Rbts Test-4 (26-Dec.-23) (Eh) Paper

All India Rank Booster Test Series (RBTS–4) [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / 26-Dec.
-2023
RBTS-04
TEST-ID : 604
ALL INDIA RANK BOOSTER TEST SERIES-UG-2023-24
DATE : 26-12-2023
DURATION : 180 Minutes MARKS : 720
Topic Covered
Physics : Rotational Motion
Chemistry : Solutions
Biology : NCERT–I [UNIT-III]:Cell:The Unit of Life, Biomolecules & Cell Cycle and Cell Division
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Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2023-24 is as follows:
• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
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NLI / 1
Entrance NEET
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SET-H4 74 Questions
NEET-2024 80+ Questions
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All India Rank Booster Test Series (RBTS–4) [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / 26-Dec.-2023
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NLI / 3
TOPIC : Rotational Motion

SECTION-A -A
Attempt All 35 Questions 35
1. The moment of inertia of two spheres of equal 1.

masses about their diameters are equal. If one of
them is solid and other is hollow, the ratio of their
radii is :
(1) 3: 5
(1) 3: 5
(2) 3 : 5
(2) 3 : 5
(3) (3) 5: 3
5: 3
(4) 5 : 3 (4) 5 : 3
2. A thin uniform rod of length 2l is acted upon by a 2. 2l

constant torque about an axis passsing through its
CM and normal to it. The angular velocity changes t
from zero to in time t. the value of torque is :
ml2 ml2
(1) (1)
3t 3t
2ml2 2ml2
(2) (2)
t t
ml2 ml2
(3) (3)
t t
ml2 ml2
(4) (4)
12t 12t
3. A uniform disc mass m and radius r is rotating with 3. m

angular speed in a horizontal plane about
central axis. A particle of mass m is suddenly m
placed at the edge of the rim and sticks to it. The
new angular speed is :
(1)
(1) 3
3
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
3 3
(4) 3 (4) 3
NLI / 4
4. A mass is whirled in a circular path with constant 4.
angular velocity and its angular momentum is L. L
If the string is now halved keeping the angular
velocity same, the angular momentum is :
L
L (1)
(1) 4
4
(2) L
(2) L
(3) 2L (3) 2L
L L
(4) (4)
2 2
5. The M.I. of a body about a given axis is 1.2 kg m2 5. 1.2 kg m2

and it is at rest. An angular acceleration of 25 rad 25 rad
s–2 is applied to generate a K.E. of 1500 J in the s–2 1500 J
body. The duration for which acceleration is
applied is
(1) 4s
(1) 4s
(2) 2s
(2) 2s
(3) 8s (3) 8s
(4) 10s (4) 10s
6. If I is the moment of inertia and E is the kinetic 6. E

energy of ratation of a body, then its angular I
momentum will be :
(1) EI
(1) EI
(2) 2E I
(2) 2E I
(3) E/I
(3) E/I
(4) (2EI) (4) (2EI)
7. The angular momentum of a system of particles is 7.

not conserved :
(1)
(1) When net external force acts upon the system
(2)
(2) When a net external torque acts upon the system
(3) When a net external impulse acts upon the system (3)
(4) None of these. (4)
NLI / 5
8. The centre of an equilateral triangle is O. Three 8. O AB, BC AC
forces F1, F2 and F3 are appointed along AB, BC F1, F2 F3 F3
and AC respectively. How much the magnitude of O
F3 be so that the total torque about O should be
zero:
(1) (F1 – F2) (1) (F1 – F2)

(2) (F1 + F2) (2) (F1 + F2)
(3) F1 + F2/2 (3) F1 + F2/2
(4) 2(F1 + F2) (4) 2(F1 + F2)
9. A disc of mass M and radius R is free to rotate in 9. M R
vertical plane about an axis xx’ shown in fig. It is xx’
released from topmost position, its velocity of
centre of mass at lowest position is:
(1) gR (1) gR
16 16
(2) gR (2) gR
5 5
8 8
(3) gR (3) gR
3 3
(4) 8gR (4) 8gR

10. A solid cylinder of mass 20 kg rotates about its 10. 20
–1
axis with angular speed 100 rad s .The radius of
the cylinder is 0.25 m. What is the kinetic energy
associated with the rotation of the cylinder?
(1) 2125 J
(1) 2125 J
(2) 3125 J
(2) 3125 J
(3) 3225 J (3) 3225 J
(4) 3215 J (4) 3215 J

NLI / 6
11. A small disc of radius 2 cm is cut from a disc of 11. 6 2

radius 6 cm. If the distance between their centres 3.2
is 3.2 cm, what is the shift in the centre of mass of
the disc :
(1) 0.4 cm
(1) 0.4 cm
(2) 2.4 cm
(2) 2.4 cm
(3) 1.8 cm
(3) 1.8 cm
(4) 1.2 cm (4) 1.2 cm
12. A rod of length 50 cm is pivoted at one end. It is 12. 50

raised such that if makes an angle of 30o from the 30o
horizontal as shown and released from rest. Its
angular speed when it passes through the rad s–1
horizontal (in rad s–1) will be (g = 10ms–2)
g = 10ms–2)
30
(1) 30
2
(1)
2
(2) 30
(2) 30
30
(3) 30
2 (3)
2
30
(4) 30
3 (4)
3
13. The magnitude of torque on a particle of mass 13. 1 kg

1 kg is 2.5 Nm about the origin. If the force acting
2.5 Nm 1N
on it is 1 N, and the distance of the particle from
5m
the origin is 5 m, what is the angle between the
force and the position vector? (in radians) : ) :
(1) /8 (1) /8
(2) /6 (2) /6
(3) /4 (3) /4
(4) /3 (4) /3
NLI / 7

14. The position vector of the centre of mass r cm of 14.
an symmetric uniform bar of negligible area of
cross section as shown in figure is: 
r cm
 
(1) (1)
 
(2) (2)
 
(3) (3)
 
(4) (4)
15. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere about an 15.

axis parallel to its diameter and at a distance of x l(x)'
x from it, is l(x)'. Which one of the graphs
represents the variation of l(x) with x correctly : l(x) x
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
NLI / 8
16. A uniform rectangular thin sheet ABCD of mass M 16. M ABCD
has length a and breadth b, as shown in the figure. a b
If the shaded portion HBGO is cut-off, the
coordinates of the centre of mass of the remaining HBGO
portion will be :
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
17. The time dependence of the position of a particle 17. m=2 (t)
 
of mass m = 2 is given by r(t) = 2ti 3t2 j . Its r(t) = 2ti 3t 2 j t=2
angular momentum, with respect to the origin at
time t = 2 is :
(1) 36kˆ (1) 36kˆ
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
18. Three point masses m are placed at the vertices 18. 'a'
of an equilateral triangle of side a. Moment of
'm' COD
inertia of the system about an axis COD passing
through a mass m at O and lying in the plane of
AOB and perpendicular to OA is :
(1) 2 ma2
(1) 2 ma2
(2) 2/3 ma2
(2) 2/3 ma2
(3) 5/4 ma2 (3) 5/4 ma2
(4) 7/4 ma2 (4) 7/4 ma2

NLI / 9
19. A circular plate of diameter d is kept in contact 19. d
with a square plate of edge d as shown in fig. The
density of the material and the thickness are same
everywhere. The centre of mass of the composite
system will be
(1) inside the circular plate (1)
(2) inside the square plate (2)
(3) at the point of contact (3)
(4) outside the system (4)
20. The moment of inertia of a rod about an axis 20.

through its centre and perpendicular to it's length
1
1 ML2
is ML2 (m = mass & L is the length of rod). The 12
12
60o
rod is bent in the middle so that the two halves
make an angle of 60o . The moment of inertia of
the bent rod about the same axis perpendicular
to length of each halves is :
1 1
ML2 (1) ML2
(1) 24
24
1 1
ML2 (2) ML2
(2) 48
48
1 1
ML2 (3) ML2
(3) 12
12
1 2 1 2
ML (4) ML
(4) 8
8
21. Two bodies of mass 1 kg & 3 kg have position 21. 1 î + 2jˆ + kˆ
vectors î + 2jˆ + kˆ and -3 î - 2ˆj + kˆ , respectively.. -3 iˆ - 2ˆj + kˆ

The centre of mass of this system has a position
vector :
(1) 2iˆ  kˆ
(1) 2iˆ  kˆ
(2) 2iˆ  jˆ  kˆ
(2) 2iˆ  jˆ  kˆ
(3) 2iˆ  jˆ  kˆ
(3) 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ
(4)  iˆ  jˆ  kˆ (4) iˆ  jˆ  kˆ
NLI / 10
22. A constant torque of 1000 N–m turns a wheel of 22. 1000 N–m 200 kg -m2
moment of inertia 200 kg -m2 about an axis through
its centre. Its angular velocity after 3 sec is (starts 3
from rest):
(1) 1 rad/ sec (1) 1 rad/ sec
(2) 5 rad/sec (2) 5 rad/sec2
(3) 10 rad/sec (3) 10 rad/sec
(4) 15 rad/sec (4) 15 rad/sec2

23. Three rings each of mass M and radius R are 23. M R
arranged as shown in the figure. The moment of
YY'
inertia of the system about YY' will be :
(1) 3 MR2
(1) 3 MR2
3 3
(2) MR2 (2) MR2
2 2
(3) 5 MR2 (3) 5 MR2
7 7
(4) MR2 (4) MR2
2 2
 
24. Let F be the force acting on a particle having 24. F
   
position vector r and T be the torque of this force r T
about the origin. Then:
   
(1) r .T  0 and F .T  0    
(1) r .T  0 and F .T 0
       
(2) r .T  0 and F .T  0 (2) r .T  0 and F .T 0
       
(3) r .T  0 and F .T  0 (3) r .T  0 and F .T 0
       
(4) r .T  0 and F .T  0 (4) r .T  0 and F .T 0
25. A chord of negligible mass is wound round the 25. 20 kg 20 cm
rim of a fly wheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm.
A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord as 25 N
shown in figure. The flywheel is mounted on a
horizontal axle with frictionless bearings. Find
angular acceleration :
(1) 11.5 sec–2

(1) 11.5 sec–2 (2) 13.65 sec–2
(2) 13.65 sec–2
(3) 12.5 sec–2
(3) 12.5 sec–2
(4) 10 sec–2 (4) 10 sec–2
NLI / 11
26. Two blocks of masses 20 kg and 5 kg are connected 26.
by a spring of negiligible mass and are placed on
a friction less horizontal surface. An impulse gives
a speed of 20 ms–1 to the heavier block in the
20 ms–1
direction of the lighter block. Then the velocity of
the centre of mass is: (1) 16 ms–1
(1) 16 ms–1 (2) 10 ms–1
(2) 10 ms–1
(3) 12 ms–1
(3) 12 ms–1
(4) 8 ms–1
(4) 8 ms–1
27. Two bodies of masses 5 kg and 2 kg are moving 27. (iˆ + 2jˆ - 2k)
ˆ
ˆ and (-2 î - 5ˆj + 3k)
with velocity (iˆ + 2jˆ - 2k) ˆ m/s ˆ m/s
(-2 î - 5ˆj + 3k)
respectively . What is the velocity of the centre of
mass:
(1) iˆ  4kˆ (1) iˆ  4kˆ
4 iˆ  kˆ 4 î  kˆ
(2) (2)
7 7
(3) 4iˆ  kˆ (3) 4iˆ  kˆ
î  4 kˆ î  4 kˆ
(4) (4)
7 7
28. The position of centre of mass of a system 28. m1 m2
consisting of two particles of masses m1 and m2 m L
separated by a distance L apart, from m1 will be:
m1L
m1L (1) m  m
1 2
(1) m  m
1 2
m 2L
m 2L (2)
(2) m1  m2
m1  m2
m2
m2 (3) m L
(3) m L 1
1
L L
(4) (4)
2 2
29. If the system is released, then acceleration of the 29.
center of mass of the system is :
(1) g/4 (1) g/4

(2) g/2 (2) g/2
(3) g (3) g
(4) 2g (4) 2g
NLI / 12
30. Four bodies of masses 2, 3, 5 and 8 kg are placed 30. 2, 3, 5
at the four corners of a square of side 2m. The CM
position of CM will be :
 8 13   7 11   8 13   7 11 
(1)  ,  (2)  ,  (1)  ,  (2)  , 
9 9  9 9  9 9  9 9 
 11 13   11 8   11 13   11 8 
(3)  ,  (4)  ,  (3)  ,  (4)  , 
9 9   9 9 9 9   9 9
31. Two rings of same radius and mass are R and M 31. R M
placed such that their centers are at common point
an their planes are perpendicular to each other
the moment of inertia of are axis passes about
center perpendicular with one and same in plane
with other:
1
(1) MR2
1 2
(1) MR2
2
(2) 2MR2
(2) 2MR2
3
3 (3) MR2
(3) MR2 2
2
(4) None of these (4)
32. What is the torque of the force F = 2iˆ - 3jˆ + 4kˆ 32. F = 2 î - 3jˆ + 4kˆ
 
acting at the point r = 3iˆ + 2jˆ + 3km
ˆ about an r = 3iˆ + 2jˆ + 3km
ˆ
origin:
(1) 6iˆ  6ˆj  12kˆ
(1) 6iˆ  6ˆj  12kˆ
(2) 17iˆ  6ˆj  13kˆ
(2) 17iˆ  6ˆj  13kˆ
(3) 6iˆ  6ˆj  12kˆ
(3) 6iˆ  6ˆj  12kˆ
(4) 17iˆ  6ˆj  13kˆ
(4) 17iˆ  6ˆj  13kˆ
33. A couple produces : 33.

(1) linear and rotational motion (1)
(2) no motion (2)
(3) purely linear (3)
(4) purely roation (4)
NLI / 13
34. The ratio of angular speed of hours hand and 34.
seconds hand of a clock is:
(1) 1 : 1 (1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 60 (2) 1 : 60
(3) 1 : 720 (3) 1 : 720
(4) 3600 : 1 (4) 3600 : 1
35. Moment of inertia of a disc of radius R and mass M 35. R M

about a diameter as axis is :
(1) MR2 (1) MR2
(2) 1/2 MR2 (2) 1/2 MR2
(3) 1/4 MR2 (3) 1/4 MR2
(4) 5/2 MR2 (4) 5/2 MR2
SECTION - B -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can 15 15

choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 10
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
10
considered for marking.
36. A rope of negligible mass is wound round a 36.
hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm.
What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if 30 N
the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N ? What is
the linear acceleration of the rope ? Assume that
there is no slipping:
(1) 15s–2, 10 ms–2
(1) 15s–2, 10 ms–2
(2) 35s–2, 20 ms–2 (2) 35s–2, 20 ms–2
(3) 25s–2, 10 ms–2 (3) 25s–2, 10 ms–2
(4) 15s–2, 20 ms–2 (4) 15s–2, 20 ms–2
37. A uniform rod of length l and mass m is free to 37. l m

rotate in a vertical plane about A. The rod initially A
in horizontal is released. The initial angular
acceleration of the rod is :
3g 2g 3g 2g
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2  2 
g 3g g 3g
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2  2 
NLI / 14
38. Three identical thin rods each of length l and mass 38. l M,
M are joined together to form a letter H. The H H
moment of inertia of the system about one of the
side of H is :
Ml2
Ml 2 (1)
(1) 3
3
Ml2
Ml2 (2)
(2) 4
4
2 2
2 2 (3) Ml
(3) Ml 3
3
4Ml2 4Ml2
(4) (4)
3 3
39. If the moment of inertia of a disc about an axis 39.
tangentially and parallel to its surface be I, then I
the moment of inertia about the axis tangential
but perpendicular to the surface will be
6
6 (1) I
(1) I 5
5
3
3 (2) I
(2) I 4
4
3
3 (3) I
(3) I 2
2
5 5
(4) I (4) I
4 4
40. A particle is moving along a straight line parallel 40. x-
to x-axis with constant velocity. Its angular
momentum about the origin (1)
(1) decreases with time
(2)
(2) increases with time
(3)
(3) remains constant
(4) is zero (4)
41. The moment of inertia of a solid flywheel about 41.
its axis is 0.1 kg-m2. A tangential force of 2 kg-wt.
0.1 kg-m2 2 kg
is applied round the circumference of the flywheel
with the help of a string and mass arrangement
as shown in the figure. If the radius of the wheel
0.1 m
is 0.1 m, find the angular acceleration (in rad/sec2)
of the flywheel :
(1) 163.3 (2) 16.3

(1) 163.3 (2) 16.3
(3) 81.66 (4) 8.16 (3) 81.66 (4) 8.16
NLI / 15
42. A thin hollow cylinder is free to rotate about its 42.
geometrical axis. It has a mass of 8 kg and a radius 8 kg 20 cm
of 20 cm. A rope is wrapped around the cylinder. 3 rad/sec2
What force must be exerted along the rope to
produce an angular acceleration of 3 rad/sec2?
(1) 8.4 N
(1) 8.4 N
(2) 5.8 N
(2) 5.8 N
(3) 4.8 N
(3) 4.8 N
(4) None of these (4)
43. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 8 kg rotates at an 43. 2m 8 kg

angular speed of 4 rad/s about an axis 4 rad/s
perpendicular to it through its centre. The kinetic
energy of rotation is :
(1) 128 J
(1) 128 J
(2) 196 J
(2) 196 J
(3) 256 J (3) 256 J
(4) 392 J (4) 392 J
44. Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin square 44. 4R M R
plate of side 4R and mass M. The moment of z-
intertia of the remaining portion about z-axis is :
 
(1) MR2 (1) MR 2
12 12
4  2 4 
(2)    MR (2)    MR
2
 3 4  3 4
 8 10  2  8 10  
(3)    MR
2
 3 16  (3)    MR
 3 16 
4  2 4 
(4)    MR (4)    MR
2
 3 6  3 6
NLI / 16
45. Two bodies of mass 10 kg and 2 kg are moving 45. 10 kg 2 kg
with velocities 2iˆ - 7jˆ + 3kˆ and 10iˆ  35jˆ  3kˆ m/s 2iˆ - 7jˆ + 3kˆ 10iˆ  35jˆ  3kˆ
respectively. The velocities of their centre of mass
is
(1) 2 î m/s
(1) 2 î m/s
(2) 2kˆ m/s
(2) 2kˆ m/s
(3) (2ˆj  2k)

ˆ m/s (3) (2jˆ  2k)
ˆ m/s
(4) (2iˆ  2jˆ  2k)

ˆ m/s (4) (2iˆ  2ˆj  2k)
ˆ m/s
46. For which of the following does the centre of mass 46.
lie outside the body?
(1) A pencil (1)
(2) A shotput (2)
(3) A dice (3)
(4) A bangle (4)
47. Which of the following points is the likely position 47.
of the centre of mass of the system shown in
figure?
(1) A
(1) A
(2) B
(2) B
(3) C (3) C
(4) D (4) D
48. Assertion : For a system of particles under central 48.

force field, the total angular momentum is
conserved.
Reason : The torque acting on such a system is
zero.
(1) ;
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a
correct explanation for assertion.
(2) ;
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
not a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect. (3)
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. (4)
NLI / 17
49. Assertion : It is harder to open and shut the door if 49.

we apply force near the hinge.
Reason : Torque is maximum at hinge of the door.
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a (1) ;
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is (2) ;
50. Assertion : Torque is equal to rate change of 50.

angular momentum.
Reason : Angular momentum depends on moment
of inertia and angular velocity.
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a (1) ;
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is (2) ;

NLI / 18
TOPIC : Solutions
Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197, Pb=207
SECTION-A -A
51. For preparing 0.1 M solution of H2SO4 in one litre, 51. H2SO4 0.1 M
we need H2SO4 : H2SO4
(1) 0.98 g (1) 0.98 g
(2) 4.9 g (2) 4.9 g
(3) 49.0 g (3) 49.0 g
(4) 9.8 g (4) 9.8 g
52. An X molal solution of a compound in benzene 52.
has mole fraction of solute equal to 0.2. The value X
of X is:
(1) 14
(1) 14
(2) 3.2
(2) 3.2
(3) 1.4
(3) 1.4
(4) 2
(4) 2
53. The molarity of 98% (w/W) H2SO4 (d = 1.8 g mL–1) 53. 98% (w/W) H2SO4 (d = 1.8 g mL–1)
is: (1) 6 M
(1) 6 M
(2) 18 M
(2) 18 M
(3) 10 M
(3) 10 M
(4) 4 M (4) 4 M
54. 1 mol of heptane (V. P. = 92 mm of Hg) was mixed 54. = 92 mm of Hg)

with 4 mol of octane (V. P. = 31 mm of Hg). The = 31 mm of Hg)
vapour pressure of resulting ideal solution is:
(1) 46.2 mm of Hg (1) 46.2 mm of Hg
(2) 40.0 mm of Hg (2) 40.0 mm of Hg
(3) 43.2 mm of Hg (3) 43.2 mm of Hg
(4) 38.4 mm of Hg (4) 38.4 mm of Hg
55. At 88°C benzene has a vapour pressure of 900 torr 55. 88°C
and toluene has a vapour pressure of 360 torr. What
is the mole fraction of benzene in the mixture with 1 atm. 88°C
toluene that will boil at 88°C at 1 atm. pressure,
(benzene - toluene form an ideal solution):
(1) 0.416 (1) 0.416
(2) 0.588 (2) 0.588
(3) 0.688 (3) 0.688
(4) 0.740 (4) 0.740
NLI / 19
56. Among the following, that does not form an ideal 56.
solution is:
(1) C6H6 and C6H5CH3 (1) C6H6 C6H5CH3
(2) C2H5Cl and C6H5OH (2) C2H5Cl C6H5OH
(3) C6H5Cl and C6H5Br (3) C6H5Cl C6H5Br
(4) C2H5Br and C2H5I (4) C2H5Br C2H5I
57. If P0 and PS are the vapour pressure of solvent 57. P0 PS
and its solution respectively. N1 and N2 are the mole N1 N2
fraction of solvent and solute respectively then:
P0 P0
(1) PS  (1) PS 
N2 N2
(2) P0 – PS = P0N2 (2) P0 – PS = P0N2
(3) PS = P0N2 (3) PS = P0N2
(P0  PS ) N1 (P0  PS ) N1
(4)  (4) 
PS (N1  N2 ) PS (N1  N2 )
58. The vapour pressure of a dilute aqueous solution 58. 373 K
of Glucose is 750 mm Hg at 373 K. The mole fraction 750 mm Hg
of solute is:
1
1 (1)
(1) 75
75
76
76 (2)
(2) 75
75
75
75 (3)
(3) 76
76
1 1
(4) (4)
76 76
59. The vapour pressure of pure A is 10 torr. At the 59.
same temperature, when 1 g of B is dissolved in B
20 gm of A, its vapour pressure is reduced to 9.0
torr. If the molecular mass of A is 200 amu, then 200 amu B
the molecular mass of B is:
(1) 100 amu
(1) 100 amu
(2) 90 amu (2) 90 amu
(3) 75 amu (3) 75 amu
(4) 120 amu (4) 120 amu
60. The boiling point of an aqueous solution of a non 60. 100.15°C
volatile solute is 100.15°C. What is the freezing point
of an aqueous solution obtained by diluting the
above solution with an equal volume of water? Kb
The values of Kb and Kf for water are 0.512 and K 1.86 K molality–1
1.86 K molality–1:
(1) –0.544 °C
(1) –0.544 °C
(2) –0.512 °C
(2) –0.512 °C
(3) –0.272 °C (3) –0.272 °C
(4) –1.86 °C (4) –1.86 °C
NLI / 20
61. Elevation in boiling point was 0.52 °C when 6 g of 61.
a compound X was dissolved in 100 g of water.
Molecular weight of X is: (Kb for water = 0.52 K
Kb = 0.52 K mol–1
–1
mol )
(1) 120
(1) 120
(2) 60
(2) 60
(3) 100 (3) 100
(4) 342 (4) 342

62. An aqueous solution containing 1g of urea boils at 62. 100.25 °C
100.25 °C. The aqueous solution containing 3g of
glucose in the same volume will boil at -
(1) 100.75°C
(1) 100.75°C
(2) 100.5°C
(2) 100.5°C
(3) 100°C (3) 100°C
(4) 100.25°C (4) 100.25°C

63. Pure benzene freezes at 5.45 °C at a certain place 63.
but a 0.374 m solution of tetrachloroethane in
benzene freezes at 3.55 °C. The Kf for benzene is- Kf
(1) 5.08 K Kg mol–1

(1) 5.08 K Kg mol–1
(2) 508 K Kg mol–1
(2) 508 K Kg mol–1
(3) 0.508 K Kg mol–1 (3) 0.508 K Kg mol–1
(4) 50.8 °C Kg mol–1 (4) 50.8 °C Kg mol–1
64. Molal depression constant of water is 1.86 K Kg 64. 1.86 K Kg mol–1
mol–1. 0.02 mole of urea dissolved in 100 g of water
will produce a depression in freezing point of:
(1) 0.186 °C (1) 0.186 °C
(2) 0.372 °C (2) 0.372 °C
(3) 1.86 °C (3) 1.86 °C
(4) 3.72 °C (4) 3.72 °C
65. The osmotic pressure of a solution increases if: 65.
(1) Temperature is lowered (1)
(2) Volume is increased (2)
(3) Number of solute molecules is increased (3)
(4) None (4)
66. A solution containing 8.6 g urea in one litre was 66.
found to be isotonic with 0.5% (wt./vol) solution of 0.5% (wt./vol)
an organic non volatile solute. The molecular
weight of organic solute is:
(1) 348.9
(1) 348.9
(2) 34.89 (2) 34.89
(3) 3489 (3) 3489

(4) 861.2 (4) 861.2
NLI / 21
67. Osmotic pressure of 0.585% w/v NaCl solution at 67. 27°C 0.585% w/v NaCl
27°C is:
(1) 2.49 atm
(1) 2.49 atm
(2) 4.92 atm
(2) 4.92 atm
(3) 1.2 atm
(3) 1.2 atm
(4) 3.8 atm (4) 3.8 atm
68. Which one of the following pairs of solutions will 68.
be expected to be isotonic under the same
temperature?
(1) 0.1M urea 0.1 M NaCl
(1) 0.1M urea and 0.1 M NaCl
(2) 0.1M urea 0.2 M MgCl2
(2) 0.1M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2
(3) 0.1M NaCl 0.1M Na2SO4
(3) 0.1M NaCl and 0.1M Na2SO4
(4) 0.1M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1M Na2SO4 (4) 0.1M Ca(NO3)2 0.1M Na2SO4
69. Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solutions 69. 0.1 M
will have the lowest freezing point:
(1) Potassium Sulphate (1)
(2) Sodium Chloride (2)
(3) Urea (3)
(4) Glucose (4)
70. Which solution will have least vapour pressure: 70.
(1) 0.1 M BaCl2 (1) 0.1 M BaCl2
(2) 0.1 M urea (2) 0.1 M urea
(3) 0.1 M Na2SO4 (3) 0.1 M Na2SO4
(4) 0.1 M Na3PO4 (4) 0.1 M Na3PO4
71. What would be the osmotic pressure of 0.1 M K2SO4 71. 27°C 0.1 M K2SO4 90%
solution (90% dissociated) at 27°C:
(1) 6.89 atm (1) 0.1 M BaCl2
(2) 0.689 atm (2) 0.1 M urea
(3) 0.344 atm (3) 0.1 M Na2SO4
(4) 3.4 atm (4) 0.1 M Na3PO4
72. The osmotic pressure of 0.2 molar solution of urea 72. 300 K 0.2
–1 –1
at 300 K (R=0.082) litre atm mol K ) is : (R=0.082 litre atm mol–1K–1) :
(1) 4.92 atm (1) 4.92 atm
(2) 1 atm (2) 1 atm
(3) 0.25 atm (3) 0.25 atm
(4) 27 atm (4) 27 atm
73. A 5% solution of cane sugar is isotonic with 0.877% 73. 5% X 0.877 %

of X. The molecular weight of substance X is : X
(1) 59.98 (1) 59.98
(2) 119.96 (2) 119.96

(3) 95.58 (3) 95.58
(4) 126.98 (4) 126.98
NLI / 22
74. A 0.01 M solution of glucose in water freezes at 74. 0.01 M –0.1860C
–0.1860C. A 0.01 M solution of KCl in water will KCl 0.01 M
freeze at temperature :
(1) –0.01860C
0
(1) higher than –0.0186 C
(2) 00C
(2) 00C
(3) 0.01860C
(3) 0.01860C
(4) lower than –0.01860C (4) –0.01860C
75. An aqueous solution freezes at –0.1860C (Kf = 1.860; 75. –0.1860C (Kf = 1.860;
Kb = 0.5120). What is the elevation in boiling point: Kb = 0.5120)
(1) 0.186 (1) 0.186
(2) 0.512 (2) 0.512
0.512 0.512
(3) (3)
1.86 1.86
(4) 0.0512 (4) 0.0512
76. If  is the degree of dissociation of Na2SO4 the van't 76. Na2SO4 
Hoff's factor (i) used for calculating the molecular (i)
mass is :
(1) 1 + 
(1) 1 + 
(2) 1 – 
(2) 1 – 
(3) 1 + 2 (3) 1 + 2
(4) 1 – 2 (4) 1 – 2
77. What will molality of 1 liter solution of 93% H2SO4 77. 1 93% H2SO4 )
(weight/volume) The density of the solution 1.84 g 1.84 g /ml
/ml:
(1) 10.43 m
(1) 10.43 m
(2) 0.1043 m
(2) 0.1043 m
(3) 104.3 m (3) 104.3 m
(4) 0.00143 m (4) 0.00143 m
78. Which will form maximum boiling azeotrope : 78.
(1) HNO3 + H2O solution (1) HNO3 + H2O
(2) C2H5OH + H2O solution (2) C2H5OH + H2O
(3) C6H6 + C6H5 CH3 solution (3) C6H6 + C6H5 CH3
(4) None of these. (4)
79. 0.1 M NaCl and 0.05 M BaCl 2 solutions are 79. 0.1M NaCl 0.05M BaCl2
separated by a semi-permeable membrane in a
container. For this system, choose the correct
answer :
(1) There is no movement of any solution across the (1)
membrane
(2) Water flows from BaCl2 solution towards NaCl (2) BaCl2 NaCl
solution
(3) Water flows from NaCl solution towards BaCl2 (3) NaCl BaCl2
solution
(4) Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M NaCl is lower than the (4) 0.1 M NaCl BaCl2
osmotic pressure of BaCl2 (Assume complete
dissociation)
NLI / 23
80. 1.0 molal aqueous solution of the electrolyte 80. Mg3(PO4)2 1.0 25%
Mg3(PO4)2 is 25% ionized. If Kb for H2O is 0.52 K H2O Kb - 0.52 K kg/mol
kg/mol, the boiling point of the solution is :
(1) 375.5 K (1) 375.5 K
(2) 374.04 K (2) 374.04 K
(3) 377.12 K (3) 377.12 K
(4) 373.25 K (4) 373.25 K
81. During freezing of an aqueous solution of sodium 81. NaCl
chloride, there exists an equilibrium between :
(1) Solid solute and solid solvent (1)
(2) Solid solvent and liquid solvent (2)
(3) Liquid solute and liquid solvent (3)
(4) Liquid solute and solid solvent (4)
82. The von't Hoff factor for 0.1 M Cs2SO4 solution is 82. 0.1 M Cs2SO4 2.74
2.74. The degree of dissociation of salt will be :
(1) 34.8% (1) 34.8%
(2) 87.0% (2) 87.0%
(3) 91.3% (3) 91.3%
(4) 98.4% (4) 98.4%
83. The vapour pressure of two liquids P and Q are 83. P Q 80 60 torr ,
80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour 3 P 2 Q
pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 moles
of P and 2 moles of Q would be :
(1) 140 torr
(1) 140 torr
(2) 20 torr
(2) 20 torr
(3) 68 torr
(3) 68 torr
(4) 72 torr (4) 72 torr
84. 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX is 84. HX 0.5 20%
20% ionised. If Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1, the Kf 1.86 K kg
lowering of freezing point of solution will be : mol–1
(1) 0.56 K (1) 0.56 K
(2) 1.12 K (2) 1.12 K
(3) –0.56 K (3) –0.56 K
(4) –1.12 K (4) –1.12 K
85. For equal molar concentrations of glucose, NaCl, 85. NaCl, BaCl2 AlCl3
BaCl2 and AlCl3, the decreasing order of measured
colligative property is :
(1) Glucose > AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl (1) > AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl
(2) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl > Glucose (2) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl >
(3) Glucose > NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3 (3) > NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3
(4) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl = Glucose (4) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl =
NLI / 24
SECTION - B -B
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 10
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
considered for marking. 10
86. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 86. 10 g (P1), 10 g (P2) 10 g (P3)
K when 10 g glucose (P1), 10 g urea (P2) and 10 g 250 ml 273 K
sucrose (P3) are dissolved in 250 mL of water is :
(1) P1 > P2 > P3 (1) P1 > P2 > P3
(2) P3 > P1 > P2 (2) P3 > P1 > P2
(3) P2 > P1 > P3 (3) P2 > P1 > P3
(4) P2 > P3 > P1 (4) P2 > P3 > P1
87. When 1.04 g of BaCl2 is present in 105 g of solution 87. 105 g 1.04 g BaCl2
the concentration of solution is :
(1) 0.104 ppm (1) 0.104 ppm
(2) 10.4 ppm (2) 10.4 ppm
(3) 0.0104 ppm (3) 0.0104 ppm
(4) 104 ppm (4) 104 ppm
88. When acetone and chloroform are mixed together, 88.
which of the following observations is correct :
(1) A–A and B–B interactions are stronger than A–B (1) A–A B–B A–B
interactions
(2) A–A and B–B interactions are weaker than A–B (2) A–A B–B A–B
interactions
(3) A–A, B–B A–B
(3) A–A, B–B and A–B interactions are equal
(4) The liquids form separate layers and are immiscible. (4)
89. What will be the molarity of the liquid HCl, if 89. HCl HCl 1.17 g/cc
density of the solution is 1.17 g/cc is :
(1) 36.5
(1) 36.5
(2) 18.25
(2) 18.25
(3) 32.05 (3) 32.05
(4) 42.10 (4) 42.10

90. The van’t Haff factor for 0.1M. Ba(NO3)2 solution is 90. 0.1M. Ba(NO3)2 2.74
2.74. The degree of dissociation is:
(1) 91.3% (1) 91.3%
(2) 87% (2) 87%
(3) 100% (3) 100%
(4) 74% (4) 74%
NLI / 25
91. Calculate the mole fraction of ethylene glycol 91. 20 % (C2H6O2)
(C2H6O2) in a solution containing 20% of C2H6O2 by
mass :
(1) 0.068
(1) 0.068
(2) 6.8
(2) 6.8
(3) 2.3 (3) 2.3
(4) None (4)
92. Calculate molality of 2.5 g of ethanoic acid 92. 2.5 g (CH3COOH) 75 g

(CH3COOH) in 75 g of benzene.
(1) 5.56 mol kg–1 (1) 5.56 mol kg–1
(2) 2.556 mol kg–1 (2) 2.556 mol kg–1
(3) 0.556 mol kg–1 (3) 0.556 mol kg–1
(4) 7.556 mol kg–1 (4) 7.556 mol kg–1
93. 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute dissolved in 50 g 93. 1.00 50

of benzene lowered the freezing point of benzene 0.40 K
by 0.40 K. The freezing point depression constant 5.12 K kg mol
of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. Find the molar mass
of the solute.
(1) 356 g mol-1
-1
(1) 356 g mol
(2) 256 g mol-1
(2) 256 g mol-1
(3) 156 g mol-1
(3) 156 g mol-1
(4) 456 g mol-1 (4) 456 g mol-1
94. How are O.P. of 6% urea 1 and 6% glucose  2 94. 6% ) 1 6%

related to each other : 2 1 2
(1) 1   2 (1) 1   2
(2) 1   2 (2) 1   2
(3) 1   2 (3) 1   2
1 1
(4) 1  (4) 1 
2 2
95. 0.2 molal aqueous solutions of each of NaCl, BaCl2 95. NaCl, BaCl2 AlCl3 0.2
and AlCl 3 have boiling points T 1, T 2 and T 3 T 1, T2 T3
respectively. Which of the of following is correct :
(1) T1 > T2 > T 3 (1) T1 > T2 > T3
(2) T3 > T2 > T 1 (2) T3 > T2 > T1
(3) T2 > T1 > T 3 (3) T2 > T1 > T3
(4) T1 > T3 > T 2 (4) T1 > T3 > T2
NLI / 26
96. The boiling point of 1 molal aq. solution of KCl is: 96. 1 KCl
(Kb for water .52 k-kg/mole) Kb = .52 k-kg/mole)
(1) 102.0oC (1) 102.0oC
(2) 100.52 (2) 100.52
(3) 101.04oC (3) 101.04oC
(4) 100.25oC (4) 100.25oC
97. The vapour pressure of an aqueous solution of 97. 750 mm Hg

glucose is 750 mm of Hg at 373 K. the molality is: 373 K
(1) 0.64 (1) 0.64
(2) 0.741 (2) 0.741

(3) 0.68 (3) 0.68
(4) 0.94 (4) 0.94
98. 50 g glucose is present in 550 g solution (density 98. 50 g 550 g

of solution = 1.1 gm/ml), Calculate the % wt./vol % wt./vol = 1.1 gm/ml):
will be :
(1) 10
(1) 10
(2) 15
(2) 15
(3) 20
(3) 20
(4) 25 (4) 25
99. 200 ml M/10, H2SO 4 is mixed with 300 ml M/10, 99. 200 ml M/10, H2SO4 300 ml M/10, NaOH
NaOH solution. The molarity of H2SO4 in resulting H2SO4
solution will be :
(1) 0.01 M (1) 0.01 M
(2) 0.02 M (2) 0.02 M
(3) 0.03 M (3) 0.03 M
(4) 0.04 M (4) 0.04 M
100. The example of positive deviation of : 100.
(1) CH3COOH and water (1) CH3COOH

(2) NaOH and water (2) NaOH
(3) Ethyl alcohol & water (3)
(4) Nitric acid and water (4)
NLI / 27
BIOLOGY : NCERT–I [UNIT-III]:Cell:The Unit of Life, Biomolecules & Cell Cycle and Cell Division
PART-1 (SECTION-A)
101. Inulin consist of : 101.
(1) Only glucose (1)
(2) Only fructose (2)
(3) Only maltose (3)
(4) Protein (4)
102. Which of the following is true : 102.
(1) All polysaccharides are heteropolymer (1)
(2) Cellulose is heteropolymer (2)
(3) The starch-I2, is red in colour (3) -I2
(4) Cellulose does not contain complex helical (4)

structure and hence cannot hold I2 I2
103. A -plated sheet organisation in a polypeptide 103. 
chain is an example of :
(1) 1°
(1) 1° structure
(2) 2°
(2) 2° structure
(3) 3° structure (3) 3°
(4) 4° structure (4) 4°
104. Mesosome are formed by : 104.
(1) Pre- existing (1)
(2) Mitochondria (2)
(3) Plasma membrane (3)
(4) Plastids (4)

105. Which of the following structure is an organelle 105.
within an organelle : (1)
(1) Mesosome
(2)
(2) Mitochondria
(3)
(3) Ribosome
(4)
(4) Lysosome
106. Meiosis involves : 106.
(1) Two sequential division of nuclear and cytoplasm (1)

(2) Three sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division (2)
(3) Two sequential cycles of nuclear and three cell (3)
divisions
(4) One sequential cycle of nuclear and cell division (4)
NLI / 28
107. Synapsis occurs between: 107.
(1) Two non-homologous chromosome (1)
(2) mRNA and ribosomes (2)
(3) Spindle fibres and centromere (3)
(4) Two homologous chromosome (4)
108. Match the following : 108.
a. Vinblastin i. Alkaloid a. i.
b. Ricin ii. Polymeric substance b. ii.
c. Codeine iii. Drug c. iii.
d. Gum iv. Poisionous d. iv.
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c- ii, d- i (1) a-iii, b-iv, c- ii, d- i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c- iv, d- iii (2) a-i, b-ii, c- iv, d- iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c- i, d- ii (3) a-iii, b-iv, c- i, d- ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c- i, d- iv (4) a-iv, b-iii, c- i, d- iv
109. In given diagram A, B, C and D represent 109. A, B, C D
(1) A-Integral protein, B-Peripheral Protein, C- (1) A- D-

Cholesterol, D-Phospholipid bilayer
(2) A-Peripheral Protein, B-Sugar, C-Cholesterol, D-

Phospholipid bilayer
(3) A-Integral protein, B-Sugar, C- Peripheral Protein,

(3) A- , C-
D-Cholesterol
(4) A-Peripheral Protein, B-Cholesterol, C-

Phospholipid bilayer, D-Sugar
NLI / 29
110. Which of the following are not polymeric : 110.
(1) Proteins (1)
(3) Lipids (3)
111. Non-polar tail of the lipid layer is made up of : 111.
(1) Saturated hydrocarbon (1)
(2) Glycerol (2)
(3) Polypeptide chain (3)
(4) Glycoprotein (4)
112. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 112. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R).
(A) :
Assertion (A) :
Some organism are composed of single cell and
are called unicellular organism.
Reason (R) : (R) :
Other organism like us, composed of many cells,
are called multicellular organism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct (1) (A) (R) (R) (A)
exaplanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
113. Match the following scientists with their discovery 113.

and research year.
a) 1838 i- Matthias Schleiden a) 1838 i-
b) 1839 ii- Theodore Schwann b) 1839 ii-
c) 1954 iii- Rudolf Virchow c) 1954 iii-
d) 1855 iv- G. N. Ramachandran d) 1855 iv- . .
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii (4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
NLI / 30
114. Which of the following statement is correct : 114.
(1) In plant cells cell wall formation start from the center (1)
of the cell
(2) Formation of the new cell wall begins with the (2)
formation of a simple precursor called cell plate
(3) Cell plate represents the middle lamella are (3)
between the walls of two adjacent cells
(4) All of the above (4)
(R).
Assertion (A) : (A) :
The prokaryotic cells are represented by bacteria,

blue-green algae, mycoplasma and PPLO.
Reason (R) :
(R) :
The prokaryotes have a well developed nucleus.
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
(1) (A) (R) (R) (A)
exaplanation of (A)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (2) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (3) (A) (R)
116. Which of the following is correct according to given 116.

diagrammatic representation :
(1) RNA
(1) It is a nucleoside present in RNA
(2) It is a nitrogenous base present in DNA (2) DNA
(3) It is a nitrogenous base present in RNA (3) RNA
(4) It is a nitrogenous base present in DNA and RNA (4) DNA RNA
NLI / 31
117. Longitudinal section of a figure given below and 117. A, B

select the right option giving all the three parts A, C
B and C correctly identified it.
(1) A–Cristae; B–Matrix; C–Intermembrane space B– C–
(2) A–Matrix; B–Cristate; C–Intermembrane space (2) A– C–
(3) A–Intermembrane space; B–Cristae; C–Matrix (3) A– C–

(4) A–Matrix; B–Intermembrane space; C–Cristae (4) A– B–
118. Which of the following scientist explained that cells 118.

divided and new cells are formed from pre existing
cells :
(1)
(1) Schwann
(2)
(2) Schleiden
(3) Robert Brown (3)
(4) Rudolf virchow (4)
119. Read the following statement and give correct 119.

answer regarding bacterial cell
(a) Glycocalyx is the outermost envelop in (a)

bacteria
(b)
(b) The glycocalyx could be a loose sheath called
capsule
(c)
(c) The glycocalyx may be the thick and tough
called slime layer
(1) a correct (1) a
(2) a, b correct (2) a, b
(3) a, c correct (3) a, c
(4) b correct (4) b
120. In prokaryotes like cyanobacteria, beside 120.

mesosome other membranous extensions into
cytoplasm is/are :
(1)
(1) Golgibody
(2) Chromatophores (2)
(3) Ribosome (3)

NLI / 32
121. Which of the following is not includes in 121.
endomembrane system :
(a)
(a) Golgi apparatus
(b)
(b) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(c)
(c) Mitochondria
(d)
(d) Lysosome
(1) a only (1) a
(2) a and d only (2) a d
(3) c only (3) c
(4) d only (4) d

122. The characteristic feature of diplotene stage of 122.
meiosis is recognized by :
(1) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex (1)

(2) Homologous chromosomes of bivalent start (2)
separate from each other
(3) X-shaped structure chiasmata formed (3)
(4) All of the above (4)
123. During cell division, the spindle fibres attach to the 123.
chromosome at a region called:
(1) Chromocentre (1)

(2) Kinetochore (2)
(3) Centriole (3)
(4) Chromomere (4)
124. In which among the following stage is marked by 124.

terminalisation of chiasmata :
(1)
(1) Diakinesis
(2)
(2) Diplotene
(3)
(3) Pachytene
(4) Zygotene. (4)
125. Tonoplast is differentially permeable membrane 125.

surrounding the :

(2) Cytoplasm (2)
(3) Vacuole (3)
(4) Nucleus (4)

NLI / 33
126. Match the column I and column II 126. I II
Column I Column II I II
a) 1-2  m i) Typical bacteria a) 1-2  m i)
b) 0.2 to 1.0  m ii) Diameter of
b) 0.2 to 1.0  m ii)
mitochondria
c) 3-5  m iii) Size of bacteria c) 3-5  m iii)
d) 2-4  m iv) Chloroplast width d) 2-4  m iv)

(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
127. Given below are two statements : 127.
Statement - I : -I:
The pili are elongated tubular structure made of a
special protein.
-II:
Statement - II :
The fimbriae are small bristle like fibres sprouting
in the cell.
correct answer from the options given below (1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
128. The arrangement of lipid molecule in plasma 128.
membrane found as:
(1) Polar head towards the outer side and hydrophilic (1)
tails towards the inner side
(2) Tails towards the outer side while polar head (2)
towards the inner side
(3) Polar head towards the outer side and hydrophobic (3)
tails towards the inner side
(4) Arranged alternatively with amino acids (4)
129. In which among the following cell organelle, 129.

steroidal hormones are being synthesised in animal
cells :
(1) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (1)
(2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (2)
(3) Golgi complex (3)
(4) Vacuoles. (4)

NLI / 34
130. Match the following columns : 130.
a. Bacteria i. 0.02 - 0.2 m a. i. 0.02 - 0.2 m
b. PPLO ii. 0.1 m b. PPLO ii. 0.1 m
c. Viruses iii. 10 - 20 m c. iii. 10 - 20 m
d. Eukaryotic cell iv. 1 - 2 m d. iv. 1 - 2 m
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(R).
(A) :
Assertion (A) :
Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis.
(R) :
Reason (R) :
Ribosomes of a polysome translate the proteins into m-RNA
m-RNA.
below:
exaplanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
132. Read the following statement and choose correct 132.

option :
(a)
(a) Crossing over is the exchange of genetic
material between non sister chromatids of
homologous chromosome
(b)
(b) Crossing over is the exchange of genetic
material between sister chromatids of
homologous chromosome (c)
(c) Crossing over is an enzyme mediated process
(d)
(d) Enzyme recombinase involved in crossing over
(1) a, c
(1) Only a, c correct
(2) b, c, d
(2) Only b, c, d correct
(3) Only a, c, d correct (3) a, c, d
(4) Only c, d correct (4) c, d

NLI / 35
133. The cell wall of plants is made up of : 133.
(1) Hemicellulose + pectin (1) +
(2) Hemicellulose + lipids + proteins (2) + +
(3) Hemicellulose + pectin + cellulose + protein (3) + + +
(4) Hemicellulose + Chitin (4) +
134. What is the function of polysomes : 134.
(1) Translates DNA into proteins (1)
(2) Translates m-RNA into proteins (2)
(3) Translates r-RNA into carbohydrate (3)
(4) Translate m-RNA into DNA. (4)
135. In the given graphs which graphs represents, 135.
activation energy without enzyme and with
enzyme. Choose the correct option :
Transition state
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
Product (P)
(1) A = Activation energy with enzyme (1) A =
(2) B = Activation energy with enzyme (2) B =
(3) B = Activation energy without enzyme (3) B =
(4) 1 and 3 both (4) 1 3
PART-1 (SECTION-B) -B
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
136. Which of the following is zwitterion : 136.
(1) (1)
R R
+ +
(2) H 3N – CH – COOH – (2) H 3N – CH – COOH
–
–
R
+
(3) (3) H 3N – CH – COOH
R R
+ – + –
(4) H 3N – CH – COO (4) H 3N – CH – COO
NLI / 36
137. Prosthetic group is part of an enzyme it is : 137.
(1) Loosely attached organic compound (1)
(2) Tightly attached inorganic compound (2)
(3) Tightly attached organic part (3)
(4) Loosely attached inorganic compound (4)
138. What are pockets in an enzyme : 138.
(1) Crevices made due to chain criss - crossing in (1)
tertiary structure of protein
(2)
(2) Active sites of all proteins
(3) Site where substrates of a proteins fit permanently (3)
(4) All of these (4)
139. Match the following column I and column II : 139.
a. Acidic amino acid i. Lysine a. i.
b. Aromatic amino acid ii. Valine b. ii.
c. Neutral amino acid iii. Glutamic acid c. iii.
d. Basic amino acid iv. Tyrosine
d. iv.
(1) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
(1) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
(2) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i (2) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i
(3) a–i, b–iv, c–iii, d–ii (3) a–i, b–iv, c–iii, d–ii
(4) a–iv, b–iii, c–i, d–ii (4) a–iv, b–iii, c–i, d–ii
140. Which among the following statement is incorrect: 140.
(1) Lipids are generally water insoluble (1)
(2) Simple lipid is glycerol which is trihydroxy propane (2)
(3) Arachidonic acid has 19 carbon atoms excluding (3)

the carboxyl carbon.
(4) Palmitic acid has 15 carbons including carboxyl (4)
carbon
141. Which is a correct matching set : 141.
Column – I Column – II I II
a. Collagen i. Hormone
a. i.
b. Trypsin ii. Enzyme
b. ii.
c. Insulin iii. Enable glucose
transport into cells c. iii.
d. GLUT-4 iv. Fights infectious
agents d. iv.
e. Antibody v. Intercellular ground
e. v.
substance
(1) a-v, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-iv
(1) a-v, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-iv
(2) a-v, b-i, c-ii, d-iv, e-iii (2) a-v, b-i, c-ii, d-iv, e-iii
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iv, e-v (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iv, e-v
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii, e-v (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii, e-v
NLI / 37
Statement - I : -I:
In Algae cell wall, made of cellulose, galactans,
mannans and minerals like calcium carbonate.
Statement - II : - II :
In other plants it consists of cellulose,
hemicellulose, pectins & proteins.
correct answer from the options given below
(1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
143. Haemoglobin consists of : 143.

(1) 2 and 2 subunits (1) 2 2
(2) 3 and 3 subunits (2) 3 3
(3) 4 and 4 subunits (3) 4 4
(4) 1 and 1 subunits (4) 1 1
144. Almost all enzymes are proteins and are composed 144.
of one or several polypeptide chains. However
there are a number of cases in which non-protein
constrituents called as :
(1) Apoenzyme (1)
(2) Co-factor (2)

(3) Allosteric (3)
(4) Holoenzyme (4)
145. Which of the following is correct about G1 Phase : 145. G1
(i) Cell is metabolically highly active (i)
(ii) Continuous growth of the cell
(ii)
(iii) Replicate its DNA
(iii)
(1) i and ii are correct
(1) i ii
(2) Only ii is correct
(2) ii
(3) i, ii and iii are correct
(3) i, ii iii
(4) i and iii are correct (4) i iii
146. Which of the following process are basics to 146.
taxonomy:
(1) Identification (1)
(2) Classifications (2)
(3) Nomenclature (3)

NLI / 38
147. The plants of wheat are belongs to : 147.
(1) Family poaceae (1)
(2) Order poales (2)

(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
(4) Class dicotyledonae (4)
148. Which two kingdom are included in two kingdom 148.

classification system :
(1)
(1) Plantae and Animalia
(2)
(2) Plantae and Protista
(3)
(3) Plantae and Monera
(4) Animalia and Protista (4)
149. Many drawbacks was in two kingdom 149.

classifications system, because this system did not
distinguish between which :
(1)
(1) Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes
(2)
(2) Unicellular and multicellular organisms
(3) Photosynthetic and non photosynthetic (3)
150. Lichens are shows which type of associations 150.
(1) Parasitism (1)
(2) Competition (2)
(3) Symbiotic (3)
PART-2 (SECTION-A)
151. The reaction is catalysed by 151.
(1) Transferases (1)

(2) Hydrolases (2)
(3) Lyases (3)
(4) Isomerases (4)
152. Who among the following saw and described a 152.
living cell first time :
(1) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek (1)
(2) Robert Brown (2)
(3) Matthias Schleiden (3)
(4) Theodore Schwann (4)
NLI / 39
153. Match the following : 153.
Column – I Column – II
I II
a. Metaphase i. Initiation of
condensation of a. i.
chromosomal material
b. Interphase ii. Nuclear envelops b. ii.
assembles around the
chromosomes clusters
c. Telophase iii. Chromosomes c. iii.
arranged at equatorial
plate d. iv.
d. Prophase iv. The period between two
cell division
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d- iii
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d- iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (4) a- iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (4) a- iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
154. In which among the following mitosis division 154.

occurs in haploid cells :
(1) Female honey bee (1)
(2) Some social insects (2)
(3) Some lower plants (3)
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) 2 3
155. A cell organelle X is divided into two types on the 155. X
basis of cell organelle Y that help in the protein Y
synthesis. Identify X and Y respectively : X Y
(1) E. R and Ribosome (1)
(2) Ribosome and E.R (2)
(3) E.R and mitochondria (3)
(4) Mitochondria and ribosome (4)
156. Which of the following structure play a role in 156.

motility of bacteria :
(1)
(1) Fimbriae and Pili
(2)
(2) Flagella
(3) Mesosome (3)
(4) 1 and 2 both (4) 1 2
157. Electron micrographic view of which stage of 157.

prophase–I will show clear tetrad :
(1) Leptotene (1)

(2) Pachytene (2)
(3) Zygotene (3)
(4) Diplotene (4)
NLI / 40
158. Match the following 158.
a) 90 percent i) Vacuols occupy a) 90 i)
Volume of the plant cell
b) 0.5  m ii) Average diameter of b) 0.5  m ii)
mitochondria
c) iii)
c) 20-40 per cell. iii) Number of chloroplast
20 - 40
in mesophyll cell
d) 9 iv)
d) 9 pairs of doublets iv) Axoneme of cilia
e) 10 to 50 nm v)
e) 10 to 50 nm v) Space between two
nuclear membrane
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
(2) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii (2) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
(3) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i (3) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(4) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii (4) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
159. Choose the type of enzyme involved in the 159.
following reaction.
S – G + S'  S + S' – G
S – G + S'  S + S' – G
(1)
(1) Dehydrogenase
(2) Transferase (2)
(3) Hydrolase (3)
(4) Lygase (4)
160. Find correct matching is/are : 160.

(a) Omnis cellula-e cellula given by schwan (a) Omnis cellula-e cellula
(b) Pocket of enzyme = 'Active site' (b) '
(c) GLUT-4 = Fascilated transport (c) GLUT - 4 =
(1) a and c (1) a c
(2) a and b (2) a b
(3) a only (3) a
(4) b and c (4) b c
161. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct 161.
sequence :
(a) Crossing over (a)
(b) Synapsis (b)
(c) Terminalisation of chiasmata (c)
(d) Disappearance of nucleolus (d)
(1) a, b, c, d (1) a, b, c, d
(2) b, c, d, a (2) b, c, d, a
(3) b, a, d, c (3) b, a, d, c
(4) b, a, c, d (4) b, a, c, d
NLI / 41
162. Which of the following cellular organelle is the site 162.
of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids :
(1) Peroxisomes (1)
(3) Golgi apparatus (3)
(4) Chloroplast (4)

163. Which among the following statement is incorrect: 163.
(1) Majority of the chloroplasts of the green plants are (1)
found in the mesophyll cells of the leaves.
(2) The chloroplasts is double membrane bound the (2)
inner chloroplast membrane is relatively more
permeable
(3) Chlorophyll pigments are present in the thylakoids (3)
(4) Thylakoids are arranged in stacks like the piles of (4)

coins called grana
(R).
(A) :
Assertion (A) :
Cell wall not only gives shape to the cell and
protects the cell from mechanical damage and
infection. (R) :
Reason (R) :
It is also helps in cell-to-cell interaction and
provides barrier to undesirable macromolecule.
below:
(1) (A) (R) (R) (A)
exaplanation of (A)
(3) (A) (R)
165. Arrange the given diagram sequentially according 165.

to the stages of cell division.
(1) ABCD (2) CDAB (1) ABCD (2) CDAB

(3) DACB (4) CABD (3) DACB (4) CABD
NLI / 42
166. Read the follow ing statement and choose 166.

correct answer -
(a) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes (a) I
place during prophase I of meiosis

(b) II
(b) Division of centromere takes place during
Anaphase II of meiosis
(c)
(c) Spindle fibres disappear completely in
telophase of mitosis
(d)
(d) Nucleoli reappear at telophase I of meiosis
(1) Only a, b correct (1) a, b
(2) Only a, b, c correct (2) a, b, c
(3) Only a, c, d correct (3) a, c, d
(4) Only a, b, c, d correct (4) a, b, c, d
167. Membrane–bound organelles are absent in: 167.
(1) Streptococcus (1)
(2) Chlamydomonas (2)
(3) Plasmodium (3)
(4) Saccharmyces (4)
168. Polysome is formed by : 168.

(1) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear (1)
arrangement
(2) mRNA
(2) Several ribosomes attahced to a single mRNA
(3) One ribosomes attahced to a single mRNA (3) mRNA
(4) A ribosome with several subunits (4)
169. Middle lamella is composed mainly of : 169.

(1) Muramic acid (1)
(2) Calcium pectate (2)
(3) Phosphoglycerides (3)
(4) Hemicellulose (4)
170. Select the wrong statement from the following : 170.
(1) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an (1)
inner and an outer membrane
(2) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an
(2)
internal compartment, the thylakoid space
bounded by the thylakoid membrane in both
(3) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA
(4) The chloroplasts are generally much larger than (3) DNA
mitochondria (4)
NLI / 43
(R).
(A) :
Assertion (A) :

The amino acids are known as -amino acids.
(R) :
Reason (R) :
Amino acid are organic compounds containing on
amino group and carboxylic group as substituent
on the -carbon.
below:
exaplanation of (A)
(3) (A) (R)
(4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
explanation of (A)
172. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated 172.
close to one end are :
(1) Telocentric (1)

(2) Sub-metacentric (2)
(3) Metacentric (3)
(4) Acrocentric. (4)
173. A typical fat molecule is made up of : 173.

(1) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule (1)
(2) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(2)
(3) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid
molecule (3)
(4) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules. (4)
Statement - I : -I:
Cell division is a very important process in all living
organism.
Statement - II :
-II:
During cell division one DNA replication and
continuous cytoplasmic growth.
correct answer from the options given below
(1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

NLI / 44
(R).
(A) :
Assertion (A) :
Interphase is resting phase.
Reason (R) : (R) :
The interphase cell is metabotically inactive.
below:
exaplanation of (A)
(3) (A) (R)

a) Every 24 hours i) Yeast completes its a) 24 i)
cell cycle
b) 1 hour ii) Typical eukaryotic b) 1 ii)
human cells divide
once
c) 95% time iii) Interphase
c) 95% iii)
d) 90 minutes iv) Duration of M-phase in
d) 90 iv)
human cell
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Macro molecule chitin is :
(1) Sulphur containing polysaccharide (1)
(2) Simple polysaccharide (2)
(3) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide (3)
(4) Phosphorus containing polysaccharide (4)
178. How many statements are correct. 178.
(a) All living organism are composed of cells and (a)
products of cells
(b) New cells arise from pre-existing cells. (b)
(c) Nerve cells are unbranched of the longest cells.

(c)
(d) Human red blood cells are about 7.0 m in
(d) 7.0 m
diameter.
(1) Three (2) Four (1) (2)
(3) One (4) Two (3) (4)
NLI / 45
Statement - I : -I:
Spindle fibres attach to kenetochores of
chromosomes.
-II:
Statement - II :
Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator and
get aligned along metaphase plate through
spendle fibres to both poles.
correct answer from the options given below (1) I II
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
180. Match the following with respect to meiosis : 180.
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization (a) (i)
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata (b) (ii)
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over (c) (iii)
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis (d) (iv)
Select the correct option from the following

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
181. A stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram. Select 181.
the correct option regarding this stage.
(1) Telophase : Chrosmosomes reach their respective (1)

poles
(2) Anaphase : Chromatids move towards the pole (2)
(3) Metaphase : Chromosomes aligned at the equator (3)

(4) Prophase : Nuclear membrane disappears (4)
NLI / 46
182. Which of the following is not a chracteristic feature 182.
during mitosis in somatic cells :
(1) Chromosome movement (1)
(2) Synapsis (2)
(3) Spindle fibres (3)
(4) Disappearance of nucleolus. (4)
183. During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase 183.
participates during :
(1) Prophase - II (1) - II
(2) Metaphase - I (2) -I
(3) Anaphase - II (3) - II
(4) Prophase - I (4) -I
(R). (A) :
Assertion (A) :
In animals cells, the cytokinesis is marked by the
appearance of a furrow in plasma membrane.
Reason (R) : (R) :
In plant cells, the formation of the new cell wall
starts with the formation of simple precursor called
cellplate.
below:
exaplanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
(R).
Assertion (A) : (A) :
Proteins are a heteropolymer.
Reason (R) : (R) :
Dietary proteins are the source of non-essential
amino acids.
below:
(1) (A) (R) (R) (A)
exaplanation of (A)
(3) (A) (R)
NLI / 47
PART-2 (SECTION-B) -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
15 15
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
186. The stage during which seperation of the paird 186.

homologous chromosomes begins :
187. Which one of the following is a non - reducing 187.

carbohydrate :
(1)
(1) Maltose
(2)
(2) Sucrose
(3) Lactose (3)
(4) Ribose 5 - phosphate (4) 5-
188. Transition state structure of the substrate formed 188.
during an enzymatic reaction is :
(1) Transient and unstable (1)
(2) Permanent and stable (2)
(3) Transient but stable (3)
(4) Permanent but unstable (4)
189. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family: 189.
(1) Brassicaceae (1)
(2) Fabaceae (2)
(3) Asteraceae (3)
(4) Solanaceae (4)
190. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 190. (A)
(R).
(A) :
Assertion (A):
All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are
not vertebrates.
Reason (R) : (R) :
Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the
adult vertebrats.
below : (1) R
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct R
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct R
explanation of (A) (4) R
NLI / 48
191. The number of mitochondria per cell is variable, 191.
depending on :
(1) Size of cells (1)
(2) Shape of cells (2)
(3) Physiological activity of cells (3)
(4) Type of genes present in mt DNA (4) mt DNA
192. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 192. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (R)
Reason (R).
(A) :
Assertion (A):
Members of chondrichthyes swim constantly to

avoid sinking.
Reason (R) : (R) :

In members of chondrichthyes air bladder absent.

below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) R
correct explanation of (A)

R
R
explanation of (A) (4) R
193. Match the follo wing classification system 193.
according to their criterias
a. Phylogenetic classification system a.
b. Numerical Taxonomy b.
c. Cytotaxonomy
c.
d. Chemotaxonomy
d.
i) based on cytological information i.e.
chro mosome structure , number and (i)
behaviour
ii) based on chemical constituents of the plant (ii)
iii) Number and codes are assigned to all (iii)
characters and data is then processed
iv) based on evolutionary relationships among
various organisms (iv)
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
NLI / 49
194. Volvox, Ulothrix, Spirogyra, Chara, Dictyota, 194.
Ectocarpus, Laminaria, Sargassum, Fucus, Porphyra
and Polysiphonia, etc., are the examples of green a
plants. Number of organism which having
d
chlorophyll a and chlorophyll d are
(1)
(1) Three
(2)
(2) Four
(3) Two (3)
(4) Five (4)
195. Which statement is correct among the following : 195.

(a) When the stamens are united into more than (a)
two bundles this condition is seen in Citrus.
(b) When more than one carpel is present it can (b)
be free as in Pea.
(c) In some legumenous plants the leaf base
(c)
may be come swollen which is called the
pulvinous.
(d)
(d) When a shoot tip transforms into a flower, it is
always solitary.
(1) a, b and c (2) b, c and d (1) a, b c (2) b, c d
(3) Only b (4) a, c and d (3) b (4) a, c d

(Placentation) (Example)
a. Marginal i. Lemon a. i.
b. Axile ii. Dianthus b. ii.
c. Parietal iii. Sunflower c. iii.
d. Free central iv. Pea d. iv.
e. Basal v. Mustard e. v.
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iii (1) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iii
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-iii, e-ii (2) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-iii, e-ii
(3) a-i, b-iv, c-v, d-ii, e-iii (3) a-i, b-iv, c-v, d-ii, e-iii
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-v, d-i, e-iii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-v, d-i, e-iii
197. In the kidney of frog vasa efferentia open into 197.

which part-
(1) Ureter (1)

(2) Unirogenital duct (2)
(3) Bidder's canal (3)
(4) Kidney (4)
NLI / 50
198. At a time mature femal frog can lay.........ova at a 198.
time-
(1) 2000-2500
(1) 2000-2500
(2) 2500-3000
(2) 2500-3000
(3) 1000-2000
(3) 1000-2000
(4) 1500-2000 (4) 1500-2000
199. Correct statement regarding frog is : 199.

(1) They show aestivation and hibernation (1)
(2) skin is smooth and slippery (2)
(3) They do not have constant body tempreture (3)
(4) all of these (4)
200. Read the following diagram and Match the 200. -I -II
column-I with II
Q
P
Column-I Column-II -I -II

(A) Oviduct (i) P (A) (i) P
(B) Ova (ii) Q
(B) (ii) Q
(C) Cloaca (iii) R
(C) (iii) R
(D) Ureter (iv) S
(D) (iv) S
(1) A-iv; B-ii; C-iii; D-i
(1) A-iv; B-ii; C-iii; D-i
(2) A-ii; B-iii; C-iv; D-i (2) A-ii; B-iii; C-iv; D-i
(3) A-ii; B-i; C-iii; D-iv (3) A-ii; B-i; C-iii; D-iv
(4) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv (4) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv
NLI / 51

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All India Rank Booster Test Series (RBTS–4) [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / 26-Dec.

• The important points to note:

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NCERT - XI (346) pages NCERT - XII (285)

Pages Total 631 pages 28 pages compress

NEET-2024 80+ Questions

Physics & Chemistry Important Formule

Key Points of New Light Test Series :

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• Youtube Channel Name : New Light Prayaas

TOPIC : Rotational Motion

Attempt All 35 Questions 35

1. The moment of inertia of two spheres of equal 1.

2. A thin uniform rod of length 2l is acted upon by a 2. 2l

3. A uniform disc mass m and radius r is rotating with 3. m

5. The M.I. of a body about a given axis is 1.2 kg m2 5. 1.2 kg m2

(4) 10s (4) 10s

6. If I is the moment of inertia and E is the kinetic 6. E

(4) (2EI) (4) (2EI)

7. The angular momentum of a system of particles is 7.

(4) None of these. (4)

(1) (F1 – F2) (1) (F1 – F2)

(4) 8gR (4) 8gR

(4) 3215 J (4) 3215 J

11. A small disc of radius 2 cm is cut from a disc of 11. 6 2

(4) 1.2 cm (4) 1.2 cm

12. A rod of length 50 cm is pivoted at one end. It is 12. 50

13. The magnitude of torque on a particle of mass 13. 1 kg

(1) /8 (1) /8

(2) /6 (2) /6

(3) /4 (3) /4

(4) /3 (4) /3

15. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere about an 15.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

(1) 36kˆ (1) 36kˆ

(3) 5/4 ma2 (3) 5/4 ma2

(4) 7/4 ma2 (4) 7/4 ma2

(1) inside the circular plate (1)

(2) inside the square plate (2)

(3) at the point of contact (3)

(4) outside the system (4)

20. The moment of inertia of a rod about an axis 20.

21. Two bodies of mass 1 kg & 3 kg have position 21. 1 ˆi + 2jˆ + kˆ

vectors ˆi + 2jˆ + kˆ and -3 ˆi - 2ˆj + kˆ , respectively.. -3 iˆ - 2ˆj + kˆ

(4)  iˆ  jˆ  kˆ (4) iˆ  jˆ  kˆ

(3) 10 rad/sec (3) 10 rad/sec

(4) 15 rad/sec (4) 15 rad/sec2

(1) 11.5 sec–2

(1) g/4 (1) g/4

33. A couple produces : 33.

35. Moment of inertia of a disc of radius R and mass M 35. R M

(1) MR2 (1) MR2

(2) 1/2 MR2 (2) 1/2 MR2

(3) 1/4 MR2 (3) 1/4 MR2

(4) 5/2 MR2 (4) 5/2 MR2

This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can 15 15

(2) 35s–2, 20 ms–2 (2) 35s–2, 20 ms–2

(3) 25s–2, 10 ms–2 (3) 25s–2, 10 ms–2