06/04/2024

Morning

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Memory Based
Answers & Solutions
Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2024 (Online) Phase-2

(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The maximum marks
are 300.

(3) This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is
Mathematics. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.

(4) Section - A : Attempt all questions.

(5) Section - B : Attempt any 05 questions out of 10 Questions.

(6) Section - A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(7) Section - B (21 – 30) contains 10 Numerical value based questions. The answer to each question
should be rounded off to the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and
–1 mark for wrong answer.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

PHYSICS
SECTION - A Sol. VD – VB = 0, i.e., it is condition of Wheatstone
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 bridge.
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
12 0.5
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. =
6 + x 0.5
Choose the correct answer:
x=6
1. For a given single electron atom, ratio of shortest
3. Which of the following does not depend on the
wavelengths in Balmer and Lyman series is
wave nature of light?
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 A. Reflection

Answer (1) B. Diffraction

1  1 C. Photoelectric effect
Sol. = RZ 2 1 − 
L   D. Polarization
1 1 1 E. Interference
= RZ 2  − 
B 4 
(1) C only (2) A, B
B
=4 (3) A, B, C (4) D, E
L
Answer (1)
2. The value of unknown resistance x for which
potential difference between point B and D is zero Sol. Theoretical
is 4. Four particles A, B, C, D have masses
m
, m, 2m and 4m . They have equal momentum.
2
The particle that has highest kinetic energy is
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Answer (1)

p2
Sol. KE =
(1) 12  (2) 6  2m
(3) 3  (4) 2  1
 KE 
Answer (2) m

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

5. Which of the following is not a semiconductor? 8. A ball of mass m and density  made to free fall into
(1) Silicon (2) Germanium viscous liquid of density 0. The viscous force on
(3) Copper oxide (4) Graphite ball is

Answer (4)      
(1) mg  1 −  (2) mg  1 − 0 
Sol. Theoretical.  0    

6. Find the truth table for the following circuit. mg mg

(3) (4)
 
1− 1− 0
0 

Answer (2)

Sol. W + B + Fviscous = O
A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 1 Fv = W + B
(1) 0 1 1 (2) 0 1 1
1 0 0 1 0 0 = mg – 0vg
1 1 0 1 1 1
m
= mg – 0 g
A B Y A B Y 
0 0 0 0 0 0
  
(3) 0 1 1 (4) 0 1 0 = mg  1 − 0 
  
1 0 0 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 9. For a spring block system, the error in time period
calculation is 2% and the error in mass calculation
Answer (2)
is 1%. Find the percentage error in spring constant
Sol. Y = AB + A k.
= A + B
(1) 2%
7. A bullet of mass 50 gm enters a metal sheet with
(2) 4%
speed of 100 m/s and emerges with speed of
(3) 5%
40 m/s. The loss in kinetic energy of bullet is
(4) 10%
(1) 105 J
(2) 42 J Answer (3)

(3) 210 J m
Sol. k = 42 
(4) 140 J T2

Answer (3) dk  dm dT 
 100 =    100 + 2   100 
k  m T 
1 50 50
Sol. K =  {1002 − 402 } =  140  60
2 100 2000 dk
 100 = 1 + 2  2 = 5
= 210 J k

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

10. Match the dimensions: 3RT

Sol. Vr ms =
a. Torque i. M0L2AT M

b. Magnetic ii. ML2T–2A0 (Vr ms )O2 M e 4

= =
moment (Vr ms )He MO2 32
c. Magnetic field iii. MLT–3A–2
1
d. Permeability iv. ML0T–2A–1 =
2 2
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 13. The specific heat capacity for a gas following the
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv relation PV2 = RT is (CV is heat capacity at constant
Answer (3) volume and R is gas constant)

Sol.  = F  ML2T–2 (1) CV (2) CV + R

R
 = iA  M0L2AT (3) + CV (4) R
3
F MLT −2
B   MT −2 A −1 Answer (1)
qV ATLT −1
PV 2
−2 −1 Sol. = C  V = constant
Br MT A ·L
 MLT −3 A −2
PV
0  
i AT  CV
11. Kinetic energy to move a body of mass m from
14. A screw gauge has circular scale 100 divisions with
surface of earth to infinite distance form the earth is pitch 1 mm. Upon keeping a wire between studs,
(g is acceleration due to gravity on surface of earth main scale reading is 1 mm and circular scale
& R is radius of earth) divisions 42th coincide with reference line.
1 Find the diameter of circular cross-section wire in
(1) 2mgR (2) mgR
2 mm.
1 (1) 1.42 (2) 1.40
(3) mgR (4) mgR
4 (3) 1.38 (4) 0.39
Answer (3) Answer (1)
Sol. K + U = 0 Sol. Diameter = Main scale reeding + circular scale
GMm reading × least count
 K= = mgR
R d = 1 mm + (42 × 0.01) mm
12. Find the ratio of root mean square speed of oxygen d = 1.42 mm
and helium molecules at same temperature. 15.
2 2 1 16.
(1) (2)
1 2 2 17.
1 1 18.
(3) (4)
4 32 19.
Answer (2) 20.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

SECTION - B Sol. nf –  = eV
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section   = 3.5 – 0.5 = 3 eV
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to 3
25. If the radius of earth is reduced to
th of its original
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest 4
radius, then the time period of earth’s rotation
integer.
becomes K hours 30 minutes. Find the value of K.
21. Ratio of angle of prism and minimum deviation is Answer (13)
one for a prism whose refractive index is 3 then Sol. ext = 0  Angular momentum is conserved
angle of prism (in degrees) is _______. 2
2 2  3R 
mR 2   = m  .
5  4  1
Answer (60)
5
Sol. A = 
16
 A+ 1 =
sin   9
 2  = sin A = 3
2 2 9 9
sin
A
sin
A T1 = =  = 24  hours
2 2 1  16 16

A T1 = 13 hours 30 minutes
2cos = 3 26. Two masses m1 and m2 are attached through a thin
2
 A = 60° string passing over frictionless and massless
pulley. The acceleration of masses is as shown.
22. Time period of a simple harmonic motion is 3.14
m
seconds, with amplitude 0.06 m. The maximum Then 1 is _______
velocity of particle is k × 10–2 m/s. Find the value of m2
k.
Answer (12)
2
Sol. Vmax = A = A.
T
2
Vmax = 0.06 
3.14
Vmax = 0.12 m/s

23. A body uniformly accelerates [starting from rest] to

speed of 80 km/hr in time t and then maintains this
speed for time interval of 3t. Average speed for Answer (2)
whole motion is __________ km/hr. m − m2 g
Sol. a = 1 g=
Answer (70) m1 + m2 3
40  t + 80  3t 40 + 240 m1
Sol.  v  = = = 70  =2
4t 4 m2
24. Radiation of energy 3.5 eV is incident on a metal. 27.
The stopping potential required is 0.5 V. The work 28.
function of the metal is _______ eV. 29.
Answer (3) 30.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A 3. Find the ratio of shortest wavelengths in Lyman and

Balmer series of H-atom.
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices 1 4
(1) (2)
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 4 1
Choose the correct answer : 1 2
(3) (4)
1. Among the given molecules, identify the one which 2 1
undergoes nucleophilic addition reaction at fastest Answer (1)
rate?
1 4
(1) HCHO Sol. ( shortest )Lyman  ; ( shortest )Balmer 
R R
(2) CH3CHO
1
(3) CH3CH2CHO Lyman 1
 R 
(4) CH3CH2CH2CHO Balmer 4 4
Answer (1) R

Sol. Rate of N.A.R.  electrophilicity of C-atom 4. Which of the following is not the intermediate
observed in Reimer Tiemann Reaction?
1

Steric Hinderance

(1) (2) :CCl2

(3) (4) CHCl3

2. Which compound will absorb light of highest
frequency?
(1) [Cr[H2O]6]3+ (2) [CrCl6]3– Answer (4)

(3) [Cr(CN)6]3– (4) [CrCl3(H2O)3] Sol. CHCl3 + NaOH 

 : CCl2
Answer (3)
Sol. More the crystal field splitting energy more will be
the frequency of absorbed light.
Crystal field splitting energy depends on ligand
strength here
Order of ligand strength
Cl– < H2O < CN–; So splitting energy will also follow
same order CHCl3 is the reagent.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

5. Correct metamer of the following compound is Sol. 63Eu, 65Tb, 68Er, 70Yb and 71Lu belong to
Lanthanoids.
96Cm belongs to actinoids.
7. Density of x M solution of NaOH is 1.12 g/mL and
molality is 3 m, then the value of x is
(1) 3
(1)
(2) 2.8
(3) 3.8
(4) 3.5
(2)
Answer (1)
Sol. Given molality of NaOH = 3 m
It means 3 moles of NaOH present in 1000 g of
(3) solvent.
Mass of solute (NaOH) = 3 × 40 = 120 g
Mass of solution = 1000 + 120 = 1120 g
(4) 1120
Density of solution = 1.12 =
volume
Answer (3)
1120
Volume of solution =  1000 mL
Sol. Metamers have the same functional group but differ 1.12
in the alkyl/aryl groups attached to it keeping the
3
molecular formula unchanged. Therefore, metamer Molarity of solution =  1000
1000
of the given compound is
=3M
8. Which of the following is not a semiconductor?
(1) Si

6. How many of the following do not belong to (2) Graphite

Lanthanoids? (3) CuO
Eu, Er, Lu, Cm, Yb, Tb (4) Ge
(1) 5 Answer (2)
(2) 4 Sol. Graphite is not a semiconductor, it is an allotrope of
(3) 3 carbon and good conductor of electricity.
(4) 1 CuO is a p-type semiconductor.
Answer (4) Si and Ge are also semiconductors.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

9. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct Answer (2)
option.
Sol.
List-I List-II
(Reagent) (Radical) Hybridization Shape

(i) dil. HCl (A) Pb2+ sp3 Tetrahedral

(ii) NH4Cl + NH4OH + (B) Al3+ sp3d Trigonal bipyramidal

(NH4)2CO3
sp2 Trigonal planar
(iii) NH4Cl + NH4OH + H2S (C) Mn2+
sp3d2 Octahedral
(iv) NH4Cl + NH4OH (D) Sr2+
(1) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(B)
(2) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(B) 11. Which of the following will have positive electron
(3) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(C) gain enthalpy?
(4) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A) (A) Na + e⊝  Na⊝

Answer (1) (B) O + 2e⊝  O2⊝

Sol. (i) dil. HCl (C) Be + e⊝  Be⊝

Group-I: Pb2+ (D) F + e⊝  F⊝
(ii) NH4Cl + NH4OH + (NH4)2CO3 (E) N + e⊝  N⊝
Group-V: Ba2+, Sr2+, Ca2+
(1) (B, C, E) (2) (A, B, E)
(iii) NH4Cl + NH4OH + H2S
(3) (A, C, D) (4) (A, B, C)
  Group-IV: Co2+, Ni2+, Mn2+, Zn2+
(iv) NH4Cl + NH4OH Answer (1)
  Group-III: Al3+, Fe3+ Sol. Be & N have stable fully filled & half-filled electronic
configuration respectively
10. Choose the correct option based on matching.
O + e  O– + Heg1  141 kJ/mol
Hybridization Shape
O– + e  O2– Heg2  780 kJ/mol
A sp3 I Octahedral
______________
B sp3d II Tetrahedral O + 2e  O2– H = +639 kJ/mol
C sp2 III Trigonal 12. Consider the given reaction :
bipyramidal
H2 + I2 2HI
D sp3d2 IV Trigonal planar
If equal number of molecules of H2, I2 and HI are
present at equilibrium. Then Kp = t × 10–1
(1) A(I); B(II); C(III); D(IV) Find out t
(2) A(II); B(III); C(IV); D(I) (1) 10 (2) 0.01
(3) A(II); B(III); C(I); D(IV) (3) 0.1 (4) 1
(4) A(III); B(II); C(IV); D(I) Answer (1)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

Sol. H2 + I2 2HI Answer (4)

Sol. 2, 4, 6-Trinitrotoluene is an explosive and not picric

Kp 
PHI  2
1
acid. Therefore statement-I is false

PH PI 
2 2
2, 4, 6-Trinitrotophenol is called picric acid. It is
synthesised by the reaction of 4-hydroxybenzene-
Kp = t × 10–1 1,3-disulphonic acid with conc. HNO3.

t  10

13. Statement-I: Gallium has low melting point, so it is

used in thermometers.

Statement-II: A substance having 253 K can be

measured by Ga thermometer.
 Statement-II is true.
(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both correct 15. Among the following which is not a base of DNA?
(1) Adenine
(2) Statement-I and Statement-II both incorrect
(2) Uracil
(3) Statement-I correct and Statement-II incorrect (3) Guanine

(4) Statement-II correct and Statement-I incorrect (4) Cytosine

Answer (2)
Answer (3)
Sol. Uracil is present in RNA. Instead of uracil, thymine
Sol. Melting point of Gallium is nearly 302 K so, it can’t is present in DNA.
measure temperature of 253 K. 16. Identify the correct match among the given species
and respective shape of molecule
14. Choose the correct option regarding the following
Species Shape
statements:
(A) NH+4 See-Saw
Statement-I: 2, 4, 6-Trinitrotoluene is picric acid.
(B) SF4 Tetrahedral
Statement-II: Reaction of 4-hydroxybenzene-1, (C) ClF3 T-shaped
3-disulphonic acid with conc. HNO3 gives picric
(D) XeF6 Square planar
acid.
(1) A (2) B
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true (3) C (4) D

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are false Answer (3)


(3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false Sol. NH4 : Tetrahedral ClF3 : T-shaped

(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true SF4 : See-Saw XeF6 : Distorted Octahedral

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17. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Glycerol is purified by vacuum distillation (vii) (viii) C2H6

(2) Aniline is purified by steam distillation

Answer (6)
(3) Chloroform and aniline can be separated by
distillation Sol. The system having suitable electropositive pole H
and suitable electronegative pole can show
(4) Ethanol and water are azeotropic mixture can
H-bonding. Suitable positive pole
be separated by distillation
H: , suitable negative pole:
Answer (4)
Electronegative element F, O, N with sufficient
Sol. Ethanol and water are azeotropic mixture and can’t
negative charge.
be separated by distillation
Hence H2O, CH3OH, HF and NH3 can show
18.
intermolecular H bonding and
19.

20.

SECTION - B Can show

Numerical Value Type Questions: This section

interamolecular H bonding.
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest H
23. KMnO4 
 X(product having Mn)
integer.

21. Find out ratio of t99 and t90 for first order What is the difference in spin only magnetic
moment (in B.M.) between the given reactant and
Answer (2)
product. (Nearest integer)
2.303 100
Sol. t 99  log Answer (6)
k 1
Sol. In acidic medium KMnO4 goes to Mn2+ e.g. MnSO4.
2.303 100
t 90  log
k 10 The KMnO4 has zero unpaired electrons (hence it
is diamagnetic) because it has Mn at +7 oxidation
22. How many of the following show(s) H-bonding.
state (electronic configuration (n – 1)d0 ns0).
(i) (ii) H 2O (iii) CH3OH Mn2+ has 5 unpaired electrons as it has (n – 1)d5
ns0 electronic configuration so it has 5.92 B.M.
magnetic moment so difference will be 5.92 B.M.
(iv) HF (v) NH3 (vi) Nearest integer = 6.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

24. 9.3 g of aniline was treated with NaNO2 and HCl at 26. According to the reaction,
0°C to get product A which reacts with phenol to
 
form a product B. Assuming 100% yield in each HX aq  H(aq)  X(aq) Ka = (1.2 × 10–5)

step, what is the weight of product B obtained?

Find out osmotic pressure of 0.03 M HX solution at
Answer (20)
300 K (in atm).

Answer (1)
Sol.

C 2
Sol. K a 
1 

1.2 × 10–5 = (3 × 10–2) (2)

2 = 0.4 × 10–3
9.3 g

9.3 2 = 4 × 10–4
 0.1 mole.
93
 = 0.02
Final product formed = 0.1 mol.
 = iCRT
= 0.1 × 198

= 19.8 gm i = 1 +  = 1.02

= 20
 = (1.02) (0.03) (0.0821) (300)
25. Consider the following sequence of reactions
= 0.7536 atm
NaLiq. NH Cold, alkaline, dil. KMnO
But  2  yne 
3
A 
4
B
1
Find the number of oxygen in B (1 molecule)

Answer (2) 27.

Sol. 28.

29.
Hence the number of O atom in one molecule of B
30.
is 2.

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - A /4
cos2 x sin2 x
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
2. The value of  (cos3 x + sin3 x )2
dx is equal to
0
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1 1
(1) (2)
6 3
Choose the correct answer :
1
n2 (3) (4) 1
r 1 + 2
2
Answer (1)
1. If Ar = 2r 2 n2 −  then the value of 2A10 –
/4
tan2 x sec2 x
3r − 1 3
n
(3n − 1)
Sol.  (1+ tan3 x )2
dx
2 0

A8 is equal to Put 1 + tan3x = t

(1) 4 + 2 (2) 2n  3tan2xsec2xdx = dt

(3) 0 (4) 2 + 4 2
1 dt
Answer (1) 3 1 t 2

n2 2
r 1 + 1  t –1 
2  
3  –1 
Sol. Ar = 2r 2 n2 −  1

3n2 n
1
3r − 2 3 −
=
2 2 6
3. Let ,  be the distinct roots of the quadratic
n2 equation x2 – (t2 – 5t + 6)x + 1 = 0, an = n + n, then
0 1 +
2 a + a2025
the minimum value of 2023 is
Ar = 0 2 n2 −  a2024

3n2 n 1 1
–2 3 − (1) − (2)
2 2 4 4

  n2  1 1
Ar = −2 (n 2 − ) − 2  +    = −2 n 2 −  − n 2 − 2  (3) − (4)

2 2
 2  
Answer (1)
 Ar = ( + 2)  2
Sol. Given equation
 2A10 – A8 = 4( + 2) – 2( + 2) x2 – (t2 – 5t + 6)x + 1 = 0
= 2( + 2) = 4 + 2  a2025 – (t2 – 5t + 6) a2024 + a2023 = 0

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning


a2025 + a2023
a2024
(
= t 2 − 5t + 6 ) 5. R is defined on set X = {1, 2, …, 20}
R1 = {(x, y) : 2x – 3y = 2}
R2 = {(x, y) : 5x – 4y = 0}
2 25 25
= t − 5t + +6− If M, N represent the number of elements to be
4 4
added to make R1 and R2 symmetric respectively.
2 Then value of M + N equals to
 5  1
= t +  +  −  (1) 10 (2) 8
 2  4
0 (3) 12 (4) 11
Answer (1)
1
 Minimum value is − Sol. R is defined on X = {1, 2, 3, …., 20}
4
R1 = {(x, y) : 2x – 3y = 2}
4. The shortest distance between two lines
R2 = {(x, y) : 5x + 4y = 0}
x − 3 y + 15 z − 9 x +1 y −1 z − 9 As 2x – 3y = 2
= = and = = is
2 −7 5 2 1 −3 So 2x and 3y both has to be even or odd
simultaneously and 2x can’t be odd so 2x and 3y
(1) 4 3
both will be even.
(2) 8 3 So R1 = {(4, 3), (7, 4), (10, 6), (13, 8), (16, 10), (19,
12)}
(3) 6 3 for symmetric we need to add 6 elements here as
(3, 4), (4, 7) and (6, 10), (8, 13), (10, 16), (12, 19)
(4) 2 3
So M = 6
Answer (1)
For R2 5x – 4y = 0
x − 3 y + 15 z − 9 So 5x and 4y has to be equal. 4y is always even so
Sol. L1 : = =
2 −7 5 5x will also be even
R2 = {(4, 5), (8, 10), (12, 15), (16, 20)}
x +1 y −1 z − 9
L2 : = = So 4 elements (5, 4), (10, 8) (15, 12), (20, 16) need
2 1 −3
to be added
−4 16 0 N=4
2 −7 5 M + N = 10
2 1 −3
Shortest distance = dy y 1
256 + 256 + 256 6. If + = and y(e–1) = 0. Then y(e)
dx x nx x nx2

192 equals to
=
16 3 e2 + 1 e2 − 1
(1) (2)
e e
12
=
3 e2 + 2 e2 − 2
(3) (4)
e e
= 4 3
Answer (2)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

1 Sol. Let f(x) = xx

 dx
Sol. I.F = e x nx
 f(x) = xx(1 + lnx)
Put nx = t
For strictly increasing, f(x) > 0
1  1 + lnx > 0
dx = dt.
x
1
1
 x
e
 dt
I.F = e t
dy y –1
nt 8. If + = e– tan x , then which of the
= e dx 1 + x 2

=t following is true
= nx . –1 x2 –1 1
(1) yetan x = +c (2) yetan x = + c
 1  2 x
 y. nx =  nx ·  dx
 x 2 nx  –1 x –1 x
(3) yetan = x +c (4) yetan = –x + c
1
y. nx =  x2 dx Answer (3)
dy y –1
−1 Sol. + = e– tan x
y nx = +c …(2) dx 1 + x 2
x
1
Given y (e–1) = 0  dx
I.F = e 1+ x 2
0=–e+c
–1
c=e = etan x
 From (2) Now,
We get, –1 –1 –1
y etan x =  etan x . e– tan x dx
−1
y nx = +e –1
x  yetan x =  dx
 Put x = e –1 x
 yetan = x +c
−1
y= +e
e 9. A company produces automobiles. It has two
factories factory ‘A’ produces 60% of the
e2 − 1 automobiles and rest is produced by factory B. 80%
y=
e of the automobiles produced by ‘A’ is upto the
Option (b) is correct standards and 90% of the automobiles by ‘B’ is upto
7. Interval in which xx is strictly increasing is the standards. If an automobile is selected we
found it as standard, the probability it came from B
 1
(1) (0, ) (2)  0,  is P. Then 126 P equals to

e 
(1) 54 (2) 52
 1  1 
(3)  2 ,   (4)  ,   (3) 48 (4) 27
C  e 
Answer (1)
Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

Sol. P (standard automobile from A) =

6 8 12
 = x12 + x22 + ... + x19
2
+ 64
 = 104
10 10 25 20

P (standard automobile from B) =

4 9
 =
9  x12 + x22 + ... + x19
2
+ 64 = 2080
10 10 25
 x12 + x22 + ... + x19
2
= 2016
9
25 2016 + 144
Required probability = Now new
2
= – (10.2)2
12 9 20
+
25 25
new
2
= 108 – 104.04
9 3
P= =  = 3.96
21 7
11. A point P(10, –2, –1) and R(1, 7, 6), if Q is a foot of
126 P = 54
perpendicular from R to the line joining points
10. If  = 4(standard deviation) and x = 10 (mean) of (2, –5, 11) and (6, –7, 5). Then (PQ)2 is
20 observations. One term was taken wrong i.e,
3509 3600
instead of 12 they have taken 8. Then the correct (1) (2)
standard deviation is 14 7
3509 3409
(1) 1.8 (2) 3.96 (3) (4)
7 7
(3) 3.84 (4) 1.93
Answer (1)
Answer (2)
Sol.
Sol. Mean = x = 10
 = 4, n = 20
Take observations as x1, x2, …x20
x1 + x2 + ... + x20
= 200
20
x1 + x2 +…+ x20 = 200  6 + 2 −7 − 5 5 + 11
  +1 ,  +1 ,  + 1 
 
One term, say x20 is wrongly written as 8
So, x1 + x2 + … + x19 = 200 – 8 L = 4iˆ − 2 jˆ − 6kˆ
x1 + x2 + … + x19 = 192
 6 + 2   −7 − 5 
Now (x20)new = 12 RQ ⊥ L = 4  − 1 − 2  − 7
  +1    +1 
192 + 12 204 102
So, xnew = = = = 10.2  5 + 11 
20 20 10 −6  − 6
  +1 
 x12
2 = – ( x )2 = 4 4(5 + 1) − 2(−14 − 12) − 6(− + 5)
n RQ  L = =0
( + 1)
x12 + x22 + ... + x20
2
= 4 + 100 (20 + 28 + 6) + (4 + 24 − 30)
20 = =0
 +1

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

1  1  1  1  1 
= (54) – 2 = 0   = Sol. tan−1   + tan−1   + tan−1   + tan−1   =
27  
3  
4  
5 n 4
 6 −7 5   7 
 +2 −5 + 11    1  1 
Q =  27 , 27 , 27
  tan−1  12  + tan−1   + tan−1   =
 1 + 1 1
+1
1
+ 1   1 − 1  5 n 4
 27 27 27   12 

 60 −142 302  7  1  1 

 ,  tan−1   + tan−1   + tan−1   =
,   
11  
5 n 4
 28 28 28 
 23   1 
 15 71 151  tan−1   + tan−1   =
= R =  , ,   24  n 4
 7 14 14 
23 1
2 2 2 +
 15   71   151
 (QP ) = 10 −  +  −2 −  +  −1 −   24 n = 1
 7  14   14  23
1−
24 . n
3509
= 23n + 24
14  =1
24n − 23
12.
 n = 47
13. 22. If A = [100, 700], how many numbers are in A which
14. are neither multiple of 3 nor 4?

15. Answer (300)

Sol. Let A1 denotes multiple of 3,
16.
B1 denotes multiple of 4
17.
 We need to find A1  B1
18.
A1  B1 = A1  B1
19.
A1  B1 = n( A1) + n(B1) – n( A1  B1)
20.
= 200 + 151 – 50
SECTION - B
= 301
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
 A1  B1 = 601 – 301 = 300
contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to
each question should be rounded-off to the nearest 23. If the second, third, fourth terms of the expression
integer. 10
(x + y)n is 135, 30, respectively, then the value
3

21. If cot–13 + cot–14 + cot–15 + cot–1 n = , value of n of 9(n3 + x2 + y) is
4
is Answer (1153)

Answer (47) Sol. (x + y)n = nC0 x 0 y n + nC1x1y n −1 + nC2 x 2 y n −2

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JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

+ nC3 x3 y1−3 + ...  x=

1
3
First term  n C1x1y n −1 = 135 …(1)
 9(n3 + x2 + y)
n 2 n −2
Second term  C2 x y = 30 …(2)  1 
= 9  53 + + 3
10  32 
Third term  n C3 x3 y n−3 = …(3)
3
 1153 
= 9 
Dividing equation (1) by (2)  9 
2n 1 135 = 1153
 =
n(n − 1) xy 30
24. Find the number of triangles formed whose vertices
2 9 are also a vertices of regular octagon but the side
=
(n − 1)xy 2 of triangle is not common with sides of octagon is

4 Answer (56)
(n − 1)xy = …(4)
9 Sol.
Dividing equation (2) by (3)
3
=9
(n − 2)xy
1
(n − 2)xy = …(5)  Total triangles = 8C3
3
Triangles with all 3 sides common
Dividing equation (4) by (5)
with octagon = 0
n −1 4
=
n−2 3 Triangle with 2 sides common

 3n – 3 = 4n – 8 with octagon  Choose vertex

 n=5 = ( 8C1)  8 triangles
Now equation (1) becomes
Triangle with exactly 1 side common
27
5 × y4 = 135  x =
( 8C1) ways to choose a side, remaining
…(6)
y4 = vertex
And equation (2) becomes
can be selected in 4 vertices = 4C1 ways = 8C1· 4C1
10x2y3 = 30
= 32
 x2y3 = 3 …(7)
 56 – (8 + 0 + 32) = 16 triangles
From equation (6) and (7)
25. The number of real solutions of x |x + 5| + 2|x + 7|
36 3 – 2 = 0 is equal to
 xy = 3
y8 Answer (3)
 y5 = 35 Sol. (I) x  −5
 y=3 x2 + 5x + 2x + 14 – 2 = 0

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 JEE (Main)-2024 : Phase-2 (06-04-2024)-Morning

x2 + 7x + 12 = 0 For continuity at x = 0, f(0) = 0

x = 3, 4 f(0–) = 1
(II) –7 < x < – 5  f(x) is discontinuous at x = 0
– x2 – 5x + 2x + 14 – 2 = 0 Continuity at x = 1
– x2 – 3x + 12 = 0 L.H.L = lim f (1– h) = 2(1– h)2 + [(1– h)2 ] – [1– h]
h→0
x2 + 3x – 12 = 0
=2
x = 2.275, –5.275, here x  2.275
f(1) = 2.12 + 1 – 1 = 2
So, x = –5.275
(III) x  −7 R.H.L = lim f (1 + h) = 2(1 + h)2 + [(1 + h)2 ] – [1 + h]
h→0
– x2 – 5x – 2x – 14 – 2 = 0
=2
– x2 – 7x – 16 = 0
 f(x) is continuous at x = 1
x2 + 7x + 16 = 0
For continuity, at x = 2 and 3 similarly it is
D < 0 → no real roots discontinuous
Only 3 solutions possible For continuity at x = 2
26. The number of points of discontinuities of f(x) = 2x2 f(2) = 2.22 + [22] – [2] = 10
+ [x2] – [x] where [] is greatest integer function and
x[–1, 2] is equals to L.H.L = lim 2(2 – h)2 + [(2 – h)2 ] – [2 – h]
h→0
Answer (4)
=8+3–1
Sol. f(x) = 2x2 + [x2] – [x], x[–1, 2] = 10
This function may be discontinuous at x = –1, 0, 1,
 f(x) is continuous at x = 2
2, 3 and 2.
f(x) is discontinuous at x = –1, 0, 2 and 3.
For continuity at x = – 1
No. of points of discontinuity = 4
f(–1) = 4
27.
lim f (–1 + h) = lim 2(–1 + h)2 + [(–1 + h)2 ] – [–1 + h]
h→0 h→0 28.
=3 29.
 f(x) is discontinuous at x = – 1 30.

❑ ❑ ❑

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