IIT/NEET – ACADEMY

SENIOR NEET CPT - 1

Date :13.10.2024 (NEET MODEL) Time : 3hrs
STD : XII CODE- A Max. Marks : 720

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the

answer sheet.

Marks should be dark and should

hould completely fill the circle.

The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry , Botany &

Zoology). Each part contains 45 questions.

Part – A (Physics) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT
CORRECT.

Part – B (Chemistry) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT

Part – C (Botany&Zoology) : Contains 90 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2),, (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT

Marking Scheme : For each question in every part you will be awarded

4 Marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark

if no bubbles are darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for inc

incorrect
orrect answer.

******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

SUBJECT SYLLABUS PAPER SETTER

PHYSICS WAVES , OSCILLATIONS , RPT 1, 2,3 - SYLLABUS Mr.APPARAO
CHEMISTRY, XI-COMPLETE Mrs.NAGALAKSHMI
PERIODIC TABLE , PRACTICAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY .NAGALAKSHMI
CHEMISTRY
SYLLABUS, RPT 1, 2,3 - SYLLABUS Mrs.SUPRIYA
BOTANY RPT 1, 2,3 - SYLLABUS Mr.KASTURAIAH
KASTURAIAH
ZOOLOGY RPT 1, 2,3 - SYLLABUS Dr.S.BASHA
CPT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2024
PHYSICS
1. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
(A) Torque (P) ML2T1
(B) Angular momentum (Q) MT 2
(C) Pressure (R) ML2T2
(D) Surface tension (S) M1L1T2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :
1) (A)–(R), (B)–(P), (C)–(S), (D)–(Q) 2) (A)–(Q), (B)–(P), (C)–(S), (D)–(R)
3) (A)–(P), (B)–(R), (C)–(S), (D)–(Q) 4) (A)–(R), (B)–(S), (C)–(P), (D)–(Q)
2. The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023,0.0003 and
2.1103 are :
1) 5, 1, 2 2) 5, 1, 5 3) 5, 5, 2 4) 4, 4, 2
3. A car covers the first half of the distance between two places at 40 km/h and
other half at 60 km/h. The average speed of the car is :
1) 40 km/h 2) 45 km/h 3) 48 km/h 4) 60 km/h
4. ˆ ˆ
A projectile is given an initial velocity of (i  2 j)m / s, where î is along the ground
and ĵ is along the vertical. If g  10m / s2 , the equation of its trajectory is :
1) y  x  5x2 2) y  2 x  5x 2 3) 4 y  2 x  5 x 2 4) 4 y  2 x  25x2
5. A body is in translatory equilibrium if :
(i) Resultant force on it is zero
(ii) It is at rest
(iii) Uniform velocity
(iv) It is an accelerated motion
1) i, ii are only correct 2) i, iv are only correct
3) i, ii, iii are only correct 4) ii, iv are only correct
6. Three identical blocks of masses m = 2kg are drawn by a force F = 10.2 N on a
frictionless surface, then what is the tension (in N) in the string between the
blocks B and C ?

1) 9.2 2) 3.4 3) 4 4) 7.8

7. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a
wall. The coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The weight
of the block is :

1) 20 N 2) 50 N 3) 100 N 4) 2 N
8. A uniform chain of length 2 m is kept on a table such that a length 60 cm hangs
freely from the edge of the table. The total mass of the chain is 4 kg. What is the
work done in pulling the entire chain on the table ?(g= 10m/s2)
1) 12 J 2) 3.6 J 3) 7.2 J 4) 1200 J
9. The potential energy for the force between two atoms in a distance molecule is
a b
approximately given by U ( x)  12  6 , where a andb are constants and x is the
x x
distance between the atoms. If the dissociation energy of the molecule
D  U ( x   )  U at equilibrium  , D is :
b2 b2 b2 b2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2a 12a 4a 6a
10. A metre stick is balanced on a knife edge at its center when two coins, each of
mass 5g are put one on top of the other at the 12cm mark. The stick is found to
be balanced at 45cm. What is the mass of the metre stick?
1) 55g 2) 40g 3) 66g 4) 60g

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CPT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2024
11. The length of metallic wire is l1 when tension in it is T1. It is l2 when the tension
is T2 . The original length of the wire will be :
Tl T l l l T l Tl T l Tl
1) 1 1 2 2 2) 1 2 3) 2 1 1 2 4) 2 1 1 2
T2  T1 2 T1  T2 T2  T1
12. The stress versus strain graphs of wires of two materials A and B are as shown in
figure. If YA and YB are the Young’s modulus of the materials, then :

1) YB  2YA 2) YA  YB 3) YB  3YA 4) YA  3YB

13. A large number of water drops, each of radius r, combine to have a drop of radius
R. If the surface tension is T and mechanical equivalent of heat is J, the rise in
heat energy per unit volume will be :
2T  1 1  3T 3T  1 1  2T
1)    2) 3)    4)
J r R rJ J r R rJ
14. A cylinder of radius R is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner radius R and
outer radius 2R. The thermal conductivity of the two material of the inner
cylinder is K1 and that of the outer cylinder is K2 . Assuming no loss of heat, the
effective thermal conductivity of the system for heat flowing along the length of
the cylinder is :
K  K2 2K1  3K 2 K  3K 2
1) 1 2) K1  K2 3) 4) 1
2 5 4
15. Time period of a simple pendulum is T inside a lift when the lift is stationary. If
the lift moves upwards with an acceleration g/2, the time period of pendulum will
be :
2 3 T
1) T 2) 3 T 3) T 4)
3 2 3
16. Boiling water is changing into steam. Under this condition the specific heat of
water is :
1) Zero 2) One 3) Infinite 4) Less than one
17. A body is doing SHM, which is not true:
2
1) Mean velocity over a complete cycle in equal to times of its maximum

velocity
2) Average kinetic energy per cycle in equal tohalf of its maximum kinetic energy
3) Average total energy per cycle is equal to its maximum kinetic energy
4) The ratio between maximum acceleration to maximum velocity is angular
velocity
18. A wave travelling along the x-axis is described by the equation
y(x, t)  0.005cos(x t). If the wavelength and the time period of the wave are
0.008 m and 2.0s, respectively, then  and  in appropriate units are :
0.08 2.0 0.04 1.0 
1)   250,    2)   ,  3)   ,  4)   12.50,  
    2.0
19. A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency f in air. The pipe is dipped
vertically in water so that half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of the
air column is now :
f 3f
1) 2f 2) f 3) 4)
2 4
20. A tuning fork A of unknown frequency produces 5 beats/s with a fork of known
frequency 340 Hz. When fork A is filled, the beat frequency decreases to 2
beats/s. What is the frequency of fork A ?
1) 335 Hz 2) 338 Hz 3) 345 Hz 4) 342 Hz

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CPT - 1 CODE A
CODE- XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2010.2024
21. Statement-1 : In isothermal process cess whole of the heat energy supplied to the
body is converted into internal energy.
Statement-2 : According to the first law of thermodynamics Q  U  PV
1) Statement-11 is true, statement-2
statement is false.
2) Statememnt--1 is true, statement-2 2 is true, statement
statement-22 is the correct
explanation of statement-1.
statement
3) Statement-1 1 is true, statement-2
statement 2 is true, statement
statement-22 is not the correct
explanation
tion of statement-1.
statement
4) Statement-11 is false, statement-2
statement is true.
22. Assertion (A) :For : a oblique projectile horizontal
orizontal range is same for angle of
projection  and (90  ).
Reason (R) : Horizontal range is independent
independent of angle of projection.
1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and thereason is the correct explanation of
theassertion.
2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but thereason is not the correct explanation
of theassertion.
3) Assertion is true statement
statement but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are falsestatements.
23. Rain is falling vertically at 10 3kmph . A man is running at 10kmph. The angle
with vertical at which he should hold his umbrella is
1) 600 2) 450 3)300 4) 150
24. If the kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300%, the momentum of the body
is increased by
1) 300% 2) 200% 3) 100% 4) 50%
25. To what depth must a rubber ball be taken in deep sea so that its volume is
decreased by 0.1%? (Take, density density of sea water =103kgm-3, bulk modulus of
2 2
rubber  9 10 Nm , g  10ms )
8

1) 9m 2) 18m 3) 90m 4) 180m

26. If M is the mass of water that rises in a capillary tube of radius r, then mass of
water which will rise in a capillary tube of radius 2r is
M
1) 2M 2) 4M 3) 4) M
2
27. An ideal gas undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in given P P-VV diagram.
The amount of work done by the gas is

1) 6P0V0 2) -2P0V0 3)+2P0V0 4)+4P0V0

 
28. A mass of 1kg is executing SHM which is is given by x  6.0 cos 100t   cm . What is
 4
the maximum kinetic energy?
1) 3 J 2) 6 J 3) 9 J 4) 18 J
29. Sound waves of wavelength  travelling in a medium with a speed of v ms-1 enter
into another medium where its speed in 2v ms-1. Wavelength of sound waves in
the second medium is

1)  2) 3) 2  4) 4 
2
30. A particle moves along x-axis x axis under the action of a position d dependent
ependent force
F   5 x  2 x  N . Work done by force on the particle when it moves from origin to
2

x=3m is
1) 45 J 2) 36J 3) 32 J 4) 42 J
A quantity is represented by X  M L T . The percentage error in measurement
a b c
31.
of M, L and d T are  %,  % and  % respectively. The percentage error in X
would be
1)  a   b   c  % 2)  a   b   c  % 3)  a   b   c  % 4) None of these

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CPT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2024
32. Assertion (A) :Displacement – time graph of a body moving with uniform
acceleration is a straight line.
Reason (R) :Displacement is proportional to time, when body moving with
uniform velocity.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not correct explanation
of the Assertion.
3) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
4) Assertion is false butthe Reason is true.
33. The motion of a particle along a straight line is described by equation :
x  8 12t  t 3 where x is in metre and t in second. The retardation of the particle
when t = 1sec is
1) 12 ms2 2) 24 ms2 3) zero 4) 6 ms2
34. Angle between velocity and acceleration vectors in the following cases
Column – I Column - II
(A) Vertically projected body (e) 90o
(B) For freely falling body (f) Changes from point to point
(C) For oblique projectile (g) Zero
(D).
In uniform circular motion (h) 180o
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
.

1) h g f e 2) f g h e
3) e f h g 4) g h e f
35. Two particles A and B initially at rest, move towards each other under a mutual
force of attraction. At the instant, when the speed of A is v and the speed of B is
2v, the velocity of centre of mass of the system is
1) 0 2) v 3) 1.5 v 4) 3 v
36. A homogeneous solid cylinder of length L(L < H/2). Cross-sectional area A/5 is
immersed such that it floats with its axis vertical at the liquid-liquid interface
with length L/4 in the denser liquid as shown in the figure. The lesser density of
liquid is open to atmosphere having pressure P0. Then density D of solid is given
by
5 4
1) d 2) d
4 5
d
3) 5d 4)
5

37. As shown in the figure below, a block ‘A’ of mass 7.0 kg is placed on a frictionless
table. A thread tied to it, passes over a frictionless pulley and carries a body ‘B’
of mass 3.0 Kg at the other end. If g = 10 ms-2 then acceleration of the system will
be

1) 100 ms-2 2) 3.0 ms-2 3) 10.0 ms-2 4) 30 ms-2

     
38. Two bodies of mass 1kg and 3kg have position vectors i  2 j  k and 3 i  2 j  k ,
respectively. The centre of mass of this system has a position vector:
          
1)  i  j k 2) 2 i  2 k 3) 2i  j  k 4) 2 i  j 2 k
39. The kinetic energy and the potential energy of a particle executing SHM are
equal. The ratio of its displacement and amplitude will be
1 3 1
1) 2) 3) 4) 2
2 2 2

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CPT - 1 CODE A
CODE- XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.20
10.2024
40. A body of mass 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 ms on a horizontal smooth
-1

surface, collides with a nearly weightless spring of force constant k = 50 Nm-1.

The maximum compression of the spring would be (nearly)

1)0.12 m 2) 1.5 m 3) 7 m 4) 0.15 m

1
41. A wheel rotating at an angular speed of 20rad
rad s is brought to rest by a constant
torque is 4s. If the M.I is 0.2 kg m 2 the work done in first 2s is
1) 50J 2) 30 J 3) 20J 4) 10J
42. The excess pressure inside one soap bubble is three times that of inside a second
soap bubble, then the ratio of their surface areas is
1) 1 : 9 2) 1 : 3 3) 3 : 1 4) 1 : 27
43. A metalal rod of length 2 m has cross sectional areas 2A and A as shown in figure.
The ends are maintained at temperatures 100oC and 70oC. The temperature at
the middle point C is

1) 80oC 2) 85oC 3) 90oC 4) 95oC

44. Match the following columns. (M=mass off the body)
Column – I Column – II
( Rotation of different bodies of same ( Their moment of
mass) inertia)
(A) Thin circular ring of radius R having (I) MR2/2
axis perpendicular to the plane and
passing through its centre
(B) Thin circular ring of radius
radius R having (II) ML2/12
axis passing through its diameter
(C) Thin rod of length L about an axis (III) MR2
perpendicular to the rod and passing
through mid-point
mid
(D) Circular disc of radius R about an axis (IV) MR2/4
perpendicular to the disc and passing
through the
th centre
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) III II II I 2) II III I II
3) III I II I 4) III I II IV
45. Four persons A,B,C and D initially are at the corners of a square of side of length
‘d’.. If every person starts moving with the same speed ‘v’ such that each one
faces the other person exactly opposite to him. Time taken by them to meet is
d 2d d d
1) 2) 3) 4)
v v 2v 2v
CHEMISTRY
4E
46. The energy
gy of a I, II and III energy levels of a certain atom are E, and 2E
3
respectively. A photon of wavelength  is emitted during a transition from III to I.
What will be the wavelength of emission for transit
transition II to I?

1) 2)  3) 2 4) 3
2
47. The correct decreasing order of bond angle is
1) BeCl2 > NO2 > SO2 2) BeCl2 > SO2 > NO2
3) SO2 > BeCl2 > NO2 ` 4) SO2 > NO2 > BeCl2
48. A particle X moving with a certain velocity has a deBrogile wavelength of 1 A0 If
particle Y has a mass of 25% that of X and velocity 75% that of X, deBroglies
wavelength of Y will be:
1) 3 A0 2) 5.33 A0 3) 6.88 A0 4) 48 A0

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CPT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2024
49. Select the correct order
1) LiF < NaF < KF < RbF (lattice energy)
2) NaI > NaBr > NaCl > NaF (Ionic character)
3) Na+1 < Mg+2 < Al+3 (polarizing power)
4) S-2 < O-2 < F- (polarazability)
50. A 100 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of wavelength 400nm. The number of
photons emitted per second by the bulb will be
1) 2.012  10 20 2) 1.2072  1022 3) 3.353  1018 4) 2.012  10 22
51. Identify the correct match
1) XeF2 – sp3d hybridisation and bent shape
2) I3- - sp3d2 hybridisation and octahedral geometry
3) PCl5 (solid anion) – sp3 hybridisation and tetrahedral shape
4) H2O – sp3 hybridisation and angular shape
52. The Ksp of AgClis 4  10 10 . Then the solubility of AgCl in pure water (S1), in
0.03M AgNO3 (S2) and in 0.02M BaCl2 (S3) is in the order of
1) S1>S3>S2 2) S1<S3<S2 3) S1>S2>S3 4) S2>S1>S3
53. In which of the following transformations, the Bond order has increased and the
magnetic behavior has changed?
 
1) C2  C2 2) NO   NO 3) O2  O2 4) N 2  N 2
54. 0.531g of an ester (Responsible for odour of pine apples) produced 1.21 g of
CO2and 0.492 g of H2O on combustion. Its empirical formula is ___________
1) C2H4O 2) C2H4O2 3) CH2O 4) C3H6O
55. The correct increasing order of dipolemoment is
1) BF3  HF  H 2 O 2) HF  BF3  H 2 O 3) HF  H 2 O  BF3 4) BF3  H 2 O  HF
56. Which of the following acts as Bronsted acid as well as Bronsted base?
1) H 2 PO2 2) HPO32 3) NO3 4) HCO3
57. Assertion (A): O – Nitrophenol is more volatile than P – Nitrophenol.
Reason (R): P – Nitrophenol contains intramolecular hydrogen bond.
1) Both A and R are true 2) Both A and R are false
3) A is true R is false 4) A is false R is true
58. The wrong combination is
1) Oxidation state of central Br atom in Br3O8 +4
2) Oxidation state of central carbon atom in C3O2 (O=C=C=C=O)  zero
3) Oxidation state of chromium in CrO5  +6
4) Oxidation state of barium in BaO2 +4
59. The Statement that is not correct for periodic classification of elements is
1) The properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic number
according to Mosely classification.
2) Non-metallic elements are less in number than Metallic elements.
3) Mendeleev’s periodic table constructed based on atomic mass
4) For Transition elements, 3d-orbitals are filled with electrons after 3p orbital
and before 4s-orbital.
60. In acidic medium, 3.16g of KMnO4 [MW=158g.mol-1] oxidises ________g of oxalic
acid [MW = 126g.mol-1] completely.
1) 6.3 2) 12.6 3) 2.52 4) 5.04
 
61. If the ionic radii of K and F are nearly the same (i. e 1.34 A0). Then the atomic
radii of K and F respectively
0 0 0 0 0 0
1) 1.34 A , 1.34 A 2) 0.72 A , 1.96 A 3) 1.96 A , 0.72 A 4) 1.96 A , 1.34 A 0
0

62. The weight of magnesium which has same number of atoms that are present in
8g of methane is
1) 48g 2) 120g 3) 60g 4) 56 g
63. If the ionization potential of Na, Mg and Si are 496, 737 and 787 kJ/mol
respectively. Then IP of Al is
1) 760 kJ/mol 2)756 kJ/mol 3) 577 kJ/mol 4) 986 kJ/mol
64. A buffer solution contains 200 ml of 0.04M CH3COONa and 100ml of 0.02M
CH3COOH (pKa = 4.75). Then the pH of the given buffer solution is ______
1) 5.05 2) 5.35 3) 8.95 4) 4.75

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CPT - 1 CODE A
CODE- XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.20
10.2024
65. IUPAC name of the given compound is

1) 1 – oxo – 3 aldo cyclohexane 2) 3 – oxo – 1 – aldo cyclohexane

3) 3 – oxo cyclohexane carbaldehyde 4) 3 – fromyl – 1 – cyclohexanone
66. 20 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon
dioxide and 8 g of magnesium oxide. The percentage purity of magnesium
carbonate in the sample will be:
1) 75 2) 96 3) 24 4) 84
67. Most acidic among the following is

1) 2) 3) 4)

68. Which of the following is correct regarding equilibrium?

I) It can be attained from either side
II) QC = KC at equilibrium
III) Presence of catalyst influences the position of equilibrium.
1) I and II only 2) II and III only 3) I and III only 4) All of these
69. The following isomers exhibit what type of isomerism?

and

1) Positional isomers 2) Chain isomers

3) Geometrical isomers 4) Metamers
70. The heat of formation of acetic acid from the following data is
CH 3COOH  l   2O2  g  
 2CO2  g   2 H 2O  l  H  207.9 K .cal
C  s   O2  g  
 CO2  g  H  94.48 K .cal
1
H 2  g   O2  g  
 H 2O  l  H  68.4 K .cal
2
1) -117.86 K.cal 2) -120.85 K.cal 3) -200.5K.cal
200.5K.cal 4) 94.0 K.cal

71. The decreasing order of stability of the following

following carbocations is:

1) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4 > 5 2) 3 > 2 > 5 > 4 > 1

3) 1 > 4 > 5 > 2 > 3 4) 3 > 1 = 4 > 2 = 5
72. An amount of solid NH4HS is placed in a flask at a certain temperature.
Ammonium hydrogen sulphide decomposes to yield NH3 and H2S gases in flask.
When the decomposition reaction reaches equilibrium, the total pressure of the
system is 0.84atm. The approximate equilibrium constant for NH4HS
decomposition at this temperature is
1) 0.30 2) 0.14 3) 0.17 4) 0.11
73. Which of the following
followin is not aromatic?

1) 2) 3) 4)

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CPT - 1 CODE A
CODE- XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2010.2024
74. In a system, a piston caused an expansion against an external pressure of 1.2bar
giving a change in volume of 32 L for which E  51 kJ . What was the value of
heat involved?(Take 1 Lbar = 100J)
1) -36 kJ 2) -13 kJ 3) -47.16
47.16 kJ 4) 24 kJ
75. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen will fail in the case of
1) NH 2 CONH 2 2) NH 2 CONH NH 2 .HCl
3) NH 2 NH 2 .HCl 4) C6 H 5 NHNH 2 .2HCl
76. 0.16g of methane thane was subjected to combustion at 270C in a bomb calorimeter.
The temperature of the calorimeter (including water) wasrised by 0.50C. Heat of
combustion of methane at constant volume is ____ (Heat capacity of the
calorimeter and its contents is 17.7 KJ K-1).
1) -890 KJ 2) -885 KJ 3) +890 KJ 4)+885 KJ
77. The Stationary phase in paper chromatography is
1) Solid 2) Liquid 3) Gas 4) amorphous
78. Match the following in List- List I with List – II and select the correct option.
List I
List– List- II
(A) KP = Q (I) Always non
non-spontaneous
(B)  H   ve ,  S   ve (II) Isothermal process
(C)  H   ve,  S   ve (III) System is at equilibrium
(D) q   w (IV) Spontaneous at higher temperature
`
(T>H/H/S)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) III IV I II 2) I III II IV
3) III I IV II 4) III II I IV
79. The correct decreasing order of boiling points is

(a) (b) (c)

1) a > b > c 2) b > c > a 3) a > c > b 4) c > b > a
80. For the reversible reaction,
reaction
2 A  g   B  g  
 C  g   3D  s   48 kcal
At equilibrium, formation of product (C) is favouredby
1) Low T, Low P 2) Low T, high P 3) high T, low P 4) high T, high P
81. Two hydrocarbons A and B on quantitative analysis gave the same percentage
composition by weightweight ‘A’ decolourises bromine water but ‘B’ does not. Then
‘A’and ‘B’ respectively are
1) C2 H 2 and C6 H 6 2) C6 H6 and C2 H 2 3) C2 H 4 and C6 H6 4) C 2 H 2 and C 2 H 4
82. Which of the following solution has pH<7?
1) ZnSO4 2) NaNO3 3) C6H5COONa 4) K2SO4

83.

H2 SO4 NBS
 P
 ( major )
 Q then the structure of Q is
 major 

1) 2) 3) 4)

84. The maximum number of electrons which have magnetic quantum number, m=-1
m=
1
and spin quantum number, s   in manganese (Mn)is
2
1) 3 2) 6 3) 4 4) 2

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CPT - 1 CODE A
CODE- XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.20
10.2024
85. . Identify ‘x’ from the following?

1) 2) 3) 4)

86. From the following bond energy data,

Bond Energies :
C – C  346 kJ/mol
C = C 602
602 kJ/mol
C – H413
413 kJ/mol
kJ/mo
H – H435
435 kJ/mol
The heat of following reaction is ______ kJ/mol.
H 2C  CH 2  H 2 
 H 3C  CH 3
1) +135 2) -135 3) -647 4) +647

87.

1) 2) 3) 4)

88. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1) Sn2+ compounds act as reducing agent age
2) Pb4+ compounds act as oxidizing agent
3) Oxides of Sn and Pb are amphoteric in nature.
4) Both tin and silicon decompose steam to produce SnO/SiO2 and H2.
89. C6 H 5  C  C  CH 3 
Na/liq.NH3
  x  , ‘x’ will be
1) 1-Phenyl
Phenyl propane 2) 1-Phenyl
Phenyl propyne
3) trans – 1 – Phenyl propene 4) Cis – 1 – Phenyl propene
90. Which of the following is given in wrong order?
1) B<Ga<Al<In<Tl  atomic radius
2) B>Ga>Tl>Al>In
B>Ga>Tl>Al>In first ionization energy
3) B>Al>Tl>In>Ga  melting point
4) B>Tl>In>Ga>Al  electronegativity
BIOLOGY
91. Which of the following has unevenly thick cell wall, has cell wall with cellulose,
hemicellulose and pectin and is a simple, living, primarly mechanical tissue of
the plant body.
1) Parenchyma 2) collenchyma 3) sclerenchyma 4) Aerenchyma
92. Which of the following is the correct match?
1) Gymnosperms-Cedrus,
Gymnosperms Pinus, Sequoia
2) Angiosperms--Wolffia, Eucalyptus, Sequoia
3) Bryophytes-Polytrichum,
Polytrichum, Polysiphonia, Sphagnum
4) Pteridophytes-Equisetum,
Pteridophytes Equisetum, Ginkgo, Adiantum
93. Match List-II with List-II:
List-I List-II
A. China Rose i) Free central
B. Mustard ii) Basal
C. Primrose iii) Axile
D. Marigold iv) Parietal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii,
iii, D-iv
D 2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii
ii, D-i
3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i,
i, D-ii
D 4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii,
iii, D
D-ii

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CPT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2024
94. Find the correct statement/s:
P) Non cellulosic cell wall is present in prokaryote
Q) Fungi cell wall is made up of chitin
R) Paramecium and amoeba has chloroplast
S) Anabaena and Nostoc have cell membrane
1) P, Q and R 2) Q, R and S 3) P, Q and S 4) P, R and S
95. Observe the following image and find the incorrect regarding image:

P) It is a photosynthetic autotroph Q) The cell ‘A’ involved in N2 fixation

R) It is filamentous brown algae S) Mucilagenous sheath is present
1) P and Q 2) Q and R 3) R and S 4) P and R
96. Statement-I: Sleeping sickness is caused by ciliated Trypanosoma
Statement-II: Sexual reproduction in fungi by oospores, ascospores, zoospores
and basidospores
1) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect
2) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct
3) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
4) Both Statements I and II are correct
97. Assertion (A): Basidocarps are fruiting bodies in basidomycetes fungi
Reason (R): Karyogamy and meiosis takes place in the basidium producing four
basidiospores
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true, (R) is false 4) (A) is false, (R) is true
98. Match the Column-I with Column-II and find the correct option:
Column-I Column-II
P) Virus i) Malaria
Q) Bacteria ii) Smut
R) Protozoan iii) Small pox
S) Fungi iv) Tetanus
v) Mumps
1) P-iii, Q-v, R-i, S-ii 2) P-v, Q-i, R-ii, S-iv
3) P-ii, Q-iv, R-v, S-i 4) P-v, Q-iv, R-i, S-ii
99. Find the correct statement/s:
P) Certain fresh water brown and red algae produce large amount of hydrocolloids
Q) Gelidium and Gracilaria are reproduced by motile spores
R) Archegonium is haploid structure
S) The sex organs in bryophytes are multicellular
1) P and Q 2) R and S 3) P and R 4) Q and S
100. The number of chromosomes in gemma cup cell is 14, and how many
chromosomes will be there in the first cell of gametophyte.
1) 14 2) 7 3) 28 4) 21
101. Find the correct statement regarding zygote formation in pteridophytes:
1) Fusion of motile male gamete with egg present in the archegonium
2) Fusion of motile male gamete with egg present in the antheridium
3) Fusion of non-motile male gamete with egg present in the archegonium
4) Fusion of non-motile male gamete with egg present in the antheridium
102. Assertion (A): The megaspore mother cell divides meiotically to form four diploid
megaspores
Reason (R): During meiosis single parent cell undergoes two sequential cycles of
cell divisions
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is false, (R) is true 4) (A) is true, (R) is false

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CPT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2024
103. Match the Column-I with Column-II and find the correct option:
Column-I Column-II
P) Sterile stamen i) Mustard
Q) Monoadelphous ii) Peach
R) Actinomorphic iii) Rose
S) Perigynous iv) Staminode
v) China Rose
vi) Pea
1) P-iv, Q-v, R-vi, S-iii 2) P-iv, Q-v, R-vi, S-i
3) P-iv, Q-v, R-vi, S-ii 4) A-iv, Q-v, R-i, S-ii
104. Statement-I: In Australian acacia the leaves are large and short lived
Statement-II: The petiole in Australian acacia expand become green and
synthesize food
1) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect
2) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
3) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct
4) Both Statements I and II are correct
105. Find the incorrect statement/s:
P) The region proximal to elongation zone has hairs in the root
Q) Leaves originate from the lateral meristems and arranged in an basipetal order
R) Persistent corolla can be observed in Solanaceae family
S) Mango and tomato have monocarpellary superior ovary
1) P, Q and R 2) P, Q and S 3) Q, R and S 4) P, R and S
106. Find the correct statements regarding meiosis
1) In each bivalent have eight kinetochores
2) A pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called a bivalent (or) tetrad
3) Recombination nodules appear in the next stage of pachytene
4) Crossing over is an enzyme mediated process and the enzyme is a type of
ribozyme
107. The number of chromosomes in human cell is 46 and the DNA content is 2C,
based on the above data. Find the answers for the following:
P) Number of chromosomes and DNA content at Anaphase
Q) Number of chromosomes and DNA content at Anaphase-I
R) Number of chromosomes and DNA content at Anaphase-II
1) P-92:2C, Q-46:4C, R-46:1C 2) P-92:4C, Q-46:4C, R-46.1C
3) P-46:2C, Q-92:4C, R-46:2C 4) P-92; 4C; Q-46:4C, R-46:2C
108. Refer to the given Venn diagram and identifies the A, B, C and D cell organelles:

1) A-Mitochondria, B-Lysosome, C-Nucleus, D-Chloroplast

2) A-Chloroplast, B-Mitochondria, C-Nucleus, D-Lysosome
3) A-Chloroplast, B-Mitochondria, C-Lysosome, D-Nucleus
4) A-Nucleus, B-Lysosome, C-Mitochondria, D-Chloroplast
109. Refer to the given diagram and answer the following questions:

P) The floral diagram belongs to which plant family

Q) Ornamental plant from that family
R) Position of the ovary in that family

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CPT - 1 CODE A
CODE- XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.20
10.2024
S) Type of fruit in that family
fami
1) P-Fabaceae,
Fabaceae, Q-Lupin,
Q R-Superior, S-Legume
Legume
2) P-Cruciferae,
Cruciferae, Q-Candytuft,
Q R-Inferior, S-Siliqua
Siliqua
3) P-Solnaceae,
Solnaceae, Q-Petunia,
Q R-Superior, S-Berry
Berry
4) P-Brassicaceae,
Brassicaceae, Q-Candytuft,
Q R-Superior, S--Siliqua
110. Observe the given images and find which s structure
tructure has sclerenchymatous
hypodermis and vascular cambium respectively

1) X and Y 2) Y and X 3) X and X 4) Y and Y

111. Which of the following represents the incorrect pair?

P) -Parenchyma Q) -Sclerenchyma

R) -Tracheid
Tracheid S) -Fibre
1) P and R 2) P and S 3) Q and S 4) Q and R
112. What does (i), (ii) and (iii) represent in the given flowchart?
𝑃𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙(𝑖𝑖𝑖)) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 2 𝐷𝑎𝑢𝑔ℎ𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑠(𝑖) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 4 𝐷𝑎𝑢𝑔ℎ𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑠(𝑖𝑖)
1) i-2n, ii-n, iii-n
n 2) i-n, ii-2n, iii-2n 3) i--n, ii-2n, iii-n 4) i-n, ii-n, iii-2n
2n
113. In dicot stem the vascular bundle is;
1) Conjoint, open and with exarch protoxylem
2) Conjoint, open and with endarch protoxylem
3) Conjointt and closed
4) Scattered, each surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.
114. Find the incorrect regarding bulliform cells:
P) Present in mustard leaves Q) Bulliform cells are colourless
R) These are abaxial epidermal cells
S)) They make thethe leaves curl inwards to minimize heat loss
1) P, R and S 2) P, Q and R 3) P, Q and S 4) Q, R and S
115. Which type of cell division helps in the formation of gametes from the
antheridium of bryophytes?
1) Amitosis 2) Mitosis 3) Meiosis 4) Both (2) and (3)
116. The number of chromosome in MMC (Microspore Mother Cell) cells is 24. Then
find the following things:
P) Number of bivalents at prophase-I
prophase
Q) Number of chromosomes at one pole of the Anaphase Anaphase-I
1) P-12, Q-24 2) P-24, Q-12 3) P-12,
12, QQ-12 4) P-24, Q-24
117. Where do you find the structure, which translate m m-RNA into protein
1) Nucleus 2) Lysosome 3) Mitochondria 4) Golgi complex
118. Observe the components A to D in the given diagram of flagella and
read the list-11 to 6 mentioned along
along with it and find the correct matching.

1) Plasma membrane
2) Peripheral microtubule
3) Inter Doublet Bridge
4) Central microtubule
5) Radial spoke
6) Central sheath
The correct components are

1) A-6, B-5, C-2,

2, D-1
D 2) A
A-5, B-4, C-2, D-6
3) A-2, B-3, C-4,
4, D-5
D 4) A
A-6, B-4, C-2, D-5

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CPT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2024
119. Statement-I: The interphase nucleus has highly extended and elaborate
nucleolipid fibres called chromatin
Statement-II: The transport of molecules between nucleus and cytoplasm is
carried out through the nuclear pores
1) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
2) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
3) Both Statements-I and II are correct
4) Both statements-I and II are wrong
120. Which statement best describes the enzyme represented in the graphs?

1) This enzyme works best at a temperature of 35°C and a pH of 8.

2) This enzyme works best at a temperature of 50°C and a pH of 12.
3) Temperature and pH have no effect on the action of this enzyme.
4) This enzyme works best at a temperature below 10°C and a pH above 12
121. Find the incorrect statement/s regarding GLUT-4
P) The monomers of GLUT-4 are glucose
Q) The monomers of GLUT-4 are amino acid
R) The GLUT-4 is heteropolymer
S) The GLUT-4 enables transport of pentose sugar into cells
1) P, R and S 2) Q and R 3) P and S 4) P, Q and R
122. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
1) Ribozyme-Proteinaceous in nature
2) Apoenzyme-The protein part of the Holoenzyme
3) Co-enzyme- organic compounds but their association with enzyme is only
transient.
4) Co-factors-non protein constituent of the enzymes
123. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly
matched with the category mentioned against it?
1) Adenine, Thymine-Purines 2) Thymine, Uracil-Pyrimidine
3) Uracil, Cytosine-Pyrimidine 4) Guanine, Adenine-Purine
124. Photophosphorylation in a chloroplast is most similar to which of the following
Mitochondrial reactions
1) Substrate level phosphorylation 2) Oxidative phosphorylation
3) Hydrolysis 4) EMP pathway
125. Assertion (A) :Secondary growth takes place in those stems, which are having
collenchymatous hypodermis.
Reason (R) :Lateral meristem is present in those stems.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect. 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
126. Which of the chemical compound/molecule supplies electrons continuously to
PS-II?
1) CO2 2) O2 3) H2O 4) NADPH
127. Which of the following is true for photosynthesis?
1) Reduction of CO2 and H2O
2) Oxidation of CO2 and H2O
3) Reduction of CO2 and oxidation of H2O
4) Oxidation of CO2 and reduction of H2O
128. An example of competitive inhibition is
1) Cytochrome oxidase by glucose
2) Succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
3) Hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
4) Carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

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CPT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2024
129. Which of the following group of amino acids are aromatic in nature?
1) Tyrosine : Glycine 2) Glutamic acid, Phenyl alanine
3) Tyrosine : Phenylalanine 4) Glutamic acid and glycine
130.

An organism was added to a test tube containing water, which was then sealed
and placed in sunlight. The graph shows an increase in the oxygen content of
thetest tube over a period of time. Which type of organism was most probably
added to the test tube?
1) Fresh-water animal 2) Green alga
3) Amoeba 4) Virus
131. Which of the following is correct.
1) Cells of all living organisms have a nucleus.
2) Both animal and plant cells have a well defined cell wall
3) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane bound organelles
4) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic materials
132. Which statement best describes the starch content of two leaves taken from the
same plant shown in the chart below?
Leaf A Taken from plant in the dark for 48 hours
Leaf B Taken from plant in bright light for 48 hours
1) Neither leaf contains starch
2) Both leaves contain the same amount of starch.
3) Leaf A contains more starch than leaf B
4) Leaf B contains more starch than leaf A
133. The rate of Oxygen production is enhanced when there is operation of
1) Cyclic photophosphorylation 2) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
3) Substrate level phosphorylation 4) Oxidative phosphorylation
134. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: In C4 plants, Carboxylation of PEP occurs in bundle sheath cells.
Statement-II: Decarboxylation of C4 acids occurs in mesophyll cells of C4 plants
1) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect
2) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct
3) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
4) Both Statements I and II are correct
135. Cell organelles/structures present in both animal cell and plant cell are
1) Mitochondria, Ribosome, Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies
2) Mitochondria, Chloroplast, Ribosome, Golgi bodies
3) Nucleus, Mitochondria, Centriole, Lysosome
4) Endoplasmic reticulum, Ribosome, Cell wall
136. Scientific names are printed in _____ and are derived from _____
1) Bold and English 2) Italics and Latin
3) Italics and German 4) Italics and French
137. Match the following columns.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Family (I) tuberosum
(B) Kingdom (II) Polymoniales
(C) Order (III) Solanum
(D) Species (IV) Plantae
(E)
.
Genus (V) Solanaceae
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
1) V IV II I III 2) V IV I III II
3) I II III V IV 4) II I III IV V

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CPT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2024
138. Statement -I : Thyroid gland is composed of follicles and stromal tissues
Statement - II : Stromal tissue produces T3& T4 hormones.
1) Statement-I and Statement-II are false
2) Statement-I and Statement-II are true
3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
139. Select the odd one with respect to mode of fertilization.
1) Cockroach 2)Echinus 3) Frog 4) Saccoglossus
140. Assertion : First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs.
Reason : These ribs are not connected ventrally to the sternum.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation
of the Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not correct explanation
of the Assertion
3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false 4) Assertion is false and Reason is true
141. Statement – I : Inspiration takes place when intrapulmonary pressure is
negative .
Statement – II : Expiration takes place when intrapulmonary pressure is
positive.
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
142. Read following statements. Pick the correct option.
A) All voluntary muscles are striated.
B) The external genitalia of male cockroach are chitinous symmetrical structures.
surrounding the male gonopore.
C) Steroid hormones interact with intracellular receptors.
D) Vasa efferentia of male frog open into Bidder’s canal.
1) A, B, C, D are true 2) A, B, C are true
3) A, B, D are true 4) A, C, D are true
143. Reduction of thoracic volume can be brought about by
1) Relaxation of diaphragm and contraction of external intercostal muscle.
2) Contraction of diaphragm and relaxation of external intercostal muscle
3) Relaxation of diaphragm and relaxation of external intercostal muscle.
4) Contraction of diaphragm and contraction of external intercostal muscle.
144. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration.
1) Expiratory capacity 2) Expiratory Reserve Volume
3) Vital capacity 4) Functional Residual volume
145. CO2 binds with haemoglobin more strongly if
1) pCO2 is high, pO2 is low in tissue 2) pCO2 is high and pO2 is low in alveoli.
3) pCO2 is high and pO2 is high in tissue
4) pCO2 is low and pO2 is high in alveoli.
146. Percentage of CO2 transported by RBC, plasma and in the form of bicarbonate
respectively are
1) 20 -25, 70, 7 2) 70,7,20 – 25 3) 20 – 25, 7, 70 4) 70, 20 – 25, 7
147. Corpus luteum is a ______
1) Ketone body 2) Primary female sex organ
3) Exocrine gland
4) Converted structure from ruptured Graffian follicle after ovulation in ovary
148. Statement – I: Adipose tissues are specialised to storefats.
Statement – II:The extra nutrients, which are not usedimmediately by the body
get converted into fats.
1)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.

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CPT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2024
149. Match the following columns.
Column – I Column – II
(Disorders) (Features)
(A) Myasthenia gravis (I) Degeneration of skeletal muscles
(B) Muscular dystrophy (II) Neuromuscualr junction affected
(C) Tetany (III) Low Ca2+ in body fluid
.
(D) Arthritis (IV) Inflammation of joints
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) IV II III I 2) I III IV II
3) III IV I II 4) II I III IV
150. Which of the following organs perform dual functions as primary sex organ and
also as endocrine gland?
1) Ovary and testis 2) Pancreas, testis and ovary
3) Adrenal cortex, ovary and testis 4) Adrenal gland, Hypothalamus
151. Which of the following is uricotelic?
1) Aquatic amphibian 2) Land snail
3) Mammal 4) Bony fish
152. The average amount of blood filtered by kidneys is
1) 1100 – 1200 ml / minute 2) 1100 – 1200 ml / sec
3) 100 – 125 ml / sec 4) 1100 – 1200 ml / hour
153. Juxtaglomerular apparatus is formed by cellular modifications in the _____ at the
locationof their contact.
1) DCT and afferent arteriole 2) PCT and DCT
3) Loop of Henle and DCT 4) DCT and efferent arteriole
154. Ocellus is a term associated with
1) Hydra 2) Earthworm 3) Cockroach 4) Star fish
155. Which of the following is not seen in Hemichordates?
1) Collar 2) Stomochord 3) Rudimentary notochord 4) Proboscis gland
156. Match the following columns.
Column – I Column – II
(Parts) (Description)
(A) Hypostome (I) Rasping organ for feeding in Pila
(B) Muscular pharynx (II) Present in Aschelminthes
(C) Radula (III) The oral tip bearing mouth in
Hydra
(D)
.
Malpighian tubules (IV) Excretory organs in cockroach
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) III II I IV 2) IV III II I
3) II I IV III 4) III IV II I
157. Select the incorrect statement:
1) Number of mitochondria are few in white fibres.
2) Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is high in white fibres
3) Red fibre depend on anaerobic process for energy.
4) Amount of myoglobin in red fibre is high.
158. FSH plays an important role in males for ________
1) Smooth muscle contraction
2) Development of secondary sexual characters
3) Spermatogenesis 4) Control of blood sugar.
159. Match the following:
Column – I Column - II
(A) Eosinophils (I) Contraction of heart
(B) RBCs (II) Gases transport
(C) AB blood group (III) Universal recipient
(D) Platelets (IV) Coagulation
(E).
Systole (V) Resist infections
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
1) V II III IV I 2) III V II I IV
3) V IV III I II 4) II III I IV V

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CPT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2024
160. ECG depicts the depolarisation and repolarisationprocesses during the cardiac
cycle. In the ECG of anormal/healthy individual, one of the followingwaves is not
represented.
1) Depolarisation of atria 2) Repolarisation of atria
3) Depolarisation of ventricles 4) Repolarisation of ventricles
161. Study the following statemetns and choose the correct option.
I) Reabsorption is minimum in ascending limb of Loop of Henle
II) Large amount of water can be reabsorbed from collecting duct
III) The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called podocytes are arranged in an
intricate manner to form slit pores.
1) T F F 2) F F T 3) F T F 4) T T T
162. The pulmonary circulation is present between:
1) Right ventricle to left ventricle 2) Left ventricle to right atrium
3) Right ventricle to left atrium 4) Right ventricle to right atrium
163. Which of the following is not reabsorbed actively in nephron?
1) Glucose 2) Na+ 3) Amino acid 4) Nitrogenous wastes
164. Match the following columns:
Column – I Column – II
(Animals) (Common names)
(A) Chelone (I) Wall lizard
(B) Bangarus (II) Viper
(C) Calotes (III) Krait
(D) Hemidactylus (IV) Garden lizard
.
(V) Turtle
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) III II I VI 2) V III IV I
3) V IV I II 4) II V I III
165. The active binding sites for myosin on actin filamentare masked by
1) Ca2+ions 2) troponin 3) F-actin 4) Actomyosin
166. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding chemical synapse?
I. Synapse is a junction between axon endings of one nerve fibre and dendrite of
the other.
II. At a synapse, the membrane of axon and dendrite are not in physical contact
with each other.
III. Transmission of nerve impulse through synapse is only one way.
IV. Neurotransmitter is always released from axon endings and not by dendrites.
Select the correct option.
1) Only IV 2) Only I 3) I, II and III only 4) All of these
167. Which of the following statements is/are correct about resting state in neuron
I. Neuron is not conducting any impulse.
II. Plasma membrane is electrically positive outside and negative inside.
III. When nerve fibre is stimulated it conduct mechanical or electrical impulse.
IV. Plasma membrane is negative outside and positive inside.
The correct option is
1) III and IV only 2) I and IV only 3) II and III only 4) I and II only
168. Read the following statements. Pick the correct option.
A) Chordae tendinae connect the atrio- ventricular valves with the walls of
ventricles.
B) The atrial systole initiates the flow of blood into the ventricles by about 30 per
cent.
C) Blood from the glomerulus is carried away by an afferent arteriole.
D) Normal activities of heart are regulated extrinsically.
1) A,B and D are true 2) A, C and D are false
3) B, C and D are false 4) Only C, D are false
169. The Sino-atrial node is the pacemaker of the human heart because:
1) It is located in the right atrium
2) It is the only part of the conducting system that can generates impulse
3) It is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity
of the heart.
4) It produces action potentials that are more in size than the other parts of the
conducting system.

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CPT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2024
170. Assertion (A): Thrombocyte mother cells are produced from blood.
Reason (R): The leucocytes that are least in count are involved in resisting
infections.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct and R is incorrect. 4) Both A and R are incorrect
171. Match the Column I (the parts of the human brain) with Column II (their
functions) and identify thecorrect choice from the given option
Column – I Column – II
(Parts of brain) (Functions)
(A) Cerebrum (I) Controls the pituitary
(B) Cerebellum (II) Controls vision and hearing
(C) Hypothalamus (III) Maintains body posture
(D)
.
Midbrain (IV) Site of intelligence
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) III IV II I 2) IV III II I
3) II IV I III 4) IV III I II
172. Assertion (A) Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present only in heart.
Reason (R) Cardiac muscle tissue provided with intervertebral discs.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct and R is incorrect. 4) Both A and R are incorrect.
173. Match the following columns.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Flame cells (I) Euspongia
(B) Water canal system (II) Sea – cucumber
(C) Mantle (III) Liver fluke
. .
(D) Water vascular system (IV) Sea hare
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) II I III IV 2) III I IV II
3) II III IV I 4) III I II IV
174. Select how many of the following statement(s)is(are) incorrect?
I) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th abdominal segment of female
cockroach.
II) Opaque and leathery metathoracic tegmina of Cockroach cover the transparent
wings.
III) Chemical coordination in frog is achieved by its endocrine system
IV) Copulatory pad present on hindlimbs of frogs are involved in sexual
reproduction.
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
175. Statement – I: GnRH stimulates the pituitary, synthesis and release of
gonadotrophins. ‘
Statement – II: Hypothalamic hormones regulate the synthesis and secretion of
pituitary hormones.
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
176. Which of the following statements is correct inrelation to the endocrine system?
1) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus
2) Organs in the body like gastro-intestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not
produce any hormones
3) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as
intercellular messengers are knownas hormones
4) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland

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CPT - 1 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-13.10.2024
177. Match the following columns.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Adrenaline (I) Myxoedema
(B) Hyperparathyroidism (II) Accelerates heartbeat
(C) Oxytocin (III) Salt-water balance
(D) Hypothyroidism (IV) Childbirth
(E)
.
Aldosterone (V) Demineralisation
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
1) IV II III I V 2) V IV III I II
3) II V IV I III 4) II V III I IV
178. The human ribs are termed as bicephalic because
1) They have two articulation surfaces on their ventral end
2) They have two articulation surfaces on their dorsal end
3) They have two articulation surfaces on their ventral end and two on dorsal end
4) They have two articulation surfaces on their ventral end and one on dorsal end
179. Match the following :
Column – I Column - II
(A) Ball and socket joint (I) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb .
(B) Hinge joint (II) Between atlas and axis
(C) Pivot joint (III) Knee joint
(D) Saddle joint (IV) Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) I II III IV 2) IV III II I
3) II III I IV 4) III II IV I
180. Select the number of correct statements from the statements given below.
a) Muscle fibre is the structural unit of muscle
b) The sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach is mouth,
pharynx, oesophagus, crop, gizzard, midgut, hindgut and anus.
c) The proximity between the Henle’s loop and vasa recta, as well as the counter
current in them help in maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the inner
medullary interestitium.
d) The filtrate in renal tubule gets concentrated in the descending limb and
diluted in the ascending limb of Loop of Henle.
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four

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