Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JUNE, 2022

(Held On Friday 24th June, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 4. Two identical charged particles each having a mass
1. Identify the pair of physical quantities that have 10 g and charge 2.0 × 10–7 C area placed on a
same dimensions : horizontal table with a separation of L between
then such that they stay in limited equilibrium.
(A) velocity gradient and decay constant
If the coefficient of friction between each
(B) wien's constant and Stefan constant
particle and the table is 0.25, find the value of L.
(C) angular frequency and angular momentum [Use g = 10 ms–2]
(D) wave number and Avogadro number (A) 12 cm (B) 10 cm
Official Ans. by NTA (A) (C) 8 cm (D) 5 cm
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

dV 1
Sol. Velocity gradient = = kq 2 k
dx S Sol. = mmg Þ L = q
L2
mmg
1
l= 5. A Carnot engine take 5000 kcal of heat from a
S
reservoir at 727°C and gives heat to a sink at
2. The distance between Sun and Earth is R. The
127°C. The work done by the engine is :
duration of year if the distance between Sun and
(A) 3 × 106 J (B) Zero
Earth becomes 3R will be : 6
(C) 12.6 × 10 J (D) 8.4 × 106 J
(A) 3 years (B) 3 years Official Ans. by NTA (C)

(C) 9 years (D) 3 3 years

WD
Official Ans. by NTA (D) Sol. L=
QH
æ T ö
3/ 2 Þ WD = Q H ç1 - L ÷
æ 3R ö è TH ø
Sol. T¢ = T ç ÷ = 3 3T
è R ø
æ 400 ö
= 5 ´ 10 3 ç 1 - ÷
3. A stone of mass m, tied to a string is being whirled è 1000 ø
in a vertical circle with a uniform speed. The = 3000 kcal
tension in the string is : 6. Two massless springs with spring constants 2 k
(A) the same throughout the motion and 2 k, carry 50 g and 100 g masses at their free
(B) minimum at the highest position of the circular ends. These two masses oscillate vertically such
that their maximum velocities are equal. Then, the
path
ratio of their respective amplitudes will be :
(C) minimum at the lowest position of the circular
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 3 : 2
path (C) 3 : 1 (D) 2 : 3
(D) minimum when the rope is in the horizontal Official Ans. by NTA (B)
position
Official Ans. by NTA (B) Sol. Vmax = wA

A1 w2 9 1 3
Þ = = ´ =
Sol. Theory A 2 w1 2 2 2

1
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session
7. What will be the most suitable combination of 10. Given below are two statements :
three resistors A = 2W, B = 4W, C = 6 W so that Statement-I : The reactance of an ac circuit is
zero. It is possible that the circuit contains a
æ 22 ö
ç ÷ W is equivalent resistance of combination? capacitor and an inductor.
è 3 ø
Statement-II : In ac circuit, the average poser
(A) Parallel combination of A and C connected in
delivered by the source never becomes zero.
series with B.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(B) Parallel combination of A and B connected in
correct answer from the options given below :
series with C.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(C) Series combination of A and C connected in
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
parallel with B.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II in false.
(D) Series combination of B and C connected in
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
parallel with A.
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol. if R = 0, P = 0
4 22
Sol. Þ + 6 = 11. Potential energy as a function of r is given by
3 3
A B
8. The soft-iron is a suitable material for making an U= - , where r is the interatomic distance,
r 10 r 5
electromagnet. This is because soft-iron has :
A and B are positive constants. The equilibrium
(A) low coercively and high retentively
distance between the two atoms will be :
(B) low coercively and low permeability 1 1

(C) high permeability and low retentively æ A ö5 æ B ö5

(A) ç ÷ (B) ç ÷
è Bø èAø
(D) high permeability and high retentively
1 1
Official Ans. by NTA (C) æ 2A ö 5 æ B ö5
(C) ç ÷ (D) ç ÷
è B ø è 2A ø
Sol. Theory Official Ans. by NTA (C)

9. A proton, a deuteron and an a-particle with same

-10A 5B
kinetic energy enter into a uniform magnetic field Sol. + 6 =0
r11 r
at right angle to magnetic field. The ratio of the
10A 2A
radii of their respective circular paths is : r5 = =
5B B
(A) 1: 2 : 2 (B) 1:1: 2 12. An object of mass 5 kg is thrown vertically
(C) 2 :1:1 (D) 1: 2 :1 upwards from the ground. The air resistance
produces a constant retarding force of 10 N
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
throughout the motion. The ratio of time of
ascent to the time of descent will be equal to :
2km m
Sol. R= µ [Use g = 10 ms–2]
qB q
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2: 3
m 2m 4m
: : (C) 3: 2 (D) 2 : 3
e e 2e
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
1: 2 :1

2
Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session
V 16. A long cylindrical volume contains a uniformly
12 t1 distributed charge of density r. The radius of
12 cylindrical volume is R. A charge particle (q)
Sol. revolves around the cylinder in a circular path. The
t2
t
t1 kinetic of the particle is :
8 8 t2
rqR 2 rqR 2
(A) (B)
4e0 2e 0
6t 12 = 4t 22
13. A fly wheel is accelerated uniformly from rest and qr 4e0 R 2
(C) (D)
rotates through 5 rad in the first second. The angle 4e0 R 2 qr
rotated by the fly wheel in the next second, will be : Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(A) 7.5 rad (B) 15 rad
(C) 20 rad (D) 30 rad
rpr 2 l
Official Ans. by NTA (B) Sol. E = 2 prl =
e0

1 qrR 2 mv2
Sol. 5 = a(1)2 qE = =
2 2e0 r r
1 qrR2
q = a(2) 2 mv2 =
2 2e 0
q – 5 = 15
r
14. A 100 g of iron nail is hit by a 1.5 kg hammer
striking at a velocity of 60 ms–1. What will be the
R
rise in the temperature of the nail if one fourth of
energy of the hammer goes into heating the nail? l
–1 –1
[Specific heat capacity of iron = 0.42 Jg °C ]
(A) 675°C (B) 1600°C
(C) 160.7°C (D) 6.75°C
17. An electric bulb is rated as 200 W. What will be
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
the peak magnetic field at 4 m distance produced
by the radiations coming from this bulb? Consider
1 1
Sol. ´ 1.5 ´ 60 2 ´ = 0.1 × 420 × DT
2 4 this bulb as a point source with 3.5% efficiency.
15. If the charge on a capacitor is increased by 2 C, the (A) 1.19 × 10–8 T (B) 1.71 × 10–8 T
energy stored in it increases by 44%. The original (C) 0.84 × 10–8 T (D) 3.36 × 10–8 T
charge on the capacitor is (in C) : Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40
Official Ans. by NTA (A) hP cB20
Sol. =
4 pr 2 2m0
Sol. U µ q2 m 0 hP 1
B0 =
Þ qf = 1.2 q 4p c r
qf – q = 2
1 10 -7 ´ 4 ´ 3.5
Þ 1.2 q – q = 2 Þ B0 = = 1.71 × 10–8 T
4 3 ´ 10 8

q = 10

3
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session
18. The light of two different frequencies whose SECTION-B
photons have energies 3.8 eV and 1.4 eV 1. A body is projected from the ground at an angle of
respectively, illuminate a metallic surface whose
45° with the horizontal. Its velocity after 2s is
work function is 0.6 eV successively. The ratio of
20 ms–1. The maximum height reached by the body
maximum speeds of emitted electrons for the two
during its motion is _______m. (use g = 10ms–2)
frequencies respectivly will be :
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 Official Ans. by NTA (20)

(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
Official Ans. by NTA (B) vy
Sol. 20

3.8 - 0.6 3.2

Sol. = =2 ux
1.4 - 0.6 0.8
19. Two light beams of intensities in the ratio of 9 : 4 vx= vy
are allowed to interfere. The .ratio of the intensity
of maxima and minima will be : ux

(A) 2 : 3 (B) 16 : 81
vy = vx –20
(C) 25 : 169 (D) 25 : 1
( u x - 20 )
2
+ u 2x = 20
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

Þ 2u 2x - 40u x = 0

I1 9 3 \ ux = 20
Sol. = =
I2 4 2
2. An antenna is placed in a dielectric medium of
2
æ I1 + I 2 ö
ç ÷ = 52 = 25 dielectric constant 6.25. If the maximum size of
ç I - I ÷
è 1 2 ø
that antenna is 5.0 mm. it can radiate a signal of
20. In Bohr's atomic model of hydrogen, let K. P and E
minimum frequency of ______GHz.
are the kinetic energy, potential energy and total
(Given mr = 1 for dielectric medium)
energy of the electron respectively. Choose the
correct option when the electron undergoes Official Ans. by NTA (6)
transitions to a higher level :
(A) All K. P and E increase.
C 3 ´ 108 3 ´ 108
Sol. C' = = =
(B) K decreases. P and E increase. mr er 6.25 2.5
(C) P decreases. K and E increase.
fl = 1.25 × 108 s
(D) K increases. P and E decrease.
Official Ans. by NTA (B) Þ f ( 5 ´ 10 -3 ´ 4 ) = 1.25 ´ 10 8

f = 6.25 GHz
Sol. Based on theory So f » 6

4
Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session
3. A potentiometer wire of length 10 m and resistance 5. In the given circuit- the value of current IL will be

20 W is connected in series with a 25 V battery and ______ mA.

an external resistance 30 W . A cell of emf E in (When RL = lkW)

secondary circuit is balanced by 250 cm long 800W

potentiometer wire. The value of E (in volt) is IL

x 5V RL = 1kW
10V
. The value of x is _______.
10

Official Ans. by NTA (25) Official Ans. by NTA (5)

25W 30W 5
Sol. IL = = 5mA
Sol. 1000
I
2.5m 20W 7.5m 6. A sample contains 10–2 kg each of two substances
A and B with half lives 4 s and 8 s respectively.
E The ratio of then atomic weights is 1 : 2. The ratio
x
25 1 of the amounts of A and B after 16 s is . the
I= = A 100
50 2
value of x is _______.
\ DV = 10 V
Official Ans. by NTA (25)
10 m ® 10V

2.5m ® 2.5V t
Sol. N t = N 0 ( 0.5 ) t1/2
4. Two travelling waves of equal amplitudes and
m t
equal frequencies move in opposite directions = ´ N A ( 0.5) t1/2
M
along a string. They interfere to produce a
N1 M 2 é 1 1 ù
= ( 0.5)t êë TA - TB úû
stationary wave whose equation is given by N 2 M1

2 pt 1
2 1 x
= 2 ( 0.5 )
16´
y = (10 cos p x sin ) cm 8 = = =
T 4 2 100

4 7. A ray of ligh is incident at an angle of incidence

The amplitude of the particle at x = cm will be
3 60° on the glass slab of refractive index 3 . After
_______ cm. refraction, the light ray emerges out from other
Official Ans. by NTA (5) parallel faces and lateral shift between incident ray

and emergent ray is 4 3 cm. The thickness of the

glass slab is _______ cm.
æ 4p ö
Sol. 10 cos ç ÷
è 3 ø Official Ans. by NTA (12)

5
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session
é cos i ù 10. In an experment ot verify Newton's law of cooling,
Sol. l = t sin i ê1 -
2 ú
ë m - sin i û
2
a graph is plotted between, the temperature

é cos60° ù difference (DT) of the water and surroundings and

Þ 4 3 = t sin 60° ê1 -
ê 3ú
3- ú time as shown in figure. The initial temperature of
ëê 4 ûú
water is taken as 80°C. The value of t2 as
8. A circular coil of 1000 turns each with area 1m2 is
mentioned in the graph will be _______.
rotated about its vertical diameter at the rate of one

revolution per second in a uniform horizontal DT(°C)

magnetic field of 0.07T. The maximum voltage 60

40
generation will be _______V.
20
Official Ans. by NTA (440)

0 6 t2 Time (minute)

Sol. Îmax = BANw Official Ans. by NTA (16)

= 0.07 × 1 × 103 × 2p

= 140p » 440 -
Bt
Sol. T – T0 (Ti – T0) e ms

Q
9. A monoatomic gas performs a work of where
4 6l = ln 1.5

Q is the heat supplied to it. The molar heat 40 = 60e -l(6) Þ 6l = ln 1.5
capaticy of the gas will be ________R during this
20 = 60e -lt 2 Þ t2 l = ln3
transformation.
t2 ln 3
Where R is the gas constant. =
6 ln1.5

Official Ans. by NTA (2) \ t2 = 16.25 min

So » 16
Q
Sol. DQ = DE + WD Þ Q = DE +
4

3R 3Q
Þn DT = DE =
2 4

Q
\ nDT =
2R

\ C = 2R

6
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JUNE, 2022
(Held On Friday 24th June, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 3. The correct order of bound orders of C2– 2–
2 , N 2 and

1. 120 of an organic compound that contains only O2–

2 is, respectively.

carbon and hydrogen gives 330g of CO2 and 270g

2  N2  O2
(A) C2– 2  N 2  C2
2– 2–
(B) O2– 2– 2–

of water on complete combustion. The percentage

2  O2  N 2
(C) C2– 2  C2  O2
2– 2–
of carbon and hydrogen, respectively are. (D) N2– 2– 2–

(A) 25 and 75 (B) 40 and 60 Official Ans. by NTA (B)

(C) 60 and 40 (D) 75 and 25
Official Ans. by NTA (D) Sol. Species Bond order
C2–
2 3
Sol. Given mass of organic compound = 120
N2–
2 2
mass of CO2(g) = 330 g
O2– 1
mass of H2O () = 270 g 2

mass of carbon = n CO2  12 4. At 25°C and 1 atm pressure, the enthalpies of

combustion are as given below:
330
=  12  90g
44 Substance H2 C(graphite) C2H6(g)
90 C H –286.0 –394.0 –1560.0
% of carbon =  100  75%
120
kJmol –1
mass of hydrogen = n H2 O  2
The enthalpy of formation of ethane is
270 (A) +54.0 kJ mol–1 (B) –68.0 kJ mol–1
=  2  30g
18 (C) –86.0 kJ mol–1 (D) +97.0 kJ mol–1
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
30
% of hydrogen =  100  25%
120
7
2. The energy of one mole of photons of radiation of Sol. C2 H 6 (g)  O2 (g)  2CO2 (g)  3H 2 O( )
2
wavelength 300 nm is
CH(C2H6) = 2fH CO2(g) + 3fH(H2O,)
(Given : h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, NA = 6.02 × 1023mol–1,
c = 3 × 108 ms–1) – fH(C2H6,g)
–1560 = 2(–394) + 3 (–286) – fH(C2H6,g)
(A) 235 kJ mol–1 (B) 325 kJ mol–1
fH(C2H6,g) = –86 kJ/mole
(C) 399 kJ mol–1 (D) 435 kJ mol–1
5. For a first order reaction, the time required for
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
completion of 90% reaction is 'x' times the half life
of the reaction. The value of 'x' is
hc
Sol. Energy of one mole of photons =  NA (Given: ln 10 = 2.303 and log 2 = 0.3010)

(A) 1.12 (B) 2.43
6.63  10 –34  3  108
  6.02  10 23 (C) 3.32 (D) 33.31
300  10 –9
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
= 399.13 × 103 Joule/mole

= 399 kJ / mole

1
Sol. Given t0.90 = t 0.90  xt1/2 Sol. Sodium hydroxide is generally prepared

First order rate constant commercially by electrolysis of sodium chloride in

ln 2 1 A0 castner Kellner cell.

K  ln
t1/2 xt1/2 A – A  90 at cathode : Na  e – 
Hg
 Na – amalgum
0 0
100
1
ln 2 ln10 Anode : Cl – 
 Cl2  e –
 2
t1/2 xt1/2
The Na–amalgam is treated with water to give
ln10 2.303
x   3.32 sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas :
ln 2 2.303  0.3010

6. Metals generally melt at very high temperature. 2Na (amalgam) + H2O  2NaOH + H2 + 2Hg
Amongst the following, the metal with the highest 9. Which one of the following compounds is used as
melting point will be
a chemical in certain type of fire extinguishers?
(A) Hg (B) Ag
(A) Baking Soda (B) Soda ash
(C) Ga (D) Cs
(C) Washing Soda (D) Caustic Soda
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

Sol. Hg, Ga, Cs are liquid near room temperature But

Ag(silver) is solid.
Sol. Sodium hydrogencarbonate (Baking soda),
7. Which of the following chemical reactions NaHCO3 is used in the fire extinguishers.
represents Hall-Heroult Process?
10. PCl5 is well known. but NCl5 is not. Because.
(A) Cr2O3 + 2Al  Al2O3 + 2Cr
(A) nitrogen is less reactive than phosphorous.
(B) 2Al2O3 + 3C  4Al + 3CO2
(B) nitrogen doesn't have d-orbitals in its valence
(C) FeO + CO  Fe + CO2
shell.
(D) 2 Au  CN 2   Zn(s)  2Au(s)  Zn  CN4  2–
–

 aq 
(C) catenation tendency is weaker in nitrogen than
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
phosphorous.

Sol. Hall Heroult process is the major industrial process (D) size of phosphorous is larger than nitrogen.

for extraction of aluminium. Official Ans. by NTA (B)

8. In the industrial production of which of the

following, molecular hydrogen is obtained as a
Sol. PCl5 forms five bonds by using the d–orbitals to
byproduct?
"expand the octet". But NCl5 does not exist
(A) NaOH (B) NaCl
because there are no d–orbitals in the valence shell
(C)Na metal (D) Na2CO3
(2nd shell). Therefore there is no way to expand the
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
octet.

2
11. Transition metal complex with highest value of Sol. Carbocation is stabilised by resonance with lone

crystal field splitting (0) will be pairs on oxygen atom and +H effect of 2a

3 3
(A) Cr  H 2 O 6  (B)  Mo  H 2 O 6  hydrogens
O
H H
3 3
(C)  Fe  H 2 O 6  (D) Os  H 2 O 6 
B>A>C

Official Ans. by NTA (D)

14. Given below are two statements.
Statement I : The presence of weaker - bonds
Sol. CFSE of octahedral complexes with water is make alkenes less stable than alkanes.
greater for 5d series metal centre ion as compared Statement II : The strength of the double bond is
to 3d and 4d series metal centre. greater than that of carbon-carbon single bond.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
12. Some gases are responsible for heating of correct answer from the options given below.
atmosphere (green house effect). Identify from the (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
following the gaseous species which does not (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are
cause it. incorrect.
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(A) CH4 (B) O3
incorrect.
(C) H2O (D)N2
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Official Ans. by NTA (D) correct.
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

Sol. CH4, O3 and H2O causes global warming in

Tropospheric level.
15. Which of the following reagents/ reactions will
N2 does not cause global warming. convert 'A' to 'B'?
13. Arrange the following carbocations in decreasing CH2 CHO
order of stability.

 O O H3C H3C
 (A) (B)
 (A) PCC oxidation
A B C
(B) Ozonolysis
(A) A > C > B (B) A > B > C (C) BH3,H2O2 / –OH followed by PCC oxidation
(C) C > B > A (D) C > A > B (D)HBr, hydrolysis followed by oxidation by
Official Ans. by NTA (B) K2Cr2O7 .
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

3
Sol. BH3, H2O2/–OH followed by PCC oxidation. Sol.

CH2 CH2–OH
CH3–CH2–CH2–OH CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2NH2
BH3,H2O2/OH
– Propanol n-Butanamine
Hydroboration SOCl2
oxidation H2/Ni, Hg/C2H5OH
Antimarkonikov PCC CH3–CH2–CH2–Cl KCN CH3–CH2–CH2–CN
addtion oxidation
CHO
18. Which of the following is not an example of a
condensation polymer?
16. Hex-4-ene-2-ol on treatment with PCC gives 'A'. (A) Nylon 6,6 (B) Decron
'A' on reaction with sodium hypoiodite gives 'B',
(C) Buna-N (D) Silicone
which on further heating with soda lime gives 'C'.
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
The compound 'C' is

(A) 2- pentene (B) proponaldehyde

Sol. Buna-N is an addition copolymer of 1,3-butadiene
(C) 2-butene (D) 4-methylpent-2-ene
and acrylonitrile.
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
CH2=CH–CH=CH2 + CH2=CH
CN
CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH–CH3 [–CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH2–CH–]n
Sol. Buna-N
CN
OH
PCC

CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH–CH3 (A) 19. The structure shown below is of which

well-known drug molecule?
NaOI O
H
CH3–CH=CH–CH2–COOH + CHI3 CN
(B) N
N
NaOH+CaO –CO2
N S
CH3–CH=CH–CH3 N NHCH3
(C) H
But-2-ene (A) Ranitidine (B) Seldane
17. The conversion of propan-1-ol to n-butylamine (C) Cimetidine (D) Codeine
involves the sequential addition of reagents. The Official Ans. by NTA (C)
correct sequential order of reagents is.

(A)(i) SOCl2 (ii) KCN (iii) H2/Ni,Na(Hg)/C2H5OH 20. In the flame test of a mixture of salts, a green
flame with blue centre was observed. Which one of
(B) (i) HCl (ii) H2/Ni, Na(Hg)/C2H5OH
the following cations may be present?
(C) (i) SOCl2 (ii) KCN (iii) CH3NH2
(A) Cu2+ (B) Sr2+
(D) (i) HCl (ii) CH3NH2 (C) Ba2+ (D) Ca2+
Official Ans. by NTA (A) Official Ans. by NTA (A)

4
 P  K H X CO2
Sol. Ion Colour of the flame
n CO2
(A) Cu +2
green flame with blue centre 0.835 = 1.67 × 103 ×
n CO2  n H2 O
2+
(B) Sr Crimson Red
w CO2 / 44
2+ 0.835 = 1.67 × 103 ×
(C) Ba Apple green 1000
SECTION-B 18

1. At 300 K, a sample of 3.0 g of gas A occupies the w CO2 = 1.2222g = 1222.2 × 10–3g
same volume as 0.2 g of hydrogen at 200 K at the
3. PCl5 dissociates as
same pressure. The molar mass of gas A is____ g
mol–1 (nearest integer) Assume that the behaviour PCl 5  g  PCl3  g   Cl 2  g 
of gases as ideal. (Given: The molar mass of 5 moles of PCl5 are placed in a 200 litre vessel
hydrogen (H2) gas is 2.0 g mol–1) which contains 2 moles of N2 and is maintained at
Official Ans. by NTA (45) 600 K. The equilibrium pressure is 2.46 atm. The
equilibrium constant Kp for the dissociation of PCl5
is_____ × 10–3. (nearest integer)
Sol. Given : Ideal gas A and H2 gas at same pressure
and volume. (Given: R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1 : Assume ideal

From ideal gas equation pv = nRT gas behaviour)

n1T1 = n2T2 Official Ans. by NTA (1107)

3 0.2
 300   200
GMMof A 2
Sol. Given : 2 mole of N2 gas was present as inert gas.
GMM of A = 45 g/mole Equilibrium pressure = 2.46 atm
2. A company dissolves 'X' amount of CO2 at 298 K PCl 5 (g) PCl3  g   C 2 (g)
in 1 litre of water to prepare soda water t=0 5 0 0
X =____ × 10–3g. (nearest integer) t = Eqm 5–x x x
(Given: partial pressure of CO2 at 298 K= 0.835 from ideal gas equation
PV = nRT
bar.
2.46 × 200 = (5 – x + x + x + 2) × 0.082 × 600
Henry's law constant for CO2 at 298 K = 1.67 kbar. x=3
Atomic mass of H,C and O is 1, 12 and 6 g mol–1, n PCl3  n Cl2 P 
KP    total 
respectively) n PCl5  n total 
Official Ans. by NTA (1221 OR 1222)
3  3 2.46
  1.107  1107  10 –3
2 10
Sol. From Henry law 4. The resistance of conductivity cell containing
P  K H X CO2 0.01 M KCl solution at 298 K is 1750 . If the

w CO2 / 44 conductively of 0.01 M KCl solution at 298 K is

0.835 = 1.67 × 103 × 1.67  10 3  0.152 × 10–3 S cm–1, then the cell constant of the
w CO2 1000

44 18 conductivity cell is_______× 10–3 cm–1.
w CO2  1.2228g  1222.8  10 –3 g Official Ans. by NT

Or
5
 
4  3H 
 2MnO4–  MnO2  2H2 O
1 3MnO2–
Sol. K  cell cons tan t
R
O.S. of Mn in MnO4– = +7
1
0.152 × 10–3 = cell constant O.S. of Mn in MnO2 = +4
1750
cell constant = 266 × 10–3 difference = 3

5. When 200 mL of 0.2 M acetic acid is shaken with 8. 0.2 g of an organic compound was subjected to

0.6 g of wood charcoal, the final concentration of estimation of nitrogen by Dumas method in which

acetic after adsorption is 0.1 M. The mass of acetic volume of N2 evolved (at STP) was found to be

acid adsorbed per garm of carbon is_____ g. 22.400 mL. The percentage of nitrogen in the

Official Ans. by NTA (2) compound is____.[nearest integer]

(Given: Molar mass of N2 is 28 mol–1. Molar

Sol. weight of wood charcoal = 0.6 g volume of N2 at STP : 22.4 L)

M1V1 – M 2 V2 Official Ans. by NTA (14)

Mass of acetic acid adsorbed =  60
1000
Sol. weight of organic compound = 0.2g
0.2  200 – 0.1  200
=  60 22.4  10 –3
1000 mass of N2(g) evolved =  28
22.4
= 1.2 g
= 28 × 10–3g
Mass of acetic acid adsorbed per gram of 28  10 –3
% of N   100  14
1.2 0.2
carbon = 2
0.6 Cl
6. (a) Baryte, (b) Galena, (c) Zinc blende and
9.
(d) Copper pyrites. How many of these minerals NaOH P
are sulphide based? H2O (Major Product)
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Consider the above reaction. The number of 
electrons present in the product 'P' is____.
Sol.
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(1) Baryte : BaSO4

(2) Galena : PbS

Sol. Number of  electron = 2
(3) Zinc blende : ZnS sulphide (S2–) Cl OH
ores NaOH
(4) Copper pyrite : CuFeS2
H2O

7. Manganese (VI) has ability to disproportionate in

acidic solution. The difference in oxidation states 10. In alanylglycylleucylalanylvaline, the number of
peptide linkages is______.
of two ions it forms in acidic solution is______ Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. There are Five amino acids and four peptide
linkages.
Sol. MnO2–
4 disproportionates in a neutral or acidic

solution to give MnO4– and Mn+4

6
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JUNE, 2022

(Held On Friday 24thJune, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 3. Let the system of linear equations
1. 2 3
Let x*y = x + y and (x*1)*1 = x*(1*1). x + y + az = 2
3x + y + z = 4
æ x 4 + x2 - 2 ö
Then a value of 2sin -1 ç 4 x + 2z = 1
ç x + x 2 + 2 ÷÷ is
è ø have a unique solution (x*, y*, z*). If (a, x*), (y*, a)
and (x*, –y*) are collinear points, then the sum of
p p
(A) (B) absolute values of all possible values of a is :
4 3
(A) 4 (B) 3
p p (C) 2 (D) 1
(C) (D)
2 6 Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
1 1 a
Sol. Q (x * 1) * 1 = x * (1 * 1) Sol. D = 3 1 1 = –(a + 3)
1 0 2
(x2 + 1) * 1 = x * (2)
(x2 + 1)2 + 1 = x2 + 8 2 1 a
x4 + x2 – 6 = 0 Þ (x2 + 3) (x2 – 2) = 0 D1 = 4 1 1 = –(3 + a)

x2 = 2 1 0 2

æ x 4 + x2 - 2 ö 1 2 a
-1 æ 1 ö
Þ 2sin -1 çç 4 2 ÷÷ = 2sin ç ÷ D2 = 3 4 1 = –(a + 3)
èx +x +2ø è2ø
1 1 2
p
= 1 1 2
3
D3 = 3 1 4 = 0
2. The sum of all the real roots of the equation
1 0 1
(e2x – 4) (6e2x – 5ex + 1) = 0 is
(A) loge3 (B) –loge3 a ¹ –3, x = 1, y = 1, z = 0,
Now points (a, 1), (1, a) & (1, –1) are collinear
(C) loge6 (D) –loge6
a 1 1
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
1 a 1 =0
1 –1 1
Sol. (e2x – 4) (6e2x – 3ex – 2ex + 1) = 0
Þ a(a + 1) – 1(1 – 1) + 1(–1 – a) = 0
(e2x – 4) (3ex – 1) (2ex – 1) = 0
a2 + a – 1 – a = 0
1 1 a = ±1
e2x = 4 or ex = or ex =
3 2 4. Let x, y > 0. If x3y2 = 215, then the least value of
1 1 1 3x + 2y is
Þ sum of real roots = ln4 + ln + ln
2 3 2 (A) 30 (B) 32
(C) 36 (D) 40
= –ln3
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

1
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session
Sol. Using AM ³ GM 6. The value of the integral
1 p2
dx
x+x+x+y+y
5
³ x 3 .y 2 ( ) 5
-p 2
ò
(1 + e )(sin x 6
x + cos6 x )
is equal to

1
3x + 2y
5
³ 215( ) 5 (A) 2p (B) 0

p
(3x + 2y)min = 40 (C) p (D)
2
ì sin ( x - [ x ])
, x Î ( -2, -1)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
ï
ï x - [x ]
ï
5. {
Let ƒ ( x ) = ímax 2x,3 ëé x ûù } , x <1
Sol. 0
dx
p2
dx
ï I= ò + ò
ï 1 , otherwise -p 2 ( )(
1 + e x sin 6 x + cos6 x ) 0 ( )(
1 + e x sin 6 x + cos6 x )
ï
î Put x = –t
0 p2
- dt dx
where [t] denotes greatest integer £ t. If m is the = ò + ò
number of points where ƒ is not continuous and n
p2 (1 + e )(sin
-t 6
t + cos t 6
) 0 (1 + e )(sin
x 6
x + cos6 x )
is the number of points where ƒ is not p /2
( e + 1) dx
x
= ò
differentiable, then the ordered pair (m, n) is :
0 (1 + e x
)(sin x + cos x )
6 6

(A) (3, 3) (B) (2, 4) p /2

dx
= ò
(C) (2, 3) (D) (3, 4) 0 (sin 2
)(
x + cos x sin x - sin 2 x cos 2 x + cos 4 x
2 4
)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
= ò
(1 + tan x ) sec x dx
p /2 2 2

( tan x - tan x + 1)
0
4 2

ì sin ( x + 2 )
ï , x Î ( -2, -1) Put tanx = t
ïï x + 2
Sol. ƒ ( x ) = ímax {2x, 0} , x Î ( -1,1) =ò
¥
(1 + t ) dt 2

ï
ï
1 , otherwise 0 (t 4
- t2 +1 )
ïî
æ 1ö æ 1ö
¥ ç1 + 2
÷ dt ¥ ç 1 + 2 ÷ dt
sinh
ƒ(–2+) = lim ƒ ( -2 + h ) = lim =1 = ò è t ø = ò è t 2ø
h ®0 h ®0 h 1
0æ 1ö
2
0 t -1+
ƒ is continuous at x = –2 t2 ç t - t ÷ +1
è ø
sin ( -1 - h + 2 ) 1
ƒ(–1–) = lim = sin1 Put t – =z
h ®0 ( -1 - h + 2 ) t
ƒ(–1) = ƒ(–1+) = 0 æ 1 ö
ç1 + 2 ÷ dt = dz
ƒ(1+) = 1 & ƒ(1–) = 0 Þ ƒ is not continuous at x = 1 è t ø
¥
dz
( )
ƒ is continuous but not diff. at x = 0 ¥
= ò 2
= tan -1 z
-¥ 1 + z
-¥
Þ f is discontinuous at x = –1 & 1ü m = 2
ýÞ
& f is not diff. at x = –1, 0 & 1 þ n=3 p æ pö
= - - =p
2 çè 2 ÷ø

2
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session
7. æ
n2 n2 n2 n2
ö Sol. Let Point P(x,y)
lim ç + + + ... + ÷
n ®¥ ç
è (n 2
)
+ 1 ( n + 1) (n 2
)
+ 4 ( n + 2) (n 2
)
+ 9 ( n + 3) (n 2
+n 2
) ( n + n ) ÷ø Y – y = y¢(X – x)
is equal to
y
Y=0ÞX= x-
p 1 p 1 y¢
(A) + loge 2 (B) + log e 2
8 4 4 8
æ y ö
Qç x - ,0÷
p 1 p è y¢ ø
(C) - log e 2 (D) + log e 2
4 8 8
Mid Point of PQ lies on y axis
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
y
x- +x =0
y¢
æ n ö
n2 y dy dx
lim å ç ÷ y¢ = Þ 2 =
( )
Sol.
n ®¥ ç n + r (n + r) ÷
2 2 2.x y x
è r =1 ø
æ ö 2lny = lnx + lnk
ç ÷
ç n 1 ÷ y2 = kx
= lim ç å ÷
n ®¥
ç r =1 æ æ r ö ö æ æ r ö ö ÷
2 It passes through (3, 3) Þ k = 3
ç n çç 1 + ç n ÷ ÷÷ ç 1 + ç n ÷ ÷ ÷ curve c Þ y2 = 3x
è è è ø øè è øø ø
1 1 1 Length of L.R. = 3
dx 1 1- x 1 1
=ò = ò dx + ò dx
0 (1 + x ) (1 + x )
2 2 0 1+ x 2
2 0 1+ x
Focus = ç
æ3 ö
, 0 ÷ Ans. (A)
è4 ø
1 æ 1 x ö 1
dx + ( ln (1 + x ) )0
1
= ò ç 2
- 2 ÷
2 è 1 + x 1+ x ø 2 9. Let the maximum area of the triangle that can be
1 x 2 y2
1é 1 ù 1
= ê tan -1 x - ln 1 + x 2 ú + ln2
2ë 2 û0 2
( ) inscribed in the ellipse +
a2 4
= 1 , a > 2, having

1 ép 1 ù 1 one of its vertices at one end of the major axis of the

= ê - ln2 ú + ln2
2 ë4 2 û 2 ellipse and one of its sides parallel to the y-axis, be

p 1 6 3 . Then the eccentricity of the ellispe is :

= + ln 2
8 4
3 1 1 3
8. A particle is moving in the xy-plane along a curve (A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 4
C passing through the point (3, 3). The tangent to
the curve C at the point P meets the x-axis at Q. If Official Ans. by NTA (A)
the y-axis bisects the segment PQ, then C is a
parabola with
(A) length of latus rectum 3 Sol. (acosq, 2sinq)
(B) length of latus rectum 6
æ4 ö (a, 0)
(C) focus ç , 0 ÷
è3 ø
æ 3ö (acosq, –2sinq)
Here b = 2
(D) focus ç 0, ÷
è 4ø
Official Ans. by NTA (A) 1
A= a (1 – cosq) (4sinq)
2

3
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session
A = 2a(1–cosq) sinq 11. The number of distinct real roots of the equation
dA x7 – 7x – 2 = 0 is
= 2a ( sin 2 q + cos q - cos2 q )
dq (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 1 (D) 3
dA Official Ans. by NTA (D)
= 0 Þ 1 + cos q - 2cos2 q = 0
dq
cosq = 1 (Reject)
Sol. x7 – 7x – 2 = 0
OR x7 – 7x = 2
-1 2p f(x) = x7 – 7x (odd) & y = 2
cos q = Þq=
2 3 f(x) = x (x2 – 71/3) (x4 + x2 · 71/3 + 72/3)
d2 A f'(x) = 7(x6 – 1) = 7 (x2 – 1) (x4 + x2 + 1)
= 2a ( 2sin 2 q - sin q )
dq 2
f'(x) = 0 Þ x = ± 1
2
d A 2p
< 0 for q =
dq 2
3
6
3 3 y=2
Now, A max= a= 6 3 –7
1/6
7
1/6

2 1
–1
–6
a=4

a 2 - b2 3
Now, e= = Ans. (A)
a2 2 f(x) = 2 has 3 real distinct solution.
10. Let the area of the triangle with vertices A(1, a), 12. A random variable X has the following probability
B(a, 0) and C(0, a) be 4 sq. units. If the point distribution :

(a, –a), (–a, a) and (a2, b) are collinear, then b is X 0 1 2 3 4

P(X) k 2k 4k 6k 86
equal to
The value of P(1 < X < 4 | X £ 2) is equal to :
(A) 64 (B) –8
4 2
(C) –64 (D) 512 (A) (B)
7 3
Official Ans. by NTA (C) 3 4
(C) (D)
7 5
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
a 0 1
1
Sol. 1 a 1 = ±4
2
0 a 1 æ 1< x < 4 ö P (1< x < 4 Ç x £ 2)
Sol. Pç ÷ =
a=±8 è x£2 ø P (x £ 2)

Now given points (8, –8), (–8, 8), (64, b) P(1< x £ 2) P(x = 2)
= =
P(x £ 2) P(x £ 2)
OR (–8, 8), (8, –8), (64, b)
4k 4
are collinear Þ Slope = –1. = =
k + 2k + 4k 7
b = -64 Ans. (C)

4
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session
13. The number of solutions of the equation a1 = (1, 2, 3)
pö a2 = (2, 4, 5)
æ æp ö 1 r
cos ç x + ÷ cos ç - x ÷ = cos2 2x , x Î [–3p,
è 3 ø è 3 ø 4 b2 = 2iˆ + 3jˆ + lkˆ
r
3p] is : b2 = ˆi + 4jˆ + 5kˆ
r r
(A) 8 (B) 5
S.D. =
( (2 - 1) ˆi + (4 - 2)ˆj + (5 - 3)kˆ )·(b ´ b ) 1 2

(C) 6 (D) 7 | b1 ´ b 2 |
Official Ans. by NTA (D) ˆi ˆj kˆ
r r
b1 ´ b 2 = 2 3 l
æp ö æp ö 1 1 4 5
cos ç + x ÷ cos ç - x ÷ = cos 2x
2
Sol.
è3 ø è3 ø 4
= î (15 – 4l) + ĵ (l – 10) + k̂ (5)
xÎ[ -3p,3p]
= (15 – 4l) î + (l – 10) ĵ + 5kˆ
æ æpö ö r r
4 ç cos2 ç ÷ - sin 2 x ÷ = cos2 2x b1 ´ b2 = (15 - 4l)2 + (l - 10)2 + 25
è è3ø ø
Now
æ1 ö
4 ç - sin 2 x ÷ = cos 2x
2

è4 ø
S.D. =
( ˆi + 2ˆj + 2kˆ )· éë(15 - 4l ) ˆi + (l - 10) ˆj + 5kˆ ùû
1 – 4 sin2x = cos22x (15 - 4 l )2 + (l - 10)2 + 25
1 – 2 (1 – cos 2x) = cos22x 15 - 4l + 2l - 20 + 10 1
=
let cos 2x = t (15 - 4 l ) + (l - 10) + 25
2 2
3
2
– 1 + 2 cos 2x = cos 2x
square both side
t2 – 2t + 1 = 0
3(5 – 2l)2 = 225 + 16l2 – 120 l + l2 + 100 – 20l + 25
(t – 1)2 = 0 12l2 + 75 – 60l = 17l2 – 140 l + 350
t =1 cos2x = 1 5l2 – 80l + 275 = 0
l2 – 16l + 55 = 0
2x = 2np
(l – 5) (l – 11) = 0
x = np Þ l = 5, 11
n = –3, –2, –1, 0, 1,2, 3 (A) is correct option.
15. Let the points on the plane P be equidistant from
(D) option is correct.
the points (–4, 2, 1) and (2, –2, 3). Then the acute
14. If the shortest distance between the lines
angle between the plane P and the plane 2x + y +
x -1 y - 2 z - 3 x -2 y-4 z-5 3z = 1 is
= = and = =
2 3 l 1 4 5
p p
1 (A) (B)
is , then the sum of all possible values of l is : 6 4
3
p 5p
(C) (D)
(A) 16 (B) 6 3 12
(C) 12 (D) 15 Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

(a 2 - a1 )·(b1 ´ b2 )
Sol. SHORTEST distance
b1 ´ b2
5
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session

Sol. ( aˆ + bˆ ) + 2 ( aˆ ´ bˆ ) = 2 , q Î ( 0, p )

( ( aˆ + bˆ ) + 2 ( aˆ ´ bˆ ) ) .( ( aˆ + bˆ ) + 2 ( aˆ ´ bˆ ) ) =4
Sol. A(–4,2,1) B(2, –2, 3)
aˆ + bˆ + 4 ( aˆ ´ bˆ ) + 0 = 4
2 2
mid point = (–1, 0, 2)
P Let the angle be q between â and b̂
2 + 2cosq + 4sin2q = 4
uuur uuur uuur
Normal vector = AB = OB - OA ( ) 2 + 2 cosq – 4cos2q = 0

(
= 6iˆ - 4 ˆj + 2kˆ ) Let cosq = t then
2t2 – t – 1 = 0
(
or 2 3iˆ - 2ˆj + kˆ ) 2t2 – 2t + t – 1 = 0

P º 3(x + 1) – 2(y) + 1 (z – 2) = 0 2t (t – 1) + (t – 1) = 0
P º 3x –2y + z + 1 = 0 (2t + 1) (t – 1) = 0

P' º 2x + y + 3z – 1 = 0 1
t= - or t=1
2
nˆ 1 ·nˆ 2
angle between P & P' = = cos q 1 not possible as qÎ (0, p)
| n1 | | n 2 | cosq = -
2
æ 6-2+3 ö 2p
q=
q = cos-1 çç ÷÷ 3
è 14 ´ 14 ø
Now,
æ 7 ö æ1ö
q = cos -1 ç ÷ = = cos-1 ç ÷ =
p r r æ 2p ö
S1 2 a ´ b = 2sin ç ÷
è 14 ø è2ø 3 è 3 ø
Option C is correct.
æ 2p ö
â - bˆ = 1 + 1 - 2 cos ç ÷
16. Let â and b̂ be two unit vectors such that è 3 ø

( aˆ + bˆ ) + 2 ( aˆ ´ bˆ ) = 2 . If q Î (0, p) is the angle =

æ 1ö
2 - 2´ç- ÷
è 2ø

between â and b̂ , then among the statements : = 3

S1 is correct.
(S1) : 2 aˆ ´ bˆ = aˆ - bˆ
S2 projection of â on ( â + bˆ ) .

(S2) : The projection of â on â + bˆ is ( ) 1

2 ˆ ( aˆ + bˆ )
a.
æ 2p ö
1 + cos ç ÷
è 3 ø
=
ˆa + bˆ 2p
(A) Only (S1) is true 2 + 2cos
3
(B) Only (S2) is true
1
1-
(C) Both (S1) and (S2) are true = 2
1
(D) Both (S1) and (S2) are false
1
=
Official Ans. by NTA (C) 2
C Option is true.

6
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session
p 3p 18. Consider the following statements :
17. If y = tan–1(secx3 – tanx3). < x3 < , then
2 2 A : Rishi is a judge.
B : Rishi is honest.
(A) xy² + 2y¢ = 0
C : Rishi is not arrogant.
3p
(B) x 2 y¢¢ - 6y + = 0 The negation of the statement "if Rishi is a judge
2 and he is not arrogant, then he is honest" is

(C) x2y² – 6y + 3p = 0 (A) B ® (A Ú C)

(B) (~B) Ù (A Ù C)
(D) xy² – 4y¢ = 0
(C) B ® ((~A) Ú (~C))
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(D) B ® (A Ù C)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol. y = tan–1 (sec x3 – tan x3)

Sol. : ( ( A Ù C ) ® B)
æ 1 - sin x 3 ö
= tan–1 ç ÷
è cos x 3 ø : ( : ( A Ù C ) Ú B)

æ p ö
1 - cos æç - x 3 ö÷ ÷
Using De-Morgan's law
ç è2 ø÷
= tan–1 ç
ç sin æç p - x 3 ö÷ ÷ ( A Ù C ) Ù ( : B)
ç ÷
è è2 ø ø
Option B is correct.
æ æ p x3 ö ö 19. The slope of normal at any point (x, y), x > 0, y > 0
= tan–1 ç tan ç - ÷÷
è è 4 2 øø
x2
on the curve y = y(x) is given by .
p x 3 xy - x 2 y 2 - 1
- æ p ö
Since Î ç - ,0÷
4 2 è 2 ø If the curve passes through the point (1, 1), then
e.y(e) is equal to
æp x ö 3
y= ç - ÷ 1 - tan (1)
è4 2 ø (A) (B) tan(1)
1 + tan (1)
-3x 2
y' = , y'' = – 3x 1 + tan (1)
2 (C) 1 (D)
1 - tan (1)
4y = p – 2x3 Official Ans. by NTA (D)

æ - y '' ö
4y = p – 2x2 ç ÷
è 3 ø -dx x2
Sol. Slope of normal = =
dy xy - x 2 y 2 - 1
12y = 3p + 2x2y''
x2y2dx + dx – xydx = x2dy
3p
x2y'' – 6y + =0 x2y2dx + dx = x2dy + xydx
2

7
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session
x2y2dx + dx = x(xdy + ydx) é 1ù
lÎ ê0, ú
x2y2dx + dx = xd(xy) ë 3û
1
dx d(xy) \ llargest =
= 3
x 1 + x2y2
4 3
f(x) = x – 12x2 + 36x + 48
–1
ln kx = tan (xy) … (i) 3

passes though (1, 1) \ f(1) + f(1) = 72

SECTION-B
p
p
ln k = Þ k = e4 1. Let S = {z Î £ : z - 3 £ 1 and z ( 4 + 3i ) + z ( 4 - 3i ) £ 24} .
4
If a + ib is the point in S which is closest to 4i,
equation (i) be becomes
then 25(a + b) is equal to _____.
p
+ ln x = tan (xy)
–1

4 Official Ans. by NTA (80)

æp ö
xy = tan ç + l n x ÷
è 4 ø

æ 1 + tan(ln x) ö Sol. |z – 3| £ 1
xy = ç ÷ … (ii)
è 1 - tan (l n x) ø represent pt. i/s circle of radius 1 & centred at (3, 0)
z (4 + 3i) + z (4 – 3i) £ 24
put x = e in (ii)
(x + iy) (4 + 3i) + (x – iy) (4 – 3i) £ 24
1 + tan1
\ ey (e) = 4x + 3xi + 4iy – 3y + 4x – 3ix – 4iy – 3y £ 24
1 - tan1
8x – 6y £ 24
20. Let l* be the largest value of l for which the
4x – 3y £ 12
3 2
function fl(x) = 4lx – 36lx + 36x + 48 is
4i
increasing for all x Î R. Then fl*(1) + fl*(–1) is
equal to :
(A) 36 (B) 48 (3,0

(C) 64 (D) 72
Official Ans. by NTA (D) –4i

Sol. fl(x) = 4lx3 – 36lx2 + 36x + 48 minimum of (0, 4) from circle = 32 + 42 - 1 = 4

fl¢ (x) = 12lx2 – 72lx + 36 will lie along line joining (0, 4) & (3, 0)
fl¢ (x) = 12(lx2 – 6lx + 3) ³ 0 \ equation line
\l>0&D£0 x y
+ = 1 Þ 4x + 3y = 12 … (i)
36l2 – 4 × l × 3 £ 0 3 4
equation circle (x – 3)2 + y2 = 1 … (ii)
9l2 – 3l £ 0
2
3l (3l – 1) £ 0 æ 12 - 3y ö
ç - 3 ÷ + y2 = 1
è 4 ø

8
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session
2
æ -3y ö Sol. Digits are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9
÷ + y =1
2
ç
è 4 ø Multiple of 11 ® Difference of sum at even & odd

25y 2 4 place is divisible by 11.

=1 Þ y = ±
16 5 Let number of the form abcdefg
4 \ (a + c + e + g) – (b + d + f) = 11x
for minimum distance y =
5 a + b + c + d + e + f = 31
12 \ either a + c + e + g = 21 or 10
\x=
5
\ b + d + f = 10 or 21
æ 4 12 ö Case- 1
\ 25 (a + b) = 25 ç + ÷
è5 5 ø
a + c + e + g = 21
= 16 × 5 = 80
b + d + f = 10

ìæ -1 a ö ü (b, d, f) Î {(1, 2, 7) (2, 3, 5) (1, 4, 5)}

2. Let S = íç ÷ ; a, b Î {1, 2, 3,...100}ý and let
îè 0 b ø þ (a, c, e, g) Î {(1, 4, 7, 9), (3, 4, 5, 9), (2, 3, 7, 9)}
Tn = {A Î S : An(n + 1) = I}. Then the number of \ Total number in case-1 = (3! × 3) (4!) = 432
100 Case- 2
elements in I Tn is _____. a + c + e + g = 10
n =1
b + d + f = 21
Official Ans. by NTA (100) (a, b, e, g) Î {1, 2, 3, 4)}
(b, d, f) & {(5, 7, 9)}
\ Total number in case 2 = 3! × 4! = 144
é -1 a ù \ Total numbers = 144 + 432 = 576
Sol. A=ê ú
ë 0 bû 4. The sum of all the elements of the set
é -1 a ù é -1 a ù {a Î {1, 2, ..., 100} : HCF (a, 24) = 1} is _____.
A2 = ê úê ú
ë 0 bû ë 0 bû Official Ans. by NTA (1633)
é1 -a + ab ù
=ê
ë0 b 2 úû
Sol. HCF (a, 24) = 1
\ Tn = {A Î S; A n(n+1)
= I} Now, 24 = 22.3
\ b must be equal to 1 ® a is not the multiple of 2 or 3
\ In this case A will become identity matrix and a
2
Sum of values of a
can take any value from 1 to 100 = S(U) –{S(multiple of 2) + S (multiple of 3)

\ Total number of common element will be 100. – S(multiple of 6)}

= (1 + 2 + 3 + ...... 100) – (2 + 4 + 6 ..... + 100) – (3
3. The number of 7-digit numbers which are + 6 + ..... 99) + (6 + 12 + ..... + 96)
multiples of 11 and are formed using all the digits 100 ´ 101 33 16
= - 50 ´ 51 - ´ ( 3 + 99 ) + ( 6 + 96 )
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7 and 9 is _____. 2 2 2

Official Ans. by NTA (576) = 5050 – 2550 – 1683 + 816 = 1633 Ans.
5. The remainder on dividing 1 + 3 + 32 + 33 + ... + 32021
by 50 is _____.
9
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session
Official Ans. by NTA (4) circle C at P and Q such that the length of the chord
PQ is 2, then the value of h + k + r is equal to _____.

1. ( 32022 - 1) 91011 - 1 Official Ans. by NTA (7)

Sol. =
2 2
(10 - 1)1011 - 1 Sol. k = r
= h=1
2
OP = r, PR = 1
100 l + 10110 - 1 - 1
= r +1
2 OR =
2
10108
= 50 l +
2
(1, r)
= 50l + 5054
= 50l + 50 × 101 + 4 P
1 Q
Rem (50) = 4. R
(1, 0)
6. The area (in sq. units) of the region enclosed between
the parabola y2 = 2x and the line x + y = 4 is _____. ( r + 1) 2
r2 = 1 +
Official Ans. by NTA (18) 2
2r2 = 2 + r2 + 1 + 2r
r2 – 2r – 3 = 0
Sol. x = 4 – y (r – 3) (r + 1) = 0
y2 = 2 (4 – y) r = 3 , –1
y2 = 8 – 2y h+k+r=1+3+3
y2 + 2y – 8 = 0 =7
y = – 4, y = 2 8. In an examination, there are 10 true-false type
x = 8, x = 2
questions. Out of 10, a student can guess the answer
3
(2, 2) of 4 questions correctly with probability and the
4
1
remaining 6 questions correctly with probability .
4
If the probability that the student guesses the
(8, –4)
answers of exactly 8 questions correctly out of 10 is
2 é y2 ù
ò -4 êë ( 4 - y ) - ú dy 27k
2û , then k is equal to _____.
2 410
é y 2 y3 ù
= ê 4y - - ú
ë 2 6 û -4 Official Ans. by NTA (479)
8 16 64
= 8 – 2 - + 16 + -
6 2 6
3
72 Sol. A = {1, 2, 3, 4} : P(A) = ® Correct
= 22 + 8 - 4
6
= 30 – 12 = 18 1
B = { 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10} ; P(B) = Correct
4
7. Let a circle C : (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r2, k > 0, touch the
8 Correct Ans.:
x-axis at (1, 0). If the line x + y = 0 intersects the

10
 Final JEE-Main Exam June, 2022/24-06-2022/Evening Session

æ3ö
4
æ1ö
4
æ3ö
2 10. Let P1 be a parabola with vertex (3, 2) and focus (4, 4)
(4, 4): 4 C 4 ç ÷ .6 C 4 . ç ÷ .ç ÷
è4ø è4ø è4ø and P2 be its mirror image with respect to the line
3 1 5 x + 2y = 6. Then the directrix of P2 is x + 2y = _____.
æ3ö æ1ö æ1ö æ3ö
(3, 5): 4 C 3 ç ÷ . ç ÷ .6 C 5 ç ÷ . ç ÷
è4ø è4ø è4ø è4ø Official Ans. by NTA (10)
2 2 6
æ3ö æ1ö æ1ö
(2, 6): C 2 ç ÷ ç ÷ . 6 C6 ç ÷
4

è4ø è4ø è4ø

P1
Sol.
1 4
Total = 10
[3 ´ 15 ´ 32 + 4 ´ 33 ´ 6 ´ 3 + 6 ´ 32 ]
4
27 (3, 2)
= [ 2.7 ´ 15 + 72 + 2 ] (4, 4)
410
Þ K = 479
x + 2y = 6
x2 2
9. Let the hyperbola H : 2 - y = 1 and the ellipse P1: Directorix :
a
x + 2y = k
E : 3x2 + 4y2 = 12 be such that the length of latus
x + 2y – k = 0
rectum of H is equal to the length of latus rectum
of E. If eH and eE are the eccentricities of H and E 3+ 4-K
= 5
5
respectively, then the value of 12 e 2H + e 2E ( ) is
7-k =5
equal to _____.
7–K=5 7 - K = -5
Official Ans. by NTA (42)
k=2 k = 12
Accepted Rejected
2 2 2 2
x y x y Passes through
Sol. 2
- =1 + =1
a 1 4 3
focus
1 3 1 D1 = x + 2y = 2 Þ d
eH = 1 + eE = 1 - =
a2 4 2 = x + 2y = 6 Þ c = 10
Þd
D2 = x + 2y = C
2 2´3
l.R. = lR = =3
a 2
2
=3
a
2
a=
3

9 13
eH = 1 + =
4 2

æ 13 1 ö
12 ( e 2H + e 2E ) = 12 ç + ÷
è 4 4ø
12 ´ 14
= = 42
4

11