25/01/2023

Evening

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Memory Based
Answers & Solutions
Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2023 (Online) Phase-1

(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be rounded off
to the nearest integer.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)-Evening

PHYSICS
A
SECTION - A  = A sin(t )
2
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20

multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices t =
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 6
   
Choose the correct answer: t = =2s  = 12 s
 6  
1. A wire with resistance 5 ohms is redrawn to
increase its length 5 times. What is the final When x = A, = Asin(t)
resistance of the wire. 
t =
(1) 25  (2) 16  2
(3) 125  (4) 32     1
t =  =  12 s = 6 s
Answer (3)  2  2
l0 A
Sol. R =  =5 Time taken from to A = 6 – 2 = 4 second.
A0 2
Volume is constant so 4. An object of mass m is placed at a height Re from
surface of earth. Find the increase in potential
l0A0 = 5l0A
energy of the object if the height of the object is
A increased to 2Re from surface. (Re: Radius of earth)
So A = 0
5 1 1
5l l (1) mgRe (2) mgRe
R  =  0 = 25 0 3 6
A0 A0
1 1
5 (3) mgRe (4) mgRe
2 4
= 25R
= 125  Answer (2)
2. Find velocity of particle if position of the particle is GMe m
given by x = 2t2 at t = 2 sec. Sol. Ui = −
2Re
(1) 8 m/s (2) 4 m/s
GMe m
(3) 16 m/s (4) 32 m/s Uf = −
3Re
Answer (1)
GMe m
Sol. x = 2t2 U = Uf − Ui =
6Re
dx
= 4t
dt mgRe
=
v = 4t 6
v at t = 2 sec = 8 m/s 5. A charge of 10 C is placed at origin. Where should
3. A particle performing SHM with amplitude A starts a charge of 40 C be placed on x-axis such that
A electric field is zero at x = 2?
from x = 0 and reaches x = in 2 s. Find time
2 (1) x = –2 (2) x = 4
A (3) x = 6 (4) x = 2
required for the particle to go from x = to x = A?
2
Answer (3)
(1) 1.5 s (2) 4 s
(3) 6 s (4) 1 s Sol. E = 0
1 10 1 40
Answer (2)  =
40 22 40 ( x0 − 2)2
Sol. x = Asin(t)
 x0 – 2 = 4
A
For x =  x0 = 6
2
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)-Evening
6. The diagram shown represents different transitions 2  10−7  14  100
of electron (A, B, C, D) between the energy levels = T
3.5
with energies mentioned along. Among the shown
transitions which transition will generate photon of = 8 × 10–5 T
wavelength 124.1 nm? (hc = 1241 eV-nm)
8. For an LCR series circuit XL = 130 , XC = 80  and
R = 80 . The value of power factor of the circuit is
equal to

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C 54
(1)
9
(4) D
Answer (4) 8
(2)
89
Sol. So, energy of photon
8
hc 1241 (3)
E = = = 10 eV 13
 124.1
Only D has energy to produce this wavelength. 7
(4)
9
7. Two straight infinite wires placed parallel to each
other are carrying currents as shown Answer (2)

R R
Sol. cos  = =
Z ( X L − XC )2 + R 2

80
=
(130 − 80)2 + 802

80
=
2500 + 6400
P is equidistant from the wires find magnetic field
8
at point P. (Point P is in the plane of wire) cos  =
89
(1) 8 × 10–5 T
9. A disc and a solid sphere of same radius are rotated
(2) 8 × 10–7 T
as shown in the figure. If mass of disc and solid
(3) 16 × 10–5 T sphere are 4 kg and 5 kg respectively then
(4) 2 × 10–5 T Idisc
Isolid sphere
Answer 1)
0 i1 0 i2
Sol. Bnet = +
2r1 2r2

 8 6 
= 2  10−7  + T
3.5 3.5 
 
 100 100 

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)-Evening

7 25 11. What will be molar specific heat capacity of an

(1) (2)
5 28 isochoric process of a diatomic gas if it has
additional vibrational mode?
5 28
(3) (4) 5 3
7 25 (1) R (2) R
2 2
Answer (3) 7 9
(3) R (4) R
Sol. 2 2
Answer (3)
Sol. For each additional vibrational mode degree of
freedom is increased by 2 so new degree of
freedom f = 5 + 2 = 7

f 7
Using parallel axis theorem, So, Cv = R= R
2 2
2  12. A block is placed on a rough inclined plane with 45°
Isolid sphere =  mR 2 + mR 2 
5  inclination. If minimum force required to push the
block up the incline is equal to 2 times the minimum
7  force required to slide the block down the inclined
=  mR 2  = 7R 2 (as m = 5 kg)
5  plane, then find the value of coefficient of friction
between block and incline?
1  5 
Idisc =  mR 2 + mR 2  =  mR 2  = 5R 2
4  4 

(as m = 4 kg)

Idisc 5R 2 5
= 2
=
Isolid sphere 7R 7

10. Two projectiles are thrown at angle of projection  (1) 0.25 (2) 1
and  with the horizontal. If  +  = 90° then ratio of
range of two projectiles on horizontal plane is equal (3) 2 (4) 3
to Answer (4)
(1) 1 : 1 Sol.

(2) 2 : 1

(3) 1 : 2

(4) 1 : 3

Answer (1)

u 2 sin2
Sol. R1 =
g

u 2 sin2(90 − ) u 2 sin2
R2 = =
g g

So R1 = R2

R1 1
 =
R2 1 Fup = mgsin + mgcos

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)-Evening
Fdown = mgcos – mgsin 4 4
Sol. R 3 = 1000 r 3
Fup = 2Fdown 3 3

 mgsin + mgcos = 2mgcos – 2mgsin R = 10r

Ui = 4R2T
 3sin = cos
& Uf = 1000 × 4r2T = 40R2T
 = 3tan
 = 3 as tan45 = 1,  = 45° Ui 4R 2T 1
So, = =
Uf 40R T 10
2
13. Correctly match the two lists
15.
List-I List-II

 B dA = 0
a. Gauss law P.
(Physical Quantity) (Dimensions)
(electrostatics)
P. Young’s Modulus A. [ML2T–1]
 B dl =  i
b. Amperes circuital Q.
0 enc
Q. Planck’s constant B. [ML–1T–2] law

c. Gauss law R. qenc

R. Work function C. [ML–1T–1]
(magnetism)  E  dA = 0
S. Co-efficient of D. [ML2T–2]
viscosity d. Faraday's law S. −d B
=
dt
(1) P–A, Q–B, R–C, S–D
(2) P–B, Q–A, R–D, S–C (1) a-R, b-Q, c-S, d-P (2) a-R, b-Q, c-P, d-S
(3) P–D, Q–A, R–C, S–B (3) a-R, b-S, c-Q, d-P (4) a-R, b-S, c-P, d-Q
(4) P–D, Q–A, R–B, S–C Answer (2)
qenclosed
 E  dA =
Answer (2) Sol. Gauss law for electrostatic =
0
F
Sol. Y = A
L
 Y = ML–1T–2 Gauss law for magnetism =  B dA = 0
L
E = hf  h = ML2T–1
Ampere circuital law =  B dl =  i
0 enclosed

hf = hf0 –    = ML2T–2 −d B
Faraday's law = induced =
dt
dv
F = A   = ML–1T–1 16. A stationary nucleus breaks into 2 daughter nucleus
dx
having velocities in ratio 3 : 2. Find the radius of
14. A big drop is divided into 1000 identical droplets. If their nuclear sizes.
the big drop had surface energy Ui and all small
1/2
U 2
droplet together had a surface energy Uf, then i (1)  
Uf 3
is equal to 1/3
2
(2)  
(1)
1 3
100 1/3
4
(2) 10 (3)  
9
1
(3) 1/2
10 9
(4)  
(4) 1000 4

Answer (3) Answer (2)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)-Evening

Sol. Applying momentum conservation SECTION - B

m1v1 = m2v2 Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
m1  v 2  2
 = = questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
m2  v1  3 NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
A1 2 truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
 =
A2 3 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
1/3
R1  A1  place designated to enter the answer.
also, = 
R2  A2 
21. In the circuit shown, the current (in A) through the
1/3 1
R1  2  4  resistor connected across A and B is
=
R2  3 
so, n
amperes.
17. Match the two lists :

List-I List-II

P. Adiabatic process A. No work done by or

on gas

Q. Isochoric process B. Some amount of

heat given is
converted into Find n
internal energy
Answer (10)
R. Isobaric process C. No heat exchange
83 −54
Sol. eeffective = V
S. Isothermal D. No change in 3+4
process internal energy
4
(1) P(A), Q(B), R(C), S(D) = V
7
(2) P(A), Q(C), R(D), S(B)
34 12
reffective = = 
(3) P(C), Q(A), R(B), S(D) 3+4 7
(4) P(B), Q(D), R(C), S(A)
4
Answer (3)  i= 7 A
12
Sol. Adiabatic  Q = 0 +4
7
Isochoric  W = 0
4 1
= A= A
Isothermal  U = 0 12 + 28 10

Isobaric  Q = U + W 22. A metal rod of length 1 m is moving perpendicular

to its length with 8 m/s velocity along positive x-axis.
(Both U and W are non-zero)
If a magnetic field B = 2T perpendicular to the plane
18. of motion. Find the emf involved between the two
ends of rod.
19.
20. Answer (16.00)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)-Evening

Sol. 0 A
1.5  2
= d
1.5 + 1

6 0 A
=
5 d

= 6 F

25. A particle of mass 1 kg is moving with a velocity

towards a stationary particle of mass 3 kg. After
VA − VB = Bvl
collision, the lighter particle returns along same
=2×8×1 path with speed 2 m/s. If the collision was elastic
then speed of 1 kg particle before collision is _____
= 16 v
m/s.
23. In the arrangement shown:
Answer (04.00)

Sol. Linear momentum is conserved.

The image shown is formed after refraction from So mv = 3mv – 2m …(1)

lens and reflection from mirror. If the length of lens
is 10 cm, find x. Coefficient of restitution is 1 so
Answer (30)
Sol. Writing equation for lens:

1 1 1 1 1 1
− =  = −
+15 −x 10 x 10 15
v + 2
 x = 30 cm e = 1=
v
24. A capacitor has a capacitance of 5 F when the
medium between the plates is air. Now, a material v = v – 2 …(2)
of dielectric constant 1.5 is filled in half the
separation between the plates and area same as on solving
plates. The new capacitance in F is ________
v = 4m/sec
Answer (06)
26.
0 A
Sol. C0 = …(i)
d 27.
1.5 0 A 0 A
 28.
d d
Cnew = 2 2 29.
1.5 0 A 0 A
+
d d 30.
2 2

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)-Evening

CHEMISTRY

SECTION – A 4. A : Carbon form two oxides CO and CO2, where CO

is neutral while CO2 is acidic.
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
R : CO2 will combine with water to give carbonic
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
acid and CO is soluble in water
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(1) [A] and [R] both are correct and [R] is correct
Choose the correct answer : explanation of [A]
1. If [H+] in concentration is increased by a factor of (2) [A] and [R] both are correct and [R] is not
1000. Then pH?
correct explanation of [A]
(1) Decreased by 3
(3) [A] is correct while [R] is false
(2) Increased by 3
(3) There is no change in pH (4) [A] is false while [R] is correct
(4) Decreased by 1 Answer (2)

Answer (1) Sol. CO2 will form carbonic acid with water and it is
Sol. If [H+] is increased by 1000 times then pH will be acidic in nature, while CO is neutral but there is no
relation of neutrality with solubility.
decreased by 3.
5. Which of the following element is the weakest
2. Arrange the following elements in increasing order
reducing agent in aqueous solution.
of metallic character
(1) Na (2) K
Si, K, Mg and Be
(3) Li (4) Rb
(1) Si < Mg < Be < K (2) Be < Mg < Si < K
Answer (1)
(3) Si < Be < Mg < K (4) K < Mg < Si < Be Sol. As per the standard reduction potential values, Na
is the weakest reducing agent.
Answer (3)
6. Match List-I with List-II
Sol. Based on the electronegativity of the given
(List-I) List-II
elements, the correct increasing order of metallic
Amine pKb (Aqueous
character is
medium)
Si < Be < Mg < K
(a) Aniline 1. 9.0
3. Which of the following has two chiral centres
(b) Ethanamine 2. 3.29
(1) 2- Bromo - 3- deutro butane
(c) N-ethylethanamine 3. 3.25
(2) 1- Bromo - 2- deutro butane
(3) 1- Bromo - 3- deutro butane (d) N, N-diethylethanamine 4. 3.0
(4) 1- Bromo - 4- deutro butane (1) a → 1, b → 2, c → 4, d → 3
Answer (1) (2) a → 1, b → 4, c → 3, d → 2
Sol. (3) a → 1, b → 2, c → 3, d → 4
Br
(4) a → 2, b → 3, c → 4, d → 1
Answer (1)
Sol. The order of basicity is:
D c>d>b>a
2 - Bromo - 3 deutro butane has two chiral centres.  pKb order is : → c < d < b < a

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)-Evening

7. Select the correct match. 10. Final oxidation number of Cr when K2Cr2O7 is used
A. Hexan-2-one and hexan-3-one – Position in acidic medium during titration.

isomers (1) +6 (2) +2

B. Pentan-3-one and pentan-2-one – Functional (3) +3 (4) +4

isomers Answer (3)

_
C. 2-pentene and 1-pentene – Metamers Sol. Cr2O72– + 14H+ + 6 e → 2Cr 3 + + 7H2O
D. Pentanoic acid and hexanoic acid – Functional
11. Match the following
isomers
(I) Neoprene (a) Synthetic Wool
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D (II) Acrolein (b) Paint

Answer (1) (III) LDP (c) Flexible Pipes

Sol. Hexan-2-one and hexan-3-one are position
(IV) Glyptal (d) Gaskets
isomers.
(1) II-(d), IV-(b), III-(a), I-(c)
8. Chloride salt of M is treated with excess of AgNO3.
(2) II-(d), IV-(b), III-(c), I-(a)
It forms curdly white precipitate ‘A’. When ‘A’ is
(3) II-(a), IV-(b), III-(c), I-(d)
treated with NH4OH, it forms a soluble salt ‘B’. The
(4) II-(b), IV-(c), III-(d), I-(a)
A and B respectively is
Answer (3)
(1) AgCl, [Ag(NH3)2]+ (2) AgBr, [Ag(OH)2]–
Sol. Neoprene is a synthetic rubber. It is used for
(3) AgCl, [Ag(OH)4]2– (4) AgBr, [Ag(OH)4]2– manufacturing of gaskets.
Answer (1) Acrolein is used for making synthetic wool. LDP is
Sol. AgCl forms white ppt. which is soluble in NH4OH. used for making flexible pipes. Glyptal is used for
The correct answer of this question is (1). making paints.

9. Consider the following reaction 12. Assertion : BHA is added to butter to increase
shelf life.
Reason : BHA reacts with oxygen more than butter.
(1) Assertion is correct Reason is correct
(2) Assertion is correct Reason is incorrect

The correct product ‘P’ is (3) Assertion is incorrect Reason is correct

(4) Assertion is incorrect Reason is incorrect
Answer (1)
(1) (2) Sol. Butylated hydroxy anisole (BHA) is an antioxidant.
It is added to butter to increase its shelf life from
months to years. BHA reacts with O2 present in air
in preference to butter. So, both the assertion and
(3) (4) reason are correct.
13. A hydrocarbon is having molar mass 84 g mol–1 and
85.8% C by mass. Calculate the number of H atoms
Answer (1) in the molecule?
(1) 8 (2) 10
(3) 12 (4) 14
Sol.
Answer (3)
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)- Evening

85.8
Sol. C 85.8% = 7 =1 Sol.
12
14.2
H 14.2 = 14 = 2
1
Empirical formula = CH2
molecular formula = n × empirical formula 16. Find out mass ratio of ethylene glycol (62 g)
required to make 500 ml, 0.25 m and 250 M, 0.25
molar mass 84
n= = =6 M solution.
empirical mass 14
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
 molecular formula = C6H12 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
14. Which of the following options contains the correct Answer (3)
match.
Sol. Millimoles of ethylene glycol in 1st case
List-I List-II = 500 × 0.25
(A) Adiabatic (P) T = 0 Millimoles of ethylene glycol in second case
= 250 × 0.25
(B) Isothermal (Q) Heat exchange
50 10
is zero  Molar ratio = =
25 5
(C) Isochoric (R) P = 0
2
Mass ratio =
(D) Isobaric (S) Work done is 1
zero 17. A : Alkali metals show characteristic colour in
reducing flame.
(1) A → Q; B → P; C → S; D → R
R : They can be identified by flame test
(2) A → P; B → Q; C → R; D → S
(1) Assertion is true and reason is false
(3) A → S; B → R; C → Q; D → P
(2) Assertion is false and reason is true
(4) A → P; B → R; C → S; D → Q
(3) Both assertion and reason are true reason is
Answer (1) the correct explanation of assertion
Sol. Adiabatic → Heat exchange is zero (4) Both assertion and reason are true. But reason
Isothermal → T = 0 is not the correct explanation of assertion
Answer (2)
Isobaric → P = 0
Sol. Alkali metals show characteristic colour in oxidising
Isochoric → Work done is zero
flame.
15. Consider the following reaction: 18. Which of the following option contains the correct
match?

List-I List-II
(Complex) (, absorbed)
The product ‘P’ is
(A) [Co(CN)6]3– (P) 535 nm

(B) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (Q) 375 nm

(1) (2)
(C) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ (S) 600 nm

(1) A → S, B→ P, C→ Q
(2) A → P, B → Q, C → S
(3) (4) (3) A → Q, B → P, C → S
(4) A → S, B → Q, C → P
Answer (1)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)-Evening

Answer (3) 23. For a reaction A ⎯⎯→ B

Sol. The CFSE value order of the given complexes are: k = 2 × 10–3 s–1
[Co(CN)6]3– > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ Consider the following statements for the above
reaction.
 , absorbed will be in the reverse order.
SI : The reaction is complete in 1000 sec.
19.
SII : Half life of the reaction is 500 sec.
20. SIII : Units of rate constant is same as that of rate
SECTION - B SIV : Degree of dissociation is (1 – e – kt)
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section SV : It is a zero order reaction.
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five How many statements are incorrect?
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a Answer (4)
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
Sol. Except (4), all statements are incorrect
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
As [B] = a(1 – e–kt)
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the 
,  =
B = 1 − e–kt 

mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the  a 
place designated to enter the answer. 24. Consider a mixture of CH4 and C2H4 having volume
16.8 L at 273 k and 1 atm.
21. How many of the following orbitals is/are
It undergoes combustion to form CO2 with total
considered as axial orbital(s).
volume 28 L at the same temperature and pressure.
px , py , pz , d xy , d yz , d zx , d , d z2 If the enthalpy of combustion of CH4 is –900 kJ/mol
x2 − y2
and enthalpy of combustion of C2H4 is –1400 kJ/mol
Answer (5) then find the magnitude of heat released on
Sol. px , py , pz , d and d z2 orbitals are called axial combustion of given mixture in kJ
x2 − y2
Answer (925)
orbitals.
22. Consider the following cell : Sol. CH4 + 2O2 ⎯⎯→ CO2 + 2H2O
x x
Pt | H2 (1 bar) | H+ (1 M) || M3+ | M+
C2H4 + 3O2 ⎯⎯→ 2CO2 + 2H2O
[M3 + ] 16.8 − x 2(16.8 − x)
If the value of is 10x, then find the value of
[M+ ] x + 2(16.8 – x) = 28
o
‘x’. [Given : EM 3+
/M+
= 2 V and Ecell = 1.1 V] x = 5.6 L
1 1
Answer (30)  Heat released = × 900 + × 1400
4 2
0.06 [M3 + ] = 225 + 700
Sol. 1.1 = 2 − log
2 [M+ ]
= 925 kJ
[M3+ ] 25.
0.9 = 0.03 log +
[M ] 26.
27.
[M3 + ]
 = 10 30 28.
[M+ ] 29.
 x = 30 30.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)-Evening

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - A Sol. ( z + 2i )( z − 2i ) = 4 ( z − i )( z + i )
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
 zz + 2iz − 2iz + 4 = 4zz − 4iz + 4iz + 4
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices  3zz − 6iz + 6iz = 0
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
 zz − 2iz + 2iz = 0

Choose the correct answer :  Centre = 2i i.e., (0, 2)

6 dy
+   y =   e −t , then lim y ( t ) ,
1. The value of  51−k C3 is 4. If
dt t →
k =0
52 46 52 where  > 0,  > 0,  > 0,   , is equal to
(1) C4 − C4 (2) C4 − 45C4
(1) 0 (2) 1
51
(3) C4 − 45C4 (4) 51
C4 − 46C4
(3) Does not exist (4) 
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
51 50 49 45 45 45
Sol. C3 + C3 + C3 .......... C3 + C4 − C4 dy
46 Sol. + y = e −t
C4 dt
51
C3 + 50C3 + 49C3 + 48C3 + 47C3 + 46C3 + 46C4 − 45C4 Integrating factor (I.F.) = et
47
C4 Solution of D.E.

yet =   e(
− )t
dt


 e(
− )t
yet =
52
 C4 − 45C4  +C
 −
2. If f ( x ) = 2 x n +  and f ( 4 ) = 133, f ( 5 ) = 255, then

sum of positive integral divisors of f ( 3 ) − f ( 2 ) is  y (t ) =   −t + C  e −t
 −
(1) 60 (2) 22
lim y ( t ) = 0
(3) 40 (4) 6 t →

Answer (1) 5. If ( p → q )  ( p  q ) is tautology, then operator , 

Sol. 2  4n +  = 133 …(i) denotes
2  5n +  = 255 …(ii)  → OR  → AND
(1) (2)
(
2 5n − 4n = 122 )  → AND  → OR
 → AND  → OR
n=3 (3) (4)
 → AND  → OR
f ( x ) = 2x 3 + 

( )
Answer (4)
f ( 3 ) − f ( 2 ) = 2 33 − 23
Sol. ( p → q )  ( p  q )  T
= 38
Only if  is OR and  is OR
Divisors = 1, 2, 19, 38
z + 2i 6. Number of numbers between 5000 and 10000 by
3. If = 2 is a circle, then centre of the circle is using the digits 1,3,5,7,9 without repetition is equal
z−i
to
(1) (0, 0) (2) (0, 2)
(1) 120 (2) 72
(3) (2, 0) (4) (–2, 0)
(3) 12 (4) 6
Answer (2)
Answer (2)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. The left most digit can be chosen in 3 ways i.e., 5, 9. Consider the function
7, 9.  
 |cos x| 
Now, the digits can be chosen from remaining digits (1+ | cos x |) x
2
for remaining places in 4 ways, 3 ways, 2 ways and 
 
1 way. f (x) =   x=
 2
 3 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 72  cot 6 x
 
e cot 4 x x
7. If f ( x ) = log m ( )
2(sin x − cos x ) + m − 2 , the 

2

range of f(x) is [0, 2], then the value of m is 2 2

2 2
(1)  = ,  = e 3 (2)  = e ,
3 =
(1) 3 (2) 4 3 3
3 3
(3) 5 (4) None 3 3
(3)  = , = e 2 (4)  = e 2 ,  =
Answer (2) 2 2
Answer (1)
Sol. We know that sin x − cos x   − 2, 2 

lim cos x · = e
− |cos x |
log m ( ( sin x − cos x ) + m − 2 )

 x→
Sol. lim f ( x ) = e 2
−

x→
 log ( m − 4) , log m 2
 m m 
 = e
 log ( m − 4) = 0 and log m=2
m m
 cot 6 x 
 lim + cot 4 x 
 m=5  x→ 



lim f ( x ) = e 2 
8. If A be a symmetric matrix and B and C are skew +
x→
symmetric matrices of same order, then 2
 cot 6h 
(1) A13 · B26 – B26 · A13 is symmetric  lim 
 + cot 4h 
(2) AC – A is symmetric = e  h →0
2
(3) A13B26 – B26 · A13 is skew symmetric = e3
(4) AC – A is skew symmetric 2
2
Answer (3)  = e3 ,  =
3
Sol. A is symmetric  A13 is symmetric 10. Two dice are rolled. If the probability of the sum of
the number on dice is n, where n – 2, 3n , n + 2
B is skew symmetric  B26 is symmetric
x
Now, are in geometric progression, is , then the value
48
Let A13 = P and B26 is Q of x is
(1) 4 (2) 12
A13 · B26 – B26 · A13
(3) 7 (4) 3
 PQ – QP Answer (1)

( )
Now, (PQ – QP)T = (PQ)T – (QP)T 2
Sol. As given, 3n = (n – 2)(n + 2)
= QT · PT – PT · QT
 3n = n2 – 4
= QP – PQ  n=4 n = –1 (not possible)
= – (PQ – QP) Favourable outcomes (1, 2) (2, 1), (2, 2)
Total outcomes = 6 × 6 = 36
(
= − A13 . B 26 − B 26 . A13 ) Given
3
=
x
36 48
 A13 . B 26 − B 26 . A13 is skew-symmetric matrix.  x=4
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)-Evening
11. Let a = −iˆ − ˆj + kˆ such that a b =1 and  3 1 
 
10 10   1 −i 
a  b = iˆ − jˆ then a − 6b equals 13. If A =  and B =  
 −1 3  0 1 
 
(
(1) 3 iˆ + jˆ + kˆ )  10 10 

If M = ATBA, then the matrix AM2023 AT is

(2) iˆ + jˆ + kˆ
 1 −2023i 
(
(3) 2 iˆ + jˆ + kˆ ) (1) 
0 1 

(
(4) 4 iˆ + ˆj + kˆ )  1 2023i 
(2) 
0 1 
Answer (1)

( )
Sol. a  b = iˆ − jˆ  1 −2023i 
(3) 
0 −1 
( ) (
 a  a  b = −iˆ − jˆ + kˆ  iˆ − jˆ ) ( ) 1 0
(4)  
 (a  b ) a − (a  a ) b = iˆ + jˆ + 2kˆ  0 1

Answer (1)
 3b = −2iˆ − 2 jˆ − kˆ
Sol. AAT = I
 a − 6b = 3iˆ + 3 ˆj + 3kˆ
M = AT BA
(
= 3 iˆ + jˆ + kˆ )
AM 2023 AT
2
dx
12. 16 
( )( )( ) ( )
is equal to
3 2
1 x ( x + 2)
2 = A AT BA AT BA AT BA ..... AT BA AT

11 2023 times
(1) + ln 4
12
= B 2023
11
(2) − ln 4
12  1 −i   1 −i   1 −2i 
B2 =   = 
11 0 1  0 1  0 1 
(3) − ln 4
6
 1 −2i   1 −i   1 −3i 
11 B3 =   = 
(4) + ln 4  0 1   0 1  0 1 
6
 1 −2023i 
Answer (3) B 2023 = 
0 1 
dx
Sol. I =  x 3 ( x 2 + 2)2 14. ?

1 x 1 x 1 1 1 1 15. ?
4  x2 + 2
= dx +  dx −  dx +  dx
4 ( x 2 + 2)2 4 x 4 x3
16. ?
2
ln( x + 2) ln x 1 1
= − − − 17. ?
8 4 8( x + 2) 8 x 3
2
18. ?
2
dx 11
16 = 2ln6 − 2ln3 − 4ln2 + 19. ?
3 2
1 x ( x + 2)
6
20. ?

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)-Evening
SECTION - B 23. A triangle is formed with x-axis, y-axis & line

Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 3x + 4y = 60. A point P(a, b) lies strictly inside the
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five triangle such that a is a positive integer and b is a
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a multiple of ‘a’. Find such number of points (a, b).
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, Answer (31)
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the Sol.
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
place designated to enter the answer.

21. Find the remainder when (2023)2023 is divided by

35.
Answer (7)
Sol. 2023  – 7(mod 35)
as b is multiple of a the required points will lie on
(2023)2  14(mod 35)
line y = kx (k  Z)
(2023)4  –14(mod 35)
(2023)16  –14(mod 35)  3x + 4kx = 60
(2023)2020  – 14 (mod 35)
60
and (2023)3  7(mod 35)  x=
3 + 4k
 (2023)2023  7(mod 35)
 remainder = 7 If k = 1 8 integral values

3 m  n2 
22. 1/3 | ln x | dx = ln   then value of m2 + n2 – 5
n  e
k=2 5 integral values

k=3 3 integral values

Answer (20)
1 3
Sol. 1/3 − ln xdx + 1 ln xdx k=4 3 integral values

k=5 2 integral values

= − ( x ln x − x ) + ( x ln x − x )
1 3
1/3 1

k=6 2 integral values

2 1 1
= + ln + 3ln 3 − 2
3 3 3
k=7 1 integral values
4
= (ln9 − ln e ) k=8 1 integral values
3

4  32 
= ln  
3  e 
k = 14 1 integral values
m = 4, n = 3
 Total 31 points
m2 + n2 – 5 = 20

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (25-01-2023)-Evening
1 1 1 1 25. In a city, 25% of the population is smoker and a
24. If a, b, are in G.P. and , , are in A.P. then smoker has 27 times more than chance of being
18 10 a b
diagnosed with lung cancer. A person is selected at
find value of a + 180b random and found to be diagnosed with lung
K
cancer. If the probability of him being smoker is ,
Answer (20.00) 40
find the value of K.
a 2 1 1 Answer (36.00)
Sol. b2 = , = +
18 a 10 b 1
Sol. Probability of a person being smoker =
4
20b
 a=
10 + b Probability of a person being non smoker =
3
4
20b
OR 18b2 = 1
10 + b    27P
Person is smoker 4
P =
 Person diagnosed with cancer  1 3
 27P + P
b = 0 (rejcted) 4 4

10 (P is probability that a non-smoker is diagnosed

OR 9b =
10 + b with cancer)

27 9 36
90b + 9b2 = 10 = = =
30 10 40
 9b2 + 90b – 10 = 0 26.
27.
a + 180b = 18b2 + 180b 28.
29.
= 20
30.

❑ ❑ ❑

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