Sample Papers
Sample Papers
Sample Papers
23) 8527521718
Physics - Section A 5 The figure depicts four (x − t) plots for the linear motion
of a particle.
1 Given below are two statements:
When a spring is cut into two equal parts, the
Assertion (A): spring constant of each part of the spring is (a)
doubled.
Spring constant is inversely proportional to
Reason (R):
the length of the spring.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
1.
of (A).
(b)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
1. P = P
1 2 2. P = 4P 1 2
3. P = 2P 4. P = 4P
(d)
2 1 2 1
2
to x = −
A
2
will be: √2 √2
T T
1.
1
unit 2. unit
1. 2
2. 3
√2
√2
3.
T
4.
T 3. 1 unit 4. 2 unit
12 6
3. 2 4. 5
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9 A tuning fork of frequency 480 Hz is used to vibrate a 14 An object of mass m is suspended at the end of a
sonometer wire having natural frequency 410 Hz. The wire massless wire of length L and area of cross-section A. Young
will vibrate with a frequency: modulus of the material of the wire is Y . If the mass is pulled
1. 410 Hz 2. 480 Hz down slightly, its frequency of oscillation along the vertical
3. 820 Hz 4. 960 Hz
direction is:
1.
1 mA
f = √
2π YL
3.
1 mL
1. x = A sin(ky − ωt) f =
2π
√
YA
2. y = A sin(kx − ωt)
4.
1 YA
f = √
3. y = A sinky cosωt 2π mL
4. y = A cosky sinωt
15 Which graph best represents the relationship between the
11 A block of mass 2 kg is attached with two identical wavelength and speed of waves emitted from a tuning fork, if
springs of force constant 20 N/m as shown in the figure. The the wave frequency is fixed?
time period of the oscillation of the block is:
1. 2.
1. 2π√ 20
1
s
2. π√ s
1
20
3. 2π√ s
1
10
4. π√ 1
s
10 3. 4.
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17 A body of mass 20 g is executing SHM with amplitude 5 23 Two simple pendulums of length 1 m and 1.44 m are at
cm. When it passes through the equilibrium position its speed their mean position with their velocities in the same direction
is 20 cm/s. What would be the distance from equilibrium at some instant. After how many oscillations of bigger
when its speed becomes 10 cm/s? pendulum they will again be in the same phase?
1.
5√ 3
cm 1. 5 2. 6
4
5√3 3. 7 4. 8
2. 2
cm
3.
25√7
cm 24 The phase difference between velocity and displacement
2
3.
π
4. zero
λ
3.
1
s 4.
1
s A wall clock uses a vertical spring-mass system to
3 12 26
measure the time. Each time the mass reaches an extreme
20 The time period of a particle in simple harmonic motion position, the clock advances by a second. The clock gives
is equal to the time between consecutive appearances of the correct time at the equator. If the clock is taken to the poles it
particle at a particular point in its motion. This point is: will:
1. the mean position 1. run slow 2. run fast
2. an extreme position 3. stop working 4. give correct time
3. between the mean position and the positive extreme
27 Displacement as a function of time is given as
4. between the mean position and the negative extreme
y = 2sinωt + 2cosωt. The amplitude of the function is:
21 Given below are two statements: 1. 2√ 2 2. 2
3. 6 s 4. 4 s
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29 The wave shown in traveling to the right. Which of the 32 Which of the following quantities are always zero in a
waves below, traveling to the left, will momentarily cancel simple harmonic motion?
this wave? a. → →
F × a
b. → × r→
v
c. → × r→
a
d. → →
F × r
1. √
2k
3m
2. √
3k
2m
3k
3. √ m
4. √
k
3m
Physics - Section B
36 The first overtone of a closed organ pipe of length l1
2. l = 2l
2 1
3. 2l = 3l
1 2
4. 2l = 3l
2 1
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37 The two lowest notes on the piano are A 0 (27.5 Hz) and 42 The equation of vibration of a taut string, fixed at both
# (29.1 Hz). If you play the notes simultaneously, the
A 0
ends, is given by: y = (3 mm) cos(
πx
)
−1
sin(800π s t)
cm
resulting sound seems to turn off and on and off and on. How
10
where x and y are in meter and t is in seconds. Then which of The fundamental frequency of a vibrating organ pipe is
these statement(s) is incorrect? 43
1. pulse is moving in (−x) direction. 200Hz.
a. the first overtone is 400 Hz.
2. wave speed is 0.5 m/s.
b. the first overtone may be 400 Hz.
3. maximum particle displacement is 1 cm.
c. the first overtone may be 600 Hz.
4. it is a symmetric pulse.
d. 600 Hz is an overtone.
A transverse sinusoidal wave of amplitude Choose the correct option:
39 a,
4. all of these
and v = 10 ms-1 , then λ and f are given by:
1. λ=π × 10 m −2
3. f =10 / (2π) Hz
−3
The flash of lightning is seen before the sound
Assertion (A):
4. f =10 Hz
4 of thunder is heard.
Reason (R): Speed of sound is greater than speed of light.
40 A string fixed at both ends is under tension T. It has a
length L, and mass m. The fundamental frequency of the Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
1.
vibration is: of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
1. 1
√
T
2. 1
√
T
2.
2L m 4L m
explanation of (A).
3. 1
√
TL
4. 1
√
T
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
2 2m 2 mL
B
1. 1.47 Hz 2. 0.36 Hz
vB
1. 2.
1
2
2 3. 0.73 Hz 4. 2.94 Hz
3. 4.
1
4
4
3. 8 kg 4. 20 kg
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:
1. 8
2. 6
3. 5
4. 7
6 3
π π
3. 4
4. 3
(III) CH 2
˙
= CH − CH − CH3
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56 The number of moles of hydrogen will be required for 58 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
the complete hydrogenation of one mole of the following using the codes given below:
compound is: List II
List I (Stability)
(Reason)
Inductive
(A) (1)
effect
3. 4.
2. N O +
3. AlCl 3
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61 The increasing order of nucleophilicity of the following 66 The correct IUPAC numbering among the following is:
nucleophiles is: 1.
(a) CH 3 CO
⊝
(b) H 2O
(c) CH3 SO
⊝
3
(d)
⊝
OH
1. (b) < (c) < (a) < (d) 2. (b) < (c) < (d) < (a) 2.
3. (a) < (d) < (c) < (b) 4. (d) < (a) < (c) < (b)
64
Assertion (A): It is impractical to separate Conformers.
Conformers have a negligibly small
Reason (R): Which of the following pairs represent isomers?
difference in their potential energy. 67
1. CH3−CH3, CH3−CH2−CH3
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation 2. H2C=CH−OH , CH3−O−CH3
1.
of (A). 3.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
4. All of the above.
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69 Most stable compound among the following is: 74 The possible number of distinct terminal alkynes are
possible for a compound having molecular formula C5H8 is:
1. 2. 1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
3. 4. 4. 4
1. Only a
2. Both a and b 3.
3. Both b and c
4. Only c
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77 Neopentyl chloride reacts with benzene in the presence 79 Which of the following reactions is correct?
of a Lewis acid (AlCl ) to form:
3
1.
1.
2.
2.
3.
4.
3.
2. CH3 - C ≡ C - CH3
3. CH3 CH2 CH = CH2
78 The total number of resonance structures (including the
4. CH2 = CH - C ≡ CH
given structure) that can be drawn for the following
carbocation is: Which of the following alkenes is the most stable?
81
1.
1. 0 2. CH − CH
3 = CH2
2. 1 3. H C − CH
3 = CH − CH3
3. 3 4.
4. 4
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2-Chloropentanoic
The major product (A) in the above reaction is: 1.
acid
1.
2-Methylpent-2-en-5-
2.
2. oic acid
3. Hex-3-en-2-one
3.
4. 4-Methylpentanal
4.
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1. 2.
1. Addition reaction.
2. Nucleophilic substitution reaction.
3. Electrophilic substitution reaction.
1. I > III > II
4. Electrophilic addition reaction.
2. II > I > III
3. I > II > III Arrange the following hydrogen halides in order of their
4. III > II > I 92
increasing reactivity with propene:
88 The major product of the following reaction is: 1. HCl > HBr > HI
2. HBr > HI > HCl
3. HI > HBr > HCl
4. HCl > HI > HBr
1. 2.
3. 4.
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93 Which compound is most reactive towards electrophilic 95 The end product (B) in the given reaction is:
substitution reaction?
1.
1. 2.
2.
3. 4.
3.
96
Statement Addition of Cl in the presence of CCl with
2 4
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98 Among the following, the structure which does NOT 100 An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Zn − H2 O
represent 2-methyl butane is: gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio. The addition
of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B" as the major product. The
structure of product "B" is:
1.
1. 2.
2.
3. 4.
99 3.
Assertion
Inductive effect is a permanent effect.
(A):
Inductive effect weakens steadily with increasing
Reason (R):
distance from the substituent.
4.
In light of the above statements choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
1.
of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false. Biololgy I - Section A
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
101 What is incorrect regarding the double helix model of
DNA given by Watson and Crick?
1. At each step of ascent the strand turns 360
2. The pitch 3.4 nm
3. The rise per base pair 0.34 nm
4. Diameter 10 nm
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104 Which one of the following, most accurately describes 109 The molecule shown in the given diagram:
the structure of a human haemoglobin molecule, that can bind
four oxygen molecules to form oxyhaemoglobin?
1. It has a primary, tertiary and quaternary structure only.
2. It has a primary, secondary and tertiary structure only.
3. It has a primary and secondary structure only.
4. It has a primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary
structure.
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114 If guanine makes 20% of the DNA molecules, what will 117 Regarding enzyme catalysis, all of the following will be
be the percentage of adenine, thymine and cytosine in it? true except:
1. [A]: 20 ; [T] : 25 ; [C] : 35 The rate of reaction initially increases with an increase in
2. [A]: 30 ; [T] : 30 ; [C] : 20 1.
substrate concentration
3. [A]: 20 ; [T] : 30 ; [C] : 30 It speeds up the rate of reaction by decreasing the
4. [A]: 30 ; [T] : 20 ; [C] : 30 2.
requirement for activation energy
In the following diagrams, each shows a section of the If the associated co-factor is removed, the enzyme activity
115 3.
is enhanced
cell surface membrane to illustrate the fluid mosaic Enzymes have an optimum temperature and pH at which
model. Which diagram is the most accurate? 4.
they act most efficiently
(The black shape represents cholesterol, and the gray shape
represents protein.) Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes, in which:
118
1. they require metal ions for their activity.
2. they (prosthetic groups) are tightly bound to apoenzymes.
3. their association with apoenzymes is transient.
1.
they can serve as co-factors in a number of enzyme-
4.
catalyzed reactions.
3.
4.
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120 Match the structures given in column I, with their 123 Identify the incorrect statement:
names in column II and select the correct option: In an animal cell, the steroidal hormones are synthesized in
1.
Column I Column II SER.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a type of rough endoplasmic
2.
reticulum.
a. (i) Alanine The cis and trans faces of Golgi are entirely different but
3.
interconnected.
4. Lysosomes contain acid hydrolases.
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137 Match the stage of Prophase I of Meiosis I given in 143 Given below are two statements:
Column I with the corresponding event in Column II and It is essential for a cell to divide, to restore the
select the correct match from the codes given below: Assertion (A):
nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
COLUMN I COLUMN II Cell growth disturbs the nucleo-cytoplasmic
Reason (R):
A Zygotene P Crossing over ratio.
B. Pachytene Q Synapsis
C. Diplotene R Terminalization of chiasmata Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
1.
D. Diakinesis S Appearance of chiasmata of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
Codes: explanation of (A).
A B C D 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
1. Q P S R 4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
2. P Q S R
3. P Q R S 144 The following cell undergoing mitosis, is at:
4. Q P R S
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148 Which of the following statements about inclusion 152 Given below are two statements:
bodies is incorrect? Analysis of compounds gives an idea of the
1. These are involved in the ingestion of food particles. Assertion (A): kind of organic and inorganic constituents of
2. They lie freely in the cytoplasm. living tissue.
3. These represent reserve material in cytoplasm. Ash analysis is performed to identify organic
4. They are not bound by any membrane. Reason (R):
components of living tissue.
1. 2.
3. 4.
1. It is not found in the plant cells
2. It serves to provide an attachment with a surface for a
bacterial cell
3. The structure is made of a protein called flagellin
Biology II - Section A 4. It can be used for movement by a eukaryotic cell
154 Consider the statements 'A' and 'B' and select the correct
151 Mark the incorrect option about chromosomes from the
option:
following:
1. Contain DNA and histones but not RNA Just like inorganic catalysts, enzymes work
Statement
2. Contain primary constriction efficiently at high temperatures and high
A:
3. Are 23 pairs in diploid human cell pressures
4. Are condensed forms of chromatin Statement Thermal stability is an important quality of
B: enzymes isolated from thermophilic organisms
1. Both statements A and B are correct
2. Only statement A is correct
3. Only statement B is correct
4. Both statements A and B are incorrect
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155 Read the statements given below carefully: 159 Which of the following is wrong with respect to
(a) Lipids are generally water soluble. 'biomolecules'?
(b) Dietary proteins are the source of essential amino acids. Cellulose and starch can hold I2 due to formation of
A.
Paper made from plant pulp and cotton fibre is cellulosic helical secondary structures
(c) Proteins transport nutrient across cell membrane and fight
in nature. B.
In a nucleic acid, the bond between the phosphate and infectious organisms
(d) At high temperature, enzymes get damaged while
hydroxyl group of sugar is an ester bond. C.
How many of the statements given above are correct? inorganic catalysts work efficiently
1. One 2. Two In animal tissue, different drugs, pigments, essential oil,
D.
3. Three 4. Four magnesium, O2 compounds are noticed
DNA and RNA have three chemically distinct components
E.
156 Which of the following graphs correctly represents the - heterocyclic, monosaccharides and phosphates.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
effect of change in temperature on enzyme activity?
1. D & E only
2. A & D only
3. A, B & D only
4. B, E & C only
1. 2. Which of the following is the largest constituent of the
160
membrane of the erythrocyte in human beings and is also
responsible for performing most of the functions of the
membrane?
1. Protein
2. Lipid
3. Glycolipid
4. Glycoprotein
3. 4.
161 In the DNA double helix:
I: At each step of ascent, the strand turns 34º.
II: The rise per base pair would be 0.36 nm.
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163 Select the wrong statement: 170 The following reaction will be catalyzed by an enzyme
1. Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan classified as a/an:
Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in the motility of A–B + H2O → A–OH + B–H
2. 1. Oxidoreductase 2. Hydrolase
bacterial cells
3. Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells 3. Lyase 4. Transferase
4. Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism
171 Prokaryotic mesosomes do not help in:
164 The outer membrane of the nucleus: 1. Cell wall formation
I. is continuous with the Endoplasmic reticulum 2. DNA replication
II. does not bear ribosomes. 3. Respiration
1. Only I is correct 4. Photosynthesis
2. Only II is correct
172 Identify the correct statement:
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
1. α amino acids are substituted methanes
165 All of the following are nucleosides, except: Only triglycerides are lipids that are both macromolecules
2.
1. Adenosine 2. Cytosine as well as polymers
3. Guanosine 4. Uridine Cellulose forms secondary helical structures and can hold
3.
iodine molecules in the helical portion
166 Which structure‐function pair is mismatched? 4.
Every virus will have both DNA and RNA as its genetic
material
1. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum ‐ synthesis of lipids
2. Golgi apparatus ‐ synthesis of glycoprotein
173 Chromatophores and mesosomes are both membranous
3. Peroxisome ‐ Cellular respiration
4. Vacuole ‐ water balance extensions into the cytoplasm but still they differ from each
other as former helps in __A_ and latter helps in B .
167 Identify the incorrect statement regarding the structure Fill the above blanks choosing the correct option.
of proteins: A B
1. They are heteropolymers containing strings of amino acids. 1. Respiration Photosynthesis
The first amino acid in the primary structure is the N- 2. Cell wall formation DNA replication
2.
terminus amino acid 3. Photosynthesis Respiration
3. Only left helices are observed in proteins 4. DNA replication Secretion process
Tertiary structure is absolutely essential for many biologic
4. Apart from chromoplasts, carotenoid pigments are also
functions of the proteins 174
seen in chloroplast. There they:
168 The six most common atoms in organic molecules are: 1. Are responsible for trapping light energy
1. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Helium, Calcium and Sulphur 2. Impart colour to plant parts only
3. Can initiate photosynthesis
Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Calcium, Magnesium and
2. 4. Act as primary photosynthetic pigments.
Sulphur
Carbon, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Sulphur, Phosphorous and Which of the following is not associated with the
3.
Magnesium
175
observations of Theodore Schwann?
Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Phosphorous and
4. 1. Cell membrane is the outermost layer of animal cells.
Sulphur
Bodies of both plants and animals are composed of cells
2.
and their products
169 Which of the following statements is not correct?
3. A cell divides to form new cells
Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the
1. 4. Presence of cell wall is a unique feature of plant cells
endoplasmic reticulum.
2. Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes
The hydrolytic enzyme of lysosomes are active under
3.
acidic pH
4. Lysosomes are membrane bound structure.
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Read the statements given below and select the correct 182 Following are the statements with reference to 'lipids'.
178
option: Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated
(a)
(a) In glycogen, the right end is the reducing one fatty acids.
(b) Cellulose and starch form complex helices (b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
Starch is the main structural component of papers made (c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
(c)
from plant pulp Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl
(d)
carbon.
Statements (a) and (b) are correct while statement (c) is (e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
1.
incorrect
Statements (a) and (c) are correct while statement (b) is You have to choose the correct statements out of the five
2. given above. Choose the correct answer from the options
incorrect
Statements (b) and (c) are incorrect while statement (a) is given below:
3. 1. (b) and (c) only
correct
2. (b) and (e) only
Statements (a) and (c) are incorrect while statement (b) is
4. 3. (a) and (b) only
correct
4. (c) and (d) only
179 Given below are two statements: Select the correct match from among the following:
183
Cell wall gives shape to the plant cell, protect 1. Collagen – Intracellular ground substance
Assertion (A):
the cell and helps in cell to cell interactions. 2. Toxin – Codeine
Cell wall is living rigid structure, an outer 3. Lectin – Ricin
Reason (R): covering for the plasma membrane of fungi, 4. Alkaloid – Morphine
animal and plants.
184 Animal cells and plant cells are similar to each other in
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation all of the following features, except?
1.
of (A). 1. Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 2. Presence of a non-membranous cell organelle which helps
2.
explanation of (A). in cell division and formation of basal bodies
3. (A) is true but (R) is false. 3. Presence of both 70S and 80S ribosomes
4. Presence of endomembrane system
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
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185 Given below are two statements: 190 Given below are two statements:
Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own Concentration of ions is significantly higher
Assertion (A):
DNA. Assertion (A): in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm in a plant
Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi body are cell.
Reason (R): the cell organelles which have their own In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the transport
DNA. Reason (R): of a number of ions against the concentration
of gradient into a vacuole
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
1.
of (A). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
1.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct of (A).
2.
explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
3. (A) is true but (R) is false. explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are false. 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
Biology II - Section B 191 What happens during the metaphase stage of the cell
Doubling of the number of chromosomes can be cycle?
186
1. Chromosomes are moved to the spindle equator.
achieved by disrupting mitotic cell division soon after: 2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
1. Anaphase 2. Telophase 3. Pairing between homologous chromosomes takes place.
3. Prophase 4. Metaphase 4. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes
place.
187 A process that is common to metaphases of mitosis,
meiosis I as well as meiosis II is: 192
1. Alignment of chromosome at equatorial plate
Attachment of spindle fibres from centrioles to both of the
2.
kinetochores of each chromosome
3. Separation of sister chromatids
Exchange of genetic material between non-sister
4.
chromatids
189 Arrange the following stages of chromosomal behaviour The above diagram represents:
during Prophase-I of meiosis in the correct sequence. 1. anaphase-I
A. Appearance of recombination nodules 2. metaphase-I
B. Formation of synaptonemal complex 3. telophase-I
C. Appearance of chiasmata 4. prophase-I
D. Terminalisation of chiasmata
E. Beginning of chromosomal compaction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. E, B, D, A, C
2. C, D, A, E, B
3. E, B, A, C, D
4. D, B, E, A, C
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193 Given below are two statements: 198 Chromosomes duplicate during __A__ and increase in
Assertion (A): Meiosis does not occur in haploids cells. number of chromosomes is observed first during __B__.
Reason (R): Haploid cells do not form gametes. Identify A & B correctly.
1 A – Interphase B – Prophase
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation 2 A – S – phase B – Telophase
1.
of (A). 3 A – Synthetic phase B – Gap 2 phase
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 4 A – Interphase B – Anaphase
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false. 199 Consider the following phases of cell cycle:
4. Both (A) and (R) are false. A. S B. G2
C. G1 D. M
194 Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis.
Choose the correct sequence of phases of the cell cycle:
1. Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase. 1. C, A, B, D 2. D, B, A, C
2. All the chromosomes lie at the equator at metaphase. 3. A, C, B, D 4. C, A, D, B
3. Spindle fibres attach to centromere of chromosomes.
4. Chromosomes decondense at telophase Unidentical chromatids of a chromosome move to
200
195 A feature unique to prokaryotes would be: opposite poles during:
1. Anaphase II
1. A cell wall not made up of cellulose
2. Telophase
2. An extrachromosomal plasmid DNA
3. Mitotic anaphase
3. A cell membrane of peptidoglycan
4. Anaphase I
4. Presence of inclusions
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