(AITS)

Test
Complete syllabus (11th+ 12th)
Full Length
Date : --/--/--- Duration : 3 Hours 20 Mins M.Marks : 720

Physics :Complete Syllabus

Chemistry : Complete Syllabus

Botany : Complete Syllabus

Zoology : Complete Syllabus

Instructions
1. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
2. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum mark is 720.
3. There are four Sections in the Question Paper, Sections I, II, III, and IV consisting of
Section I (Physics), Section II (Chemistry), Section III (Botany) and Section IV
(Zoology) have 50 Questions in each Subject and each subject is divided into two
Sections,
Section A consists of 35 questions (all questions compulsory) and Section B
consists of 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
4. There is only one correct response for each question.
5. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong
MCQ response.
6. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed, or written, bits of paper,
pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. Inside the examination room/hall.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the Candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.

1
 Physics
SECTION – A

1. An electron is in equilibrium 6. The equation of a transverse wave is

between two horizontal plates of a given by 𝑦 = 10 sin 𝜋(0.01 𝑥 − 2𝑡)
charged capacitor. If the plates are Where 𝑥 and y are in cm and t is in
interchanged in position. It means second. Its frequency is
electric field is reversed then the (1) 10 𝑠𝑒𝑐 −1
acceleration of the electron will be: - (2) 2 𝑠𝑒𝑐 −1
(1) Details are not complete (3) 1𝑠𝑒𝑐 −1
(2) g (4) 0.01 𝑠𝑒𝑐 −1
(3) 2𝑔
𝑔
(4) 2 7. A square of side ℓ meters lies in the
𝑥 − 𝑦 plane in a region, where the
2. If h is Planck’s constant, the magnetic field is given by 𝐵 =
momentum of a photon of (𝑎𝑖̂ + 𝑏𝑗̂ + 𝑐𝑘̂ )𝑇. Where 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 are
wavelength 0.01 Å is: - constant.
(1) 10−2 ℎ The magnitude of flux in Wb passing
(2) ℎ through the square is.
(3) 102 ℎ (1) ℓ2 𝑏
(4) 1012 ℎ (2) ℓ2 √𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 + 𝑐 2
3. After absorbing a slowly moving (3) ℓ2 𝑎
neutron of mass 𝑚𝑁 (momentum ~0) (4) ℓ2 𝑐
a nucleus of mass M breaks into two
nuclei of masses 𝑚1 and 3𝑚1 (4𝑚1 = 8. In a Young’s double slit experiment,
𝑀 + 𝑚𝑁 ) . Respectively. If the de 16 fringes are observed in a certain
Broglie wavelength of the nucleus segment of the screen when light of
with mass 𝑚1 is 𝜆, then de Broglie wavelength 700 nm is used. If the
wavelength of the other nucleus will wavelength of light is change to 400
be: - nm, the number of fringes observed
(1) 9𝜆 in the same segment of the screen
(2) 3𝜆 would be
(3)
𝜆 (1) 24
3 (2) 28
(4) 𝜆
(3) 30
4. The radius of electron’s second (4) 18
stationary orbit in Bohar’s atom is R.
The radius of 3rd orbit will be 9. For a simple harmonic motion a
𝑅
(1) 3 mass spring system shown, the
surface is frictionless. When the
(2) 𝑅
mass of the block is 1kg, the angular
(3) 2.25 𝑅
frequency is 𝜔1 . When the mass
(4) 3𝑅
block is 2kg the angular frequency is
5. Two identical particles move towards
𝜔2 . The ratio 𝜔2 /𝜔1 is
each other with velocity 2v and v
respectively. The velocity of center of
mass is
(1) v
(2) v/3
(3) v/2
(4) zero.

2
 (1) √2 angle with the vertical must he
1
(2) 2 thrown the ball so that it hits the
farthest point on the ground.
(3) 2 (1) 45°
1
(4) (2) 30°
√2
(3) 60°
10. At 10°𝐶 the value of the density of a (4) 15°
fixed mass of an ideal gas divided by
its pressure is 𝑥. At 110°𝐶 this ratio 15. A vertical electric field of magnitude
is 4.9 × 105 𝑁/𝐶 just prevents a water
(1)
10
𝑥 droplet of a mass 0.1 g from falling.
110
283 The value of charge on the droplet
(2) 𝑥 will be
383
(3) 𝑥 (1) 1.6 × 10−9 𝐶
383
(4) 𝑥 (2) 2.0 × 10−9 𝐶
283
(3) 3.2 × 10−9 𝐶
11. Two identical metal wire of thermal (4) 0.5 × 10−9 𝐶
conductivities 𝐾1 and 𝐾2 respectively
are connected in series. The effective 16. The equivalent capacitance between
thermal conductivity of the A and B of the combination shown is
combination is
𝐾1 +𝐾2
(1) 2𝐾 𝐾 1 2
2𝐾1 𝐾2
(2) 𝐾1+ 𝐾2
𝐾1 𝐾2
(3)
𝐾1+ 𝐾2
𝐾1 +𝐾2
(4) 𝐾1 𝐾2 𝐶
(1) 2
5
12. For the circuit shown here, the (2) 𝑐
3
current through the Zener diode is (3) 2𝐶
(4) 4𝐶

17. The value of tension in a long thin

metal wire has been changed from 𝑇1
to 𝑇2 . The lengths of the metal wire
at two different values of tension 𝑇1
(1) Zero
and 𝑇2 and 𝑙1 and 𝑙2 respectively. The
(2) 5 mA
actual length of the metal wire is
(3) 9 mA
(1) √𝑇1 𝑇2 𝑙1 𝑙2
(4) 14 mA 𝑙1 +𝑙2
(2) 2
13. When vector 𝐴⃗ = 2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂ is (3)
𝑇1 𝑙2 −𝑇2 𝑙1
𝑇1 −𝑇2
subtracted from vector 𝐵 ⃗⃗ , it gives a 𝑇1 𝑙1 −𝑇2 𝑙2
vector equal to 2𝑖̂ . Then the (4) 𝑇1 −𝑇2
⃗⃗ will be
magnitude of vector 𝐵
(1) 3 18. A hydraulic automobile lift is
(2) √6 designed to lift vehicles or mass 500
kg. The are of cross – section of the
(3) √13
cylinder carrying the load is 250
(4) √33 𝑐𝑚2 . The maximum pressure the
smaller piston would have to bear is
14. A boy while playing in the ground
[Assume 𝑔 = 10 𝑚/𝑠 2 ].
throws a ball with speed 𝑣. At what
(1) 2 × 10+6 𝑃𝑎

3
 (2) 20 × 10+6 𝑃𝑎 (3) 𝐶𝑉 2
1
(3) 2 × 10+5 𝑃𝑎 (4) 𝐶𝑉 2
2𝑛
(4) 200 × 10+6 𝑃𝑎
24. If two streams of protons move
19. Consider a solid sphere of radius R parallel to each other in the same
and mass density direction, then they
𝑟2 (1) Do not exert any force on each
𝜌(𝑟) = 𝜌0 (1 − 𝑅2 ) , 0 < 𝑟 ≤ 𝑅. The
other
minimum density of a liquid in (2) Repel each other
which it will float is (3) Attract each other
2𝜌
(1) 5 0 (4) Get rotated to be perpendicular
(2)
𝜌0 to each other
5
2𝜌0
(3) 25. Two bodies of mass 1kg and 3kg
3
(4)
𝜌0 have position vectors (𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ ) and
3 ( 3𝑖̂ − 2𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ ) respectively. The
magnitude of position vector of
20. When two soap bubble of radii 𝑎 and
center of mass of this system will be
𝑏 (𝑏 > 𝑎) coalesce, the radius of
similar to the magnitude of vector
curvature of common surface is
𝑎𝑏 (1) 𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂
(1) 𝑎+𝑏
(2) −3𝑖̂ − 2𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂
𝑎𝑏
(2) 𝑏−𝑎
(3) −2𝑖̂ + 2𝑘̂
(3)
𝑎+𝑏 (4) −2𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂
𝑎𝑏
𝑏−𝑎
(4) 𝑎𝑏 26. Four physical quantities are listed in
Column I. Their values are listed in
21. Which of the following statements Column II in a random order
about an inelastic oblique collision is Match the columns correctly.
correct Column I Column ii
(1) total momentum of the system (a) Thermal energy (p) 0.02 𝑒𝑉
along the line of collision is of air
conserved molecules at
(2) total momentum of the system room
perpendicular to the line of temperature
collision is conserved (b) Binding energy (q) 2 𝑒𝑉
(3) system loses energy during the of heavy nuclei
collision per nucleon.
(4) all the above statements are true (c) X- ray photon (r) 1 𝑘𝑒𝑉
energy
22. A sheet of aluminum foil of negligible (d) Photon energy (s) 7 𝑀𝑒𝑉
thickness is introduced between the of visible light
plates of a capacitor. The (1) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s
capacitance of the capacitor (2) a-s, b-q, c-r, d-p
(1) decreases (3) a-p, b-s, c-r, d-q
(2) remains unchanged (4) a-p, b-r, c-s, d-q
(3) becomes infinite
(4) increases
27. Mass difference in a nuclear fission
23. If there are 𝑛 capacitors in parallel radioactive decay is 0.0044amu.
connected to V volt source, then the Energy released in the process is
energy stored is equal to (1) 3 MeV
(1) 𝐶𝑉 (2) 2 MeV
1
(2) 2
𝑛𝐶𝑉 2 (3) 4 MeV

4
 (4) 1 MeV respectively, (𝜃2 > 𝜃1 ). The
temperature at the interface is
28. A photoelectric surface is
illuminated successively by
monochromatic light of wavelengths
𝜆 and 𝜆/2 . If the maximum kinetic
energy of the emitted photoelectrons
in the second case is 3 times that in (1)
𝜃1 9𝜃
+ 102
the first case, the work function of 10
𝜃1 5𝜃
the surface is (2) 6
+ 62
ℎ𝑐 𝜃2 +𝜃1
(1) 2𝜆 (3) 2
ℎ𝑐 𝜃1 2𝜃
(2) 𝜆 (4) + 2
3 3
ℎ𝑐
(3) 3𝜆
3ℎ𝑐 31. The least count of a vernier caliper
(4) is____
𝜆
(1) 1 mm
29. A vessel containing water is given a (2) 0.1mm
constant acceleration ‘a’ towards the (3) 0.001 mm
right along a straight horizontal (4) 10 mm
path. Which of the following
diagrams in fig, represent the 32. Zero error is given by the
surface of the liquid? formula____.
(1) Actual reading = Main scale –
(1) Vernier scale + (Zero error)
(2) Actual reading = Main scale +
Vernier scale – (Zero error)
(3) Actual reading = Main scale +
Vernier scale + (Zero error)
(4) Actual reading = Main scale -
(2) Vernier scale – (Zero error)
33. The core of transformer is laminated
so as to
(1) reduce the energy loss due to
eddy currents.
(2) make it light weight.
(3) make it robust and strong
(3) (4) increase the secondary voltage.

34. The momentum of an electron

revolving in 𝑛𝑡ℎ orbit is given by
(Symbols have their usual meanings)
𝑛ℎ
(1) 2𝜋𝑟
𝑛ℎ
(2) 2𝑟
(4) none of these 𝑛ℎ
(3) 2𝜋
30. Two materials having coefficients of (4)
2𝜋𝑟
𝑛ℎ
thermal conductivity ‘3K’ and ‘K’ and
thickness ‘d’ and ‘3d’, respectively, 35. Calorie is defined as the amount of
are joined to form a slab as shown in heat required to raise temperature of
the figure. The temperatures of the 1g of water by 1°𝐶 and it is defined
outer surfaces are ‘𝜃2 ’ and ‘𝜃1 ’

5
 under which of the following value, when a solenoid of resistance
conditions? R, inductance L is connected to a
(1) From 14.5°𝐶 to 15.5°𝐶 at 760 mm battery, is
𝐿
of Hg (1) 𝑅 𝐼𝑛 2
(2) From 98.5°𝐶 to 99.5°𝐶 at 760 mm 𝐿
(2) 𝐼𝑛 5
of Hg 𝑅
𝐿
(3) From 13.5°𝐶 to 14.5°𝐶 at 76 mm (3) 𝐼𝑛 10
𝑅
of Hg (4) infinite
(4) From 3.5°𝐶 to 4.5°𝐶 at 76 mm of
Hg 40. As shown in figure, a 70 kg garden
roller is pushed with a force of
SECTION – B 𝐹⃗ = 200𝑁 at an angle of 30° with
horizontal. The normal reaction on
36. A bullet of mass 200g having initial the roller is
kinetic energy 90 J is shot inside a (Given, 𝑔 = 10 𝑚 𝑠 −2 )
long swimming pool .Its kinetic
energy reduces to 40 J within 1 s,
the minimum length of the pool, the
bullet has to travel so that it
completely comes to rest is
(1) 45 m
(2) 90 m
(3) 125 m (1) 800 N
(4) 25 m (2) 600 N
(3) 200√3𝑁
37. The dipole moment of a circular loop (4) 800√2𝑁
carrying current I is m and the
magnetic field at the center at the 41. A source supplies heat to a system
loop is 𝐵1 . When the dipole moment at the rate of 1000 W. If the system
is doubled by keeping the current performs work at a rate of 200W.
constant, the magnetic field at the The rate at which internal energy of
center of the loop is 𝐵2 . The ratio of the system increases is
𝐵1 /𝐵2 is (1) 600 W
(1) 2 (2) 800 W
(2) √3 (3) 1200 W
(3) √2 (4) 500 W
(4) 1/√2 42. A gas is compressed adiabatically,
which one of the following
38. A vessel of depth 𝑥 is half filled with statements is NOT true.
oil of refractive index 𝜇1 and the (1) There is no heat supplied to the
other half is filled with water of system.
refractive index 𝜇2 . The apparent (2) There is no change in the
depth of the vessel when viewed from internal energy.
above is
𝑥(𝜇1 +𝜇2 )
(3) The temperature of the gas
(1) 2𝜇1 𝜇2 increases.
(2)
𝑥𝜇1 𝜇2 (4) The change in the internal
2(𝜇1 +𝜇2 )
𝑥𝜇1 𝜇2 energy is equal to the work done
(3) on the gas.
(𝜇1 +𝜇2 )

(4)
2𝑥(𝜇1 +𝜇2 ) 43. The distance travelled by a particle
𝜇1 𝜇2
is related to time 𝑡 as 𝑥 = 4𝑡 2 . The
velocity of the particle at 𝑡 = 5𝑠 is
39. The time taken for the magnetic
(1) 8 𝑚 𝑠 −1
energy to reach 25% of its maximum

6
 (2) 20 𝑚 𝑠 −1 (3)
𝑊
91
(3) 25 𝑚 𝑠 −1 𝑊
(4)
(4) 40 𝑚 𝑠 −1 9

44. Three charges +𝑄, 𝑞, +𝑄 are placed 48. The value of I in the figure shown
respectively, at distance, 0, d/2 and below is
d from the origin, on the x-axis. If
the net force experienced by +𝑄,
placed at 𝑥 = 0, is zero, then value of
𝑞 is
(1) +𝑄/4
(2) −𝑄/2
(3) +𝑄/2
(4) −𝑄/4
45. If the length of a wire is made double
and radius is halved of its respective (1) 21A
values. Then, the Young’s modulus (2) 4A
of the material of the wire will (3) 8A
(1) remain same (4) 19A
(2) become 8 times its initial value
1
(3) become 𝑡ℎ of its initial value 49. Rectilinear propagation of light
4
(4) become 4 times its initial value means
(1) Light travels in straight lines
46. A force 𝐹⃗ = 2𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 3𝑘̂ 𝑁 acts a point (2) Light travels in curved path
4𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂ 𝑚. The magnitude of the (3) Light travels in zig-zag path
torque about the point (𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ )𝑚 (4) Light travels as a wave
is √𝑥𝑁 − 𝑚. The value of 𝑥 is
(1) 145 50. The angle of prism is 60° and angle
(2) 195 of deviation is 30° In the position of
(3) 245 minimum deviation, the values of
(4) 295 angle of incidence and angle of
emergence are:
(1) 𝑖 = 45°; 𝑒 = 50°
47. A body weight W, is projected (2) 𝑖 = 30°; 𝑒 = 45°
vertically upwards from earth’s (3) 𝑖 = 45°; 𝑒 = 45°
surface to reach a height above the (4) 𝑖 = 30°; 𝑒 = 30°
earth which is equal to nine times
the radius of earth. The wight of the
body at that height will be
𝑊
(1) 100
𝑊
(2) 3

7
 Chemistry
SECTION – A

51. Which pair of ions is colourless? (3) –0.177 V

(1) Mn2+, Zn2+ (4) 0.059 V
(2) Fe3+, Cr+
56. The correct order of energy of
(3) Zn2+, Sc3+
absorption in the visible region for
(4) Ti2+, Cu2+
the complexes-
52. The rate of the reaction, 2𝑁𝑂 + 𝐶𝑙2 → (A) [Fe(NO2 )6 ]4−
2𝑁𝑂𝐶𝑙 is given by the rate equation
(B) [Fe(CN)6 ]4−
rate = 𝑘[𝑁𝑂]2 [𝐶𝑙2 ]. The value of the
rate constant can be increased by (C) [Fe(H2 O)6 ]+2
(1) Increasing the temperature (1) B<A<C
(2) Increasing the concentration of (2) C<A<B
NO (3) A<B<C
(3) Increasing the concentration of (4) C<B<A
the 𝐶𝑙2
(4) Doing all of these 57. Best method for preparing primary
53. The increasing order of reactivity of amines from alkyl halides without
the following compounds towards changing the number of carbon
aromatic electrophilic substitution atoms in the chain is
reaction is: (1) Hofmann bromamide reaction
(2) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
(3) Sandmeyer reaction
(4) Reaction with NH3

58. Phenyl isocyanides are prepared by

(1) D<A<C<B which the following reaction?
(2) B<C<A<D (1) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(3) A<B<C<D (2) Carbylamine reaction
(4) D<B<A<C (3) Rosenmund’s reaction
(4) Wurtz reaction
54. Which of the following reactions
would not produce saturated 59. Assertion: Be and Al show diagonal
hydrocarbon as a major product? relationship.
ether
(1) CH3 CH2 Br + Na → Reason: Be and Al are diagonal to
Zn(Hg)/HCl,∆ each other in the periodic table.
(2) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝐶𝐻3 →
N2 H4 /KOH (1) If both Assertion and Reason are
(3) CH3 CHO → correct and the Reason is a
LiAIH4
(4) CH3 COOCH3 → correct explanation of the
Assertion.
55. The hydrogen electrode is dipped in
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are
a solution of pH = 3 at 25℃ . The
correct but Reason is NOT a
reduction potential of the electrode
correct explanation of the
would be
Assertion.
(1) 0.177 V
(3) If the Assertion is correct but
(2) 0.087 V
Reason is incorrect.

8
 (4) If the Assertion is incorrect and (1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
Reason is correct. (2) 1s2 2s2 2p5
60. iso electronic pairs are: (3) 1s2 2s2 2p6
(1) CO and NO (4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
(2) CO and CN − 66. Which of the following species is not
(3) CO2 and NO2 a resonance form of the following
(4) BN and SiC species?
61. The correct increasing order of
stability of +1 oxidation state:
(1) Tl > In > Ga > Al
(2) Ga < In < Al < Tl
(1)
(3) Al < Ga < In < Tl
(4) Tl < In < Ga < Al
62. The reaction quotient (Q) for the
(2)
reaction 𝑁2 (𝑔) + 3𝐻2 (𝑔) ⇌ 2𝑁𝐻3 (𝑔) is
[𝑁𝐻3 ]2
given by 𝑄 = [𝑁 3 . The reaction
2 ][𝐻2 ]
will proceed from right to left if
(3)
(1) 𝑄 = 𝐾𝑐
(2) 𝑄 < 𝐾𝑐
(3) 𝑄 > 𝐾𝑐
(4) 𝑄 = 0 (4)

63. Solution of 0.1 N NH4 OH and

0.1 N NH4 Cl has pH 9.25. Then find
out pK b of NH4 OH 67. When K2Cr2O7 crystals are heated
(1) 9.25 with conc. HCl, the gas evolved is:
(2) 4.75 (1) O2
(3) 3.75 (2) Cl2
(4) 8.25 (3) CrO2Cl
(4) HCl
64. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: NH3 and NF3 molecule 68. How many g of dibasic acid (mol.
have pyramidal shape. weight 200) should be present in
Statement II: The resultant dipole 100 ml. of the aqueous solution to
moment of NH3 is greater than that give a strength of 0.1 N?
of NF3. (1) 10 g
(1) Both Statement I and Statement (2) 2 g
II are incorrect. (3) 1 g
(2) Statement I is correct but (4) 20 g
Statement II is incorrect. 69. Assertion: Meso-tartaric acid is
(3) Statement I is incorrect but optically inactive.
Statement II is correct. Reason: Meso-tartaric acid contains
(4) Both Statement I and Statement two asymmetrical carbon atoms
II are correct. (1) If both Assertion and Reason are
65. The maximum ionization energy correct and the Reason is a
correct explanation of the
would be associated with the
Assertion.
electronic configuration:

9
 (2) If both Assertion and Reason are Linus Law of
correct but Reason is NOT a D. 4.
Pauling octaves
correct explanation of the
Assertion. E. Newland 5. Periodic table
(3) If the Assertion is correct but
Reason is incorrect. (1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1, E-5
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and (2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5
Reason is correct. (3) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-4
(4) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-1

73. What is the maximum number of

70. orbitals that can be identified with
the following quantum numbers? 𝑛 =
3, 𝑙 = 1, 𝑚 = 0
The compound A is (1) 1
(2) 2
(1) (3) 3
(4) 4
74. Which of the following reactions
would give the best yield?
(2)
(1)

(3) (2)

(3)

(4)
(4)

71. The ion that cannot be precipitated

by H2S and HCl is:
75. The complex compound in which
(1) Pb2+
metal is not present in zero oxidation
(2) Cu2+ state?
(3) Ag+ (1) Mn2(CO)10
(2) [Ni(CO)4]
(4) Ni2+
(3) [Cr(C6H6)2]
72. Match the entries in Column I with (4) K[PtCl3(C2H4)]
those in Column II. 76. The energy of second Bohr orbit of
Column I Column II the hydrogen atom is –328 kJ 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1,
Electro hence the energy of fourth Bohr orbit
would be
A. Dobereiner 1. negativity
(1) −41 𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
scale (2) −1312 𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
Long form of (3) −164 𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
B. Mendeleev 2. (4) −82 𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
periodic table
C. Neils Bohr 3. Law of triads

10
77. Mark the correct increasing order of 81. If the enthalpy change for the
reactivity of the following compounds transition of liquid water to steam is
with HBr/HCl. 30 kJ mol−1 at 27℃ , the entropy
change for the process would be
(1) 100 𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝐾 −1
(2) 10 𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝐾 −1
(3) 1.0 𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝐾 −1
(4) 0.1 𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝐾 −1
82. The maximum number of molecules
(1) I < II < III is present in
(2) II < I < III (1) 15 L of water at STP
(3) II <III< I (2) 15 L of 𝐻2 𝑂 gas at STP
(4) III < II < I (3) 15 g of ice
(4) Same in all
83. Which of the following oxides of
78. chromium is amphoteric in nature?
(1) CrO
(2) Cr2O3
(3) CrO3
(4) CrO5
Identify ‘X’
84. Assertion: Equivalent weight of
(1) 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 in acidic medium is
𝑀
.
5
Reason: In acidic medium 1 mol of
(2) 𝑀𝑛𝑂4− gains 5 electrons.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are
correct and the Reason is a
(3) correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are
(4) correct but Reason is NOT a
correct explanation of the
79. Saponification of ethyl benzoate with Assertion.
caustic soda as alkali gives (3) If the Assertion is correct but
(1) Benzyl alcohol and ethanoic acid Reason is incorrect.
(2) Sodium benzoate and ethanol (4) If the Assertion is incorrect and
(3) Benzoic acid and sodium Reason is correct.
ethoxide 85. Which statement is wrong about pH?
(4) Phenol and ethanoic acid
(1) pH of pure water is not zero
80. The work done in an open vessel at
300 K, when 112 g iron reacts with (2) Adding 1 N, solution of 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻
dil. HCl to give FeCl2, is nearly and 1 N NaOH pH will be seven
(1) 1.2 kcal (3) pH of dilute and hot 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 is less
(2) 0.6 kcal than 7
(3) 0.3 kcal (4) Mixing solution of 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 and
(4) 0.2 kcal 𝐻𝐶𝑙, pH will be less than 7

11
 SECTION – B (1) 7.5 min
(2) 15 min
86. The correct order of reactivity of
(3) 22.5 min
PhMgBr with the following
(4) 30 min
compounds is
90. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in
the group from fluorine to iodine.
Which of the halogen acids should
have highest acidic strength?
(1) HF
(1) I > II > III (2) HCl
(2) III > II > I (3) HBr
(3) II > III > I (4) HI
(4) I > III > II
91. Which of the following is formed
87. Assertion: For equilibrium Ice ⇌ when 3-methyl-cyclopentanone
water, on increasing temperature reacts with hydroxylamine?
and pressure more of water will
form. (1)
Reason: Forward reaction is
endothermic and volume decreases
on product side. (2)
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are
correct and the Reason is a
correct explanation of the (3)
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are
correct but Reason is NOT a
correct explanation of the (4)
Assertion.
(3) If the Assertion is correct but
Reason is incorrect. 92. The complex, [Co(en)3][Cr(CN)6] and
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and [Cr(en)3][Co(CN)6] are the examples
Reason is correct. of:
(1) Linkage isomerism
88. What is the product of the following
reaction? (2) Co-ordination isomerism
1 .NaNH2 (3) Hydrated isomerism
→ ? (4) None
2. Pentyl Chloride
NaCl + NH3 93. The variation of equivalent
conductance of strong electrolyte
(1) with concentration is correctly
shown in which figure
(2)
(3)
(1)
(4)

89. The half life time of 2g sample of

radioactive nuclide ‘X’ is 15 min. The
half life time of 1g sample of X is

12
 (4) (A) and (B) only
97. The osmotic pressure of decimolar
(2) solution of urea at 27℃ is
(1) 2.49 bar
(2) 5.0 bar
(3) 3.4 bar
(4) 1.25 bar
(3)
98. Which of these reactions will not
produce a 1° alcohol?
1.LiAIH4 Et2 O
(1) (CH3 )2 CHCH2 CH2 CHO →
2.H3 O+

(4) (2)

94. 100 ml of 1 M NaOH is mixed with

(3)
50 ml of 1 N KOH solution.
Normality of mixture is
(1) 1 N (4) None of these
(2) 0.5 N
99. Assertion: Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(3) 0.25 N
of phenol with 𝐶𝐶𝑙4 in NaOH at 340
(4) 2 N
K gives salicylic acid as the major
95. In which pair of ions both the product.
species contains S–S bond: Reason: The reaction occurs
(1) S4 O2− 2−
6 , S2 O7 through intermediate formation of
+
(2) S2 O2− 2−
7 , S2 O8 CHCl2.
(3) S4 O2− 2−
6 , S2 O3 (1) If both Assertion and Reason are
(4) S2 O2− 2−
7 , S2 O6 correct and the Reason is a
96. Among the following, the aromatic correct explanation of the
compounds are: Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are
correct but Reason is NOT a
correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If the Assertion is correct but
Reason is incorrect.
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and
Reason is correct.
100. Select the correct statement
regarding shapes of PCl5, BrF5& IF7:
(1) All are square pyramidal
(2) All are trigonal bipyramidal
(3) One of the given compounds is
Choose the correct answer from the square pyramidal
following options: (4) One of the given compounds is
(1) (A), (B) and (C) only tetrahedral
(2) (B), (C) and (D) only
(3) (B) and (C) only

13
14
 Botany
SECTION – A

101. Choose the correct pair of In lite of the above formula, what
characters of themicroorganism does ‘C’implies -
associated with biogas production. (1) Species richness
(i) Found in anaerobic sludge (2) Regression coefficient
during (3) Y- Intercept
sewage treatment (4) Area
(ii) Play an important role in the
nutrition of cattle 105. All biodiversity hot spots cover ___a
(iii) Obtain energy from sunlight __ of earth's land area and protection
(iv) Found in aeration tanks during of these hotspots couldreduce the
biological treatment of waste ongoing mass extinction by almost
water ___b___
(1) i, iv (1) a = 6%, b = 20%
(2) ii, iii (2) a=10%, b = 50%
(3) i, ii (3) a = 1.4%, b = 30%
(4) ii, iv (4) a = 70%, b = 22%
106. How many ATP are formed through
102. The given bond is found in all, substrate level phosphorylation from
except 10 molecule of pyruvic acid when it
enters into Kreb’s cycle for complete
oxidation?
(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 36
(1) Collagen (4) 24
(2) Trypsin 107. The T.S. of a plant organ shows
(3) Alanine following anatomical features:
(4) Polypeptides (A) No Secondary growth
(B) Large and well-developed pith
103. Select the incorrect matched:- (C) Radial vascular bundles
(1 Streptokinase - Clot (D) Polyarch vascular bundles
) buster Identify the plant part
(2 Bacillusthuringien - Control (1) Dicot root
) sis caterpilla (2) Monocot stem
rs (3) Dicot stem
(3 Rhizobium - Bio (4) Monocot root
) fertilisers
(4 Gobar gas - CO2 + CO
) + SO2
+ O3
108. Match the following and select
correct option :-
104. Alexander Von Hamboldt proposed (a) Hypogynous (i) Tulip, Aloe
the relationship between species (b) Perigynous (ii) Cucumber,
richness and area on log scale which Ray florets of
is described by equation sunflower
Log S = Log C + Z log A (c) Epigynous (iii) Plum, rose
(d) Perianth (iv) Mustard,

15
 Brinjal
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 112. From features- DNA replication,
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i Genetic material-4C, Histone protein
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv synthesis, Genetic material-2C,
Centriole duplication, Cell growth
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
How many of the above features are
109. Select the correct one w.r.t associated with Gap 1 phase of cell
mustard. cycle?
(1) Variation in length of filaments (1) Four
(2) Flowers can be divided into two (2) One
similar halves only in one (3) Three
particular plane (4) Two
(3) The margin of thalamus grows
upwards enclosing the ovary 113. Identify the diagram given below and
completely mark the correct option related to
(4) Inferior ovary this diagram-

110. Identify an incorrect matched pair :

(1) Enzyme join DNA ligase
discontinuously
synthesized
fragments of DNA
(2) Direction of 5’→3’
Polymerisation
(3) Discontinuous On template
synthesis of DNA 3’→5’
(4) Main replicative DNA
Enzyme dependent
DNA
A. It divides intercellular into two
Polymerase
region
B. Ribosomes are attached on extra
111. Match the following column-I with luminal surface
column -II and select the correct C. It forms network of membranous
option: tiny cylindrical structure
Column -I Column -II Iocalized near to nucleus only
(a) Tracheid (i) Living and D. It is extensive and continuous
thin walled with outermembrane
(b) Vessel (ii) Obliterated ofnucleolus.
central (1) Only A and B
lumens (2) Only B, C and D
(c) Xylem fibres (iii) Lignified (3) Only B
wall and (4) Only A and C
tapering
ends
114. In plants, growth is characterized by
(d) Xylem (iv) Long all of the given features except
parenchyma cylindrical (1) Open form of growth
tube-like
(2) Irreversible change
structure
(3) Always determinate growth
(1) a-(i) ; b-(ii) ; C-(iii) ; d-(iv) (4) Increase in size
(2) a-(iii) ; b-(iv) ; c-(ii) ; d-(i)
(3) a-(iii) ; b-(iv) ; c-(i) ; d-(ii) 115. Sterile male with overall masculine
(4) a-(ii) ; b-(iii) ; c-(iv) ; d-(i) development however feminine

16
 development is also expressed in (1) A-Exceeding, B-Increasing
human is a result of disorder caused (2) A-Maintaining, B-Reducing
due to- (3) A-Reducing, B-Maintaining
(1) Mutation in Y-chromosome (4) A-Maintaining, B-Increasing
(2) Presence of an extra Y-
119. From the given below options,
chromosome Verhulst Pearl logistic growth curve
(3) Absence of an X-chromosome of population is denoted by-
(4) Chromosome complement 44 + (1)
XXY

116. Match the column-I with column-II

and choose the correct option on
the basis of codes in given column-I (2)
and column-II.
Column -I Column-II
A. Locule I. Located
inside the
ovarian
cavity (3)
B. Placenta II. Monoeciou
s
C. Castor III Papaver
.
D Multicarpellar IV Ovarian (4)
. y . cavity
pistil
V. Pisum
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-V
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-V
120. How many statements is/are
correct about food chain?
117. Which one of the following (a) GFC begins with the degradation
statements is correct forplants of organic matter
pollinated by water? (b) DFC may be connected to GFC at
(1) Pollination by water is quite some levels
common in flowering plants (c) Some of the organisms of DFC
(2) All aquatic plants use water for are
pollination prey to the GFC animals
(3) Water pollinated flowers are (d) DFC is made up of decomposers
colourful andnectar mainly fungi and bacteria
(4) The pollen grains of water- (1) One
pollinated plants areprotected by (2) Two
a mucilaginous covering (3) Three
(4) Four
118. Fill in the blanks by choosing the
correct option for ‘A’ and ‘B’ 121. Which of the following gives the
respectively- correct reason for the spread of
Predators also help in __A__ species prickly pear cactus in Australia?
diversity in a community, by __B__ (1) The availability of water
the intensity of competition among (2) Human activity
competing prey species.

17
 (3) Absence of cactus feeding ne
animals (3) Zygo Propha Anaph Meiosi
(4) Availability of predator in tene se I ase II s II
Australia (4) Prop Mitosis Anaph Mitosi
hase ase s
122. Assertion:The base of food chain is
formed by primary producers. 126. Given below are the four statements
Reason:Primary producers are (A to D) related to lac operon.
autotrophic organisms which fix up (a) In the presence of inducer,
solar energy and synthesize their
repressor is unable to bind to the
own food from inorganic raw
operator region
material
(b) In the presence of lactose,
(1) Both assertion & reason are true
transcription of lac y, lac z, and
& the reasonis a correct
lac a gene occurs
explanation of the assertion.
(c) The z-gene codes for permease
(2) Both assertion & reason are true
(d) The i-gene codes for activator
butreason is not a correct
explanation of theassertion. protein
(3) Assertion is true but the reason Select the two correct statements-
is (1) (a) & (d)
false (2) (a) & (b)
(4) Both assertion & reason are false (3) (a) & (c)
(4) (c) & (d)
123. Which of the following is correctly 127. Choose the correct option for the
matched? blank in given below statement-
(1) Cellulose = Primary Various chemical reaction occurs
metabolite in................ to keep the cell in the
(2) Arachidonic = 16 C ‘living state’.
acid (1) Plastids
(3) Collagen = Intercellular (2) Vacuole
ground (3) Centriole
substance
(4) Cytoplas
(4) Both (1)&(3) 128. Consider the following processes-
124. One of the most significant (A) Water splitting
discoveries of the twentieth century (B) Carboxylation
and have greatly contributed (C) Use of ATP
towards the welfare of human (D) Formation of ATP and NADPH
society is:- (E) Oxygen release
(1) Cheese How many of the above processes
(2) Antibiotics are not includedin the
(3) Alcohol photochemical phase of
(4) Organic farming photosynthesis?
(1) A,BandC
125. Homologous chromosomes are (2) CandE
paired during __(i)__ stage of __(ii)__ (3) B, DandE
while in _(iii)_ stage of _(iv)_, (4) B and C
homologous chromosomes are 129. Read the following statements-
separated A:It is a small protein attached to
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) the outer surface of the inner
(1) Zygo Propha Anaph Meiosi membrane of mitochondria
tene se I ase I sI B: It acts as a mobile carrier for
(2) Pac Propha Anaph Meiosi transfer of electrons between
hyte se I ase I sI complex III and IV of ETS

18
 Above two statements are correct getsphosphorylated again before
for- converting intofructose -6-
(1) Cytochrome a3 phosphate
(2) Ubiquinol (C) First ATP is synthesized during
(3) Cytochrome c conversionof phosphoenol
(4) Ubiquinone pyruvic acid to pyruvic acid
(D) Four redox equivalents are
removed from PGAL and
130. The graph given below depicts the
transferred to a molecule of
relationship of rate of photosynthesis
NAD+
with intensity of light. How many
How manyof the above statements
statements are correct?
areincorrect ?
(1) A and C
(2) A, B and D
(3) B and C
(4) B and D
133. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t
photorespiration -
(1) RuBP bind with O2 to form two
molecules of 3-PGA
(2) No synthesis of ATP or NADPH
(3) Release of CO2 with the
utilisation
of ATP
(A) At low light intensity, linear (4) Wasteful process in C3 -plant
relationship is obtained between
incident light and CO2 fixation 134. A normal woman whose mother was
(B) Light saturation point is observed colourblind marries a normal vision
in segment 'A' of the curve man whose father was colourblind.
(C) At low light intensity, chlorophyll They have their first child as a
acts as alimiting factor. daughter what are the chances
(D) In segment 'C' of the curve, light thatthis child would be colour-blind
intensity isnot a limiting factor ?
(1) 25%
(1) Four
(2) Three (2) 50%
(3) One (3) 100%
(4) Two (4) 0%
135. In which of the following mRNA is
131. Two kingdom classification was translated completely?
mainly based on (A) 5' AUC UUC ACU GUC UGA 3'
(1) Those have RBCs and those that (B) 5' AUG CUC UUC CCC UGA 3'
do not (C) 5' AUG UAC AGU UUC UAG 3'
(2) Presence or absence of cell wall (D) 5' AUG UAA UUA AAG AAA 3'
(3) Chemical composition of cell wall (1) Aand C
(4) Presence or absence of cell (2) A and D
Organelle (3) B, C and D
(4) B and C
132. Read the following four statements
(A-D)regarding glycolysis SECTION – B
(A) It takes place within the
cytoplasm 136. Given below table depicts the
(B) Phosphorylated form of glucose phenotypic effects of a gene with 2
alleles B and b in pea plant.

19
 Genotype Starch Starch (1)Abscisic acid
grain grain size (2)Ethylene
shape (3)Indole acetic acid
BB Round Large (4) Cytokinin
Bb Round Intermediate
bb Wrinkled Small 140. Select the correctly matched pairs:-

Which of the following is incorrect (I) Hypocotyl - Terminates

in concern to above facts:- to radicle
(1) Gene shows incomplete (II) Nucellar - Citrus
dominance for intermediate grain polyembryony
size (III) Megasporangi - Embryo sac
(2) Gene shows normal dominant um
recessive relationship for grain (IV) Cleistogamy - Salvia
shape (V) Perisperm Residual
(3) Gene is example of pleiotropic persistent
gene nucellus
(4) Gene shows co-dominance (1) I, III and IV
(2) II, IV and V
137. Assertion: In incomplete (3) I, II and V
dominance, F1 phenotype did not (4) III, IV and V
resemble either of the parent.
Reason: When F1 is self-pollinated, 141. Match the following columns and
F2 resulted in ratio of 1RR, 2Rr and select the correct option form the
1rr. codes given below :-
(1) Both assertion & reason are true A Chargaff 1 Copolymers and
& the reason is a correct homopolymers
explanation of the assertion. B H.G 2 Semiconservative
(2) Both assertion & reason are true Khurana DNA replication
but reason is not a correct C Griffith 3 Mutation
explanation of the assertion. D Meselson 4 Transforming
(3) Assertion is true but the reason and Stahl principle
is 5 (A+G)=(C+T)
false
(4) Both assertion & reason are false

138. Mark the correctly matched pair- (1) A-5 B-1 C-2 D-4
(1) Emasculation - Done only in (2) A-5 B-2 C-1 D-4
bisexual (3) A-5 B-1 C-4 D-2
flower (4) A-1 B-5 C-2 D-4
(2) Integument - Micropyle
142. Assertion: The codon for methionine
present end
andtryptophan said to be non-
(3) Tassels in - Anther and
degenerate.
maize filament
Reason: There is more than one
(4) Pollen tube - Develop from
codon for both theamino acids.
exine
(1) Both assertion & reason are true
& the reason is a correct
139. (i) Inhibitor of plant metabolism explanation of the assertion.
(ii) Important role in seed (2) Both assertion & reason are true
maturation and dormancy but reason is not a correct
Both the above physiological effects explanation of the assertion.
are related towhich of the following
plant growth regulators?

20
 (3) Assertion is true but the reason 147. Select the odd one out w.r.t.
is Chrysophytes.
false (1) Found in freshwater as well as
(4) Both assertion & reason are false marine environments
(2) Majority of them are
143. Which statement is not correct: photosynthetic.
(1) In grasses, the guard cells are (3) Cell wall of diatoms is
dumb-bellshaped indestructible.
(2) Subsidiary cells are not a part of (4) Cell wall of diatoms forms two
Stomatalapparatus thin non-overlapping shells,
(3) The trichomes in the shoot which fit together as in a soap
system are usually multicellular box.
(4) The root hairs are unicellular 148. How many of the following
elongations ofthe epidermal cell structures in the given list are
diploid?
(a) Archegonium of Cycas
144. Match the following columns and
select the correct option from the (b) Rhizome of Equisetum
codes given below- (c) Protonema of Moss
Column -I Column-II (d) Capsule of Funaria
I Prophase A. Spindle attach (e) Gemmae of Marchantia
to kinetochore (f) Strobilus of Selaginella
II Metaphase B. Formation of (1) Two
mitotic (2) Three
apparatus (3) Four
III Anaphase C. Nucleolus, (4) Five
golgi complex
and ER reform 149. Match the column -I and Column -II
IV. Telophase D. Centromere :-
split Column-I Column -II
(i) Deuteromycetes (a) Found in
(1) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D aquatic
(2) I-A, II-D, III-C, IV-B habitats
(3) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C (ii) Basidiomycetes (b) Coprophilous
(4) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
(iii) Ascomycetes (c) Helps in
145. Select the correct statement for mineral
dominance cycling
(1) Phenotype ofF1 did not resemble (iv) Phycomycetes (d) Bracket
either of two parents fungi
(2) Phenotype of F1 resemble both
parents (1) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(3) Phenotype of F1 resembles either (2) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
of the two parents. (3) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(4) Some blended phenotype (4) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
appears in F1 generation. 150. Read the following statement (A-D)
(A) Prokaryotic bacteria and the blue
146. Mark the incorrectly matched pair green algae were placed together
w.r.t. taxonomic category of wheat. with other groups which were
(1) Class - Monocotyledonae eukaryotic
(2) Family - Poaceae (B) Paramoecium and Amoeba were
(3) Order - Poales placed under Kingdom Protista
(4) Kingdom - Angiospermae which lack cell wall
(C) Unicellular Chlamydomonasand

21
 multicellular Spirogyra were
placed together under algae
(D) Heterotrophic fungi and
autotrophic green plants were not
differentiated
How many of the above statements
are related to the drawbacks of
earlier classifications?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

22
 Zoology
SECTION – A

151. Match the following (2) Leydig cells

Column-I Column-II (3) Spermatogonium
(a) Ligaments (i) Intestine (4) Vasa efferentia
wall 157. Oparin’s theory of origin of life was
(b) Squamous (ii) Elastic based on
epithelium tissue (1) Chemical evolution.
(c) Acidophils (iii) Lung alveoli (2) Cosmic evolution.
(d) Spindle- (iv) Eosinophilia (3) Spontaneous generation
shaped (4) Organic evolution.
muscle fibres 158. Different types of excretory
(1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i) structures and animals are given
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i) below match them appropriately a
(3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv) mark the correct answer from among
(4) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii) these given below.
152. Number of RBCs in mm3 of blood are Excretory Animals
(1) 4.5 to 5 million structure
(2) 5 to 5.5 million A. Protonephrid 1. Prawn
(3) 5.5 to 6.5 million ia
(4) 3 million B. Nephridia 2. Cockroach
C. Malpighian 3. Earthworm
153. The source of Ca2+ for the muscle is
(1) T tubule. tubules
(2) Sarcosome. D. Antennal 4. Flatworms
(3) Sarcolemma gland
(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum. Codes
(1) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1
154. True segmentation is also called
(1) Metagenesis (2) A–2, B–3, C–1, D–4
(2) Metamorphosis (3) A–4, B–3, C–1, D–2
(3) Metamerism (4) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
(4) Metastasis 159. A molecular that can act as a genetic
material must fulfil the following
155. Statement I:Cellulose is a
criteria except
heteropolymer
(1) It should be able to generate its
Statement II:Inulin is a monomer of
fructose replica.
(1) Both Statement I and II are (2) It should be stable chemically and
correct structurally.
(2) Statement I is correct but II is (3) It should provide the scope for
incorrect. fast changes, that is mutation
(3) Statement I is incorrect but II is that is required for evolution.
correct. (4) It should be able to express itself
(4) Both StatementI and II are in the form of mendelian
characters.
incorrect
160. Match the following columns.
156. Which structure is located inside the Column I Column II
testes
A. Darwin 1. Natural selection
(1) Epididymis

23
 B. Lamarck 2. Mutational theory (2) 90 hour.
of inheritance (3) 24 days
C. Pasteur 3. Inheritance of (4) 1 days
acquired character 164. Which set is not of the secondary
D. De Vries 4. Swan-necked metabolites?
experiment (1) Anthocyanin and rubber
Codes (2) Alkaloids and Terpenoides
(1) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1 (3) Cellulose, gums and Vinblastin
(2) A–1, B–3, C–4, D–2 (4) Amino acids and nucleic acids
(3) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4 165. Which structure in cockroach act As
(4) A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3 tongue
161. The figure given below shown an (1) Labium
antibody molecule. Name the parts A, (2) Hypopharynx
B, C and D (3) Labrum
(4) Both 1 and 3
166. An_______(a)_____ in the pulmonary
volume, ____(b)______ the
intrapulmonary pressure to less than
the atmospheric pressure which
forces the air from______(c)_______ to
move into the lungs, that
is______(d)______
(1) (a)–Increase, (b)–decreases, (c)–
outside, (d)–expiration
(2) (a)–Decrease, (b)–increases, (c)–
outside, (d)–expiration
(1) A–Antigen binding site, B–Heavy (3) (a)–Decreases, (b)–increases, (c)–
chain, C–Light chain, D– inside, (d)–inspiration
Disulphide bond (4) (a)–Increase, (b)–decreases, (c)–
(2) A–Antibody binding site, B–Light outside, (d)–inspiration
chain, C–Heavy chain, D–
Phosphoester bond 167. In the lac operon system, Permease is
(3) A–Antigen binding site, B–Short coded by
chain, C-Long chain, D–Sulphur (1) a gene.
bond (2) I gene.
(4) A–Antibody binding site, B–Long (3) Y gene.
(4) z gene.
chain, C–Short chain, D–
168. Which of the following statements is
Disulphide bond correct regarding the evolution of
162. A. suitable method of transformation humans?
with recombinant DNA for plants in I. The skull of baby chimpanzee is
which cells are bombarded with high- more like adult chimpanzee than
velocity micro-particles of gold or adult human skull.
tungsten coated with DNA is II. The skull of baby chimpanzee is
(1) Biolistics. more like adult human than adult
(2) Gene gun Microinjection. chimpanzee skull.
(3) Gene gun III. Dryopithecus is oldest human like
(4) Both (1) and (2). fossil.
IV. Dryopithecus was more ape like.
163. Duration of cell cycle of human cell is
The correct option is
about
(1) I and II
(1) 90 minutes
(2) I and III

24
 (3) I and IV
(4) II, III and IV
169. Statement I:A childshould not be
pushed unduly to perform beyond
his/her thresholdlimits; be it studies,
sports or other activities
Statement II: Smoking, taking drug (1) Contraction of atria
or alcohol aremore likely to be taken (2) Initiation of the ventricular
up at a young age, more during contraction
adolescence (3) End of diastole
(1) Both Statement I and II are (4) End of systole
correct 174. Statement I:Gastrinacts on the
(2) Statement I is correct but II is gastric glands and stimulates the
incorrect. secretion of hydrochloricacid and
(3) Statement I is incorrect but II is pepsinogen
correct. Statement II:Secretin acts on the
(4)Both Statement I and II are exocrine pancreas and
incorrect stimulates secretion of water and
170. Match column-I with Column-II and bicarbonate ions.
select the correct option. (1) Both Statement I and II are
Column-I Column-II correct
(a) Unipolar (i) Embryonic (2) Statement I is correct but II is
stage incorrect .
(b) Bipolar (ii) Cerebral (3) Statement I is incorrect but II is
cortex correct.
(c) Multipolar (iii) Retina of eye (4)Both Statement I and II are
(1) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii) incorrect
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii)
175. Unmyelinated nerve fiber is enclosed
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i)
by a Schwann cell that does not form
(4) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii)
a myelin sheath around the axon. Is
commonly found in ___(a)__ and the
171. An adult human excretes on an ___(b)____ neural systems.
average (1) (a)–Central, (b)–Peripheral
(1) 2-3 litres of urine per day (2) (a)–Autonomous, (b)–Central
(2) 1-1.5 litres of urine per day
(3) (a)–Somatic, (b)–Peripheral
(3) 5-7 litres of urine per day (4) (a)–Autonomous, (b)–Somatic
(4) 4-5 litres of urine per day
176. In India population crossed 1 billion
172. Which of the following statements is mark in May 2000. The probable
Correct for sponges reason for this is decline in
(1) They all have calcareous spicules (a) Maternal mortality rate (MMR)
(2) They are generally marine and (b) Infant mortality rate (IMR)
mostlyasymmetrical animals. (c) Number of people of reproducible
(3) They are found only in marine age.
water. (d) Birth rate
(4) They are all radially symmetrical. (1) (a) and (b) only
173. The diagram given here is the (2) (a), (b) and (c)
standard ECG of a normal person. (3) (a), (b) and (d)
The P-wave represents the (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
177. Conduction part of human
respiratory system helps in

25
 (a) Transport of atmospheric air to (2) (c)–Infundibulum, (d)–Fimbriae,
alveoli. (e)–Cervical canal
(b) Clears it from foreign particles. (3) (d)–Oviduct, (d)–Uterus ()–Cervix
(c) Humidifies and also brings air to (4) (a)–Perimetrium, (d) Myometrium,
body temperature. (e) Fallopian tube
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) and (c) 181. The preventive measures of STIs
(3) (a), (b) and (c) include
(4) Only (c) (1) Using condoms
(2) Avoid multiple sexual partner
178. Read the following statements and (3) Hygienic sexual practices
states True and False (4) All of the above
I. The tail part of sperm possesses
numerous mitochondria. 182. How much percentage of the filtrate
II. Vas deference joins a duct from is reabsorbed in the renal tubules if
seminal vesicle and form vasa volume of filtrate formed per day is
efferentia. 180 L and urine released is 1.5 L?
III. Semen is a collection of seminal (1) 5 %
plasma and sperms (2) 25 %
(1) I—T, II—F, III—T (3) 90 %
(2) I—F, II—F, III—T (4) 99 %
(3) I—T, II—T, III—F 183. Assertion:ADA deficiency is caused
(4) I—F, II—T, III—T due to deletion of the gene for
179. Match Column-I with Column-II and adenosine deaminase
select thecorrect option. Reason:It affects the human immune
Column-I Column-II system.
(1) If assertion and reason is true
(a) Myosin (i) F actins
and
(b) Actin (ii) Not overlapped reason is correct explanation of
by thin assertion.
filaments (2) If both assertion and reason are
(c) H zone (iii) Meromyosin true butreason is not correct
explanation of assertion.
(d) Sarcomere (iv) Between two Z
lines (3) If assertion is true and reason is
False.
(4) If both assertion and reason are
(1) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
false.
(2) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
184. Match Column-I with Column-II and
(3) (a)–(i), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)
select the correct option.
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
Column – I Column – II
180. Which set of three parts out of (a)–(f)
(a) Inseminatio (i) Attachment
have been correctly identified in the n to zygote to
given figure ? endometriu
m
(b Implantatio (ii) Fusion of
) n gametes

(c) Fertilization (iii Delivery of

) baby
(d Parturition (iv) Transfer of
) sperm into
female
(1) (b)–Endometrium, (c)– genital tract
Infundibulum, (d)–Fimbriae

26
 (1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii) (4) Adrenaline increase alertness and
(2) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iii)
pupillary dilation
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i) 190. Which of the following is an example
of Platyhelminthes?
185. G0 phase is characterized by (1) Pennatula
(1) DNA duplication. (2) Pleurobrachia
(2) Active metabolism (3) Taenia
(3) S phase. (4) Wuchereia
(4) M phase.
191. Treatment of a genetic disorder by
SECTION – B manipulating genes is called
(1) Gene therapy
186. Lamarck’s theory of evolution is also (2) rDNA technology
known as (3) Electrophoresis
(1) Theory of used and disuse of (4) Enzyme replacement therapy
organs 192. Which of the following statement is
(2) Theory of genetic characters incorrect about the phylum
(3) Theory of spontaneous characters Hemichordate?
(4) Theory of impose characters (1) Earlier considerd as sub phylum
187. Side effects of anabolic steroids in of chordata
females include. (2) Circulatory system is closed
I. Masculinisation. (3) Excretory organs is proboscis
II. Aggressiveness. gland.
III. Mood swings depression. (4) Fertilisation is external and
IV. Abnormal menstrual cycle. development is indirect.
V. Enlargement of clitoris
Choose the correct option. 193. Assertion: Pancreas is a composite
(1) I, II and III gland.
Reason: It acts both as an exocrine
(2) I, II, III and IV
and an endocrine gland.
(3) II, III, IV and V
(1) If assertion and reason is true
(4) I, II, III, IV and V
and
188. What is correct about human reason is correct explanation of
respiration? assertion.
(1) About 90% of CO2 is carried by (2) If assertion and reason is true
haemoglobin as carbamino- and
haemoglobin. reason is not correct explanation
(2) Neural signals from pneumotaxic of assertion.
centre of pons can increase (3) If assertion is true and reason is
duration of inspiration. False.
(3) Workers in grinding and stone (4) If both assertion and reason are
breaking industries nay suffer false.
from lung fibrosis. 194. Which of the following contraceptive
(4) Cigarette smoking leads to methods is not a barrier method?
inflammation of bronchi (1) Condom
(2) Vault
189. Select the incorrect statement. (3) Cervical cap
(1) Sleeps-weak cycle and (4) Saheli
pigmentation are regulated by
hypothalamus 195. Assertion: Transgenic mice are being
(2) Insulin plays a major role in developed for use in testing the safety
glucose homeostasis of vaccines before they are used on
(3) Glucagon is a peptide hormone humans

27
 Reason:Transgenic mice are being (3) The colonies do not produce any
used to test the safety of the polio colour.
vaccine (4) All of these
(1) If assertion and reason is true
198. Silencing of mRNA molecule’ In order
and
to control the production of a
reason is correct explanation of
harmful protein has been used in the
assertion.
protection of plants from
(2) If assertion and reason is true (1) Bettles
and (2) Armyworm
reason is not correct explanation (3) Budworm
of assertion. (4) Nematodes
(3) If assertion is true and reason is
False. 199. Glomerular filtrate is isotonic in the
(4) If both assertion and reason are (1) Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).
false. (2) Distal convoluted tubule (DCT).
196. Match the following columns. (3) Base of loop of Henle.
Column-I Column-I (4) Both (1) and (3).
(Hormones) (Hormones) 200. Read the statements.
A. GH 1. Hypothalamus I. In the process of recombinant DNA
B. ADH 2. Adrenal gland technology, after several treatment
the purified DNA is precipitated by
C. Aldosterone 3. Pancreas adding chilled ethanol.
D. Insulin 4. Anterior II The bacterial/plant, animal cells is
pituitary broken down by enzymes to release
DNA. Along with RNA, proteins
Codes polysaccharides and lipids.
(1) A–1, B–4, C–2, D–3 Chose the correct option for above
(2) A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3 statements.
(3) A–4, B–1, C–3, D–2 (1) I is true, but II is false
(4) A–4, B-1, C–2, D–3 (2) I is false, but II is true
(3) Both I and II are true
197. When a recombinant DNA is inserted
(4) Both I and II are false
within the coding sequence of an
enzyme, 𝛽-galactosidase,
(1) This results into inactivation of
the gene for synthesis of enzyme.
(2) This is called insertional
inactivation.

28
 Answer Key

Physics Chemistry Botany Zoology

1. (3) 51. (3) 101. (3) 151. (4)
2. (4) 52. (1) 102. (3) 152. (2)
3. (4) 53. (1) 103. (4) 153. (4)
4. (3) 54. (4) 104. (3) 154. (1)
5. (3) 55. (3) 105. (3) 155. (3)
6. (3) 56. (2) 106. (2) 156. (3)
7. (4) 57. (2) 107. (4) 157. (1)
8. (2) 58. (2) 108. (1) 158. (1)
9. (4) 59. (2) 109. (1) 159. (3)
10. (2) 60. (2) 110. (3) 160. (2)
11. (2) 61. (3) 111. (2) 161. (1)
12. (3) 62. (3) 112. (4) 162. (4)
13. (4) 63. (2) 113. (3) 163. (4)
14. (1) 64. (4) 114. (3) 164. (4)
15. (2) 65. (3) 115. (4) 165. (2)
16. (3) 66. (1) 116. (3) 166. (4)
17. (3) 67. (2) 117. (4) 167. (3)
18. (1) 68. (3) 118. (2) 168. (4)
19. (1) 69. (2) 119. (3) 169. (1)
20. (2) 70. (1) 120. (3) 170. (1)
21. (4) 71. (4) 121. (3) 171. (2)
22. (2) 72. (3) 122. (1) 172. (2)
23. (2) 73. (1) 123. (3) 173. (1)
24. (3) 74. (2) 124. (2) 174. (1)
25. (1) 75. (4) 125. (1) 175. (4)
26. (3) 76. (4) 126. (2) 176. (1)
27. (3) 77. (3) 127. (4) 177. (3)
28. (1) 78. (3) 128. (4) 178. (2)
29. (3) 79. (2) 129. (3) 179. (4)
30. (1) 80. (1) 130. (4) 180. (2)
31. (2) 81. (1) 131. (2) 181. (4)
32. (2) 82. (1) 132. (3) 182. (4)
33. (1) 83. (2) 133. (1) 183. (2)
34. (1) 84. (1) 134. (4) 184. (2)
35. (1) 85. (2) 135. (4) 185. (2)
36. (1) 86. (3) 136. (4) 186. (1)
37. (3) 87. (1) 137. (2) 187. (4)
38. (1) 88. (1) 138. (1) 188. (3)
39. (1) 89. (2) 139. (1) 189. (1)
40. (1) 90. (4) 140. (3) 190. (3)
41. (2) 91. (3) 141. (3) 191. (1)
42. (2) 92. (2) 142. (3) 192. (2)
43. (4) 93. (2) 143. (2) 193. (1)
44. (4) 94. (1) 144. (3) 194. (4)
45. (1) 95. (3) 145. (3) 195. (2)
46. (2) 96. (3) 146. (4) 196. (1)
47. (1) 97. (1) 147. (4) 197. (2)
48. (1) 98. (3) 148. (2) 198. (4)
49. (1) 99. (3) 149. (2) 199. (3)
50. (3) 100. (3) 150. (2) 200. (4)

29
 SB-AITS Test 03 (Full Length 01 - Class 11 &12) - Solution
S1. (3)
Both the ions have all the S7. (4)
electrons paired so their ions will as square lies in 𝑥 − 𝑦 plane its
be colourless. area in 𝐴⃗ = ℓ2 𝑘̂
⃗⃗. 𝐴⃗
flux = 𝐵
S2. (1) = (𝑎𝑖̂ + 𝑏𝑗̂ + 𝑐𝑘̂ ). ℓ2 𝑘̂
𝑟 = 𝐾[𝑁𝑂]2 [𝐶𝑙2 ] = 𝑐 ℓ2
On increasing temperature → (K)
increases S8. (2)
For given Young’s double slit
𝑁 𝜆 𝐷 𝑁 𝜆 𝐷
S3. (1) experiment, 1𝑑1 = 2𝑑2
→ Thus, the increasing order of 𝑁1 𝜆1 16 × 700
reactivity of the given compounds ∴ 𝑁2 = = = 28
𝜆2 400
towards aromatic electrophilic S9. (4)
substitution reaction is 𝑘
𝜔2 =
𝑚
𝑘 𝑘
Thus, 𝜔12 = 𝑚 = 1 ………. (i)
𝑘 𝑘
And 𝜔22 = 𝑚 = 2 ………. (ii)
2
[As, 𝑚1 = 1𝑘𝑔, 𝑚2 = 2𝑘𝑔]
Dividing equation (ii) by (i)
S4. (4) 𝜔22 𝑘/2 1 𝜔2 1
Major products of the reactions ∴ 2= = ; =
𝜔1 𝑘/1 2 𝜔1 √2
are as follows: S10. (2)
ether
CH3 CH2 Br + Na → CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 Mass of the gas = 𝑚.
Zn(Hg)/HCl,∆ At a fixed temperature and
CH3 COCH3 → CH3 CH2 CH3
pressure, volume is fixed.
N2 H4/KOH 𝑚
CH3 CHO → CH3 CH3 Density of the gas 𝜌 =
𝑉
LiAIH4 𝜌 𝑚 𝑚
CH3 COOCH3 → CH3 CH2 OH ℎ𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑡ℎ, = = =𝑥
S5. (3) 𝑃 𝑉. 𝑃 𝑛𝑅𝑇
∴ 𝑥𝑇 = constant.
𝑝𝐻 = 3, 𝑝𝐻 = − log10 (𝐻 + )
(𝑚, 𝑛, 𝑅 𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡)
(𝐻 + ) = 10−3 2𝐻+ + 2𝑒 − → 𝐻 2 At 10°𝐶 𝑖. 𝑒. , 283 𝐾, 𝑥𝑇 = 𝑥. 283 𝐾
3 = − log10(𝐻 + ) At 110°𝐶, 𝑥𝑇 = 𝑥 ′ . 383 𝐾
°
𝐸𝑆.𝐻.𝐸 = 0, 𝑃𝐻2 = 1, log 10 = 1 283
From eq. (i) and (ii) we get 𝑥′ = 383 𝑥
0.059 (𝐻 + )2
𝐸 = 𝐸° + log S11. (2)
2 𝑃𝐻2 𝑅𝑒𝑞 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅2
0.059 (10 )2
−3
⇒0+ log
2 1
0.059
⇒ (−6) × log 10 ⇒ (−)0.059 × 3
2
= −0.177 𝑉
S6. (3)
𝑦 = 10 sin(0.01𝜋 𝑥 − 2𝜋𝑡)
Comparing with standard form
𝑦 = 𝐴 sin(𝑘𝑥 ± 𝜔𝑡 + 𝜙)
𝜔 = 2𝜋
𝜔
𝑓= = 1 𝑠𝑒𝑐 −1
2𝜋

30
 1 2𝑙 1 𝑙 1 𝑙
= +
𝐾𝑒𝑞 𝐴 𝐾1 𝐴 𝐾2 𝐴
2 1 1 2 𝐾1 + 𝐾2
= + ⇒ =
𝐾𝑒𝑞 𝐾1 𝐾2 𝐾𝑒𝑞 𝐾1 𝐾2
2𝐾1 𝐾2
⇒ 𝐾𝑒𝑞 =
𝐾1 + 𝐾2
S12. (3)
Assume that Zener diode does not
undergo breakdown. 𝐶𝑒𝑓𝑓 = 𝐶1 + 𝐶2
Current in the circuit, 𝐶𝑒𝑓𝑓 = 2𝐶
120
𝐼= = 8 × 10−3 𝐴 = 8 𝑚𝐴
15000
So, voltage drop across diode
= (10𝑘Ω)(8𝑚𝐴) = 80𝑉 > 50𝑉 S17. (3)
Hence, the diode undergoes Let the initial length is 𝑙0 , area A
breakdown. and Y is Young’s modulus of thin
wire.
𝑇 Δ𝑙
So, 𝐴
=𝑌.
𝑙
;
𝑇 𝑌(𝑙 −𝑙 )
Thus, 1 = 1 0
𝐴 𝑙0
𝑇2 𝑌(𝑙2 −𝑙0 )
And =
𝐴 𝑙0
70 𝑇1 𝑙1 − 𝑙0 𝑙2 𝑇1 − 𝑙1 𝑇2
Current in 𝑅1 , 𝐼1 = = 14 𝑚𝐴 = ; 𝑙0 =
5000 𝑇2 𝑙2 − 𝑙0 𝑇1 − 𝑇2
50
Current in 𝑅2 , 𝐼2 = = 5 𝑚𝐴 S18. (1)
10000 𝐹
Current through Zener diode Pressure on the piston, 𝑝 =
𝐴
= 14 − 5 = 9 𝑚𝐴 Force 𝐹 = 𝑚𝑎 = 5000 × 10 =
S13. (4) 50000 𝑁
𝐵⃗⃗ − 𝐴⃗ = 2𝑗̂ Area, 𝐴 = 250 𝑐𝑚2 = 250 × 10−4 𝑚2
⃗⃗ − (2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂ ) = 2𝑗̂ 50000
𝐵 Pressure, 𝑃 = 250×10−4
= 2 × 106 𝑃𝑎
⃗⃗ = 2𝑖̂ + 5𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂
𝐵 S19. (1)
⃗⃗| = √22 + 52 + 22
|𝐵 For floating, buoyant force, 𝐹 =
= √33 𝑚𝑔
𝑅
S14. (1) 𝑚𝑔 = ∫ (4𝜋𝑟 2 )𝜌𝑔𝑑𝑟;
Range is maximum when angle of 0
𝑅
projection is 45° 4 3
𝜋𝑅 𝜌′ × 𝑔 = 4𝜋𝜌0 𝑔 ∫ (1
S15. (2) 3 0
Electric field, 𝐸 = 4.9 × 105 𝑁/𝐶 𝑟2 2
Mass of drop, 𝑚 = 0.1 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚 − 2 ) 𝑟 𝑑𝑟
𝑅
Force on the drop due to electric 𝑅
𝑅 3 𝜌′ 𝑟3 𝑟5
field = Weight of drop = 𝜌0 [ − 2 ]
𝑞𝐸 = 𝑚𝑔 3 3 5𝑅 0
Or 𝑞 × 4.9 × 105 = 0.1 × 10−3 × 9.8 𝑅3 𝑅3 2𝑅 3 2𝑝0
= 𝜌0 [ − ] = 𝜌0 ∴ 𝜌′ =
Or 𝑞 = 2 × 10−9 𝐶. 3 5 15 5
S16. (3) S20. (2)
As both the ends of the capacitors If pressure inside soap bubble of
in parallel are at same potential radius a is 𝑃𝑎 ,
4𝑇
equal to 𝑉𝐵 , So they don’t store Then 𝑃𝑎 − 𝑃0 = 𝑎
any charge hence are ineffective.
Now, they are in parallel

31
 And pressure inside soap bubble |𝑅⃗⃗𝐶𝑂𝑀 | = √(−2)2 + (−1)2 + (1)2 = √6
4𝑇
of radius b is 𝑃𝑏 , then 𝑃𝑏 − 𝑃0 𝑏 ∵ Magnitude of option (a) is √6
When these two-soap bubble ∵ Option (a) is correct answer.
coalesce, then 𝑃𝑏 − 𝑃𝑎 =
4𝑇 S26. (3)
𝑅
Thermal energy of the air
Where R is radius of curvature of
molecules at room temperature=
common surface,
KT=1.38× 10−23 × 300 𝐽 =
Putting values of 𝑃𝑏 and 𝑃𝑎 in eqn.
0.026 𝑒𝑉 (𝑎𝑝𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑥. )
we get
4𝑇 4𝑇 4𝑇 The graph of binding energy per
⇒ 𝑃0 + − 𝑃0 − = nucleon vs mass number suggests
𝑏 𝑎 𝑅
1 1 1 𝑎𝑏 that the binding energy per
∴ − = ⇒𝑅= nucleon of heavy atom lies
𝑏 𝑎 𝑅 𝑏−𝑎
S21. (4) between 7 to 5 MeV.
In inelastic collision total X-Rays have wavelength in the
momentum along the line of range from 0.01nm to 10nm,
collision and perpendicular to the energy range 100eV 100keV
time of collision both in conserved Visible light has wavelength
however during collision energy is 380nm to 780nm which implies
lost in form of heat that these have energy range
1.6eV to 3.3 eV.

S22. (2)
Aluminum is a good conductor. If S27. (3)
sheet introduced between the Δ𝑚 = 0.0044 𝑎𝑚𝑢
plates of a capacitor is of negligible Energy released,
thickness then The capacity 𝑄 = Δ𝑚 × 931.5 MeV
remains unchanged. = (Δ𝑚)931.5 𝑀𝑒𝑉
With air as dielectric, 𝐶 =
𝜀0 𝐴 = 0.0044 × 931.5
𝑑 = 4.0986 𝑀𝑒𝑉 ≈ 4 𝑀𝑒𝑉
With space partially filled,
𝜀 𝐴 𝜀0 𝐴
𝐶 ′ = (𝑑−𝑡)
0
= = 𝐶 (as t is S28. (1)
𝑑
negligible) According to Einstein’s phot-
S23. (2) electric equation, Maximum
Voltage across each capacitor in V energy of photoelectrons
Energy stored in one capacitor= (𝐾𝐸)𝑚𝑎𝑥 = ℎ𝜈 − 𝜙0
1
𝐶𝑉 2 ℎ𝑐
2 (𝐾𝐸)𝑚𝑎𝑥 = − 𝜙0
𝜆
Energy stored in 𝑛 Capacitors = ℎ𝑐
1 First case, 𝐾 = 𝜆 − 𝜙0
2
𝑛 𝐶𝑉 2 2ℎ𝑐
S24. (3) Second case, 3𝐾 = 𝜆
− 𝜙0
Two streams of protons moving From equations (i) and (ii)
parallel to Each other in same ℎ𝑐 2ℎ𝑐
3 ( − 𝜙0 ) = − 𝜙0
direction attracts each other 𝜆 𝜆
S25. (1) 3ℎ𝑐 2ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐
⇒ 2𝜙0 = − ∴ 𝜙0 =
𝑚1 = 1𝑘𝑔; 𝑟⃗1 = 𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ 𝜆 𝜆 2𝜆
S29. (3)
𝑚2 = 3𝑘𝑔; 𝑟⃗2 = −3𝑖̂ − 2𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂
𝑚1 𝑟⃗1 + 𝑚2 𝑟⃗2
𝑅⃗⃗𝐶𝑂𝑀 =
𝑚1 + 𝑚2
1(𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 𝑘 ) + 3(−3𝑖̂ − 2𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ )
̂
=
1+3
𝑅⃗⃗𝐶𝑂𝑀 = −2𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ ;

32
 𝑎 For minimum length of the pool.
𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 =
𝑔 ⇒ 𝑣 2 − 𝑢2 = 2𝑎𝑠
S30. (1)
Let 𝜃 be the temperature of the ⇒ 0 − (30)2 = 2 × (−10) × 𝑠
interface. ⇒ 𝑠 = 45 𝑚
𝐾𝐴Δ𝜃 S37. (3)
∵𝐻=
𝐿 The magnetic field at the center of
3𝐾𝐴(𝜃2 −𝜃)
For the first slab, 𝐻1 = 𝑑 the loop, 𝐵1 = 𝜇0 𝐼/2𝑅
And for second slab, 𝐻2 =
𝐾𝐴(𝜃−𝜃1 ) Dipole moment of circular loop is
3𝑑
m = IA
At steady state, the rate of heat
𝑚1 = 𝐼𝐴 = 𝐼𝜋𝑅 2
flow is constant.
If the moment is doubled (keeping
Thus, 𝐻1 = 𝐻2
3𝐾𝐴(𝜃2 − 𝜃) 𝐾𝐴(𝜃 − 𝜃1 ) current constant), R becomes √2𝑅
= 2
𝑑 3𝑑 𝑚2 = 𝐼𝜋(√2𝑅) = 2𝐼𝜋𝑅 2 = 2𝑚1
Or 9(𝜃2 − 𝜃) = (𝜃 − 𝜃1 ) 𝜇0 𝐼
9 1 𝐵2 =
Or 𝜃 = 10 𝜃2 + 10 𝜃1 2(√2𝑅)
𝜇0 𝐼
S31. (2) 𝐵1 2𝑅
Explanation: The least count of ∴ = 𝜇0 𝐼 = √2
𝐵2
Vernier caliper is 0.1 mm. 2(√2𝑅)
S32. (2) S38. (1)
The formula gives zero error: As refractive index, 𝜇 =
𝑅𝑒𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑡ℎ
Actual reading = Main scale +
𝐴𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑡ℎ
Vernier scale – (Zero error)
∴ Apparent depth of the vessel
when viewed from above is
S33. (1) 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 1 1
the core of the transformer is 𝑑𝑎𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 = + = ( + )
2𝜇1 2𝜇2 2 𝜇1 𝜇2
laminated so that eddy current
𝑥 𝜇2 + 𝜇1 𝑥(𝜇1 + 𝜇2 )
loss can be minimized ( )=
2 𝜇1 𝜇2 2𝜇1 𝜇2
S34. (1)
S39. (1)
The angular momentum of an
For R – L circuit
electron revolving in 𝑛𝑡ℎ orbit is 𝑅𝑡
(− )
the integral multiple of
ℎ 𝑖 = 𝑖∞ (1 − 𝑒 𝐿 )
2𝜋
𝑛ℎ 𝑛ℎ Current for 25% magnetic Energy
𝐿= = 𝑚𝑣𝑟, 𝑚𝑣 = 1 1 2 1
2𝜋 2𝜋𝑟 ( 𝐿 𝑖∞ ) = (𝐿𝑖 2 )
S35. (1) 4 2 2
1 calorie is the amount of heat 𝑖∞
𝑖=
required to raise temperature of 1 2
𝑅𝑡
𝑖∞ (− )
gram of water from 14.5°𝐶 to 15.5°𝐶 So, = 𝑖∞ (1 − 𝑅 𝐿 )
2
at 760 mm of Hg. Hence correct 𝐿
option is (a). Solving for t we get 𝑡 = ln 2
𝑅
S36. (1) S40. (1)
Bullet of mass, 𝑚 = 200𝑔 = 0.2𝑘𝑔 Force of roller = weight + vertical
Time, 𝑡 = 1 𝑠𝑒𝑐 component of garden roller
Initial kinetic energy = 90 J = 𝑚𝑔 + 𝐹𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 = 70 × 𝑔 + 200 sin 30°
1 1
× 0.2 × 𝑢2 = 90 𝐽 ⇒ 𝑢 = 30 𝑚/𝑠 = 700 + 200 × = 800 𝑁
2 2
From equation of motion, S41. (2)
𝑣 = 𝑢 + at Rate Of heat supplied
20 = 30 − 𝑎 × 1 ⇒ 𝑎 = −10 𝑚/𝑠 2 𝑑𝑄
= 1000 𝑊
Negative sign shows deceleration. 𝑑𝑡

33
 𝑑𝑊 𝑑𝑈 𝑑𝑄 𝑑𝑊 Radius of 2nd orbit = R;
= 200 𝑊; = −
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 As, 𝑅𝑛 ∝ 𝑛2
𝑑𝑈 𝑅2 4 9
= 1000 𝑊 − 200 𝑊 = 800 𝑊 = ⇒ 𝑅3 = 𝑅2 ;
𝑑𝑡 𝑅3 9 4
S42. (2) 9
When the gas is compressed 𝑅3 = (𝑅) (∵ 𝑅2 = 𝑅)
4
adiabatically no heat is supplied / 𝑅3 = 2.25 𝑅
rejected to the system, internal S50. (3)
energy increases, hence
temperature of the gas increases
change in internal energy equal to
work done on gas
𝑚(2𝑣𝑖̂) + (𝑚(−𝑣𝑖̂)
S43. (4) 𝑣𝑐𝑚 =
𝑑𝑥 2𝑚
Given, 𝑥 = 4𝑡 2 ; 𝑣 = = 8𝑡 at 𝑡 = 5 s 𝑣 𝑣
𝑑𝑡 𝑣𝑐𝑚 = 𝑖̂|𝑣𝑐𝑚 | =
𝑣 = 8 × 5 = 40 𝑚/𝑠 2 2
S44. (4)
𝑄𝑄 𝑄𝑞
+ =0 S51. (2)
𝑑2 𝑑 2
(2) 𝑟⃗ = (4𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂ ) − (𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ )
𝑄 + 4𝑞 = 0 𝑜𝑟, 𝑞 = −𝑄/4 = 3𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂
S45. (1) 𝜏⃗ = 𝑟⃗ × 𝐹⃗
Young’s modulus is the property of
= (3𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ − 2𝑘̂ ) × (2𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 3𝑘̂ )
material. It does not depend upon
= (7𝑖̂ − 11𝑗̂ + 5𝑘̂ )
shape and size of material.
S46. (3) |𝜏⃗| = √72 + 112 + 52 = √195
Case I So, 𝑥 = 195
𝑚𝑔 = 𝑞𝐸 S52. (1)
𝑚𝑔 𝐺𝑀𝑒 𝑚
𝐸= As, 𝑊 =
𝑅𝑒2 ×𝑚
𝑞 𝐺𝑀𝑒 𝐺𝑀𝑒 𝑚
Case II 𝑊′ = ×𝑚 =
𝑚𝑔 (9𝑅𝑒 + 𝑅𝑒 )2 (10𝑅𝑒 )2
𝑚𝑔 + 𝑞 ( ) = 𝑚𝑎 𝐺𝑀 𝑚 1
2 or 𝑊 = 100 𝑊
𝑒 ′
𝑞 𝑊′ = 100𝑅
𝑒
2𝑚𝑔 = 𝑚𝑎 S53. (1)
𝑎 = 2𝑔
S47. (4)
ℎ
𝑝=
𝜆
ℎ
𝑝=
0.01 × 10−10 𝑚
ℎ
−12
10 𝑚
𝑝 = 1012 ℎ
S48. (4)
ℎ
𝜆 = 𝑝 ……………(1)
As momentum of both particles
will be equal as initial momentum
S54. (1)
of the system is zero
Rectilinear propagation means
Thus from equation (1) wavelength
light travels in straight line.
of both particles will be equal.
S55. (3)
In the position of minimum
S49. (3)
deviation

34
 𝐴 + 𝛿𝑚 60 + 30 According to Henderson-
𝑖=𝑒= = = 45°
2 2 Hasselbalch equation,
S56. (2) [𝑠𝑎𝑙𝑡]
The increasing field strengths 𝑝𝑂𝐻 = 𝑝𝐾𝑏 + log
[𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒]
(CFSE values) of the ligands from 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙(𝑠𝑎𝑙𝑡) ⇒ 0.1𝑁
the spectro chemical series are in 𝑁𝐻4 𝑂𝐻(𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒) ⇒ 0.1 𝑁
the order: [𝑠𝑎𝑙𝑡]
H2O < NO− ∴ =1
2 < CN .
−
[𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒]
S57. (2) [𝑠𝑎𝑙𝑡]
The reaction of phthalimide with ∴ log =0
[𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒]
ethanolic KOH gives potassium ∴ 𝑝𝐾𝑏 = 𝑝𝑂𝐻 = 14 − 𝑝𝐻 = 14 − 9.25
salt of phthalimide. It is then = 4.75
heated with alkyl halide to form N- S64. (4)
alkyl phthalimide. Alkaline NH3 and NF3 molecule have
hydrolysis (or treatment with pyramidal shape. The resultant
hydrazine) gives a primary amine. dipole moment of NH3 is greater
Secondary or tertiary amines are than that of NF3.
not obtained as over alkylation is S65. (3)
avoided. Ionization energy increases along
S58. (2) the period and decreases down the
Carbylamine reaction: The group.
carbylamine reaction, also known S66. (1)
as Hofmann's isocyanide test is a Conceptual
chemical test for the detection of S67. (2)
primary amines. In this reaction, Reaction of potassium dichromate
the analyte is heated with and a conc. acid results in
alcoholic potassium hydroxide and evolution of chlorine gas.
chloroform. If a primary amine is K2Cr2O7 + 14HCl ⟶ 2KCl + 2CrCl3
present, the isocyanide + 7H2O + 3Cl2↑
(carbylamine) is formed which are S68. (3)
foul smelling substances. 𝑁×𝐸×𝑉𝑚𝐿
Amount of acid (in gram) =
S59. (2) 200
1000

Conceptual Here, 𝐸 = 2
= 100
S60. (2) ∴ Amount of acid =
0.1×100×100
= 1𝑔
1000
isoelectronic species having same S69. (2)
number of electrons
CO ⟹ C = 6, O = 8 ⟹ 6 + 8 = 14
CN − ⟹ C = 6, N = 7, e− = 1
⟹ 6 + 7 + 1 = 14
S61. (3)
In IIIA on moving down the group
the stability of +1 oxidation state Optically inactive because of
is increase. presence of plane of symmetry.
S62. (3) S70. (1)
Reaction proceeds in forward Reactivity of Chlorine: 2° > 1° > 3°
direction only when 𝑄 < 𝐾𝑐 and in S71. (4)
reverse direction when 𝑄 > 𝐾𝑐 Ni2+ ion cannot be precipitate by
S63. (2) both HCl and H2S. While Pb2+,

35
 Cu2+ and Ag+ ions belongs to group → Example of Aldol Condensation.
II cations they precipitated as S79. (2)
metal sulphide in presence of HCl. Treatment of an ester with
S72. (3) aqueous base results in the
Dobereiner – Law of triads; hydrolysis of ester with the
Mendeleev – Periodic table; Neils formation of salt of acid and an
Bohr – Long form of periodic table; alcohol.This process is called base
Linus Pauling – Electro negativity hydrolysis for saponification
scale; Newland – Law of octaves. S80. (1)
A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-4 2𝐹𝑒(𝑠) + 4𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 2𝐹𝑒𝐶𝑙2 + 2𝐻2
S73. (1) ∴ ∆𝑛𝑔 = 2 𝑚𝑜𝑙
It represents 3p orbital We know,
S74. (2) 𝑤 = −𝑝∆v = −∆𝑛𝑔 𝑅𝑇
The product can be formed with = −2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 × 2 𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝐾 −1 × 300 𝐾
best yield if 𝑆𝑁 2 reaction = −1.2 𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙
conditions are used, otherwise So, work done = 1.2 kcal
elimination product is also formed S81. (1)
in significant amount. For 𝑆𝑁 2 ∆𝐻𝑣𝑎𝑝 30000 𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
mechanism, primary alkyl halides ∆𝑆𝑣𝑎𝑝 = =
𝑇 300 𝐾
are best suited. Hence, the = 100 𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 𝐾 −1
reaction in option (2) will take S82. (1)
place with 𝑆𝑁 2. As the density of 𝐻2 𝑂 is 1 g/mL or
In other options, reaction 1 kg/L
conditions also initiate elimination ∴ 15 𝐿 of 𝐻2 𝑂 ≡ 15 𝑘𝑔 of 𝐻2 𝑂
reaction, so, a mixture of products ∴ 𝑛𝐻2 𝑂 =
15000
moles.
18
is obtained in other cases.
Moles of 15L of𝐻2 𝑂gas at
S75. (4)
15
In K[PtCl3(C2H4)], Cl− is in −1 𝑆𝑇𝑃 =
22.4
oxidation state and here Pt is in +4 15
Moles of 15 g of ice = 18 mole
state.
S76. (4) ∴ Maximum number of moles are
1312 present in 15 L of 𝐻2 𝑂
𝐸𝑛 = − 𝑘𝐽𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 for hydrogen
𝑛2 S83. (2)
S77. (3) Oxides in lower oxidation state
𝑁𝑂2 being –M group Destabilises (e.g., CrO) are basic, those in
carbocation formed. higher oxidation state (e.g., CrO3
−𝐶𝑙 shows comparatively less –M are acidic while those with
character. intermediate oxidation state (e.g.,
∴ II < III < I Cr2O3) are amphoteric.
S78. (3) S84. (1)
In acidic medium,
+7 +5𝑒 −
𝑀 𝑛𝑂4− → 𝑀𝑛2+
i.e. 1 mole of 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 accepts 5
electrons
∴ n factor of 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 = 5
S85. (2)
𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 is weak acid

36
 Hence 1 N 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 would not
dissociate to give completely 1 g
equivalent of 𝐻 + . On the other
hand, NaOH is strong and hence
1N NaOH gives 1 g equivalent of
𝑂𝐻 − ions. S92. (2)
∴ There would be an excess of 𝑂𝐻 − There are showing co-ordinate
ions and pH will therefore be more isomerism.
than 7. S93. (2)
S86. (3) According to onsage equation
Greater the deficiency on carbonyl °
⋀𝑚 = ⋀𝑚 − 𝑏√𝑐
carbon,

,
Greater is its reactivity and less
hindrance also favors it. The order
i.e., on increasing concentration
of deficiency on carbonyl carbon is
dissociation of electrolyte
CH3 CHO > 𝐶H3 COCH3 > C6 H5 COC6 H5 .
decreases ⋀𝑚 𝑜𝑟 ⋀𝑒𝑞 ⬚decreases.
S87. (1)
S94. (1)
Heat + ice ⇌ water
𝑁1 𝑉1 + 𝑁2 𝑉2 100 + 50
On increasing pressure, volume 𝑁𝑚𝑖𝑥𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 = ⇒
𝑉1 + 𝑉2 100 + 50
decreases. For water, decrease in
150
volume of water is less (∴density = ⇒ 1𝑁
150
increase) 𝑁1 𝑉1 = 1 × 100 = 100
⇒ Concentration of ice increases (𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻)
with respect to water, hence 𝑁2 𝑉2 = 1 × 50 = 50
equilibrium shifts towards right. S95. (3)
Also, reaction is endothermic, S4 O2− 2−
6 , S2 O3
hence increase in temperature The structure of the respective
results in melting of ice. anion is as follows
O O O
S88. (1) || || ||
− −
⬚O − S − S − S − S − O−& ⬚O − S − O−
|| || ||
O O O
S96. (3)
Conditions for aromaticity are
S89. (2)
(i)Planarity
Radioactive nuclide follows first
(ii) Complete delocalisation of the
order kinetics and for 1st order
𝜋 electrons in the ring.
reaction 𝑡1/2 , is independent of
(iii) Presence of (4n + 2)𝜋 electrons
initial mole/concentration that is in the ring where n is an integer
why 𝑡1/2 remains constant i.e, 15 (𝑛 = 0,1, 2. . . ). Compounds B and C
min. are aromatic since all the
S90. (4) conditions for aromaticity are
Conceptual satisfied
S91. (3) S97. (1)
Decimolar
1
𝑀= , 𝑇 = 27℃ + 273 ⇒ 300 𝐾
10

37
 𝜋 = 𝑖(𝐶𝑅𝑇) 𝐹𝑜𝑟 𝑢𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑖 = 1 Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No 64
1 S110. (3)
𝜋 =1× × 0.0821 × 300 Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No
10
𝜋 = 2.4 bar 90
S98. (3) S111. (2)
a. Refer to Class XI Old NCERT Pg.
LiAlH4 No 87
→ (CH3 )2 CHCH2 CH2 CH2 OH S112. (4)
H3 O+
(Reducing agent) Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No
b. 121
Hint:Genetic material-2C and Cell
growth are associated with Gap 1
phase
S113. (3)
(CH3 )2 CHCH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH
Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No 95
→ Grignard Reaction S114. (3)
c. Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No
NaBH4
→ 172
H3 O+
(Reducing agent)
S115. (4)
Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No
76
S99. (3) S116. (3)
Intermediate formed is C̈HCl2 Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No
(carbene). 08, 09 & 15
S100. (3) S117. (4)
Conceptual Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No
S101. (3) 13
Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No S118. (2)
155 Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No
S102. (3) 198
Hint:Alanine is an amino acid S119. (3)
S103. (4) Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No
Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No 194; Figure 11.3 b
154 S120. (3)
S104. (3) Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No
Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No 210
220 Hint:Statements (b), (c) and (d) are
S105. (3) correct
Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No S121. (3)
224 & 225 Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No
S106. (2) 197
Hint:One molecule of pyruvic acid S122. (1)
will produce 1 ATP through Hint:Primary producers constitute
substrate level phosphorylation in first trophic level
Kreb’s cycle S123. (3)
S107. (4) Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No
Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No 74 109; Table 9.5
S108. (1) S124. (2)
Refer to Class XI Old NCERT Pg. Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No
No 73 & 81 152
S109. (1) S125. (1)

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 Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No S138. (1)
126 & 127 Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No
S126. (2) 17
Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No S139. (1)
100 & 101 Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No
S127. (4) 178
Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No 88 S140. (3)
S128. (4) Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No
Hint: Photochemical phase 19, 20 & 22
involves absorption of light energy, S141. (3)
photolysis of water with release of Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No
O2 and production of NADPH and 81, 84, 88 & 96
ATP. S142. (3)
S129. (3) Hint:Methionine and tryptophan
Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No is said to be non-degenerate as
160 both are coded by single codon
S130. (4) S143. (2)
Hint:Statement A and D are Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No 72
correct S144. (3)
Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No
149 122, 123 & 124
S131. (2) S145. (3)
Hint:LinnaeusTwo kingdom Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No
classification divided into Kingdom 59
Plantae and Animalia on the basis
of presence or absence of cell wall. S146. (4)
S132. (3) Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No
Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No 08; Table 1.1
156 S147. (4)
S133. (1) Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No 14
Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No S148. (2)
147 Hint:(b), (d) and (f) are diploid
S134. (4) structures
Hint:Here the genotypes of both S149. (2)
parents = XC X and XY Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No 17
Possible genotype of first & 18
daughter= XC X, XX S150. (2)
In both the cases the chances of Refer to Class XI NCERT Pg. No 11
first daughter to be colourblind is & 12
0% Hint:Only statement (B) is not
S135. (4) related to drawbacks of earlier
Hint:In B and C, translation is classification
completed as initiation codon AUG S151. (4)
and termination codon- UGA and HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no.
UAG are present 241, 245
S136. (4) S152. (2)
Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no.
62 170
S137. (2) S153. (4)
Refer to Class XII NCERT Pg. No HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no.
60 180

39
S154. (1) S171. (2)
HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no. HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no.
211 213
S155. (3) S172. (2)
HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no. HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no. 40
171 S173. (1)
S156. (3) HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no. 201
27 S174. (1)
S157. (1) HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no. 247
111 S175. (4)
S158. (1) HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no. 232
206 S176. (1)
S159. (3) HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no. 43
87 S177. (3)
S160. (2) HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no. 185
111, 118, 119 S178. (2)
S161. (1) HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no. 28 & 32
135 S179. (4)
S162. (4) HINT: Class XI NCERT Page
HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no. no.220, 221
171 S180. (2)
S163. (4) HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no. 29
121 S181. (4)
S164. (4) HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no. 47
108 S182. (4)
S165. (2) HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XI Old NCERT 209
(Cockroach) S183. (2)
S166. (4) HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no. 182
186 S184. (2)
S167. (3) HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no. 26
100 S185. (2)
S168. (4) HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no. 122
124 S186. (1)
S169. (1) HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no. 118
146 S187. (4)
S170. (1) HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no. 146
232 S188. (3)

40
 HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no. S195. (2)
191 HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no.
S189. (1) 184
HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no. S196. (1)
242 HINT: Class XI Old NCERT
S190. (3) (Animal Tissue)
HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no. 42 S197. (2)
S191. (1) HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no. 194
186 S198. (4)
S192. (2) HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no.
HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no. 45 219
S193. (1) S199. (3)
HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no. HINT: Class XI NCERT Page no. 39
245 S200. (4)
S194. (4) HINT: NCERT Page no. 110
HINT: Class XII NCERT Page no.
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