Practice Mock Test-2024 - T04 (Code-A) - Question

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Code A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,


Ph.011-47623456

MM : 300 Practice Mock Test -04 (Code-A) Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics-Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Chemistry-Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Mathematics-Mock Test on Complete Syllabus

General Instructions :

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.


2. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30
questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

i. Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
ii. Section-II : This section contains 10 numerical value based questions. In Section-II, attempt any five questions out
of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.

PHYSICS

Section-I

1. The percentage error in the measurement of


length and radius of a cylinder are 1% and
2% respectively. The maximum percentage
of error in its volume is
(1) 3%
(2) 5%
(3) 6%
(4) 10%

1
2. The side PQ of the frame shown in figure 5. If one mole of an ideal gas at (P1 , V1 ) is
can slide freely. There exists a uniform allowed to expand reversibly and
magnetic field B, along the outward normal. isothermally at temperature T (A to B), its
At the moment t = 0, the field starts pressure is reduced to one-half of the
decreasing such that B =
B0
, where B0 original pressure (see figure). This is
(1+kt)
followed by a constant volume cooling till its
and k are positive constants. The speed with pressure is reduced to one-fourth of the
which the side PQ should be moved, so that initial value (B → C). Then it is restored to its
there is no current in the loop, is initial state by a reversible adiabatic
compression (C to A). The net work done by
the gas is equal to :

(1) ka
(2)

(1) 0
(3) kat
(2) RTln2
2
(1+kt)

a
(3) RT
(4) −
2(γ−1)
(1+kt)

(4) 1
(ln 2 − ) RT
2(γ−1)
3. A uniform rod of length L and density ρ is
being pulled along a smooth horizontal floor
with a horizontal acceleration a0 (as shown 6. Characteristic X-rays of frequency 2.2275 ×
in the figure). The magnitude of the stress at 1018 Hz are produced when transitions from
the transverse cross section through the mid L-shell to K-shell take place in a certain
point of the rod is target material. Given Rydberg constant R =
1.1 × 107 m–1 . The atomic number of the
target material in accordance with Mosley's
law is
(1) 22
(2) 31
(1) ρa0 L (3) 42
(2) ρa L 0 (4) 52
3

(3) ρa0 L

2
7. A certain amount of ideal monoatomic gas
undergoes the process given by
(4) 2ρa0 L
1

3
UV 2
= constant, where U and V are

internal energy and volume of the gas


4. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave respectively. The molar specific heat of the
is given by gas for the process will be
N x (1) −R
E = {100 (
C
)} sin ω (t −
C
) . The 2

average energy contained (in joule) in a (2) R

2
cylinder of cross-section 10 cm2 and length
(3) 2R
50 cm along the x-axis
(4) –2R
(1) 5 ε0
4

(2) 5ε0

(3) 3.5ε0

(4) 5
ε0
2

2
8. The output of the given logic circuit is 11. The velocity (v) versus position (x) graph of a
particle moving along x-axis is as shown.
The acceleration of the particle when x = 2
m, is

(1) A + B
(2) A
(3) B
(4) A + B
¯¯
¯

9. A student performed the experiment to (1) – 24 m/s2


measure the speed of air using resonance (2) – 12 m/s2
air column method. Two resonances in the
(3) – 6 m/s2
air column were obtained by lowering the
water level. The resonance with the shorter (4) – 48 m/s2
air column is first resonance and that with
longer air column is second resonance.
Then 12. The potential difference (in V) between
(1) The intensity of sound heard at the 1st points A and B shown in figure.
resonance was less than that at second
resonance
(2) The prongs of tuning fork were kept in
horizontal plane above the resonance
tube
(3) The amplitude of vibration of the ends (1) 6 V
of the prongs is typically around 1 cm (2) 2 V
(4) The length of air column at the first (3) 4 V
resonance was some what shorter than
1 (4) 5 V

of wavelength of the sound in air.
4

13. A magnetic dipole is under the influence of


10. For what value of X in the circuit the voltage two magnetic fields. The angle between the
across C = 6 μF as shown in the figure is 30 field directions is 600 , and one of the fields
V? −2
has a magnitude of 12 × 10 T If the
dipole comes to stable equilibrium at an
angle of 150 with this field, then the
magnitude of other field is (Sin 150 =
0.2588)
(1) 0.39 × 10−1 T
(2) 0.039 × 10
−1
T

(3) −
−3

1.39 × 10
(1) 2 μF
T

(2) 8 μF (4) 4.39 × 10


−1
T

(3) 4 μF
(4) 6 μF 14. The potential difference across an
instrument in an a.c. circuit of frequency f is
V and the current flowing through it is I such
that V = 5 cos(2πt) V and
π
I = 2 sin(2πt + )A. The average power
4

dissipated in the circuit is


(1) Zero
(2) 5 W
(3) 5 W
√2


(4) 5√2W

3
15. Two blocks of mass 10 kg and 30 kg are kept 18. The work function of a metal is 4.2eV. If
as shown in the figure. The surface between radiations of 2000Å fall on the metal then the
the blocks is rough and between ground and kinetic energy of the fastest photo electron is
block is frictionless. A horizontal force of
(1) 16 × 1010 J
magnitude 60 N is applied as shown. Find
frictional force on block of mass 30 kg. (2) 3.2 × 10
−19
J

(3) 1.6 × 10
−18
J

(4) 6.4 × 10
−10
J

(1) 20 N 19. The pitch and the number of divisions, on


(2) 30 N the circular scale, for a given screw gauge
are 0.5 mm and 100 respectively. When the
(3) 40 N
screw gauge is fully tightened without any
(4) 45 N object, the zero of its circular scales lies 3
divisions below the mean line. The reading
16. In YDSE arrangement (λ = 500 nm, d = 3 of the main scale and the circular scale, for a
mm, D = 2 m) a thin transparent sheet of μ = thin sheet, are 5.5 mm and 48 respectively,
1.5 and thickness 6 μm is introduced in front the thickness of this sheet is
of one of the slits. The distance of central (1) 5.725 mm
bright fringe from the central line is (2) 5.740 mm
(3) 5.755 mm
(4) 5.950 mm

20. In the given arrangement, consider pulley as


a disc and string does not slip over the
pulley. The time period of vertical oscillations
of the block is given by

(1) 2 mm
(2) 6 mm
(3) 9 mm
(4) 12 mm

17. A cylindrical tank of radius 20 cm and height


50 cm has water upto 30 cm of height. If the
tank starts rotating about its common axis

with angular speed 10√2 rad/s. What will
be the rise in liquid at the periphery? (g = 10 −−−−
(1)
m/s2 )
M +m
2π√
k
(1) 10 cm −−−−−
(2) M +2m
(2) 50 cm 2π√
k

(3) 20 cm −−−−−
(3) M +2m

(4) 5√– 2 cm
2π√
2k

−−
(4) 2π√
m

Section-II

21. A particle is projected from a tower of height


2 m above ground with speed 3 m/s. Neglect
any air resistance to the particle's motion.
Maximum horizontal distance (in m) from the
foot of the tower where the particle can
reach is (Take g = 10 m/s2 )

4
22. 26. Parallel rays of light of intensity I = 912 W m–
2
are incident on a spherical black body kept
in surroundings of temperature 300 K. Take
Stefan – Boltzmann constant
−8 −2 −4
σ = 5 .7 ×10 Wm k and assume
In the figure shown, focal length of lens is 60 that the energy exchange with the
cm. Position of image of object ‘O’ w.r.t. lens surroundings is only through radiation. The
is 4x cm. Value of x is final steady state temperature of the body is


100√x K . Fin x.

23. The work done by the force F ⃗ = x2 ^ 2^


i +y j
27. Figure shows a circular surface and
around the path OABCO shown in figure is
n
paraboloidal surface. It is placed in uniform
a . Value of n is
3

3 electric field of magnitude E such that the


circular surface is oriented at right angle to
the direction of field. Electric flux through
2
kπr E
paraboloidal surface is given by 2
. Find
value of k.

28. A non-conducting ring of mass m and radius


R has uniformly distributed charge Q. It is
placed on a smooth horizontal surface.
24. A steady current I0 goes through a wire loop There exists a uniform magnetic field B in
PQR having the shape of right angled circular region of radius r =
R
as shown.
4
triangle as shown. Magnetic field at point P
7μ I0
When the magnetic field is suddenly
is . Find n. switched off, the ring acquires angular
0


BQ
velocity given by ω = . Find the value of
km

k.

25. A uniform disc rolling on a smooth horizontal 29. The gravitational field in a region is given by
surface comes into contact of horizontal →
N ˆ ˆ
ideal spring at level of disc centre. The E = 10 [ i + j] . If the work done by an
kg
fraction of total kinetic energy that remains external agent to slowly shift a particle of
present in the disc at the maximum mass 2 kg from the point (0, 0) to a point (1,
1
compression state of spring is n . Find n. 3) is W Joule, then value of |W| is

30. A hydrogen like atom (atomic number Z) is in


a higher excited state. This excited atom can
make a transition to the first excited state by
successively emitting two photons of
energies 10.20 eV and 17.00 eV
respectively. Alternatively, the atom from the
same excited state can make a transition to
the 2nd excited state successively emitting
two photons of energy 4.25 eV and 5.95 eV.
Determine the value of Z.

5
CHEMISTRY

Section-I

31. 34. Molecular shapes of SF4 , BrF5 and XeF4 are


respectively
(1) Square pyramidal, square planar, see-
saw
The product ‘C’ in the above reaction formed
(2) Square planar, square pyramidal, see-
is
saw
(1)
(3) See-saw, square pyramidal, square
planar
(4) See-saw, square planar, square
(2) pyramidal

35. Consider the graph for the reaction


A ⟶ B
(At and A0 are concentration of A at time t
(3)
and initial)

(4)

32. From the standard potentials shown in the


following diagram, calculate the potentials
E and E .
∘ ∘
1 2 Select the correct statement.
(1) Rate constant of the reaction is 5 × 10–
3 Ms–1

(2) Half life of reaction is 138.6 s


(3) Rate of reaction at t = 0 is 5 × 10–3 Ms–
1

(4) Rate of reaction does not depend on


(1) 0.52 V, 0.61 V
concentration of reactant (A)
(2) –0.52 V, 0.61 V
(3) 0.41 V, 0.52 V
36. STATEMENT-1 : Increasing order of acidity of
(4) –0.61 V, 0.41 V hydrogen halides is HF < HCl < HBr < HI.
STATEMENT-2 : While comparing acids
33. What is the potential energy difference formed by the elements belonging to the
same group of periodic table, H–A bond
between first two orbits of Li2+? (in J/atom) strength is a more important factor in
(only magnitude) determining acidity of an acid than the polar
(1) 1.47 × 10–17 nature of the bond.
(2) 2.9 × 10–17 (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is a correct
(3) 1.6 × 10–18 explanation for Statement-1
(4) 5.8 × 10–17 (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct
explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is
True

6
37. One of the important features of transition 43. A group I metal cation when treated with
element is, they show variety of oxidation K2 CrO4 solution gives yellow precipitate
states in their compounds. From the which is insoluble in acetic acid. The same
following, select the element which shows cation when treated with excess conc. KI
maximum variety of oxidation states. solution gives a solution having colour
(1) Fe (1) Yellow
(2) Mn (2) Green
(3) V (3) Colourless
(4) Cr (4) Scarlet red

38. The osmotic pressure of an aqueous 44. The IUPAC name of ferrocence is
solution of sucrose at 303 K is 2.47 atm, the (1) bis (μ5 –Cyclopentadienyl) iron(0)
molar volume of water at this temperature is
18.10 cm3 . Calculate the elevation in boiling (2) bis (μ10 –Cyclopentadienyl) iron(II)
point of this. (ΔHvap = 539 cal/gm) (3) bis ( 5 –Cyclopentadienyl) iron(II)
(1) 0.51 K (4) bis ( 10 –Cyclopentadienyl) iron(0)
(2) 0.12 K
(3) 0.051 K
45.
(4) 0.72 K

39. If 2s–2p mixing of molecular orbital does not


The number of hyperconjugable hydrogen
take place in all molecules, then the correct
atoms in product (Y) is
statement is
(1) 4
(1) B2 is paramagnetic and C2 is
diamagnetic (2) 3
(2) Both B2 and C2 are diamagnetic (3) 2
(4) 6
(3) Both B2 and C2 are paramagnetic
(4) B2 is diamagnetic and C2 is
46. In the following reaction in acidic medium
paramagnetic
Acdic
− 2−
I + Cr2 O
7
⟶ I2 + Other products
40. Which oxoacid of sulphur shows two I2 + S2 O
2−
3

+ S4 O6
→I
2−

different oxidation states of sulphur? This set of reactions is classified as


(1) H2 S2 O8 iodometry. What is the number of meq of
2−
(2) H2 S2 O3 I

which reacts with Cr2 O7 to eventually
(3) H2 S2 O7 produce iodine which reacts with 200 ml of
2−
0.1N hypo (S2 O3 ) solution?
(4) H2 S2 O6
(1) 20 meq
(2) 10 meq
41. A tripeptide contains Glycine, Alanine and
Valine. On complete hydrolysis of tripeptide, (3) 100 meq
it form x α–amino acid that has chiral carbon (4) 200 meq
and y α-amino acid that are categorised into
essential amino acid. The value of (x + y) is
47. In third period of modern periodic table, the
(1) 1 number of valence electrons present in that
(2) 2 element which has positive electron gain
(3) 3 enthalpy out of the following is
(4) 4 (1) 8
(2) 6
42. (3) 4
(4) 5

Which of the following statement is correct


about the reactivity order of C—H bond?
(1) Y > Z > X > W
(2) Z > Y > X > W
(3) Y > Z > W > X
(4) Y > X > W > Z

7
48. Match the reactions in List-I with the features 50. Consider the reaction.
of their products in List-II and choose the
correct option
List-I List-II
The structure of B is
-
( ) 1 - -Bromo-2-ethylpentane (1)
(single enantiomer) Inversion of
(P) (1)
configuration
aq. NaOH

−−−−−−→
SN 2 reaction

(2)
-
( ) 2 - -Bromopentane
(single enantiomer) Retention of
(Q) (2)
configuration
aq. NaOH

−−−−−−→
SN 2 reaction

(3)
-
( ) 3 - -Bromo-3-methylhexane
(single enantiomer) Mixture of
(R) (3)
enantiomers
aq. NaOH

−−−−−−→
SN 1 reaction

Mixture of (4)
(S) (4) structural
isomers
Mixture of
(5)
diastereomers
(1) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 5; S → 3
(2) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 5
(3) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 5; S → 4
(4) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 5

49. How many mL of 0.5 N HCl are required for


a mixture of x mL x M NaOH, y mL y M
Na2 CO3 and z mL z M NaHCO3 for
complete neutralisation?
(1) 2(x2 + 2y2 + z2 )
(2) x
2
+ 2y
2
+z

(3) 3 (x
2
+y
2
+z )
2

(4) 2(x + y + z)

Section-II

51. Number of lone pairs in P4 S3 is x and 53. C6 H6 freezes at 5.5°C. The temperature at
number of lone pairs in I2 Cl6 is y then x + y which a solution of 10 g of C4 H10 in 200 g of
is C6 H6 freeze is ____ °C. (The molal freezing
point depression constant of C6 H6 is
52. Two reactions R1 and R2 have identical pre- 5.12°C/m.) (nearest integer)
exponential factors. Activation energy of R1
exceeds that of R2 by 10 kJ mol–1 . If k1 and
k2 are rate constants for reactions R1 and R2
respectively at 300 K, then ln(k2 /k1 ) is equal
to (R = 8.314 J mole–1 K–1 ) (Nearest
integer)

8
54. In a nitrosyl complex the odd electron on 58. An aqueous solution of sodium acetate is
nitrogen of the co-ordinated nitrosyl is subjected to Kolbe’s electrolysis to prepare
transferred to (n – 1) d subshell of the central ethane. If a current of 5 A is passed for 1930
metal atom. Hence the spin only magnetic second, then total volume of all gases
moment of the complex. K[Cr(CN)4 (NH3 ) collected at 0°C and 1 atm (F = 96500, molar
(NO)] (assuming the metal ion to be in the volume at STP = 22.4 lit)

strong field) is (√2 = 1.4 ) (in BM)
59. The gas phase reaction
55. In a given reaction sequence , 2A(g) ⇌ A2 (g)
at 400 K has ΔG° = +25.2 kJ mol–1
The equilibrium constant KC for this reaction
is _____ × 10–3 . (Round off to the Nearest
Integer).
[Use : R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1 , In 10 = 2.3, log10
2 = 0.30, 1 atm = 1 bar]
Let number of –COOH group in compound H [antilog (– 0.3) = 0.501]
is x and number of σ(sigma) bonds in [ R = 0.0821
atm. lit
]
compound I is y. mole. K
Then find the value of (x2 + y2 ).
60.
56. Two salts A2 X and MX have the same value
of solubility product of 4.0 × 10–12 . The ratio
of their molar solubilities i.e.
S(A2 X )
_____. (Round off to the Nearest
= Consider the above reaction. The
S(M X )
percentage yield of amide product is ––––.
Integer) (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
(Given : Atomic mass : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, N
57. The weight of HNO3 is required to make 2 L : 14.0 u, O : 16.0 u, CI : 35.5 u)
of 1 N solution to be used as oxidising agent
x
in the reaction x g. The value of 2 is
3Cu + 8HNO3 ⟶ 3Cu( NO3 ) + 2NO
2

+ 4H2 O

9
MATHEMATICS

Section-I

61. Three circles x2 + y2 + 2gix + 2fiy = 0, i = 1, 2, 65. Let


13 12 11
3 are mutually orthogonal. If f (x) = x + 2x + 3x + ... + 13x + 14
2π 2π

3
g
2
i
= 4 and ∑
3
f
i
2
= 5, then the and α = cos
15
+ i sin
15
, where
i =1 i =1
−−

equation of the locus of centroid of the i = √−1 . If N = f (α) f (α ) ...f (α14 ), 2

triangle formed by joining the centres of then the number of divisors of ‘N’ which are
these three circles, is perfect squares is
(1) x2 + y2 = 9 (1) 196
(2) x2 + y2 = 3 (2) 256
(3) x2 + y2 = 2 (3) 49
(4) x2 + y2 = 1 (4) 16

66. Consider two curves


62. If tan–1 (sin x) + tan–1 (2 cosec x) = m + n C1 : y
2
= 4 [√y] x and
2

tan–1
2+sin x 3π
(
sin x
,
) π < x <
2
, then m + n C2 : x
2 −

, where [·] denotes the
= 4[√x ]y

is equal to (where m, n are constants) greatest integer function. Then the area of
(1) – π – 1 region enclosed by these two curves and the
line x + y = 3 within the square formed by the
(2) π – 1
lines x = 1, y = 1, x = 4 and y = 4 is
(3) – π + 1 (1) 8 sq. units
(4) π + 1 3

(2) 10
sq. units
3

63. Let (3) 11


sq. units
A = {(x, y) : x, y ∈ I, x . 2
+y
2
≤ 16}
3

Then the number of reflexive relations on set (4) 19


sq. units
6
A is
(1) 249
67. If the equation x4 + 4x3 – 2x2 – 12x + a = 0
(2) 2
2401
has four distinct real roots, then the number
(3) 2
2352 of integral values of a is
(4) 1176
(1) 21
2
(2) 17
(3) 15
64. The co-ordinates of the foot of perpendicular
(4) 13
drawn from point P (1, 0, 3) to the join of
points A(4, 7, 1) and B(3, 5, 3) is
68. x
Let f(x) = ∫0 g(t)dt, where g is a non-
(1) (5, 7, 1)
zero even function. If f(x + 5) = g(x), then
(2) ( 5 , 7 , 17 ) x
∫ f(t)dt equals:
3 3 3 0

(3) 2 5 7
(1) 2∫
x+5
g(t)dt
( , , ) 5
3 3 3
(2) ∫
x+5
g(t)dt
(4) (
5
,
2
,
7
)
5

3 3 3
(3) 5∫
5
g(t)dt
x+5

(4) ∫
5
g(t)dt
x+5

10
69. The point of intersection of lines 74. The domain of f(x) = log 1 log4 log3 [(x –
→ → 2
→ → → →
r = ( a − 2 b ) + λ (2 a + b ) , r λ ) 2 ] (where [ ] denotes the greatest integer
function) is (–∞ , 2] ∪ [6, ∞ ), then the





→ value of λ is
= (2 a − b ) + μ ( a + 2 b ) ; a , b
(1) 1
being non parallel vectors , is equal to (2) 2
(1) 5 → → (3) 3
( a − b )
3 (4) 4

(2) 1 →

3
( a − b ) 75. 4
The coefficient of x in the expansion of the
3x
expression is (where |x|< 1)
(3) 1 →
→ (x−2)(x+1)

( a −5 b )
3 (1) –15/16
(2) 15/16
(4) 1 →

(7 a − b ) (3) –16/15
3

(4) 16/15

70. Three numbers a, b, c, a > b > c, whose sum 76. The solution of the differential equation
is 26, form a geometric progression. If we −−−−− dy
add 1, 6 and 3 to a, b and c respectively, √a + x + xy = 0 is
dx

resulting numbers are in arithmetic (1) 2/3(2a−x)√x+a


y = Ae
progression, then the value of a is
(1) 6 (2) y = Ae
−2/3(a−x)√x+a

(2) 18 (3) y = Ae
2/3(2a+x)√x+a

(3) 9 (4) y = Ae
−2/3(2a−x)√x+a

(4) 2

77. A rectangle with its sides parallel to x-axis


71. A circle with fixed centre (3h, 3k) and of and y-axis is inscribed in the region
variable radius cuts the rectangular bounded by the curves y = x2 − 3 and
hyperbola x2 – y2 = 9a2 at the points A, B, C, 2y = 6 − x .
2
Let A be the maximum
D. The locus of the centroid of the ΔABC is
possible area of such a rectangle, then the
given by
greatest integer less than or equal to A is
(1) (x − 2h) 2 − (y − 2k) 2 = a2
(1) 10
(2) (x − h)
2
− (y − k)
2
= a
2 (2) 9
(3) 2
y
2 (3) 8
x 2
− = a
h
2
k
2 (4) 7
(4) x
2
y
2
2
+ = a
h
2
k
2
78. The standard deviation of the following data
is,
72. If log x − log
3
−−
√x2 =
3
, then the xi 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
10 10 log x
10
fi 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
integral value of x is
(1) 1000 (1) 2
(2) 3000 (2) 4
(3) 4000 (3) √–6

(4) 2000 (4) –


√5

73. Coordinates of intersection points of a line


with direction cosines proportional to < 2,1, 2
> with the lines x = y + a = z and
x + a = 2y = 2z are respectively

(1) (2a, a, 3a), (2a, a, a)

(2) (3a, 2a, 3a), (a, a, a)

(3) (3a, 2a, 3a), (a, a, 2a)

(4) (3a, 3a, 3a), (a, a, a)

11
79. A biased coin with probability getting a head
is p, ( 0 < p < 1) , is tossed until a head
appears for the first time. If the probability
that the number of tosses required is even is
2
, then p is equal to
5

(1) 1/2
(2) 1/3
(3) 1/4
(4) 2
3

80. In triangle ABC, angles A and B measure


60° and 45°, respectively. The bisector of
∠A intersect side BC at T, and AT = 24. The
area of ΔABC can be written in the form
a + b√c , where a, b and c are positive

integers and c is not divisible by the square


of any prime. The value of a + b + c is
(1) 291
(2) 290
(3) 289
(4) 339

Section-II

81. Let a1 , a2 , a3 , 5, 4, a6 , a7 , a8 , a9 are in 85. If a, b, c are in arithmetic progression, then


harmonic progression. If the value of the ax + by + c = 0 must passes through the
∣ a1 a2 a3 ∣ point (α, β), then |α| + |β| equals
∣ ∣ p
determinant 5 4 a6 is , then (p +
∣ ∣ q
86. If the value of 19! is 1216T510040M832H00,
∣ a7 a9 ∣
a8 where, T, M & H are single digit integers,
q) is equal to (where p and q are coprime then the value of T + M + H is
positive integers)
87. If two parabolas have the same focus and
82. If solution of the differential equation their directrices are the x-axis and y-axis
respectively. If the slope (positive) of their
2
dy (1+y) λ+y
= is + c = ln |1 + y| ,
dx x(1+y)−x
2 x common chord is m, then 27 m is
where c is constant of integration, then the
value of (10λ + 6) is 88. x
2

The value of lim [ ] (where [·]


x→0 sin x. tan x

83. (x + 2)
3
; −3 < x ≤ −1
denotes the greatest integer function) is
Let f(x) = { and
2/3
x ; −1 < x < 2

x
89. If number of all common roots of x12 = 1, x15
g(x) = ∫ f(t)dt ; –3 < x < 2 = 1 and x18 = 1 is k, then the value of k is
−3 equal to
Number of points of extremum of g(x) is
90. 4 3
(4x −2x −3x −4)dx
2

84. The value of Let f(x) = ∫


3/2
. If f(0) = 2,
4 3
(x +x +1)
1 1 1 1

2 ∘
+
2 ∘
+
2 ∘
+
2 ∘
is then the value of f(–1) is
sin 20 sin 40 sin 60 sin 80

equal to λ, then 3λ equals

12

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