils
D. The magnetic flux ratio linking the coils

The state of SR latch when both signals are " 0 ".

A. No change
B. Set
C. Reset
D. Not allowed

Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the oscillating frequency of an LC oscillator?
A. f=0.4/(2piLC)^2
B. f=1/(2pi(LC)^2
C. f=1/(2piRLC)
D. f=1/(2pi(LC)^1/2)
Disc is made of what material in eddy current damping?
A. Conductor and non-magnetic material
B. Conductor and magnetic material
C. Non-conductor and non-magnetic material
D. Non-conductor and magnetic material

The transformer has self-inductances of 1H and 0.60H.

One series connection of the windings results in total inductance of 1H. What is the coefficient of
coupling?
A. 0.387
B. 0.347
C. 0.407
D. 0.430

Which of the following is four-layer diode with an anode gate and a cathode gate?
A. SCS
B. SBS
C. SCR
D. SUS

A moving system force in analog instruments which ensures that the deflection of the pointer for a given
value of measured quantity always has the same value.
A. Damping force
B. Controlling force
C. NRZ force
D. Deflecting force

On combinational circuit design, which of the following do not belong to Sense-Amplifier Circuits?
A. Dual-Rail Domino
B. Sample Set Differential Logic
C. Differential Split-Level
D. Differential Current Switch Logic

What process takes place within the semiconductor to cause hole flow?
A. The breaking of covalent bonds
B. The combining of valence bands
C. The flexing of the material
D. The splitting of atoms
Which of the following types of capacitors are referred to as self-healing?
A. Ceramic
B. Oil
C. Paper
D. Mica

Electrons pass to the right through a wire cross section at the rate of 5.2 x 10^21 electrons per minute.
What is the current in the wire?
A. 13.9 A
B. 12.9 A
C. 13.3 A
D. 14.3 A

Voltage leads current in which of the following types of circuits?

A. Resistive
B. Capacitive
C. Both A and B above
D. Inductive

An ac voltage of 350 volts effective can be safely applied to a capacitor with which of the following
working voltages?
A. 550 volts
B. 350 volts
C. 400 volts
D. 250 volts

What type of dielectric is least sensitive to power dielectric-hysteresis losses?

A. Pure water
B. Vacuum
C. Air
D. Mica

How are fixed capacitors classified?

A. By their plate size
B. By their dielectric materials
C. By the thickness of their dielectric materials
D. By the thickness of their conductors
Lines of magnetic flux are said to originate
A. In charge carriers
B. Where the lines converge to a point
C. At a north magnetic pole
D. In atoms of ferromagnetic materials

For normal operation of a transistor, what is the bias of the emitter-base junction and base-collector
junction?
A. Forward; reverse
B. Reverse; forward
C. Forward; forward
D. Reverse; reverse

The number of protons in the nucleus of an element is the:

A. Electron number
B. Valence number
C. Atomic number
D. Proton number

What determines whether a substance is an insulator, semi-conductor, or conductor?

A. The separation between the valence and forbidden bands
B. The separation between the conduction and valence bands
C. The separation between the conduction and forbidden bands
D. The separation between the forbidden band and the energy gap

A charge atom is known as:

A. A molecule
B. An ion
C. An isotope
D. An electron

What are the two junctions of a transistor?

A. Emitter-base and emitter-collector
B. Emitter-collector and base-collector
C. Emitter-base and collector-emitter
D. Emitter-base and base-collector
How long can 12V car battery supply 240A to a starter motor if the battery has 6 x 10^6 J of chemical
energy that can be converted to electrical energy?
A. 31.1 min
B. 34.3 min
C. 33.3 min
D. 34.7 min

A Wheatstone bridge is balanced if

A. the ratio of resistors on one side of the bridge is one while the ratio of resistors on the other side is
infinity
B. the ratio of resistors on one side of the bridge is greater than the ratio of resistors on the other side
C. the ratio of resistors on one side of the bridge equals the ratio of resistors on the other side
D. the bridge uses identical resistors

A short circuit across a current source draws 15A. If a 10 ohms resistor across the source draws 13A,
what is the internal resistance of the source?
A. 55 ohms
B. 65 ohms
C. 60 ohms
D. 70 ohms

Electrons are never found in which of the following bands?

A. Energy band
B. Forbidden band
C. Valence band
D. Conduction band

A 90A current flows into two parallel resistors having resistance of 12ohms and 24ohms. Find the
current in the 24ohms resistor.
A. 24 A
B. 60 A
C. 30 A
D. 90 A

Find the Thevenin equivalent circuit at terminal a and b.

A. Vth=100 V, Rth=500ohms
B. Vth=150 V, Rth=400ohms
C. Vth=200 V, Rth=400ohms
D. Vth=150 V, Rth=500ohms
In a 208V three-phase circuit a balance delta load absorbs 2kW at a 0.8 leading power factor. Find the
phase impedance.
A. 48.1 <36.9ohms
B. 49.9 <36.9ohms
C. 50.5 <-36.9ohms
D. 51.9 <-36.9ohms

If a circuit has an input admittance of 40 + j20 and the applied voltage of 180 V, what is the power
factor?
A. 0.922 leading
B. 0.894 leading
C. 0.894 lagging
D. 0.922 lagging

If the waves has the same frequency and the same phase, the composite wave:
A. Has a magnitude equal to the difference between the two originals
B. Has a magnitude equal to the sum of the two originals
C. Is a complex, with the same frequency of the original
D. Is zero

As a frequency of an AC wave gets lower, the value of XL for particular coil:

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same
D. Depends on the voltage

The formula 2pifL is used to determine what electrical quantity?

A. Resistance
B. Inductance
C. Counterreaction
D. Inductive reactance

What is floating charge?

A. Used in emergency only
B. Used periodically as part of a maintenance routine
C. Used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle
D. Used after electrolyte is added to a dry shipped battery
An autotransformer:
A. Work automatically
B. Has a center-tapped secondary
C. Has one tapped winding
D. Is useful only for impedance matching

One of the most sensitive elements of semiconductor materials is galena. Galena is a crystalline form of
what material?
A. Krypton
B. Strontium
C. Bismuth
D. Lead sulfide

All voltmeters except one of the following are operated by the passage of current.
A. Moving-iron
B. Dynamometer
C. Electrostatic
D. Permanent-magnet moving coil

A material with a high dielectric constant:

A. Acts to decrease capacitance per unit volume
B. Has no net effect on capacitance
C. Acts to increase capacitance per unit volume
D. Cause a capacitance to become polarize

To flush a hydrometer, which of the following liquids should be used?

A. Sulfuric acid
B. Salt water
C. Fresh water
D. A solution of baking soda and water

A device that measure illuminances by using the light sensor of the device.
A. VU meter
B. ESR meter
C. Lux meter
D. Psophometer
At some potential, as you increase the reverse bias voltage on a PN junction, the reverse current
increases very rapidly. What electronic term is given to this voltage potential?
A. Breakdown voltage
B. Forward-bias
C. Reverse-bias
D. Thermal runaway

A device that are commonly used to test the frequency response of electronic filter circuits.
A. Vector Network analyzer
B. Spectrum analyzer
C. Vectorscope
D. Sweep generator

After the junction recombination process has reached equilibrium, what is the area that surrounds the
junction called?
A. The anode
B. The free ion space
C. The depletion region
D. The electrostatic field

These are current measurement without breaking circuits can be used for voltage, temperature and
other measurements.
A. LCR meter
B. Clamp meters
C. EMF meter
D. Psophometer

A phase difference of 540 degrees would more often be spoken as

A. An offset of more than one cycle
B. Phase opposition
C. A cycle and a half
D. 1.5 Hz

A volume-enclosing group of atoms that can be used to describe the lattice by repeated translations.
A. Unit cell
B. Lattice
C. Lattice points
D. Primitive cell
What are the majority current carriers in the PNP transistor and the NPN transistor?
A. Holes; holes
B. Holes; electrons
C. Elements; holes
D. Electrons; electrons

The smallest possible unit cell

A. Face Center Cubic
B. Simple Cubic Cell
C. Primitive Cell
D. Body Center Cubic Cell

Capacitance and inductance in a circuit are similar in which of the following ways?
A. Both oppose current
B. Both aid voltage
C. Both cause the storage of energy
D. Both prevent the storage of energy

The value of negative feedback fraction is always ___________.

A. less than 1
B. more than 1
C. equal to 1
D. none of the above

A voltage applied to a PN junction so that it will increase the junction barrier and offer a high resistance
to current flow is called what type of bias?
A. Direct
B. Reverse
C. Forward
D. Indirect

For enhancement mode MOSFET, Vgs is always

A. negative
B. positive
C. zero
D. dependent on the application of the device
Which of the following is a characteristic of the Zener diode?
A. A PN-junction diode that operates in the reverse-bias breakdown region
B. A PN-junction diode that uses the avalanche effect
C. A PN-junction diode that uses the Zener effect
D. Each of the above

For an p channel JFET, Vgs may never be

A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Zero
D. Dependent on the application of the device

What is the overall electrical charge of the N-material in a semiconductor?

A. Zero
B. Some negative value
C. Some positive value
D. Depending upon the balance of electrons it will be positive or negative

Which of these does not satisfy D-MOSFET depletion mode operation?

A. When Vgs = 0V, Id = Idss
B. When Vgs < 0V, Id < Idss
C. When Vgs > 0V, Id > Id
D. When Vgs < Vt, Idss = 0

An amplifier exhibits distortion in the form of voltage fluctuations of ~ 10%. These fluctuations are to be
restricted to ~ 1% by incorporating negative feedback in the amplifier circuit. If ultimate gain is desired
to be 120, what should be the open loop gain of the amplifier?
A. 2400
B. 600
C. 1200
D. 120

Pierce oscillator is a derivative of the __________.

A. Colpitts oscillator
B. Armstrong oscillator
C. Clapp oscillator
D. Phase-shift oscillator
Capacitance is defined as the property of a circuit that
A. opposes a change in voltage
B. aids a change in voltage
C. opposes a change in current
D. aids a change in current

When a differential amplifier is operated single-ended

A. the output is grounded
B. one input is grounded and a signal is applied to the other
C. both inputs are connected together
D. the output is not inverted

From the op-amp circuit, calculate Vo.

A. -12 V
B. -8 V
C. -10 V
D. -14 V

A film of material with a thickness that is at least 10 times greater than the mean free path of an
electron in that material.
A. Thin film
B. Thick film
C. Vacuum evaporation film
D. Hybrid microcircuit

The device that may convert the captured data into timing diagrams, protocol decodes, state machine
traces, assembly language, or may correlate assembly with source-level software.
A. Oscilloscope
B. Logic analyzer
C. RF meter
D. Spectrum analyzer

What is initial charge?

A. Used in emergency only
B. Used periodically as part of a maintenance routine
C. Used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle
D. Used after electrolyte is added to a dry shipped battery
All are through-hole packages types of packages except
A. Ceramic package
B. Dual in-line package
C. Zig-zag in-line package
D. Dual in-line package

Which, if any, of the following conditions may cause a capacitor to suffer power losses?
A. Dielectric hysteresis
B. Plate loading
C. Plate heating
D. None of the above

On combinational circuit design, which of the following have dynamic nodes?

A. Pseudo-nMOS
B. Complementary Pass Transistor Logic
C. LEAP
D. Domino

The state of clocked JK flip-flop when Q=1, J=1 and K=0 is

A. no change
B. low
C. high
D. 0

What is the other term thermoelectric effect?

A. Seebeck effect
B. Hall effect
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Thermal effect

________________ is called a astable multivibrator circuit

A. an NAND gate
B. a flip-flop
C. an XOR gate
D. a clock
B. a flip-flop
One or the other input can be true for the output to be true.
A. AND
B. OR
C. NOR
D. XNOR

A NAND gate is on only when all its inputs are

A. on
B. high
C. positive
D. off

In IGBT, the saturation voltage is

A. Low
B. High
C. Medium
D. Very High

What is a three terminal device used to control large current to a load?

A. SCR
B. GTO
C. SCS
D. Thyristor

A four-layer semiconductor device that conducts current in one direction when activated by sufficient
amount of light.
A. Optical coupler
B. Photodarlington
C. Phototransistor
D. LASCR

What determines the direction of rotation of a dc motor?

A. The type of armature
B. The method of excitation
C. The number of armature coils
D. The polarity of armature current and direction of magnetic flux
The characteristic of UJT that determines its turn-on point.
A. Standoff ratio
B. DC current ratio
C. Trigger current
D. Transfer gain

What is equalizing charge?

A. Used in emergency only
B. Used periodically as part of a maintenance routine
C. Used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle
D. Used after electrolyte is added to a dry shipped battery

An IGBT is generally used in

A. Low-power applications
B. RF applications
C. High-power applications
D. Low-current applications

What is fast charge?

A. Used in emergency only
B. Used periodically as part of a maintenance routine
C. Used to keep a battery at full charge while the battery is idle
D. Used after electrolyte is added to a dry shipped battery

What is the common name for manganese dioxide-alkaline-zinc cell?

A. Manganese-dioxide cell
B. Long-life cell
C. Alkaline cell
D. Moz cell

Which of the following factors should be considered when selecting a primary cell as a power source?
A. Power requirement
B. Type of electrolyte used
C. Container material
D. All of the above
Of the following types of cells, which one is a primary cell?
A. Nickel cadmium
B. Silver zinc
C. Lithium organic
D. IDK

Find the voltage (V), if the current (I) of the source is 3A

a. 155.65V

When you use the right-hand rule for motors, what quantity is indicated by the extended forefinger?
A. Direction of flux North to South
B. IDK
C. Direction of current
D. Direction of motion

What is basically a two-terminal parallel-inverse combination of semiconductor layers that permits

triggering in either direction?
A. Diac
B. Quadrac
C. Triac
D. Shockley diode

What is the typical value of the innerbase resistance of UJTs?

A. 20 kohms
B. 4 kohms
C. Between 4 to 4 kohms
D. Between 4 to 10 kohms

Which thyristor conducts current in both directions when turned on?

A. Diac
B. Quadrac
C. SCR
D. SCS
The pointer of an indicating instrument is generally made of
A. copper
B. aluminum
C. silver
D. gold

The time interval that a waveform is high (or low) is the ___________ of the signal.
A. pulse width
B. pulse position
C. pulse length
D. duty cycle

An amplifier has a current gain of 240 and input impedance of 15 kohms without feedback. If negative
current feedback (mi=0.015) is applied, what will be the input impedance of the amplifier?
A. 3.26 kohms
B. 3.82 kohms
C. 2.26 kohms
D. 3.62 kohms

The pointer of an indicating instrument is in the final deflected position, the ___________ is zero.
A. deflecting torque
B. damping torque
C. controlling torque
D. frictional

When R=0 in the series RLC circuit, but the net reactance is not zero, the impedance vector:
A. Always points straight up
B. Always points straight down
C. Always points straight towards the right
D. None of the above
 OT5
1. The different sound of the musical instrumentations primarily the result of
A. Differences in frequency
B. Differences in amplitude
C. Differences in wave shape
D. Differences in phase

2. Sulphation in a lead-acid battery occur due to

A. Trickle charging
B. Incomplete charging
C. Heavy discharging
D. Fast charging

3. A three-terminal monolithic IC regulator can be used as

A. an adjustable output voltage regulator alone
B. an adjustable output voltage regulator and a current regulator
C. a current regulator and a power switch
D. a current regulator alone

4. The meter movement in an illumination meter measures

A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Power
D. Energy

5. The amplifier with the conduction angle for the transistor is significantly less than 180 degrees:
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

6. The measure of electric charge stored in this element is called

A. Resistance
B. Inductance
C. Susceptance
D. Capacitance

7. Which of the following is not a basic element of a transformer?

A. Core
B. Primary winding
C. Secondary winding
D. Mutual flux

8. Relative permeability equation is

A. μr = μ / μ 0
B. μr = μ x μ 0
C. μr = μ0 / μ
D. μr = magnetic susceptibility - 1
9. Electromagnet used to generate a magnetic field in an electro-magnetic machine, typically a rotating electrical machine
A. A solenoid
B. A commutator
C. An armature coil
D. A field coil

10. Moving iron instruments can be used for measuring:

A. Direct currents and voltages
B. Alternating currents and voltages
C. Radio frequency currents
D. Both A and B

11. Lap winding is suitable for _____ current, _____ voltage dc generators
A. high, low
B. low, high
C. low, low
D. high, high

12. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of frequency 50 Hz is 10 ohms. If frequency is increased
to 100 Hz, reactance becomes _____ ohm.
A. 20
B. 5
C. 2.5
D. 40

13. The value that a circuit has attained after it has long been switched is called
A. Steady state value
B. Transient value
C. Time constant value
D. Leakage value

14. A gigabyte is a unit commonly used as a measure of

A. Data access time
B. Data transfer speed
C. Data storage capacity
D. Data communications accuracy

15. If in the case of a certain dc armature, the number of commutator segments is found either one less or more than the
number of slots, the armature must be having a simplex _____ winding.
A. Wave
B. Lap
C. Frog leg
D. Multielement

16. Which device can be used to increase voltage from a source of direct current?
A. Induction coil
B. Generator
C. Electroscope
D. Mass spectrometer
17. A phasor current 25∠40º has complex frequency s = -2 + j3s-1. What is the magnitude of i(t) at t=0.20s?
A. 4.51 A
B. 4.91 A
C. 4.21 A
D. 4.71 A

18. Obtain the current I in the network shown:

A. -10 A
B. -12 A
C. -11 A
D. -13 A

19. The damping force act on the moving system of an indicating instrument only when it is:
A. Moving
B. Stationary
C. Near its full deflection
D. Just starting to move

20. The electric energy required to raise the temperature of a given amount of water is 1,000 kWh. If heat losses are 25%,
the total heating energy required is _____ kWh.
A. 1,500
B. 1,250
C. 1,333
D. 1,000

21. If X and Y are both high, what is the state of X NAND Y?

A. Not enough information
B. Low
C. High
D. This logic statement makes no sense

22. Work equal to 136.0 joules is expended in moving 8.5x1018 electron s between two points in an electric circuit. What
potential difference does this establish between the two points?
A. 50 V
B. 80 V
C. 100 V
D. 120 V
23. Permanent-magnet moving-coil ammeter have uniform scales because:
A. Of eddy current damping
B. They are spring-controlled
C. Their deflecting torque varies directly as current
D. Both B and C

24. Which of the following is zero inside a charged conducting sphere?

A. Potential
B. Electric intensity
C. Both A and B
D. Both B and C

25. The force applied to an object moving in the x direction varies according to F = 12 / x2 (N). Find the work done in the
interval 1m ≤ x ≤ 3m.
A. 8 J
B. 10 J
C. 12 J
D. 24 J

26. The inductance of a coil can be continuously varied by varying:

A. The frequency
B. The net core permeability
C. The wavelength
D. The voltage across the coil

27. The efficiency of the generator:

A. Depends on the driving power source
B. Is equal to the output power divided by driving power
C. Is equal to driving voltage divided output voltage
D. Is equal to driving current divided output current

28. To measure power-supply voltage being used by the circuit, the voltmeter:
A. Is placed in series with the circuit that work from the supply
B. Is placed between the negative pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
C. Is placed between the positive pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
D. Is placed in parallel with the circuit that works from the supply

29. In a low-pass filter, the cutoff frequency is represented by the point where the output voltage is reduced to _____
percent of the input voltage
A. 50
B. 70.7
C. 63.2
D. 33.3x

30. Supposed a certain current in a galvanometer causes the needle to deflect 20 degrees, then the current is doubled. The
needle deflection:
A. Will reverse direction
B. Will decrease
C. Will stay the same
D. Will increase
31. A common-base circuit is commonly employed as:
A. A microwave oscillator
B. A low-pass filter
C. A radio-frequency power amplifier
D. A noise generator

32. The meter that is suitable for only direct current measurements is:
A. Moving-iron type
B. Permanent-magnet type
C. Electrodynamic type
D. Hot-wire type

33. As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a nickel-iron cell is less due to its:
A. Lower emf
B. Smaller quantity of electrolyte used
C. Higher internal resistance
D. Compactness

34. The charging of a capacitor through a resistance follows _____.

A. Linear law
B. Square law
C. Exponential law
D. Kirchoff’s law

35. What bridge is used for measuring an unknown inductance in terms of a known capacitance and resistance?
A. Maxwell’s L/C
B. Hay’s
C. Owen
D. Anderson

36. Peak values are always:

A. Greater than or equal to average values
B. Less than average values
C. Less than or equal to average values
D. Fluctuating

37. Heaviside-Campbell Equal Ratio bridge is used for measuring _____.

A. Self-inductance in terms of mutual inductance
B. Capacitance in terms of inductance
C. Dielectric loss of an imperfect capacitor
D. Phase angle of a coil

38. It is basically a non-linear switching amplifier.

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
39. The ratio of Ah efficiency to Wh efficiency of a lead-acid cell is:
A. Always less than one
B. Just one
C. Always greater than one
D. Either A or B

40. A varactor diode

A. Is mechanically flexible
B. Has high power output
C. Can produce different waveforms
D. Is good for use in frequency synthesizer

41. When the output voltage level of a filter decreases by

-3dB, its absolute value changes by a factor of:
A. 20.5
B. 1 / 20.5
C. 2
D. ½

42. The configuration most often used for matching a high input impedance to a low output impedance puts signal ground
at:
A. The emitter
B. The base
C. The collector
D. Any point; it doesn’t matter

43. If X is high and Y is low, what is the state of X NOT Y?

A. Not enough information
B. Low
C. High
D. This logic statement makes no sense

44. The bandwidth of an amplifier may be increased by:

A. Decreasing the capacitance of it bypass capacitors
B. Minimizing its stray capacitances
C. Increasing input signal frequency
D. Cancelling it

45. Which of the following circuit generally has the greatest gain?
A. Common source
B. Common gate
C. Common drain
D. It depends only on bias, not on which electrode is grounded

46. The extent to which an oscillator maintains a constant frequency is called:

A. Sensitivity
B. Stability
C. Drift ratio
D. Gala
47. Which of the IC is used to determine whether the voltage levels are the same or not?
A. An op-amp
B. A timer
C. A comparator
D. A multiplexer/demultiplexer

48. Once a Diac is conducting, the only way to turn it off is with:
A. A negative gate voltage
B. Breakover
C. A positive gate voltage, low-current dropout
D. Low-current dropout

49. During the charging of a lead-acid cell:

A. Its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in color
B. Its voltage increases
C. It gives out energy
D. Specific gravity of H2SO4

50. A disadvantage of a MOS component is that:

A. It is easily damaged by static electricity
B. It needs a high input voltage
C. It draws a large amount of current
D. It produces a great deal of electrical noise

51. The major advantage of Silicon-on-Insulator are the following except:

A. Nominals threshold voltage must be very high
B. High diffusion capacitance
C. Lower diffusion capacitance
D. Lower dynamic power consumption

52. Inside a conducting sphere, _____ remains constant.

A. Electric flux
B. Electric intensity
C. Charge
D. Potential

53. The current consists mainly of holes when a JFET:

A. Has a P-type channel
B. Is forward-biased
C. Is reversed-biased
D. Is zero-biased

54. An opto-isolator consists of:

A. Two Zener diodes back-to-back
B. A LED and a photodiode
C. Two NPN transistor in series
D. A PNP transistor followed by NPN transistor
55. The active materials of a nickel-iron battery are:
A. Nickel hydroxide
B. Powdered iron and its oxides
C. 21% solution of caustic potash
D. All of the above

56. Electrical energy is converted to heat at the rate of 1kJ/min is a resistor which has 280C/min passing through. What
is the voltage difference across the resistor terminals?
A. 3.8 V
B. 3.6 V
C. 0.3 V
D. 280 kV

57. Transconductance is a ratio of:

A. A change in drain voltage to a change in source voltage
B. A change in gate current to a change in source voltage
C. A change in drain current to a change in gate voltage
D. A change in gate current to a change in drain voltage

58. Data sent along a single line, one bit after another, is called:
A. Serial
B. Asynchronous
C. Synchronous
D. Parallel

59. In positive-edge is triggering, the change of state occurs when:

A. The pulse level is high
B. The pulse level is going from high to low
C. The pulse level is going from low to high
D. The pulse level is low

60. The bipolar transistors or JFETs in a multivibrator are usually connected in:
A. Class B
B. A common-emitter or common-source arrangement
C. Class C
D. A common-collector or common-drain arrangement

61. Using voltage division, calculate V1 and V2 in the network shown below:

A. V1 = 11.4V, V2 = 71.1V
B. V1 = 11.4V, V2 = 73.1V
C. V1 = 12.4V, V2 = 73.1V
D. V1 = 11.4V, V2 = 72.1V
62. An IGBT is generally used in:
A. High-voltage application
B. RF application
C. Low-power application
D. Low-current application

63. A voltage of 10V is applied at t = 0 to a series RLC circuit with R=5Ω, L=0.1H, C=500 microfarad. Find the transient
voltage across the resistance.
A. 3.60e-30tsin(139)t V
B. 3.20e-20tsin(139)t V
C. -3.60e-20tsin(139)t V
D. 3.60e-20tsin(139)t V

64. If a 220V heater is used on 110V supply, heat produced by it will be _____ as much.
A. One-half
B. Twice
C. One-fourth
D. Four times

65. Shifting the phase of the ac sine wave by 90 degrees is the same thing as:
A. Moving it to the right or left by a full cycle
B. Moving it to the right or left by 180
C. Moving it to the right or left by a ¼ cycle
D. Turning it upside-down

66. For a given line voltage, four heating coils will produce maximum heat when connected:
A. All in parallel
B. All in series
C. With two parallel pairs in series
D. One pair in parallel with the other two in series

67. The unit of absolute permittivity of a medium is:

A. Joule/coulomb
B. Newton-meter
C. Farad/meter
D. Farad/coulomb

68. In practice, Earth is chosen in a place of zero electric potential because it:
A. Is non-conducting
B. Is easily available
C. Keeps losing and gaining electric charge every day
D. Has almost constant potential

69. A capacitor consists of two:

A. Insulation separated by dielectric
B. Conductors separated by dielectric
C. Ceramic plates and one mica disc
D. Silver-coated insulators
70. The capacitance of a capacitor is not influenced by:
A. Plate thickness
B. Plate area
C. Plate separation
D. Nature of the dielectric

71. Relative permeability of vacuum is:

A. 4π x 10-7 H/m
B. 1 H/m
C. 1
D. ¼π

72. For the network shown in below, obtain the mesh current I3.

A. 5A
B. 1A
C. 0.5 A
D. 1.5 A

73. Which is the wrong statement? The magnetizing force at the center of a circular coil varies.
A. Directly as the number of its turns
B. Directly as the current
C. Directly as its radius
D. Inversely as its radius

74. Active materials of a lead-acid cell are:

A. Lead peroxide
B. Sponge lead
C. Dilute sulfuric acid
D. All of the above

75. The unit of electric intensity is:

A. Joule/coulomb
B. Newton/coulomb
C. Volt/meter
D. Both B and C

76. In a low-pass filter, the cutoff frequency is represented by the point where the output voltage is reduced to _____
percent of the input voltage.
A. 50
B. 70.7
C. 63.2
D. 33.3
77. The commercial efficiency of a shunt generator is maximum when its variable loss equals _____ loss.
A. Constant
B. Stray
C. Iron
D. Friction and windage

78. A 25.0 Ω resistance has a voltage v=150sin(377)t(V). Find the average power pavg over one cycle.
A. 450 W P=(0.5)(150)(150/25)
B. 400 W
C. 500 W
D. 430 W

79. As compared to constant-current system, the constant-voltage system of charging a lead-acid cell has the advantage
of:
A. Avoiding excessive gassing
B. Reducing time of charging
C. Increasing cell capacity
D. Both B and C

80. During charging and discharging of a nickel-iron cell:

A. Its emf remains constant
B. Water is neither formed nor absorbed
C. Corrosive fumes are produced
D. Nickel hydroxide remains unsplit

81. The kWh meter can be classified as a/an _____ instrument.

A. Deflecting
B. Digital
C. Recording
D. Indicating

82. It can create distortion at the zero-crossing point of the waveform due to the transistors dead band of input base
voltages.
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

83. The moving system of an indicating type of electrical instrument is subjected to:
A. A deflecting torque
B. A controlling torque
C. A damping torque
D. All of the above

84. The minimum input current that can be used to turn on a thyristor is called the:
A. Switching current
B. Breakdown current
C. Low-current dropout current
D. Holding current
85. The most efficient form of damping employed in electrical instrument is:
A. Air friction
B. Fluid friction
C. Eddy current
D. None of the above

86. If load on a dc shunt motor is increased, its speed is decreased due primarily to:
A. Increase in its flux
B. Decrease in back emf
C. Increase in armature current
D. Increase in brush drop

87. A unit of overall magnetic field quantity is the:

A. Maxwell (A/m)
B. Gauss
C. Tesla
D. Ampere-turn

88. Maxwell-Wien Bridge is used for measuring _____.

A. Capacitance
B. Dielectric loss
C. Inductance
D. Phase angle

89. Maxwell’s L/C bridge is so called because:

A. It employs L and C in two arms
B. Ratio L/C remains constant
C. For balance, it uses two opposite impedances in opposite arms
D. Balance as obtained when L=C

90. The most useful ac bridge for comparing capacitances of two air capacitances is _____ bridge.
A. Schering
B. De Sauty
C. Wien series
D. Wien parallel

91. When output voltage level of a filter decreases by -3 dB, its absolute value changes by a factor of:
A. 20.5
B. 1 / 20.5
C. 2
D. ½

92. The frequency corresponding to half-power point on the response curve of a filter is known as _____.
A. Cutoff
B. Upper
C. Lower
D. Roll-off
93. In aMOS transistor, which operation is for cut-off mode?
A. Vgs > Vt, Vgs < Vgd, and Vds > Vgs – Vt
B. Vgs > Vt, Vgd = Vgs, and Vds = 0
C. Vgs > Vt, Vgs > Vgd > Vt, and 0 < Vds < Vgs – Vt
D. Vgs < Vt

94. The frequency corresponding to half-power point on the response curve of a filter is known as _____.
A. Cutoff
B. Upper
C. Lower
D. Roll-off

95. An audio oscillator that uses two amplifiers is cascaded, with positive feedback from the output of second stage to the
first stage, is known aquarius as a:
A. Colpitts circuit
B. Hartly circuit
C. Clap circuit
D. Multivibrator

96. The sole purpose of a commutator in a dc generator is to:

A. Increase output voltage
B. Reduce sparking of brushes
C. Provide smoother output
D. Convert the induced ac into dc

97. A time is zero during a current growth in an inductance circuit of current rise is 300 amp/sec when 120V is suddenly
applied. What is the inductance of the circuit?
A. 0.04 H
B. 0.4 H = (120/300)
C. 4 mH
D. 4 H

98. The series field of a short-shunt dc generator is excited by _____ currents.

A. Shunt
B. Armature
C. Load
D. External

99. In small dc machines, armature slots are sometimes not made axial but are skewed. Though skewing makes winding
a little more difficult, yet it results in:
A. Quieter operation
B. Slight decrease in losses
C. Saving of copper
D. Both A and B

100. The critical resistance of the dc generator is the resistance of:

A. Armature
B. Field
C. Load
D. Brushes
 OT9
1. If three shielded 100 mH coils are connected in series, what is the total effective inductance?.
A. 67.777 mH
B. 100 mH
C. 33.333 mH
D. 300 mH *

2. The dc load current in a bridge rectifier circuit is 10 mA. What is the dc load current through each diode?
A. 40 mA
B. 20 mA
C. 10 mA
D. 5 mA *

3. An RL series circuit has an impedance of 20 Ω when frequency is 25 Hz. At f= 50 Hz, the impedance will be
A. 40 Ω
B. 20 Ω
C. less than 40  but more than 20 Ω *
D. less than 20  but more than 10 Ω

4. Determine the average voltage (Vave) output of a full wave rectifier with an output of 100 volts peak.
A. 14.14 V
B. 6.37 V
C. 141.4 V
D. 63.7 V *

5. A current is flowing through a conductor with non-uniform area of cross-section. Then

A. current will be different at different cross-sections.
B. current will be the same at all the cross-sections.
C. current will be different but current density will be same at all the cross-sections
D. current will be the same but current density will be different at different cross-sections. *

6. Find Q of a circuit when the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 2.7 H and the resistance is 18,000
ohms are in parallel.
A. 751
B. 75.1 *
C. 7.51
D. 71.5

7. A transistor has two p-n junctions. The batteries should be connected such that
A. both junctions are forward biased
B. both junctions are reverse biased
C. one junction is forward biased and the other is reverse biased *
D. either (A) or (B)

8. Three resistance of 15 Ω each are connected in delta. The resistance of equivalent star will have a value of
A. 15 Ω
B. 5 Ω *
C. 5/3 Ω
D. 45 Ω

9. In Kirchhoff’’s current law, which terminal of a resistance element is assumed to be at a higher potential (more positive)
than the other?
A. The terminal where the current enters the resistance elements. *
B. The terminal where the current exits the resistance elements.
C. Either A or B can be arbitrarily selected.
D. The terminal closest to the node being analyzed.

10. An indication of the current supplying capability of the battery for a specific period of time, e.g. 400 Ampere-Hour.
A. Rating
B. Capacity *
C. Capability
D. Current load
11. For a base current of 10 μA, what is the value of collector current in common emitter if β dc = 100.
A. 10 μA
B. 100 μA
C. 1 mA *
D. 10 Ma

12. Determine the resonant frequency of a circuit when L is 40 H and C is 6 pF are in series.
A. 10.3 kHz
B. 11.5 kHz
C. 10.3 MHz *
D. 11.5 MHz

13. The moving coil-current in a wattmeter is proportional to the __________ across the circuit.
A. voltage *
B. power
C. resistance
D. current

14. What component of a transformer provides the path for magnetic lines of flux?
A. Secondary winding
B. Load
C. Primary winding *
D. Core

15. If an electronic resistor do not have the fourth color strip it means it has a tolerance of _________.
A. 0 %
B. 20 % *
C. 10 %
D. 100 %

16. How do you increase the range of a voltmeter?

A. Through two-series resistors.
B. Through multipliers. *
C. Through shunt resistors.
D. Through series resistors.

17. Which of the following refers to the important characteristic of a three-terminal regulator?
A. Maximum and minimum input voltage, maximum output current and voltage.
B. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output voltage and maximum output voltage.
C. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and maximum output voltage. *
D. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and voltage.

18. What is the common use of a varactor diode?

A. As a voltage controlled inductance.
B. As a voltage controlled capacitance. *
C. As a constant voltage source.
D. As a constant current source.

19. The self bias provides

A. stable Q point *
B. large voltage gain
C. high input impedance
D. high base current

20. How can the true power be determined in a circuit where the ac voltage and current are out of phase?
A. By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor.
B. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor.
C. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor. *
D. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current.

21. A parallel plate capacitor with air as dielectric has a capacitance C. If the dielectric has a dielectric constant ∈r and the
remaining dimensions are the same, the capacitance will be
A. C/∈r
B. ∈rC *
C. ∈2rC
D. ∈3rC
22. Two thyristor of same rating and same specifications
A. will have equal turn on and turn off periods
B. will have equal turn on but unequal turn off periods
C. may have equal or unequal turn on and turn off periods *
D. will have unequal turn on and turn off periods

23. Two coils have their axes perpendicular to each other. The coefficient of coupling k is
A. 1
B. 0.5
C. more than 0 but less than 1
D. 0 *

24. The principle behind the operation of a crystal is ___ effect.

A. ionization
B. thermionic
C. piezoelectric *
D. photoelectric

25. The type of impurities in p-type semiconductor like boron and gallium is ________.
A. covalent
B. bivalent
C. pentavalent.
D. trivalent *

26. In a BJT circuit a pnp transistor is replaced by npn transistor. To analyze the new circuit
A. all calculations done earlier have to be repeated
B. replace all calculated voltages by reverse values
C. replace all calculated currents by reverse values
D. replace all calculated voltages and currents by reverse values *

27. A bulb rated at 60 W, 120 V is used for 30 minutes. The charge associated with this operation is
A. 3600 C
B. 900 C *
C. 7200 C
D. 600 C

28. In the figure shown, A1, A2, A3 are identical Ammeters. If A1 and A3 read 5 and 13 A respectively, reading of A2 will be

A. 8
B. 13 A
C. 18
D. 12 A *

29. The open loop gain of an amplifier is 200. If negative feedback with β = 0.2 is used, what is the closed loop gain?
A. 200
B. 40.12
C. 4.878 *
D. 2.2
30. In a class C power amplifier the input signal has a frequency of 250 kHz. If the collector current pulses are 0.1 μs wide,
what is the duty cycle of current waveform?
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 2.5% *
D. 0.25%

31. The value of parameter used in re transistor model

A. increases with increase in temperature *
B. decreases with increase in temperature
C. is not affected by increase in temperature
D. either (B) or (C)

32. A thyristor has a maximum allowable junction temperature of 120°C and the ambient temperature is 40°C. If thermal
resistance is 1.6° C/W, what is the maximum allowable internal power dissipation?
A. 20 W
B. 50 W *
C. 92 W
D. 128 W

33. It is a heavily doped PN junction that exhibits negative resistance over part of its range of operation.
A. Tunnel diode *
B. Varactor
C. SCR
D. Zener diode

34. In a power supply, what percent regulation is ideal?

A. 10 %
B. 0 % *
C. 100 %
D. 98 %

35. What device deposits materials on a substrate in desired patterns?

A. Thin film
B. Mask *
C. Plate
D. Wafer

36. If two equal frequency ac signals of exactly 5 V each are combined with one of the signals 180 degrees out of phase
with the other, what will be the value of the resultant voltage?
A. 10 V
B. 5.0 V
C. 0 V *
D. 2.0 V

37. In a N-P-N transistor, when emitter junction is forward biased and collector junction is reverse biased, the transistor will
operate in
A. active region *
B. saturation region
C. cut of region
D. inverted region

38. Emitter follower is used for _____________.

A. current gain
B. impedance matching *
C. voltage gain
D. current regulator
39. What is the commonly used IC package for digital IC’s?
A. Flat pack
B. Dip ceramic
C. DIP plastic *
D. Plastic IC

40. In the figure shown, what is the current supplied by battery immediately after switching on the circuit?

A. 1 A *
B. 4 A
C. 10 A
D. 0

41. What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode?

A. The peak inverse voltage
B. The junction temperature *
C. The forward voltage
D. The back EMF

42. In a crystal,
A. the frequencies of series and parallel resonance are equal
B. the frequency of series resonance is more than frequency of parallel resonance
C. the frequency of parallel resonance is more than frequency of series resonance *
D. None of the above

43. What is the phase relationship between current and voltage in an inductor?
A. Current lags voltage by 90 *
B. Current lags voltage by 180
C. Voltage lags current by 90
D. In phase

44. In the circuit of figure shown, the diode

A. will conduct as the whole cycle

B. will conduct in the positive half cycle
C. will not conduct *
D. will conduct from 30° to 150° in the positive half cycle

45. What is the magnetic equivalent of electrical resistance?

A. Reluctance. *
B. Magnetomotive force.
C. Flux.
D. Magnetic field.
46. Which of the following alloy does a manganin made of?
A. Chromium, copper and lead.
B. Zinc, copper and lead.
C. Copper, manganese and nickel. *
D. Copper, aluminum and chromium.

47. The current rating of a cable depends on

A. length of cable
B. diameter of cable *
C. both length and diameter of cable
D. the applied source

48. What type of pn diode is formed by using a fine metal and a section of n-type semiconductor material?.
A. Fused.
B. Interface.
C. Alloyed.
D. Point-contact. *

49. In the figure below, VEB = 0.6 V, β = 99. Find VC and IC.

A. 9.3 V and 1.98 mA respectively *

B. 4.6 V and 1.98 mA respectively
C. 9.3 V and 0.02 mA respectively
D. 4.6 V and 0.02 mA respectively

50. The load impedance ZL of a CE amplifier has R and L in series. The phase difference between output and input will be
A. 180°
B. 0
C. more than 90° but less than 180°
D. more than 180° but less than 270° *

51. A series RC circuit has R = 5 Ω and C = 10 μF. The current in the circuit is 5 sin 20000t. What is the applied voltage?
A. 252 sin (20000t + 45°)
B. 252 sin (20000t - 45°) *
C. 252 sin 20000t
D. 252 sin (20000t - 90°)

52. When the ac base voltage in a CE amplifier circuit is too high, the ac emitter current is ______.
A. zero
B. constant
C. alternating
D. distorted *

53. Si transistor of following figure has a = 0.9 and I CE= 0, VEE = 5 V and VCC = 13 V, then RE will be if IEQ = 1 mA

A. 3 kΩ
B. 4 kΩ
C. 5 kΩ
D. 4.3 kΩ *
54. The reason why the rheostat of an ohmmeter needs to be adjusted is ______.
A. balance the resistance of circuit being measured
B. due to aging meter battery *
C. decrease in meter temperature
D. increase in meter temperature

55. How is an ammeter connected to the circuit under test?

A. In series *
B. Shunted
C. Series-parallel
D. In parallel

56. An RLC series circuit is underdamped. To make it overdamped, the value of R

A. has to be increased *
B. has to be decreased
C. has to be increased to infinity
D. has to be reduced to zero

57. The current that flows in the primary of a transformer with the secondary open (or no load is attached) is ______ current.
A. source *
B. exciting
C. load cur
D. coupling

58. What electrical property is measured by an ammeter?

A. Power
B. Voltage
C. Current *
D. Resistance

59. In the circuit of figure, the switch is closed at t = 0. At t = 0 the current through C is

A. 4 A *
B. 2.5 A
C. 3.1 A
D. 0

60. A power transistor dissipates 5 W. If ambient temperature is 30° and case to air thermal resistance is 10° C/W, then
case temperature is
A. 80°C *
B. 20°C
C. 32°C
D. 305°C

61. To prevent a DC return between source and load, it is necessary to use

A. resistor between source and load
B. inductor between source and load
C. capacitor between source and load *
D. Either (A) or (B)

62. What is the characteristic of the current flow in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance?
A. The current circulating in the parallel elements is zero.
B. The current circulating in the parallel elements is dc.
C. The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a maximum. *
D. The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a minimum.
63. A battery with capacity of 100 Ah and 12 volts rating will run an electronic equipment at exactly 20 hours, how much
power is needed?
A. 60 W *
B. 20 W
C. 10 W
D. 30 W

64. A transformer with 100 turns in the primary winding and 25 turns in the secondary winding is which of the following?
A. A step-up transformer
B. An isolation transformer
C. A step-down transformer *
D. An autotransformer

65. A full wave rectifier circuit using centre tapped transformer and a bridge rectifier are fed at 100 V, 50 Hz. The
frequencies of outputs in these two rectifiers are
A. 100 Hz each *
B. 50 Hz each
C. 100 Hz and 50 Hz
D. 50 Hz and 100 Hz

66. In a voltage regulated power supply the zener operates in the breakdown region when (V in is input voltage and Vz is
zener breakdown voltage)
A. Vin < Vz
B. Vin > Vz *
C. Vin = Vz
D. Both (A) or (B)

67. In a two stage CE amplifier circuit, the ac collector resistance of the first stage depends on
A. load resistance
B. input impedance of first stage
C. input impedance of second stage *
D. All of the above

68. The gain of an FET amplifier can be changed by changing

A. rm *
B. gm
C. Rd
D. RL
69. Two phasors having rms values V1 and V2 which are added to give a phasor having rms value V3. V3 is maximum if
phase angle between V1 and V2 is
A. 90°
B. 180°
C. 270°
D. 360° *

70. For the circuit shown in the figure, what is the current I?

A. Indeterminate due to indeterminate data *

B. zero
C. 4 Amp
D. 8 Amp
71. A “picture” of a circuit which uses symbol to represent the
various components.
A. Circuit representation
B. Circuit drawing
C. Schematic diagram *
D. Drawing

72. In a RL circuit, the angle, θ by which the current lags the

voltage is
A. 0 > θ > - 90°
B. 90°
C. 0°
D. 0 < θ < 90° *

73. A current of 1 A in the coil of an iron cored electromagnet

cause a flux density of 0.2.T. If the current is 2 A, what is
the flux density?
A. 0.2 T
B. 0.4 T *
C. 0.4 T or less
D. 0.4 T or more

74. An RLC series circuit is fed form 100 V ac supply.

Inductance is 1 H and Q = 7.5. At resonance, the voltage
across inductance is
A. 750 V *
B. 100 V
C. about 13.5 V
D. 1500 V

75. The quiescent collector current IC, and collector to emitter

voltage VCE in a CE connection are the values when
A. ac signal is zero *
B. ac signal is low
C. ac signal is negative
D. Either (A) or (B)

76. As temperature increases, the temperature coefficient of

a metal
A. decreases *
B. increases
C. remains unchanged
D. any of the above

77. The figure below is a 24 V, stabilized power supply. The

zener is 24 V, 600 mW. The minimum zener current is 10
mA. What are the proper values R and maximum load
current?

A. 320 Ω, 10 mA
B. 400 Ω, 15 mA
C. 400 Ω, 10 mA
D. 320 Ω, 15 mA *
78. In a push pull circuit
A. each transistor conducts for 180° *
B. each transistor conducts for more than 180° but less
than 360°
C. each transistor conducts for less than 180°
D. the period of conduction of each transistor depends on
circuit configuration

79. To increase Q factor of a coil, the wire should be

A. long
B thin
C. thick *
D. long and thin

80. Which of the following voltmeters would you use for

measuring voltage across 20 kΩ resistance?
A. Voltmeter having a resistance of 5 kΩ
B. Voltmeter having a sensitivity of 1 kW/V
C. Voltmeter having sensitivity of 10 kW/V *
D. None of the above

81. Two resistors R1 = 36 Ω ± 5% and R2 = 75 Ω ± 5% are

connected in series. The total resistance is
A. 111 ± 0 Ω
B. 111 ± 2.778 Ω
C. 111 ± 5.55 Ω *
D. 111 ± 7.23 Ω
82. A digital voltmeter has a read out range from 0 to 999
counts. If the full scale reading is 9.999 V, the resolution
is
A. 1 V
B. 0.01 V
C. 1 mV *
D. 1 μV

83. Potentiometer method of dc voltage measurement is

more accurate than direct measurement using a voltmeter
because
A. it loads the circuit to maximum extent
B. it loads the circuit moderately
C. it does not load the circuit at all *
D. it uses centre zero galvanometer instead of voltmeters

84. A voltmeter using thermocouples measures

A. rms value *
B. peak value
C. average value
D. peak to peak value

85. A dynamometer wattmeter is connected in ac circuit. The

measured power is
A. rms power
B. average power *
C. peak power
D. instantaneous power

86. What is the effect of connecting battery cells in parallel?

A. Current decreases
B. Voltage increases
C. Current increases *
D. Voltage decreases
87. The input impedance of op-amp circuit of figure is

A. 120 kohm
B. 110 kohm
C. infinity
D. 10 kohm *

88. A two-branch parallel tuned circuit has a capacitance C in

one of the two branches and resistance R in second
branches. As C is decreased, the dynamic resistance
A. increases *
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease

89. What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant

circuit which has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and Q
of 150?
A. 25.1 kHz
B. 47.3 kHz *
C. 411 kHz
D. 20.5 kHz

90. In the circuit of figure shown below, what is the voltage

across capacitor at t = ∞?

A. 0 V
B. 20 V
C. very large
D. 7.5 V *

91. Which is class AB amplifier?

A. Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less
than 360 degrees of the signal input cycles. *
B. Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the
input signal cycle.
C. Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input
signal cycle.
D. Output is present for the entire input signal cycle.
92. Determine from the following the advantage of full wave
rectifier over the have wave rectifier.
A. That the ripple frequency is lower.
B. That the diodes will conduct during both halves of the
input cycle. *
C. That there exist the lower temperature during both
halves of the cycle.
D. Each diode can cool-off during halves of the input
cycle.

93. What is the purpose of the rectifier section in a power

supply?
A. To change pulsating DC to pure DC.
B. To increase the AC value.
C. To change AC to pulsating DC. *
D. To lower the AC value.

94. Wave A = 100 sin ωt and wave B = 100 cos ωt. Then
A. rms values of the two waves are equal *
B. rms values of A is more than that of B
C. rms values of A is less than that of B
D. rms values of the two waves may or may not be equal

95. In a CE amplifier,
A. both ac and dc load lines have the same slope
B. the ac load line has more slope than dc load line
C. the ac load line has less slope than dc load line *
D. the two load lines may have slope more than the other

96. Two series connected 7 H inductors are adjacent to each

other. Their coefficient of coupling is 0.64. What is the
value of mutual inductance?
A. 4.48 H *
B. 0.448 H
C. 44.8 H
D. 448 H

97. In an R-C series circuit excited by a voltage E, the charge

across capacitor at t = 0 is
A. 0 *
B. EC
C. EC (1 - e-t/RC)
D. 

98. A wire has a resistance R ohm. If another wire of the

same material and same weight has double the diameter
(as compared to the first wire), the resistance of the
second wire will be
A. 0.5 R
B. 0.25 R
C. 0.125 R
D. R/16 *

99. The electrical energy required to heat a bucket of water to

a certain temperature is 2 kWh. If heat losses are 25%,
the energy input is
A. 2.67 kWh *
B. 3 kWh
C. 2.5 kWh
D. 3.5 kWh
100. What is the voltage drop across the resistor in an RC
charging circuit when the charge on the capacitor is equal
to the battery voltage?
A. 0.10 volt
B. 1.0 volt
C. zero *
D. 10 volts
 OT14
MGA NATANDAAN KO (ATA):
GIBILISCO CHAPTER 1:
1. An electrical insulator can be made a conductor
a. By heating it.
b. By cooling it.
c. By ionizing it.
d. By oxidizing it.
2. Movement of holes in a semiconductor
a. Is like a flow of electrons in the same direction.
b. Is possible only if the current is high enough.
c. Results in a certain amount of electric current.
d. Causes the material to stop conducting.
3. A coulomb
a. Represents a current of 1 ampere.
b. Flows through a 100-watt light bulb.
c. Is equivalent to 1 ampere per second.
d. Is an extremely large number of charge carriers.
4. In a battery, chemical energy can sometimes be replenished by
a. Connecting it to a light bulb.
b. Charging it.
c. Discharging it.
d. No means knows; when a battery is dead, you must throw it away.
5. A fluctuating magnetic field
a. Produces an electric current in an insulator.
b. Magnetizes the earth.
c. Produces Aa fluctuating electric field.
d. Results from a steady electric current.
6. Visible light is converted into electricity.
a. In a dry cell.
b. In a wet cell.
c. In an incandescent bulb.
d. In a photovoltaic cell.
GIBILISCO CHAPTER 2:
7. A positive electric pole
a. Has a deficiency of electrons.
b. Has fewer electrons than the negative pole.
c. Has an excess of electrons.
d. Has more electrons than the negative pole.
8. An emf of 1V
a. Cannot drive much current through a circuit.
b. Represents a low resistance.
c. Can sometimes produce a large current.
d. Drops to zero in a short time.
 9. A potentially lethal electric current is on the order of
a. 0.01 mA.
b. 0.1 mA.
c. 1 mA.
d. 0.1 A.
10. Of the following energy units, the one most often used to define electrical energy is
a. The Btu.
b. The erg.
c. The foot-pound.
d. The kilowatt-hour.
11. Half-wave rectification means that.
a. Half of the ac wave is inverted.
b. Half of the ac wave is cut off.
c. The whole ac wave is inverted.
d. The effective voltage is half the peak voltage.
12. In the output of a half-wave rectifier,
a. Half of the ac input wave is inverted.
b. The effective voltage is less than that of the ac input wave.
c. The effective voltage is the same as that ac input wave.
d. The effective voltage is more than that of the ac input wave.
13. In the output of a full-wave rectifier,
a. Half of the ac input wave is inverted.
b. The effective voltage is less than that of the ac input wave.
c. The effective voltage is the same as that ac input wave.
d. The effective voltage is more than that of the ac input wave.
GIBILISCO CHAPTER 3:
14. The attraction or repulsion between two electrically charged objects is called
a. Electromagnetic deflection.
b. Electrostatic force.
c. Magnetic force.
d. Electroscopic force.
15. The change in the direction of a compass needle, when a current-carrying wire is brought
near is, called
a. Electromagnetic deflection.
b. Electrostatic force.
c. Magnetic force.
d. Electroscopic force.
16. One important advantage of an electrostatic meter is the fact that
a. It measures very small currents.
b. It can handle large currents.
c. It can detect and indicate ac voltages as well as dc voltages.
d. It draws a large current from a power supply.
17. A thermocouple
a. Gets warm when dc flows through it.
b. Is a thin, straight, special wire.
 c. Generates dc when exposed to visible light.
d. Generates ac when heated.
18. Ammeter shunts are useful because
a. They increase meter sensitivity.
b. They make a meter more physically rugged.
c. They allow for measurement of large currents.
d. They prevent overheating of the meter movement.
19. Which of the following will not normally cause a large error in an ohmmeter reading?
a. A small voltage between points under test
b. A slight change in switchable internal resistance
c. A small change in the resistance to be measured
d. A slight error in the range switch position
20. A utility meter’s readout indicates
a. Voltage
b. Power
c. Current
d. Energy
21. An oscilloscope cannot be used to indicate
a. Frequency
b. Wave shape
c. Energy
d. Peak signal voltage
GIBILISCO CHAPTER 4:
22. Suppose you double the voltage in a simple dc circuit, and cut the resistance in half. The
current will
a. Become four times as great.
b. Become twice as great.
c. Stay the same as it was before.
d. Become half as great.
23. You can expect to find a wiring diagram
a. On a sticker on the back of a television receiver.
b. In an advertisement for an electric oven.
c. In the service/repair manual for a two-way radio.
d. In the photograph of the front panel of a stereo hi-fi tuner.
24. Suppose you have an unlimited supply of 1-W, 100-Ω resistors. You need to get a 100-Ω,
10-W resistor. This can be done most cheaply by means of series-parallel matrix of
a. 3 x 3 resistors.
b. 4 x 3 resistors.
c. 4 x 4 resistors.
d. 2 x 5 resistors.
25. Good engineering practice usually requires that a series-parallel resistive network be
assembled
a. From resistors that are all different.
b. From resistors that are all identical.
 c. From a series combination of resistors in parallel, but not from a parallel
combination of resistors in series.
d. From a parallel combination of resistors in series, but not from a series combination
of resistors in parallel.
GIBILISCO CHAPTER 5:
26. In a series-connected string of ornament bulbs, if one bulb gets shorted out, which of the
following will occur?
a. All the other bulbs will go out.
b. The current in the string will go up.
c. The current in the string will go down.
d. The current in the string will stay the same.
27. In a voltage divider network, the total resistance
a. Should be large to minimize current drain.
b. Should be as small as the power supply will allow.
c. Is not important.
d. Should be such that the current is kept to 100mA.
28. The maximum voltage output from a voltage divider
a. Is a fraction of the power supply voltage.
b. Depends on the total resistance.
c. Is equal to the supply voltage.
d. Depends on the ration of resistances.
GIBILISCO CHAPTER 6:
29. Proper biasing in an amplifier circuit
a. Causes it to oscillate.
b. Prevents and impedance match.
c. Can be obtained using a voltage divider network.
d. Maximizes current flow.
GIBILISCO CHAPTER 7:
30. The chemical energy in a battery or cell
a. Is a form of kinetic energy.
b. Cannot be replenished once it is gone.
c. Changes to electrical energy when the cell is used.
d. Is caused by electric current.
31. The voltage produced by a battery of multiple cells connected in series is
a. Less than the voltage produced by a cell of the same composition.
b. The same as the voltage produced by a cell of the same composition.
c. More than the voltage produced by a cell of the same composition.
d. Always a whole-number multiple of 1.018V.
32. The useful current that is delivered by a solar panel can be increased by
a. Connecting capacitors in parallel with the solar cells
b. Connecting resistors in series with the solar cells.
c. Connecting two or more groups of solar cells in parallel.
d. Connecting resistors in parallel with the solar cells,
 33. An interactive solar power system
a. Allows homeowner to sell power to the electric company
b. Lets the batteries recharge at night
c. Power lights, but not electronic devices.
d. Is totally independent from the electric company.
GIBILISCO CHAPTER 8:
34. Lines of magnetic flux are said to originate
a. In atoms of ferromagnetic materials.
b. At a north magnetic pole.
c. At points where the lines are straight.
d. In electric charge carriers.
35. A substance with high retentivity
a. Can make a good ac electromagnet.
b. Repels both north and south magnetic poles
c. Is always a diamagnetic material.
d. Is well suited to making a permanent magnet.
GIBILISCO CHAPTER 9:
36. Which of the following can vary with ac, but never with dc?
a. Power
b. Voltage
c. Frequency
d. Amplitude
37. If two perfect sine waves have the same frequency and the same amplitude, but are in
opposite phase, the composite wave
a. Has twice the amplitude of either input wave alone.
b. Has half the amplitude of either input wave alone.
c. Is complex, but has the same frequency as the originals.
d. Has zero amplitude (that is, it does not exist), because the two input waves cancel
each other out.
38. If two perfect sine waves have the same frequency and the same phase, the composite wave
a. Is a sine wave with an amplitude equal to the difference between the amplitudes of
the two input waves.
b. Is a sine wave with an amplitude equal to the sum of the amplitudes of the two
original waves.
c. Is not a sine wave, but has the same frequency as the two input waves.
d. Has zero amplitude (that is, it does not exist), because the two input waves cancel
each other out.
39. An advantage of ac over dc in utility applications is the fact that
a. Ac is easier to transform from one voltage to another.
b. Ac is transmitted with lower loss in wires.
c. Ac can be easily obtained from dc generators.
d. Ac can be generated with less-dangerous by-products.
GIBILISCO CHAPTER 10:
 40. If the same two inductors 33mH and 55mH are connected in parallel without mutual
inductance, the combination will have a value of
a. 1.8 H
b. 22 mH
c. 88 mH
d. 21 mH
GIBILISCO CHAPTER 11:
41. Which of the following types of capacitors is polarized?
a. Paper
b. Mica
c. Interelectrode
d. Electrolytic
42. If a capacitor has a negative temperature coefficient, then
a. Its capacitance decreases as the temperature rises.
b. Its capacitance increases as the temperature rises.
c. Its capacitance does not change with temperature.
d. It will not work if the temperature is below freezing.
GIBILISCO CHAPTER 17:
43. Which of the following is not an example of true power?
a. Power in the form of heat, produced by dc flowing through a resistor.
b. Power in the form of electromagnetic fields, radiated from a radio antenna.
c. The product of the rms ac through a capacitor and the rms voltage across it.
d. Power in the form of heat, produced by losses in an RF transmission line.
44. Power factor is equal to
a. Apparent power divided by true power.
b. Imaginary power divided by apparent power.
c. Imaginary power divided by true power.
d. True power divided by apparent power.
45. Which of the following does not increase the loss in a transmission line?
a. Reducing the power output of the source.
b. Increasing the degree of mismatch between the line and the load.
c. Reducing the diameter of the line conductors.
d. Raising the frequency.
GIBILISCO CHAPTER 19:
46. The term semiconductor arises from
a. Resistor-like properties of metal oxides.
b. Variable conductive properties of some materials.
c. The fact that electrons conduct better than holes.
d. Insulating properties of silicon and GaAs.
47. GaAs is
a. A compound
b. An element
c. A mixture
 d. A gas
48. A disadvantage of MOS devices is the fact that
a. The charge carriers move fast.
b. The material does not react to ionizing radiation.
c. They can be damaged by electrostatic discharges.
d. They must always be used at high frequencies.
GIBILISCO CHAPTER 22:
49. In the dual-diode model of an NPN transistor, the emitter corresponds to
a. The point where the cathodes are connected together.
b. The point where the cathode of one diode is connected to the anode of the other.
c. The point where the anodes are connected together
d. Either of the diode cathodes.

GIBILISCO CHAPTER 24:

50. An RF choke
a. Passes RF signals but blocks dc.
b. Passes both RF signals and dc.
c. Passes dc but blocks RF signals.
d. Blocks both dc and RF signals.

GIBILISCO CHAPTER 26:

51. Which of the following codes is digital?
a. Morse
b. Baudot
c. ASCII
d. All of the above
52. The inputs of an R-S flip-flop are known as
a. Low and high.
b. Octal and binary.
c. Synchronous and asynchronous.
d. Reset and set.
Other Sources:
53. A load of (20-j45) Ω is connected across a 240V source. The circuit power is
a. 0.4 leading
b. 0.6 leading
c. 0.5 leading
d. 0.8 leading
54. A coil is supplied with 200V and takes a current of 2A at 45(o) lagging. The Q of coil is.
a. 1
b. 10
c. 25
 d. 100
55. The difference in energy between the valence and the conduction bands of a semiconductor
is called
a. Band gap
b. Conductivity
c. Extrinsic Photo effect
d. Energy density
56. In two-phase generators, the electrical displacement between the two phases or windings
is ___ electrical degrees. (120 PAG THREE-PHASE)
a. 90
b. 120
c. 180
d. 360
57. Why the ac system is preferred to dc system?
a. Because of ac voltage system can be easily changed.
b. Because all system depends on ac supply.
c. Because dc voltage system is not applicable for domestic appliances.
d. Because dc system are very difficult to control.
58. The pointer of an indicating instrument is in the final deflected position, the ___ is zero.
a. Deflecting torque
b. Controlling torque
c. Damping torque
d. Frictional
59. A moving system force in analog instruments which causes the moving system to deflect
from its zero position.
a. Deflecting force
b. Damping force
c. Return-to-zero force
d. Controlling force
60. A moving force in analog instruments which ensures that the deflection of the pointer for
a given value of measured quantity always has the same value.
a. Damping force
b. Controlling Force
c. NRZ Force
d. Deflecting Force
61. All voltmeters except one of the following are operated by the passage of current.
a. Moving-iron
b. Dynamometer
c. Electrostatic
d. Permanent-magnet moving coil
62. Disc is made of what material in eddy current damping?
a. Conductor and non-magnetic material.
b. Conductor and magnetic material.
c. Non-conductor and non-magnetic material
d. Non-conductor and magnetic material.
63. The time interval between pulses is called ____.
 a. Pulse frequency
b. Pulse delay
c. Pulse duration
d. Pulse period
64. An oscilloscope provides easy measurement of ___ values.
a. Instantaneous
b. Rms
c. Peak to peak
d. Average
65. An element in electronics which serves as a protection against overload?
a. Resistor
b. Transistor
c. Semiconductor
d. Fuse
66. What sensor provides a dc voltage approximately 1 V at 10 mW?
a. Diode Sensor
b. Thermocouple Sensor
c. Thermal Sensor
d. Thermistor Sensor
67. Hot-wire instrument has a/an ___ scale.
a. Uniform
b. Squared
c. Logarithmic
d. Exponential
68. An alternative name for a diac is:
a. Silicon Unilateral Switch (SUS)
b. Silicon Bilateral Switch.
c. Bidirectional Trigger Diode
d. Four-layer diode.
69. In Boolean Algebra, a high signal added to another high signal is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 10
d. 11
70. To increase the brightness of a desk lamp a student replaces a 50W light bulb with a 100W
light bulbs. Compared to the 50W light bulb, the 100W light bulb has?
a. More resistance and draws more current
b. More resistance and draws less current
c. Less resistance and draws more current
d. Less resistance and draws less current
71. A MOSFET differs from JFET mainly because
a. of the power rating.
b. The MOSFET has two gates
c. The JFET has a pn junction.
d. MOSFETS do not have a physical channel.
 ELECSQ1-24

Question 1
A ripple counter's speed is limited by the propagation delay of:

each flip-flop
all flip-flops and gates
the flip-flops only with gates
only circuit gates

Question 2
The observation that a bubbled input OR gate is interchangeable with a bubbled output
AND gate is referred to as:

a Karnaugh map
DeMorgan's second theorem
the commutative law of addition
the associative law of
multiplication

Question 3
A 741 OPAMP has a gain bandwidth product of 1 MHz. A noninverting amplifier using this
OPAMP and having a voltage gain of 20 dB will exhibit a -3 dB bandwidth of

50 kHz
100 kHz
100/17 kHz
1000/7.07 kHz

Question 4
What are the two types of basic adder circuits?

half adder and full adder

half adder and parallel adder
asynchronous and synchronous
one's complement and two's
complement
Question 5
An amplifier using an OPAMP with a slew rate SR = 1 V/μsec has a gain of 40 dB. If this
amplifier has to faithfully amplify sinusoidal signals form dc to 20 kHz without any slew rate
induced distortion, then the input signal level must not exceed

795 mV
395 mV
79.5 mV
39.5 mV

Question 6
The force of attraction or repulsion between poles is inversely proportional to the square of
the distance between them. This is known as

Newton’s First Law

Faraday’s First Law of Electromagnetic Induction
Coulomb’s First Law
Coulomb’s Second Law

Question 7
A series RLC circuit has a series resonant frequency of 12,000 Hz. If R = 5 ohms and X L at
resonance is 300 ohms, find the bandwidth.

200 Hz
250 Hz
150 Hz
100 Hz

Question 8
The current flowing through a heating element is 5 A when a p.d. of 35 V is applied across
it. Find the resistance of the element.

5 ohms
6 ohms
3 ohms
7 ohms
Question 9
The ideal OPAMP has the following characteristics

Ri = ∞, AV = ∞, Ro = 0
Ri = 0, AV = ∞, Ro = 0
Ri = ∞, AV = ∞, Ro = ∞
Ri = 0, AV = ∞, Ro = ∞

Question 10
When collector flows for approximately 120 of the input signal, the amplifier is

Class A
Class AB
Class B
Class C

Question 11
The selector inputs to an arithmetic-logic unit (ALU) determine the:

selection of the IC
arithmetic or logic function
data word selection
clock frequency to be used

Question 12
A real voltage source has

Zero internal resistance

Infinite internal resistance
A small internal resistance
A large internal resistance

Question 13
Which of the following would shield a permanent magnet field best?

Copper
Iron
Lead
Aluminum
Question 14
An uncharged capacitor of 0.2 micro Farad is connected to a 100 V, d.c. supply through a
resistor of 100 kilo ohms. Determine the capacitor voltage 10 ms after the voltage has been
applied.

39.35 V
35.39 V
53.42 V
46.98 V

Question 15
When checking a good SCR or TRIAC with an ohmmeter it will:

show high resistance in both directions

show low resistance with positive on anode and negative on cathode, and high resistance when reversed
show high resistance with negative on anode and positive on cathode, and low resistance when reversed
show low resistance in both directions

Question 16
If the Q point is just above cut-off, the amplifier is

Class A
Class AB
Class B
Class C

Question 17
What causes the piezoelectric effect?

heat or dissimilar metals

pressure on a crystal
water running on iron
a magnetic field

Question 18
What value of power is considered as small signal?

< 3 mW
<1W
< 10 mW
< 10 mW
Question 19
1. The range of an 8-bit two's complement word is from:

+12810 to –12810
–12810 to +12710
+12810 to –12710
+12710 to –12710

Question 20
1. The systematic reduction of logic circuits is accomplished by:

symbolic reduction
TTL logic
using Boolean algebra
using a truth table

Question 21
1. What is the logic circuit having two or more inputs but only one output with high output if
any or all inputs are high, with low input only when all inputs are low?

AND gate
OR gate
NOR gate
NAND gate

Question 22
1. What electric quantity is analogous to permeance?

Admittance
Conductance
Reluctance
Resistance

Question 23
1. When the base resistor decreases, the collector voltage will probably

Decrease
Stay the same
Increase
All of the above
Question 24
The two's complement system is to be used to add the signed numbers 11110010 and
11110011. Determine, in decimal, the sign and value of each number and their sum.

–14 and –13; –27

–113 and –114; 227
–27 and –13; 40
–11 and –16; –27

Question 25
1. When multiplying in binary the decimal values 13 × 11, what is the third partial product?

100000
100001
0000
1011
ELECS
The maximum voltage output from a voltage divider:

A. Is a fraction of the power supply

B. Depends on the total resistance
C. Is equal to the supply voltage.
D. Depends on the ratio of the resistances.

A certain bipolar transistor PA is 66 percent efficient. The output power is 33 W. The dc collector power
input is:

A. 22 W
B. 50 W
C. 100 W
D. 2.2 kW

The permeability of permalloy is

A. Slightly less than permeability of air

B. Slightly greater than permeability of air?
C. Very much greater than permeability of air
D. Equal to the permeability of air

Power absorbed in a pure capacitive circuit is zero because

A. reactive and active components of the current

cancel out
B. reactive component of the current is zero
C. active component of the current is maximum
D. power factor of the circuit is zero

The ac load line differs from the dc load line because

A. The effective ac collector resistance is less than the dc collector resistance.

B. The effective ac collector resistance is less than the ac collector resistance.
C. The effective de collector resistance is less than
the dc collector resistance.
D. The effective ac collector resistance is greater than the dc collector resistance.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of mica capacitors?

A. High efficiency
B. Small size
C. Capability to handle high voltages
D. Low loss

Gaas is a/an

A. Compound
B. Element
C. Conductor
D. Gas

Hysteresis refers to the between flux density of

the material and the magnetizing force applied.

A. leading effect
B. ratio
C. equality
D. lagging effect

A gain of -15 dB in the circuit means

A. The input signal is stronger than a output

B. The output signal is stronger than the input
C. The input signal is 15 times as stronger as the output
D. The output signal is 15 times as stronger as the
input.

A 100-KVA transformer is at 80 percent of rated load at power factor 0.85 lagging. How many kVA in
additional load at 0.60 lagging power factor will bring the transformer to full rated load?

A. 21.8 kVA
B. 22.2 kVA
C. 21.2 KVA
D. 22.4 kVA
A p-channel MOSFET operating in the enhancement mode is characterized by V1 = - 3V and 1px=-8 mA
when Vg5o = -4.5 V. Find Vaso if Ipo = -16 mA.

A. VGsQ = 0.80 V
B. Vaso = - 0.88 V
C. Vaso = -0.94 V
D. Vaso =-0.78 V

If the capacitor has a negative temperature coefficient:

A. Its value decreases as the temperature rises.

B. Its value increases as the temperature rises.
C. Its value does not chance with temperature.
D. It must be connected with the correct polarity

As the number of turns in a coil increases, the reactance:

A. Increases
B. Decrease
C. Stay the same
D. Is stored on the core material 15.

If the ratio of Xc/R is 1, the phase angle is:

A. 0 degrees
B. -45 degrees
C -90 degrees
D. 45 degrees

A hot-wire ammeter.

A. Can measure ac as well as dc

B. Can indicate very low voltages
C. Measure electrical energy
D. Works only when current flows in one direction.
In small inductance:

A. Energy is stored and release slowly.

B. The current flow is always large.
C. The current flow is always small
D. Energy is stored and release quickly.

Selenium works especially well in

A. High-frequency detectors
B. Radio-frequency power amplifiers
C . Photocells
D. Voltage regulators

Hysteresis refers to the between flux density of

the material and the magnetizing force applied.

A. Ratio
B. Equality
C. Lagging effect
D. Leading effects

The distance between the capacitor plates increases two times, then its capacitance

A. increases two times

B. increases four times
C. decreases two times
D. decreases four times

What is the minimum fan-out of TTL?

A. 5
B. 20
C. 10
D. 2
The period of an ac wave is

A. The same as the frequency

B. Not related to the frequency
C. Equal to 1 divided by the frequency
D. Equal to the amplitude divided by the frequency

In the circuit below, the Zener diode has a breakdown voltage Vzr = 8.0 V and a measurement has
shown that Vz= 8.6 V when Iz = 30 mA. What is the value of out when RL becomes infinitely large?

A. Vout=0V
B. Vout = 8.2 V
C. Vout = 8.8 V
D. Vout= 8.4 V

It can also be used to locate the source of a field, and to measure the performance of radio frequency
shielding.

A. Oscilloscope
B. Logic analyzer
C. RF Meter
D. Spectrum analyzer

A class-A circuit would not work well as:

A. A stereo hi-fi amplifier

B. A television transmitter PA
C. A low-level microphone preamplifier
D. The first stage in the radio receiver

An oscillator might fail to start for any of the following reasons except:

A. Low power supply voltage

B. Low stage gain
C. In-phase feedback
D. Very low output impedance
The term "semiconductor" arises from

A. Resistor-like properties of metal oxides

B. Variable conductive properties of some materials
C. The fact that there's nothing better to call silicon
D. Insulator properties of silicone and GaAs

A certain passive network has equivalent impedance Z => 3+4 N and an applied voltage v=42.5cos(1000
+ 30 V. Determine the power factor (pf).

A. pf=0.6 lagging
B. pf=0.6 leading
C. pf=0.7 lagging
D. pf=0.7 leading

What maximum power can a silicon transistor (Tmax = 200°C) dissipate into free air at an ambicnt
temperature of 80°C?

A. 0.5W
B. 1W
C. 2W
D. 3W

In a P-channel JFET:

A. The drain of is forward-biased

B. The gate-source junction is forward biased
C. The drain is negative relative to the source
D. The gate must be at the dc ground.

Which of the following with not cause a major error in an ohmmeter?

A. A small voltage between points under test.

B. A small chance in the resistance to be measured.
C. A slight error in the range switch selection
D. A slight change in switchable internal resistance.
Often used to characterize two-port networks such as amplifiers and filters, but they can be used on
networks with an arbitrary number of ports.

A. Vector Network analyzer

B. Spectrum analyzer
C. Vectorscope
D. Sweep generator

A MOSFET differs from a JFET mainly because

A. of the power rating

B. the MOSFET has two gates
C. the JFET has a pn junction
D. MOSFETs do not have a physical channel

An unimportant factor concerning the frequency at which a P-N junction will work effective is:

A. The type of semiconductor materials

B. The cross-sectional area of the junction
C. The reverse current
D. The capacitor with reverse bias.

The major advantage of Silicon-on-Insulator are the following except:

A. Lower diffusion capacitance

B. Higher diffusion capacitance
C. Lower dynamic power consumption
D. Nominals threshold voltage must be very high

In the voltage divider network, the total resistance

A. Should be large to minimize current drain.

B. Should be as small as the power supply will allow.
C. Is not important
D. Should be such that the current is kept to 100mA
A coil is represented by a series combination of L = 50mH and R = 15 12. Calculate the quality factor at
10kHz.

A. Qcoil = 1047
B. Qcoil = 845
C. Qcoil = 326
D. Qcoil = 209

The input impedance of a MOSFET:

A. Is lower than the JFET

B. Is lower than the bipolar transistor
C. Is between that of the bipolar transistor and a JFET
D. Is extremely high

The gigabyte is a unit commonly used to measure of

A. Data access time

B. Data transfer time
C. Data communication accuracy
D. Data storage capacity

Drain current in the constant-current region increases when

A. the gate-to-source bias voltage decreases

B. the gate-to-source bias voltage increases
C. the drain-to-source voltage increases
D. the drain-to-source voltage decreases

The magnetic field of a magnetized iron bar when

strongly heated O

A. Becomes weaker
B. Becomes stronger
C. reverses in direction
D. is unchanged
Calculate the harmonic distortion
output signal having fundamental an
uculate the harmonic disertion components for an
oral amplitude of 2.1 V. und harmonic amplitude ofo 3V, third harmonic 0.1 V. and fourth harmonic
component component of 0.1 V. and fourth of 0.05 V.

A. 14.3%,4.8%2.4%
B. 14.3%.4.2%,2.8%
C. 12.3%,4.8%2.4%
D. 12.3%,4.2%,2.8%

The principal disadvantage ofa voltage multipliers

A. Excessive current
B. Excessive voltage
C. Insufficient rectification
D. Poor regulation

The input signal to a transistor amplifier results in

saturation during part of the cycle. This produces:

A. The greatest possible amplification

B. Reduced efficiency
C. Avalanche effect
D. Nonlinear output impedance

A 4-layer diode turns on when the anode-to-cathode voltage exceeds

A. the forward-break-over voltage

B. the forward-blocking voltage
C. 0.7 V
D. the gate voltage

The rms value is the same as the peak value of

A. Perfect square waves

B. Saw-tooth waves
C. Perfect triangle waves
D. Perfect sine waves
An SCR differs from the 4-layer diode because

A. it is not a thyristor
B. it does not have four layers
C. it has a gate terminal
D. it cannot be turned on and off

To measure power-supply voltage being used by a

circuit, a voltmeter

A. is placed in series with the circuit that works from the supply
B. Is places between the positive pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
C. Is places between the negative pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
D. Is places in parallel with the circuit that works
from the supply

A changing magnetic field

A. results from a steady electric current

B. magnetizing the earth
C. produce an electric current in the insulator
D. produce a fluctuation electric field

It is a method of stabilizing the voltage gain.

A. Darlington pair
B. Swamping
C. Differential mode
D. Common mode

How can a class C amplifier be made linear?

A. By reducing the bias

B. by increasing the drive
C. by using two transistor in push-pull
D. A class C amplifier cannot be made linear
Why is a two-pole magnetic field set up around a coil?

A. because separate lines of magnetic force link, and combine their effects
B. because concentric lines of force cross at right angles and combine
C. because lines of force are separated and bent at the coils ends
D. because separate lines of force are attracted to the two poles of the coil

the gain of a transistor in n common-emitter circult is 100 at n frequency of 1000 Hz. The gain is 70.7 nt
335 KHz. The gain drops to 1 to 210 MHz. The alplan cut off:

A. 1Khz
B. 335 kHz
C. 210 MHz
D. 70.7 kHz

What current is required in the windings of a long

solenoid that has 1000 turns uniformly distributed over a length of 0.40 m in order to produce a
magnetic field of magnitude 1 x 10 T at the center of the solenoid?

A. 29.8 mA
B. 31.3 mA
C. 31.8 mA
D. 323 mA

To turn off the SCR, which of the following is done?

A. Reduce gate voltage to zero,

B. Reverse bias the gate.
C. Reduce anode voltage to zero
D. Reduce cathode voltage to zero

A logic circuit has an output O when the input is 1, and vice versa.

A: NOR gate
B. OR gate
C. NOT gate
D. XOR gate
A device has a voltage gain of 23 dB. The input
voltage is 33 V. The output voltage is:

A 76 V
B. 47 V
C. 660 V
D. 56 V

A class-A circuit would not work well as:

A. A television transmitter PA
B. A stereo hi-fi amplifier
C. A low-level microphone preamplifier
D. The first stage in a radio receiver

Why is it that the magnitude of magnetomotive force required for air gap is much greater than that
required for iron part of a magnetic circuit?

A. Because air is a gas.

B. Because air has the highest relative permeability.
C. Because air is a conductor of magnetic flux.
D. Because air has the lowest relative permeability.

for a paralle1 AC circuit_______ is used as a reference phasor.

A. voltage
B. power
C. current
D. resistance

A transformer has a secondary-to-primary turn ratio is 0.6. This transformer is

A. A step-up unit
B. A step-down unit
C. Neither step-up and step-down unit
D. A reversible unit
For a series AC circuit, ____________is not used as a reference phasor,

A. voltage
B. impedance
C. current
D. conductance

The meter movement in an illumination meter

measures:

A. Current
B. Energy
C. Voltage
D. Power

A silicon power transistor is operated with a heat sink(Osa = 1.5°C/W). The transistor, rated at 150 W
(25°C).has Ojc=0.5°C/W, and the mounting insulation has less 0.6°C/W. What maximum power can be
dissipated if the ambient temperature is 40°C and Tjmax = 200°C?

A. 63.5W
B. 57.5W
C. 61.5 W
D. 58.2W

It is a thin polished slice of a semiconductor crystal on which integrated circuit can be fabricated often in
duplicate, for cutting into individual slice.

A. Silicon
B. Wafer
C. Indium
D. Gallium

A electric power line carries a current of 1400 A in a location where the earth's magnetic field is 5.0 x
104 T. The line makes an angle of 75° with respect to the field. Determine the magnitude of the
magnetic force on a 120-m length of line.

A. 8.50 N
B. 8.11N
C. 7.82N
D. 8.66N
In Boolean algebra, a high signal added to another low
signal is
A. 10
B. 1
C. 11
D. 0

One or the other input can be true for the output to the false.

A. AND
B. NOR
C. OR
D. XNOR

The magnetic flux through a wire loop in n magnetic field does not depend on the

A. area of the loop

B. magnitude of the field
C. shape of the loop
D. angle between the plane of the loop and the
direction

A defect than can be described as a pair of vacant

lattice sites, an anion site and a cation site.

A. Schottky defect
B. Planar Defects
C. Line Defects
D. Frenkel defect

The nine's complement of 3 is

A. 8
B. 6
C. 3
D. 9
Suppose that an ion source in a mass spectrometer produces doubly ionized gold ions (Au++), each with
amass of 3.27x10 kg. The ions are accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 1.00 KV. Then,
a 0.500-T magnetic field causes the ions to follow a circular path. Determine the radius of the path.

A. 8.0 cm
B. 8.5 cm
C. 9.0 cm
D. 9.5 cm

If a certain circuit has a current that is lagging the voltage by 45°, then it displays

A. pure inductive reactance

B. resistance and capacitive reactance
C. resistance and inductive reactance
D. pure capacitive reactance

In an N-channel JFET, pinchoff occurs when the gate bias is

A. Slight negative
B. Very negative
C. Slight positive
D. Zero

A semiconductor device with four alternating layers (P-N-P-N) that are controlled by a metal-oxide
semiconductor (MOS) gate structure without regenerative action.

A. SCR
B. Thyristor
C. IGBT
D. Triac

A current surge take place when a power supply is

turned on because

A. The transformer core is suddenly magnetize

B. The diode suddenly start to conduct
C. The filter capacitor(s) must be initially charged.
D. Arcing takes place in the power switch
What maximum voltage can be applied across the capacitor for very short period of time

A. Working voltage
B. Surge voltage
C. Stray voltage
D. Peak voltage

Calculate the total harmonic distortion for the

amplitude components given D2-0.10, D3-0.4, and D4-0.2

A. 11%
B. 10.75%
C 11.95%
D. 10.95%

A______is like two parallel SCRs having a common gate and connected opposite directions.

A. UJTS
B. PUTS
C. Diacs
D. Triacs

Which of the following voltmeter has the most

inaccurate reading?

A. Low sensitive, 900 micro ohms.

B. Low sensitive, 90 milli ohms.
C. Low sensitive, 90 micro ohms.
D. Low sensitive, 900 k ohms.

A frequency synthesizer makes use of

A. The hexadecimal numbering

B. A divider
C. An OR gate
D. An octal numbering system
When phase shifting an SCR, what two things must be phase shifted?

A. variable resistor and gate current

B. variable resistor and capacitor
C. variable inductor and gate current
D. variable capacitance and gate current

CE amplifier is characterized by

A. A low voltage gain

B. Moderate power gain
C. Signal phase reversal
D. Very high output impedance

For a certain magnetic material, the________ the area

inside the hysteresis loop, the________the hysteresis losses.

A. greater, larger
B. smaller, larger
C. greater, smaller
D. smaller, smaller

The number of protons in the nucleus of an element is the:

A. Electron Number
B. Valence Number
C. Proton Number
D. Atomic Number

A theorem which states that an electric current flowing in a circuit produces a magnetic field at external
points equivalent to that due to a magnetic shell whose bounding edge is the conductor and whose
strength is equal to the strength of the current.

A.Joule's law
B. Faraday's law
C. Volia's theorem
D Ampere's theorem
Find the counter emf of a motor when the terminal
voltage is 240V and the armature current is 50 A. The armature resistance is 0.08 12. The field current is
negligible.

A. 244 V
B. 240 V
C. 236 V
D. 232 V

The current going into a point in a dc circuit is always equal to the current:

A. Flowing out of the point.

B. Delivered by the power supply.
C. Through any one of the resistances.
D. At any other point

What is that value of current below which the SCR

switches from the conduction state to the forward blocking region under stated conditions?

A. Holding current
B. Forward current
C. Reverse current
D. Trigger current

Calculate the output voltage for resistor components of value Rf=470kohms, R1=4.3kohms, R2=33kohms
and R3=33kohms for an input of 80uV.
A. 1.23V
B. 1.78V
C. 2.11V
D. 2.34V

In a RAM:

A. It's easy to get data out and hard to put it in

B. It's hard to get data out and easy to put it in
C. It's hard to get data out and put it in
D. It's easy to get data out and put it in
Calculate the efficiency of a class B amplifier for a
supply voltage of Vcc=24 V with peak output voltages of Vlo) = 22V.

A. 90%
B. 72%
C. 87%
D. 75%

If X is low, what is the state of X AND Y?

A. Not enough information to tell.

B. High
C. Low
D. This logic makes no sense

How can electrical currents be induced with a coil and a magnet?

A. By placing the coil parallel to the magnetic field

B. By placing the coil at right angles with the magnetic field
C. By moving either the magnet or the coil
D. By keeping the coil and the magnet perfectly
stationary

The PUT is

A. Trigger on and off by the gate-to-anode

B. Much like the UST
C. Not a four-layer device
D. Not a thyristor

The circuit has a resistance of 1000 2 in parallel with the capacitance of 1000pF. The frequency is 100
kHz. if the wattmeter reads a VA power of 88 watts, what is the true power?

A. 74.4 watts
B. 72.6 watts
C. 76.1 watts
D. 73.3 watts
In negative-edge triggering, the change of state occurs when:

A. The pulse level is high

B. The pulse level is going from high to low
C. The pulse level is going from low to high
D. The pulse level is low
 ELECS NO DATE

A common emitter amplifier has

A. More current gain than common base or common collector
B. More voltage gain than common base or common collector
C. More power gain than common base or common collector
D. Highest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations

The package of the resistor is rated at 56 ohms, plus or minus 10 percent. You test them with
an ohmmeter, which of the following values indicate a reject?
A. 20.0 ohms
B. 59.7 ohms
C. 53.0 ohms
D. 61.1 ohms

Rise time measurements are most commonly made from the following amplitudes:
A. 10-90%
B. 20-80%
C. 0-100%
D. 30-70%

Power absorbed in a pure inductive circuit is zero because

A. Reactive components of the current is zero
B. Active components of the current is maximum
C. Power factor of the circuit is zero
D. Reactive and active components of the current cancel out

In an ac circuit with inductive reactance, the

A. phase angle of the circuit is always 45degrees
B. voltage across the inductance must be 90degrees out-of-phase with the applied voltage
C. current through the inductance lags its induced voltage by 90degrees
D. current through the inductance and voltage across it are 180degrees out-of-phase

In nMOS transistor, which operation is for saturation mode?

A. Vgs>Vo, Vgs>Vgd>Vth, and 0<Vds<Vgs-Vth
B. Vgs>Vth, Vgs<Vgd, and Vds>Vgs-Vth
C. Vgs>Vth, Vgd=Vgs and Vds=0
D. Vgs=0 and Vgd is high
What is the characteristic of the current flow in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance?
A. The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a minimum
B. The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a maximum
C. The current circulating in the parallel elements is DC
D. The current circulating in the parallel elements is zero

Drain current in the constant current region decreases when

A. the gate-to-source bias voltage decreases
B. the gate-to-source bias voltage increases
C. the drain-to-source voltage increases
D. the drain-to-source voltage decreases

A universal gate is a
A. NOR gate
B. AND gate
C. OR gate
D. NOT gate

To prevent a DC return between source and load, it is necessary to use

A. resistor between source and load
B. inductor between source and load
C. capacitor between source and load
D. Either A or B

The only way to stop an SCR that is conducting is by

A. breakover
B. low-current drop out
C. reverse bias triggering a positive trigger
D. a positive trigger

Convert BA223C to binary

A. 1011101000100011001111
B. 1011101000100010001111
C. 1011101001100010001111
D. 1011111000100010001111
Dynamic gates driven multiple-input static CMOS gates are susceptible to
A. Hot spots
B. Minority carrier injection
C. Leakeage
D. Back-end coupling

In the figure shown, what is the current supplied by battery immediately after switching on the
circuit?
A. 1A
B. 10A
C. 4A
D. 0

An RLC series circuit is underdamped. To make it overdamped, the value of R has to be

________.
A. increased
B. decreased
C. increased to infinity
D. reduced to zero

How is the efficiency of a power amplifier determined?

A. Efficiency = (RF power out/DC power in) x 100%
B. Efficiency = (RF power in/RF power out) x 100%
C. Efficiency = (RF power in/DC power in) x 100%
D. Efficiency = (DC power in/RF power in) x 100%

For a UJT, the intrinsic standoff ratio is

A. usually around 1k or so
B. equal to 1
C. always greater than 1
D. always less than 1

What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor?

A. Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and distance between the plates
B. Area of the plates, distance between the plates and the dielectric constant of the material
between the plates
C. Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between
the plates
D. Area of the plates, amount of charge on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material
between the plates
An IC constructed entirely on a single silicon chip
A. Thin-film
B. Monolithic
C. Thick-film
D. Hybrid

Two coils have their axes perpendicular to each other. The coefficient of coupling k is
A. 1
B. 0.5
C. more than 0 but less than 1
D. 0

Si transistor of following figure has a = 0.9 and Ice = 0, Vee = 5V and Vcc = 13V, then Re will be
if Ieq = 1mA
A. 3kohms
B. 5kohms
C. 4kohms
D. 4.3kohms

When two parallel current-carrying wires have currents in the same direction, the wires
A. Attract one another
B. Repel one another
C. Exert no forces on one another
D. Exert equal and opposite repulsive forces on one another perpendicular to the phase of the
wires

Find Q of a circuit when the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 2.7 uH and
the resistance is 18,000 ohms are in parallel
A. 751
B. 7.51
C. 75.1
D. 71.5

At series resonance, the voltage across L or C is

A. Equal to the applied voltage
B. Less than the applied voltage
C. Much more than the applied voltage
D. Equal to the voltage across R
Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion?
A. Class A
B. Class C
C. Class B
D. Class AB

A wire 50m in length and 2mm^2 in cross section has a resistance of 0.56ohms. A 100m length
of wire of the same material has a resistance of 2ohms at the same temperature. Find the
diameter of this wire.
A. 1.8 mm
B. 1.2 mm
C. 1.4 mm
D. 1.0 mm

Find the power factor of a fully loaded 5-hp induction motor that operates at 85 percent
efficiency while drawing 15 A from a 480V line.
A. 0.678 lagging
B. 0.645 lagging
C. 0.609 lagging
D. 0.589 lagging

What type of linear regulator is used in applications requiring efficient utilization of the primary
power source?
A. A constant current source
B. A series regulator
C. A shunt regulator
D. A shunt current source

What is the voltage drop across the resistor in an RC charging circuit when the charge on the
capacitor is equal to the battery voltage?
A. 0.10 volt
B. zero
C. 1.0 volt
D. 10 volts

It is used to display the phase of the colors in color TV

A. Vectorscope
B. Network analyzer
C. Spectrum analyzer
D. Sweep generator
What is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator?
A. It is easy to neutralize
B. It doesn't require an LC tank circuit
C. It can be tuned over a wide range
D. It has a high output power

The resistance of a certain wire is 20ohms. Another wire of the same material and at the same
temperature has a diameter one-third as great and a length twice as great. Find the resistance
of the second wire.
A. 360 ohms
B. 40 ohms
C. 180 ohms
D. 240 ohms

An oscillator might fail to start for any of the following reasons except:
A. Low power supply voltage
B. Low stage gain
C. Very low output impedance
D. In-phase feedback

What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?

A. A high forward resistance
B. A very high PIV (peak inverse voltage)
C. A negative resistance region
D. A high forward current rating

The impedance of R-C series circuit is 100ohms. If circuit current leads the applied voltage by
60 degrees the capacitive reactance is ___________
A. 50ohms
B. 86.6ohms
C. 70.7ohms
D. 200ohms

What class of amplifier is distinguished by the flow of current in the output essentially in 180
degree pulses?
A. Class A
B. Class C
C. Class B
D. Class D
The low power factor of the circuit means that it will
A. draw more active power
B. less line current
C. cause less voltage drop in the line
D. draw more reactive power

What is the purpose of a multiplier resistor used with a voltmeter?

A. A multiplier resistor is not used with a voltmeter
B. It is used to increase the voltage indicating range of the voltmeter
C. It is used to decrease the voltage indicating range of the voltmeter
D. It is used to increase the current indicating range of an ammeter not a voltmeter

When negative current feedback is applied to an amplifier, its output impedance

A. increases
B. remains unchanged
C. decreases
D. becomes zero

Find the current I in the circuit shown.

A. 0.234 A
B. 0.394 A
C. 0.334 A
D. 0.424 A

What is the characteristic of the current flow in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance?
A. The current circulating in the parallel elements is zero
B. The current circulating in the parallel elements is dc
C. The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a maximum
D. The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a minimum

The magnetism of ferromagnetic materials, such as iron, has its origin in the intrinsic magnetic
moment of electrons that is associated with their
A. Orbital angular momentum
B. Spin angular momentum
C. Electric charge
D. Being magnetically soft
Under what condition does resonance occur in an electrical circuit?
A. When the power factor is at a maximum
B. When inductive and capacitive reactances are equal
C. labo
D. labo

A phase difference of 180 degrees in the circular model:

A. 1/4 revolution
B. A full revolution
C. 1/2 revolution
D. Two full revolutions

What order of Q is required by a tank-circuit sufficient to reduce harmonics to an acceptable

level?
A. Approximately 120
B. Approximately 12
C. Approximately 1200
D. Approximately 1.2

In an RLC series circuit, the circuit frequency is below the resonant frequency, then
A. Z = R
B. Xc > XL
C. Xc = XL
D. Xc < XL

Conventional flow assumes charges flow from

A. positive to negative
B. positive to positive
C. negative to positive
D. negative to negative

The features of CASCADE amplifier are

A. Reduced distortion
B. Small input impedance
C. Large output impedance
D. Larger bandwidth
An advantage of high frequency operation of a DC-DC converter is:
A. A small filter capacitor may be used
B. The output does not need to be filtered
C. Less RFI is generated
D. Fewer components are required

In the circuit of figure, the switch is closed at t = 0. At t = 0, what is the current through C?
A. 4 A
B. 3.1 A
C. 2.5 A
D. 0

For a full-wave rectifier, the output frequency

A. equals one-half the input frequency
B. equals the line frequency
C. equals two times the input frequency
D. is three times the line frequency

How can a class C amplifier be made linear?

A. By reducing the bias
B. A class C amplifier cannot be made linear
C. By increasing the drive
D. By using two transistor in push-pull

A thyristor has a maximum allowable junction temperature of 120 C and the ambient
temperature is 40 C. If thermal resistance is 1.6 C/W, what is the maximum allowable internal
power dissipation?
A. 20 W
B. 92 W
C. 50 W
D. 128 W

In a two stage CE amplifier circuit, the ac collector resistance of the first stage depends on
A. load resistance
B. input impedance of first stage
C. input impedance of second stage
D. All of the above
Electric field lines start
A. At positive charges or at infinity
B. At negative charges or infinity
C. At infinity and end at positive charges
D. Midway between positive charges and negative charges

In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be
determined?
A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
B. By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor
C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
D. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current

A device that can characterize active devices such as transistors and amplifiers using S-
parameters, as long as they are operating in their linear mode of operation
A. Vector Network analyzer
B. Spectrum analyzer
C. Vectorscope
D. Sweep generator

A transistor has two p-n junctions. The batteries should be connected such that
A. both junctions are forward biased
B. both junctions are reverse biased
C. one junction is forward biased and the other is reverse biased
D. either A or B

A logic gate which produces an output which is false only if all its inputs are true
A. NOR
B. OR
C. NAND
D. AND

What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it?

A. The conductivity of the material increases
B. The conductivity of the material decreases
C. The conductivity of the material stays the same
D. The conductivity of the material becomes temperature dependent
The junction FET, the control electrode is usually the:
A. Source
B. Gate
C. Emitter
D. Drain

Three resistance of 15 ohms each are connected in delta. The resistance of equivalent star will
have a value of
A. 15 ohms
B. 5/3 ohms
C. 5 ohms
D. 45 ohms

The electric flux through a surface of fixed area is maximum when the surface is
A. Parallel to the electric field
B. Antiparallel to the electric field
C. Perpendicular to the electric field
D. At an angle of 45 degrees to the electric field

The ratio of W/VA in an ac circuit means

A. power factor
B. quality factor
C. reactive factor
D. load factor

The head of a nail is attracted to the north pole of a magnet and repelled by the magnet's south
pole
A. The nail is aluminum
B. The nail is copper
C. The nail is initially not magnetized
D. The nail is magnetized

In a class C power amplifier the input signal has a frequency of 250 kHz. If the collector current
pulses are 0.1 us wide, what is the duty cycle of current waveform?
A. 50%
B. 2.5%
C. 25%
D. 0.25%
The state of asynchronous enable SR latch when both signals are ' 1 ' and enable is ' 1 '.
A. No change
B. Reset
C. Set
D. Not allowed

In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1?

A. A low level
B. A positive-transition level
C. A negative-transition level
D. A high level

The PUT is
A. Not a thyristor
B. Much like the UJT
C. Not a four-layer device
D. Trigger on and off by the gate-to-anode

Inductive susceptance is
A. Equal to capacitive reactance
B. The measure of the opposition a coil offers to ac
C. Negative imaginary
D. The reciprocal of inductance

Two phasors having rms values V1 and V2 which are added to give a phasor having rms value
V3. V3 is maximum if phase angle between V1 and V2 is
A. 90 degrees
B. 270 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 360 degrees

As the capacitor plate area increases, all things being equal

A. the capacitance decreases
B. the capacitance do not change
C. the voltage-handling ability increases
D. the capacitance increases
In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 0?
A. A low level
B. A positive-transition level
C. A negative-transition level
D. A high level

A ammeter shunt is useful because

A. It prevents overheating of the meter
B. It makes a meter more physically rugged
C. It allows for measurements of a wide range of current
D. It increases meter sensitivity

Pulse width measurements on the oscilloscope are normally made at:

A. 50% amplitude
B. 80% amplitude
C. 90% amplitude
D. 70% amplitude

A small-signal amplifier
A. always has an output signal in the mV range
B. uses only a small portion of its load line
C. goes into saturation once on each input cycle
D. is always a common-emitter amplifier

Assuming a power source to have a fixed value of internal impedance, maximum power will be
transferred to the load when:
A. The load impedance equals the internal impedance of the source
B. The load impedance is greater than the source impedance
C. The load impedance is less than the source impedance
D. The fixed values of internal impedance is not relative to the power source

Equivalent circuit model commonly used in small signal analysis at high frequencies
A. Ideal model
B. Hybrid-pi or Giacoletto
C. H-parameters
D. Ebers-Moll
Wave A = 100sinwt and wave B = 100coswt. Then
A. rms values of the two waves are equal
B. rms values of A is more than that of B
C. rms values of A is less than that of B
D. rms values of the two waves may or may not be equal

A silicon sample at room temperature has an intrinsic carrier concentration of a = 5 x 10^9 cm^-
3. It is doped with Nd = 6.1 x 10^15 arsenic atoms/cm^3 and Na = 6 x 10^12 boron atoms/cm^3.
The electron mobility is measured as us = 1600 cm^2/V-s and the hole mobility is ud = 480
cm^2/V-s. What is the hole concentration?
A. p = 6 x 10^12 /cm^3
B. p = 2.5 x 10^17 /cm^3
C. p = 4.1 x 10^2 /cm^3
D. p = 6.1 x 10^15 /cm^3

A fully charged lead-acid battery rated at 500 amp-hours could power a:

A. 10 amp receiver for 50 hours
B. 50 amp load for 10 hours
C. 5 amp load for 100 hours
D. All these

In a p-channel FET, the charge carriers are __________.

A. electrons
B. holes
C. both holes and electrons
D. ions

A simple pi network with inductors on each leg and a capacitor in the center is a:
A. Bandpass filter
B. High pass filter
C. Low pass filter
D. Notch filter

The principal disadvantage of the voltage multiplier

A. Poor regulation
B. Insufficient rectification
C. Excessive current
D. Excessive voltage
The ac load line differs from the dc load line because
A. The effective dc collector resistance is less than the dc collector resistance
B. The effective ac collector resistance is less than the ac collector resistance
C. The effective ac collector resistance is less than the dc collector resistance
D. The effective ac collector resistance is greater than the dc collector resistance

Two series connected 7 H inductors are adjacent to each other. Their coefficient of coupling
0.64. What is the value of mutual inductance?
A. 4.48 H
B. 44.8 H
C. 0.448 H
D. 448 H

If the load impedance for the oscillator is too high:

A. It's not a cause for worry; it can't be too high
B. The frequency might drift
C. The power output might be reduce
D. The oscillator might fail to start

What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to
36.8% of its initial value of stored charge?
A. One discharge period
B. An exponential discharge rate of one
C. A discharge factor of one
D. One time constant

The oscillating frequency of the quartz crystal can be varied slightly by:
A. Changing the bias on the transistor
B. Changing the voltage across each one
C. Reversing the power supply polarity
D. Placing a small variable capacitor across the crystal

A battery with capacity of 100 Ah and 12 volts rating will run an electronic equipment at exactly
20 hours, how much power is needed?
A. 60 W
B. 10 W
C. 20 W
D. 30 W
Convert 111101.01101 to octal
A. 75.23
B. 76.32
C. 75.32
D. 75.22

In a CE amplifier,
A. both ac and dc load lines have the same slope
B. the ac load line has more slope than dc load line
C. the ac load line has less slope than dc load line
D. the two load lines may have slope more than the other

The state of clocked JK flip-flop when Q=1, J=1 and K=1 is

A. Toggle
B. Set
C. Reset
D. Not allowed

The electrical energy required to heat a bucket of water to a certain temperature is 2 kWh. If
heat losses are 25%, the energy input is
A. 2.67 kWh
B. 2.5 kWh
C. 3 kWh
D. 3.5 kWh

If an electron moves from right to left across this page and suddenly is subjected to a magnetic
field directed into the page, what is the direction of the magnetic force on the electron?
A. into the page
B. Out of the page
C. From the bottom to the top of the page
D. From the top to the bottom of the page

According to Lenz's Law, the induced emf produced by a change in current in an inductive
circuit tends to have what effect on the current?
A. It aids a rise in current and opposes fall in current
B. It aids a fall in current and opposes a rise in current
C. It opposes either a rise or a fall in current
D. It aids either a rise or fall in current
An SCR differs from the 4-layer diode because
A. it has a gate terminal
B. it is not a thyristor
C. it does not have four layers
D. it cannot be turned on and off

What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

A. Decode a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
B. Produce one output pulse for every ten input pulses
C. Produce ten output pulses for every input pulse
D. Add two decimal numbers

The meter movement in an illumination meter measures

A. Voltage
B. Current
C. Power
D. Energy
ELECS NO DATE(SET B)
Magnetic flux can always be attributed to:
A. Ferromagnetic materials
B. Align atoms
C. Motion of charge particles
D. The geomagnetic fields

What does K shell mean?

A. First orbit
B. 3rd orbit
C. 2nd orbit
D. 4th orbit

If a wire coil has 10 turns and carries 500 mA of current, what is the magnetic force in ampere-turn?
A. 5000
B. 5
C. 50
D. 0.02

A substance with high retentivity is best suited for making

A. An ac electromagnet
B. A dc electromagnet
C. An electrostatic shield
D. A permanent magnet

Find vo.
A. 7.4 V
B. 5 V
C. 2.4 V
D. 12 V

Consider two copper wires. One has twice the length of the other. How does the resistances of these
two wires compare?
A. The longer wire has twice the resistance of the shorter wire
B. The longer wire has half the resistance of the shorter wire
C. Both wires have the same resistance
D. None of the above
What is the value of resistor with color bands from left: Red-Blue-Gold-Silver
A. R=2.7 +- 10%
B. R=3.6 +- 10%
C. R=2.8 +- 10%
D. R=2.6 +- 10%

The voltage and current in an ac circuit are v=200sin(377t+30degrees) and i=10sin(377t+60degrees).

Determine the average power.
A. 822 W
B. 866 W
C. 938 W
D. 892 W

As the capacitor plate area decreases, all things being equal

A. the capacitance increases
B. the capacitance decreases
C. the capacitance does not change
D. the voltage-handling ability increases

At what frequency will the current lead the voltage by 30 degrees in a series circuit with R = 8ohms and
C = 30uF?
A. f=1109 Hz
B. f=1123 Hz
C. f=1178 Hz
D. f=1149 Hz

The power in the reactance is:

A. Radiated power
B. True power
C. Imaginary power
D. Apparent power

What kind of instrument an ammeter is?

A. An indicating
B. A recording
C. An integrating
D. A dc meter
As the deflection of the moving system increases, the controlling torque in an indicating instrument.
A. remains the same
B. decreases
C. increases
D. becomes zero

Which is the best type of meter movement?

A. Iron-wave
B. D' Arsonval
C. Dynamometer
D. Moving iron

Which dynamometer type has uniform scale?

A. Wattmeter
B. Ammeter
C. Voltmeter
D. Ohmmeter

When both deflecting and controlling torque act, the pointer of an indicating instrument comes to
A. rest
B. mid-position
C. maximum position
D. three-fourth position

Which of the following describes the speed of a dc motor?

A. It is directly proportional to flux per pole
B. It is inversely proportional to flux per pole
C. It is inversely proportional to applied voltage
D. It is inversely proportional to armature current

What drives low-speed alternators?

A. Hydraulic turbines
B. Steam engines
C. Steam turbines
D. Diesel engines
What drives high-speed alternators?
A. Diesel engines
B. Hydraulic turbines
C. Steam turbines
D. Diesel engines

The common 9-V flat battery for transistor radio has how many cells connected in series?
A. Twelve
B. Six
C. Three
D. Nine

For the same rating, the size of low-speed alternator is ____________ that of high-speed alternator.
A. about the same as
B. more than
C. less than
D. twice

Which of the following is not a secondary cell?

A. Silver-zinc
B. Silver oxide
C. Nickel-iron
D. Lead-acid

Which of the following is not a primary cell?

A. Carbon-zinc
B. Edison cell
C. Zinc chloride
D. Mercuric oxide

The brush voltage drop in a dc machine is about how much?

A. 0.1 V
B. 10 V
C. 2 V
D. 20 V
Why carbon brushes are used in a dc machine?
A. Because carbon lubricates and polishes the commutator
B. Because contact resistance is decreased
C. Because carbon is cheap
D. Because carbon is abundant

What are considered as the main types of battery?

A. Lithium cell and alkaline
B. Carbon-zinc dry cell and lead-sulfuric wet cell
C. Leclanche cell and carbon-zinc
D. Voltaic cell and lithium cell

Which of the following is the main function of a dc motor?

A. To generate power
B. To change mechanical energy to electrical energy
C. To change electrical energy to mechanical energy
D. To change chemical energy to mechanical energy

Which motor has the best speed regulation?

A. Series
B. Shunt
C. Commulatively compounded
D. Differentially compounded

The output voltage of a thermocouple

A. remains constant with temperature
B. decreases with applied voltage
C. increases with temperature
D. increases with applied voltage

An instrument in which the magnitude of the measured quantity is indicated by means of a pointer.
A. Analog instrument
B. Digital instrument
C. Ammeter
D. Voltmeter
If the pointer of an indicating instrument is in motion, then what opposes deflecting torque?
A. Controlling torque
B. Damping torque
C. Damping and controlling torques
D. Frictional torque

How can electrical currents be induced with a coil and a magnet?

A. By placing the coil parallel to the magnetic field
B. By placing the coil at right angles with the magnetic field
C. By moving either the magnet or the coil
D. By keeping the coil and the magnet perfectly stationary

When should a fuse be replaced with a higher rated unit?

A. Never
B. When the original value is not available
C. If it blows
D. When fuses of the original value are small in size

Suppose a certain current in the galvanometer causes the needle to deflect 20 degrees, and the current
is doubled. The needle deflection:
A. Will decrease
B. Will stay the same
C. Will increase
D. Will reverse direction

A thermocouple:
A. Gets warm when the current flows through it
B. Is a thin, straight, special wire
C. Generates dc when expose to the light
D. Generates ac when heat

The meter movement in an illumination meter measures:

A. Voltage
B. Current
C. Power
D. Energy
The voltmeter should generally have:
A. Low internal resistance
B. Maximum possible sensitivity
C. Able to withstand large currents
D. Large internal resistance

How many electrons are there in the fourth orbit of a copper atom?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4

What is the maximum permissible number of electrons in the third orbit?

A. 18
B. 32
C. 8
D. 2

Varactor diodes are commonly used

A. as a voltage controlled capacitance
B. as a constant current source
C. as voltage multiplier
D. as a common voltage source

What is the reason why electrons are not pulled into the nucleus of an atom?
A. Because of the centrifugal or outward force created by their orbital motion
B. Because of the force of attraction between them and the nucleus is weak
C. Because they are not being attracted by the positive nucleus
D. Because of the strong bonding between them that resists any force pulling them towards the nucleus

The electrons in the largest orbit travel _____________ than the electrons in the smaller orbits.
A. more slowly
B. faster
C. in the same velocity
D. a little bit slower
What transistor configuration has the lowest current gain?
A. Common base
B. Common collector
C. Common emitter
D. Emitter-follower

What do you call a semiconductor in its purest form?

A. Pure semiconductor
B. Doped semiconductor
C. Intrinsic semiconductor
D. Extrinsic semiconductor

Valence orbit is the other term for what?

A. Outer orbit
B. 4th orbit
C. 3rd orbit
D. 2nd orbit

For either germanium or silicon diodes, the barrier potential decreases ____________ for each Celsius
degree rise
A. 1 mV
B. 4 mV
C. 3 mV
D. 2 mV

When a transistor is conducting as much as it possibly can, it is said to be:

A. In cutoff
B. In saturation
C. Forward-Biased
D. In avalanche

The ripple frequency of the full-wave rectifier is

A. Twice that of the half-wave circuit
B. The same as that of the full-wave circuit
C. Half that of the half-wave circuit
D. One-fourth that from a half-wave circuit
It is a two-port transistor arrangement in which the base shares a common point with the input and
output terminals.
A. Common-Emitter
B. Common-Base
C. Common-Collector
D. Common-Ground

The principal disadvantage of the voltage multiplier

A. Excessive current
B. Excessive voltage
C. Insufficient rectification
D. Poor regulation

What type of secondary cell can be recharged but with an electrolyte that cannot be refilled?
A. Sealed rechargeable cell
B. Sealed secondary cell
C. Leclanche cell
D. Alkaline cell

What is the nominal open-circuit voltage of silver-cadmium which is a secondary cell?

A. 1.1 V
B. 1.5 V
C. 1.2 V
D. 1.35 V

What is the most commonly used method of speed control of a dc motor?

A. By varying voltage applied to the motor
B. By varying field strength
C. By varying effective number of conductors in series
D. By varying armature circuit resistance

Measured by the output impedance Zo (the driving-point impedance looking into the output port with
the load removed)
A. Impedance match
B. Voltage amplification
C. Power amplification
D. Power transfer ability
The bipolar transistor or JFET in the multi-vibrator is
A. Class B
B. A common-emitter or common-source arrangement
C. Class C
D. A common-collector or common-drain arrangement

An oscillator might fail to start for any of the following reasons except:
A. Low power supply voltage
B. Low stage gain
C. In-phase feedback
D. Very low output impedance

A spectrum analyzer displays:

A. Time as a function of frequency
B. Frequency as function of time
C. Signal strength as a function of time
D. Signal strength as the function of frequency

For a common-emitter amplifier, Rc = 1 kohms, Re = 390 ohms, r'e = 15 ohms, and Bac = 75. Assuming
that Re is completely bypassed at the operating frequency, the voltage gain is
A. 66.7
B. 2.47
C. 2.56
D. 75

Each stage of a four-stage amplifier has a voltage gain of 15. The overall gain found can be expressed in
decibels as
A. 94.1 dB
B. 35.6 dB
C. 47.0 dB
D. 69.8 dB

Which of the digital IC is least susceptible to noise?

A. Transistor-transistor logic
B. Base-coupled logic
C. Emitter-coupled logic
D. N-channel-couple logic
A CMOS integrated circuit:
A. Can only work at low frequencies
B. Is susceptible to damage to static
C. Requires considerable power to function
D. Need very high voltage

Which type of IC is used to determine whether voltage levels are the same or not?
A. An op-amp
B. A timer
C. A comparator
D. A multiplexer demultiplexer

___________ is a thin polished slice of a semiconductor crystal on which integrated circuit can be
fabricated often in duplicate, for cutting into individual slice.
A. Silicon
B. Gallium
C. Indium
D. Wafer

The channel in a zero-biased JFET is normally:

A. Pinched off
B. Somewhat open
C. All the way open
D. Of P-type semiconductor

What is a CMOS IC?

A. A chip with only bipolar transistors
B. A chip with n-channel transistors
C. A chip with p-channel (pmos) and n-channel (nmos) transistors
D. A chip with p-channel transistors

Three resistors are connected in series to a 25V-battery. The resistances are 8ohms, R, and 16ohms. If
the 16ohms resistor absorbs 5W, the ohmic value of R is closest to
A. 40ohms
B. 26ohms
C. 3ohms
D. 20ohms
Which of the following voltage could normally represent a 1 in a positive logic?
A. 0 V
B. +4 V
C. +1 V
D. +12 V

If X is low, what is the state of X AND Y?

A. Not enough information to tell
B. Low
C. High
D. This logic makes no sense

The advantage of J-K over R-S flip-flop is that

A. The J-K flip-flop is faster
B. The J-K can attain more states
C. The J-K always has predictable output
D. An R-S flip-flop is superior to a J-K

A logic circuit has four inputs A, B, C, and D. How many possible input combination are there?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32

In the tunnel diode, the tunneling current is at what level when the forbidden gap of the N-type material
is at the same energy level as the empty states of the P-type material?
A. Equal to forbidden
B. Minimum
C. Maximum
D. half of the forbidden

The SCR is primarily used for what function

A. Switch frequency on or off
B. Generate current
C. Control voltage
D. Switching power on or off
When an SCR is forward biased, what is needed to cause it to conduct?
A. A cathode
B. An anode signal
C. A gate signal
D. A P-channel signal

When used for an ac current control, during which alternation of the ac cycle does the TRIAC control
current flow?
A. During positive alternations
B. During negative alternations
C. During both alternations
D. Fixed current

What is a typical light-to-dark resistance ratio for a photocell?

A. 1:100
B. 1:2000
C. 1:1000
D. 1:5000

What is the resistance level of a photodiode in total darkness?

A. Very low
B. High
C. Low
D. Very High

The only way to stop an SCR that is conducting is by

A. low-current drop out
B. reverse-bias triggering
C. a positive trigger
D. breakover

For a UJT, the intrinsic standoff ratio is

A. equal to 1
B. always less than 1
C. always greater than 1
D. usually around 1k or so
The PUT is
A. Much like the UJT
B. Not a four-layer device
C. Trigger on and off by the gate-to-anode
D. Not a thyristor

What do you call a group of cells that generate electric energy from their internal chemical reaction?
A. Battery
B. Power supply
C. Regulator
D. Solar array

Which of the following is the main function of a battery?

A. To provide a source of steady dc voltage of fixed polarity
B. To provide a source of steady dc voltage of variable polarity
C. To provide a source of variable dc voltage of fixed polarity
D. To provide a source of variable dc voltage of variable polarity

What diode modeling circuit considers the threshold voltage, average resistance and switch as the
diode's equivalent circuit?
A. Ideal model
B. Simplified model
C. Piecewise linear model
D. Real model

In which of the following a transformer will work on?

A. In ac only
B. In ac as well as dc
C. In dc only
D. In pulsating dc

In a chemical cell, what is current?

A. It is the movement of positive and negative ions
B. It is the movement of positive charges
C. It is the movement of positive ions only
D. It is the movement of negative ions only
What is the nominal output of an automotive battery having six lead-acid cells in series?
A. 12 V
B. 6 V
C. 24 V
D. 3 V

A cell of 1.5V supplies 100 mA for seven hours and twenty minutes, and then it is replaced. It has
supplied:
A. 7.33 Ah
B. 7.33 Wh
C. 733 mAh
D. 733 mWh

A device that reverses magnetic field polarity to keep a dc motor rotating is:
A. A solenoid
B. A field coil
C. An armature coil
D. A commutator

A material with an excess of 25 x 10^18 electrons loses 6.25 x 10^18 electrons. The excess electrons are
then made to flow past a given point in 2s. Find the current produced by the resultant electron flow.
A. 1.5A
B. 1.2A
C. 2.1A
D. 2.5A

A series RC circuit is to have an initial charging current of 4mA and a time constant of 3.6 sec when
connected to a 120V DC source. Calculate the values of "R" and "C" respectively.
A. 20kohms, 100uF
B. 30kohms, 120uF
C. 20kohms, 60uF
D. 30kohms, 20uF

If all the delta connected resistor are identical, what is the equivalent value of the resistor in WYE
connection?
A. R
B. R/2
C. R/3
D. R/4
The superposition theorem is used when the circuit contains ____________.
A. a single voltage source
B. passive elements only
C. a number of voltage sources
D. active elements only

An ac circuit draws 5A current and consumes 1000W power. What is the power factor?
A. 0.91
B. 0.9
C. 0.82
D. 0.88

Determine the Thevenin equivalent voltage.

A. 60V
B. 50V
C. 10V
D. 40V

What is a method of converting chemical energy into electric energy by dissolving two different
conducting materials in an electrolyte?
A. Battery
B. Voltaic cell
C. Cell
D. Charging

Why a cumulatively compounded motor does not run at dangerous speed at light loads?
A. Because of the presence of shunt winding
B. Because of the presence of interpoles
C. Because of the presence of series
D. Because of the presence of compensating windings

DC shunt motors are used in those applications where what is required?

A. High starting torque
B. High no-load speed
C. Practically constant speed
D. Variable speed
What cell is otherwise known as Galvanic cell?
A. Voltaic cell
B. Secondary cell
C. Primary cell
D. Solar cell

What is the voltage regulation of an alternator with a power factor of 0.8 lagging compared at unity
power factor?
A. Greater than
B. Smaller than
C. The same as
D. 100%

Which is the most suitable for punch presses?

A. Shunt motor
B. Differentially compounded motor
C. Series motor
D. Cumulatively compounded motor

In a vacuum cleaner, what motor is generally used?

A. Shunt
B. Series
C. Cumulatively compounded
D. Differentially compounded
Elex Compiled .docs (OTs)
1. Electric field lines start
a. At positive charges or at infinity.
b. At negative charges or infinity.
c. At infinity and end at positive charges.
d. Midway between positive charges and negative charges.

2. The electric flux through a surface of fixed area is maximum when the surface is
a. Parallel to the electric field.
b. Antiparallel to the electric field.
c. Perpendicular to the electric field.
d. At an angle of 45◦ to the electric field.

3. The head of a nail is attracted to the north pole of a magnet and repelled by the magnet's
south pole.
a. The nail is aluminum.
b. The nail is copper.
c. The nail is initially not magnetized.
d. The nail is magnetized.

4. If an electron moves from right to left across this page and suddenly is subjected to a
magnetic field directed into the page what is the direction of the magnetic force on the electron?
a. Into the page
b. Out of the page
c. From the bottom to the top of the page
d. From the top to the bottom of the page

5. The magnetism of ferromagnetic materials such as iron has its origin in the intrinsic magnetic
moment of electrons that is associated with their
a. Orbital angular momentum.
b. Spin angular momentum.
c. Electric charge.
d. Being magnetically soft.
6. When two parallel current-carrying wires have currents in the same direction the wires
a. Attract one another.
b. Repel one another.
c. Exert no forces on one another.
d. Exert equal and opposite repulsive forces on one another perpendicular to the plane of the
wires.

7. The impedance of R-C series circuit is 100Ω. If circuit current leads the applied voltage by
60o. the capacitive reactance is____
a. 50Ω
b. 70.7Ω
c. 86.6Ω
d. 200Ω

8. Power absorbed in a pure inductive circuit is zero because

a. Reactive component of the current is zero
b. Active component of the current is maximum
c. Power factor of the circuit is zero
d. Reactive and active components of the current cancel out

9. At series resonance the voltage across L or C is

a. Equal to the applied voltage
b. Less than the applied voltage
c. Much more than the applied voltage
d. Equal to the voltage across R

10. The resistance of a certain wire is 20Ω. Another wire of the same material and at the same
temperature has a diameter one-third as great and a length twice as great. Find the resistance
of the second wire.
a. 360 Ω
b. 180 Ω
c. 40 Ω
d. 240 Ω

11. A wire 50 m in length and 2 mm2 in cross section has a resistance of 0.56 Ω. A 100-m
length of wire of the same material has a resistance of 2 Ω at the same temperature. Find the
diameter of this wire.
a. 1.8 mm
b. 1.4 mm
c. 1.2 mm
d. 1.0 mm
12. Find the current I in the circuit shown.

a. 0.234 A
b. 0.334 A
c. 0.394 A
d. 0.424 A

13. For the circuit shown what load impedance ZL absorbs maximum average power?

a. -8.46 2.61o
b. -8.92 2.31o
c. 8.22 2.44o
d. 8.46 2.81o

14. Find the power factor of a fully loaded 5-hp induction motor that operates at 85 percent
efficiency while drawing 15 A from a 480-V line.
a. 0.678 lagging
b. 0.609 lagging
c. 0.645 lagging
d. 0.589 lagging

15. The package of the resistor is rated at 56 Ω plus or minus 10 percent. You test them with an
ohmmeter. Which of the following values indicate a reject?
a. 50.0 Ω
b. 53.0 Ω
c. 59.7 Ω
d. 61.1 Ω

16. A phase difference of 180 degrees in the circular model:

a. ¼ revolution
b. ½ revolution
c. A full revolution
d. Two full revolution

17. Inductive susceptance is

a. Equal to capacitive reactance
b. The measure of the opposition a coil offers to ac.
c. Negative imaginary
d. The reciprocal of inductance
18. The low power factor of the circuit means that it will
a. draw more active power
b. less line current
c. cause less voltage drop in the line
d. draw more reactive power

19. As the capacitor plate area increases all things being equal
a. the capacitance decreases
b. the capacitance do not change
c. the voltage-handling ability increases
d. the capacitance increases

20. In an RLC series circuit the circuit frequency is below the resonant frequency then
a. Z = R
b. XC = XL
c. XC > XL
d. XC < XL

21. A ammeter shunt is useful because

a. It prevents overheating of the meter
b. It makes a meter more physically rugged
c. It allows for measurements of a wide range of current
d. It increases meter sensitivity

22. It is used to displays the phase of the colors in color TV

a. Vectorscope
b. Network analyzer
c. Spectrum analyser
d. Sweep generator

23. The meter movement in an illumination meter measures:

a. Voltage
b. Power
c. Current
d. Energy
24. A device that can characterize active devices such as transistors and amplifiers using S-
parameters as long as they are operating in their linear mode of operation.
a. Vector Network analyzer
b. Spectrum analyzer
c. Vectorscope
d. Sweep generator

25. A small-signal amplifier

a. always has an output signal in the mV range
b. uses only a small portion of its load line
c. goes into saturation once on each input cycle
d. is always a common-emitter amplifier

26. The junction FET the control electrode is usually the:

a. Source
b. Emitter
c. Gate
d. Drain

27. Equivalent circuit model commonly used in small signal analysis at high frequencies.
a. ideal model
b. Hybrid-Pi or Giacoletto
c. H parameters
d. Ebers-Moll

28. A silicon sample at room temperature has an intrinsic carrier concentration of ni = 5×109
cm-3. It is doped with ND = 6.1×1016 arsenic atoms/cm3 and NA = 6×1012 boron atoms/cm3.
The electron mobility is measured as µn = 1600 cm2/V·s and the hole mobility is µp = 480
cm2/V·s. What is the hole concentration?
a. p =6x1012 /cm3
b. p =2.5x1019 /cm3
c. p =4.1x102 /cm3
d. p =6.1x1016 /cm3

29. In a p-channel FET the charge carriers are .....

a. electrons
b. holes
c. both holes and electrons
d. ions
30. The principal disadvantage of the voltage multiplier
a. Poor regulation
b. Insufficient rectification
c. Excessive current
d. Excessive voltage

31. The ac load line differs from the dc load line because
a. The effective dc collector resistance is less than the dc collector resistance.
b. The effective ac collector resistance is less than the ac collector resistance.
c. The effective ac collector resistance is less than the dc collector resistance.
d. The effective ac collector resistance is greater than the dc collector resistance.

32. An oscillator might fail to start for any of the following reasons except:
a. Low power supply voltage
b. Low stage gain
c. Very low output impedance
d. In-phase feedback

33. How can a class-C amplifier be made linear?

a. By reducing the bias
b. A class-C amplifier cannot be made linear
c. By increasing the drive
d. By using two transistor in push-pull

34. If the load impedance for the an oscillator is too high:

a. It's not a cause for worry. it can't be too high
b. The frequency might drift
c. The power output might be reduce
d. The oscillator might file to start

35. The oscillating frequency of the quartz crystal can he varied slightly by:
a. Changing the bias on the transistor
b. Changing the voltage across each one.
c. Reversing the power supply polarity
d. Placing a small variable capacitor across the crystal.
36. The features of CASCODE amplifier are
a. Reduced distortion
b. Small input impedance
c. Large output impedance
d. Larger bandwidth

37. An IC constructed entirely on a single silicon chip.

a. Thin-film
b. Thick-film
c. Monolithic
d. Hybrid

38. In nMOS transistor which operation is for saturation mode?

a. Vgs > Vt Vgs >Vgd>Vt and 0<Vds<Vgs-Vt
b. Vgs > Vt Vgs <Vgd and Vds>Vgs-Vt
c. Vgs >Vt Vgd = Vgs and Vds = 0
d. Vgs = 0 and Vgd is high

39. Dynamic gates drives multiple-input static CMOS gates are susceptible to
a. Hot spots
b. Minority carrier injection
c. Leakeage
d. Back-end coupling

40. Drain current in the constant-current region decreases when

a. the gate-to-source bias voltage decreases
b. the gate-to-source bias voltage increases
c. the drain-to-source voltage increases
d. the drain-to-source voltage decreases

41. A universal gate is a

a. NOR gate
b. OR gate
c. AND gate
d. NOT gate
42. A logic gate which produces an output which is false only if all its inputs are true
a. NOR
b. NAND
c. OR
d. AND

43. The state of asynchronous enable SR latch when both signals are '1' and enable is '1'.
a. No change
b. Reset
c. Set
d. Not allowed

44. The state of clocked JK flip-flop when Q=1 J=1 and K = 1 is

a. Toggle
b. Reset
c. Set
d. Not allowed

45. Convert 111101.011012 to octal

a. 75.238
b. 75.328
c. 76.328
d. 75.228

46. Convert BA2.23C16 to binary.

a. 101110100010.00110011112
b. 101110100010.00100011112
c. 101110100110.00100011112
d. 101111100010.00100011112

47. For a UJT the intrinsic standoff ratio is

a. usually around 1k or so
b. equal to 1
c. always greater than 1
d. always less than 1
48. The only way to stop an SCR that is conducting is by
a. breakover
b. low-current drop out
c. reverse-bias triggering a positive trigger
d. a positive trigger

49. The PUT is

a. Not a thyristor
b. Much like the UJT
c. Not a four-layer device
d. Trigger on and off by the gate-to-anode

50. An SCR differs from the 4-layer diode because

a. it has a gate terminal
b. it is not a thyristor
c. it does not have four layers
d. it cannot be turned on and off

1. The force between two magnetic poles is _____ their poles strength.
a. equal to
b. directly proportional to
c. inversely proportional to
d. directly proportional to the square root of

2. Hysteresis refers to the ______ between flux density of the material and the magnetizing
force applied.
a. Leading effect
b. Ratio
c. Equality
d. Lagging effect

3. The magnetic flux of 2000 lines is how many Maxwells?

a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 4000
d. 8000
4. Hysteresis refers to the ______ between flux density of the material and the magnetizing
force applied.
a. Ratio
b. Equality
c. Lagging effect
d. Leading effect

5. The permeability of permalloy is

a. Slightly less than permeability of air
b. Slightly greater than permeability of air
c. Very much greater than permeability of air
d. Equal to the permeability of air

6. The magnetic field of a magnetized iron bar when strongly heated

a. Becomes weaker
b. Becomes stronger
c. Reverses in direction
d. is unchanged

7. Find Thevenin equivalent of the circuit of Figure 1 seen from terminals AB.

Figure 1

a. Vth = 12V . Rth = 15Ω

b. Vth = 15V . Rth = 12Ω
c. Vth = 12V . Rth = 12Ω
d. Vth = 12V . Rth = 17Ω

8. In the circuit of Fig. 2. find v2 and i¬2.

Figure 2

a. v2 = -4V and i2 = -0.4A

b. v2 = -5V and i2 = -0.5A
c. v2 = -6V and i2 = -0.6A
d. v2 = -7V and i2 = -0.7A
9. Obtain the conductance and susceptance corresponding to a voltage V = 85.0 2050 V and a
resulting current I = 41.2 141.00 A.
a. 0.471S 0.117S (capacitive)
b. 0.471S 0.117S (inductive)
c. -0.471S -0.117S (capacitive)
d. -0.471S -0.117S (inductive)

10. A 100-kVA transformer is at 80 percent of rated load at power factor 0.85 lagging. How
many kVA in additional load at 0.60 lagging power factor will bring the transformer to full rated
load?
a. 21.8 kVA
b. 22.2 kVA
c. 21.2 kVA
d. 22.4 kVA

11. In the circuit of Fig 3. v1 = 10V and v2 = 5sin2000t. Find i.

Fig. 3

a. i = 1 - 0.35sin(2000t + 450 )
b. i = 1 - 0.35sin(2000t - 450 )
c. i = 1 + 0.35sin(2000t - 450 )
d. i = 1 + 0.35sin(2000t + 450 )

12. A certain passive network has equivalent impedance Z = 3+4 Ω and an applied voltage
v=42.5cos(1000t + 300) V. Determine the power factor (pf).
a. pf = 0.6 lagging
b. pf = 0.6 leading
c. pf = 0.7 lagging
d. pf = 0.7 leading

13. A three-phase. three-wire. ABC system with a balanced load has effective line voltage 200V
and (maximum) line current IA = 13.61 600 A. Obtain the total power.
a. 2807 W
b. 2708 W
c. 2887 W
d. 2788 W
14. A coil is represented by a series combination of L = 50 mH and R = 15 Ω. Calculate the
quality factor at 10kHz.
a. Q¬coil ¬= 1047
b. Q¬coil ¬= 845
c. Q¬coil ¬= 326
d. Q¬coil ¬= 209

15. If the capacitor has a negative temperature coefficient:

a. Its value decreases as the temperature rises.
b. Its value increases as the temperature rises.
c. Its value does not chance with temperature.
d. It must be connected with the correct polarity

16. As the number of turns in a coil increases. the reactance:

a. Increases
b. Decrease
c. Stay the same
d. Is stored on the core material

17. Each point in the RC plane

a. Corresponds to a unique inductance
b. Corresponds to a unique capacitance
c. Corresponds to a unique combination of resistance and capacitance
d. Corresponds to a unique combination of resistance and reactance

18. If the ratio of Xc / R is 1. the phase angle is:

a. 0 degrees
b. -45 degrees
c. -90 degrees
d. 45 degrees

19. Inductive susceptance is a measured in

a. Ohms
b. Henrys
c. Farads
d. Siemens
20. In a household circuit. the 234V power has
a. One phase
b. Two phases
c. Three phases
d. Four phases

21. The tester is essentially a high-range resistance meter with a built-in direct-current
generator.
a. Viscometers
b. Curve Tracers
c. Pyrometers
d. Megger

22. A hot-wire ammeter:

a. Can measure ac as well as dc
b. Can indicate very low voltages
c. Measure electrical energy
d. Works only when current flows in one direction

23. It can also be used to locate the source of a field. and to measure the performance of
radiofrequency shielding.
a. Oscilloscope
b. Logic analyzer
c. RF Meter
d. Spectrum analyzer

24. Often used to characterize two-port networks such as amplifiers and filters. but they can be
used on networks with an arbitrary number of ports.
a. Vector Network analyzer
b. Spectrum analyzer
c. Vectorscope
d. Sweep generator

25. A Zener diode has the specifications VZ = 5.2 V and PD max = 260 mW. Assume RZ = 0.
Find the maximum allowable current iZ when the Zener diode is acting as a regulator
a. iZ = 30mA
b. iZ = 45mA
c. iZ = 50mA
d. iZ = 60mA
26. A silicon sample at room temperature has an intrinsic carrier concentration of ni = 5×109
cm-3. It is doped with ND = 6.1×1016 arsenic atoms/cm3 and NA = 6×1012 boron atoms/cm3.
The electron mobility is measured as µn = 1600 cm2/V·s and the hole mobility is µp = 480
cm2/V·s. What is the hole concentration?
a. p =4.1x102 /cm3
b. p =6x1012 /cm3
c. p =6.1x1016 /cm3
d. p =2.5x1019 /cm3

27. In the circuit below. the Zener diode has a breakdown voltage VZT = 8.0 V and a
measurement has shown that VZ = 8.6 V when IZ = 30 mA. What is the value of Vout when RL
becomes infinitely large?
a. Vout = 0 V
b. Vout = 8.2 V
c. Vout¬ = 8.8 V
d. Vout = 8.4 V

28. A p-channel MOSFET operating in the enhancement mode is characterized by VT = - 3V

and IDQ= -8 mA when VGSQ = -4.5 V. Find VGSQ if IDQ = -16 mA.
a. VGSQ =- 0.80 V
b. VGSQ = - 0.88 V
c. VGSQ = - 0.94 V
d. VGSQ = - 0.78 V

29. In an N-channel JFET. the pinchoff occurs when the gate bias is:
a. Slight positive
b. Zero
c. Slight negative
d. Very negative

30. In a source follower. which of the electrodes of FET receives the input signal?
a. None of them
b. The source
c. The gate
d. The drain

31. The input impedance of a MOSFET:

a. Is lower than the JFET
b. Is lower than the bipolar transistor
c. Is between that of the bipolar transistor and a JFET
d. Is extremely high
32. In a P-channel JFET:
a. The drain of is forward-biased
b. The gate-source junction is forward biased
c. The drain is negative relative to the source
d. The gate must be at the dc ground.

33. The gate of a JFET has:

a. Forward bias
b. High impedance
c. Low reverse resistance
d. Low avalanche voltage

34. The ac load line differs from the dc load line because
a. The effective ac collector resistance is less than the dc collector resistance.
b. The effective ac collector resistance is less than the ac collector resistance.
c. The effective dc collector resistance is less than the dc collector resistance.
d. The effective ac collector resistance is greater than the dc collector resistance.

35. It is a method of stabilizing the voltage gain.

a. Darlington pair
b. Swamping
c. Differential mode
d. Common mode

36. Each stage of a four-stage amplifier has a voltage gain of 15. The overall voltage gain is
a. 15
b. 60
c. 3078
d. 50.625

37. If the dc emitter current in a certain transistor amplifier is 3 rnA. the approximate value of r'e
is
a. 3 kΩ
b. 3 Ω
c. 8.33 Ω
d. 0.33 kΩ
38. A class-A circuit would not work well as:
a. A stereo hi-fi amplifier
b. A television transmitter PA
c. A low-level microphone preamplifier
d. The first stage in the radio receiver

39. An oscillator might fail to start for any of the following reasons except:
a. Low power supply voltage
b. Low stage gain
c. In-phase feedback
d. Very low output impedance

40. A CS amplifier has a load resistance of 10 kΩ and RD = 820 Ω. If g¬m = 5 mS and Vin =
500 mV. the output signal voltage is
a. 1.89 V
b. 2.05 V
c. 25 V
d. 0.5 V

41. Drain current in the constant-current region increases when

a. the gate-to-source bias voltage decreases
b. the gate-to-source bias voltage increases
c. the drain-to-source voltage increases
d. the drain-to-source voltage decreases

42. A MOSFET differs from a JFET mainly because

a. of the power rating
b. the MOSFET has two gates
c. the JFET has a pn junction
d. MOSFETs do not have a physical channel

43. On combinational circuit design. which of the following NOT cascadeable circuit?
a. Pseudo-nMOS
b. Complementary Pass Transistor Logic
c. Static CMOS
d. Dynamic
44. The major advantage of Silicon-on-Insulator are the following except:
a. Lower diffusion capacitance
b. Higher diffusion capacitance
c. Lower dynamic power consumption
d. Nominals threshold voltage must be very high

45. A logic circuit has an output 0 when the input is 1. and vice versa.
a. NOR gate
b. OR gate
c. NOT gate
d. XOR gate

46. The gigabyte is a unit commonly used to measure of

a. Data access time
b. Data transfer time
c. Data communication accuracy
d. Data storage capacity

47. The state of SR latch when both signals are '1'.

a. No change
b. Reset
c. Set
d. Not allowed

48. The state of clocked JK flip-flop when Q=0. J=1 and K = 1 is

a. high
b. low
c. 0
d. No change

49. ____________ is called bistable multivibrator circuit

a. an NAND gate
b. an XOR gate
c. a flip-flop
d. a clock
50. One or the other input can be true for the output to be false.
a. AND
b. NOR
c. OR
d. XNOR

51. A 4-layer diode turns on when the anode-to-cathode voltage exceeds

a. the forward-breakover voltage
b. the forward-blocking voltage
c. 0.7 V
d. the gate voltage

52. An SCR differs from the 4-layer diode because

a. it is not a thyristor
b. it does not have four layers
c. it has a gate terminal
d. it cannot be turned on and off

53. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the UJT?

a. intrinsic standoff ratio
b. bilateral conduction
c. negative resistance
d. peak-point voltage

54. The specified value of holding current for an SCR means that
a. the device may be damaged if the anode current exceeds this value
b. the gate current must equal or exceed this value to turn the device on
c. the device will turn on when the anode current exceeds this value
d. the device will turn off when the anode current falls below this value

55. The characteristic of UJT that determines it turn-on point.

a. Trigger current
b. Transfer gain
c. Standoff ratio
d. DC current ratio
A ferromagnetic matter:
Increases the total magnetomotive force around a current-carrying wire.
Concentrates magnetic flux lines within itself.
Causes an increase in the current in a wire.
Increase the number of ampere-turns in a wire.

If a wire coil has 15 turns and carries 250 mA of current. what is the magnetic force in ampere-
turn?
3750
375
3.75
0.017

A substance with high retentivity is best suited for making

A dc electromagnet
A permanent magnet
An ac electromagnet
An electrostatic shield

A cell of 2.5V supplies 200 mA for three hours and thirty minutes. and then it is replace. It has
supplied:
6.60 Ah
6.60 Wh
660 mWh
660 mAh

The rotating part of a dynamo. consisting essentially of copper wire wound around an iron core
is.
A commutator
A solenoid
An armature coil
A field coil

Which of these can represent magnetomotive force?

The volt-turn
The ampere-turn
The gauss
The gauss-turn
Three resistors are connected in parallel to a 20V-supply. The resistances are R1=10Ω. R2=8Ω.
and R3. If R3 can only absorb 20W. the total current of the circuit is closest to?
5A
5.25 A
5.5 A
5.75 A

The value that a circuit has attained after it has long been switched is called
transient value
time constant value
leakage value
steady state value

Determine the maximum power that can be supplied to a load by source with Vth=120V and
Rth=2.5 ohms.
3600W
5760W
1440W
1800W

The rms value of the waveform of the figure is

2.887A
3.266A
4A
1.43A

In an RLC series circuit. the circuit frequency is below the resonant frequency. then
XC = XL
XC > XL
XC < XL
Z=R

If all the delta connected resistor are identical résistance of 30 ohms. what is the equivalent
value of the resistor in WYE connection?
30 ohms
15 ohms
10 ohms
7 ohms
With permeability tuning. moving a core further into a solenoidal coil
Increases the inductance
Decreases the inductance
Has no effect of the inductance but increases the current-carraying capacity of the coil
Raises the frequency.

An AWG #12 copper wire. a size in common use in residential wiring. contains approximately
2.77x1023 free electrons per meter length. assuming one free conduction electron per atom.
What percentage of these electrons will pass a fixed cross section if the conductor carries a
constant current of 25.0 A?
3.38%
4.22%
3.05%
4.58%

A 4500-VA load at power factor 0.75 lagging is supplied by a 60-Hz source at effective voltage
240V. Determine the parallel capacitance in microfarads necessary to improve the power factor
to 0.90 lagging.
58.6 uF
64.8 uF
59.4 uF
61.8 uF

Determine the Thevenin equivalent resistance.

25 Ω
15 Ω
10 Ω
4Ω

What is the value of resistor with color bands: Green-Violet-Orange-Silver?

R= 46 kΩ ± 10%
R= 57 kΩ ± 10%
R= 67 kΩ ± 10%
R= 56 kΩ ± 10%
A two-element series circuit has average power 940W and power factor 0.707 leading.
Determine the circuit elements if the applied voltage is v = 99 cos(6000t +300)V.
58.2 uF
62.3 uF
64.1 uF
66.0 Uf

As the capacitor plate area increases. all things being equal

the capacitance increases
the capacitance decreases
the capacitance does not change
the voltage-handling ability decreases

Measures the equivalent series resistance of capacitors

VU meter
LCR meter
ESR meter
Psophometer

To measure power-supply voltage being used by a circuit. a voltmeter

Is placed in series with the circuit that works from the supply
Is places between the positive pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
Is places between the negative pole of the supply and the circuit working from the supply
Is places in parallel with the circuit that works from the supply

It is used to displays the phase of the colors in color TV

Network analyzer
Spectrum analyser
Vectorscope
Sweep generator

The force between two electrically charge objects is called:

Electromagnetic deflection
Electrostatic force
Magnetic force
Electrostatic force
The configuration most often used for matching a high input impedance to a low output
impedance puts signal group at:
The emitter
The base
The collector
Any point. it doesn't matter

The junction FET. the control electrode is usually the:

Source
Gate
Emitter
Drain

In a P-channel JFET:
The majority carrier are holes
The drain is positive with respect to the source
The gate must be grounded
The source receives the input signal

A Zener diode would most likely be used in:

A mixer
A voltage-controlled oscillator
A detector
A power supply regulator circuit

In a PNP bipolar transistor:

The collector is negative relatively to the emitter
The collector is positive relatively to the emitter
The collector must be at ground potential.
The collector is at the same voltage as the emitter.

An amplifier has an output signal voltage that is 35 times the input signal voltage. This is a gain
of:
15 dB
31 dB
35 dB
350 dB
An audio oscillator that uses two amplifier in cascade. with positive feedback from the output of
the second stage to the input of the first stage. is known as a:
Colpitts circuit
Hartley circuit
Multivibrator
Clapp circuit

The oscillating frequency of the quartz crystal can he varied slightly by:
Changing the bias on the transistor
Changing the voltage across each one.
Reversing the power supply polarity
Placing a small variable capacitor across the crystal.

Negative feedback in an amplifier

Causes oscillation
Increases sensitivity
Reduces the gain
Is used in an Armstrong oscillator

An amplifier has a bandwidth of 20 kHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. if 1%

negative feedback is applied. The bandwidth with feedback is
13.3 kHz
30 kHz
10 kHz
40 kHz

A feedback amplifier has an open loop gain of 600 and feedback factor β = 0.01. Find the
closed loop gain with feedback.
83.5
84.3
85.7
86.4

The features of CASCODE amplifier are

Large output impedance
Small input impedance
Larger bandwidth
Reduced distortion
ECL is high speed because
Operation is in the low noise negative supply region
Construction in small geometries
The use of gallium arsenide conductors
The operating transistors being unsaturated

The term used to describe a technique for depositing passive circuit elements on an insulating
substrate with coating to a thickness of 0.0001 centimeter.
Monolithic
Thin-film
Hybrid
Thick-film

It is characterized by high switching speed (in some cases upwards of 125 MHz ). and relative
immunity to noise.
Emitter-coupled logic
Base-coupled logic
N-channel-couple logic
Transistor-transistor logic

CMOS is sometimes referred to except

Non-Real Time Clock
Non-Volatile RAM
Non-Volatile BIOS memory
COS-MOS

Chips that contain from 10 to about 100 gates are called

SSI
MSI
LSI
VLSI

In a RAM:
It's hard to get data out and easy to put it in
It's easy to get data out and hard to put it in
It's easy to get data out and put it in
It's hard to get data out and put it in
The data in volatile computer memory
Is stored on the magnetic disk
Cannot be used by the a microprocessor
Consist of analog waveforms
Vanishes if the power is remove.

A packet
A computer memory module
A unit of 210 bytes
A piece of a file sent over a Net
A picture element in a computer monitor

Common types of thyristors include

BJTs and SCRs
UJTs and PUTs
FETs and Triacs
Diacs and Triacs

A 4-layer diode turns on when the anode to cathode voltage exceeds

0.7 V
The forward-breakover voltage
The gate voltage
The forward-blacking voltage

The SCR differs from the 4-layer diode because

It has a gate terminal
It is not a thyristor
It does not have a four layers
It cannot be turned on or off

In the forward-blocking region. the SCR is

Reverse-biased
In the off state
In the on state
At the point of breakdown
In a phototransistor. the base current is
Set by a bias voltage
Directly proportional to the light
Inversely proportional to the light
Not a factor

A semiconductor device with four alternating layers (P-N-P-N) that are controlled by a metal-
oxide-semiconductor (MOS) gate structure without regenerative action.
Triac
SCR
Thyristor
IGBT

A three-terminal single pn junction device that exhibits a negative resistance characteristic

Triac
UJT
Thyristor
PUT

1. Whenever a conductor cuts magnetic flux. an emf is induced in it. This is known as
a. Ohm's
b. Coulomb's law
c. Joule's law
d. Faraday's law

The volt is the standard unit of:

a. Current
b. Charge
c. Electromotive force
d. Resistance

4. A stroke of lightning:
a. Builds up between clouds
b. Has a very low current
c. Is caused by a movement of holes in an insulator
d. Is a discharge of static electricity
5. At 60 cycle. a sinusoidal current has a magnitude of 5A at 6.25msec. Its maximum value is
a. 2.73A
b. 3.54A
c. 6.50A
d. 7.07A

6. Electrons pass to the right through a wire cross section at the rate of 9.4 x 1021 electrons per
minute. What is the current in the wire?
a. -25.5 A
b. -25.1 A
c. -24.5 A
d. -24.1 A

7. The resistance of a wire is 25 Ω. Another wire of the same material and at the same
temperature has a diameter twice as great and a length six times as great. Find the resistance
of the second wire.
a. 37.5 Ω
b. 37.1 Ω
c. 38.1 Ω
d. 38.5 Ω

8. A wire-wound resistor is to be made from 0.2-mm-diameter constantan wire wound around a

cylinder that is 1 cm in diameter. How many turns of wire are required for a resistance of 50 Ω at
20°C?
a. 100 turns
b. 102 turns
c. 104 turns
d. 108 turns

9. What resistor draws a current of 5 A when connected across terminals a and b of the circuit
below?

a. 4 Ω
b. 5 Ω
c. 6 Ω
d. 10 Ω
10. In the circuit show below. what resistor RL will absorb maximum power?

a. 20 Ω
b. 25 Ω
c. 27.33 Ω
d. 30 Ω

11. A resistance of 100 Ω. a coil of 4.50 uH and a capacitance of 220 pF in parallel. What is the
admittance vector at 6.50 MHz?
a. 100 + j0.00354
b. 0.010 + j0.0054
c. 100 - j0.0144
d. 0.010 + j0.0144

12. A 0.1-uF capacitor. initially charged to 230V is discharged through a 3-MHz resistor. Find
the capacitor voltage 0.2 s after the capacitor starts to discharge.
a. 118V
b. 119V
c. 120V
d. 121V

13. Closing a switch connects in series a 300-V source. a 2.7-MΩ resistor. and a 2-uF capacitor
charged to 50V with its positive plate toward the positive terminal of the source. Find the
capacitor current 3s after the switch closes.
a. 48.9 uA
b. 51.5 uA
c. 53.1 uA
d. 55.2 uA

14. A fully loaded 10-hp induction motor operates from a 480-V. 60-Hz line at an efficiency of 85
percent and a 0.8 lagging power factor. Find the overall power factor when a 33.3-uF capacitor
is placed in parallel with the motor.
a. 0.882
b. 0.891
c. 0.901
d. 0.922
15. Each point in the RC plane:
a. Corresponds to unique inductance
b. Corresponds to unique capacitance
c. Corresponds to unique combination of resistance and capacitance
d. Corresponds to unique combination of resistance and reactance

16. What will happen to the susceptance of the capacitor of if the frequency is doubled. all other
things is being equal?
a. It will decease to half its former value
b. It will not change
c. It will double
d. It will be quadruple.

17. The power in a reactance

a. Radiated
b. True power
c. Imaginary power
d. Apparent power

18. A triangular wave:

a. Has a fast rise time and a slow decay time
b. Has a slow rise time and a fast decay time
c. Has equal rise and decay rates.
d. Rise and falls abruptly.

19. Which of the following is not a general characteristic of an AC wave:

a. The wave shape is identical for each cycle
b. The polarity reverse periodically
c. The electrons always flows in the same direction
d. There is a definite frequency

20. The absolute-value impedance Z of a parallel RLC circuit. where R is the resistance and X is
the net reactance. is found according to the formula:
a. Z2 = R2 + X2
b. Z2 = RX / (R2 + X2)
c. Z = 1 / (R2 + X2)
d. Z = R2X2 / (R + X)
21. What instrument determines the concentration of substances by their absorption of nearly
monochromatic radiation at a wavelength selected by filters or by simple radiation-dispersing
system?
a. radiometer
b. reflectometer
c. bolometer
d. absorptiometer

22. The meter movement in an illumination meter measures:

a. Power
b. Current
c. Energy
d. Voltage

23. Measures the equivalent series resistance of capacitors

a. VU meter
b. LCR meter
c. Psophometer
d. ESR meter

24. Which of the following with not cause a major error in an ohmmeter?
a. A small voltage between points under test.
b. A slight change in switchable internal resistance.
c. A small chance in the resistance to be measured.
d. A slight error in the range switch selection

25. A semiconductor material is made into N type by:

a. Injecting electrons
b. Taking electrons away
c. Adding an acceptor impurity
d. Adding a donor impurity

26. Equivalent circuit model commonly used in small signal analysis at high frequencies.
a. Ideal model
b. H parameters
c. Ebers-Moll
d. Hybrid-Pi or Giacoletto
27. The amplifier with the conduction angle for the transistor is 180 degrees.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

28. A voltage-doubler power supply is best for use in

a. Low-voltage devices
b. High-current appliances
c. Circuits that need low current at high voltage
d. Broadcast transmitter power amplifiers

29. The JFET circuit essentially never has:

a. Forward-biased P-N junction
b. Holes are the majority carriers
c. A high input impedance
d. A pinched-off channel

30. In a P-channel JFET

a. The drain is positive with respect to the source
b. The gate must be grounded
c. The majority carriers are holes
d. The source receives the input signal

31. A tank circuit consisting of two series-connected coils in parallel with a capacitor. with an
amplifier between the relatively high impedance across the entire LC tank and the relatively low
voltage/high current point between the coils.
a. Hartley oscillator
b. Pierce oscillator
c. Armstrong oscillator
d. Wien bridge oscillator

32. Which is not a type of RC oscillator?

a. Phase-shift oscillator
b. Ring oscillator
c. Wien bridge oscillator
d. Twin-T oscillator
33. A Colpitts is a form of:
a. Amplifier
b. Detector
c. Modulator
d. Oscillator

34. Which of the following amplifier produce the least distortion?

a. Class A
b. Class AB
c. Class B
d. Class C

35. At what frequency will an inductor of 5 mH have the same reactance as a capacitor of 0.1
uF?
a. 7.12 Hz
b. 7.12 kHz
c. 7.12 MHz
d. 7.12 GHz

36. The bandwidth of a single stage amplifier is ________ that of multistage amplifier.
a. Equal to
b. Less than
c. More than
d. Independent

37. Process of growing a thin layer of silicon dioxide over a semiconductor.

a. Metalization
b. Photolithographic process
c. Oxidation
d. Isolation

38. The equation for Einstein Relation is

a. D/u = kTq
b. D/u = T/(kq)
c. D/u = qT/k
d. D/u = kT/q
39. A pn junction employs the following doping levels: NA = 1016 cm-3 and ND = 51015 cm-3.
Determine the hole and electron concentrations on the two side.
a. np = 1.1 x 104 cm-3 and pn = 2.3 x 104 cm-3
b. np = 1.5 x 104 cm-3 and pn = 2.3 x 104 cm-3
c. np = 1.1 x 104 cm-3 and pn = 2.5 x 104 cm-3
d. np = 1.0 x 104 cm-3 and pn = 2.2 x 104 cm-3

40. In nMOS transistor. which operation is for cut-off mode?

a. Vgs < Vt
b. Vgs >Vt. Vgd = Vgs. and Vds = 0
c. Vgs > Vt. Vgs <Vgd. and Vds>Vgs-Vt
d. Vgs > Vt. Vgs >Vgd>Vt. and 0<Vds<Vgs-Vt

41. De Morgan's theorem is

a. X' + Y' = Y' + X'
b. X' + Y' + Z' = X' + (Y' + Z')
c. (X + Y)' = X' Y'
d. (XY)' = X'Y'

42. The largest possible decimal number that can be represented by six binary digits (bits) is:
a. 63
b. 64
c. 128
d. 256

43. Which type of memory remembers even when the power is turned off?
a. Volatile
b. Cache
c. RAM
d. Non-Volatile

44. The input of an R-S flip-flop are known as

a. Set and reset
b. Low and High
c. Asynchronous
d. Synchronous
45. The acronym FPAA stands for:
a. field-programmable amplifier array
b. field-programmable analog array
c. fast-programmable analog array
d. feedback path analog amplifier

46. The advantage of J-K over R-S flip-flop is that

a. The J-K always has predictable output.
b. The J-K flip-flop is faster
c. The J-K can attain more states
d. An R-S flip-flop is superior to a J-K.

47. For a UJT. the intrinsic standoff ratio is

a. always less than 1
b. always greater than 1
c. equal to 1
d. usually around 1k or so

48. An alternative name for a diac is:

a. Four-layer diode
b. Silicon unilateral switch
c. Silicon bilateral switch
d. Bidirectional trigger diode

49. A ____ is like two parallel SCRs having a common gate and connected opposite directions.
a. Diacs
b. PUTs
c. Triacs
d. UJTs

50. A device that combines feature of MOSFET and the BJT and used mainly for high-voltage
switching applications.
a. LASCR
b. IGBT
c. SCS
d. UJT
2. Lenz' law states that the direction of the induced emf and hence current
a. Always opposes the cause producing it
b. Is determined by the rate of current flux
c. Is found by the right hand rule
d. Is found by the left hand rule
 ELEX OT
1.) Why is a two-pole magnetic field set up around a coil?
Because separate lines of Magnetic force link and combine their effects.
2.) To turn off the SCR, which of the following is done?
Reduce anode voltage to zero.
3.) A logic circuit has an output 0 when the input is 1, and vice versa.
NOT Gate
4.) Why is it that the magnitude of magnetomotive force required for air gap is much greater
than that required for iron part of a magnetic circuit?
Because air has the lowest relative permeability
5.) For a parallel AC Circuit, ______ is used as a reference phasor.
VOLTAGE
6.) Moving-iron instrument has what scale?
Squared
7.) For a series AC circuit, ______ is not used as a reference phasor
Voltage
8.) The state of SR latch when both signals are "1"
NOT ALLOWED
9.) Is also called as a "Bistable Multivibrator Circuit".
Flip-Flop
10.) Hysteresis refers to the ____ between the flux density of the material and the magnetizing
force applied.
Lagging Effect
11.) In a P-channel JFET
The drain is negative relative to source
12.) The characteristic of UJT that determines its turn-on point
Standoff Ratio
13.) The symbol ICBO signifies the current flows when some DC voltage is applied
In the reverse direction to the collector junction with the emitter open-circuited
14.) A circuit that operates in such a way that its output is high when all its inputs are high.
AND
15.) In a source follower, which of the electrodes of FET receives the input signal?
The Gate
16.) If the capacitor has a negative temperature coefficient:
Its value decreases as the temperature rises
17.) As the number of turns in a coil increases, the reactance:
Increases
18.) If the ratio of Xc/R is 1, the phase angle is:
-45 Degrees
19.) A hot-wire ammeter
Can measure AC as well as DC
20.) In an N-channel JFET, the pinch-off occurs when the gate bias is:
Very Negative
21.) It can also be used to locate the source of field, and to measure the performance of radio
frequency shielding.
RF Meter
22.) The input impedance of a MOSFET:
Is Extremely High
23.) The tester is essentially a high-range resistance meter with a built-in direct-current
generator.
Megger
24.) The class-A circuit would not work well as:
A Television transmitter PA
25.) An oscillator might fail to start for any of the following reasons except:
In-Phase feedback
26.) In a household circuit, the 234 V power has:
THREE PHASES
27.) The distance between the capacitor plates increases two times, then its capacitance.
Decreases two times
28.) The permeability of permalloy is
Very much greater that permeability of air
29.) The AC load line differs from the DC load line because
The effective AC collector resistance is less that the DC collector resistance.
30.) The gigabyte is a unit commonly used to measure of
Data Storage Capacity
31.) Drain current in the constant-current region increases when
The gate-to-source bias voltage decreases
32.) Equivalent of decimal value of 178 in straight binary code and in BCD
10110010, 101111000
33.) What maximum voltage can be applied across the capacitor for very short period of time?
Surge Voltage
34.) If voltage across the plates of 2 F capacitor is increased by 4 V, then charge on the plates
will
Increase by 4 C
35.) The specified value of holding current for an SCR means that
The device will turn off when the anode current falls below this value
36.) All voltmeters except one of the following are operated by the passage of current.
Electrostatic
37.) An SCR whose state is controlled by the light falling upon a silicon semiconductor layer of
the device.
LASCR
38.) For a certain magnetic material, the ____ the area inside the hysteresis loop, the ____ the
hysteresis losses.
Greater, larger
39.) A theorem which states that an electric current flowing in a circuit produces a magnetic field
at external points equivalent to that due to a magnetic shell whose bounding edge is the
conductor and whose strength is equal to the strength of the current.
Ampere's Theorem
40.) What is that value of current below which the SCR switches from the conduction state to
the forward blocking region under stated conditions?
Holding Current
1.) Magnetic flux can always be attributed to
Motion of Charge Particles
2.) What does K-shell mean?
First Orbit
3.) A substance with high retentivity is best suited for
A Permanent Magnet
4.) Consider two copper wires. One has twice the length of the other. How does the resistances
of these two wires compare?
The longer wire has twice the resistance of the shorter wire
5.) What is the value of resistor with color bands from left: Red-Blue-Gold-Silver?
R= 2.6 ± 10%
6.) As the capacitor plate area decreases, all things being equal.
The capacitance decreases
7.) The power in the reactance is:
Imaginary Power
8.) What kind of instrument an ammeter is?
Indicating Instrument
9.) As the deflection of the moving system increases, the controlling torque in an indicating
instrument
Increases
10.) Which is the best type of meter movement?
D' Arsonval
11.) Which dynamometer type has uniform scale?
Wattmeter
12.) When both deflecting and controlling torque act, the pointer of an indicating instrument
comes to
Rest
13.) Which of the following describes the speed of a DC motor?
It is inversely proportional to flux per pole
14.) What drives low-speed alternators?
Hydraulic Turbines
15.) What drives high-speed alternators?
Steam Turbines
16.) The common 9-V flat battery for transistor radio has how many cells connected in series?
Six
17.) For the same rating, the size of low-speed alternator is ______ that of high-speed
alternator.
More than
18.) Which of the following is NOT a secondary cell?
Silver Oxide
19.) Which of the following is NOT at primary cell?
Edison Cell
20.) The brush voltage drop in a DC machine is about how much?
2 Volts
21.) Why carbon brushes are used in a DC machine?
Because carbon lubricates and polishes the commutator
22.) What are considered as the main types of battery?
Carbon-zinc, dry cell, and lead-sulfuric wet cell
23.) Which of the following is the main function of a DC motor?
To change electrical energy to mechanical energy
24.) Which motor has the best speed regulation?
Shunt
25.) The output voltage of a thermocouple
Increases with temperature
26.) An instrument in which the magnitude of the measured quantity is indicated by means of a
pointer.
Analog Instrument
27.) If the pointer of an indicating instrument is in motion, then what opposes deflecting torque?
Damping and controlling torques
28.) How can electrical currents be induced with a coil and a magnet?
By moving either the magnet of the coil.
29.) When should a fuse be replaced with a higher rated unit?
Never
30.) Suppose a certain current in the galvanometer causes the needle to deflect 20 degrees and
the current is doubled. The needle deflection:
Will increase
31.) A thermocouple:
Gets warm when the current flows through it.
32.) The meter movement in an illumination meter measures
Current
33.) The voltmeter should generally have
Large internal resistance
34.) How many electrons are there in the fourth orbit of a copper atom?
One
35.) What is the maximum permissible number of electrons in the third orbit?
18
36.) Varactor diodes are commonly used
As a voltage controlled capacitance
37.) What is the reason why electrons are not pulled into the nucleus of an atom?
Because of the centrifugal force or outward force created by their orbital motion.
38.) The electrons in the largest orbit travel ____ than the electrons in the smaller orbits.
More slowly
39.) What transistor configuration has the lowest current gain?
Common Base
40.) What do you call a semiconductor in its purest form?
Intrinsic Semiconductor
41.) Valence orbit is the other term for
Outer orbit
42.) For either germanium or silicon diodes, the barrier potential decreases ___ for each Celsius
degree rise.
2 mV
43.) When transistor is conducting as much as it possible can, it is said to be:
In Saturation
44.) The ripple frequency of the full-wave rectifier is
Twice that of the half-wave circuit
45.) It is a two-port transistor arrangement in which the base shares a common point with the
input and output terminals.
Common-base
46.) The principal advantage of the voltage multiplier
Poor regulation
47.) What type of secondary cell can be recharged but with an electrolyte that cannot be
refilled?
Sealed rechargeable cell
48.) What is the nominal open-circuit voltage of silver-cadmium which is a secondary cell?
1.1 V
49.) What is the most commonly used method of speed control of a DC motor?
By varying field strength
50.) Measured by the output impedance Zo (the driving-point impedance looking into the output
port with the load removed)
Impedance Match
51.) The bipolar transistor or JFET in the multi-vibrator is
A common-emitter or common source arrangement
52.) An oscillator might fail to start for any of the following reasons except
In-phase feedback
53.) A spectrum analyzer displays:
Signal strength as the function of frequency
54.) Which of the digital IC is least susceptible to noise?
Transistor-transistor logic
55.) A CMOS integrated circuit
Is susceptible to damage to static
56.) Which type of IC is used to determine whether voltage levels are the same or not?
A Comparator
57.) It is a thin polished slice of a semiconductor crystal on which integrated circuit can be
fabricated often in duplicate, for cutting into individual slice.
Wafer
58.) The channel in a zero-biased JFET is normally
All the way open
59.) What is a CMOS IC?
A chip with p-channel (Pmos) and n-channel (Nmos)
60.) Which of the following voltage could normally represent a "1" in a positive logic?
+4 V
61.) If X is low, what is the state of X AND Y?
Low
62.) The advantage of J-K over R-S flipflop is that
The J-K always has predictable output.
63.) A logic circuit has four inputs A, B, C, and D. How many possible input combinations are
there?
16
64.) In the tunnel diode, the tunneling current is at what level when the forbidden gap of the N-
type material is at the same energy level as the empty states of the P-type material?
Minimum
65.) The SCR is primarily used for what function.
Switching power on or off
66.) When an SCR is forward biased, what is needed to cause it to conduct?
A Gate Signal
67.) When used for AC current control, during which alternation of the AC cycle does the TRIAC
control current flow?
During both alternations
68.) What is a typical light-to-dark resistance ratio for a photocell?
1:1000
69.) What is the resistance level of a photodiode in total darkness?
Very High
70.) The only way to stop an SCR that is conducting is by
Reverse-bias triggering
71.) For a UJT, the intrinsic standoff ratio is
Always less than 1
72.) The PUT is
Much like the UJT
73.) What do you call a group of cells that generate electric energy from their internal chemical
reaction?
Battery
74.) Which of the following is the main function of a battery?
To provide a source of steady DC voltage of fixed polarity
75.) What diode modeling circuit considers the threshold voltage, average resistance and switch
as the diode's equivalent circuit?
Piecewise linear model
76.) In which of the following a transformer will work on?
In AC only
77.) In a chemical cell, what is current?
It is the movement of positive and negative ions
78.) What is the nominal output of an automotive battery having six lead-acid cells in series?
12 Volts
79.) A device that reverses magnetic field polarity to keep a DC motor rotating is
A commutator
80.) If all the delta connected resistor are identical, what is the equivalent value of the resistor in
WYE connection?
R/3
81.) The superposition theorem is used when the circuit contains _____.
A number of voltage sources
82.) An AC circuit draws 5A current and consumes 1000 Watts of power. What is the power
factor?
0.91
83.) What is a method of converting chemical energy intro electrical energy by dissolving two
different conducting materials in an electrolyte?
Voltaic Cell
84.) Why a commulatively compounded motor does not run at dangerous speed at light loads?
Because of the presence of shunt winding
85.) DC shunt motors are used in those applications where what is required?
Practically constant speed
86.) What cell is otherwise known as Galvanic Cell?
Voltaic Cell
87.) What is the voltage regulation of an alternator with a power factor of 0.8 lagging compared
at unity power factor?
Greater than
88.) Which is the most suitable for punch presses?
Commulatively compounded motor
89.) In a vacuum cleaner, what motor is generally used?
Series
1.) A ferromagnetic matter
Concentrates magnetic flux lines within itself
2.) The rotating part of a dynamo, consisting essentially of copper wire wound around an iron
core is
An Armature Coil
3.) Represents magnetomotive-force
Ampere-turn
4.) Alternating voltages and currents are expressed in rms because
Give comparison with DC
5.) The value that a circuit has attained after it has long been switched is called
Transient Value
6.) In an RLC series circuit, the circuit frequency is below resonant frequency, then
Xc > XL
7.) If all the delta connected resistor are identical resistance of 30 ohms, what is the equivalent
value of the resistor in WYE connection?
10 ohms
8.) With permeability tuning, moving a core further into a solenoidal coil
Increases the inductance
9.) What is the value of resistor with color bands: Green-Violet-Orange-Silver?
R = 57 kilo ohms ± 10%
10.) As the capacitor plate area increases, all things being equal
The capacitance increases
11.) Measures the equivalent series resistance of capacitors
ESR meter
12.) To measure the power supply voltage being used by a circuit, a voltmeter
Is placed in parallel with the circuit that works from the supply
13.) It is used to display the phase of the colors in color TV
Spectrum analyzer
14.) The force between two electrically charge objects is called
Electrostatic Force
15.) The configuration most often used for matching a high input impedance to a low output
impedance puts signal group at:
The collector
16.) The junction FET, the control electrode is usually the
Gate
17.) In a P-channel JFET
The majority carrier are holes
18.) A Zener diode would most likely to be used in
A power supply regulator circuit
19.) In a PNP bipolar transistor
The collector is negative relatively to the emitter
20.) An audio oscillator that uses two amplifiers in cascade, with positive feedback from the
output of the second stage to the input of the first stage. This is known as
Multivibrator
21.) The oscillating frequency of the quartz crystal can be varied slightly by:
Placing a small variable capacitor across the crystal
22.) Negative feedback in an amplifier
Reduces the gain
23.) ECL is high speed because
The operating transistors being unsaturated
24.) The term used to describe a technique for depositing passive circuit elements on an
insulating substrate with coating to a thickness of 0.0001 centimeter.
Thin-film
25.) Chips that contain from 10 to about 100 gates are called
Medium Scale Integration (MSI)
26.) In a RAM:
It's easy to get data out and put it in
27.) The data in volatile computer memory
Vanishes if the power is remove
28.) A packet
A piece of a file sent over a Net
29.) Common types of thyristors include
Diacs and Triacs
30.) A 4-layer diode turns on when the anode to cathode voltage exceeds
The forward-breakover voltage
31.) The SCR differs from the 4-layer diode because
It has a gate terminal
32.) In the forward-blocking region, the SCR is
In the OFF State
33.) In a phototransistor, the base current is
Directly proportional to the light intensity
34.) A semiconductor device with four alternating layers (P-N-P-N) that are controlled by a
metal-oxide-semiconductor (MOS) gate structure without regenerative action.
Insulated-gate bipolar transistor (IGBT)
35.) A three-terminal single PN junction device that exhibits a negative resistance characteristic
UJT
36.) In two-phase generators, the electrical displacement between the two phases or windings is
___ electrical degrees.
90 degrees
37.) In a transformer, two coils are wound around a common iron core. To operate properly the
transformer requires
An alternating current source connecting to the primary coil
38.) The basic requirement of a DC armature winding is that it must be
A closed one
39.) A wave winding must go at least ___ around the armature before it closes back where it
started.
Twice
40.) In DC generators, armature reaction is produced actually by
Load current in armature
41.) In a DC generator, the effect of armature reaction on the main pole flux is to
Reduce it and Distort it
42.) How many different ways can we implement the inversion operation in a logic circuit?
Three
43.) Why the AC system is preferred to DC system?
Because AC voltage system can be easily changed
44.) The active and reactive components of line current of a capacitive circuit are equal. The
power factor is
0.707 leading
45.) A high resistance is connected in series with the internal coil of a galvanometer to make
A Voltmeter
46.) Which device can be used to increase voltage from a source of direct current?
Induction coil
47.) To increase the brightness of a desk lamp, a student replaces a 50 W light bulb with a 100
W light bulb. Compared to the 60 W light bulb, the 100 W light bulb has?
Less resistance and draws more current
48.) At series resonance
Circuit power factor is unity
49.) Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF current than for DC?
Because of skin effect
50.) The difference in energy between the valence and the conduction band of a semiconductor
is called
Band gap
51.) Overdriving can be considered a form of distortion for which of the following reasons?
The output is not a faithful reproduction of the input
52.) An intrinsic electronic semiconductor behave as ____ at absolute temperature.
An insulator
53.) Equivalent circuit model commonly used in small signal analysis at high frequencies
Hybrid-Pi or Giacoletto
54.) Another name for Esaki Diode
Tunnel Diode
55.) A digital word consisting of only 4 bits is called a
Nibble
56.) Which of the LC oscillators makes use of a tuned transformer?
Armstrong
57.) FET is a unipolar device because
Its conduction is due only to one type of charged carrier.
1.) Power absorbed in a pure inductive circuit is zero because
Power factor of the circuit is zero
2.) In an AC circuit with inductive reactance, the
Current through the inductance lags its induced voltage by 90o
3.) What is the characteristic of the current flow in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance?
The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a minimum
4.) Drain current in the constant-current region decreases when
The gate-to-source bias voltage decreases
5.) A universal gate is a
NAND gate and NOR gate
6.) To prevent a DC return between source and load, it is necessary to use
Capacitor between source and load
7.) The only way to stop an SCR that is conducting is by
Low-current dropout
8.) Dynamic gates drive multiple-input static CMOS gates are susceptible to
Leakage
9.) An RLC series circuit is underdamped. To make it overdamped, the value of R has to be
Increased
10.) How is the efficiency of a power amplifier determined?
Efficiency = (RF power out / DC power in) x 100%
11.) For a UJT, the intrinsic standoff ratio is
Always less than 1
12.) What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor?
Area of the plates, distance between the plates, and the dielectric constant of the material
between the plates
13.) An IC constructed entirely on a single silicon chip.
Monolithic
14.) Two coils have their axes perpendicular to each other. The coefficient of coupling k is
0 (There is no mutual coupling when their axes are perpendicular)
15.) When two parallel current-carrying wires have common in the same direction, the wires
Attract one another
16.) Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion
Class A
17.) What type of linear regulator is used in applications requiring efficient utilization of the
primary power source?
A series regulator
18.) It is used to display the phase of the colors in color TV
Vectorscope
19.) What is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator?
It doesn't require an LC tank circuit
20.) An oscillator might fail to start for any of the following reasons except
In-phase feedback
21.) What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?
A negative resistance region
22.) What class amplifier is distinguished by the flow of the current in the output essentially 180-
degree pulses?
Class B
23.) The lower power factor of the circuit means that it will
Less line current
24.) What is the purpose of a multiplier resistor used with a voltmeter?
A multiplier resistor is not used with a voltmeter
25.) When negative current feedback is applied to an amplifier, its output impedance
Increases
26.) What is the characteristic of the current flow in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance?
The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a maximum.
27.) The magnetism of ferromagnetic materials, such as iron, has its origin in the intrinsic
magnetic moment of electrons that is associated with their
Spin angular momentum
28.) Under what condition does resonance occur in an electrical circuit?
When inductive and capacitive reactances are equal
29.) A phase difference of 180 degrees in the circular model represents
½ revolution
30.) What order of Q is required by a tank-circuit sufficient to reduce harmonics to an acceptable
level?
Approximately 12
31.) In an RLC series circuit, the circuit frequency is below the resonant frequency, then
Xc > XL
32.) Conventional flow assumes charges flow from
Positive to Negative
33.) The features of CASCODE amplifier are:
Large output impedance
34.) For a full-wave rectifier, the output frequency
Equals to two times the input frequency
35.) How can a class-C amplifier be made linear?
A class-C amplifier cannot be made linear
36.) In a two stage CE amplifier circuit, the AC collector resistance of the first stage depends on
Input impedance of second stage
37.) Electric field lines start
At positive charges or at infinity
38.) In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be
determined?
By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
39.) A device that can characterize active devices such as transistors and amplifiers using S-
parameters, as long as they are operating in their linear mode of operation.
Vector Network Analyzer
40.) A transistor has two P-N junctions. The batteries should be connected such that
Both junctions are forward biased, and the other is reverse biased
41.) A logic gate which produces an output which is false only if all its inputs are true.
NAND
42.) What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it?
The conductivity of the material increases
43.) The junction FET, the control electrode is usually the:
Gate
44.) Three resistance of 15 ohms each are connected in delta. The resistance of equivalent star
will have a value of
5 ohms
45.) The electric flux through a surface of a fixed area is maximum when the surface is
Perpendicular to Electric Field
46.) The ratio of W/VA in an AC circuit means
Power Factor
47.) In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1?
A Low Level
48.) The PUT is
Triggered on and off by the gate-to-anode voltage
49.) Inductive susceptance is
Negative imaginary
50.) As the capacitor plate area increases, all thing being equal
The capacitance increases
51.) In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 0?
A high level
52.) An ammeter shunt is useful because
It allows for measurements of a wide range of current
53.) Pulse width measurements on the oscilloscope are normally made at
50% amplitude
54.) A small-signal amplifier
Is always a common-emitter amplifier
55.) Assuming a power source to have a fixed value of internal impedance, maximum power will
be transferred to the load when:
The load impedance equals the internal impedance of the source
56.) Wave A=100 sin wt, and wave B = 100 cos wt
RMS values of the two waves are equal
57.) In a p-channel FET, the charge carriers are
Holes
58.) A simple pi-network with inductors on each leg and a capacitor in the center is a:
High Pass Filter
59.) The principal disadvantage of the voltage multiplier
Poor regulation
60.) The AC load line differs from the DC load line because
The effective AC collector resistance is less that the DC collector resistance.
61.) If the load impedance for the oscillator is too high:
It's not cause for worry; it can't be too high
62.) What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to
36.8% of its initial value of stored charge?
One time constant
63.) The oscillating frequency of the quartz crystal can be varied slightly by:
Placing a small variable capacitor across the crystal
64.) The state of clock JK flip-flop when Q=1, J=1, and K=1 is
Toggle
65.) If an electron moves from right to left across this page and suddenly is subjected to a
magnetic field directed into the page, what is the direction of the magnetic force on the electron?
From the bottom to the top of the page
66.) According to Lenz's Law, the induced emf produced by a change in current in an inductive
circuit tends to have what effect on the current?
It opposes either a rise of a fall in current
67.) An SCR differs from the 4-layer diode because
It has a gate terminal
68.) What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
Produce one output pulse for every ten input pulses.
69.) The meter movement in an illumination meter measures.
Current
1.) The βDC of a transistor is
Current Gain
2.) When both inputs of R-S flip-flop are 0
The outputs stay as they are
3.) Movement of holes in a semiconductor
Results in a certain amount of electric current
4.) The atomic weight of an element is approximately determined by
The number of neutrons plus the number of protons
5.) In some batteries, chemical energy can be replenished by
Charging it
6.) In positive-edge triggering, the change of state occurs
The pulse level is going from high to low
7.) Which of the following is (are) related to an emitter-follower configuration?
The input and output signals are in phase, The voltage gain is slightly less than 1, Output is
drawn from the emitter terminal
8.) If two waves have the same frequency and the same phase, the composite wave
Has a magnitude equal to the sum of the two originals
9.) A ferromagnetic material
Concentrates magnetic flux lines within itself
10.) If there is an internal open between the drain and source in a CS amplifier, the drain
voltage is equal to
VDD
11.) The maximum voltage output from a voltage divider
Is equal to the supply voltage
12.) For the BJT to operate in the active (linear) region, the base-emitter junction must be ___
biased and the base collector junction must be ____ biased.
Forward, Reverse
13.) Good engineering practice usually requires that a series-parallel resistive network be made
From resistors that are all same
14.) A transistor can be protected from needless overheating by
Current-limiting resistors
15.) In a semiconductor crystal, the atoms are held together by
The interaction of valence electrons, Forces of attraction, Covalent bonds
16.) A volume control in a stereo compact-disc player would probably be
A logarithmic taper potentiometer
17.) Magnetic flux can always be attributed to
Motion of charged particles
18.) A potentially lethal electric current is on the order of
0.1A or 100mA
19.) Half-wave rectification means that
Half of the AC wave is chopped off.
20.) Which of these can represent magnetomotive force?
The ampere-turn
21.) Biasing in an amplifier circuit
Can be done using voltage dividers
22.) Which of the following units can represent magnetic flux density?
The Gauss
23.) An EMF of one volt
Can sometimes produce a large current
24.) A trivalent impurity is added to silicon to create
A P-type semiconductor
25.) For operation of an amplifier, the base of an NPN transistor must be
Positive with respect to the emitter
26.) The voltage in a battery
Is more than the voltage in a cell of the same kind
27.) The current in a semiconductor is produced by
Both electrons and holes
28.) If R increases in an RC circuit, but the capacitance and the frequency are nonzero and
constant, then the vector in the RC plane will
Get longer and rotate counterclockwise
29.) A diode is in the ____-state if the current established by the applied sources is such that its
direction matches that of the arrow in the diode symbol and Vo≥0.7V for Si and Vo≥0.3V for Ge.
On
30.) Susceptance and conductance add to form
Admittance
31.) A resistor between the base of an NPN bipolar transistor and the positive supply voltage is
used to
Provide proper bias
32.) In which of the following FET amplifier types does drain current flow for 50% of the signal
cycle?
Class B
33.) What range of resistor values would you get when checking a transistor for forward and
reverse biased conditions by an ohmmeter?
100Ω to a few kΩ, exceeding 100kΩ
34.) In a transformer, a center tap would probably found in
The balanced winding
35.) The nucleus of an atom is made up of
Protons and neutrons
36.) In a step-up transformer
The primary voltage is less than the secondary voltage
37.) In general, the greater the absolute value of the impedance in the circuit
The less the flow of alternating current.
38.) A PN junction is formed by
The boundary of a P-type and an N-type material
39.) The low frequency response of an amplifier is determined in part by
The coupling capacitors
40.) If the load resistance of a capacitor filtered full-wave rectifier is reduced, the ripple voltage
Increases
41.) As the size of the plates in a capacitor increases, all other things being equal
The value of Xc decreases negatively
42.) If you are checking a 60-Hz full wave bridge rectifier and observe that the output has a
60Hz ripple
Then there is an open diode
43.) For the BJT to operate in the saturation region, the base-emitter junction must be ____-
biased and the base-collector junction must be ___-biased
Forward, Forward
44.) Each point in the RL plane
Corresponds to a unique combination of resistance and inductive reactance
45.) A material with a high dielectric constant
Acts to increase capacitance per unit volume
46.) Power factor is equal to
True power divided by the apparent power
47.) Recombination is when
An electron falls into a hole
48.) An advantage of a rheostat over a potentiometer is that
A rheostat can handle more current
49.) The current from a solar panel is increased by
Connecting solar cells in parallel
50.) Which of the following ratings is true?
Si diodes have higher PIV and wider temperature ranges than Ge diodes
51.) Figure shows a chopper feeding RLE load, the freewheeling diode conducts when
The thyristor is off
52.) Valence electrons are
In the most distance orbit from the nucleus
53.) To forward-bias a diode
An external voltage is applied that is positive at the anode and negative at the cathode, An
external voltage is applied that is positive at p-region and negative at the n-region
54.) Lines of magnetic flux are said to originate
At a north pole
55.) What is (are) the function(s) of the coupling capacitors, C1 and C2 in an FET circuit?
To create an open circuit for DC analysis, To isolate the DC biasing arrangement from the
applied signal and load, To create a short-circuit equivalent for AC analysis.
56.) As the spacing between the plates in a capacitor is made smaller, all other things being
equal
The capacitance increases
57.) Which of the following is (are) true to achieve a good overall voltage gain for the circuit?
The effect of R1 and R2 must be considered as the product and evaluated individually
58.) The high-frequency response of an amplifier is determined in part by
The internal transistor capacitances
59.) A JFET always operates with
The gate-to-source pn junction reverse-biased
60.) The internal resistance of the photodiode
Decreases with light intensity when forward-biased
61.) The transistor in a Class C amplifier conducts for
A very small percentage of the input cycle
62.) An OLED differs from a conventional LED in that is
Has layers of organic material in the place of a pn junction, Can be implemented using an inkjet
printing process
63.) A resistor has a value of 680 ohms, and you expect it will have to draw 1mA maximum
continuous current. What power rating is best for this application?
¼W
64.) Which of the following amplifier types produces the least distortion of the signal waveform?
Class-A
65.) Negative feedback in an amplifier
Reduces the gain
66.) Which type of digital IC is least susceptible to noise?
Transistor-transistor logic
67.) Every known element has
A unique type of atom
68.) An absolute limit on IC component density is
The size of the semiconductor atoms
69.) If X=0 and Y=1, then X(Y+Z) is
Always 0
70.) A positive ion is formed when
There are more holes than electrons in the outer orbit.
71.) An advantage of an electromagnet over a permanent magnet is that
An electromagnet can be switched on and off
72.) The magnetic flux around a straight, current-carrying wire
Is strongest near the wire
73.) By what other name(s) are the cutoff frequencies in a frequency response plot called?
Corner Frequency, Break Frequency, Half-power Frequency
74.) The difference between the insulator and a semiconductor is
A wider energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band, The number of free
electrons, The atomic structure
75.) The emitter current is always
Greater than the base current, Greater than the collector current
76.) Ideally, the equivalent circuit of a FET contains
A current source between gate and source terminals
77.) The atomic number of an element is determined by
The number of protons
78.) Good engineering practice usually requires that a series-parallel resistive network be made
From resistors that are all the same.
1.) What is the rms value of a square wave?
Equals its peak value
2.) A device that reverses magnetic field polarity to keep a DC motor rotating is
An armature coil
3.) When two coils of identical reactance are in parallel without mutual inductance, the
reactance of the combination is ____ the reactance of each coil.
Twice
4.) The rate of doing work is referred to as
Power
5.) Which of the following dielectric materials makes the lowest-capacitance capacitor?
Mica
6.) For maximum peak-to-peak output voltage, the Q point should be
At the center of the AC load line
7.) How is the output of a differentiator related to the input in an op-amp?
The output of a differentiator is inversely proportional to the rate of change of the input.
8.) The power rating of a transistor can be increased by
Using a heat sink
9.) A CB amplifier has a very low input resistance because
A low emitter AC resistor re shunts all other resistances
10.) An alternative name for a DIAC is
Bidirectional trigger diode
11.) A CMOS integrated circuit
Susceptible to damage to static
12.) What is the main advantage of temporary magnets?
A magnetic flux can be changed
13.) In a RAM:
It's easy to get data out and put it in
14.) A resistor wound with a wire doubled back on itself to reduce the inductance
Bifilar resistor
15.) The voltmeter should generally have
Large internal resistance
16.) The symbol ICBO signifies the current that flows when some DC voltage is applied
In the reverse direction to the collector junction with the emitter open-circuited
17.) The superposition theorem is used when the circuit contains
A number of voltage source
18.) The primary cause on linear distortion in amplifier is
Unequal phase shift in component frequency
19.) A coulomb
Is an extremely large number of charge carriers
20.) The area of capacitor plates increases two times, then the capacitance
Increases two times
21.) Convert 111101.011012 to octal
75.328
22.) Lower cut-off frequency of an amplifier is primarily determined by the
Capacitance of coupling and bypass capacitors
23.) A NOR gate is on only when all its inputs are
Off
24.) The bandwidth of a class C amplifier decreases when the
Q inceases
25.) The force between two magnetic poles is ____ their pole strengths
Directly proportional to
26.) The quiescent collector current is the same as the
DC collector current
27.) When the movable plates of a gang capacitor completely overlap the fixed plates, the
capacitance of the capacitor is
Maximum
28.) In small inductance
Energy is stored and released quickly
29.) For a UJT, the intrinsic standoff ratio is
Always less than 1
30.) What component of dielectric current is proportional to the rate of accumulation of electric
changes within the dielectric?
Reactive current
31.) The circuit efficiency of a class A amplifier can be increased by using
Transformer-coupled load
32.) If the inductance is decreased, the impedance of the circuit containing a resistor, a
capacitor, and an inductor connected in series to an AC source
Decreases
33.) What is automatically compensated in a wattmeter?
Inductive reactance
34.) Transformer coupling is an example of
AC coupling
35.) Plastic dual-in-line for insertion into sockets has a package suffix code of
N and P
36.) When current and voltage are in phase in an AC circuit, the ____ is equal to zero
Reactance
37.) A hot-wire ammeter
Can measure AC as well as DC
38.) The field-effect transistor (FET)
Depends on the variation of the depletion-layer width reverse voltage for its operation
39.) The power gain of an amplifier
Equals output power divided by an input power
40.) In a JFET, as external bias applied to the gate is increased
Pinch-off voltage is reached at lower values of ID
41.) An ideal amplifier has
Noise factor of unity
42.) Push-pull is almost always used with
Class B
43.) The transistor-terminal voltage is considered positive if
The terminal is more positive than the common terminal
44.) If all the delta connected resistor are identical, what is the equivalent value of the resistor in
WYE connection?
R/3
45.) The signal handling capacity of an amplifier is high if
The operating point is selected near the biasing region
46.) To measure power-supply voltage being used by a circuit, a voltmeter
Is placed in parallel with the circuit that works from the supply
47.) Which of the following will not cause a major error in an ohmmeter?
A small change in the resistance to be measured
48.) When the SCR is off, the current in the circuit is
Small leakage current
49.) One of the effects of negative feedback in amplifier is to
Decrease the harmonic distortion
50.) In an N-channel JFET, pincfoff occurs when the gate bias is
Very negative
51.) What is the temperature coefficient of resistance of Eureka?
Almost zero
52.) A DIAC has how many semiconductor layers?
Three
53.) The UJT may be used as
A Sawtooth Generator
54.) The first stage of a preamp is
Small signal
55.) The rate of gain reduction in operational amplifiers
20 db per decade (-20db/decade)
56.) Process of growing a thin layer of silicon dioxide over a semiconductor
Oxidation
57.) A normally operated SCT has an anode which is ____ with respect to cathode.
Positive
58.) In Boolean algebra, a high signal added to another high signal is
10
59.) Transient period is considered over after
5τ
60.) What is the typical turn-on time of an SCR?
1μs
61.) The reason why alternating current can induce voltage is
It has a varying magnetic field
62.) An alternating current whose average value is 1A will produce _____ 1A DC under similar
conditions
Less heat than
63.) In an AC circuit with XL and R in series, the
Voltage across R lags the voltage across XL by 90o
64.) A 4-layer diode turns on when the anode to cathode voltage exceeds
The forward-breakover voltage
65.) Which of the following is the normal way to turn on an SCR?
By appropriate gate current
66.) The three terminals of a TRIAC are
Two main terminals, and a gate terminal
67.) A multiplexer
Has multiple inputs and a single output
68.) When two in-phase sine waves that have identical frequency and amplitude are added
together, then the result is a sine wave with ___ the amplitude of either.
Twice
69.) Pure metals generally have
High conductivity and large temperature coefficient
70.) A frequency synthesizer makes use of
A divider
71.) Which device exhibits negative resistance region?
UJT