FST-42 (26-03-2024) Paper (E) Physics

Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 25

FST : 42

Test ID : 242
ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2023-24

DURATION : 180 Minutes DATE : 26-03-2024 MARKS : 720

Topic Covered

PHYSICS : FULL SYLLABUS

(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2023 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:

BOTANY

• The important points to note:


I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________


Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________
INSTRUCTION

• The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
• Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.
• Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
• No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
• The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
• The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
• The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

Key Points of New Light Test Series :


• Rapid Fire Revision of all tests Live Classes available on "New LIght Institute"
Channel ( ) before the scheduled test.
• Video of all tests' solution available on "New Light Institute" App.
• Chat support 24×7 available for the students on "New Light Institute" App.
• Test results are regularly sent to the parents and students.
For lattest update on NEET, PDF sheets, other examinations and class schedule.
Please Subscribe our –
Telegram Channel - @NewLightInstituteKanpur
Youtube Channel - New Light Institute

For Today's Paper Discussion - Scan the QR code -

• Youtube Channel Link :

https://www.youtube.com/@newlightprayaas2583

• Youtube Channel Name : New Light Prayaas


All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024

TOPIC : PHYSICS [FULL SYLLABUS]

PART-1 (SECTION-A)
6. A small signal voltage V(t) =Vo sin t across an
Attempt All 35 Questions ideal capacitor C
1. The magnetic susceptibility is negative for: (1) Current I (t), lags voltage V (t) by 90o
(1) diamagnetic material only (2) Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume
(2) paramagnetic material only any energy from the voltage source.
(3) ferromagnetic material only (3) Current I (t), is in phase with voltage V (t)
(4) paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials (4) Current I (t), lags voltage V (t) by 180o
2. Out of the following options which one can be 7. Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with
used to produce a propagating electromagnetic column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced
wave?
by the mirror]
(1) A charge moving at constant velocity
Column 1 Column 2
(2) A stationary charge
(A) m = –2 (a) Convex minor
(3) A chargeless particle
(4) An accelerating charge 1
(B) m =– (b) Concave mirror
2
3. A disk and a sphere of same radius but different
masses slip on two inclined planes of the same (C) m = +2 (c) Real image
altitude and length. Which one of the two objects
gets to the bottom of the plane first : 1
(D) m = + (d) Virtual image
2
(1) Disk
(1) A  b and c; B  b and c; C  b and d; D  a
(2) Sphere
and d
(3) Both reach at the same time
(2) A  a and c; B  a and d; C  a and b; D  c
(4) Depends on their masses and d
4. A particle moves so that its position vector is given (3) A  a and d; B  b and c; C  b and d; D  b

by r cos txˆ sin tyˆ . Where  is a constant. and c
Which of the following is true : (4) A  c and d; B  b and d; C  b and c; D  a
and d
(1) Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular

to r 8. Two similar springs P and Q have constar KP and
 KQ, such that KP > KQ. They are stretche first by the
(2) Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r same amount (case a), then by the same force

(3) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is (case b). The work done by springs WP and WQ are
related as, in case (a) and case (b) respectively :
directed towards the origin.
 (1) W P = W Q; W P > W Q
(4) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is
acceleration is directed away from the origin. (2) W P = W Q; W P = W Q
5. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial (3) W P > W Q; W Q > W P
volume. The same gas is compressed separately (4) W P < W Q; W Q > W P
through an adiabatic process until its volume is 9. When two displacements represented by y1= a sin
again reduced to half. Then: (t) and y2 = b cos (t) are superimposed the
(1) Compressing the gas isothermally will require motion is:
more work to be done. (1) not a simple harmonic
(2) Compressing the gas through adiabatic process
will require more work to be done a
(2) simple harmonic with amplitude
b
(3) Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically
will require the same amount of work.
(3) simple harmonic with amplitude a2  b2
(4) Which of the case (whether compression through
isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires (a  b)
more work will depends upon the atomicity of the (4) simple harmonic with amplitude
2
gas
NLI / 3
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
10. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is 14. Which logic gate is represented by the following
connected to a cell of emf V and then combination of logic gates :
disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric
constant K, which can just fill the air gap of the
capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the
following is incorrect :
(1) The potential difference between the plates
decreases K times
(2) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K
times.

1 1 
(3) The change in energy stored in CV 2   1 (1) OR
2 K 
(2) NAND
(4) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.
(3) AND
11. Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross
section a constant potential difference is applied. (4) OR.
The quantity which remains constant along the
15. Thermodynamic process are indicated in the
conductor is:
following diagram :
(1) Current density (2) Current
(3) Drift velocity (4) Electric field.
12. Which of the following figures represent the
variation of particle momentum and the associated
de-Broglie wavelength : IV
I III
II
700 K
500 K
(1) (2) 300 K

Match the following :


Column-1 Column-2
(3) (4) P. Process I a. Adiabatic
Q. Process II b. Isoboric

13. If in a p-n junction, a square input signal to 10V is R. Process III c. Isochoric
applied, as shown : S. Process IV d. Isothermal
(1) P  d, Q  b, R  a, S  c
(2) P  a, Q  c, R  d, S  b
(3) P  c, Q  a, R  d, S  b
(4) P  c, Q  d, R  b, S  a.
then the output across RL will be : 16. The given electric network is equivalent to :

(1) (2)
(1) NOT gate
(2) AND gate

(3) (4) (3) OR gate


(4) NOR gate.
NLI / 4
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
17. Two astronauts are floating in gravitional free 21. In which of the following processes, heat is neither
space after hav ing lost contact w ith their absorbed nor released by a system?
spaceship. The two will : (1) isothermal
(1) will become stationary (2) adiabatic
(2) keep floating at the same distance between them (3) isobaric
(3) move towards each other (4) isochoric
(4) move away from each other. 22. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a
18. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery container would lead to :
removed and another identical uncharged (1) increase in its mass
capacitor is connected in parallel. The total (2) increase in its kinetic energy
electrostatic energy of resulting system:
(3) decrease in its pressure
(1) increases by a factor of 2
(4) decrease in intermolecular distance
(2) increases by a factor of 4
(3) decreases by a factor of 2
(4) remains the same.
19. Which of the following statements are correct :
(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with
the centre of gravity of the body. 23.
(b) A couple on a body produce both translational and
rotational motion in a body.
(c) A couple on a body produce translational motion
in a body The correct Boolean operation represented by the
(d) Mechanical advantage grater than one means that circuit diagram drawn is:
small effort can be used to lift a large load. (1) AND (2) OR
(1) c and d (2) b and d (3) NAND (4) NOR
(3) a and b (4) b and c. 24. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in
20. Starting from the centre of the earth having radius a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break
R, the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) when:
is shown by : (1) the mass is at the highest point
(2) the wire is horizontal
g
(3) the mass is at the lowest point
(1) (4) inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical
O 25. The displacement of a particle executing simple
R r
harmonic motion is given by
y = A0 + A sin t + B cos t
g
Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given by :
(2) (1) A 0 A2 B2
O R r
(2) A2 B2

g (3) A 02 (A B)2
(4) A + B
(3)
26. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in
O R r one complete vibration is :

A
(1) (2) A
g 2

(4) A 2
(3) (4) zero
O R r 2
NLI / 5
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
27. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly 
32. A particle moving with velocity V is acted by
charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a
three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR.
distance r from the centre:
The velocity ofthe particle will :
(1) increases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
(2) zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as r
increases for r > R
(3) zero as r increases for r < R, increases as r
increases for r > R
(4) decreases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
28. In which of the following devices, the eddy current
effect is not used :
(1) induction furnace
(2) magnetic braking in train (1) increase

(3) electromagnet (2) decrease

(4) electric heater (3) remains constant



29. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying a (4) change according to the smallest force QR
constant current. The plot of the magnitude of the
magnetic field, B with the distance, d, from the 33. The solids which have the negative temperature
centre of the conductor, is correctly represented coefficient of resistance are :
by the figure :
(1) semiconductors only
(2) insulators and semiconductors
(3) metals
(1) (2) (4) insulators only
34. The increase in the width of the depletion region
in a p-n junction diode is due to:
(1) both forward bias and reverse bias
(2) increase in forward current
(3) (4) (3) forward bias only
(4) reverse bias only

30. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the following 35. In Young's double slit experiment, if the
statements is true? separation between coherent sources is halved
(1) Electrons are the majority carriers and trivalent and the distance of the screen from the coherent
atoms are the dopants. sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes:
(2) Holes are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms (1) four times
are the dopants.
(2) one-fourth
(3) Holes are the majority carriers and pentavalent
atoms are the dopants. (3) double
(4) Electrons are the majority carriers and pentavalent
atoms are the dopants. (4) half

31. -particle consists of: PART-1 (SECTION-B)


(1) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
(2) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than
(3) 2 electrons and 4 protons only 10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
(4) 2 protons only considered for marking.

NLI / 6
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
36. Which of the following graph represents the 41. The electron concentration in an n-type
variation of resistivity () with temperature (T) for semiconductor is the same as hole concentration
copper? in a p-type semiconductor. An external field
(electric) is applied across each ofthem. Compare
the currents in them :
(1) current in p-type > current in n-type.
(1) (2) (2) current in n-type > current in p-type.
(3) No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow
in n-type.
(4) current in n-type = current in p-type.
(3) (4) 42. Abody is executing simple harmonic motion with
frequency 'n', the frequency ofits potential energy
is :
37. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are (1) 2n (2) 3n
connected to each other via a stop cock. A (3) 4n (4) n
contains and ideal gas at standard temperature 43. Polar molecules are the molecules :
and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The
(1) acquire a dipolemoment only in the presence of
entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock
electric field due to displacement of charges.
is suddenly opend. The process is :
(2) acquire a dipolemoment onlywhen magnetic field
(1) isochoric is absent
(2) isobaric (3) having a permanent electric dipolemoment.
(3) isothermal (4) having zero dipolemoment
44. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and
(4) adiabatic
identify the correct answer :
38. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not (A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias,
valid : when used as a voltage regulator.
(1) Deuteron atom (B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies
between 0.1Vto 0.3V.
(2) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
(1) (A) and (B) both are incorrect.
(3) Hydrogen atom (2) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
(4) Singly ionised helium atom (He+) (3) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
(4) (A) and (B) both are correct
39. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
45. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In
frequency is incident on a photosensitivie which direction will it move?
material. What will be the photoelectric current if
the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled :
(1) one-fourth
(2) zero
(3) doubled
(4) four times
40. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is
best suited as an objective of an astronomical
telescope since:
(1) a large aperture contributes to the quality and (1) towards the right as its potential energy will
visibility of the images. decrease.
(2) a large area of the objective ensures better light (2) towards the left as its potential energy will
gathering power. decrease.
(3) towards the right as its potential energy will
(3) a large aperture provides a better resolution
increase.
(4) all of the above. (4) towards the left as its potential energy will increase.

NLI / 7
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
46. The wave theory of light does not explain: 49. Column - I gives certain physical terms associated
(1) Photo current (2) Polarisation
(3) Differaction (4) Interference with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
47. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the Column-II gives some mathematical relations
correct match from the given choices.
involving electrical quantities. Match Column - I
Column–I Column–II
1 2
(A) Root mean square (P) nmv and Column - II with appropriate relations :
3
speed of gas
molecules 3RT Column – I Column – II
(B) Pressure exerted (Q)
M m
by ideal gas 5 (A) Drift Velocity (P)
(C) Average kinetic (R) RT ne2ρ
2
energy of a molecule 3
(D) Total internal energy (S) kB T (B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) ne d
2
of a 1 mole of diatomic eE
gas. (C) Relaxation Period (R)
m
(1) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P (2) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
E
(3) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S (4) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q (D) Current Density (S)
48. A hollow current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries J
current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross- (1) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
section. The variation ofmagnetic field B(r) due to
the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the (2) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
cable is represented by :
(3) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P

(4) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q

50. If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the


bubble :
(1) (1) increases

(2) remains the same

(3) is equal to the atmospheric pressure

(4) decreases

PART-2 (SECTION-A)

Attempt All 35 Questions


(2)
51. The graph which shows the variation of the
de-Broglie wavelength () of a particle and
reciprocal of associated momentum (p) is :

(1) (2)
(3)
1/P 1/P

(4) (3) (4)

1/P 1/P

NLI / 8
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
52. Given below are two statements : 56. An ideal gas undergoes four different processes
Statement I : from the same initial state as shown in the figure
below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal,
Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents
magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is :
element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only.
Statement II :
Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's
inverse square law of charge q, with the former
being related to the field produced by a scalar
source, Idl while the latter being produced by a
vector source, q.
In light of above statements choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (1) 2
53. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a (2) 3
highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph
(3) 4
shown, which represents the speed of the ball (v)
as a function of time (t) is : (4) 1
57. Plane angle and solid angle have :
(1) Dimensions but no units
(2) No units and no dimensions
(3) Both units and dimensions
(4) Units but no dimensions.

58.
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) A
54. As the temperature increases, the electrical
resistance :
(1) decreases for both conductors and semiconductors
(2) increases for conductors but decreases for
semiconductors
(3) decreases for conductors but increases for
semiconductors
(4) increases for both conductors and semiconductors
55. The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to :
(1) the rms value of the ac source In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential
drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in :
(2) 2 times the rms value of the ac source (1) Circuit (b) only
(3) 1/ 2 times the rms value of the ac source (2) Circuit (c) only
(3) Both Circuit (a) and (c)
(4) the value of voltage supplied to the circuit.
(4) Circuit (a) only

NLI / 9
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
59. Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 light of the above statements, choose the most
(R1>>R2) have equal charges. The potential would appropriate answer from the options give n below:
be : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct
(1) more on smalIer sphere explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) equal on both the spheres (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) dependent on the material property of the sphere (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4) more on bigger sphere explanation of (A).
63. A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the
60. Match List - I with List - II : value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the
List - I List - II variable resistance Y as shown in the figure. For
the most precise measurement of X, the resistance
(Electromagnetic (Wavelength)
P and Q :
waves)
(a) AM radio waves (i) 10–10 m
(b) Microwaves (ii) 102 m
(c) Infrared radiations (iii) 10–2 m
(d) X-rays (iv) 10–4 m
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(3) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(1) should be approximately equal and are small
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) (2) should by very large and unequal
61. Match List - I with List - II : (3) do not play any significant role
(4) should be approximately equal to 2X
List - I List - II
64. From Ampere's circuital law for a long straight
(a) Gravitational (i) [L2T–2] wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady
constant (G) current, the variation of magnetic field in the
inside and outside region of the wire is :
(b) Gravitational (ii) [M–1 L3 T–2]
(1) a linearly increasing function of distance upto the
potential energy boundary of the wire and then linearly decreasing
(c) Gravitational (iii) [LT–2] for the outside region.
potential (2) a linearly increasing function of distance r upto the
boundary of the wire and then decreasing one with
(d) Gravitational (iv) [ML2T–2] 1/ r dependence for the outside region.
intensity (3) a linearly decreasing function of distance upto the
Choose the correct answer from the options given boundary of the wire and then a linearly increasing
below: one for the outside region
(4) uniform and remains constant for both the regions.
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
65. For Young’s double slit experiment, two statements
(2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i) are given below:
(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii) Statement I : If screen is moved away from the plane
(4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii) of slits, angular separation of the fringes remains
62. Given below are two statements : One is labelled constant.
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Statement II : If the monochromatic source is replaced
Reason (R). by another monochromatic source of larger wavelength,
Assertion (A) : The angular separation of fringes decreases.
The stretching of a spring is determined by the In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
shear modulus of the material of the spring. answer from the options given below:
Reason (R) : (1) Statement I is true but Statement Ii is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength
than a steel spring of same dimensions. In the (3) Both Statement I and Statement Ii are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
NLI / 10
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
66. A football player is moving southward and 71. The errors in the measurement which arise due
suddenly turns eastward with the same speed to to unpredictable Tuctuations in temperature
avoid an opponent. The force that acts on the and voltage supply are :
player while turning is : (1) Least count errors
(1) along north-east (2) Random errors
(2) along south-west (3) Instumental errors
(3) along eastward (4) Personal errors
(4) along northward 72. The venturi-meter works on :
67. Given below are two statements: (1) The principle of parallel axes
Statement I : Photovoltaic devices can convert optical (2) The principle of perpendicular axes
radiation into electricity.
(3) Huygen’s principle
Statement II : Zener diode is designed to operate under
reverse bias in breakdown region. (4) Bernoulli’s priciple

In the light of the above statements, choose the most 73. The angular acceleration of a body moving along
appropriate answer from the options given below: the circumference of a circle is :

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (1) Along the tangent to its position

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (2) Along the axis of rotation

(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (3) Along the radius away from centre

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (4) Along the radius towards the centre

68. A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n 74. The work functions of Casesium (Cs), Potassium
junction diodes a centre-tapped transformer, (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV 2.30 eV and 2.75
capacitor and a load resistance. Which of these eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic
components remove the ac ripple from the radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV which
rectified output? of these photosensitive surfaces many emit
photoelectrons ?
(1) Capacitor
(1) K only
(2) Load resistance
(2) Na only
(3) A centre-tapped transformer
(3) Cs only
(4) p-n junction
(4) Both Na and K
69. An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due
75. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a
to decrease in its operating frequency: 
velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous oscillating
(1) displacement current decreases. electric field of this em wave is along +y axis.
Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field
(2) capacitive reactance remains constant
of the em wave will be along:
(3) capacitive reactance decreases (1) – x direction
(4) displacement current increases (2) – z direction
  (3) – y direction
70. If  E.dS 0 over a surface, then :
(4) + z direction.
(1) all the charges must necessarily be inside the
76. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
surface.
due to heating :
(2) the electric field inside the surface is necessarily (1) affects the overall V - I characteristics of p-n
uniform junction
(3) the number of flux lines entering the surface must (2) affects only reverse resistance
be equal to the number of flux lines leaving it.
(3) does not affect resistance of p-n junction
(4) the magnitude of electric fied on the surface is
constant (4) affects only forward resistance.

NLI / 11
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
77. In the combination of the following gates the 81. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B the universal gravitational constant were ten times
as : larger in magnitude, which of the following is not
correct?
(1) 'g' on the Earth will not change.
(2) Raindrops will fall faster.
(3) Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth
would decrease
(4) Walking on the ground would become more difficult.
(1) A B
82. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry
(2) A B axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is
increased keeping its mass same. Which of the
(3) A B A B following physical quantities would remain
constant for the sphere?
(4) A B A B
(1) Angular momentum
78. The electrostatic force between the metal plates
of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a (2) Angular velocity
charge Q and area A, is : (3) Rotational kinetic energy
(1) inversely proportional to the distance between the (4) Moment of inertia.
plates 83. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
(2) independent of the distance between the plates. between the poles of an electromagnet. When the
(3) proportional to the square root of the distance current in the electromagnet is switched on, then
between the plates. the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the
horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains
(4) linearly proportional to the distance between the gravitational potential energy. The work required
plates. to do this comes from:
79. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward (1) the induced electric field due to the changing
directed electric field E. The direction of electric magnetic field
field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the (2) the current source
same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it
through the same vertical distance h. The time of (3) the lattice structure of the material of the rod
fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of
(4) the magnetic field.
fall of the proton is :
(1) equal (2) smaller 84. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane
(3) 10 times greater (4) 5 times greater. surface of a material of refractive index . At a
particular angle of incidence 'i', it is found that
80. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical
the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular
orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and Care
to each other. Which of the following options is
KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major axis
correct for this situation?
and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of
the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then :
1 1
(1) i tan

(2) Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector


parallel to the plane of incidence

(1) KB > KA > KC 1 1


(3) i sin
(2) KA < KB < KC
(3) KB < KA < KC (4) Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector
(4) KA > KB > KC. perpendicular to the plane of incidence.
NLI / 12
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
85. An astronomical refracting telescope will have 89. By ‘Additive’ nature of charge means
large angular magnification and high angular
(1) Total charge on a system remains constant
resolution, when it has an objective lens of :
(1) small focal length and small diameter (2) Total charge on an isolated system is always zero

(2) small focal length and large diameter (3) Charges are of two types positive and negative

(3) large focal length and large diameter (4) It tells about the scalar nature of charge
(4) large focal length and small diameter. 90. Gauss law states that net flux through a closed
PART-2 (SECTION-B) surface is proportional to
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can (1) Charge outside the surface
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than (2) Charge enclosed by the surface
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be (3) Charge inside and outside the surface
considered for marking.
(4) None of the above
86. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have 91. A spherical portion has been removed from a solid
the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with sphere having a charge distributed uniformly in
the same angular speed about their own
its volume as shown in the figure. The electric
symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required
field inside the emptied space is
to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation:
(1) W A > W C > W B
(2) W C > W B > W A
(3) W B > W A > W C
(4) W A > W B > W C.
87. Which one of the follow ing statements is
incorrect? (1) Zero everywhere
(1) Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions (2) Non-zero and uniform
of length.
(3) Non-uniform
(2) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.
(4) Zero only at its centre
(3) Frictional force opposes the relative motion
92. The equipotential surfaces for a point charge are
(4) Limiting value of static friction is directly
(1) Rectangular surfaces
proportional to normal reaction.
(2) Square surfaces
88. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' each) (3) Concentric spherical surfaces
which are connected in series. The terminals of
(4) None of the above
the battery are short-circuited and the current I is
measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct 93. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a 5V
relationship between I and n? battery and charged. The battery is then
disconnected and a glass slab is introduced
between the plates. Then, the quantities that

(1) (2) decreases are

(1) Charge and potential difference

(2) Charge and capacitance

(3) Capacitance and potential difference


(3) (4) . (4) Energy stored and potential difference

NLI / 13
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
94.  is positive for PART-3 (SECTION-A)

(1) Semiconductors (2) Metals Attempt All 35 Questions

(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these 101. The current I–H courve for a paramagnetic material
is represented by figure.
95. An energy source will supply a constant current
Y Y
into the load if its internal resistance is
(1) Equal to the resistance of load
(1) I (2) I
(2) Very large as compared to the load resistance
0 H X 0 H X
(3) Zero
Y Y
(4) Non-zero but less than the resistance of the load

96. In Oersted’s experiment, deflection of magnetic I I


(3) (4)
needle produced due to current carrying wire
0 H X 0 H X
(1) Remain constant with decreases in current
102. Induced emf in the coil depends unpon
(2) Increases with increases in current
(1) Conductivity of coil
(3) First increases then decreases with
increases in current (2) Amount of flux

(4) Not found in Oersted’s experiment (3) Rate of change of linked flux

97. A moving charge can produce (4) Resistance of coil

(1) An electric field 103. Which of the following statements are false ?
(refer figure below)
(2) A magnetic field
(3) Both electric and magnetic fields

(4) No field at all

98. The wavelength of matter wave is independent


of :

(1) Mass (2) Velocity

(3) Kinetic energy (4) Charge

99. Balmer Series Lies completely in :

(1) UV region (2) Visible region


i. AC generator consists of a coil mounted on a
(3) Infrared region (4) None of these rotor shaft.
ii. The axis of rotation of the coil is perpendicular
100. Assertion : To rays the temperature of body by 100C
to the direction of the magnetic field.
is same to raise the temperature by 10K of body
iii. The coil (called armature) is mechanically
Reason : Heat required to raise the temperature rotated in the uniform magnetic field by some
of body msΔT external means.

(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is iv. The rotation of coil causes the magnetic flux
correct explanation of assertion. through coil to change, so an emf is induced
in the coil.
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(1) i, ii and iii
correct explanation of assertion is not
(2) i, ii and iv
(3) assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) ii, iii and iv
(4) Both assertion and reason false.
(4) None of these
NLI / 14
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
104. Electric fields induced by changing magnetic fields 109. Mirage in hot deserts occurs due to
are : (1) Reflection of light

(1) Conservative (2) Refraction of light


(3) Total internal reflection of light
(2) Non-conservative
(4) Scattering of light
(3) May be conservative or non-conservative depending 110. Wave front of wave has direction with wave
on the condition motion

(4) Nothing can be said (1) Parallel (2) Perpendicular


(3) Opposite (4) At an angle of 
105. When a capacitor (initially charged) is connected 111. If AB is incident wavefront. Then, refracted
to a inductor, the change on the capacitor and wavefront is :
the current in the circuit exhibit the phenomenon
of :

(1) Electrical oscillations

(2) Induction

(3) Power factor

(4) All of these (1) (2)

106. The large scale transmission and distribution of


electrical energy over long distances is done with
the use of
(3) (4)
(1) Dynamo

(2) Transformers
112. Two sources are said to be coherent when,
(3) Generator (1) Phase difference between waves produced by them
(4) Capacitor is a function of time

107. An electromagnetic wave carries momentum, then 


(2) Phase difference waves produced by them is
2
it also exerts pressure, called
(3) Phase difference between waves produced by them
(1) Static pressure is 0
(2) Radiation pressure (4) Phase difference between them remains constant
with time
(3) Fractional pressure
113. A polaroid (I) is placed in front of a monochromatic
(4) Both (1) and (2) source. Another polaroid (II) is placed in front of
108. Early sunrise and delayed sunset are caused due this polaroid (I) and rotated till no light passes. A
to third polaroid (III) is now placed between (I) and
(II).
(1) Bending of light rays towards centre of Earth due
I. No light emerges from (II) for all reference to
to gravity
the polaroid (III).
(2) Bending of light rays away from centre of Earth
II. When the pass axis of (III) is parallel to (I), no
due to refraction
light emerges from (II).
(3) Bending of light rays towards centre of Earth due
III. When the pass axis of (III) is parallel to
to refraction
(II), no light emerges from (II).
(4) Scattering of light from molecules of gases and (1) Only I (2) I and III
dust particles in atmosphere
(3) II and III (4) I, II and III
NLI / 15
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
114. The V-I characteristics of photodiode lies in 121. A proton and an electron are released form rest
in uniform electric field then the correct statement
(1) I quadrant (2) II quadrant among the following is
(3) III quadrant (4) IV quadrant (1) Time required to fall through certain distance is
more for an electron
115. In nuclear reactors, the controlling rods are made
(2) The force experiences by proton will be more
of :
(3) Magnitude of acceleration experienced by proton
(1) Cadmium (2) Graphite
is more
(3) Krypton (4) Plutonium (4) KE gained by both charges in moving through same
116. Nuclear force is distance are equal
(1) Attractive for distance, r = 0.5 fm 122. A diffraction pattern is obtained by using beam of
red light. What will happen, if red light is replaced
(2) Repulsive for distance, r < 0.8 fm
by the blue light :
(3) Attractive for distance, r < 0.8 fm
(1) Bands disappear
(4) Repulsive for distance, r > 0.8 fm
(2) Bands become broader and farther apart
117. Electromagnets are used in
(3) Diffraction bands becomes narrow and crowded
(1) Electric bells
(4) No change takes place
(2) Cranes to lift machinery
123. Which of the following is correct for light diverging
(3) Loudspeaker from a point source :
(4) All of the above (1) The intensity changes in proportion to the distance
118. Which experiment best support the theory that squared
matter has wave nature : (2) The wavefront is parabolic
(1) Photoelectric effect (3) The intensity changes inversely proportional to
(2) -scattering experiment distance squared

(3) Davission and germer experiement (4) The intensity changes

(4) Compton effect 124. Advanced sunset and delayed sunset is due to :

119. Pick out wrong statement about the Kirchhoff’s (1) Atmospheric reflection
laws of electric circuit. (2) Atmospheric refraction
(1) Outgoing currents adds up and are equal to (3) Atmospheric scattering
incoming currents at a junction (4) Atmospheric dispersion
(2) Electric potential in electric circuit is position 125. Which among the following phenomenon shows
dependent. Starting with any point if we come back particle nature of light :
to same point, total potential change must be zero (1) Photoelectric effect (2) Interference
(3) Junction rule is based on conservation of energy (3) Polarization (4) Matter waves
law 126. The focal length of a lens depends upon

(4) Bending or reorienting the wire does not change (1) Nature of material of lens
(2) Colour of light
the validity of Kirchhoff’s junction rule.
(3) Medium in which lens is placed
120. The incorrect statement among the following
(4) All of these
statements is
(1) Electric field lines can never cross each other 127. Saturation photoelectric current

(2) Electrostatic field lines do not form any closed loop (1) Increase with increase in plate potential

(3) In charge free region, electric field lines can be (2) Increase with decrease in plate in plate potential
taken to be continuous curve
(3) Is independent of plate potential
(4) Field lines around a system of two positive charges
is straight and parallel lines pictorially. (4) Increase with increase in frequency
NLI / 16
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024

128. Bohr’s basic idea of discrete energy levels in 134. The centripetal acceleration of a particle of mass
m moving with a velocity v in a circular orbit of
atoms and process of emission of photons from
radius r is
the higher levels to the lower levels was
(1) v2 / r along the radius, towards the centre
experimentally confirmed by experiments
(2) v2 / r along the radius, away from the centre
performed by:
(3) mv2 / r along the radius, towards the centre
(1) Michelson-Morley (2) Millikan
(4) vr along the radius away from the centre
(3) Joule (4) Franck and Hertz 135. Statement I : Friction is the component of the
129. The density of nuclear matter contact force parallel to the surface in contact
(1) Increases with mass number which opposes the relative motion between the
two surfaces.
(2) Decreases with mass number
(3) Is independent of mass number Statement II : Friction is the component of the
contact force perpendicular to the surface in
(4) Increases up to mass number 56 then decreases
contact which opposes the relative motion
130. Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding between the two surfaces.
energy per nucleon in them :
(1) Only Statement I is correct
(1) Decreases with mass number at low mass numbers
(2) Only Statement II is correct
(2) Increases with mass number at low mass numbers
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct
(3) Increases with mass number and high mass
numbers (4) None of the above
(4) Decreases with mass number at high mass PART-3 (SECTION-B)
numbers This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
131. A material has band gap energy (Eg) greater than choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
2 eV. The material question. In case if candiate attempts more than
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
(1) Must be conductor considered for marking.
(2) Must be semiconductor 136. When a stone is rotated with uniform speed in
(3) Must be insulator horizontal plane by means of a string, the
magnitude of the momentum is fixed but its
(4) May be semiconductor
direction changes.
132. Which of the following statements is/are correct
I. Unit should be of suitable size.
II. Unit should not be easily reproducible.
III. Unit should not charge with the changing
physical conditions like temperature,
pressure etc.
(1) Only I (2) Both I and III
(3) Only II (4) All of these
133. Statement I : Relative velocity of A with respect
  
to B can be written as v AB = v A vB
 
Statement II : v AB = vBA A force is needed to cause this change in
momentum vector. This force is provided by
Choose the correct option for given statements.
(1) Statement I is correct (1) Gravity

(2) Statement II is correct (2) Our hand through the string

(3) Both the statements are correct (3) Both gravity and our hand through the string

(4) Both the statements are incorrect (4) None of the above
NLI / 17
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
137. Which of the following statements are incorrect 143. Beyond a limiting value, flow loses its steadiness
and becomes ...A... Here, A refers to
I. If there were no friction, work need to be
(1) Streamline (2) Turbulent
done to move a body up an inclined plane
is zero. (3) Compressible fluid (4) Both (1) and (3)

II. If there were no friction, moving vehicles 144. The pressure difference occured in dynamic lift
could not be stopped even by locking the due to spining is called

brakes (1) Magnus effect

III. As the angle of inclination is increased, the (2) Spark effect


normal reaction on the body placed on it (3) Photoelectric effect
increases.
(4) Electric field
(1) I and II (2) Only I 145. Statement I : When a fluid flows out of a small
(3) I and III (4) All of these hole in the sides of a vessel, a backward force is
exerted on the vessel.
138. The motion of a boome rang is
Statement II : The total energy if a given mass of
(1) Pure translation a non-viscous fluid in motion is conserved.
(2) Pure rotational (1) Statement I is correct

(3) Translational plus rotational (2) Statement II is correct

(4) None of the above (3) Both the statement are correct

139. The motion of a table fan (rotating and swinging (4) Both the statements are incorrect.
side ways) is ...A... . 146. Thermal expansion is :
Here, A refers to (1) Expansion due to increase of temperature
(1) Rotational (2) Expansion due to absorption of moisture
(2) Translational (3) Expansion due to decrease of temperature
(3) Rotational plus translational (4) Expansion due to dissipation of heat in
(4) Precession atmosphere.
140. The velocity of the planet when it is closest to 147. During vaporisation
the Sun is I. Change of state from liquid to vapour state
(1) Maximum occurs.

(2) Minimum II. Temperature remains constant.


III. Both liquid and vapour states coexist in
(3) Can have any value
equilibrium.
(4) None of these
IV. Specific heat of substance increases
141. The time period of polar satellite is : Correct statement are :
(1) 100 min (2) 120 min (1) I, II and IV (2) II, III and IV
(3) 80 min (4) 40 min (3) I, III and IV (4) I, II and III.
142. The property of a body by virtue of which it tends 148. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
to regain its original size and shape of a body correct?
when applied force is removed, is known as I. Gases are poor thermal conductors.
....A.... and the deformation caused is known as
II. Liquids have conductivities intermediate
....B.... deformation. Here, A and B refer to :
between solids and gases.
(1) Plastic, elastic
III. Heat conduction can take place from cold
(2) Elasticity, elastic body to hot body.
(3) Perfectly plastic, plastic (1) Only I (2) Only II
(4) Plastic, plasticity (3) Only III (4) Both I and II.
NLI / 18
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
149. Heat is flowing steadily from A to B temperature 155. In simple harmonic motion, force is directly
T at P, at distance x from A is such that : proportional to ...A... of the body from the mean
position. Here, A refers to
A P B (1) Path length
x (2) Displacement

(1) T decreases linearly with x (3) Square of displacement

(2) T increases linearly with x (4) None of the above


(3) T decreases exponentially with x 156. Consider the following statements.

(4) T increases with x as T  x 2 . The total energy of a particle executing simple


harmonic motion depends on its (I) amplitude.
150. In isobaric expansion, the expression of the first (II) period. (III) displacement. Of these statements
law of thermodynamics should be written as:
(1) I and II are correct
(1) Q P V
(2) II and III are correct
(2) Q U P V (3) I and III are correct
(3) Q  U (4) I, II and III are correct.

(4) Q U P V 157. Which of the following statement is / are correct


about waves ?
PART-4 (SECTION-A)
I. Waves are patterns of disturbance which
Attempt All 35 Questions move without the actual physical transfer or
flow of matter as a whole.
151. Choose the correct option.
II. Waves cannot transport energy.
(1) The predicted values of molar specific heat
capacity for gases generally agree with III. The pattern of disturbance in the form of
experimental values waves carry information that propagate from
(2) Predicted values of molar specific heat capacity one point to another.
for solids is equal to 3R and for most substances IV. All our communications essentially depend
it agrees with the experimental values on transmission of signals through waves.
(3) The predicted values of molar specific heat Choose the correct option from those given
capacity for solids at low temperature does not below.
agrees with the experimental values
(1) I and II (2) Only IV
(4) All of the above.
(3) I, II and III (4) I, III and IV
152. If kinetic energy and potential energy varry from
point to point, Then orbit of a satelite will be: 158. Two points having same phase can be chosen to
be
(1) Circular (2) Elliptical
(1) Crests
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) none of the above
153. If the total external force is zero, then total torque (2) Troughs
on a system is: (3) Either (1) or (2)
(1) dependent of origin (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) independent of origin
159. When two wave pulses travelling in opposite
(3) Both 1 and 2 direction overlap, the resultant displacement is
(4) None of the above (1) The algebraic sum of the displacement due to
154. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas, if its each pulse
(1) Pressure and temperature are both high (2) Always zero
(2) Pressure and temperature are both low (3) The vector in the direction of the displacement of
(3) Pressure is high and temperature is low right travelling pulse
(4) Pressure is low and temperature is high (4) Both (1) and (2)
NLI / 19
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
160. A travelling wave is reflected from the boundary 164. Assertion: Every periodic motion is not simple
which is not rigid. The reflected pulse has harmonic motion
(1) Same phase Reason: Only that periodic motion governed by
the force law F = – kx is simple harmonic
(2) Same amplitude if there is no energy dissipation
on reflections (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Same phase but different amplitude even though
there is no energy dissipation on reflection (2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
161. Polarisation holds good for
(4) It the assertion and reason both are false
(1) Only sound waves
165. Choose the correct statement from the following:
(2) Only electromagnetic waves
I. In a mechanical wave, energy transfer takes
(3) Both sound waves and electromagnetic waves place because of the coupling through elastic
(4) None of the above forces between neighbouring oscillating part
162. In the experiment to determine the speed of of the medium
sound using a resonance column II. In a harmonic progressive wave of a given
(1) Prongs of the tuning fork are kept in a v e r t i c a l frequency, all particles have the same
plane amplitude but different phases at a given
instant of time
(2) Prongs of the tuning fork are kept in a horizontal
plane III. In a stationary wave, all particles between two
nodes have the same phase at a given instant
(3) In one of the two resonance observed, the length but have same amplitudes
of the resonating air column is close to the
(1) I and II
wavelength of sound in air
(4) In one of the two resonances observed, the length (2) I and III
of the resonating air column is close to half of (3) II and III
the wavelength of sound in air
(4) I, II and III
163. Match the items in Column I with terms in Column
II and choose the correct options from the codes 166. Choose the correct statement about average
given below. kinetic energy of a molecules:
Column I Column II I. It is depend upon temperature of ideal gas
A. Constructive (i) Beats II. It is depend upon pressure for ideal gas
interference of two
III. it is independent of volume of ideal gas
waves of same
IV. It is depend upon nature of ideal gas:
frequency and
amplitude (1) I, III, IV
B. Destructive (ii) Nodes (2) I, III
insterference of two (3) I, II
waves of same
(4) I, II, III, IV
frequency and
167. Choose incorrect statement
amplitude
C. Interference of (iii) Anti-nodes (1) The first law of thermodynamics is the principle of
two waves of conservation of energy
nearly same (2) The second law of thermodynamics gives a
frequency and fundamental limitation to the efficiency of a heat
engine and the co-efficient of performance of a
equal amplitude
refrigerator
(1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii)
(3) No process is possible whose sole result is the
(2) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (i)
transfer of heat from a colder object to a hotter
(3) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i) object
(4) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii)
(4) All option are incorrect
NLI / 20
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
168. Given figure shows the phase diagram of water 172. Statement–I: The total torque on a system is
independent of the origin if the total external force
P is zero
(atm) A Statement–II; The centre of gravity of a body
C coincides with its centre of mass only. If the
gravitational field vary from one part of the body
to the other
O
(1) Statement–I is true, Statement –II is true;
Statement–II is a correct explanation fo for
B Statement –I
T(0C)
(2) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true; Statemetn-
Choose the incorrect option II is NOT a correct explanation

(1) Sublimation curve (BO) (3) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is false

(2) Fusion curve (AO) (4) Statement–I is false, Statement–II is true

(3) Vaporisation curve (OA) 173. In an inelastic collision


(4) Point O is triple point (1) momentum is not conserved
169. Toricelli's theorem is used to find: (2) momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not
conserved
(1) The velocity of afflux through an orifice
(3) Both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved
(2) The velocity of flow of liquid through a pipe
(4) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved
(3) Terminal velocity
174. Assertion: The specific heat of a gas at constant
(4) Critical velocity pressure is greater than its specific heat at constant
170. Match the column–I and Column–II volume.

Column–I Column–II Reason: At constant pressure, some heat is used


up in expanding the gas.
A. Young's modulus i. Solids
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason
B. Shear modulus ii. Liquid is the correct explanation of the assertion
C. Bulk modulus iii. gas (2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) A–i, B-i, C–ii, ii
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(2) A–ii, B–iii, C–i, ii, iii
(4) It the assertion and reason both are false
(3) A–i, B–i, C–i, ii, ii
175. Which of the following graphs show variation of
(4) A–i, B–ii,iii; C–i, ii, iii kinetic energy with time for a projectile :
171. Statement–I : Force of attraction between a hollow
EK EK
spherical shell of uniform density and a point mass
situated out-side is just as if the entire mass of the
shell is concentrated at the centre of the shell (a) (b)
Statement–II: The force of attraction due to a
t t
hollow spherical shell of uniform density on a point
mass situated inside it is zero
EK
(1) Statement–I is true, Statement –II is true; EK
Statement–II is a correct explanation of for
Statement –I (c) (d)
(2) Statement–I is true, Statem ent–II is true;
t
Statemetn–II is NOT a correct explanation t

(3) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is false (1) graph a (2) graph b

(4) Statement–I is false, Statement–II is true (3) graph c (4) graph d

NLI / 21
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
176. A unitless quantity : 182. Assertion : Gamma rays are electromagnetic
(1) Never has a non-zero dimension waves having smallest wavelength.
(2) Always has a non-zero dimension Reason : Gamma rays are having the lowest
(3) May have a non-zero dimension frequency.

(4) does not exit (1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
correct explanation of assertion.
177. Two particles P1 and P2 are moving with velocities
v1 and v2 respectively. Which of the statement about (2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
their relative velocity v12 is true : correct explanation of assertion is not

(1) v12 > (v1 + v2) (3) assertion is true but reason is false.

(2) V12 cannot be greater than v1 - v2 (4) Both assertion and reason false.

(3) v12 cannot be greater than v1 + v2 183. Assertion : Newton's law of action and reaction is
a consequence of Newton's law of inertia.
(4) v12 < (v1 + v2)
Reason : Newton's law of inertia implies that any
178. A body of mass m moves in a circular path with
body that is not acted upon by external forces
uniform angular velocity. The motion of the body
has constant : cannot change its state of rest or uniform motion

(1) Acceleration (1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Velocity
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(3) Momentum correct explanation of assertion is not
(4) Kinetic energy (3) assertion is true but reason is false.
179. The Wein's displacement law express, the relation (4) Both assertion and reason false.
between : 184. Assertion : Density of nuclear matter is independent
(1) Radiation energy and wavelength of the size of the nuclous.
(2) Temperature and speed of light Reason : Mass density of the atom is dependent
on the size of the atom.
(3) Colour of light and wavelength
(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(4) Wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity
correct explanation of assertion.
and temperature
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
180. Which of the following statements related to stress- correct explanation of assertion is not
strain relation is correct :
(3) assertion is true but reason is false.
(1) Stress is linearly proportional to strain irrespective
(4) Both assertion and reason false.
of the magnitude of the strain
185. Which of the following parameters is the same for
(2) Stress is linearly proportional to strain above the
all hydrogen like atoms and ions in their ground
yield point
states?
(3) Stress is linearly proportional to strain till (1) Energy of the atom
proportionality point
(2) Speed of the electron
(4) Stress-strain curve is same for all materials
(3) Radius of the orbit
181. Assertion : Liquids tend to have maximum number (4) Orbital angular momentum of the electron
of molecules at their surface.
PART-3 (SECTION-B)
Reason : Small liquid dropes have a spherical This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
shape. choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is question. In case if candiate attempts more than
correct explanation of assertion. 10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking.
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
correct explanation of assertion is not 186. In Bohr's model electrons are revolving in a
circular orbits around the nucleus orbits are:
(3) assertion is false but reason is true.
(1) Stable orbits (2) Non-radiating orbits
(4) Both assertion and reason false.
(3) Bohr's orbits (4) All of these
NLI / 22
All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / PHYSICS / 26-03-2024
187. The impurity atoms with which pure silicon may 193. Let n h and n e be the number of holes and
be doped to make it a p-type semiconductor are conduction electron in an extrinsic semiconductor.
those of: Then
(1) Phosphorous (2) Boron (1) nh ne
(3) Antimony (4) Nitrogen
(2) nh ne
188. Assertion : In a simple microscope image formed
is virtual, errect and magnified. (3) nh ne
Reason : Object to be seen is held between optical
centre and focus of convex lens. (4) nh ne
(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is 194. The mobility of free elecrtrons is greater than that
correct explanation of assertion. of free holes because.
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is (1) They are light
correct explanation of assertion is not
(2) They carry negative charge
(3) assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) They mutually collide less
(4) Both assertion and reason false.
(4) They require low energy to continue their motion
189. Assertion : Planck's quantum theory fails to explain
195. Which one of the following is not a vector:
the phenomena of interference, diffraction and
polarization. (1) Electric Current
Reason : These three phenomena are essentially (2) Electric charge
the wave phenomena (3) Electric potential
(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is (4) All of the three
correct explanation of assertion.
196. The wave front for a line source is :
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
correct explanation of assertion is not (1) Plane
(3) assertion is true but reason is false. (2) Cyllindrical
(4) Both assertion and reason false. (3) Spherical
190. Assertion : Induced emf will always occour (4) Linear
whenever there change in magnetic flux. 197. Which one is universal magnetic properties:
Reason : Current always induces whenever, there (1) Diamagnetism
is change in magnetic flux.
(2) Pramagnetism
(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(3) Ferromagnetism
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is (4) Antiferromagnetism
correct explanation of assertion is not 198. Kirrchhoffs second law of circuit is based on:
(3) assertion is true but reason is false. (1) conservation of momentum
(4) Both assertion and reason false. (2) conservation of charge
191. The mass of an atomic nuceus is less than the sum (3) conservation of Energy
of the masses of its constituents, This mass defect
is converted into (4) conservation of angular momentum
(1) Light energy 199. Which one of the following is path function variable
in thermodynamics :
(2) Energy which binds nucleons together
(3) Heat energy (1) internal energy

(4) Electrical energy (2) entropy


192. For a nuclear fusion process, suitable nuclei are: (3) Work
(1) Any nuclie (4) None of the bove
(2) Heavy nuclei 200. Ampere's circuital law is not independent of the:
(3) Lighter nuclei (1) Biot-Sevart law (2) Gauss law
(4) Nuclei lying in the middle of periodic table (3) Coulombs law (4) Gravition law
NLI / 23
NEW LIGHT INSTITUTE TEST AND INFORMATION CENTRES
Sr. No. DIST. NEW LIGHT TEST & INFORMATION CENTRES ADD.
2nd FLOOR CHITRAHAR BUILDING,
1 LUCKNOW NAWAL KISHORE ROAD, HAZRATGANJ,
LUCKNOW- 226001

NEW LIGHT INSTITUTE


2 VARANASI-1 (DURGAKUND) B-26/93-A NEAR BLOCK NO. 13 KABEER NAGAR
DURGAKUND VARANASI.
A+EDUCARE
3 VARANASI-1 (PANDEYUR) BHOJUBEER, MAHAVEER MANDIR ROAD,
ABOVE JAWA SHOWROOM, VARANASI.
9/7/40, CHURCH LANE (OPP HOLY TRINITY SCHOOL)
4 PRAYAGRAJ-1
PRAYAG RAJ
NEW ERAA INSTITUTE (SHAKUNTLA HOSPITAL
5 PRAYAGRAJ-2 (Handia) BUILIDING AT THE THIRD FLOOR PILLAR NUMBER-47)
HANDIA, PRAYAG RAJ
SHASWAT CAREER INSTITUTE
6 FAIZABAD, AYODHYA SHANKARGARH BAZAR, DEVKALI BYPASS
AMBEDKAR NAGAR ROAD, FAIZABAD
A-28, RAJENDRA NAGAR,
7 BAREILLY NEAR SHREE BANKEY BIHARI MANDIR, BAREILLY

GENIUS INSTITUTE, RAHUL CHAURAHA,


8 SULTANPUR NABIPUR ROAD NEAR PETROL PUMP.
SULTANPUR
NEW LIGHT INSTITUTE
9 GORAKHPUR Opp. D.I.G. BANGLAW CANTT ROAD, GORAKHPUR

NEET/JEE INSTITUTE
10 DEORIA PARMARTHI POKHARA SAKET NAGAR NEW COLONY
DEORIA – 724807
VIRAT COACHING CENTRE
11 LAKHIMPUR KHERI NEAR Y.D. COLLEGE, LAKHIMPUR KHERI

OPP. OPD GATE NO.2


12 BANDA RAJKEYA ALLOPATHIC MEDICAL COLLEGE,
NARAINI ROAD, BANDA-210001
GAYATRI CLASSES
NEAR KACHEHRI, OPP. SAGAR COMPUTEX
13 MEERUT
PL-SHARMA ROAD MEERUT

SACHIN COACHING CLASSES


14 MORADABAD OPP. MATA MANDIR LINE PAR, MORADABAD
PRATIGYA COACHING INSTITUTE NARAULI TIRAHA,
FIRST FLOOR (NEAR H.P. PTEROL PUMP),
15 AZAMGHARH
AZAMGHARH

KRISHNA CARRER INSTITUTE


16 GHAZIPUR PREMA PANDAY SAD AN CHANDAN NAGAR, RAUZA,
GHAZIPUR
SKY LIGHT ACADEMY
NEAR HATHKARGHA OFFICE, MADHU HOTEL
17 MAU DCSK PG COLLEGE ROAD,
MAU NATH BHANJAN MAU UP-275101
NEW LIGHT INSTITUTE TEST AND INFORMATION CENTRES
Sr. No. DIST. NEW LIGHT TEST & INFORMATION CENTRES ADD.

HOUSE NO. 149


18 JAUNPUR INFRONT OF ROADWAYS BUS STAND,
KACHEHARI ROAD, JAUNPUR-222002

SANSHIKSHA ACADEMY, 2ND FLOOR,


19 RAEBARELI ZAMEER COMPOUND ABOVE SBI CITY BRANCH FLOOR,
CANAL ROAD, RAEBARELI
FRIENDS COLONY,
20 ETAWAH INFRONT OF RELIANCE SMART POINT
ETAWAH-206001
ISLAMIA INTER COLLEGE JALESAR ROAD
21 FIROZABAD FIROZABAD-283203

KAUTILYA GURKULUM
OLD TEHSEEL AVIRAL COMPLEX BELOW PNB
22 AMBEDKAR NAGAR
AMBEDKAR
NAGAR AKBRPUR
Analysis Academy - 2nd Floor Above PNB Bank Near RTO
23 JHANSI
Office, Kanpur Road Jhansi, U.P. - 284001
HN 621 AWASVIKAS COLONY
24 BASTI
BASTI UP
AAKASH DEEP NEET CLASSES GHASIYARPURA GONDA
25 BAHARACH ROAD IN FROMT UP AGRO CITY KART BAHRANCH UP.
U.S. CLASSES
26 MAINPURI SHANKAR MILL COLONY, STATION ROAD MAINPURI
UP. 20501
A.R. CLASSES COACHING INSITITUTE
27 MIRZAPUR SATTI ROAD NEAR ALPNA CINEMA MIRZAPUR

GLOBAL INSTITUTE OF COMMERCE


28 KOTA (RAJSTHAN) C-100 SUWALAL KACHORI LANE TALWANDI
KOTA-324005
PLUS POINT
29 JAIPUR (RAJASTHAN) PLOT NO. 284, 10-B GUPALPURA BYPASS JAIPUR
RAJASTHAN - 302018
VISION KOTA CLASSES BAZARSAMITI SAKETPURI,
30 PATNA (BIHAR)
NEAR NMCH RAILWAY CROSSING, PATNA 800016
P-MIESON INSTITUTE, PATIL LINE-3
31 NASHIK (MAHARASHTRA) 1ST FLOOR MARTAND COMPLEX ABOVE MAHARASHTRA
BIGHANDAR OPP BAGBAZAR
SUSHIL RAJ ARYA VIDYA GYAN MANDIR
32 DELHI
CAPITAIN GARG MARG EAST OF KAILASH, DELHI
SAKET INSTITUTE PVT. LTD.
33 DELHI (JANAKPURI) A-1/32 SECOND FLOOR JANAKPURI
IN DUCTANCE EDUCARE,ASHIRVAD BHAWAN, NEAR
34 SHIVPURI RAJESHWARI TEMPLE, SHANKAR COLONY,SHIVPURI
(mp)473551

You might also like