AIM NEET Full Test-20

TOPIC COVERED
Physics: Full Syllabus (Class 11 &12)
Chemistry: Full Syllabus (Class 11 &12)
Botany: Full Syllabus (Class 11 &12)
Zoology: Full Syllabus (Class 11 &12)

Duration: 3 hr 20 min Max Marks: 720

Date: 10/07/2022
General Instructions:
• The test will contain 200 Questions of Physics, Chemistry, Botany, and Zoology & The test will be objective type.
(Attempt only 180).
• Every subject contains two Section A-35 Questions and Section B-15 Questions (Attempt only 10).
• All 35 Questions of Section-A are Compulsory to attempt.
• Time given for test is 200 minutes.
• Marking is +4 for every correct answer, –1 for every wrong answer.
• You can reattempt the test in case of any technical issue.
• Test will start at 2:00 pm and students can attempt test at any time of their own preferences

PHYSICS
SECTION - A 4. A rocket with lift off mass of 10 metric ton is
1. A particle moving along a straight line has velocity blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of 2.2
v m/s, when it covers a distance x along positive x m/s2. What is initial thrust of blast? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
axis. The relation between two quantities is v = (1) 105 kN (2) 112 kN
49 + x . When the velocity of particle is 1 m/s, its (3) 120 kN (4) 42 kN
acceleration will be
(1) 1 m/s² (2) 7 m/s² 5. Some physical constants are given in column I and
(3) 2 m/s² (4) 0.5 m/s² their dimensional formulae are given in column II.
Match the correct pairs in the columns.
2. The relation between power P, distance x and time Column-I Column-II
b + x2 A. Gravitational constant P. [ML2T–1]
t is given as P = . The dimensions of b/a is B. Stefan’s constant Q. [ML0T–3K–4]
at
C. Boltzmann’s R. [M–1L3T–2]
(1) [ML2 T–2] (2) [M–1 LT–2]
–1 2 –2 constant
(3) [M L T ] (4) [ML–2T–2]
D. Planck’s constant S. [ML2T–2K–1]

3. Two particles of equal mass are connected by a (1) A → (R), B → (S), C → (Q), D → (P)
light rod of negligible mass as shown in the figure. (2) A → (P), B → (Q), C → (R), D → (S)
The rod is rotated about end B in horizontal plane. (3) A → (R), B→ (Q), C → (S), D → (P)
The ratio of tensions in smaller part to other is
(4) A → (Q), B → (R), C → (P), D → (S)

6. A train of length 225 m is moving towards north

(1) 1:3 with a velocity of 10 m/s. A parrot flies at speed of
(2) 3:2 5 m/s towards south parallel to the railway track.
(3) 4:3 The time taken by parrot to cross the train will be
(4) 3:1 (1) 10 s (2) 15 s
(3) 20 s (4) 5 s
[1]
7. The velocity of a particle as a function of time t is 14. In the indicator diagram as shown in the following
given as v = (3t2 + 2t) m/s. The displacement of the figure the work done along path AB will be
particle in first 2 s will be
(1) 12 m (2) 16 m
(3) 20 m (4) 6 m

8. The electric field is given as E = ( yiˆ + xjˆ) N/C.

The work done in moving charge 4 µC from
rA = (2iˆ + 2 ˆj ) m to rB = (4iˆ + ˆj ) m is
(1) 6 J (2) 9 J (1) 45 J (2) 90 J
(3) 12 J (4) zero (3) 30 J (4) Zero

9. In figure shown, charge Q is placed at one of the 15. A Carnot refrigerator has coefficient of
edge of cube as shown, then electric flux through performance 8. If the surrounding temperature is
the cube due to this charge is 25ºC, the minimum temperature it can cool a body
inside is
(1) 6°C (2) 8°C
(3) –8°C (4) 10°C

16. A particle of mass 1 kg is undergoing S.H.M., for

which graph between force and displacement
Q 2Q (from mean position) as shown. Its time period, in
(1) (2)
20 0 seconds, is
Q Q
(3) (4)
40 120

10. Minimum number of capacitors each of 8 µF and

250 V used to make a composite capacitor of 8 µF
and 1000 V is
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 16 (4) 32  2
(1) s (2) s
3 3
11. Two charges of 10 µC and –10 µC are placed at
points A and B separated by a distance of 10 cm.  3
(3) s (4) s
What is electric field at a point P on perpendicular 6 
bisector of AB at distance 12 cm from its mid-
point? 17. A particle of mass 1 kg is performing SHM and its
(1) 4.1 × 106 N/C displacement any time is given by
(2) 2.1 × 104 N/C  
y = 2 sin  t +  m.
(3) 3.2 × 106 N/C  12 6
(4) 4.5 × 107 N/C What will be kinetic energy of particle at t = 2 sec?
2 2
12. The ratio of rms speed and most probable speed of (1) J (2) J
molecules of an ideal gas is R at temperature T. If 288 144
the temperature is increased by 2% then the  
(3) (4) J
percentage change in the ratio will be 288 144
(1) 2% (2) 4%
(3) 3% (4) Zero 18. Two uniform strings A and B formed of steel are
made to vibrate under the same tension. If the first
13. An ideal gas has 3 rotational degrees of freedom overtone of A is equal to the second overtone of B
and 3 translational degrees of freedom. The ratio and the radius of A is twice that of B. Then the
of molar specific heat of the gas at constant ratio of the length of the strings is (Both strings are
pressure to that at constant volume will be fixed at both ends)
(1) 4/3 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3
(2) 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 5
(3) 5/3
(4) 4
[2]
19. A layer of oil 3 cm thick is floating on a layer of 25. The graph shown below shows variation of de
coloured water 5 cm thick. Refractive index of 1
coloured water is 5/3 and apparent depth of two Broglie wavelength (λ) versus (where V is
V
liquids appears to be 36/7 cm. What is refractive
accelerating potential) for three charged particles
index of oil?
of equal charges but different masses.
(1) 1.2
(2) 1.3
(3) 1.4
(4) 1.52

20. A converging beam of light is incident on a

concave lens of focal length 20 cm. In the absence (1) mA > mB > mC (2) mB > mC > mA
of lens, the beam converges at a point 10 cm (3) mA > mC > mB (4) mB > mA > mC
behind the lens. At what point the beam will
converge/diverge after refraction? 26. In single slit diffraction experiment, first minima
(1) Converges to 5 cm behind the lens of red light 1 = 660 nm coincides with first
(2) Diverges to 10 cm behind the lens maxima of other wavelength 2. What is the value
(3) Converges to 6 cm behind the lens of 2?
(4) Converges to 20 cm behind the lens (1) 440 nm (2) 470 nm
(3) 550 nm (4) 690 nm
21. A ray of light passing through equilateral
triangular glass prism from air undergoes 27. The resistance of the following carbon resistor will
3 be
minimum deviation when angle of incidence is
4
of angle of prism. What is refractive index of the
prism?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(1) (23 × 101)  10%
(3) 1.61
(2) (22 × 102)  10%
(4) 1.72
(3) (24 × 101)  5%
(4) (21 × 102)  20%
22. In an astronomical telescope, focal length of
objective lens is 75 cm and that of eye piece is
5 cm. What is magnifying power if final image is 28. Currently density ( J ) at an area ( A) =
seen at 25 cm from eye? (iˆ + 4 ˆj )mm 2 is J = (2iˆ + 3 ˆj ) A/m2. The current
(1) 18
through the area is
(2) 22
(1) 6 A (2) 4 A
(3) 15
(3) 12 A (4) 14 A
(4) 81

23. Light waves from two coherent sources of 29. The current through the 5 resistance in the
intensity ratio 81 : 1 produce interference. What is network as shown in figure is
the ratio of maximum and minimum intensity in
interference pattern?
5 25
(1) (2)
6 16
36 9
(3) (4)
25 1

24. Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on two slits

separated by 1 mm in YDSE. What is width of 5 5
each bright band if screen is 1 m away from slit (1) A (2) A
planes? 8 3
(1) 0.2 mm 40 2
(3) A (4) A
(2) 0.25 mm 17 3
(3) 0.3 mm
(4) 0.5 mm

[3]
30. Equal current ‘i’ flows in two segment of circular 35. The output of the given logic circuit is
loop as shown in figure. Radius of the loop is a.
Magnetic field at the centre of the loop due to
segment ACB is

(1) AB + BA (2) ( A + B) A
(3) A·B+ B· A (4) None of these

SECTION - B
  −   0i  2 −    0 i (ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS)
(1)   (2)   36. A dip circle is oriented with its plane at an angle of
   2a  2  2a
30° with the magnetic meridian at a place.
 0i The apparent angle of dip shown by the dip circle
(3) (4) Zero
2 2a is 45°. The true angle of dip at the place will be
 3
31. Which of the following graphs, shows the (1) tan −1   (2) tan–1 (2)
variation of magnetic induction B (at the centre)  2 
with radius of current carrying loop 1
(3) tan–1 (4) (4) tan −1  
2

(1) (2) 37. In an LCR series circuit, R = 10 , XL = 20 

and XC = 10 . The average value of current
for a complete cycle, for source voltage V = 20 sin
(30 t) is
(3) (4) (1) 2 A (2) 0.5 A
(3) 3 A (4) Zero

32. A positively charged particle enters in a uniform 38. A conductor ABOCD moves along its bisector with
magnetic field with uniform velocity v. If angle a velocity 1 m/s through a perpendicular magnetic
between velocity and magnetic field is 180°, field of 1 Wb/m2, as shown in figure.
the trajectory will be If all the four sides are 1 m length each, then the
(1) Straight line induced emf between points A and D is
(2) Circular
(3) Helical
(4) Elliptical

33. Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction

(1) widens the depletion zone
(2) increases the potential difference across the (1) 0 (2) 1.41 volt
depletion zone (3) 0.71 volt (4) None of these
(3) increases the number of donors on the n side
(4) increases the electric field in the depletion 39. Figure shows three oscillating LC circuit with
zone identical inductors and capacitors. If t1, t2, t3 are the
time periods of the circuits I, II and Ill, then
34. What is the current through an ideal p-n junction
diode shown below?

(1) t1 > t2 > t3 (2) t1 < t2 < t3

(1) Zero (2) 10 mA (3) t2 < t1 < t3 (4) t3 = t1t2
(3) 20 mA (4) 40 mA

[4]
40. An ideal transformer converts a 20 V primary input 46. Potential energy of a particle is given by
voltage to 100 V in secondary. The current in U = (2x2 – 8x)J, where x is in meter. The force on
secondary if the current in primary is 20 A is the particle will be zero at
(1) 4 A (2) 20 A (1) x = 2 m (2) x = –2 m
(3) 0.3 A (4) 40 A (3) x = 4 m (4) x = –4 m

41. The charge on the capacitor in LC circuit is given 47. Two homogenous disc A and B of mass m and 3m
d 2Q having radii 3a and a respectively are placed in
by equation + 16Q = 0. Find the frequency contact. The distance of centre of mass from centre
dt 2
of LC oscillation of disc A is
2 (1) a (2) 2a
(1) Hz (2) 2 Hz (3) 3a (4) 2.5a

4
(3) 4 Hz (4) Hz 48. The figure shows a uniform rod of length l moving
 l
such that velocity of its centre is v = . If the end
42. The gravitational field due to a mass distribution is 6
A of the rod is suddenly fixed. The angular velocity
K
E = 3 in the x-direction. (K is a constant). of the rod will be
x
Taking the gravitational potential to be zero at
infinity, its value at the distance x is
K K
(1) (2)
x 2x
K K  
(3) (4) (1) (2)
x 2
2x2 3 4
 2
43. A particle is projected vertically upwards from the (3) (4)
surface of the earth (radius Re) with a speed equal 2 3
to one fourth of escape velocity. What is the
maximum height attained by it from the surface of 49. In a ballistics demonstration a police officer fires a
the earth? bullet of mass 40.0 g with speed 200 m/s on a soft
16 Re plywood of thickness 4.00 cm. The bullet emerges
(1) Re (2) with only 25% of its initial kinetic energy.
15 15
The emergent speed of the bullet will be
4 Re
(3) Re (4) (1) 25 m/s
15 2 (2) 75 m/s
(3) 40 m/s
44. In a capillary tube experiment, a vertical 30 cm
long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water (4) 100 m/s
rises up to a height of 10 cm due to capillary action.
If this experiment is conducted in a freely falling 50. A uniform sphere of mass m and radius r rolls
elevator, the length of the water column becomes without slipping down an inclined plane, inclined
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm at an angle 53° to the horizontal. What is minimum
value of coefficient of friction at which slipping is
(3) 30 cm (4) Zero
absent?
45. An aeroplane of mass 3 × 104 kg and total wing 1 1
(1) (2)
area of 120 m2 is in a level flight at some height. 7 5
The difference in pressure between the upper and 8 5
lower surfaces of its wings (in kilo pascal) is (3) (4)
21 14
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2.5 (2) 5.0
(3) 10.0 (4) 12.5

[5]
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 56. Kolbe’s electrolytic method can be used to
51. Major product in the given reaction is produce
(1) An alkane (2) An alkene
(3) An alkyne (4) All of these

57. Both lithium and magnesium display several

similar properties due to diagonal relationship,
(1) (2) however, the one which is incorrect, is
(1) Both form nitrides
(2) Nitrates of both yield NO2 and O2 on
thermal decomposition
(3) Both give crimson red colour to the
(3) (4) flame test
(4) Both form soluble bicarbonates

52. The change in the optical rotation of freshly 58. Number of electrons present in 10 g of D2O is
prepared solution of glucose is known as (1) 10 NA (2) NA
(1) Tautomerism (2) Racemisation (3) 5 NA (4) 20 NA
(3) Mutarotation (4) Epimerisation
59. The ratio of orbital angular momentum of
53. (I) CH 2 = CH – Br electrons having  = 2 and  = 3 respectively will
be
(II) CH 2 = CH – CH 2 – Br
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 :1 (4) 1: 2

(III) 60. How many mole of K2Cr2O7 is required to oxidise

one mole of ferrous sulphate in acidic medium?
1 1
(IV) CH 3 – CH 2 – Br (1) (2)
7 3
Correct order of SN1 reactivity of above 1 1
compounds is (3) (4)
6 2
(1) (III) > (II) > (IV) > (I)
(2) (II) > (III) > (IV) > (I)
61. If molality of a solute in its aqueous solution is
(3) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV) 5.55 then mole fraction of solute will be
(4) (III) > (IV) > (II) > (I) 10 1
(1) (2)
54. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best 11 11
accomplished by 1 1
(3) (4)
(1) Sandmeyer’s reaction 5 18
(2) Swarts reaction
(3) Wurtz reaction 62. If x is the initial amount of reactant in a first order
(4) Rosenmund reaction reaction A → B, then the amount of reactant
converted to product in three half lives will be
55. An organic compound A upon heating with NH3 15x
gives B. B in presence of KOH reacts with Br2 to (1)
16
give Ph–NH2. Compound A is
3x
(1) Ph – OH (2)
4
(2) Ph – COOH
7x
(3) Ph – CH2 – COOH (3)
8
O
x
(4)
(4) Ph – C– NH 2 32
[6]
63. The activation energy for the forward reaction, P 70. If H + + OH – ⎯⎯
→ H 2 O, H1 = –56 kJ / mole
→ Q is 20 kJ mol–1 and the enthalpy change, H
of the reaction is +10 kJ mol–1. The activation 1
2H + O2 ⎯⎯
→ H 2O, H 2 = −66 kJ / mole
energy (in kJ mol–1) for the backward reaction 2
will be 2H + O ⎯⎯
→ H 2 O, H3 = −46 kJ / mole
(1) 30 (2) 50

(3) 20 (4) 10 and H 2 + O 2 ⎯⎯ → H 2O, H 4 = −36 kJ / mole
2
64. At low pressure Van der Waals equation reduces Using above data the heat liberated for formation
to of 1 g water is
(1) PV = nRT (1) 36 kJ
(2) 2 kJ
 an 2 
(
(2)  P + 2 
V − nb ) = nRT (3) 18 kJ

 V  (4) 1 kJ
(3) P(V – nb) = nRT
 71. KC of a reaction A + B 2C is 0.5 at T(K). If
an 2 
(4)  P + 2  V = nRT  mol 
 V  concentration of all A, B and C is 2   , then
  L 
the direction of reaction will be
65. If N is the number of atoms in the closely packed (1) The forward direction
unit cell then the number of octahedral voids in (2) The backward direction
that unit cell is equal to
(3) Remain at equilibrium
(1) N (2) 2N
(4) Equilibrium can never be achieved
(3) N/2 (4) N/4
72. If at T°C Kw = 10–12 then an aqueous solution of
66. The polymer used for making electrical switches pH of 7 will be
is
(1) Acidic
(1) Neoprene (2) Teflon
(2) Basic
(3) Bakelite (4) Melamine
(3) Neutral
(4) Can’t be predicted
67. Five moles of an ideal gas are expanded
isothermally and reversibly at 300 K from
1 L to 2 L. U for the process is 73. Which of the following group is ortho/para
directing when attached with benzene ring?
(1) Zero (2) 180.6 cal
O
(3) 300 cal (4) –180.6 cal
(1) – CHO (2) – C– CH3
68. Least basic compound among the following is (3) – NHCOCH3 (4) – NO2
(1) (2)

74. ESRP values of metals are given as
E = −2.54 volt E + = −3.0volt
A + /A B /B

E = 1.25volt E = 0.76volt
(3) (4) M + /M N+ / N
Metal with strongest reducing nature is
(1) A (2) B
(3) M (4) N
69. Partial charge on each oxygen atom in MnO −4 is
1 75. A 5% solution of sucrose (M.W. = 342) is isotonic
(1) − with 1% of a solution having an unknown non–
4
electrolytic/non–associating solute. The molar
(2) –1
mass of unknown solute (in g/mol) is
1
(3) − (1) 34.2 (2) 136.2
2 (3) 171.2 (4) 68.4
1
(4) −
3

[7]
76. Reactions with order greater than three are rare 82. For the given adsorption isotherm, intercept (c) is
due to
(1) Non–spherical nature of molecules
(2) Increase in entropy and activation energy
(3) Very less probability of simultaneous
collision of more than three reacting species
at a time
(4) Increase in non elastic collisions
1
(1) log (2) log k
77. If all the ions along an axis passing through two n
opposite face centred are removed then effective 1
(3) log (4) log n
number of Cl– ions left in a unit cell of NaCl is k
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 3.5 (4) 2.5 83. The compound which will not react with
Hinsberg’s reagent is
78. Which of the given sets of quantum numbers is
impossible?
(1) n = 3,  = 2, m = –3, s = +1/2 (1) (2)
(2) n = 4,  = 3, m = +1, s = +1/2
(3) (4)
(3) n = 2,  = 1, m = 0, s = –1/2
(4) n = 4,  = 3, m = +2, s = +1/2

84. The compound which will not give addition

79. The percentage strength of H2O2 solution obtained product with NaHSO3 is
by mixing equal volumes of two H2O2 solutions of
"10 volume" and "20 volume" strength is
(1) 0.45 (2) 4.55
(3) 15 (4) 9 (1) (2)

80. The degree of dissociation of 0.1 M CH3COOH in

0.1 M HCl will be [Ka(CH3COOH) = 10–5] (3) (4)
(1) 10–3
(2) 10–5
(3) 10–4
85. A metal crystallises in BCC unit cell. If the edge
(4) 10–6 length of unit cell is 300 pm then the radius of the
metal atom in pm is
81. Consider the following reaction
(1) 150 3 (2) 75 3
(3) 75 2 (4) 150 2

SECTION - B
(major) (ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS)
Major product is 86. A, B and C in the following reaction sequence
respectively are
O
(A) ( B)
CH3 – C– NH 2 ⎯⎯⎯ → CH3 – C  N ⎯⎯⎯ →
(1) (2) O
( C)
CH3 – C– OH ⎯⎯⎯ → CH3 – CH 2OH
(1) LiAlH4, H3O+, P2O5
(3) (4) (2) LiAlH4, P2O5, H3O+
(3) H3O+, HI/Red P, LiAlH4
(4) P2O5, H3O+, LiAlH4

[8]
87. Which among the following is an antifertility drug? 95. The value of CFSE for d5 system in an octahedral
(1) Veronal (2) Dimetapp complex in presence of a weak ligand is
(3) Novestrol (4) Alitame 12 6
(1) −  0 (2) −  0
5 5
88. Which of the following is an example of negative 3
charged sol? (3) −  0 (4) Zero
5
(1) Silver sol
(2) Methylene blue sol 96. Which among the following is the most reactive?
(3) TiO2 sol (1) Cl2 (2) O2
(4) Al2O3 . xH2O sol
(3) N2 (4) IC
89. Leaching is done for the concentration of
(1) Al2O3 (2) Ag2S 97. Phenol and formaldehyde on polymerisation
(3) Au (4) All of these forms
(1) Melamine
90. Which of the following can have maximum (2) Bakelite
number of isomers? (3) Glyptal
(1) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (2) [Pt(en)2Cl2] (4) Dacron
3–
(3) [Co(ox)3] (4) [Ni(CN)2(NH3)4]Cl2
98. DNA does not contain
91. Chain growth polymer out of the following is (1) Adenine
(1) Terylene (2) Buna–S (2) Guanine
(3) Nylon–6 (4) Nylon–6, 6 (3) Cytosine
(4) Uracil
92. Linear species in the following is
+
(1) H3O+ (2) NH 4 99. Mischmetal mainly consists of
(1) Alkaline earth metals
(3) I3− (4) I3+ (2) Transition metals
(3) Lanthanoids
93. Alkali metals at very high concentration are (4) Actinoids
dissolved in liquid NH3 and gives the following
colour. 100. Carbylamine reaction and Reimer–Tiemann
(1) Red (2) Blue reaction have same
(3) Bronze (4) Yellow (1) Reactants
(2) Products
94. Which of the following element has least melting (3) Intermediate
point? (4) Nucleophile
(1) Sc (2) Au
(3) Ag (4) Hg

[9]
 BOTANY
SECTION - A 108. Mark the odd one w.r.t. T.S. of plant’s part
101. Which of the given contains information of any one
taxon?
(1) Flora (2) Monograph
(3) Catalogue (4) Manual

102. Which of the given groups of protozoans causes

'sleeping sickness'?
(1) Amoeboid protozoan (1) Vascular bundles are arranged in ring
(2) Flagellated protozoan (2) Epidermis is covered by a thin layer of cuticle
(3) Ciliated protozoan (3) The cells of the endodermis have a deposition
(4) Sporozoans of water-impermeable, waxy material
(4) Pericycle contains sclerenchyma
103. Which of the given fungi causes rust disease in
wheat?
(1) Agaricus (2) Puccinia 109. Select the incorrect match
(3) Ustilago (4) Colletotrichum (1) Robert Brown – Nucleus
(2) George Palade – Chloroplast
104. Select correct match. (3) Singer and Nicolson – Fluid mosaic model of
Column I Column II cell membrane
a. Giant redwood (i) Pinus (4) Matthias Schleiden and Theodor Schwann –
tree Cell theory
b. Fungal (ii) Sequoia
association
c. Coralloid root (iii) Wolfia 110. Mitochondrial matrix possesses all, except
d. Smallest (iv) Cycas (1) Circular DNA
flowering plant (2) Many RNA molecules and chlorophylls
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (3) Ribosomes (70S)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) Components required for the protein synthesis
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
111. Bivalent formation initiate during the meiosis in
(1) Diplotene
105. Agar is one of the commercial product, obtained
(2) Diakinesis
from
(3) Zygotene
(1) Volvox (2) Chara
(4) Leptotene
(3) Gelidium (4) Ulothrix

112. Short distance movement of substances in plants

106. Consider the following statements w.r.t.
generally does not involve
Solanaceae family and select the correct option.
(1) Cytoplasmic streaming
a. It is widely distributed in tropics, subtropics
(2) Energy
and even temperate zones
(3) Diffusion
b. Obliquely place ovary with swollen placenta
(4) Vascular system
c. Leaves are compound and stipulate
d. Presence of axile placentation
113. The nitrogen-fixing microbes are
(1) Only a is incorrect
(1) Anaerobic only
(2) Only d is correct
(2) Always free living
(3) Both c and d are correct
(3) Heterotrophic or autotrophic
(4) a, b and d are correct
(4) Always symbiotic
107. Select the incorrect match
114. _______ ATP & ________ NADPH molecules are
(1) Trichomes – Usually multicellular
used to make one molecule of glucose in C3 plants.
(2) Casparian strips – Suberized structure
(1) 18, 14 (2) 16, 18
(3) Bulliform cells – Small and coloured cells
(3) 12, 18 (4) 18, 12
(4) Phloem fibres – Bast fibres
[10]
115. Maximum photosynthetic rate is achieved in 123. Select the correct option w.r.t. recessive traits of
(1) Red light (2) Blue light pea.
(3) Green light (4) Both (1) & (2) (1) Green pod colour
(2) Axial flower position
116. A. The F1 head piece is a peripheral membrane (3) Green seed colour
protein complex which contains the site of (4) Full pod shape
ATP synthesis
124. Choose the incorrect statement.
B. F0 is an integral membrane protein complex
(1) Gene that control seed shape in pea also
which forms the channel through which
controls size of starch grains
protons cross the outer membrane (2) AB blood group show codominance
(1) Only A is correct (3) Mendel took 14 true breeding pea varieties for
(2) Only B is correct experiment
(3) Both A & B are correct (4) Law of segregation cannot be explained on the
(4) Both A & B are incorrect basis of monohybrid cross

117. When tripalmitin is used as respiratory substrate 125. The correct chromosomal complement of a child
and is completely oxidised then the RQ value will with Turner's syndrome is
be (1) 44 + XXY (2) 45 + XO
(3) 44 + XX (4) 44 + XO
(1) 0.7 (2) 1
(3) 4 (4) 0.9 126. Inverted L-shape of tRNA is its
(1) Secondary structure
118. The plant hormone used in improvement of shape (2) Clover leaf structure
of apple fruit and can speed up malting process in (3) Primary structure
brewing industry is (4) Actual structure
(1) Ethylene
(2) Auxins 127. Which of the following is autosomal recessive
(3) Gibberellins disorder?
(4) Cytokinins (1) Cystic fibrosis (2) Colour-blindness
(3) Hemophilia (4) Both (2) & (3)
119. Strobilanthus kunthiana flowers
128. A molecule that can act as genetic material must
(1) Once in 12 years
fulfill all of the following criteria, except
(2) 12 times in one year
(1) Ability to generate its replica
(3) Once in 12 months (2) Should be chemically and structurally
(4) Throughout the life at the gap of 12 days unstable and reactive
(3) Should provide the scope of slow mutation
120. Which of the following is the largest cell of the required for evolution
embryo sac? (4) Should be able to express itself in the form of
(1) Central Cell "Mendelian characters"
(2) Synergid
(3) Antipodal 129. Himgiri is variety of
(4) Egg cell (1) Wheat (2) Brassica
(3) Cowpea (4) Chilli
121. Which one of the following is not a post- 130. Match the following columns.
fertilisation event? Column-I Column-II
(1) Development of PEN into endosperm a. Aspergillus niger (i) Ethanol
(2) Development of ovary into fruit b. Detergents (ii) Lipases
(3) Maturation of ovule into seed c. Saccharomyces (iii) Statins
(4) Development of 7 celled-8 nucleate embryo cerevisiae
sac d. Monascus (iv) Citric acid
purpureus
122. Identify the plant which does not show hydrophily (1) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(1) Hydrilla (2) Zostera (2) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii)
(3) Vallisneria (4) Water lily (3) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)
[11]
131. What is the most ecologically relevant 140. Select the correct sequence of stages of cell
environmental factor? division.
(1) Water (2) Light (1) G1 → G0 → M → S → G2
(3) Soil (4) Temperature (2) G1 → S → G2 → M → G0
(3) G1 → G0 → G2 → S → M
132. Group of organisms which may belong third trophic (4) G2 → S → M → G0 → G1
level in an ecosystem is
(1) Grasshopper and cow
141. Cells swell in A and shrink in B .
(2) Wolf, birds and fishes
(3) Zooplanktons, fishes and desmids Here A and B are respectively
(4) man, snake and phytoplankton (1) Isotonic solution and hypertonic solution
(2) Hypertonic solution and hypotonic solution
133. The term biodiversity was popularized by (3) Hypotonic solution and hypertonic solution
(1) Edward Wilson (4) Hypotonic solution and isotonic solution
(2) A. V. Humboldt
(3) Robert may 142. Death of tissue (necrosis), particularly leaf tissue,
(4) David Tilman is due to deficiency of
(1) N, S, Mo (2) Ca, Mg, Cu, K
134. Which of the following is not the component of evil
(3) K, Co, Se (4) Na, Si, Fe
quarter?
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(2) Co-extinction 143. Which of the following plants performs C4 cycle
(3) Alien-species invasion for CO2 fixation?
(4) Succession (1) Wheat (2) Tomato
(3) Sugarcane (4) Bell pepper
135. High levels of DDT in birds altered ______
metabolism because of which thinning of egg 144. The site of perception of light/dark duration for
shells result in premature breaking. flowering is
(1) Calcium (1) Shoot apex
(2) Magnesium (2) Mature leaf
(3) Potassium (3) Senescent leaf
(4) Sodium (4) Dividing cells
SECTION - B
145. The staminate and pistillate flowers are born on
(ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS)
separate plant body in
136. Cyanobacteria are
(1) Papaya
(1) Chemosynthetic heterotrophs
(2) Cucurbits
(2) Heterotrophic bacteria
(3) Coconut
(3) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(4) Maize
(4) Photosynthetic autotrophs

137. In which of the given plant groups, main plant body 146. ABO blood group system in human being is an
is haploid? example of
(1) Angiosperm (2) Pteridophyte (1) Incomplete dominance
(3) Gymnosperm (4) Bryophyte (2) Pleiotropy
(3) Polyenes
138. Find odd one out w.r.t. zygomorphic flower. (4) Multiple allelism
(1) Canna (2) Cassia
(3) Pisum (4) Bean 147. DNA replication and transcription in E. coli are
similar in
139. A nuclear acer pore allows (1) Rate of polymerisation
(1) Protein movement only (2) Types of nucleotides
(2) RNA movement only (3) Direction of polymerisation
(3) Unidirectional movement of DNA (4) Type of DNA polymerases and RNA
(4) RNA and protein movement polymerases

[12]
148. Which of the following are important structural 149. Which of the following stage remain stable as long
features of ecosystem? as the environment remain unchanged during
a. Productivity ecological succession?
b. Species composition (1) Pioneer species/community
c. Stratification (2) Seral stage
d. Nutrient cycling (3) Transitional stage
(1) b and c (4) Climax species/community
(2) a and b
(3) a and d 150. Which of the following was adopted as a substitute
(4) b and d for open burning dumps?
(1) Sanitary landfills
(2) Ecosan-toilets
(3) Integrated sewage treatment
(4) Organic farming

[13]
 ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A 158. In humans, maximum amount of CO2 is carried by

the blood in the form of:
151. First true coelomate animals are placed in phylum
(1) Carbaminohaemoglobin
(1) Coelenterata (2) Platyhelminthes
(2) Carbonic anhydrase
(3) Aschelminths (4) Annelida
(3) NaHCO3
(4) Carboxyhaemoglobin
152. Water vascular system in echinoderms does not
help in
159. An extra oblique muscle layer is present inner to
(1) Respiration circular muscle layer in muscularis layer of:
(2) Excretion (1) Oesophagus (2) Duodenum
(3) Transport of food (3) Stomach (4) Ileum
(4) Sexual reproduction
160. Vital capacity of lungs is equal to:
153. Km of enzyme is: (1) IRV + ERV
(1) The substrate concentration at which it (2) IRV + ERV + TV + RV
achieves one half of the maximal rate (3) ERV + RV
(2) The substrate concentration at which it (4) IRV + ERV + TV
achieves maximal velocity
(3) The concentration of enzyme at which it 161. Which of the following cells lack granules in their
achieves half of the maximal rate cytoplasm?
(4) The concentration of enzyme at which it (1) Eosinophil (2) Basophil
achieves maximal rate
(3) Lymphocytes (4) Neutrophils

154. Enzymes that catalyze removal of groups from 162. The state of the heart when it is not able to pump
substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis blood effectively to meet the needs of body is
leaving double bonds are called: called:
(1) Lyases (2) Hydrolases (1) Heart failure
(3) Transferases (4) Ligases (2) Cardiac arrest
(3) Heart attack
155. Presence of intercalated discs are the (4) Myocardial infarction
characteristic feature of
(1) Single unit smooth muscle
163. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(2) Multi unit smooth muscle (1) On average about 1100–1200 mL of blood is
(3) Cardiac muscle filtered by kidneys per minute
(4) Skeletal muscle (2) Vasa recta is highly developed in cortical
nephrons
156. A pair of spermatheca is present in: (3) ANF acts as check on RAAS pathway
(1) 4th–6th abdominal segments in male (4) Substances like bilirubin, biliverdin,
cockroach cholesterol etc. are passed along with
(2) 2nd–6th abdominal segments in female digestive waste
cockroach
(3) 6th abdominal segment in female cockroach 164. Extension of cortex between medullary pyramids
(4) 6th abdominal segment in male cockroach in kidney is known as:
(1) Columns of Bertini
157. Which of the following enzymes is not a (2) Column of Bellini
component of succus entericus? (3) Renal pelvis
(1) Maltase (2) Dipeptidase (4) Hilum
(3) Pepsinogen (4) Nucleosidase
[14]
165. In human beings the skeletal system is grouped 173. Which of the following hormones is produced
into two principal divisions – the axial and the only during pregnancy in human female?
appendicular skeleton. (1) Estrogen
Which of the following is correct matching w.r.t. (2) Progesterone
the division of skeletal system and its example? (3) Human chorionic gonadotrophin
(1) Axial skeleton : Sternum, ribs, pectoral (4) Luteinising hormone
girdle
(2) Appendicular : Skull, girdle, sternum 174. Find the odd one w.r.t. barrier method of birth
skeleton control.
(3) Axial skeleton : Skull, sternum and (1) Condom (2) Diaphragm
ribs (3) Lippe’s loop (4) Cervical caps
(4) Appendicular : Sternum, ribs and
skeleton girdles 175. All the given are methods of contraception
except:
(1) Vasectomy (2) Tubectomy
166. ATPase activity in the muscle fibre lies with:
(3) ZIFT (4) IUD
(1) Actin (2) Head of myosin
(3) Tail of myosin (4) Tropomyosin 176. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is affected by all
except:
167. An organ which is degenerated in old age leading (1) Gene migration
to a weakened immune response is: (2) Random mating in a large population
(1) Thyroid (2) Thymus (3) Genetic drift
(3) Parathyroid (4) Pancreas (4) Mutation

177. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. cranial capacity

168. Which of the following hormone acts on exocrine
part of pancreas? (1) Homo Erectus – 900 cc
(1) GIP (2) Insulin (2) Homo Habilis – 650–800 cc
(3) Secretin (4) Steapsin (3) Homo Sapiens – 1350 cc
(4) Neanderthal man – 800 cc
169. Light rays generate receptor potential in rods by:
(1) Causing dissociation of rhodopsin into opsin 178. Proteins secreted by virus infected cells to protect
and retinal the non-infected cells from viral infection are
(2) Causing association of opsin and retinal to called:
form rhodopsin (1) Lysozymes (2) Interferons
(3) Causing denaturation of opsin (3) Perforins (4) Oncogenes
(4) Causing denaturation of retinal
179. Which one of the following products of apiculture
170. In mammalian cochlea, thin-walled sloping roof is used in cosmetics and polishes?
of the scala media is referred to as: (1) Honey
(1) Organ of Corti (2) Oil
(2) Scala tympani (3) Beeswax
(3) Basilar membrane (4) Royal jelly
(4) Reissner’s membrane
180. Which of the following is a correct match
171. Formation of secondary oocyte occur in: between diseases and causative agents?
(1) Ovary (2) Fallopian tube Disease Causative Agent
(3) Uterus (4) Cervix
(1) Plague Rhino virus
172. After spermiogenesis, sperm heads become (2) Amoebiasis Ascaris
embedded in the: (3) Elephantiasis Entamoeba
(1) Leydig cells (2) Spermatogonia
(4) Ringworm Microsporum
(3) Sertoli cells (4) Corona radiata

[15]
181. Human insulin is being commercially produced SECTION - B
from a transgenic species of (ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS)
(1) Mycobacterium 186. Body of Balanoglossus is divided into proboscis,
(2) Rhizobium collar and trunk. It also have
(3) Saccharomyces (1) Pulmonary respiration
(2) Open circulatory system
(4) Escherichia
(3) Internal fertilization
(4) Direct development
182. Which of the following is not used to transfer the
recombinant DNA into the host?
187. The positional information regarding sequence of
(1) Micro injection method
amino acids in a protein is included under
(2) Gene gun method (1) Quaternary structure
(3) Bioreactors (2) Secondary structure
(4) Disarmed pathogen vectors (3) 3-D structure
(4) Primary structure
183. Match column I and column II
Column I Column II 188. Find out the correct option w.r.t.
monosaccharides and their examples
(P) Taq polymerase (a) Cleaves the end
of linear DNA Monosaccharide Examples
(Q) Exonuclease (b) Breakdown of (1) C3H6O3 Galactose
fungal cell wall (2) C4H8O4 Sucrose
(R) Protease (c) Stable above (3) C5H10O5 Ribose
90°C
(4) C6H12O6 Maltose
(S) Chitinase (d) Degradation of
proteins
189. Osteocytes are branched cells present in
Choose the correct option.
(1) Periosteum
(1) (P) – (c), (Q) – (a), (R) – (d), (S) – (b)
(2) Perichondrium
(2) (P) – (d), (Q) – (c), (R) – (b), (S) – (a)
(3) Lacunae of cartilage
(3) (P) – (c), (Q) – (d), (R) – (b), (S) – (a)
(4) Lacunae of bones
(4) (P) – (c), (Q) – (b), (R) – (a), (S) – (d)
190. Pepsin is
184. Read the following statements and choose the (1) Inactive proteolytic gastric enzyme
correct option. (2) Active proteolytic gastric enzyme
(A) Disarmed Ti plasmid acts as cloning vector in (3) Active enzyme of pancreatic juice
recombinant DNA technology.
(4) Active lipolytic enzyme
(B) Disarmed Ti plasmid which is used in
mechanisms of delivering genes to a cell
191. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the
remains pathogenic.
working of the heart?
(1) Both A and B are correct
(1) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output
(2) Only A is correct increases
(3) Only B is correct (2) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
(4) Both A and B are incorrect (3) Heart rate is increased without affecting the
cardiac output
185. The organization which makes decisions (4) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
regarding the validity of GM research and the
safety of introducing GM-organisms for public 192. Which one of the following hormones does not
services is bind with cellular membrane receptors?
(1) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (1) Insulin
(2) Genome Environment Action Committee (2) Adrenaline
(3) Genetic Environment Approval Committee
(3) Cortisol
(4) Genetics and Ethical Issue Action Committee
(4) FSH

[16]
193. An axon has four terminal ends connected with 198. Each of the following statements concerning
dendrites of four different neurons. Its nerve malaria is correct, except
impulse will (1) In malaria the form of Plasmodium that is
(1) Become weak due to distribution into four transmitted from mosquito to human is
different neurons sporozoite
(2) Travel in all four neurons with equal strength (2) The principal site of gametocyte formation is
(3) Pass on to one neuron in human gastrointestinal tract
(4) Travel to none because the movement of (3) Release of haemozoin from the red blood
impulse is from dendrite to axon cells causes periodic fever and chills
(4) The female Anopheles is the vector
194. Enzymes which help in dissolving zona pellucida
layer of ovum are present in 199. In the process of insertional inactivation
(1) Nucleus of the sperm (1) A recombinant DNA is inserted within the
(2) Neck of sperm coding sequence of enzyme -galactosidase,
resulting in inactivation of enzyme
(3) Acrosome
(2) A recombinant DNA is inserted within the
(4) Tail of sperm
coding sequence of proteins involved in
replication of plasmid
195. Statement A: The human male ejaculates about (3) A recombinant DNA is inserted within the
200 to 300 million sperms during recognition sites for EcoR I
a coitus.
(4) A recombinant DNA is inserted at ‘ori’ site
Statement B: For normal fertility, at least 60 of plasmid pBR322
percent sperms must have normal
shape and size.
200. Which of the following statements is incorrect
(1) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect
about gene therapy in ADA deficiency?
(2) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct
(1) Lymphocytes from patient’s blood are taken
(3) Both statements A and B are correct out and cultured
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) A functional ADA cDNA is introduced into
these lymphocytes
196. In which of the following ART, sperm is directly (3) Lymphocytes are then introduced in the body
placed inside the egg with the help of microscopic of patient
needle? (4) Patients do not require periodic infusion of
(1) GIFT (2) ICSI genetically engineered lymphocytes
(3) AI (4) IUI

197. Which one of the following is incorrect?

(1) The thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
Cucurbita represents analogy
(2) Analogous structures are a result of
convergent evolution
(3) Homologous organs show common ancestry
(4) Eye of the octopus and of mammals are
analogous organs

[17]