FST-42 (26-03-2024) Paper (E) Physics
FST-42 (26-03-2024) Paper (E) Physics
FST-42 (26-03-2024) Paper (E) Physics
Test ID : 242
ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2023-24
Topic Covered
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2023 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:
BOTANY
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write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
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and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
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PART-1 (SECTION-A)
6. A small signal voltage V(t) =Vo sin t across an
Attempt All 35 Questions ideal capacitor C
1. The magnetic susceptibility is negative for: (1) Current I (t), lags voltage V (t) by 90o
(1) diamagnetic material only (2) Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume
(2) paramagnetic material only any energy from the voltage source.
(3) ferromagnetic material only (3) Current I (t), is in phase with voltage V (t)
(4) paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials (4) Current I (t), lags voltage V (t) by 180o
2. Out of the following options which one can be 7. Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with
used to produce a propagating electromagnetic column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced
wave?
by the mirror]
(1) A charge moving at constant velocity
Column 1 Column 2
(2) A stationary charge
(A) m = –2 (a) Convex minor
(3) A chargeless particle
(4) An accelerating charge 1
(B) m =– (b) Concave mirror
2
3. A disk and a sphere of same radius but different
masses slip on two inclined planes of the same (C) m = +2 (c) Real image
altitude and length. Which one of the two objects
gets to the bottom of the plane first : 1
(D) m = + (d) Virtual image
2
(1) Disk
(1) A b and c; B b and c; C b and d; D a
(2) Sphere
and d
(3) Both reach at the same time
(2) A a and c; B a and d; C a and b; D c
(4) Depends on their masses and d
4. A particle moves so that its position vector is given (3) A a and d; B b and c; C b and d; D b
by r cos txˆ sin tyˆ . Where is a constant. and c
Which of the following is true : (4) A c and d; B b and d; C b and c; D a
and d
(1) Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular
to r 8. Two similar springs P and Q have constar KP and
KQ, such that KP > KQ. They are stretche first by the
(2) Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r same amount (case a), then by the same force
(3) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is (case b). The work done by springs WP and WQ are
related as, in case (a) and case (b) respectively :
directed towards the origin.
(1) W P = W Q; W P > W Q
(4) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is
acceleration is directed away from the origin. (2) W P = W Q; W P = W Q
5. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial (3) W P > W Q; W Q > W P
volume. The same gas is compressed separately (4) W P < W Q; W Q > W P
through an adiabatic process until its volume is 9. When two displacements represented by y1= a sin
again reduced to half. Then: (t) and y2 = b cos (t) are superimposed the
(1) Compressing the gas isothermally will require motion is:
more work to be done. (1) not a simple harmonic
(2) Compressing the gas through adiabatic process
will require more work to be done a
(2) simple harmonic with amplitude
b
(3) Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically
will require the same amount of work.
(3) simple harmonic with amplitude a2 b2
(4) Which of the case (whether compression through
isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires (a b)
more work will depends upon the atomicity of the (4) simple harmonic with amplitude
2
gas
NLI / 3
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
10. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is 14. Which logic gate is represented by the following
connected to a cell of emf V and then combination of logic gates :
disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric
constant K, which can just fill the air gap of the
capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the
following is incorrect :
(1) The potential difference between the plates
decreases K times
(2) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K
times.
1 1
(3) The change in energy stored in CV 2 1 (1) OR
2 K
(2) NAND
(4) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.
(3) AND
11. Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross
section a constant potential difference is applied. (4) OR.
The quantity which remains constant along the
15. Thermodynamic process are indicated in the
conductor is:
following diagram :
(1) Current density (2) Current
(3) Drift velocity (4) Electric field.
12. Which of the following figures represent the
variation of particle momentum and the associated
de-Broglie wavelength : IV
I III
II
700 K
500 K
(1) (2) 300 K
13. If in a p-n junction, a square input signal to 10V is R. Process III c. Isochoric
applied, as shown : S. Process IV d. Isothermal
(1) P d, Q b, R a, S c
(2) P a, Q c, R d, S b
(3) P c, Q a, R d, S b
(4) P c, Q d, R b, S a.
then the output across RL will be : 16. The given electric network is equivalent to :
(1) (2)
(1) NOT gate
(2) AND gate
g (3) A 02 (A B)2
(4) A + B
(3)
26. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in
O R r one complete vibration is :
A
(1) (2) A
g 2
(4) A 2
(3) (4) zero
O R r 2
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All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
27. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly
32. A particle moving with velocity V is acted by
charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a
three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR.
distance r from the centre:
The velocity ofthe particle will :
(1) increases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
(2) zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as r
increases for r > R
(3) zero as r increases for r < R, increases as r
increases for r > R
(4) decreases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
28. In which of the following devices, the eddy current
effect is not used :
(1) induction furnace
(2) magnetic braking in train (1) increase
30. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the following 35. In Young's double slit experiment, if the
statements is true? separation between coherent sources is halved
(1) Electrons are the majority carriers and trivalent and the distance of the screen from the coherent
atoms are the dopants. sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes:
(2) Holes are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms (1) four times
are the dopants.
(2) one-fourth
(3) Holes are the majority carriers and pentavalent
atoms are the dopants. (3) double
(4) Electrons are the majority carriers and pentavalent
atoms are the dopants. (4) half
NLI / 6
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
36. Which of the following graph represents the 41. The electron concentration in an n-type
variation of resistivity () with temperature (T) for semiconductor is the same as hole concentration
copper? in a p-type semiconductor. An external field
(electric) is applied across each ofthem. Compare
the currents in them :
(1) current in p-type > current in n-type.
(1) (2) (2) current in n-type > current in p-type.
(3) No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow
in n-type.
(4) current in n-type = current in p-type.
(3) (4) 42. Abody is executing simple harmonic motion with
frequency 'n', the frequency ofits potential energy
is :
37. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are (1) 2n (2) 3n
connected to each other via a stop cock. A (3) 4n (4) n
contains and ideal gas at standard temperature 43. Polar molecules are the molecules :
and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The
(1) acquire a dipolemoment only in the presence of
entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock
electric field due to displacement of charges.
is suddenly opend. The process is :
(2) acquire a dipolemoment onlywhen magnetic field
(1) isochoric is absent
(2) isobaric (3) having a permanent electric dipolemoment.
(3) isothermal (4) having zero dipolemoment
44. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and
(4) adiabatic
identify the correct answer :
38. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not (A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias,
valid : when used as a voltage regulator.
(1) Deuteron atom (B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies
between 0.1Vto 0.3V.
(2) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
(1) (A) and (B) both are incorrect.
(3) Hydrogen atom (2) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
(4) Singly ionised helium atom (He+) (3) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
(4) (A) and (B) both are correct
39. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
45. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In
frequency is incident on a photosensitivie which direction will it move?
material. What will be the photoelectric current if
the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled :
(1) one-fourth
(2) zero
(3) doubled
(4) four times
40. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is
best suited as an objective of an astronomical
telescope since:
(1) a large aperture contributes to the quality and (1) towards the right as its potential energy will
visibility of the images. decrease.
(2) a large area of the objective ensures better light (2) towards the left as its potential energy will
gathering power. decrease.
(3) towards the right as its potential energy will
(3) a large aperture provides a better resolution
increase.
(4) all of the above. (4) towards the left as its potential energy will increase.
NLI / 7
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
46. The wave theory of light does not explain: 49. Column - I gives certain physical terms associated
(1) Photo current (2) Polarisation
(3) Differaction (4) Interference with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
47. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the Column-II gives some mathematical relations
correct match from the given choices.
involving electrical quantities. Match Column - I
Column–I Column–II
1 2
(A) Root mean square (P) nmv and Column - II with appropriate relations :
3
speed of gas
molecules 3RT Column – I Column – II
(B) Pressure exerted (Q)
M m
by ideal gas 5 (A) Drift Velocity (P)
(C) Average kinetic (R) RT ne2ρ
2
energy of a molecule 3
(D) Total internal energy (S) kB T (B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) ne d
2
of a 1 mole of diatomic eE
gas. (C) Relaxation Period (R)
m
(1) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P (2) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
E
(3) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S (4) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q (D) Current Density (S)
48. A hollow current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries J
current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross- (1) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
section. The variation ofmagnetic field B(r) due to
the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the (2) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
cable is represented by :
(3) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P
(4) decreases
PART-2 (SECTION-A)
(1) (2)
(3)
1/P 1/P
1/P 1/P
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All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
52. Given below are two statements : 56. An ideal gas undergoes four different processes
Statement I : from the same initial state as shown in the figure
below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal,
Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents
magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is :
element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only.
Statement II :
Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's
inverse square law of charge q, with the former
being related to the field produced by a scalar
source, Idl while the latter being produced by a
vector source, q.
In light of above statements choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (1) 2
53. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a (2) 3
highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph
(3) 4
shown, which represents the speed of the ball (v)
as a function of time (t) is : (4) 1
57. Plane angle and solid angle have :
(1) Dimensions but no units
(2) No units and no dimensions
(3) Both units and dimensions
(4) Units but no dimensions.
58.
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) A
54. As the temperature increases, the electrical
resistance :
(1) decreases for both conductors and semiconductors
(2) increases for conductors but decreases for
semiconductors
(3) decreases for conductors but increases for
semiconductors
(4) increases for both conductors and semiconductors
55. The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to :
(1) the rms value of the ac source In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential
drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in :
(2) 2 times the rms value of the ac source (1) Circuit (b) only
(3) 1/ 2 times the rms value of the ac source (2) Circuit (c) only
(3) Both Circuit (a) and (c)
(4) the value of voltage supplied to the circuit.
(4) Circuit (a) only
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59. Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 light of the above statements, choose the most
(R1>>R2) have equal charges. The potential would appropriate answer from the options give n below:
be : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct
(1) more on smalIer sphere explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) equal on both the spheres (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) dependent on the material property of the sphere (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4) more on bigger sphere explanation of (A).
63. A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the
60. Match List - I with List - II : value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the
List - I List - II variable resistance Y as shown in the figure. For
the most precise measurement of X, the resistance
(Electromagnetic (Wavelength)
P and Q :
waves)
(a) AM radio waves (i) 10–10 m
(b) Microwaves (ii) 102 m
(c) Infrared radiations (iii) 10–2 m
(d) X-rays (iv) 10–4 m
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(3) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(1) should be approximately equal and are small
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) (2) should by very large and unequal
61. Match List - I with List - II : (3) do not play any significant role
(4) should be approximately equal to 2X
List - I List - II
64. From Ampere's circuital law for a long straight
(a) Gravitational (i) [L2T–2] wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady
constant (G) current, the variation of magnetic field in the
inside and outside region of the wire is :
(b) Gravitational (ii) [M–1 L3 T–2]
(1) a linearly increasing function of distance upto the
potential energy boundary of the wire and then linearly decreasing
(c) Gravitational (iii) [LT–2] for the outside region.
potential (2) a linearly increasing function of distance r upto the
boundary of the wire and then decreasing one with
(d) Gravitational (iv) [ML2T–2] 1/ r dependence for the outside region.
intensity (3) a linearly decreasing function of distance upto the
Choose the correct answer from the options given boundary of the wire and then a linearly increasing
below: one for the outside region
(4) uniform and remains constant for both the regions.
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
65. For Young’s double slit experiment, two statements
(2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i) are given below:
(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii) Statement I : If screen is moved away from the plane
(4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii) of slits, angular separation of the fringes remains
62. Given below are two statements : One is labelled constant.
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Statement II : If the monochromatic source is replaced
Reason (R). by another monochromatic source of larger wavelength,
Assertion (A) : The angular separation of fringes decreases.
The stretching of a spring is determined by the In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
shear modulus of the material of the spring. answer from the options given below:
Reason (R) : (1) Statement I is true but Statement Ii is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength
than a steel spring of same dimensions. In the (3) Both Statement I and Statement Ii are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
NLI / 10
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
66. A football player is moving southward and 71. The errors in the measurement which arise due
suddenly turns eastward with the same speed to to unpredictable Tuctuations in temperature
avoid an opponent. The force that acts on the and voltage supply are :
player while turning is : (1) Least count errors
(1) along north-east (2) Random errors
(2) along south-west (3) Instumental errors
(3) along eastward (4) Personal errors
(4) along northward 72. The venturi-meter works on :
67. Given below are two statements: (1) The principle of parallel axes
Statement I : Photovoltaic devices can convert optical (2) The principle of perpendicular axes
radiation into electricity.
(3) Huygen’s principle
Statement II : Zener diode is designed to operate under
reverse bias in breakdown region. (4) Bernoulli’s priciple
In the light of the above statements, choose the most 73. The angular acceleration of a body moving along
appropriate answer from the options given below: the circumference of a circle is :
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (1) Along the tangent to its position
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (2) Along the axis of rotation
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (3) Along the radius away from centre
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (4) Along the radius towards the centre
68. A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n 74. The work functions of Casesium (Cs), Potassium
junction diodes a centre-tapped transformer, (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV 2.30 eV and 2.75
capacitor and a load resistance. Which of these eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic
components remove the ac ripple from the radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV which
rectified output? of these photosensitive surfaces many emit
photoelectrons ?
(1) Capacitor
(1) K only
(2) Load resistance
(2) Na only
(3) A centre-tapped transformer
(3) Cs only
(4) p-n junction
(4) Both Na and K
69. An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due
75. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a
to decrease in its operating frequency:
velocity V Viˆ . The instantaneous oscillating
(1) displacement current decreases. electric field of this em wave is along +y axis.
Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field
(2) capacitive reactance remains constant
of the em wave will be along:
(3) capacitive reactance decreases (1) – x direction
(4) displacement current increases (2) – z direction
(3) – y direction
70. If E.dS 0 over a surface, then :
(4) + z direction.
(1) all the charges must necessarily be inside the
76. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
surface.
due to heating :
(2) the electric field inside the surface is necessarily (1) affects the overall V - I characteristics of p-n
uniform junction
(3) the number of flux lines entering the surface must (2) affects only reverse resistance
be equal to the number of flux lines leaving it.
(3) does not affect resistance of p-n junction
(4) the magnitude of electric fied on the surface is
constant (4) affects only forward resistance.
NLI / 11
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
77. In the combination of the following gates the 81. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B the universal gravitational constant were ten times
as : larger in magnitude, which of the following is not
correct?
(1) 'g' on the Earth will not change.
(2) Raindrops will fall faster.
(3) Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth
would decrease
(4) Walking on the ground would become more difficult.
(1) A B
82. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry
(2) A B axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is
increased keeping its mass same. Which of the
(3) A B A B following physical quantities would remain
constant for the sphere?
(4) A B A B
(1) Angular momentum
78. The electrostatic force between the metal plates
of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a (2) Angular velocity
charge Q and area A, is : (3) Rotational kinetic energy
(1) inversely proportional to the distance between the (4) Moment of inertia.
plates 83. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
(2) independent of the distance between the plates. between the poles of an electromagnet. When the
(3) proportional to the square root of the distance current in the electromagnet is switched on, then
between the plates. the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the
horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains
(4) linearly proportional to the distance between the gravitational potential energy. The work required
plates. to do this comes from:
79. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward (1) the induced electric field due to the changing
directed electric field E. The direction of electric magnetic field
field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the (2) the current source
same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it
through the same vertical distance h. The time of (3) the lattice structure of the material of the rod
fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of
(4) the magnetic field.
fall of the proton is :
(1) equal (2) smaller 84. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane
(3) 10 times greater (4) 5 times greater. surface of a material of refractive index . At a
particular angle of incidence 'i', it is found that
80. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical
the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular
orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and Care
to each other. Which of the following options is
KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major axis
correct for this situation?
and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of
the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then :
1 1
(1) i tan
(2) small focal length and large diameter (3) Charges are of two types positive and negative
(3) large focal length and large diameter (4) It tells about the scalar nature of charge
(4) large focal length and small diameter. 90. Gauss law states that net flux through a closed
PART-2 (SECTION-B) surface is proportional to
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can (1) Charge outside the surface
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than (2) Charge enclosed by the surface
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be (3) Charge inside and outside the surface
considered for marking.
(4) None of the above
86. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have 91. A spherical portion has been removed from a solid
the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with sphere having a charge distributed uniformly in
the same angular speed about their own
its volume as shown in the figure. The electric
symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required
field inside the emptied space is
to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation:
(1) W A > W C > W B
(2) W C > W B > W A
(3) W B > W A > W C
(4) W A > W B > W C.
87. Which one of the follow ing statements is
incorrect? (1) Zero everywhere
(1) Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions (2) Non-zero and uniform
of length.
(3) Non-uniform
(2) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.
(4) Zero only at its centre
(3) Frictional force opposes the relative motion
92. The equipotential surfaces for a point charge are
(4) Limiting value of static friction is directly
(1) Rectangular surfaces
proportional to normal reaction.
(2) Square surfaces
88. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' each) (3) Concentric spherical surfaces
which are connected in series. The terminals of
(4) None of the above
the battery are short-circuited and the current I is
measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct 93. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a 5V
relationship between I and n? battery and charged. The battery is then
disconnected and a glass slab is introduced
between the plates. Then, the quantities that
NLI / 13
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
94. is positive for PART-3 (SECTION-A)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these 101. The current I–H courve for a paramagnetic material
is represented by figure.
95. An energy source will supply a constant current
Y Y
into the load if its internal resistance is
(1) Equal to the resistance of load
(1) I (2) I
(2) Very large as compared to the load resistance
0 H X 0 H X
(3) Zero
Y Y
(4) Non-zero but less than the resistance of the load
(4) Not found in Oersted’s experiment (3) Rate of change of linked flux
(1) An electric field 103. Which of the following statements are false ?
(refer figure below)
(2) A magnetic field
(3) Both electric and magnetic fields
(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is iv. The rotation of coil causes the magnetic flux
correct explanation of assertion. through coil to change, so an emf is induced
in the coil.
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(1) i, ii and iii
correct explanation of assertion is not
(2) i, ii and iv
(3) assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) ii, iii and iv
(4) Both assertion and reason false.
(4) None of these
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All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
104. Electric fields induced by changing magnetic fields 109. Mirage in hot deserts occurs due to
are : (1) Reflection of light
(2) Induction
(2) Transformers
112. Two sources are said to be coherent when,
(3) Generator (1) Phase difference between waves produced by them
(4) Capacitor is a function of time
(4) Compton effect 124. Advanced sunset and delayed sunset is due to :
119. Pick out wrong statement about the Kirchhoff’s (1) Atmospheric reflection
laws of electric circuit. (2) Atmospheric refraction
(1) Outgoing currents adds up and are equal to (3) Atmospheric scattering
incoming currents at a junction (4) Atmospheric dispersion
(2) Electric potential in electric circuit is position 125. Which among the following phenomenon shows
dependent. Starting with any point if we come back particle nature of light :
to same point, total potential change must be zero (1) Photoelectric effect (2) Interference
(3) Junction rule is based on conservation of energy (3) Polarization (4) Matter waves
law 126. The focal length of a lens depends upon
(4) Bending or reorienting the wire does not change (1) Nature of material of lens
(2) Colour of light
the validity of Kirchhoff’s junction rule.
(3) Medium in which lens is placed
120. The incorrect statement among the following
(4) All of these
statements is
(1) Electric field lines can never cross each other 127. Saturation photoelectric current
(2) Electrostatic field lines do not form any closed loop (1) Increase with increase in plate potential
(3) In charge free region, electric field lines can be (2) Increase with decrease in plate in plate potential
taken to be continuous curve
(3) Is independent of plate potential
(4) Field lines around a system of two positive charges
is straight and parallel lines pictorially. (4) Increase with increase in frequency
NLI / 16
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
128. Bohr’s basic idea of discrete energy levels in 134. The centripetal acceleration of a particle of mass
m moving with a velocity v in a circular orbit of
atoms and process of emission of photons from
radius r is
the higher levels to the lower levels was
(1) v2 / r along the radius, towards the centre
experimentally confirmed by experiments
(2) v2 / r along the radius, away from the centre
performed by:
(3) mv2 / r along the radius, towards the centre
(1) Michelson-Morley (2) Millikan
(4) vr along the radius away from the centre
(3) Joule (4) Franck and Hertz 135. Statement I : Friction is the component of the
129. The density of nuclear matter contact force parallel to the surface in contact
(1) Increases with mass number which opposes the relative motion between the
two surfaces.
(2) Decreases with mass number
(3) Is independent of mass number Statement II : Friction is the component of the
contact force perpendicular to the surface in
(4) Increases up to mass number 56 then decreases
contact which opposes the relative motion
130. Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding between the two surfaces.
energy per nucleon in them :
(1) Only Statement I is correct
(1) Decreases with mass number at low mass numbers
(2) Only Statement II is correct
(2) Increases with mass number at low mass numbers
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct
(3) Increases with mass number and high mass
numbers (4) None of the above
(4) Decreases with mass number at high mass PART-3 (SECTION-B)
numbers This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
131. A material has band gap energy (Eg) greater than choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
2 eV. The material question. In case if candiate attempts more than
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
(1) Must be conductor considered for marking.
(2) Must be semiconductor 136. When a stone is rotated with uniform speed in
(3) Must be insulator horizontal plane by means of a string, the
magnitude of the momentum is fixed but its
(4) May be semiconductor
direction changes.
132. Which of the following statements is/are correct
I. Unit should be of suitable size.
II. Unit should not be easily reproducible.
III. Unit should not charge with the changing
physical conditions like temperature,
pressure etc.
(1) Only I (2) Both I and III
(3) Only II (4) All of these
133. Statement I : Relative velocity of A with respect
to B can be written as v AB = v A vB
Statement II : v AB = vBA A force is needed to cause this change in
momentum vector. This force is provided by
Choose the correct option for given statements.
(1) Statement I is correct (1) Gravity
(3) Both the statements are correct (3) Both gravity and our hand through the string
(4) Both the statements are incorrect (4) None of the above
NLI / 17
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
137. Which of the following statements are incorrect 143. Beyond a limiting value, flow loses its steadiness
and becomes ...A... Here, A refers to
I. If there were no friction, work need to be
(1) Streamline (2) Turbulent
done to move a body up an inclined plane
is zero. (3) Compressible fluid (4) Both (1) and (3)
II. If there were no friction, moving vehicles 144. The pressure difference occured in dynamic lift
could not be stopped even by locking the due to spining is called
(4) None of the above (3) Both the statement are correct
139. The motion of a table fan (rotating and swinging (4) Both the statements are incorrect.
side ways) is ...A... . 146. Thermal expansion is :
Here, A refers to (1) Expansion due to increase of temperature
(1) Rotational (2) Expansion due to absorption of moisture
(2) Translational (3) Expansion due to decrease of temperature
(3) Rotational plus translational (4) Expansion due to dissipation of heat in
(4) Precession atmosphere.
140. The velocity of the planet when it is closest to 147. During vaporisation
the Sun is I. Change of state from liquid to vapour state
(1) Maximum occurs.
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All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
176. A unitless quantity : 182. Assertion : Gamma rays are electromagnetic
(1) Never has a non-zero dimension waves having smallest wavelength.
(2) Always has a non-zero dimension Reason : Gamma rays are having the lowest
(3) May have a non-zero dimension frequency.
(4) does not exit (1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
correct explanation of assertion.
177. Two particles P1 and P2 are moving with velocities
v1 and v2 respectively. Which of the statement about (2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
their relative velocity v12 is true : correct explanation of assertion is not
(1) v12 > (v1 + v2) (3) assertion is true but reason is false.
(2) V12 cannot be greater than v1 - v2 (4) Both assertion and reason false.
(3) v12 cannot be greater than v1 + v2 183. Assertion : Newton's law of action and reaction is
a consequence of Newton's law of inertia.
(4) v12 < (v1 + v2)
Reason : Newton's law of inertia implies that any
178. A body of mass m moves in a circular path with
body that is not acted upon by external forces
uniform angular velocity. The motion of the body
has constant : cannot change its state of rest or uniform motion
(1) Acceleration (1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Velocity
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(3) Momentum correct explanation of assertion is not
(4) Kinetic energy (3) assertion is true but reason is false.
179. The Wein's displacement law express, the relation (4) Both assertion and reason false.
between : 184. Assertion : Density of nuclear matter is independent
(1) Radiation energy and wavelength of the size of the nuclous.
(2) Temperature and speed of light Reason : Mass density of the atom is dependent
on the size of the atom.
(3) Colour of light and wavelength
(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(4) Wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity
correct explanation of assertion.
and temperature
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
180. Which of the following statements related to stress- correct explanation of assertion is not
strain relation is correct :
(3) assertion is true but reason is false.
(1) Stress is linearly proportional to strain irrespective
(4) Both assertion and reason false.
of the magnitude of the strain
185. Which of the following parameters is the same for
(2) Stress is linearly proportional to strain above the
all hydrogen like atoms and ions in their ground
yield point
states?
(3) Stress is linearly proportional to strain till (1) Energy of the atom
proportionality point
(2) Speed of the electron
(4) Stress-strain curve is same for all materials
(3) Radius of the orbit
181. Assertion : Liquids tend to have maximum number (4) Orbital angular momentum of the electron
of molecules at their surface.
PART-3 (SECTION-B)
Reason : Small liquid dropes have a spherical This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
shape. choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is question. In case if candiate attempts more than
correct explanation of assertion. 10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking.
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
correct explanation of assertion is not 186. In Bohr's model electrons are revolving in a
circular orbits around the nucleus orbits are:
(3) assertion is false but reason is true.
(1) Stable orbits (2) Non-radiating orbits
(4) Both assertion and reason false.
(3) Bohr's orbits (4) All of these
NLI / 22
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
187. The impurity atoms with which pure silicon may 193. Let n h and n e be the number of holes and
be doped to make it a p-type semiconductor are conduction electron in an extrinsic semiconductor.
those of: Then
(1) Phosphorous (2) Boron (1) nh ne
(3) Antimony (4) Nitrogen
(2) nh ne
188. Assertion : In a simple microscope image formed
is virtual, errect and magnified. (3) nh ne
Reason : Object to be seen is held between optical
centre and focus of convex lens. (4) nh ne
(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is 194. The mobility of free elecrtrons is greater than that
correct explanation of assertion. of free holes because.
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is (1) They are light
correct explanation of assertion is not
(2) They carry negative charge
(3) assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) They mutually collide less
(4) Both assertion and reason false.
(4) They require low energy to continue their motion
189. Assertion : Planck's quantum theory fails to explain
195. Which one of the following is not a vector:
the phenomena of interference, diffraction and
polarization. (1) Electric Current
Reason : These three phenomena are essentially (2) Electric charge
the wave phenomena (3) Electric potential
(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is (4) All of the three
correct explanation of assertion.
196. The wave front for a line source is :
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
correct explanation of assertion is not (1) Plane
(3) assertion is true but reason is false. (2) Cyllindrical
(4) Both assertion and reason false. (3) Spherical
190. Assertion : Induced emf will always occour (4) Linear
whenever there change in magnetic flux. 197. Which one is universal magnetic properties:
Reason : Current always induces whenever, there (1) Diamagnetism
is change in magnetic flux.
(2) Pramagnetism
(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(3) Ferromagnetism
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is (4) Antiferromagnetism
correct explanation of assertion is not 198. Kirrchhoffs second law of circuit is based on:
(3) assertion is true but reason is false. (1) conservation of momentum
(4) Both assertion and reason false. (2) conservation of charge
191. The mass of an atomic nuceus is less than the sum (3) conservation of Energy
of the masses of its constituents, This mass defect
is converted into (4) conservation of angular momentum
(1) Light energy 199. Which one of the following is path function variable
in thermodynamics :
(2) Energy which binds nucleons together
(3) Heat energy (1) internal energy
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