FST 7

AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL
ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2023-24
FULL SYLLABUS TEST-07

TEST-ID : 207
DURATION : 200 Minutes DATE : 06-08-2023 MARKS : 720
Topic Covered
Physics : Full Syllabus
Chemistry : Full Syllabus
Biology : Full Syllabus
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2023 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:
• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
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All India Full Syllabus Test–07 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / 06-Aug-2023
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NLI / 2
TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS (MODEL)
SECTION-A -A
Attempt All 35 Questions 35

1. A man of mass M stands at one end of a plank of 1. M L
length L which lies at rest on a frictionless sur-
face. The man walks to the other end of the plank.
If the mass of the plank is 3M, the distance that
the man moves relative to the ground is- 3M
(1) L/4
(1) L/4
(2) 3L/4
(2) 3L/4
(3) 2L/3
(3) 2L/3
(4) L/3 (4) L/3
2. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius r 2. r v
with uniform velocity v. The change in velocity
P Q
when the particle moves from P to Q is
POQ 400
POQ 400
(1) 2v cos 400 (1) 2v cos 400
(2) 2v sin 400 (2) 2v sin 400
(3) 2v sin 200 (3) 2v sin 200
(4) 2v cos 200 (4) 2v cos 200
3. Two solid balls A and B whose masses are 200g 3. A B 200g

and 400g respectively, are moving in mutually
400g A
opposite directions. If the velocity of A is 0.3 m/s
and both the balls come to rest after collision, then 0.3 m/s
the velocity of the ball B is- B
(1) 0.15 m/s (1) 0.15 m/s
(2) - 0.15 m/s (2) - 0.15 m/s
(3) 1.5 m/s (3) 1.5 m/s
(4) none of these (4)

NLI / 3
4. A particle of mass m is projected at an angle to 4. m
the horizontal with an initial velocity u. The work
done by gravity during the time it reaches its
highest point is –
(1) mu2 sin2

(1) mu2 sin2
mu2co2
2 2 (2)
mu co 2
(2)
2
mu2 sin2
2
mu sin 2 (3)
(3) 2
2
mu2 sin2
mu2 sin2 (4)
(4) 2
2
5. An engine is attached to a wagon through a shock 5.

absorber of length 1.5 m. the entire system with a
total mass of 50000 kg was moving with the speed
of 36 km/h, when the brakes are applied to bring
it to rest. In this process the spring of shock
absorber gets compressed by 1.0 m. if 90% of the
energy of the wagon is lost due to friction, the
90%
spring constant is-
(1) 5.0 x 105 N/m
(1) 5.0 x 105 N/m
5
(2) 4.0 x 10 N/m
(2) 4.0 x 105 N/m
5
(3) 1.0 x 10 N/m (3) 1.0 x 105 N/m
(4) 2.0 x 105 N/m (4) 2.0 x 105 N/m
6. A simple pendulum is released from A as shown. 6. A
If m and l represent the mass of the bob and length M L
of the pendulum, the speed of the pendulum bob
at B. B
(1) 1.0 gl (1) 1.0 gl
(2) 2.0gl (2) 2.0gl
(3) 1.7 gl (3) 1.7 gl
gl gl
(4) (4)
1.7 1.7
NLI / 4
7. car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The 7. R
road is banked at an angle The coefficient of
friction between the tyres of the car and the road
s
is s The maximum safe velocity
tan
gR2 s tan (1) gR2 s
(1) 1 s tan
1 s tan
tan s tan
s gR
(2) gR (2)
1 1 tan
s tan s
g s tan g s tan
(3) (3)
R 1 s tan R 1 s tan
g s tan g s tan
(4) 2 (4)
R 1 s tan R 2 1 s tan
8. Which of the following statement is false for a

8.
particle moving in a circle with a constant angular
speed?
(1) the velocity vector is tangent to the circle (1)
(2) the acceleration vector is tangent to the circle
(2)
(3) the acceleration vector points to the centre of the
circle (C)
(4) the velocity and acceleration vector are
(4)
perpendicular to each other
9. Two masses A and B of 10 kg and 5 kg respectively, 9. A B
are connected with a string passing over a
frictionless pulley fixed at the corner of a table as
shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction of
A with the table is 0.2 , the minimum mass of C A C
that may be placed on A to prevent it from moving A
is
(1) 15kg (1) 15kg

(2) 5kg (2) 5kg
(3) 10kg (3) 10kg
(4) 0kg (4) 0kg
NLI / 5
10. A body of mass 2 kg moving on a rough horizontal 10.
surface with an initial velocity of 4 m/s comes to
rest after 2s. If one wants to keep moving on the
same surface with a velocity of 4m/s the force 4 m/s
required is
(1) 8 N (2) 4 N (1) 8 N (2) 4 N
(3) 0 (4) 2 N (3) 0 (4) 2 N
11. A gun fire bullets each of mass 1 g with velocity of 11. 10 ms-1
10 ms-1 by exerting a constant force 5g weight.
Then, the number of bullets fired per second is
(take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 50 (2) 5 (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 50 (2) 5
(3) 10 (4) 25
(3) 10 (4) 25
12. Which one of the following phenomenon is not
12.
explained by Huygen’s wave theory ?
(1) Refracion
(1)
(2) Reflection
(2)
(3) Diffraction
(C)
(4) origin of spectra
(4)
13. The graph between and 1/T for paramagnetic
13. 1/T
material will be represented by:
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
14. When interference of light takes place 14.
(1) energy is created in the region of maximum

intensity (1)
(2) energy is destroyed in the region of maximum

(2)
intensity
(3) conservation of energy holds good and energy is (C)
redistributed
(4) conservation of energy does not hold Good (4)
NLI / 6
15. From Brewster’s law, except for polished metallic 15.
surface, the polarising angle
(1) Depends on wave length and is different for different
colours. (1)
(2) Independent of wavelength and is different for

different colours.
(2)
(3) Independent of wavelength and is same for different
colours (C)
(4) Depends on wavelength and is same for different (4)

colours.
16. A convex lens is immersed in a liquid, whose 16.
refractive index is equal to the refractive index of
the material of the lens. Then its focal length will
(1) decreases
(1)
(2) becomes zero
(2)
(3) become infinite
(C)
(4) remains the same
(4)
17. In the circuit, if the forward voltage drop for the 17.
diode is 0.5V, the current will be
0.5V,
(1) 3.4 mA (1) 3.4 mA

(2) 2 mA (2) 2 mA
(3) 2.5 mA (3) 2.5 mA
(4) 3 mA (4) 3 mA
18. Near and far points for a normal human eye are 18.
(1) 25 cm and infinite (1)
(2) 25 cm and 100 cm (2)
(3) 55 cm and 200 cm (C)
(4) 0 cm and 25 cm (4)
19. In a pond of water, a flame is held 2m above the 19.
surface of the water. A fish is at depth of 4m from
the water surface. Refractive index of water is 1.33.
The apparent height of the flame from the eyes of
the fish is
(1) 5.5 m (1)
(2) 6 m (2)
(3) 2.66 m
(C) 2.66
(4) 6.66 m
(4) 6.66
NLI / 7
20. A coil of inductive reactance 31 Ω has a resistance 20. 31 Ω a8Ω
of 8 Ω. It is placed in series with a condenser of
capacitive reactance 25 Ω. The combination is
connnected to an ac source of 110 V. the power 25 Ω
factor of the circuit is
(1) 0.33 (1) 0.33
(2) 0.56 (2) 0.56
(3) 0.64 (3) 0.64
(4) 0.80 (4) 0.80
21. A 100V, Ac source of frequency 500Hz is connected 21. 100V, 500Hz L=8.1mH,
to an LCR circuit with L=8.1mH, C=12.5 F, R = C=12.5 F, R = 10
10 all connected in series as shown in figure.
What is quality factor of circuit?
(1) 2.02 (1) 2.02
(2) 50.54 (2) 50.54
(3) 2.54 (3) 2.54

(4) 200.54 (4) 200.54
22. Assertion : Dimensional constants are the 22.
quantities whose values are constant.
Reason : Dimensional constants are
dimensionless.
In above question a statement of assertion is
followed by statement of reason mark the correct (1)
choice.
(1) It both assertion and reason arc true and reason is
(2)
correct explanation of assertion.
correct explanation of assertion is not (3)
(3) assertion is true but reason is false.
(4)
(4) Both assertion and reason false.
23. Assertion : Electric lines of force never cross each 23.
other.
Reason : Electric field at a point superimpose to
give one resultant electric field
followed by statement of reason mark the correct
choice. (1)
(2)
correct explanation of assertion is not
(3) assertion is true but reason is false. (3)
(4) Both assertion and reason false. (4)
NLI / 8
24. Assertion : A point charge is brought in an electric 24.
field, the field at a nearby point will increase or
decrease, depending on the nature of charge.
Reason : The electric field is independent of the
nature of charge.
choice. (1)
correct explanation of assertion. (2)
(3)
25. Assertion : The electric field and magnetic field 25.

have equal average values in linearly polarised
plane em wave.
Reason : The electric energy and magnetic
energy have equal average values in linearly
polarised plane em wave
followed by statement of reason mark the correct (1)
choice.
correct explanation of assertion. (2)
correct explanation of assertion is not (3)
26. A source of sound of frequency 600Hz is placed 26. 600Hz
inside water. The speed of sound in water is 1500 1500 m/s
m/s and in air it is 300 m/s. the frequency of
sound recorded by an observer who is standing 300 m/s
in air is –
(1) 200 Hz (1) 200 Hz
(2) 3000 Hz (2) 3000 Hz
(3) 120 Hz (3) 120 Hz
(4) 600 Hz (4) 600 Hz
27. On which principle does Sonometer work? 27.
(1) Hook's law
(1)
(2) Elasticity (2)
(3) Resonance (C)
(4) Newton's law (4)
28. The velocity of sound in air at NTP is 330 m/s. What 28. NTP 330 m/s.
will be its value when temperature is doubled and
pressure is halved?
(1) 330 m/s (1) 330 m/s
(2) 165 m/s (2) 165 m/s
(3) 330 2 m/s (3) 330 2 m/s
(4) 330 2 m/s (4) 330 2 m/s

NLI / 9
29. A man standing between a stationary source 29.
and cliff , When he starts moving along line
joining him and source, he hears 10 beats per
second .The velocity of man is (frequency of
source = 600 Hz ,velocity of sound = 300 m/s)
(1) 5.5 m/s
(2) 11 m/s (1) 5.5 m/s
(2) 11 m/s
(3) 16.5 m/s
(3) 16.5 m/s
(4) 2.5 m/s (4) 2.5 m/s
30. A tuning fork of frequency 100 Hz when sounded 30.
together with another tuning fork of unknown
frequency produces 2 beats per second. On
loading the tuning fork whose frequency is not
known and sounded together with a tuning fork
of frequency 100 Hz produces one beat, then the
frequency of the other tuning fork is
(1) 102
(1) 102
(2) 98
(2) 98
(3) 99 (3) 99
(4) 101 (4) 101
31. A clock that keeps correct time at 20°C is 31. 20°C 40°C
subjected to 40°C. If coefficient of linear 12 x10-
expansion of the pendulum is 12 x10-6/c. How 6
much time will it gain or lose? /c
(1) 10.3 s/day (1) 10.3 s/
(2) 20.6 s/day (2) 20.6 s/
(3) 5 s/day (3) 5 s/
(4) 20 mn/day (4) 20 mn/
32. Which of the following is more close to a black 32.

body?
(1)
(1) Black board paint
(2)
(2) Green leasves
(3)
(3) Black holes
(4) Red roses (4)
33. The displacement of the particle varies with time 33.

k k
according to the relation x 1 e bt . Then the x 1 e bt .
b b
velocity of the particle is
bt
(1) k e (1) k e
bt
k k
(2) 2 bt (2)
b e b e bt
2
(3) kbe bt bt
(3) kbe
(4) None of these (4)
NLI / 10
34. Excess pressure inside a soap bubble is three 34.
times that of the other bubble, then the ratio of
their volumes will be
(1)
(1) 3 : 3
(2)
(2) 1 : 9
(3) 1 : 27 (3)
(4) 1 : 81 (4)
35. Water coming out of the mouth of a tap and falling 35.
vertically in streamline flow forms a tapering
(1) As the water moves down, its speed increases and

hence its pressure decreases. It is then compressed
by the atmosphere (1)
(2) Falling water tries to reach a terminal velocity and
hence reduces the area of cross-section to balance (2)
upward and downward forces
(3) The mass of water flowing past any cross-section
must remain constant. Also, water is alm ost (3)
incompressible. Hence, the rate of volume flow must
remain constant. As this is equal to velocity area,
the area decreases as velocity increses
(4) The surface tension causes the exposed surface (4)
area of the liquid to decrease continuously
-B
SECTION-B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can 15 15
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 10
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be 10
considered for marking.
6. In the circuit shown in figure, switcyh S1 is clossed 36. S1 S2
and S2 is open Find Va - Vb Va - Vb
(1) 4V (2) - 8V (1) 4V (2) - 8V

(3) 12V (4) 16V (3) 12V (4) 16V
NLI / 11
37. A simple pendulum oscillates in a vertical plane. 37.
When it passes through the mean position, the
tension in the string is 3 times the weight of the
pendulum bob. What is the maximum
displacement of the pendulum with respect to the
vertical.
(1) 300
(1) 300
(2) 450
(2) 450
(3) 600 (3) 600
(4) 900 (4) 900
38. If the radius of earth reduces by 4% and density 38. 4%
remains same the escape velocity will-
(1) reduced by 2% (1) 2%
(2) increased by 2% (2) 2%
(3) reduced by 4% (3) 4%
(4) increased by 4% (4) 4%
39. A projectile is moving at 20 m/sec at its highest 39.
point where it breaks into two equal parts due to
an internal explosion. One part moves vertically
upat30 m/sec. Thentheotherpart will move at :
(1) 20 m/sec
(2) 10 m/sec (1) 20 m/sec
(2) 10 m/sec
(3) 50 m/sec
(3) 50 m/sec
(4) 30 m/sec
(4) 30 m/sec
40. Time period of a block suspended from the uppper
40. k
plate of a parallel plate capacitor by a spring of
stiffness k is T, when block is uncharged. If a
charge q is given to the block then, the new time T
period of oscillation will be q
(1) T (1) T
(2) >T (2) >T
(3) <T (3) <T
(4) >T (4) >T
41. The number of photoelectrons emitted for the light 41. u u0
of frequency u (higher than the threshold
frequency u0) is proportional to
(1) threshold frequency (u0) (1) (u0)
(2) intensity of light
(2)
(3) frequency of light (u) (3) (u)
(4) u-u0 (4) u-u0
NLI / 12
42. Two coils of self inductance 2mH and 8 mH are 42. 2mH 8 mH
placed so close together that the effective flux in
one coil is completely linked with the other. The
mutual inductance between these coils is
(1) 16 mH (1) 16 mH
(2) 10 mH (2) 10 mH
(3) 6 mH (3) 6 mH
(4) 4 mH (4) 4 mH
43. A transformer of frequency 60 Hz and 120 V input 43.
has 8 : 1 turn ratio. The frequency of the output is:
(1) 40 Hz
(1) 40 Hz
(2) 480 Hz (2) 480 Hz
(3) 2 Hz (3) 2 Hz
(4) 60 Hz (4) 60 Hz
44. The flux associated with a coil changes from 1.35 44. 1.35 Wb 0.79 Wb
Wb to 0.79 Wb with in 1/10 s. then the charge
which flows in the coil, if resistance of coil is 7 &!
is – 7
(1) 0.08 C (1) 0.08 C
(2) 0.8 C (2) 0.8 C

(3) 0.008 C (3) 0.008 C
(4)8 C (4)8 C
45. A man goes to a height equal to the radius of the 45.
earth from its surface. The weight of the person at
that height relative to his weight on the surface of
earth is
(1) 1/2 (1) 1/2
(2) 1/3 (2) 1/3
(3) 1/4 (3) 1/4
(4) 1/5 (4) 1/5
46. Assertion : Electrons in the atom are held due to 46.
coulomb forces.
Reason : The atom is stable only because the
centripetal force due to Coulomb’s law is
balanced by the centrifugal force.
choice.
(1)
(2) It both assertion and reason arc true and reason is (2)
NLI / 13
47. Assertion : On disturbing an electric dipole in 47.
stable equilibrium in an electric field, it returns
back to its stable equilibrium orientation.
Reason : A restoring torque acts on the dipole on
being disturbed from its stable equilibrium.
choice.
(1)
(2) It both assertion and reason arc true and reason is (2)
48. Assertion : An object is placed at a distance of f 48. f f
from a convex mirror of focal length f its image
will form at infinity.
Reason : The distance of image in convex mirror
can never be infinity
choice. (1)
(2)
49. Assertion : If the rays are diverging after emerging 49.
from a lens; the lens must be concave.
Reason : The convex lens can give diverging rays.
choice. (1)
(2)
50. The magnitude of any physical quantity: 50.
(1) depends on the method of measurement. (1)
(2) does not depend on the method of measurement. (2)
(3) is more in the SI system than in the CGS system.
(3)
(4) is directly proportional to the fundamental units of
mass, length and time. (4)
NLI / 14
Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
SECTION-A -A
51. Given below are two statements : 51.

Statement I : I:
The molality of the solution changes with change
in temperature.
II :
Statement II :
The molality is expressed in units of moles per 1000
1000 g of solvent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) I II

52. Using the data given below find out the strongest 52.
reducing agent :
Eo 1.33V, Eo 1.36V Eo 1.33V, Eo 1.36V

Cr2O7 / Cr 3 Cl2 / Cl Cr2O7 / Cr 3 Cl2 / Cl
Eo 1.51V, Eo 0.74 Eo 1.51V, Eo 0.74

MnO4 / Mn2 Cr 3 / Cr MnO4 / Mn2 Cr 3 / Cr
(1) Cl– (1) Cl–

(2) Cr (2) Cr
(3) Cr+3 (3) Cr+3
(4) Mn+2 (4) Mn+2
53. In lactose (milk sugar) glycosidic linkage takes 53.
place between :
(1) C1 (D) C4
(1) C1 of galctose and C4 of glucose (D)
(2) -D- C1 -D- C4
(2) C1 of -D-galactose and C4 of -D-glucose
(3) C1 of -D-galactose and C4 of -D-glucose (3) -D- C1 -D- C4
(4) C1 of -D-glycose and C4 of -D-gulactose (4) -D- C1 -D- C4

54. The extent of hydrogen bonding is maximum in : 54.
(1) HF (1) HF
(2) NH3 (2) NH3
(3) H2O (3) H2O
(4) C2H5OH (4) C2H5OH

NLI / 15
55. Arrange the following compound in reactivity 55.
order towards nucleophilic addition reaction.
CH3 C 6H 5 CH3 C 6H 5
a. C=O b. C=O C=O C=O
H H a. b.
H H
CH3 CH3
c. C=N–CH3 C=N–CH3
H c.
H
(1) a > b > c (1) a > b > c
(2) c > b > a (2) c > b > a
(3) b > c > a (3) b > c > a
(4) None (4)
56. Which of the following option is correct :
56.
(1) Boron is able to form BF63– ion
(1) BF63–
3
(2) In diborane structure, each B atom has sp
hybridisation. (2) B sp3
(3) The hydration enthalpies of alkaline earth metal (3)

ions are smaller than those of alkali metal ions.
(4) Diamond has low melting point.

(4)
CH(CH3)2 OH
CH(CH3)2 OH
+
57. O2 H +
A +B 57. O2 H
H2O A +B
H2O
Identify A and B respectively :
A B :
CH3–C–OOH
CH3–C–OOH
(1) , CH3–CH=CH2
(1) , CH3–CH=CH2
CH3–C–OOH CH3–C–OOH
(2) , (2) ,
CH3–C–OOH CH3–C–OOH
(3) , CH3COCH3 (3) , CH3COCH3
CH3–C–CH3 CH3–C–CH3
(4) , (4) ,
NLI / 16
58. Which of the following is correct : 58.
(1) The correct order of catenation in carbon family is (1)

C < Si < Ge C < Si < Ge
(2) ICl is less reactive than I2 (2) ICl I2
(3) In graphite, carbon atom has sp3 hybridisation (3) C sp3
(4) Boric acid is considered as a weak acid. (4)
59. The standard electrode potential for daniel cell 59. 1.1 V
is 1.1 V. the standard gibbs energy approximate Zn(S) + Cu2+(aq.)  Zn2+(aq.) + Cu(s)
for reaction Zn(S) + Cu2+(aq.)  Zn2+(aq.) + Cu(s) is :
(1) –412.27 kJ mol–1

(1) –412.27 kJ mol–1
(2) –22.27 kJ mol–1 (2) –22.27 kJ mol–1
(3) –212.27 kJ mol–1 (3) –212.27 kJ mol–1
(4) –312.27 kJ mol–1 (4) –312.27 kJ mol–1
60. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 60. 353.23 K 1.80 g
1.80 g of a non volatile solute was dissolved in 90
90 g
g of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11
K. The approx molar mass of the solute is (Kb for 354.11 K
benzene is 2.53 KKg mol–1) ( Kb 2.53 KKg mol–1)
(1) 72 g mol–1 (1) 72 g mol–1
(2) 62 g mol-1 (2) 62 g mol-1
(3) 48 g mol–1 (3) 48 g mol–1
(4) 58 g mol–1 (4) 58 g mol–1
61. A + 2B + C  Product rate law equation is 61. A + 2B + C 

r=K[A]–1[B]2[C]–1 order of reaction will be : r=K[A]–1[B]2[C]–1
(1) Zero (1)
(2) 1 (2) 1
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 3 (4) 3
62. Which has maximum number of atoms : 62. :

(1) 0.1 gram-molecule of H2SO4 (1) 0.1 H2SO4
(2) 0.1 gram-molecule of CH4 (2) 0.1 CH4
(3) 5.6 litre of SO3 gas at STP (3) 5.6 SO3 (STP )
(4) 36 mL of H2O at room temperature (4) 36 mL H2O (NTP )
63. Extent of physisorption of a gas decreases with : 63.
(1) increase in temperature (1)
(2) decrease in temperature (2)
(3) decrease in surface area of absorbent (3)
NLI / 17
64. Which of the following shows disproportionation 64.
reaction :
(1) ClO– (1) ClO–
(2) ClO2– (2) ClO2–
(3) ClO3– (3) ClO3–
(4) All (4)
ln[R]
ln[R] 65.
65.
t
t
Select the correct statement :
(1) Slope will be –K for first order reaction (1) –K
(2) Slope will be –2.303/K for first order reaction (2) –2.303/K
(3) It is a graph for zero order reaction (3)
(4) Slope will be –K for zero order reaction. (4) –K
Anhyd. NaOH Anhyd. NaOH

66. Cl2 A B 66. Cl2 A B
AlCl3 300 atm AlCl3 300 atm
623 atm 623 atm
B is : B is :
Cl OH Cl OH
HO OH HO OH
(1) (2) (1) (2)
HO OH HO OH
OH OH
OH ONa OH ONa
(3) (4) (3) (4)
67. The IUPAC name of the compound is : 67. IUPAC
(1) 1, 2, 5, 7 octatetraene (1) 1, 2, 5, 7
(2) 1, 3, 5, 7 heptatetraene (2) 1, 3, 5, 7
(3) 1, 3, 5, 7 octatetraene (3) 1, 3, 5, 7
(4) 1, 5, 7 octatetraane (4) 1, 5, 7

NLI / 18
68. Which of the following reaction is friedel craft 68.
alkylation :
Cl
Cl
(1) + Cl2 + HCl
(1) + Cl2 + HCl
CH3
CH3
(2) + CH3Cl + HCl
(2) + CH3Cl + HCl
NO2
NO2
(3) + conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4 + H2O
(3) + conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4 + H2O
(4)
(4) None of these
CH3
CH3
69. Cl2 (Excess) conc. HNO3 Zn HCl
69. Cl2 (Excess) conc. HNO3 Zn HCl A B C
A B C h conc. H 2SO4
h conc. H 2SO4
C
C is :
Cl CH3
Cl CH3
(1) (2)
(1) (2) NO2 Cl
NO2 Cl
CH3
CH3
CH3
CH3 (3) (4)
NO2 NO2
(3) (4)
NO2 NO2
CH3
70. Among CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2Br, CH 3CH2CHCH3 and 70. CH3CH2CH2CH2Br, CH 3CH2CHCH3 CH3–C–CH3
Br Br Br
CH3
CH3–C–CH3 whch has lowest boiling point :
(1) CH3CH2CH2Br
Br
(1) CH3CH2CH2Br (2) CH 3CH 2CHCH3

Br
(2) CH 3CH 2CHCH3
Br CH3
(3) CH3–C–CH3
CH3
Br
(3) CH3–C–CH3
Br
(4)
(4) None of these
NLI / 19
71. Alc. KOH Br2 / CCl4 71. Alc. KOH Br2 / CCl4
CH3 CH2 Cl A B CH3 CH2 Cl A B
B is : B
(1) CH3–CH2–CN (1) CH3–CH2–CN
(2) CH3–CH2–CH3 (2) CH3–CH2–CH3
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2 (3) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2
N2+Cl– NH2 N2+Cl– NH2

H H
72. A Cl H2 O 72. + A Cl H2 O
+
A is : A
(1) p-Hydroxybenzene (1) p-
(2) p-Hydroxyazobenzene (2) p-
(3) p-Aminoazobenzene (3) p-
73. Phenol will not react with : 73.
(1) NaOH (1) NaOH
(2) Na (2) Na
(3) NaHCO3 (3) NaHCO3
(4) R–Mg–X (4) R–Mg–X
OH OH
74. NaOH i. CO2

74. NaOH i. CO2 A B
A B ii. H
ii. H
B is : B
ONa ONa ONa ONa
(1) (2) (1) (2)
OH
OH
COOH
COOH (3) (4)
(3) (4) None of these
CN
CN
(i) Sn / HCl CHO
(i) Sn / HCl CHO
75. (ii) H3O
75. (ii) H3O
Reaction is :
(1)
(1) Etard reaction
(2) Gatterman Koch Reaction (2)
(3) Stephen Reduction (3)
(4) Rosenmund Reduction (4)
NLI / 20
76. Which will show tautomerism : 76.
(1) CH2=CH–OH (1) CH2=CH–OH
OH OH
(2) (2)
O O
(3) (3)
(4) All of the above (4)
77. The PKa of acetic acid and PKb of ammonium 77. PKa PKb
hydroxide are 4.76 and 4.75 respectively the PH 4.76 4.75 PH
of ammonium acetate solution is :
(1) 6.005 (1) 6.005

(2) 7.005 (2) 7.005
(3) 8.005 (3) 8.005
(4) 9.005 (4) 9.005
78. There are three elements A, B, C having 78. A, B, C 3s2,

outermost electronic configuration 3s2, 3p4, 3p5
3p4, 3p5
respectively. Which statement is incorrect for
there elements :
(1) IE1 C>B>A
(1) Order of IE1 C>B>A
(2) HegI C>B>A
(2) Order of HegI C>B>A
(3) Compound formed between A and C is ionic (3) A C
(4) Element B and C can not form any compound (4) B C

79. The radial nodes for 2s orbital is : 79. 2s
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 0 (2) 0
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 3 (4) 3
80. Lanthanides are : 80.
(1) 14 elements in the VI period (at. no. 58 to 71) that (1) VI 14 58 71 4f
are filling the 4f sub level.
(2) 14 elements in the VII period (at. no. 58 to 71) that (2) VII 14 58 71 4f
are filling the 4f sub level.
(3) 14 elements in the VII period (at. no. 90 to 103) (3) VII 14 90 103 5f
that are filling the 5f sub level.
(4) 14 elements in the VI period (at. no. 90 to 103) (4) VI 14 90 103 4f

that are filling the 4f sub level.
NLI / 21
81. In the given graph, for chlorine and nitrogen 81.
whch has more most probable speed :
No. of molecules
No. of molecules
Ump(Cl2) Ump(Cl2)
Ump(N2) Ump(N2)
Mol. Speed Mol. Speed
(1) Ump (Cl2) > Ump(N2) (1) Ump (Cl2) > Ump(N2)
(2) Ump (N2) > Ump(Cl2)
(2) Ump (N2) > Ump(Cl2)
(3) Ump (Cl2) = Ump(N2)
(3) Ump (Cl2) = Ump(N2)
(4)
(4) None of these
[R]o
82. For first order reaction, the correct graph for 82. log Vs Time :
[R]
[R]o
log Vs Time is :
[R]
[R]o
log
[R]
[R]o (1)
log
[R]
(1) Time
Time
[R]o
log
[R]o [R]
log (2)
[R]
(2)
Time
Time
[R]o
log
[R] [R]
log o (3)
[R]
(3)
Time
Time
[R]o
[R] log
log o [R]
[R] (4)
(4)
Time
Time
NLI / 22
83. The most stable carbanion is : 83.
–0 –0
–0 CH2 –0 CH2
CH2 CH2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
–0 –0
–0 CH2 –0 CH2
CH2 CH2
(3) CH3 (4) CH3
(3) (4)
CH2–CH3 CH2–CH3
84. Atoms of element B forms hcp lattice and those 84. B hcp A
of element A occupy 1/3 rd of tetrahedral voids. 1/3 A B
Formula of the compound formed by elements A
and B is :
(1) A3B4
(1) A3B4
(2) A4B3 (2) A4B3
(3) AB2 (3) AB2

(4) A2B3 (4) A2B3
85. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the 85. [Ni(CO)4]
complex [Ni(CO)4] are :
(1)
(1) Square planer geometry and paramagnetic
(2)
(2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(3)
(3) Square planer geometry and diamagnetic
(4)
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
-B
SECTION-B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can 15 15
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 10
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
considered for marking. 10
86. Which of the following has p-d bonding : 86. p-d
– 3– –
(1) NO 3
(2) BO 3
(1) NO 3
(2) BO33–
(3) PO43– (4) CO32– (3) PO43– (4) CO32–
87. Which of the following electron distribution in 87.
groud state only Hund's rule is violated :
(1)
(1)
2s 2p
2s 2p
(2)
(2)
2s 2p
2s 2p
(3) (3)
2s 2p 2s 2p
(4) (4)
2s 2p 2s 2p
NLI / 23
88. Which of the following options represent the 88.
correct bond length :
(1) O2– < O2 < O2+
(1) O2– < O2 < O2+
(2) O2– > O2 > O2+
(2) O2– > O2 > O2+
(3) O2– < O2 > O2+ (3) O2– < O2 > O2+
(4) O2– > O2 < O2+ (4) O2– > O2 < O2+
89. Which of the following will favour maximum 89.

formation of product in the reaction,
A2(g) + B2(g)  X2(g), H = +X KJ A2(g) + B2(g)  X2(g), H = +X KJ
(1) High temperature and high pressure (1)
(2) Low temperture and low pressure (2)
(3) Low temperature and high pressure (3)
(4) High temperature and low pressure (4)
90. Hybridisation in polymeric form of BeCl2 will be : 90. BeCl2
(1) sp2 (1) sp2
(2) sp (2) sp
(3) sp3 (3) sp3
(4) sp3d1 (4) sp3d1
91. Match the species given in column I with the 91. I II

shape given in column II and mark the correct
option :
I II
Column I Column II
A. SF4 i.
A. SF4 i. Tetrahedral
B. BrF3 ii.
B. BrF3 ii. Pyramidal
C. BrO3– iii.
C. BrO3– iii. See saw shape
D. NH4+ iv. Bent T-shape D. NH4+ iv. T-
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv (1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii (4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
92. Which of the following types of drugs reduces 92.

fever:
(1)
(1) Analgesic
(2)
(2) Antipyretic
(3) Antibiotic (3)
(4) Tranquiliser (4)
NLI / 24
93. Hydrocarbon (A) react with bromine by 93. (A)
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
hydrocarbon containing four carbon atom (A)
(A)
(1) CH3–CH3 (1) CH3–CH3
(2) CH2=CH2 (2) CH2=CH2
(3) CH CH (3) CH CH
(4) CH4 (4) CH4
94. Which of the following option is incorrect : 94.
(1) the formula of peroxodisulphuric acid is H2S2O8 (1) H2S2O8
(2) H2S is less acidic than H2Te (2) H2S , H2Te
(3) The nature of nitrogen monooxide NO is neutral (3) NO
(4) Noble gases have very high boiling points (4)
95. The correct order of ionic mobility for alkali metals 95.
ions in aqueous solution:
(1) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ < Cs+ (1) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ < Cs+
(2) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ (2) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(3) Li+ = Na+ = K+ = Rb+ = Cs+ (3) Li+ = Na+ = K+ = Rb+ = Cs+
96. Zone refining is based on the principle that : 96.
(1) impurities of low boiling metals can be separated (1)

by distillation
(2) impurities are more soluble in molten metal than (2)

in solid metal
(3) impurities are more volatile in molten metal than (3)

in solid metal
97. The number of  bonds in B2H6 are : 97. B 2 H6 
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 8 (3) 8
(4) Zero (4)

NLI / 25
copolymerisation copolymerisation
98. nCH2 CH CH CH2 nCH2 CH A 98. nCH2 CH CH CH2 nCH2 CH A
| |
CN CN
A is : A
(1) PHBV (1) PHBV
(2) Neoprene (2)
(3) nylon-6 (3) -6
(4) Buna-N (4) -N
99. What will be the correct order for the wavelengths 99.
of absorption in the visible region of the following:
[Ni(NH3)6]2+, Ni(CN)6]–4, [Ni(H2O)6]+2, [NiCl6]–4 [Ni(NH3)6]2+, Ni(CN)6]–4, [Ni(H2O)6]+2, [NiCl6]–4
A B C D A B C D
(1) A > B > C > D (1) A > B > C > D
(2) D > C > A > B (2) D > C > A > B
(3) D > C > B > A (3) D > C > B > A
(4) B > A > C > D (4) B > A > C > D
CH2–CH3 CH2–CH3
Br2 Br2
100. Product 100.
NO2 NO2
Identify the product : :
CH2–CH2–Br CH2–CH2–Br
(1) (1)
NO2 NO2
CH–CH3 CH–CH3
(2) (2)
NO2 Br NO2 Br
Br Br
CH–CH3 CH–CH3
(3) (3)
NO2 NO2
Br Br
CH–CH3 CH–CH3
(4) (4)
NO2 Br NO2 Br
NLI / 26
PART-1 (SECTION-A) -A
101. Select the correct option for the given diagram 101.
(1) Simple stirred - tank bioreactor (1)

(2) Sparged stirred - tank bioreactor (2)
(3) Biogas plant (3)
(4) Fermentation plant (4)
102. Given below are two statements 102.
Statement I: -I:
The degradation of natural resources can occur, not
just by the action of polluntants but also by improper
resources utilisation practices.
Statement II :
- II :
Deforestation is the conversion of forested areas to non-
forested ones.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
Statement I: -I:
Green house gases absorb long wave (infrared) radiation
from the earth and emit it again towards the earth.
Statement II : - II :
Increase in the level of green house gases has led to
considerable heating of earth leading to global warming.
below:
NLI / 27
104. Which one of the following is the incorrect match 104.
(1) Algal bloom – Planktonic algae (1) –
(2) Some bloom forming – Toxic to human (2) –
algae (3) –
(3) Eichhornia crassipes – Terror of Bengal (4) –
(4) Town of Arcata – Situated at Northern
coast of Tokyo
105.
105. Given below are two statements
-I:
Statement I:
In primary succession on rocks usually lichens are able
to secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering
and soil formation.
Xerarch succession takes place in dry areas and the
series progress from xeric to mesic conditions.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Statement I: -I:
Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark, flowers and
dead remains of animals including fecal matter,
constitute detritus.
The important steps in the process of decomposition
are fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humification
and vernalisation.
below: (1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
Statement I: -I:
13
According to one estimate 4 × 10 kg of carbon is fixed
annually in the biosphere through photosynthesis. 4 × 1013 kg
Decomposers also contribute substaintially to CO2 pool CO2
by their processing of waste material and dead organic
matter of land or oceans.
below:
NLI / 28
Statement I:
-I:
A true - breeding line is one that, having undergone
continous self - pollination, shows the stable trait
inheritance and expression for several generation.
Genes are the units of inheritance they contain the
information that is required to express a particular trait
in an organism.
below: (1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
109. Which one of the following is the incorrect match 109.
(1) Incomplete dominance – Snapdragon (1) –
(2) Codominance – AB blood group (2) – AB

(3) –
(3) Monohydrid cross – Height of pea plant
(4) –9
(4) Dihybrid cross – 9 phenotypes
Statement I: -I:
Francis crick proposed the central dogma in molecular

biology.
Statement II :
- II :
The positively charged DNA is wraped around the
positively charged histone octamer to form a structure
called nucleosome. DNA

below:
(1) I II
(2) I II

111. Which one of the following is the correct match 111.
(1) HGP – Mega project
(1) HGP –
(2) HGP – Launched in the year
(2) HGP – 1990
1990
(3) DNA –
(3) DNA fingerprinting – Alec Jeffreys
(4)
(4) All
NLI / 29
Statement I: -I:
The ribosome also acts as a catalyst (23S rRNA in
bacteria is the enzyme – ribozyme) for the formation of (23S rRNA,
phosphodiester bond.
Statement II :
- II :
Translational unit in mRNA is the sequence of RNA that
m-RNA RNA
is flanked by the start codon (AUG) and the stop codon
(AUG )
and codes for a polypeptide.
below:
Statement I: -I:
The order and sequence of amino acids are defined by mRNA
the sequence of bases in the mRNA.
The cellular factory responsible for synthesing proteins
is the ribosome.
below:
(1) I II

114. Select the correct option for the given diagram 114.
(1)
(1) Stabilising type of natural selection
(2)
(2) Disruptive type of natural selection
(3) Directional type of natural selection (3)
NLI / 30
115. How many statements are correct for the given 115.
diagram
(I)
(I) (II)
(II)
(III)
(III) (IV)
(IV)
(a)
(a) All are extinct animal
(b)
(b) All are reptiles
(c)
(c) All are Dinosaurs
(d)
(d) All are evolved during coenozoic era and suddenly
disappeared from earth during paleozoic era
(1)
(1) Four
(2)
(2) Three
(3)
(3) Two
(4)
(4) One
Statement I: -I:
It needs to be emphasised that the selection of a suitable

contraceptive method and its use should always be
under taken in consultation with qualified medical
professionals
Surgical intervention blocks gamete transport and there

by prevent conception.
below:
(1) I II
NLI / 31

Statement I: -I:
According to the 2011 census report, the population
growth rate was more than 2 percent i.e. 12/1000 /year,
a rate at which our population could release rapidly.
Successful implementation of various action plans to
attain reproductive health requires strong infrastructural
facilities, professional expertise and material support.
below:
118. Which one of the following are correct match 118.
a. Pistillate flower I. Unisexual a. I.
b. Antherozoid II. Type of gamete b. II.
c. Homothallic III. Bisexual
c. III.
d. Meiocytes IV. Gamete mother cell
d. IV.
(1) a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
(1) a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II
(2) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III (2) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
(3) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV (3) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
(4) a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II (4) a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II
119. Which one of the following matching is Incorrect: 119.
(1) MMC – Meiotic division (1) MMC –
(2) PMC – Meiotic division (2) PMC –
(3) Embryo sac – Male gametophyte (3) –
(4) Egg Apparatus – Haploid (4) –
120. Select the correct statements for the given diagram 120.
a.
b.
a. It represents mutual relationship
b. It represents relationship between plant and
pollinator c.
c. Related with co-evolution d.
d. It represents parasitic relationship (1) a, b, d
(1) Only a, b, d
(2) b, c
(2) Only b, c
(3) Only a, b, c (3) a, b, c
(4) All (4)
NLI / 32
121. How many are example of Insitu - conservation 121.
a. Zoological park a.
b. National park b.
c. Wild life safari park c.
d. Botanical garden d.
e.
e. Sacred groves
(1)
(1) Two
(2)
(2) Three
(3)
(3) Four
(4)
(4) One
122.
122. Most of the organelle duplication occurs at
(1) G1
(1) G1-phase
(2) S
(2) S-phase
(3) G2
(3) G2-phase
(4) M
(4) M-phase
123. Which one of the following is correct for the given 123.
diagram :
A
A
C
C
B
B D
D
(1) A– 1
(1) A–Gap 1
(2) C–DNA
(2) C–DNA Synthesis
(3) B–
(3) B–Number of chromosome per cell doubles
(4) D–Protein are synthesised required for mitosis (4) D–
124. Which one activates trypsinogen : 124.

(1) HCl
(1) HCl
(2)
(2) Lipase
(3)
(3) Amylase
(4)
(4) Enterokinase
125. Which of the following statement is correct 125. :
(1) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground sub- (1)
stance
(2) Bones are rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres (2)
(3) Calcium salts and collagen fibres provides strength (3)

to the bone
(4) All of these (4)
NLI / 33
126. How many are the correct statement for cockroach: 126.
(a) In each segment, exoskeleton has hardened (a)
plates called sclerites
(b) Body is segmented and divisible into three
(b)
distinct region
(c) Maxilla is a mouth part
(c)
(d) 7th sternum of female cockroach is boat shaped
(d) 7
(1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 3
(2) 3
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 1 (4) 1
127. How many statements are correct with reference 127.
to figure :
(a)
(a) It is a type of inflorescence
(b)
(b) It has a structure which perform photosynthesis
(c) It has cell division area
(c)
(d) Above structure is formed by embryonic
(d)
radicle
(1) 3 (1) 3
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 1 (4) 1
128. Which one of the following statements is correct 128.
(1) Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present (1)
only in the heart
in the brain and heart
stomach and heart
(4) Cardiac muscle are voluntary (4)
129. Which of the following are produced by reactions 129.
that take place in the thylakoids and consumed by
reactions in the stroma :
(1)
(1) CO2 and H2O
(2) NADP+ ADP
(2) NADP+ and ADP
(3) ATP and NADPH (3) ATP NADPH
(4) Glucose and O2 (4)
NLI / 34
130. Which of the following scientist are not involved 130.
in the experiment that led to a gradual
development in our understanding of
photosynthesis :
(a)
(a) Jacob and monod
(b)
(b) Paurl Ehrlich
(c)
(c) Van Niel
(d)
(d) Julius von sachs
(e)
(e) William Harvey
(1) a, b, c, e
(1) a, b, c, e
(2) a, d
(2) Only a, d
(3) a, b, e
(3) a, b, e
(4) b, e
(4) Only b, e
131. RuBISCO
131. RuBisCO have higher affinity for
(1)
(1) CO2
(2)
(2) O2
(3) (1)
(3) both 1 and 2 with equal affinity
(4)
(4) PGA
132. Which of the following statement is correct for 132.
nodes of Ranvier of a nerve?
(1) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are
(1)
discontinuous
(2)
(2) Neurilemma is discontinuous
(3) Myelin sheath is discontinuous (3)
(4) Covered by myelin sheath (4)
133. The correct sequence of path followed by water 133.
in symplastic pathway :
(1)
(1) Epidermis, cortex, pericycle, endodermis
(2) Epidermis, endodermis, cortex, pericycle (2)
(3) Epidermis, cortex, endodermis, pericycle (3)
(4) Epidermis, pericycle , cortex, endodermis (4)
134. In case of which type of chromosome the 134.

centromere is situated close to its end forming one
extremely short and one very long arm :
(1) Acrocentric (1)
(2) Telocentric (2)

(3) Metacentric (3)
(4) Submetacentric (4)
NLI / 35
135. In our skeletal system which one of the following 135.
cranial bone are paired :
a. Parietal b. Temporal a. b.
c. Frontal d. Sphenoid c. d.
e. Ethmoid
e.
(1) a, b, c (1) a, b, c
(2) a, b (2) a, b
(3) a, e (3) a, e
(4) b, c, d (4) b, c, d
PART-1 (SECTION-B) -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 15 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
136. Which one of the following are correct among 136.

Azotobacter, Anabaena and Nostoc :
(a) All are biofertilizer (a)
(b) In all cell wall present (b)

(c)
(c) All are member of monera
(d)
(d) All are heterotrophic organism
(1) a, b, c
(1) a, b, c
(2) a
(2) Only a
(3) b, c
(3) Only b, c
(4) a, d
(4) Only a, d
137.
137. How many matching are correct :
a. –
a. Green revolution – crops
b. –
b. Silver revolution – milk
c. –
c. White revolution – egg
d. –
d. Blue revolution – Insects
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 1 (4) 1
138. Which of the following are corrects between 138.
viruses and viroids :
a.
a. Dissimilar size
b. Similar size b.
c. Nucleic acid are infectious c.

d. there is no mention in fiv e kingdom d.
classification.
(1) b, c, d (2) a, c, d
(1) b, c, d (2) a, c, d
(3) a, d (4) b, c
(3) Only a, d (4) Only b, c
NLI / 36
139. In the given below example how many structure / 139.
cells which are parenchymatous in nature-
Companion cell, Epidermal cells, Phelloderm,

Cortex of dicot root, Hypodermis of dicot stem,
Hypodermis of monocot stem.
(1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 4
(2) 4
(3) 2
(3) 2
(4) 5
(4) 5
140.
140. Which one of the following structures will not be
seen in cells of higher plants :
(1) Mitochondria (1)
(2) Centriole (2)
(3) Centromere (3)
(4) Ribosome (4)
141. Loading of the phloem mainly sets up a.......... that 141.

facilitates the mass movement in the phloem :
(1) Imbibition (1)
(2) Osmosis (2)
(3) Water potential gradient (3)
(4) Diffusion (4)
142. What is the site of perception of photoperiod 142.
necessary for induction of flowering in plants : :
(1) Leaves (1)
(2) Lateral buds (2)
(3) Pulvinus (3)
(4) Shoot apex (4)
143. Assertion (A): The female mosquito is not 143. (A) :

considered a parasite, although it needs human
blood for reproduction.
Reason (R): The female mosquito does not takes
(R) :
free lodging from human.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (1) A R R, A
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) A R
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) A R
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (4) A R R, A
NLI / 37
144. In the logistic growth equation K stands for 144. K
(1) intrinsic rate of natural increase (1)
(2) carrying capacity (2)
(3) intrinsic rate of natural decrease (3)
(4) population density at time t (4) t
145. The coronary artery supplies blood to
145.
(1) brain (1)
(2) heart (2)
(3) liver (3)
(4) gall bladder (4)
146. How much % of proteins is present in plasma 146.
(1) 55% (1) 55%
(2) 6-8% (2) 6-8%
(3) 90% (3) 90%
(4) 45% (4) 45%

147. The double circulation includes which type of 147.
circulation (1)
(1) Pulmonary and systemic
(2)
(2) Pulmonary and coronary
(3)
(3) Systemic and coronary
(4)
(4) Pulmonary and Hepatic portal system
148. Mostly plants absorb nitrogen from the soil in the 148.
form of
(1) Ammonium ion (1)
(2) Dinitrogen (2)
(3) Nitrite (3)
(4) Nitrate (4)
149. Which one of the following is the correct match : 149. :
(1) Liquid Nitrogen – Storage of pollen grain (1) –
(2) Syncarpous – Free Pistil (2) –
(3) Apocarpous – Fused pistil (3) –
(4) All (4)
150. Assertion (A) : In humans smooth muscles are 150. (A) :
involuntary in nature.
Reason (R) : In humans cerebrum does not directly (R) :
control the activities of smooth muscles.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (1) A R R, A
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) A R
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true (3) A R
(4) A R R, A
explanation of (A)
NLI / 38
PART-2 (SECTION-A) -A
Attempt All 35 Questions
35
151. In the given below example, How many animals
are chordates: 151.
Dog fish, Saw fish, Flying fish, ,
Cuttle fish, Devil fish, jelly fish, Silver fish
(1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 3
(2) 3
(3) 2
(3) 2
(4) 5
(4) 5
152. Assertion (A): Lysine is a type of basic amino acid. 152. (A) :
Reason (R): In lysine number of amino group are (R) :
greater than number of carboxyl group.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1) A R R, A
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) A R
(3) A R
153. In the given below example. How many plants 153.
are in which embryo and flower both present :
Spirogyra, Sargassum, Fern, Funaria, Cycas,
Pinus, Volvox, Adiantum, Salvinia, Equisetum,
Ginkgo, Psilotum, Eucalyptus, Petunia
(1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 9
(2) 9
(3) 5 (3) 5
(4) 2 (4) 2
154. Which of the following are the correct ascending 154.
order of number of stamens in Androecium of
different plants :
(1) < <
(1) Indigofera < Mustard < Aloe
(2) < <
(2) Soyabaen < Aloe < Tomato
(3) < <
(3) Gram < Potato < Mustard
(4) Tomato < Mustard < Sesbania (4) < <
155. Another centre present in the which region of the 155.

brain can moderate the function of the respiratory
rhythm centre. What is the centre and region of
the brain respectively :
(1)
(1) Pneumotoxic centre, Pons
(2)
(2) Pneumotaxis centre, Pons
(3) Pneumotaxic centre, Medulla (3)
(4) Pneumotaxic centre, Pons (4)
NLI / 39
156.
156.
Which of the following statement is incorrect for

the above figure :
(1) Formation of synaptonemal complex
(2) Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator and (1)
get aligned along anaphase plate through spindle (2)
fibres to both poles
(3) Centromeres split and chromatids separate (3)
157. Which one of the following mathematical relation 157.

are true :
(1) Lt = L0 + rt
(1) Lt = L0 + rt
(2) Lt – rt = L0
(2) Lt – rt = L0
(3) Lt – L0 = rt
(3) Lt – L0 = rt
158. How does pruning help in making the hedge 158.
dense?
(1)
(1) It releases wound hormones
(2)
(2) It induces the differentiation of new shoots from
the rootstock (3)
(3) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance (4)

(4) The apical shoot grows faster after pruning
159. Statement-I- The Immediate cause of the opening 159. -I-
or closing of stomata is a change in the turgidity
of the guard cells.
-II-
Statement-II- Normally stomata are open in the day
time and close during the night.
(1) I II
(2) I II
160. Which one of the following is the correct statement 160.
(1) CsCl is used in Meselson and Stahl experiment (1) CsCl
(2) NH4Cl is used in Griffith experiment (2) NH4Cl
(3) NH4Cl is used in Hershey and Chase experiment (3) NH4Cl

(4) Radioisotope used in Griffith experiment (4)
NLI / 40
161. The given floral formula related to which Plant : 161.
++ K 2+2 C4 A2+4 G(2) ++ K 2+2 C4 A2+4 G(2)

(1) Mustard (1)
(2) Tomato (2)
(3) Asparagus (3)
(4) Soyabaen (4)
162. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. 162.
They do not collapse even after forceful expiration,
because of :
:
(1) Inspiratory reserve volume
(1)
(2) Tidal volume
(2)
(3) Expiratory reserve volume
(3)
(4) Residual volume
(4)
163. If total amount of adenine and thymine in a double
163.
stranded DNA is 45% then amount of guanine in
this DNA will be : 45%
(1) 22.5% (1) 22.5%
(2) 27.5% (2) 27.5%
(3) 45% (3) 45%
(4) 55 % (4) 55 %
164. Assertion (A) : The posterior pituitary gland is a 164. (A) :

true endocrine gland.
Reason (R) : The posterior pituitary gland only (R) :
stores and release hormones
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1) A R R, A
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) A R
(3) A R
165. Which one of the following is required as inducer 165.

for the expression of lac operon
(1) Lactose (1)
(2) Lactose and Galactose (2)
(3) Glucose (3)

(4) Galactose (4)
NLI / 41
Statement I :
-I:
Humans knew from as early as 8000–1000 BC that one
8000–1000
of the causes of variation was hidden in sexual
reproduction.
Statement II :
Gregor mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on II :
garden peas for seven years.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) I II
incorrect

Statement I :
-I:
Mutation is a phenomenon which results in alteration of
DNA
DNA sequences and consequently results in changes
in the genotype and the phenotype of an organism.
Statement II :
A classical example of point mutation is sickle cell II :
Anaemia Disease.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) I II
incorrect

168. How many statements are correct between sickel- 168.
cell anaemia and Thalassemia :
(a) Both are autosomal recessive disease
(a)
(b) In both diseased haemoglobin molecule is
affected (b)
(c) Both  and  chain of the haemoglobin will (c)  
be affected
(d) 
(d) Only  chain of the haemoglobin will be
affected (1)
(1) Three
(2)
(2) Four
(3)
(3) One
(4)
(4) Two
NLI / 42
169. State the true statement regarding the trisomy : 169.
i. Presence of Additional copy of one chromo i.
some
ii.
ii. It is a type of chromosomal disorder
iii.
iii. The chromatids are not able to segregate
during cell division and results in trisomy
iv.
iv. Down's syndrome is a good example
(1) i ii
(1) Only i and ii
(2) iii iv
(2) Only iii and iv
(3) i, ii, iii iv
(3) i, ii, iii and iv
(4) Only ii, iii and iv (4) ii, iii iv
170. In human male reproductive system, secretion of 170.

which structure constitute the seminal plasma
a a
b b
c c
d d
(1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c, d (1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c, d

(3) only a, c (4) a, b, d (3) a, c (4) a, b, d
171. If vasa deferens are removed from human male 171.
then sperms are present in which part
(1) Rete testis (1)
(2) Vasa efferentia (2)
(3) Epididymis (3)
172. The edges of the infundibulum possess finger-like 172.

projections called (1)
(1) Ampulla
(2)
(2) Cervix
(3)
(3) Fimbriae
(4) Pili (4)
173. Which of the following are correct between 173.

protonema and prothallus :
(a)
(a) Both are haploid structure
(b)
(b) Both are gametophyte
(c) Both are dominant stage in their respective (c)
plants (d)
(d) Both are thalloid
(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, d
(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, d
(3) Only b, d (4) Only a, d (3) b, d (4) a, d
NLI / 43
174. Read the different components from (i) to (iv) in 174. (i) (iv)
the list given below and tell the correct order of
the components w ith reference to their
arrangement from outer side to inner side in a
woody dicot stem : i.
i. Secondary cortex ii.
ii. Wood iii.
iii. Secondary phloem
iv.
iv. Phellem
The correct order is :
(1) iv, i, iii, ii
(1) iv, i, iii, ii
(2) iv, iii, i, ii
(2) iv, iii, i, ii
(3) iii, iv, ii, i (3) iii, iv, ii, i
(4) i, ii, iv, iii (4) i, ii, iv, iii

175. Which of the following statements are correct : 175.
a. In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor
a.
molecule is not chemically changed by the
enzyme.
b. In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor b.
molecule is chemically changed by the
enzyme.
c. Due to continously increase in substrate c.
concentration, the velocity of enzymatic
reaction rises continously.
d.
d. Instead of substrate if inhibitor molecule are
attached with active site of enzyme then a new
product formed. (1) a, c, d
(1) a, c, d
(2) a, d
(2) a, d
(3) a
(3) Only a
(4) b, c, d (4) b, c, d
176. Which juice have lowest pH 176. pH
(1) Gastric juice (1)
(2) Intestinal juice (2)
(3) Pancreatic juice (3)

(4) Saliva (4)
177. Which statement is incorrect for human : 177.
(1) The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable (1)
to water
(2)
(2) Dilution of urine done by juxta medullary nephrons
(3)
(3) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable
to water
(4) The urine released per day is approx 1.5 litre (4) 1.5
NLI / 44
178. Which one of the following statement is correct : 178.
(1) The number of stamens is variable in flowers of (1)
different species
(2) The length of stamen is constant in flowers of (2)
different species
(3) In pteridophytes anther is always Bilobed (3)
(4) Anther and funicle are the two parts of a stamen (4)
179. Recombinase enzyme used in : 179.
(1) Pachytene (1)
(2) Prophase I (2) I
(3) I
(3) Meiosis I
(4) All (4)
180. Which one of the following are correct statements 180.
for the given diagram
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
(1) It is a type of connective tissue (1)
(2) It is a type of neural tissue (2)

(3) It is a type of muscular tissue (3)
(4) It is a type of epithelial tissue (4)
181. Which of the following statement about early 181.
wood is incorrect
(1) Formed during spring (1)
(2) It has large number of xylary elements (2)
(3) The wood is lighter in colour (3)
(4) It has a higher density than late wood (4)
182. Match the following columns :
182.
Column –I Column –II
–I –II
(Common name) (Taxonomic category–
order) ( ) ( )
a. Wheat I. Primata a. I.
b. Mango II. Diptera b. II.

c. Housefly III. Sapindales c. III.
d. Man IV. Poales d. IV.
(1) a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III (1) a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
(2) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I (2) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
(3) a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III (3) a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
(4) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I (4) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
NLI / 45
183. How many matching are correct with reference 183.
to one fore limbs bones :
a. – 1
a. Humerus – 1
b. – 3
b. Radius – 3
c. Ulna – 1 c. – 1
d. Carpals – 7 d. – 7
e. Meta carpals – 5 e. – 5
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 1 (4) 1
184. Which one of the following is the correct equation 184. RQ
for RQ:
CO2
Volume of CO2 evolved (1) RQ
(1) RQ O2
Volume of O2 consumed
O2
Volume of O2 evolved (2) RQ
(2) RQ CO2
Volume of CO2 consumed
CO2
Volume of CO2 evolved (3) RQ
(3) RQ O2
Volume of O 2 evolved
CO2
Volume of CO2 consumed (4) RQ
(4) RQ O2
Volume of O2 consumed
185.
185. Which of the following statement is incorrect :
(1) Mg+2 is an activator for DNA polymerase (1) Mg+2 DNA
(2) Fe+2 is an activator for PEPcase (2) Fe+2 PEPcase

(3) Potassium plays an important role in opening and
(3)
closing of stomata
(4) Calcium is needed during the formation of mitotic (4)
spindle.
PART-2 (SECTION-B) -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 15 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
186. Which of the followings are a type of 186.

Archaebacteria :
(1)
(1) Halophiles
(2)
(2) Thermoacidophiles
(3)
(3) Methanogens
NLI / 46
187. How many matching are correct 187.
a. Isogamous motile - Ulothrix a. -
b. Isogamous nonmotile - Eudorina b. -
c. Isogamous non motile - Spirogyra c.
d. Anisogamous - Eudorina d. -
e. Oogamous - Porphyra e.
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 5 (3) 5
(4) 2 (4) 2
188. Which is a correct matching set : 188.
Column I Column II
(a) Brittle star (i) Echinus (a) (i)
(b) Sea hare (ii) Pinctada (b) (ii)
(c) Pearl oyster (iii) Aplysia (c) (iii)
(d) Sea urchin (iv) Ophiura (d) (iv)
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
189. The plants have specialised organs for gaseous 189.
exchange
(1)
(1) Stomata and hydathodes
(2)
(2) Cuticle and lenticels
(3)
(3) Cuticle and hydathodes
(4)
(4) Stomata and lenticels
190.
190. Health is affected by
(1)
(1) genetic disorders
(2)
(2) infections
(3) lifestyle (3)
(4) all of these (4)

191. Pathogen of typhoid enters the body through 191.
(1) Mosquitoes bite (1)
(2)
(2) Inhaling the aerosols released by an infected person
(3) Contaminated water and food (3)
192. Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and 192.
flavour. How many documented varieties of
Basmati are grown in India?
(1) 30 (1) 30
(2) 27 (2) 27
(3) 118 (3) 118
(4) 52 (4) 52
NLI / 47
193. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing 193.
transgenic plant resistant to : m
(1) Bacterial blights (1)
(2) Bollworms (2)
(3) Nematodes (3)
(4) White rust (4)
194. In some children ADA deficiency can be cured by: 194.
(1) Enzyme replacement therapy (1)
(2) Any gene transplantation (2)
(3) Bone marrow transplantation (3)
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) (1) (3)
195. In our biosphere diversity exists at the level of 195.
(1) species only (1)
(2) macromolecular level (2)
(3) cellular level (3)
(4) all of these (4)
196. How many species of plant species are used as 196.
traditional medicines around the world
(1) 10000 (1) 10000
(2) 20000 (2) 20000
(3) 25000 (3) 25000
(4) 5000 (4) 5000
197. Which one of the following is not a type of enzyme: 197.
(1) Cellulase (1)
(2) Chitinase (2)
(3) Lysozyme (3)
198. Under an electric field DNA moves towards- 198. DNA
(1) Anode (1)
(2) Cathode (2)
(3) Don't move (3)
(4) None (4)
199. Negative charge of DNA is due to the presence of 199. DNA
(1) Hydroxyl group (1)
(2) Phosphate group (2)
(3) Amino group (3)
200. DNA stained with ethidium bromide can be 200. DNA
visualized in
(1) Visible light (1)
(2) UV light (2) UV
(3) IR light (3) IR
(4) X ray (4) X
NLI / 48
N EW LIGHT IN STITU TE TEST AN D IN FORM ATION CEN TRES

Sr . NEW LIGHT TEST & INFORM ATION Sr . NEW LIGHT TES T & INFORM ATIO N
DIS T. CONTACT NO. DIS T. CONTACT NO.
No. CENTRES ADD. No. CENTRES ADD.
1 LU C KN OW 2 n d FL OOR C H ITR AH AR 8317018795, 19 E TAW AH FR IEN D S C OL ON Y, 9670236078,
B U IL D IN G, 0 5 2 2 -4 2 41 8 13 IN FR ON T OF R E L IAN C E S MAR T 8126670494
N AW AL K IS H OR E R OAD , P OIN T E TAW AH -2 0 6 0 0 1
H AZR ATGAN J,
L U C KN OW - 2 2 6 0 0 1
2 VAR AN ASI -1 N E W L IGH T IN S TITU TE 9161448800 20 FIR OZABAD IS L AMIA IN TER C OL LE GE 9219148213
(D U R GAKU N D ) B -2 6 /93 -A N E AR B L OC K N O. 1 3 7068919405 JAL ES AR R OAD
K ABE E R N AGAR FIR OZABAD -2 8 3 2 0 3
D U R GAK U N D VAR AN AS I.
3 VAR AN ASI -2 C H E MIC A C L AS S ES D AU L ATP U R 7985222158 21 AMB E D KAR N AGAR K AU TIL YA GU R K U L U M 9450310541
(P AN D EYP U R ) B H AK TIN AGAR R OAD B EH IN D OL D TE H S E E L AVIR AL C OMP L EX 6388281432
B AKU N TH R U D R A.P R ABH AVATI B EL OW P N B AMBE D K AR
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AIM : FREE EDUCATION TO ALL APUL

ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2023-24

FULL SYLLABUS TEST-07

• The important points to note:

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Key Points of New Light Test Series :

For Today's Paper Discussion - Scan the QR code -

• Youtube Channel Link :

• Youtube Channel Name : New Light Prayaas

TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS (MODEL)

Attempt All 35 Questions 35

(1) 2v cos 400 (1) 2v cos 400

(2) 2v sin 400 (2) 2v sin 400

(3) 2v sin 200 (3) 2v sin 200

(4) 2v cos 200 (4) 2v cos 200

3. Two solid balls A and B whose masses are 200g 3. A B 200g

(3) 1.5 m/s (3) 1.5 m/s

(4) none of these (4)

(1) mu2 sin2

5. An engine is attached to a wagon through a shock 5.

(1) 1.0 gl (1) 1.0 gl

(2) 2.0gl (2) 2.0gl

(3) 1.7 gl (3) 1.7 gl

8. Which of the following statement is false for a

(1) 15kg (1) 15kg

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

14. When interference of light takes place 14.

(1) energy is created in the region of maximum

(2) energy is destroyed in the region of maximum

(2) Independent of wavelength and is different for

(4) Depends on wavelength and is same for different (4)

(1) 3.4 mA (1) 3.4 mA

(1) 2.02 (1) 2.02

(2) 50.54 (2) 50.54

(3) 2.54 (3) 2.54

25. Assertion : The electric field and magnetic field 25.

(3) 330 2 m/s (3) 330 2 m/s

(4) 330 2 m/s (4) 330 2 m/s

(1) 10.3 s/day (1) 10.3 s/

(2) 20.6 s/day (2) 20.6 s/

(3) 5 s/day (3) 5 s/

(4) 20 mn/day (4) 20 mn/

32. Which of the following is more close to a black 32.

33. The displacement of the particle varies with time 33.

(1) As the water moves down, its speed increases and

(1) 4V (2) - 8V (1) 4V (2) - 8V

(1) 0.08 C (1) 0.08 C

(2) 0.8 C (2) 0.8 C

TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS (MODEL)

Attempt All 35 Questions 35

51. Given below are two statements : 51.

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) I II

Eo 1.33V, Eo 1.36V Eo 1.33V, Eo 1.36V

Eo 1.51V, Eo 0.74 Eo 1.51V, Eo 0.74

(1) Cl– (1) Cl–

(4) C1 of -D-glycose and C4 of -D-gulactose (4) -D- C1 -D- C4

(4) C2H5OH (4) C2H5OH