Casr 135

CASR Part 135
REPUBLIC OF INDONESIA
MINISTRY OF TRANSPORTATION
CIVIL AVIATION SAFETY REGULATION (CASR)
PART 135
CERTIFICATION AND OPERATING REQUIREMENTS:
FOR COMMUTER AND CHARTER AIR CARRIERS
LAMPIRAN KEPUTUSAN MENTERI PERHUBUNGAN
NOMOR : PM 4 Year 2012
TANGGAL : 12 January 2012
CIVIL AVIATION SAFETY REGULATIONS

(C.A.S.R.)
PART 135
(Amdt. 8)

REPUBLIC OF INDONESIA
8 May 2009 CASR Part 135 Amdt. 7
PART 135
TABLE OF CONTENTS
TABLE OF CONTENTS.................................................................................................... i
SUBPART A - GENERAL ...................................................................................... A - 1

135.0 Regulatory Reference ..................................................................... A - 1
135.1 Definitions and Abbreviations ......................................................... A - 1
135.3 Applicability ..................................................................................... A - 5
135.5 Rules Applicable to Operations in a Foreign Country ..................... A - 5
135.7 Rules Applicable to Operating Aircraft Subject to CASR 121 ......... A - 6
135.9 Deviation Authority.......................................................................... A - 6
135.11 Safety management system ........................................................... A - 7
135.13 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... A - 7
SUBPART B - CERTIFICATION RULES ............................................................... B - 1

135.15 Applicability. .................................................................................... B - 1
135.17 Requirement to hold an Air Operator Certificate ............................. B - 1
135.19 Application for and Issue of an Air Operator Certificate .................. B - 1
135.21 Requirements for the Operation of Single Engine Aircraft .............. B - 3
135.23 Duration of Validity and surrender of Air Operator Certificate and
Operations Specifications. .............................................................. B - 4
135.24a Recency of operation. ..................................................................... B - 5
135.24b Suspension and Revocation of Air Operator Certificate of a
Certificate Holder which does not Conduct Operations for which It
Holds Authority for More Than a Specified Time ........................... B - 5
135.25 Contents of an Air Operator certificate............................................ B - 6
135.27 Contents of the Operations Specifications ...................................... B - 7
135.29 Amendment of an Air Operator Certificate ...................................... B - 7
135.31 Amendment to or Additional Operations Specifications .................. B - 7
135.32b Renewal of Validity of Air Operator Certificate ............................... B - 8
135.33 Availability of Air Operator Certificate and Operations
Specifications ................................................................................. B - 8
135.35 Principal Base of Operations, Maintenance and Business Office ... B - 9
135.37 Inspection Authority ........................................................................ B - 9
135.39 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... B - 9
135.41 Leasing of Aircraft ........................................................................... B - 9
135.43 Required Management Personnel ................................................ B - 10
135.45 Minimum Qualifications of Management Personnel ...................... B - 11
135.47 Duties and Responsibilities of Managerial Personnel ................... B - 12
SUBPART C - Operating Rules for Aerial Work Air Operations ............................. C - 1

135.51 Applicability ..................................................................................... C - 1
Table of Contents i
135.53 Helicopter External Cargo Loads Operating Rules ......................... C - 1

135.55 Emergency Provisions With External Loads ................................... C - 2
135.57 Specific Operating Rules for External Cargo Loads........................ C - 2
135.59 Operating Limitations with External Loads...................................... C - 3
135.61 Carriage of Persons with External Loads........................................ C - 3
135.63 Structures and Design for External Loads ...................................... C - 4
135.65 Markings and Placards Relating to External Loads ........................ C - 4
135.67 Airworthiness Certification for External Cargo Loads...................... C - 5
135.69 Operating Rules for the Dispersal of Products ................................ C - 5
135.71 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... C - 5
135.73 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... C - 5
135.75 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... C - 5
135.77 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... C - 5
135.79 Reserved] ....................................................................................... C - 5
135.81 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... C - 5
SUBPART D - FLIGHT SAFETY PROGRAM ........................................................ D - 1

135.83 Applicability ..................................................................................... D - 1
135.85 Flight Safety Program ..................................................................... D - 1
135.87 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... D - 1
SUBPART E - APPROVAL OF ROUTES .............................................................. E - 1

135.89 Applicability ..................................................................................... E - 1
135.91 Requirements for route approval .................................................... E - 1
135.93 Airport Requirements ...................................................................... E - 2
135.95 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... E - 3
SUBPART F - CABIN SAFETY .............................................................................. F - 1

135.97 Applicability ..................................................................................... F - 1
135.99 Compliance with Briefings or Safety Instructions and Carriage of
Fire Arms ........................................................................................ F - 1
135.101 Flight attendants ............................................................................. F - 1
135.103 Flight Attendant Qualifications ........................................................ F - 2
135.105 Crewmember requirements at station stops ................................... F - 2
135.107 Briefing passengers ........................................................................ F - 2
135.109 Briefing Passengers for Extended Overwater Operations. ............. F - 4
135.111 Cabin Preparation ........................................................................... F - 4
135.113 Retention of Galley Equipment ....................................................... F - 4
135.115 Carry-on Baggage .......................................................................... F - 5
135.117 Carriage of Cargo and Carry-on Baggage in Passenger
Compartments ................................................................................ F - 5
135.119 Safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint systems ....... F - 6
135.121 Exit Seating .................................................................................... F - 7
135.123 Alcoholic beverages........................................................................ F - 9
135.125 Oxygen for medical use by passengers. ......................................... F - 9
Table of Contents ii
135.127 Locking the Cockpit Door.............................................................. F - 10

135.129 Emergency and emergency evacuation duties. ............................ F - 10
135.130 Demonstration of Emergency Evacuation Procedures ................. F - 11
SUBPART G - MANUAL REQUIREMENTS ........................................................... G - 1

135.131 Applicability ..................................................................................... G - 1
135.133 Preparation, Approval and Authority ............................................... G - 1
135.135 Format of A Company Operations Manual ..................................... G - 1
135.137 Contents of A Company Operations Manual .................................. G - 2
135.139 Distribution, Availability and Upkeep of the Company Operations
Manual ............................................................................................ G - 5
135.141 Company Maintenance Manual ...................................................... G - 5
135.143 Aircraft Operating Manual and Aircraft Flight Manual ..................... G - 6
135.145 Standard Operating Procedures ..................................................... G - 6
135.147 Rotorcraft/Load Combination Flight Manual ................................... G - 6
SUBPART H - AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS ........................................................ H - 1

135.151 Applicability ..................................................................................... H - 1
135.153 Aircraft Requirements General ....................................................... H - 1
135.155 Aircraft Certification and Equipment Requirements ........................ H - 1
135.157 Requirements for a Minimum Equipment List (MEL) ...................... H - 1
135.159 Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) ....................................... H - 2
135.161 Aircraft Route Limitations................................................................ H - 2
135.163 Aircraft Proving Flights.................................................................... H - 3
SUBPART I - AIRPLANE PERFORMANCE OPERATING LIMITATIONS ..............I - 1

135.171 Applicability .......................................................................................I - 1
135.173 General .............................................................................................I - 1
135.175 Take-off Weight Limitations ..............................................................I - 1
135.177 Net take-off Path ...............................................................................I - 2
135.179 Enroute limitations with One Engine Inoperative ..............................I - 2
135.181 Runway Requirements for Destination and Alternate Airports ..........I - 3
135.183 Landing Distance on Wet Runways ..................................................I - 3
SUBPART J - CARRIAGE OF CARGO .................................................................. J - 1

135.211 Applicability ...................................................................................... J - 1
135.213 Special Airworthiness Requirements ............................................... J - 1
135.215 [Reserved] ....................................................................................... J - 1
135.217 Carriage of Cargo in Cargo Compartments ..................................... J - 1
135.219 Helicopter Carrying External Cargo Loads ...................................... J - 1
135.221 [Reserved] ....................................................................................... J - 1
SUBPART K - AIRCARFT INSTURMENTS AND EQUIPMENT ............................ K - 1

135.301 Applicability ..................................................................................... K - 1
135.303 Instruments and Equipment ............................................................ K - 1
135.305 Flight and Navigation Equipment for IFR ........................................ K - 1
Table of Contents iii

135.306 Portable electronic devices ............................................................. K - 2

135.307 Instruments and Equipment for Night Operations ........................... K - 2
135.309 Radio Equipment for IFR Operations .............................................. K - 3
135.311 Radio Equipment for VFR Operations ............................................ K - 3
135.313 Specialized Navigation Equipment ................................................. K - 4
135.315 Weather Radar and Thunderstorm Detection Equipment ............... K - 4
135.317 Engine Instruments and Indicators ................................................. K - 5
135.319 Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) .................................. K - 5
135.320 Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS) .......................... K - 7
135.321 Miscellaneous Equipment and Spares............................................ K - 7
135.322 Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) .................... K - 8
135.323 Equipment for Operations in Icing Conditions................................. K - 9
135.325 Pitot Heat Indication Systems ......................................................... K - 9
135.327 Cockpit Voice Recorders ................................................................ K - 9
135.329 Flight Data Recorder....................................................................... K - 9
135.331 Public Address System ................................................................. K - 17
135.333 Crewmember Interphone System ................................................. K - 17
135.335 Supplemental Oxygen for Piston Powered, Unpressurized A/C ... K - 18
135.337 Supplemental Oxygen for Piston-Powered, Pressurized Aircraft . K - 19
135.339 Supplemental Oxygen for Turbine Powered, Pressurized A/C ..... K - 20
135.341 Supplemental Oxygen for Emergency Descent and First Aid ....... K - 20
135.343 Oxygen Equipment Standards ...................................................... K - 22
135.345 Cargo and Baggage Compartments ............................................. K - 22
135.347 Lavatory Fire Protection................................................................ K - 22
135.349 Emergency Equipment ................................................................. K - 22
135.351 Survival Equipment for Overwater Operations.............................. K - 28
135.353 Equipment for Single Engine Helicopter Overwater Operations ... K - 29
135.355 Emergency Flotation Device ......................................................... K - 29
135.357 Emergency Equipment for Flights over Uninhabited Terrain ........ K - 30
135.359 [Reserved] .................................................................................... K - 30
SUBPART L - MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE AND
ALTERATIONS ................................................................................L - 1
135.361 Applicability ......................................................................................L - 1
135.363 Responsibility for airworthiness. ......................................................L - 1
135.365 Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alteration
Organization ....................................................................................L - 1
135.367 Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations program. ...L - 2
135.368 Performance Standards ...................................................................L - 3
135.369 Company Maintenance Manual Requirements ................................L - 3
135.371 Required Inspections and Appropriate Personnel ...........................L - 5
135.373 Continuing analysis and surveillance. ..............................................L - 6
135.375 Maintenance and Preventive Maintenance Training Program .........L - 7
Table of Contents iv
135.377 Maintenance and Preventive Maintenance Personnel Duty Time

Limitations ........................................................................................L - 7
135.378 Certificate Requirements .................................................................L - 8
135.379 Authority to Perform and Approve Maintenance, Preventive
Maintenance, and Alterations ..........................................................L - 8
135.380 Maintenance Recording Requirements............................................L - 8
135.380a Transfer of maintenance records .....................................................L - 9
SUBPART M - FLIGHT OPERATIONS PERSONNEL REQUIREMMENTS ...........M - 1

135.381 Applicability .....................................................................................M - 1
135.383 Minimum Flight Crew ......................................................................M - 1
135.385 Designation of Pilot-in-command and Second-in-command ...........M - 1
135.387 Succession of Command and Assumption of Control .....................M - 1
135.389 Flight crew qualifications.................................................................M - 2
135.391 Flight Attendants .............................................................................M - 3
135.393 Flight Attendant Qualifications ........................................................M - 3
135.395 Flight Operations Officers ...............................................................M - 3
135.397 Flight Operations Officer Qualifications ..........................................M - 3
SUBPART N - TRAINING AND CHECKING PROGRAMS AND VALIDITY
PERIODS ....................................................................................... N - 1
135.401 Applicability ..................................................................................... N - 1
135.403 Training Programs .......................................................................... N - 1
135.405 Training Facilities ............................................................................ N - 2
135.407 Contract Training ............................................................................ N - 2
135.409 Qualifications and Training requirements for Instructors................. N - 3
135.411 Qualifications and Training Requirements for Company Check
Pilots ............................................................................................... N - 3
135.412 Qualifications: Ground Instructors and Flight Instructors For Flight
Attendant; Instructor for Flight Operations Officer .......................... N - 4
135.413 Company Check Pilot Program....................................................... N - 5
135.415 Training and Qualification Records ................................................. N - 5
134.417 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... N - 6
135.419 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... N - 6
135.421 Training program approval .............................................................. N - 6
135.423 Approval of Flight Simulators and Other Training Devices ............. N - 7
135.425 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... N - 7
135.427 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... N - 7
135.429 Company Indoctrination Training .................................................... N - 7
135.431 Windshear Training......................................................................... N - 8
135.433 Crew Resource Management Training. .......................................... N - 9
135.435 Transportation of Dangerous Goods Training................................. N - 9
135.437 Emergency Equipment and Procedures Training ......................... N - 10
135.439 Aircraft Surface Contamination Training ....................................... N - 11
Table of Contents v
135.441 Category II and Category III Operations Training ......................... N - 12

135.443 Extended Range Twin-Engine Operations Training ...................... N - 12
135.445 Aircraft Technical Ground Training ............................................... N - 13
135.447 Aircraft Flight Training................................................................... N - 14
135.449 Differences training: ...................................................................... N - 17
135.451 Upgrade Training .......................................................................... N - 17
135.453 Line Indoctrination Training for Flight Crew Members .................. N - 17
135.455 Recency of Experience Training ................................................... N - 19
135.457 Flight Attendant Ground Training .................................................. N - 19
135.459 Flight Attendant Operational Training ........................................... N - 20
135.461 Flight Operations Officers Training ............................................... N - 21
135.463 Aircraft Servicing and Ground Handling Training .......................... N - 22
135.465 [Reserved] .................................................................................... N - 22
135.467 [Reserved] .................................................................................... N - 22
135.469 Pilot Proficiency Checks ............................................................... N - 22
135.471 Validity Periods for Proficiency and Competency ......................... N - 23
135.473 Line Checks .................................................................................. N - 24
SUBPART O - FLIGHT AND DUTY TIME LIMITATIONS....................................... O - 1

135.491 Applicability ..................................................................................... O - 1
135.493 Flight and Duty Time Monitoring System ........................................ O - 1
135.495 Flight Time Limitations for Flight Crewmembers ............................. O - 1
135.497 Flight and Duty Time Limitations..................................................... O - 2
135.499 Flight Crewmembers on Reserve ................................................... O - 3
135.501 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... O - 3
135.503 Crew Rest Period............................................................................ O - 3
135.505 Required Day Off ............................................................................ O - 3
135.507 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... O - 4
135.509 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... O - 4
135.511 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... O - 4
135.513 Flight Attendant duty period limitations ........................................... O - 4
135.515 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... O - 4
135.517 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... O - 4
135.519 Maximum Duty Period for a Flight Operations Officer..................... O - 4
SUBPART P - FLIGHT OPERATIONS .................................................................. P - 1

135.531 Applicability ..................................................................................... P - 1
135.533 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... P - 1
135.535 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... P - 1
135.537 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... P - 1
135.539 Operations Notices ......................................................................... P - 1
135.541 Crewmember Duties during Flight Time ......................................... P - 1
135.543 Flight Crewmembers at the Controls .............................................. P - 2
135.545 Manipulation of Controls ................................................................. P - 2
Table of Contents vi
135.547 Admission to the Cockpit ................................................................ P - 2

135.549 Cockpit Check Procedures ............................................................. P - 3
135.551 DGCA Inspector Official Credentials............................................... P - 3
135.553 Flying Equipment ............................................................................ P - 3
135.555 Restriction or Suspension of Operation .......................................... P - 4
135.557 Compliance with Approved Routes and Limitations ........................ P - 4
135.559 Declaration and Action in an Emergency ........................................ P - 4
135.561 Reporting Potential Hazards ........................................................... P - 5
135.563 Reporting Mechanical Defects or Irregularities ............................... P - 5
135.565 Engine Inoperative Landing Report ................................................ P - 5
135.567 Instrument Approach Procedures ................................................... P - 5
135.569 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... P - 5
135.571 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... P - 5
135.573 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... P - 5
135.575 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... P - 5
135.577 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... P - 5
135.579 Minimum Altitudes for Use of an Autopilot ...................................... P - 6
135.581 Use of Certified Airports.................................................................. P - 6
135.583 Aircraft Security .............................................................................. P - 6
SUBPART Q - DISPATCHING AND FLIGHT RELEASE RULES........................... Q - 1

135.591 Applicability ..................................................................................... Q - 1
135.593 Co-Authority Dispatch System ........................................................ Q - 1
135.595 Pilot Self-Dispatch System ............................................................. Q - 1
135.597 Operational Control System............................................................ Q - 1
135.599 Conflict Resolution .......................................................................... Q - 3
135.601 Operational Flight Plan and Flight Release .................................... Q - 3
135.603 Dispatch Centers and Facilities ...................................................... Q - 5
135. 605 Required Flight Operations Officers................................................ Q - 5
135.607 Familiarity with Weather Conditions................................................ Q - 6
135.609 Dispatch and In-flight Briefing ......................................................... Q - 6
135.611 Maintenance Status ........................................................................ Q - 6
135.613 Flight Watch and Flight Following Systems .................................... Q - 6
135.615 VFR Take-off Minima ...................................................................... Q - 6
135.617 IFR Take-off Minima ....................................................................... Q - 7
135.619 Take-off Alternate Airport................................................................ Q - 7
135.621 Dispatch Over Water ...................................................................... Q - 7
135.623 Alternate Airport Criteria ................................................................. Q - 7
135.625 Alternate Airport Weather Minima ................................................... Q - 8
135.627 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... Q - 8
135.629 Operation in Icing Conditions.......................................................... Q - 8
135.631 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... Q - 8
135.633 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... Q - 8
Table of Contents vii

135.635 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... Q - 8

135.637 Minimum Fuel Requirements for Day VFR Flight ........................... Q - 8
135.639 Minimum Fuel Requirements for IFR Flight .................................... Q - 9
135.641 Fuel Planning .................................................................................. Q - 9
135.643 Takeoff and Landing Weather Minima for VFR Flight ..................... Q - 9
135.645 Takeoff and Landing Weather Minima for IFR Flight ...................... Q - 9
135.647 [Reserved] .................................................................................... Q - 10
135.649 Applicability of Reported Weather Minimums ............................... Q - 10
135.651 Flight Altitude Rules ...................................................................... Q - 11
135.653 [Reserved] .................................................................................... Q - 11
135.655 Initial Approach Altitude ................................................................ Q - 11
135.657 [Reserved] .................................................................................... Q - 11
135.659 Flight Plan: VFR and IFR .............................................................. Q - 11
SUBPART R - RECORDS AND REPORTS ........................................................... R - 1

135.681 Applicability ..................................................................................... R - 1
135.683 Crewmember and Flight Operations Officer Record. ...................... R - 1
135.685 Aircraft Record ................................................................................ R - 1
135.687 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... R - 1
135.689 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... R - 1
135.691 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... R - 1
135.693 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... R - 1
135.695 Disposition of Flight Documentation ............................................... R - 1
135.697 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... R - 1
135.699 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... R - 1
135.701 Maintenance Log: Aircraft ............................................................... R - 2
135.703 Service Difficulty Reports................................................................ R - 2
135.705 Mechanical Interruption Summary Report ...................................... R - 4
135.707 Alteration and Repair Reports ........................................................ R - 4
135.709 Maintenance Release or Aircraft Log Entry .................................... R - 4
135. 711 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... R - 5
135. 713 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... R - 5
SUBPART S- MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS .................................................. S - 1

135.801 Applicability ..................................................................................... S - 1
135.803 Regulatory Powers of the Minister of Civil Aviation - [Reserved] .... S - 1
135.805 Regulatory Powers of the DGCA - [Reserved] ................................ S - 1
135.807 Delegation of Regulatory Powers ................................................... S - 1
135.809 Carriage of Narcotic Drugs or Other Illegal Substances. ................ S - 1
APPENDIX A (RESERVED) .................................................................................... AA - 1
APPENDIX B—Aeroplane Flight Recorder Specifications ....................................... AB - 1
APPENDIX C —Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications ...................................... AC - 1
Table of Contents viii

APPENDIX D —Aeroplane Flight Recorder Specification ....................................... AD - 1
APPENDIX E —Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications ...................................... AE - 1
APPENDIX F —Aeroplane Flight Recorder Specification ........................................ AF - 1
APPENDIX G - SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM .............................................. AG - 1
APPENDIX A-A DESCRIPTION OF AERIAL WORK OPERATIONS ................. AA-A - 1
APPENDIX D-A Description Of Elements For A Flight Safety Program .............. AD-A - 1
APPENDIX G-A MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE, AND

ALTERATIONS OF LIGHT AIRCRAFT UNDER
CASR 135.361 .......................................................................... AG-A - 1
APPENDIX N-A FLIGHT CHECKING STANDARDS .......................................... AN-A - 1
APPENDIX N-B MINIMUM TRAINING TIMES ................................................... AN-B - 1
Table of Contents ix
SUBPART A - GENERAL
135.0 Regulatory Reference

This Civil Aviation Safety Regulation (CASR) Part 135 sets forth the implementing rules
for Certifications and Operating Requirements For Commuter and Charter Air Carriers
as required by Aviation Act number 1 Year 2009, Chapter VIII “Airworthiness and
Aircraft Operations”, Article 41, 42, 45, 46 and 47, and Chapter X “Air Transportations”,
Article 136.
135.1 Definitions and Abbreviations
In this Part the following words and expressions shall be taken to mean:
“Aerial Work Operator” – An air carrier certified to perform a type of speciality air
transportation service as listed in section 135.3 (b).
“Aircraft” – Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reaction of
the air other than reactions of the air against the earth’s surface.
“Airplane” – A power driven, heavier than air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from
aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight.
“Air Transportation Service” - The operation for remuneration, including positioning

flights, of any aircraft which is listed on the air carrier’s Air operating certificate.
“AOC” - Air Operator Certificate. A certificate authorizing an operator to carry out

specified commercial air transport operations.
“Cabin Altitude” - Means the pressure inside the cabin of an aircraft in flight, expressed
in feet above Mean Sea Level (MSL).
“Captain” – A pilot qualified on an aircraft and responsible for the safe operation of that
aircraft.
“Certificate” – A document issued by, or on behalf of DGCA which confirms a regulatory

standard as described in the document, has been met. A certificate does not convey
any authority to act.
“CC” – Competency Check. Any required operational check performed on company

personnel (other than flight crewmembers), by company supervisory personnel duly
authorised to perform that check.
“CCP” – Company Check Pilot. An employee of an air carrier who is the holder of a
delegation of authority issued by the Director, authorizing the conduct of certain types of
flight checks.
“Charter Air Carrier” - any air carrier that provides an air transportation service on a
non-scheduled basis.
“Co-authority dispatch” – the shared authority between the PIC and flight operations
officer in the formulation of an operational flight plan and flight release.
SUBPART A A-1
“Commuter Air Carrier” - any air carrier that provides an air transportation service on a
scheduled basis.
“Contracting State” – any country or state which is a signatory to the Convention of the
International Civil Aviation Organisation, or any other country acceptable to the Director.
“Crewmember” - a person assigned by an air carrier to official duty on board an aircraft.
“DGCP” – Designated Government Check Pilot. A person who is the holder of a

delegation of authority issued by the Director, authorizing the conduct of certain types of
flight checks.
“Director or (DGCA)” - The Director General of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation,
or any person authorized to act on his behalf.
“ETOPS” – Extended Twin-Engine Operations. Means twin-engine, turbine powered

airplane operations conducted over specified routes that contain a point further than 60
minutes flying time from an adequate alternate airport, at the aircraft’s specified single
engine cruise speed, as determined for standard atmospheric conditions, in still air.
“Extended over water operations” – For the purposes of this Part, a flight is considered to
be in extended over water operations, when it extends beyond the point where special
equipment, procedures and/or passenger briefings are require for such operations.
Specific times and distances can be determined for each aircraft type in CASR 135.351
for aeroplanes and 135.353 for helicopters. Also see CASR Part 91.509.
“External Load” – Any cargo load carried by an aircraft which falls into one of the
following four load classes:
(1) Class A is an external cargo load that cannot move freely cannot be jettisoned
and does not extend below the landing gear.
(2) Class B is an external cargo load that can be jettisoned and is lifted free of the
land and/or water.
(3) Class C is an external cargo load that can be jettisoned and remains in contact
with the land or water during the rotorcraft operation.
(4) Class D is an external cargo load other than Class A, B, or C external loads.
“Flight” – An aircraft is deemed to be in flight any time it is no longer in contact with the
earth’s surface as the result of its weight being supported by the aerodynamic principles
and design features of that particular aircraft.
"Flight altitude" Means the altitude above mean sea level at which the aircraft is
operated.
“Flight attendant” – a crewmember who performs, in the interest safety of passengers,

duties assigned by the operator or the pilot in command of the aircraft, but who shall not
act as flight crewmember.
“Flight crewmember” – a crewmember assigned to duty in an aircraft as a pilot, flight

engineer, second officer or navigator.
SUBPART A A-2
“Flight duty Time” – the total elapsed period from the time a crewmember is required to
report for duty, to the time that crewmember has completed all official duties with
respect to a flight or series of flights and is released for an official crew rest.
“Flight following” – the process of monitoring the progress of a flight, from its point of
departure to its final destination including any enroute stops, and the notification of the
appropriate authorities in the event of an overdue or missing aircraft.
“Flight Operations Officer” (FOO) – A person who is authorized by an air carrier to

exercise operational control over a flight.
“Flight Time” – the total elapsed time from the moment the aircraft first moves under its own
power for the purpose of take off, until the time it comes to rest at the end of the flight.
“Flight Watch” – the process by which a qualified flight operations officer provides flight
following services to a flight, and provides any operational information as may be
requested by the pilot in command or deemed necessary by the flight operations officer.
“Flight watch system” – means an air carrier’s equipment, facilities and personnel which
enable that air carrier to exercise operational control over a flight in progress via direct
and timely communications with that flight.
“FO” – First Officer. A pilot qualified on an aircraft to perform the duties of second in
command. May also be taken to mean co-pilot.
“GCP” – Government check pilot. A DGCA inspector authorized to perform flight checks.
“He” - He or She (unless specified), taken in context with that section.
“Helicopter”- A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the

air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes.
“His” – His or Hers (unless specified), taken in context with that section.
“IMC” – Instrument Meteorological Conditions
“Large Aircraft” – Any aircraft having a maximum certified take-off weight, (MCTOW) of
greater than 5700 kg (12500 pounds).
“Licence” – A document issued by, or under a delegation of authority from the Director,
which authorizes the holder to exercise certain privileges as specified in that licence,
subject to the conditions and limitations contained therein.
“Multi-Landing Operation” – Any helicopter operation where a pilot performs 30 take-off

and landings within a 24 hour period.
“Net take-off path” – means the one-engine-inoperative flight path that starts at a height
of 35 feet at the end of the take-off distance required and extends to a height of at least
1500 feet AGL, reduced at each point by a gradient of climb equal to 0.8 per cent for
two-engine aeroplanes, 0.9 per cent for three-engine aeroplanes and 1.0 percent for
four-engine aeroplanes.
“Open Water” – means a water mass which does not have any landmasses within the
maximum times or distances prescribed by a regulation.
SUBPART A A-3
“Operational Control System, (OCS) “ – means an air carrier’s system for the exercise
of authority over the formulation, execution and amendment of an operational flight plan
in respect of a flight or series of flights.
“Passenger” – any person on board an aircraft during flight time, who is not acting as a
crewmember.
“PPC” – Pilot Proficiency Check. A flight check performed in whole or in part, in an

aeroplane type simulator or an aircraft. Conducted by a GCP, CCP, or DGCP for the
purpose of establishing the level of proficiency, of a flight crewmember.
“PIC” – Pilot in Command. A pilot assigned to act as the Captain of an aircraft.
“PF” – Pilot flying. The flight crewmember who is manipulating the flight controls of an
aircraft during flight time.
“PNF” – Pilot not flying. The pilot who is performing tasks during flight time, in support
of the pilot flying.
“Pilot Self-dispatch” – means a system where authority and responsibility for flight
release, operation and flight following have been delegated solely to the PIC.
“Person” – in respect of an air carrier, means any person who is an owner, or operator
of an aircraft listed on that air carrier’s operations specifications or, is otherwise acting
as an employee or agent of that air carrier.
“Remote Area” – Means an area of land considered hostile to survival, which lies
beyond a specified radius from any known civilization, development or surface
conveyance, through which refuge could reasonably be sought. Such radii is equal to,
25 nautical miles in the case of mountainous of jungle areas, 50 nautical miles in the
case of unoccupied land mass surrounded by water and in all other areas, 100 nautical
miles. The Director may designate other areas as remote based upon unique
consideration.
“Required Day Off” – A period of time consisting of 24 consecutive hours during which
time a pilot, flight attendant or flight operations officer are free from all duties or contact
by the company. A required day off shall commence at midnight or, at the completion
of any required crew rest. A required day off is provided at a person’s residence and is
exclusive of any travel time between that person’s residence, and the place where such
person reports for, or is released from duty.
“Rest Period” – The period of time during which a crewmember is released form all
official duty or contact by the company. This period must exclude all time spent
commuting by the most direct route, between the company designated rest facility and
assigned duty station and, a specified period of prone rest with at least one additional
hour provided for physiological needs.
“Scheduled Air Service” - Any air transportation service which is operated on a weekly
basis and in accordance with a published schedule.
“Seating Capacity” – the maximum number of passenger seats authorized by, the type
certificate, type approval, or other equivalent document.
SUBPART A A-4
“SIC” – Second in command. A pilot assigned to act as a first officer or co-pilot of an

aircraft.
“Single Pilot” – the operation of an aircraft with only one pilot on board.
“Small Aircraft” – any aircraft having a maximum certified take-off weight (MCTOW) of
5700 kg (12500 pounds) or less.
“Specific Operation” – means a specialized area of operation within the group of aerial
work operations, described as special purpose air transportation services, in CASR
135.3(b) and Appendix A-A of this Part.
“S/O” – Second Officer. A pilot who is the holder of a commercial or higher pilot licence
and is endorsed on an aircraft type, as competent on the flight engineers panel and may
act as a flight crewmember with respect to the flight engineer duties.
135.3 Applicability
This part prescribes the rules governing:
(a) Any commuter or charter air transportation service utilizing aeroplanes or helicopters
which have an approved maximum seating capacity of 30 seats or less, excluding
required crewmember seats, or aeroplanes having a maximum payload of 3409
kilograms (7500 pounds) or less considering all disposable loads to be at maximum.
(b) Any air carrier involved in aerial work operations which provides one or more of the
following special purpose air transportation services as described in appendix A-A
of this Subpart:
(1) helicopters carrying external loads,
(2) towing of objects,
(4) dispersal of products,
(4) aerial survey and photography, except recreational photography
(5) air ambulance,
(6) flight inspection or calibration of air navigation facilities, and
(7) any other air transportation service considered by the Director to be special
purpose in nature.
(c) Each person employed or used by a air carrier conducting operations under this
part including maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration of aircraft.
(d) Subject to Subsection (b), of this section, or unless otherwise specified, the rules in
this part are applicable to all air carriers certified under this Part.
135.5 Rules Applicable to Operations in a Foreign Country
Each air carrier shall, while operating in a foreign country, comply with the air traffic
rules of the country concerned and the local airport rules, except where any rule of this
part is more restrictive and may be followed without violating the rules of that country.
SUBPART A A-5
135.7 Rules Applicable to Operating Aircraft Subject to CASR 121
(a) Where an air carrier is authorized to operate under this Part, applies to operate an
aircraft larger than that described in Subsection (a) of section 135.3, it must conduct
the entire operation in accordance with CASR Part 121 except,
(1) as provided in Subsection (b) of section 135.3,
(2) as specifically authorized by the Director.
135.9 Deviation Authority
(a) The Director may after consideration of the circumstances of a particular operation,
issue a deviation from specified sections of this Part, either in whole or in part
provided,
(1) an air carrier submits an application for a deviation in a manner prescribed by
the Director,
(2) the air carrier establishes that an equivalent level of safety is being maintained
notwithstanding such deviation, and
(3) the Director is satisfied that such deviation would provide an acceptable level
of safety and be in the public interest.
(b) The type and format of any deviation authority shall be as prescribed by the Director
and will specify any terms and conditions required to ensure safety considerations
and public interest are being served.
(c) A request for a deviation authority will not place any obligation upon the Director,
notwithstanding any previous authorities issued by him.
(d) A deviation authority shall cease to be in force if:

(1) any of the terms or conditions contained therein, are not being complied with,
or
(2) the Director advises the air carrier of his decision to withdraw the deviation
authority.
(e) Where a deviation authority has been rendered, not in force, by the failure to
comply with the terms and conditions under which the authority was issued, that
may be considered grounds for:
(1) the withdrawal of the deviation authority,
(2) the air carrier to be proceeded against as though the rule pertaining to which
the deviation authority was issued, has been breached, or
(3) both actions described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection may be taken.
(f) Where the Director has issued a notice of withdrawal of a deviation authority, the air
carrier may file an appeal against that withdrawal, however such appeal shall not
normally constitute a stay of withdrawal.
SUBPART A A-6
135.11 Safety management system
(a) Effective 1 January 2009, a certified holder shall have in place a Safety
Management System (SMS) that is acceptable to DGCA that, as a minimum:
(1) Identifies safety hazards and assesses and mitigates risks;
(2) Ensures that remedial action necessary to maintain an acceptable level of safety
is implemented;
(3) Provides for continuous monitoring and regular assessment of the safety level
achieved;
(4) Aims to make continuous improvement to the overall level of safety; and
(5) Includes Flight Safety Program in accordance with provision of Subpart D of this
Part.
(b) In order to be acceptable to the DGCA, the SMS shall meet the requirements set
forth in Appendix G of this Part.
135.13 [Reserved]
SUBPART A A-7
4 Apr 2008 CASR Part 135 Amdt. 4
SUBPART B - CERTIFICATION RULES
135.15 Applicability.
This subpart prescribes certification rules for commuter, charter and aerial work air
carriers using aeroplanes or helicopters.
135.17 Requirement to hold an Air Operator Certificate
No person shall engage in any air transportation service within or outside of Indonesia
without or in violation of an Air Operator Certificate (AOC) and appropriate operations
specifications issued under this part.
135.19 Application for and Issue of an Air Operator Certificate
(a) Each application for an Air Operator Certificate shall be made in the form and
manner prescribed by the Director. In making such application, the applicant must
demonstrate that in addition to certain financial, economic and legal requirements
as laid down in Subsections (d), (e) and (f) of this Section, and:
(1) he has adequate equipment, facilities and personnel to operate the proposed
air transportation service;
(2) there is published, a system of policies and procedures governing all the
activities being proposed by the applicant;
(3) he has an approved safety program appropriate to the operation in place; and
(4) he is able to conduct the air transportation service in a safe and proper
manner and in full compliance with all applicable rules and regulations.
(b) For the purposes of certification, no air carrier may list an aircraft and management
personnel on its Air Operator Certificate, or operations specifications, if:
(1) that aircraft is listed on the Air Operator Certificate, or operations
specifications of another air carrier; or
(2) list any manager or director required by this Part, who is listed as a manager
or director in the operations specifications of another air carrier.
(c) The submission of an application under this part does not place any obligation upon
the Director to issue an Air Operator certificate until:
(1) he has been given a reasonable time to review the application; and
(2) is satisfied that all the applicable rules and standards have been met and the
issue of the Air Operator certificate will be in the public’s best interest.
(d) Each applicant for the original issue of an air operator certificate who intends to
conduct operations under this part must submit the following financial information:
(1) A balance sheet that shows assets, liabilities, and net worth, as of a date not
more than 60 days before the date of application;
SUBPART B B-1
(2) An itemization of liabilities more than 60 days past due on the balance sheet
date, if any, showing each creditor's name and address, a description of the
liability, and the amount and due date of the liability;
(3) An itemization of claims in litigation, if any, against the applicant as of the date
of application showing each claimant's name and address and a description
and the amount of the claim;
(4) A detailed projection of the proposed operation covering 6 complete months
after the month in which the certificate is expected to be issued including:
(i) Estimated amount and source of both operating and non-operating
revenue, including identification of its existing and anticipated income
producing contracts and estimated revenue per mile or hour of
operation by aircraft type;
(ii) Estimated amount of operating and non-operating expenses by expense
objective classification; and
(iii) Estimated net profit or loss for the period.
(5) An estimate of the cash that will be needed for the proposed operations during
the first 6 months after the month in which the certificate is expected to be
issued, including:
(i) Acquisition of property and equipment (explain);
(ii) Retirement of debt (explain);
(iii) Additional working capital (explain);
(iv) Operating losses other than depreciation and amortization (explain);
and
(v) Other (explain).
(6) An estimate of the cash that will be available during the first 6 months after the
month in which the certificate is expected to be issued, from:
(i) Sale of property or flight equipment (explain);
(ii) New debt (explain);
(iii) New equity (explain);
(iv) Working capital reduction (explain);
(v) Operations (profits) (explain);
(vi) Depreciation and amortization (explain); and
(vii) Other (explain).
(7) A schedule of insurance coverage in effect on the balance sheet date showing
insurance companies: policy numbers: types, amounts, and period of
coverage: and special conditions, exclusions, and limitations.
(8) Any other financial information that the DGCA requires to enable him or her to
determine that the applicant has sufficient financial resources to conduct his or
her operations with the degree of safety required in the public interest.
(e) Each holder of an air operator certificate shall submit a financial report for the first 6
months of each fiscal year and another financial report for each complete fiscal
year.
(f) Each financial report containing financial information required by paragraph (e) of
this section must be based on accounts prepared and maintained on an accrual
basis in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles applied on a
consistent basis, and must contain the name and address of the applicant's public
accounting firm, if any. Information submitted must be signed by an officer, owner,
or partner of the applicant or certificate holder.
SUBPART B B-2
135.21 Requirements for the Operation of Single Engine Aircraft
(a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Director, no air carrier shall conduct an air
transportation service under this part in a single engine aircraft except:
(1) in accordance with the AOC and operations specifications,
(2) in accordance with the visual flight rules,
(3) during the hours of official daylight, and
(4) where the aircraft is certified for 10 or more passengers, the minimum flight
crew must include a Pilot-in-Command and Second in Command.
(b) No air carrier shall assign a person to act and no person shall act as the pilot-in-
command of a single engine aircraft with passengers on board unless the person:
(1) is the holder of a commercial, or a airline transport pilot licence,
(2) has acquired not less than 1000 hours flight experience as pilot-in-command
of single engine aeroplanes, of which not less than 100 hours shall be cross-
country flight experience, and in the case of a single engine helicopter, not
less than 500 hours flight experience as pilot in command. In meeting the
experience requirements of this paragraph, fifty per cent of the required flight
experience may be gained as the second in command of an aircraft of the
same class and type on which he or she is to serve.
(3) has acquired not less than 20 hours of operating experience on the specific
make and basic model of aircraft. Such operating experience must be
acquired while occupying the pilot-in-command position under the supervision
of a pilot qualified under this Part, to give flight instruction on that type of
aircraft, and
(4) is otherwise qualified in accordance with this Part.
(c) An air carrier may apply to the Director to operate a single engine aircraft under
VFR and IFR conditions where in addition to the requirements laid down in
Subsections (a) and
(b) of this section, the following conditions are met:

(1) the aircraft is a turbine powered aircraft,
(2) the aircraft is carrying cargo only,
(3) all flights operated under the instrument flight rule shall be operated with a
minimum flight crew of 2 pilots, who hold a valid commercial or higher pilot
licence and have a valid instrument rating, except a SIC is not required if,
(i) each aircraft is equipped with a serviceable three axis autopilot,
(ii) each aircraft is equipped with a headset and boom mike and, a transmit
button that is affixed to the control wheel,
(iii) each aircraft is equipped with a control wheel mounted, approach chart
holder with a means of proper illumination,
(iv) the flight is not operated above flight level 250,
(v) the pilot-in-command has successfully completed a single pilot
instrument flight check on that aircraft type,
(vi) the pilot has acquired not less than, 75 hours of instrument flight
experience as pilot-in-command of which not less than 50 hours must
SUBPART B B-3
be actual instrument time in an aircraft, and is other wise qualified in

accordance with this Part, and
(vii) the air carrier’s operational control system is certified for the conduct of
IFR flight.
(4) each aircraft equipment and instruments must meet the requirements of Part
91 for visual and instrument flight rules and must be in operating condition
prior to the commencement of any take off where IMC is anticipated,
(5) each air carrier’s maintenance program must include for each single engine
aircraft operated under the Instrument flight rules, an engine trend monitoring
program which has been recommended by the manufacture, or is otherwise
acceptable to the Director. Such program must be in accordance with the air
carrier’s approved maintenance control manual.
(6) each aircraft is equipped with two independent electrical power generating
sources. Each electrical source must be capable of supplying all electrical
loads for instruments and equipment essential for IFR flight including any
electrically operated ice protection equipment installed on the aircraft. Or
where only one generating system is installed in an aircraft, in addition to that
electrical source, the aircraft must be equipped with a standby battery. This
battery must be capable of supplying 150% of the electrical loads of all
instruments and equipment, necessary for the safe emergency operation of
the aircraft, for not less than one hour.
(7) each aircraft shall be equipped with two independent sources of energy, at
least one of which is an engine-driven pump or generator, and each of which
is able to drive all gyroscopic instruments and is installed so that the failure of
one instrument or source of energy will not affect either the energy supply to
the remaining instruments, nor the other source of energy, and
(8) any other requirement considered by the Director to be necessary for the safe
operation of such aircraft.
135.23 Duration of Validity and surrender of Air Operator Certificate and

Operations Specifications.
(a) An Air Operator Certificate or Operating Certificate issued under this Part is valid for
two years unless --
(1) The certificate holder surrenders it earlier to the DGCA; or
(2) The DGCA suspends, revokes, or otherwise earlier terminates the Certificate due
to the violation by the certificate holder to the provision of this Part; or
(3) The certificate holder does not conduct or cease all operations for which it holds
authority in its Operations Specifications for more than the time specified in
section 135.24b.
(4) The certificate holder violates the provision of Aviation Act 15 as the basis for
granting of the certificate, or violate requirements to conduct operation of its
organization in accordance with authority granted, limitation imposed and
procedures approved as they are specified on its Operation Specifications; or
(5) The certificate holder apply for renewal of validity of his Certificate.
SUBPART B B-4
(b) Operations Specifications issued under this Part are effective as long as the Air
Operator Certificate or Operating Certificate is valid unless--
(1) The Operations Specifications are amended as provided in section 135.31;
(2) The certificate holder does not conduct a kind of operation for more than the time
specified in section 135.24a and fails to follow the procedures of section 135.24a
upon resuming that kind of operation; or
(3) The DGCA suspends or revokes the Operations Specifications for a kind of
operation due to the incapacity of the certificate holder to operate of that kind of
operation.
(c) Within 7 days after a Certificate has been suspended, revoked or terminated under
this Part, the Certificate and Operations Specifications must be surrendered by the
certificate holder to the DGCA.
135.24a Recency of operation.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no certificate holder may
conduct a kind of operation for which it holds authority in its Operations
Specifications unless the certificate holder has conducted that kind of operation
within the preceding number of consecutive calendar days specified in this
paragraph:
(1) For commuter operations, 30 days.
(2) For charter operations, 90 days, except that if the certificate holder has authority
to conduct commuter operations within the previous 30 days, this paragraph
does not apply.
(b) If a certificate holder does not conduct a kind of operation for which it is authorized in
its Operations Specifications within the number of calendar days specified in
paragraph (a) of this section, it shall not conduct such kind of operation unless—
(1) It advises the DGCA at least 5 consecutive calendar days before resumption of
that kind of operation; and
(2) It makes itself available and accessible during the 5 consecutive calendar day
period in the event that the DGCA decides to conduct a full inspection
reexamination to determine whether the certificate holder remains properly and
adequately equipped and able to conduct a safe operation.
135.24b Suspension and Revocation of Air Operator Certificate of a Certificate

Holder which does not Conduct Operations for which It Holds
Authority for More Than a Specified Time
The Air Operator Certificate or Operating Certificate of a certificate holder who does
not conduct or cease operations for which it holds authority in its Operations
Specifications for certain number of consecutive calendar days, will be suspended and
revoked as follows :
(a) Commuter operations.
SUBPART B B-5
(1) If a certificate holder does not conduct or cease operations for 30 consecutive
calendar days, the certificate holder will be issued three (3) consecutive warning
letters, each at interval of maximum of one (1) month;
(2) If the certificate holder does not respond to the warning letters, the certificate will
be suspended for a maximum of three (3) months;
(3) If the suspension period is over and there is no effort made for the resumption
of the operations, the certificate will be revoked.
(b) Charter operations.
(1) If a certificate holder does not conduct or cease operations for 90 consecutive
calendar days, the certificate holder will be issued three (3) consecutive warning
letters, each at interval of one (1) month;
(2) If the certificate holder does not respond to the warning letters, the certificate will
be suspended for a maximum of three (3) months;
(3) If the suspension period is over and there is no effort made for the resumption
of the operations, the certificate will be revoked.
(c) If a certificate holder wish to resume its operations for which it was authorized in its
Operations Specifications :
(1) The certificate holder for which it is issued warning letter shall advises the
DGCA at least 30 consecutive calendar days before resumption of its operation
to conduct an inspection to determine whether the certificate holder remains
properly and adequately equipped and able to conduct a safe operation;
(2) The certificate holder for which the certificate is suspended shall advise the
to conduct an inspection to determine whether the certificate holder remains
properly and adequately equipped and able to conduct a safe operation;
(3) The certificate holder for which the certificate is revoked shall advises the
to conduct a full inspection reexamination to determine whether the certificate
holder remains in compliance within air operator certification requirements of this
Part.
135.25 Contents of an Air Operator certificate
(a) Each Air Operator certificate will contain the following information:
(1) the number of the Air Operator certificate,
(2) the legal name of the air carrier:
(3) the date and place of issue of the Air Operator certificate,
(4) the general conditions attached to the Air Operator certificate: and
(5) the operations specifications setting forth the nature, conditions and limitations
of the proposed air transportation service.
(b) [Reserved]
SUBPART B B-6
135.27 Contents of the Operations Specifications
(a) Each Operations Specification is an attachment to the Air Operator certificate and
addresses at least the following standard operational and maintenance areas:
(1) the business address and telephone number of the air carrier:
(2) the specific location of the air carrier’s home base,
(3) the organization of flight operations including approved incumbents,
(4) the maintenance and engineering organization including the approved
incumbents,
(5) the operations and technical manual approval dates,
(6) the categories of air transportation services authorized,
(7) the regions of flight operations,
(8) the flight rules applicable to the service,
(9) the forms of air transportation services authorized,
(10) the categories of aircraft approved,
(11) the maintenance specifications of each aircraft,
(12) the list of aircraft: and
(13) any other item the Director determines is relevant to the issue of the Air
Operator certificate.
(b) [Reserved]
135.29 Amendment of an Air Operator Certificate
(a) An Air Operator certificate may be amended:

(1) by application from the holder, where the Director rules favourably upon such
application, or
(2) at the Director’s discretion where he is of the opinion that such amendment is
essential to flight safety and is in the public’s best interest.
(b) Where the Director decides to refuse approval of any application made under this
subpart, the air carrier may, within 30 days of notification of such refusal, petition
the Director to reconsider that decision.
135.31 Amendment to or Additional Operations Specifications
(a) An operations specification may be amended, or additional operations specifications

issued:
(1) upon application by the holder, if the Director determines that:
(i) the additions, changes or deviations applied for, are authorized by this
part:
(ii) such additions, changes or deviations are applied for in a form and
manner prescribed by the Director: and,
(iii) the Director is of the opinion that an acceptable level of safety can be
maintained and such operation would be in the public’s best interest.
SUBPART B B-7
(2) at the Director’s discretion where he is of the opinion that an amendment to an

operations specification is essential to flight safety and is in the public’s best
interest.
(b) Where the Director decides to refuse approval of any application made under
paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the holder may, within 30 days of notification of
such refusal, petition the Director to reconsider his decision.
(c) Where the Director decides to amend an operations specification under paragraph
(a) (2) of this section, he shall:
(1) give the holder written notice of proposed amendment, stating the reason for
such amendment.
(2) allow a reasonable period of time (but not less than seven days) for the holder
to make written representation on the matter of the proposed amendment, or
the date such amendment would come into force.
(3) after considering any representation, notify the holder of his decision to either
impose the amendment, or rescind the notice of proposed amendment.
(d) Except where safety concerns require immediate compliance, where the Director
decides to issue the amendment under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the effective
date of that amendment will commence not earlier than 30 days after the date of issue.
(e) The Director may require the holder of an Air Operator certificate to submit for
approval, prior to the effective date of any amendment issued under Paragraph
(a)(2) of the section, anything deemed necessary to fully comply with the
amendment.
135.32b Renewal of Validity of Air Operator Certificate
A certificate holder who wish to renew his validity of his Certificate shall :
(a) Apply in a form and manner acceptable to the DGCA;
(b) Forward the application to the DGCA at least 60 consecutive calendar days before
expiration of his Certificate, to allow sufficient time for the DGCA to conduct a
quality audit to determine whether the certificate holder remains in compliance, in
conformance and in adherence with appropriate regulations, in order to be able to
conduct a safe operation.
135.33 Availability of Air Operator Certificate and Operations Specifications
Each air carrier shall display its air operator certificate and operations specifications at its
home base, in an accessible and conspicuous place where it is readily available for
inspection by the Director. In complying with this section it is not necessary for the air
carrier to display the AOC in a public place, but must be in a location which is not
normally locked during business hours and identified in the company operations manual.
SUBPART B B-8
135.35 Principal Base of Operations, Maintenance and Business Office
(a) Each air carrier must maintain principal operations and maintenance base or bases,
and a principle business office.
(b) Each air carrier shall notify the Director in writing, at least 30 days in advance, of
any change in the address of its principal base of operations, maintenance or
business office.
135.37 Inspection Authority
Each air carrier and each person employed by the air carrier shall allow the Director, at
any time or place, to make any inspections, tests or other such inquiries, to determine
its compliance with the CASRs, its Air Operator certificate and operations specifications,
or its eligibility to continue to hold its certificate.
135.39 [Reserved]
135.41 Leasing of Aircraft
(a) Prior to operating an air transportation service with a leased aircraft, an air carrier
shall provide to the Director, copy of the lease agreement, or a written
memorandum outlining the terms of such arrangement. Where any air carrier
whether foreign or domestic, agrees to provide an aircraft to another person
certified under this Part, the agreement must state which AOC holder and which
AMO as applicable, is proposed to be responsible for providing:
(1) applicable crewmembers,
(2) operational control, and
(3) the maintenance and servicing of that aircraft.
(b) Upon receiving a copy of an agreement, or a written memorandum of the terms

thereof, the Director will determine which party to the agreement is deemed to be
conducting the air transportation service and will issue an amendment to that air
carrier’s operations specifications containing the following:
(1) the names of the parties to the agreement and the duration of the lease,
(2) the nationality and registration marks of each aircraft involved in the
agreement,
(3) the type of operation as relating to category and forms,
(4) the areas of operation,
(5) the specific sections of the CASRs applicable to the operation, and
(6) where applicable, deviations from crew nationality, or licensing requirements
as appropriate.
(c) In making a determination under Subsection (b) of this section, the Director assigns
the responsibility under the agreement for the following:
(1) Crewmember training
(2) Airworthiness and performance of maintenance
SUBPART B B-9
(3) Dispatch and flight watch

(4) Servicing the aircraft
(5) Scheduling
(6) Any other factors the Director considers relevant.
(d) After a review of the leasing arrangement, if a foreign operator is considered

responsible for the operation of the leased aircraft, each route segment must
include either a takeoff or a landing to or from a foreign airport.
135.43 Required Management Personnel
(a) Each applicant for a certificate under this subpart must show that it has sufficient
qualified management personnel to provide adequate direction in all operational
matters and ensure an acceptable level of safety is being maintained. Such
personnel must be employed on a full time basis in at least the following or
equivalent positions:
(1) Managing or President Director
(2) Director of Safety (Company Aviation Safety Officer)
(3) Director of Operations
(4) Chief Pilot
(5) Chief of Flight Attendants (as applicable)
(6) Director of Maintenance
(7) Chief Inspector
(8) Other supervisory positions required by Subsection (c) of this section.
(b) Where an air carrier chooses to rename the managerial positions listed in
Subsection (a) of this section, the organization chart must indicate which position
the changed title is intended to replace.
(c) In consideration of the scope and size of an air carrier, where the Director is
satisfied that it would be more appropriate, or in the interest of safety, he may
approve or require, the development of:
(1) alternate positions,
(2) a different number of positions, or,
(3) the assignment of more than one position to one person.
(d) Each air carrier shall submit for approval, the names of the persons nominated to
each position required by this subpart on an acceptable nomination form, giving
sufficient details to demonstrate that the candidates qualifications, experience and
background.
(e) Where any change to the list of approved managers is proposed or has taken place
beyond the company’s control, the company shall notify the Director within 7 days,
of any temporary assignments to these positions and within 30 days, submit a
nomination requesting approval for the new candidate.
SUBPART B B - 10
(f) Failure of any manager approved under this part to discharge their responsibilities
in a safe and proper manner, may be grounds for revocation by the Director, of that
approval.
135.45 Minimum Qualifications of Management Personnel
(a) No person may serve as a managing or president director where the DGCA has
reason to believe, given the background of such person, that he or she is likely to
present a threat to the safe and proper operations of the air carrier.
(b) No person may serve as a Director of Safety unless his experience, qualifications
and background are acceptable to the Director, and that person:
(1) has a sound knowledge of the air carrier’s Air Operator certificate, operations
specifications, and the company operations and technical manuals,
(2) has received specialized training in safety related courses which in the opinion
of the Director are sufficient to prepare him for the duties and responsibilities
of a safety director. In making his determination the Director will consider the
scope and size or the complexity of the air carrier’s operations.
(c) No person may serve as Director of Operations unless he:
(1) knows the contents of the air carrier’s company operations manual and
operations specifications, and the provisions of this part necessary to the
proper performance of his duties; and
(2) holds, or has held, an airline transport pilot licence (or a commercial pilot
licence if none of the aircraft utilized by the air carrier require an airline
transport licence as specified by this part), and
(3) has had at least three years experience as pilot-in-command of similar types
of aircraft with which the operations are to be conducted; or
(4) has had at least three years experience as Director of Operations or a position
of comparable responsibility with an air carrier using similar types of aircraft.
(d) No person may serve as Chief Pilot unless that person:
(1) holds a current airline transport pilot licence with appropriate ratings, or a
commercial pilot licence, with appropriate ratings, if none of the aircraft utilized
by the air carrier have a maximum certified take off weight of greater than
12,500 pounds.
(2) has accumulated not less than 1000 hours as pilot-in-command on similar
types of aircraft or, within the preceding five years, has acted as pilot-in-
command for at least three years and accumulated not less than 500 hours as
pilot-in-command on similar types of aircraft with an air carrier: and
(3) knows the contents of the air carrier’s manual and operations specifications, and
the provisions of this part necessary to the proper performance of his duties.
(e) No person may serve as the chief of flight attendants unless that person:
(1) holds a flight attendant certificate, endorsed for the most sophisticated type of
aircraft operated by the company.
SUBPART B B - 11
(2) Has had at least five years experience as a flight attendant on similar types of
aircraft and similar types of operations of which at least one year was in a
supervisory capacity, and
(3) has a working knowledge of the flight attendant manual, flight attendant training
manual, and relevant portions of the CASRs and company operations manual.
(f) No person may serve as Director of Maintenance unless he:
(1) Holds an appropriate AME licence, or equivalent qualifications acceptable to
the Director,
(2) has had at least five years of experience in the maintenance of similar types of
aircraft with which the operations are to be conducted, one year of which must
have been in a supervisory capacity, and
(3) knows the maintenance parts of the air carrier’s company operations manual and
operations specifications and the applicable maintenance provisions of this part.
(g) No person may serve as Chief Inspector unless he:

(1) Holds an appropriate AME license which has been valid for at least five years.
(2) has had at least three years of diversified maintenance experience on similar
types of aircraft with which the operations are to be conducted with an Air
Operator or A.M.O., one year of which must have been as a maintenance
inspector: and
(3) knows the maintenance parts of the air carrier’s manual and operations
specifications, and the applicable maintenance provisions of this part.
(h) No air carrier may assign a person to act in a position of management over
operational matters or personnel, unless:
(1) an official management position has been created in accordance with Section
135.43(c), and is published in the organization chart.
(2) a list of minimum qualifications the incumbent must posses is published in the
COM, and
(3) the information required by Section 135.47 is published in the COM.
(i) Where an applicant files for a deviation to any qualification listed in this section, the
Director may after consideration, decide to give an exemption to certain
qualifications where,
(1) The person’s experience, qualifications and background are acceptable to the
Director,
(2) the scope and size of the proposed operations is such that a lower level of
qualifications would be acceptable to achieve a satisfactory level of safety, and
(3) at the discretion of the Director, the manager nominee agrees to undergo an
examination to test his suitability for the position.
135.47 Duties and Responsibilities of Managerial Personnel
(a) Each air carrier shall set forth in its COM:

(1) the area of responsibility for each management position,
SUBPART B B - 12
(2) the specific duties in sufficient detail, to demonstrate how the assigned area of
responsibility will be fulfilled, and
(3) the reporting relationship of the personnel required by Subsections (a) and (c)
of section 135.43 and the authority delegated to each incumbent.
(b) An air carrier must show in its organization chart and by description, how it will co-
ordinate the input from company departments or persons, that are not regulated by
this Part. In any case the procedures laid down for this purpose must ensure that
all non operational considerations are reviewed by the director of operations, or the
director of maintenance as appropriate, and that such input will not jeopardize
operational control.
SUBPART B B - 13
4 Mar 2002 CASR Part 135 Amdt. 2
SUBPART C - Operating Rules for Aerial Work Air Operations
135.51 Applicability
This subpart prescribes rules governing the specific operations of any air carrier that is
the holder of an operations specification issued under this part, authorizing aerial work
operations pursuant to Subsection 135.03(b) of this part.
135.53 Helicopter External Cargo Loads Operating Rules
(a) Each air carrier authorized in it’s operations specifications to carry external loads by
a helicopter shall perform such operations in accordance with the rules laid down in
Sections 135.53 to 135.67.
(b) Upon making an application for an operations specification pursuant to section

135.31authorizing the carriage of external loads in a helicopter, an air carrier must
demonstrate to the Director by performing the operational flight checks prescribed in
Subsections (c), (d) and (e) of this section as applicable:
(1) that the rotorcraft/load combination has satisfactory flight characteristics,
unless these operational flight checks have been demonstrated previously and
the rotorcraft/load combination flight characteristics were satisfactory. For the
purposes of this demonstration, the external load weight (including the
external load attaching means) is the maximum weight for which authorization
is requested, and
(2) the proposed operation meets all the applicable sections of this Part.
(c) Class A rotorcraft/load combinations: The operational flight check must consist of at
least the following maneuvers:
(1) Takeoff and landing
(2) Demonstration of adequate directional control while hovering
(3) Acceleration from a hover
(4) Horizontal flight at airspeeds up the maximum airspeed for which authorization
is requested.
(d) Class B and D rotorcraft/load combinations: The operational flight check must
consist of at least the following maneuvers:
(1) Pickup of the external load
(2) Demonstration of adequate directional control while hovering
(3) Acceleration from a hover
(4) Horizontal flight at airspeeds up to the maximum airspeed for which
authorization is requested
(5) Demonstrating appropriate lifting device operation
(6) Maneuvering of the external load into release position and its release, under
probable flight operation conditions, by means of each of the quick release
controls installed on the rotorcraft
SUBPART C C-1
(e) Class C rotorcraft/load combinations: For Class C rotorcraft/load combinations used

in wire stringing, cable laying, or similar operations, the operational flight check must
consist of the maneuvers, as applicable, prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.
135.55 Emergency Provisions With External Loads
(a) In an emergency involving the safety of persons or property, the air carrier may
deviate from the rules of this part to the extent required to meet that emergency.
(b) Each person who deviates from a rule pursuant to Subsection (a) of this section,
shall notify the Director within 10 days after the deviation:
(1) as to the circumstances requiring the deviation,
(2) the outcome resulting from the deviation, and
(3) any additional information the Director may request .
135.57 Specific Operating Rules for External Cargo Loads
(a) No person may conduct a rotorcraft external load operation without, or contrary to,
the Rotorcraft/Load Combination Flight Manual published pursuant to section
135.147 of this Part.
(b) No person shall operate a helicopter with an external load that is substantially
different from any other rotorcraft/load combination that person has operated with,
whether or not such combination is within the same class, unless:
(1) the pilot determines that the rotorcraft/load combination is within the weight
and balance limitations for that aircraft,
(2) the external load is securely fastened in a manner does not interfere with any
device provided for its emergency release,
(3) the pilot shall conduct an initial liftoff to verify satisfactory controllability,
(4) while in the hover, the pilot shall verify that directional control is adequate,
(5) Accelerate into forward flight to verify that no rotorcraft, or external load
attitude is encountered in which the rotorcraft is uncontrollable or otherwise
hazardous,
(6) In forward flight, check for hazardous oscillations of the external load, but if the
external load is not visible to the pilot, other crewmember or ground personnel
may make this check and signal the pilot,
(7) Increase the forward airspeed and determine an operational airspeed at which
no hazardous aerodynamic turbulence is encountered
(c) The performance of any check prescribed above shall be in a manner that will not
endanger persons or property on the surface and may be modified as the Director
determines is appropriate for the rotorcraft/load combination in question.
(d) Notwithstanding the provision of Part 91 of the CASRs, an air carrier authorized to
operated under this Part may conduct external load operations over congested
areas if those operations are conducted without hazard to persons or property on
the surface and comply with following:
SUBPART C C-2
(1) The operator must develop a plan for each complete operation, coordinate this
plan with the DGCA Office having jurisdiction over the area in which the
operation will be conducted, and obtain approval for the operation. The plan
must include an agreement with the appropriate subdivision that local officials
will exclude unauthorized persons from the area in which the operation will be
conducted, coordination with air traffic control, if necessary, and a detailed
chart depicting the flight routes and altitudes.
(2) Each flight must be conducted at an altitude, and on a route, that will allow a
jettisonable external load to be released, and the rotorcraft landed, in an
emergency without hazard to persons or property on the surface.
(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of Part 91 of the CASRs, and subject to Section
135.59 (c), the holder of a Rotorcraft External Load Operator Certificate may
conduct external load operations, including approaches, departures, and load
positioning maneuvers necessary for the operation, below 500 feet above the
surface and closer than 500 feet to persons, vessels, vehicles, and structures, if the
operations are conducted without creating a hazard to persons or property on the
surface.
(f) No person may conduct rotorcraft external load operations under IFR unless
specifically approved by the DGCA. However, under no circumstances may a
person be carried as part of the external load under IFR.
135.59 Operating Limitations with External Loads
In addition to the operating limitations set forth in the approved Rotorcraft Flight Manual,
and to any other limitations the DGCA may prescribe, the operator shall establish at
least the following limitations and set them forth in the Rotorcraft/Load Combination
Flight Manual for rotorcraft/load combination operations:
(a) The rotorcraft/load combination may be operated only within the weight and center
of gravity limitations established in accordance with section 135.63(c).
(b) The rotorcraft/load combination may not be operated with an external load weight
exceeding that used in showing compliance with section 135.53 and 135.63.
(c) The rotorcraft/load combination may not be operated at airspeeds greater than
those established in accordance with section 135.53 (c), (d), and (e).
(d) No person may conduct an external load operation under this part with a rotorcraft
type certificated in the restricted category under section 21.25 of the CASRs over a
densely populated area, in a congested airway, or near a busy airport where
passenger transport operations are conducted.
135.61 Carriage of Persons with External Loads
(a) No air carrier may allow a person to be carried during rotorcraft external load
operations unless that person:
(1) is a flight crewmember,
(2) is a flight crewmember trainee,
SUBPART C C-3
(3) performs an essential function in connection with the external load, or

(4) is necessary to accomplish the work activity associated with that operation.
(b) prior to commencing any external load operation the pilot on command shall ensure
that any person referred to in this Section is briefed on all normal, abnormal or
emergency procedures as appropriate and with respect to the equipment used in
the external load operation.
135.63 Structures and Design for External Loads
(a) External load attaching means. Each external load attaching means must have
been approved under:
(1) Part 27 or 29 of the CASRs, as applicable, irrespective of the date of approval: or
(2) Section 21.25 of the CASRs.
(b) Quick release devices. Each quick release device must have been approved under:
(1) Part 27 or 29 of the CASRs, as applicable:
(2) Section 21.25 of the CASRs, except the device must comply with section
27.865 (b) and section 29.865 (b), as applicable, of the CASRs.
(c) Weight and center of gravity:

(1) Weight. The total weight of the rotorcraft/load combination must not exceed
the total weight approved for the rotorcraft during its type certification.
(2) Center of gravity. The location of the center gravity must, for all loading
conditions, be within the range established for the rotorcraft during its type
certification. For Class C rotorcraft/load combinations, the magnitude and
direction of the loading force must be established at those values for which the
effective location of the center of gravity remains within its established range.
(d) The rotorcraft/load combination of Class D may be conducted only in accordance

with the following:
(1) The rotorcraft to be used must have been type certificated under transport
Category A for the operating weight and provide hover capability with one
engine inoperative at that operating weight and altitude.
(2) The rotorcraft must be equipped to allow direct radio intercommunication
among required crewmembers.
(3) The personnel lifting device must be DGCA approved.
(4) The lifting device must have an emergency release mechanism requiring two
distinct actions.
135.65 Markings and Placards Relating to External Loads
The following markings and placards must be displayed conspicuously and must be
such that they cannot be easily erased, disfigured, or obscured:
SUBPART C C-4
(a) A placard (displayed in the cockpit or cabin) stating the class of rotorcraft/load
combination for which the rotorcraft has been approved and the occupancy
limitation prescribed in section 135.59 (a).
(b) A placard, marking, or instruction (displayed next to the external load attaching
means) stating the maximum external load prescribed as an operating limitation in
section 135.53(b), (c) and (d).
135.67 Airworthiness Certification for External Cargo Loads
A Rotorcraft External Load Operator Certificate is a current and valid airworthiness

certificate for each rotorcraft type certificated under Part 27 or 29 of the CASRs and
listed by registration number in the air carrier’s operations specifications, when the
rotorcraft is being used in operations conducted under this part.
135.69 Operating Rules for the Dispersal of Products
(a) Each air carrier authorized in it’s operations specifications to disperse any product
from an aircraft shall perform such operations in accordance with the any Advisory
Circular which has been published for the purpose of establishing operating rules
for the specific operation being performed.
(b) Each person who is authorized to perform agriculture aircraft operations as provided
in CASR Part 137, shall conduct such operation in accordance with that Part,
except:
(1) where the air carrier has been authorized in its operations specifications
issued pursuant to this Part, to conduct dispersal of products operations, that
carrier will have been deemed to have satisfied the certification requirements
of Part 137.
(2) notwithstanding Paragraph (1) of this subsection, the Director may order any
additional certification requirements he deems appropriate to the particular
operation being conducted or proposed.
135.71 [Reserved]
135.73 [Reserved]
135.75 [Reserved]
135.77 [Reserved]
135.79 Reserved]
135.81 [Reserved]
SUBPART C C-5
SUBPART D - FLIGHT SAFETY PROGRAM
This subpart prescribes the standards for each air carrier authorized to operate under
this part, required to maintain a flight safety program.
135.85 Flight Safety Program

(a) An air carrier shall develop and maintain on a continuing basis, a Flight Safety
Program (FSP), that is appropriate to the scope and size of it’s operation and has a
high capability to detect, analyze and mitigate any risks which may pose a threat to
the safety of that air carriers operations.
(b) An air carrier shall nominate to the DGCA for approval, a Director of Safety or
equivalent position, who meets the qualifications as laid down in Section 135.45 (b)
of this Part.
(c) An air carrier shall publish in it’s COM the details of it’s flight safety program which,
except as authorized by the Director, must include at least the following program
elements:
(1) Air Carrier's Management Plan,
(2) Qualifications of the Flight Safety Person,
(3) Responsibilities of the Flight Safety Person,
(4) Training for the Flight Safety Person,
(5) Incident Management,
(6) Flight Safety Committee,
(7) Emergency Response Planning,
(8) Communication and Safety Education
(d) Where the details of an air carrier’s flight safety program deal with matters of
security, any sensitive information which could jeopardize the security or safety of
an aircraft shall not be published in the COM. In such cases, information which is
considered classified for security purposes, will be protected by the air carrier in a
manner that is acceptable to the Director.
(e) The Director may perform special safety audits on an air carrier’s safety department
to assess the effectiveness of it’s flight safety program.
(f) The flight safety program referred to in this section may be published in the air
carrier’s COM or as a separate manual forming part of the Company Operations
Manual, but must meet the standards laid down in Advisory Circular entitled, “Air
Carrier Flight Safety Program”.
(g) Appendix D-A DESCRIPTION OF ELEMENTS FOR A FLIGHT SAFETY PROGRAM
has been published for the purpose of giving guidance for the development of the
program.
135.87 [Reserved]
SUBPART D D-1
SUBPART E - APPROVAL OF ROUTES
This subpart prescribes the rules for obtaining approval of routes by an air carrier
operating under this Part.
135.91 Requirements for route approval
(a) Except when authorized by the Director, no air carrier shall release a flight and no
person shall operate a flight under the instrument flight rules (IFR), or instrument
flight conditions, (IMC), in uncontrolled airspace unless such flight is released or
conducted along an approved route listed in the air carrier operations specifications.
(b) The Director may approve a route outside of controlled airspace if he determines
that traffic density is such that an adequate level of safety can be assured and the
air carrier makes an application for approval. In making an application for an
approved route an air carrier shall;
(1) by means of aeronautical charts or other approved documents, establish the
minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) along each segment of the
route. The MOCA for each route segment must ensure a minimum of 2000
feet vertical clearance above the highest obstacle located within a horizontal
distance of 10 miles from the centerline of the route.
(2) by means of mathematical formula or practical demonstration, establish the
minimum enroute altitude (MEA) based upon Minimum Reception Altitude
(MRA) which will ensure line of sight navigation aid signal reception along the
entire route or route segment. The MRA along a route may be established by
calculating the square root of the altitude above a station and multiplying by
1.25. For example the sq. root of 3000 feet is 54.7 X 1.25 = 68 nautical miles.
This line of sight MRA measurement must now be adjusted upwards to offset
the effects of mountainous terrain and be rounded off to the next highest 100
feet. The MEA is then determined by selecting the lowest flight level above
the MOCA or the MRA for the appropriate direction of flight whichever is
higher. The director may allow a deviation to this requirement where it can be
demonstrated that an equivalent degree of accuracy and reliability can be
assured by celestial or other specialized navigation equipment.
(3) publish for each route segment;
(i) the TO/From route segment,
(ii) Magnetic track,
(iii) MOCA, in feet,
(iv) MEA, in feet,
(v) distance, in nautical miles, between fixes or waypoints,
(vi) the navigation aid, giving;
(A) name
(B) frequency,
(C) identification,
(vii) transition informations including any pertinent crossing altitudes which
will ensure the safe operation of aircraft from the final airway fix to;
SUBPART E E-1
(A) the initial approach fixes for each instrument approach at all
airports being serviced by that route.
(B) from the missed approach point of each instrument approach
procedure to the airway entry fix for that route,
(C) from all specified departure fixes, to the entry fix for that route.
(D) special performance information where the climb gradients
required for any transition exceed 200 feet vertical per nautical
mile horizontal distance.
(4) demonstrate that the communication facilities and MEAs along the route are
such as will provide air/ground communication between ATC and the aircraft,
or between the aircraft and the company, sufficient to ensure compliance with;
(i) the instrument flight rules, and
(ii) the flight watch and /or flight following requirements laid down in this
Part and the air carrier operations manual.
(c) In addition to the foregoing route requirements an applicant for a route approval
shall show that there are available, sufficient airports which meet the criteria set
forth in Section 135.93 of this subpart.
(d) Where in the opinion of the Director it is necessary to ensure flight safety, he may
require additional, or an amendment to the requirements laid down in this section
including the provisions of Section 135.93 of this subpart. In making any such
order, the Director will establish a reasonable time period for an air carrier to comply
with the new requirements.
135.93 Airport Requirements
(a) Each air carrier must show that there are sufficient adequately equipped airports
along any proposed route. For the purposes of this section an adequate airport is
one which meets or exceeds the following considerations as applicable to the air
transportation service being conducted.
(1) runway length and surface,
(2) obstructions on the approach and departure end of runways must not
adversely effect the safe operation of the aircraft being used, and appropriate
hazard markings and lighting are serviceable and functioning when in use,
(3) facilities for the safe and proper movement of passengers to and from the
aircraft,
(4) airport marking and lighting as appropriate,
(5) emergency and fire fighting equipment and personnel as appropriate,
(6) published at least one instrument and night manoeuvring approach
(7) any other facility, equipment or service deemed necessary for the intended
operation.
(b) No pilot of an aircraft carrying passengers at night may takeoff from, or land on, an
airport unless;
(1) that pilot has determined the wind direction from local ground communications,
or an illuminated wind direction indicator or, in the case of takeoff, that pilot’s
personal observations; and
SUBPART E E-2
(2) the limits of the area to be used for takeoff are clearly shown
(i) for aircraft, by boundary or runway marker lights;
(ii) for helicopters, by boundary or runway marker lights or reflective
material.
(c) Each air carrier must show that it has an approved system for obtaining,
maintaining, and distributing to appropriate personnel current aeronautical data for
each airport it uses (if this information is published for those airports) to ensure a
safe operation at that airport. The aeronautical data must include the following:
(1) Airports.
(i) Facilities.
(ii) Public protection.
(iii) Navigational and communications aids.
(iv) Construction affecting takeoff, landing, or ground operations.
(v) Air traffic facilities.
(2) Runways, clearways and stopways.
(i) Dimensions.
(ii) Surface.
(iii) Marking and lighting systems.
(iv) Elevation and gradient.
(3) Displaced thresholds.
(i) Location.
(ii) Dimensions.
(iii) Takeoff or landing or both.
(4) Obstacles.
(i) Those affecting takeoff and landing performance computations in
accordance with Subpart I of this part.
(ii) Controlling obstacles.
(iii) Minimum descent altitudes for 100 mile, 25 mile and 10 mile radii
(5) Instrument flight procedures.
(i) Departure procedure.
(ii) Approach procedure.
(iii) Missed approach procedure.
(6) Special information.
(i) Runway visual range measurement equipment.
(ii) Prevailing winds under low visibility conditions.
(d) Where in the opinion of the Director it is necessary to ensure flight safety, he may
require additional, or amendment to the requirements laid down in this section. In
making any such order, the Director will establish a reasonable time period for an
air carrier to comply with the new requirement.
135.95 [Reserved]
SUBPART E E-3
SUBPART F - CABIN SAFETY
This Subpart prescribes the rules for cabin safety applicable to all persons on board
aircraft and air carriers operating under this Part.
135.99 Compliance with Briefings or Safety Instructions and Carriage of Fire

Arms
(a) Each person on board an aircraft shall comply with the briefings and safety
instructions given to them by any person assigned to act as a crewmember on
board that aircraft, or any sign or placard posted for that purpose of giving such
safety instructions.
(b) No air carrier shall allow and no person shall attempt to carry a firearm on board an
aircraft unless:
(1) that person is a police officer, and
(2) such firearm is not loaded and no ammunition is carried in the aircraft cabin.
135.101 Flight attendants
(a) Subject to Subsections (b) and (c) of this section, no air carrier shall operate an
aircraft with passengers on board, unless at least the following number flight
attendants are on board.
(1) 1 to 30 passengers on board, one flight attendant.
(b) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this section, no air carrier shall operate an aircraft
with passengers on board, with fewer flight attendants than the number required to
satisfy the following conditions:
(1) where the air carrier has been authorized to extend a flight duty time limitation
and such extension requires the carriage of additional flight attendants.
(2) where due to extenuating circumstances, it has been determined that
additional flight attendants are required to satisfy the passenger emergency
evacuation requirements.
(c) Notwithstanding Subsection (a) of this section, an air carrier may operate an aircraft
with passengers on board, without a flight attendant provided:
(1) the aircraft is certified for a maximum of 18 or fewer passenger seats,
(2) the pilots are capable from their normal crew stations, to maintain throughout
the flight, visual and aural monitoring of all passengers on board, and
(3) the flight crew are trained in the company procedures for the, supervision,
briefing and handling of the passengers for all normal and emergency
conditions.
SUBPART F F-1
(d) Where a flight has been assigned more than one flight attendant, the air carrier
shall designate an in-charge flight attendant.
135.103 Flight Attendant Qualifications
No air carrier shall assign and no person, shall act in the capacity of a flight attendant
on an aircraft, unless that person is qualified in accordance with section 135.393 of this
Part.
135.105 Crewmember requirements at station stops
(a) No air carrier shall allow passengers to remain on board the aircraft during station
stops unless:
(1) the passengers are supervised by a flight attendant on board the aircraft, or,
(2) on aircraft which do not require a flight attendant, a person who has been
trained in the emergency evacuation procedure for that aircraft: or
(3) Nearby the aircraft, in a position to adequately monitor passenger safety, and
(i) The aircraft engines are shut down: and
(ii) At least one floor level exit remains open to provide for the deplaning of
passengers.
135.107 Briefing passengers
(a) Each air carrier operating a passenger-carrying aircraft shall ensure that all
passengers are orally briefed by the appropriate crewmember or by pre-recorded
information, on at least the following items:
(1) Before each takeoff:
(i) Smoking. Each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and under
what conditions smoking is prohibited. This briefing shall include a
statement that the Civil Aviation Safety Regulations require passenger
compliance with the lighted passenger information signs, posted
placards, areas designated as no smoking areas. The briefing shall also
include where applicable, a statement that Indonesian regulations
prohibit tampering with, disabling, or destroying any smoke detector in
an aeroplane lavatory.
(ii) The location of emergency exits, and as applicable the escape routes
including floor track lighting,
(iii) The use of safety belts, including instructions on how to fasten and
unfasten the safety belts. Each passenger shall be briefed on when,
where, and under what conditions the safety belt must be fastened
about that passenger. This briefing shall include a statement that the
Civil Aviation Safety Regulations require passenger compliance with all
passenger information signs and crewmember instructions concerning
the use of safety belts.
(iv) The location and use of any required emergency flotation means.
(v) Where the aircraft is of a pressurized type and the flight is to be
operated at of above flight level 250, a demonstration on the use of the
oxygen system including procedures for assisting small children or
others requiring assistance.
SUBPART F F-2
(vi) On operations that do not use a flight attendant, the following additional
information:
(A) The placement of seat backs in an upright position before takeoff
and landing,
(B) Location of survival equipment and first aid kits,
(C) If the flight involves operations above 12,000 MSL, the normal and
emergency use of oxygen, and
(D) Location and operation of fire extinguishers.
(2) Prior to the first takeoff, each person who agrees to provide assistance to
another person who would be in need of such assistance during an
emergency evacuation shall be briefed by a required crewmember:
(i) on the routes to each appropriate exit and on the most appropriate time
to begin moving to an exit in the event of an emergency: and
(ii) in consultation with the person, as to the most appropriate manner of
assisting him or her, so as to prevent pain and further injury.
The requirements of this paragraph do not apply when the crewmembers on
duty have been advised as to the most appropriate manner of assisting the
person so as to prevent pain and further injury.
(3) After each takeoff, immediately before or immediately after turning the seat
belt sign off, an announcement shall be made that passengers should keep
their seat belts fastened, while seated, even when the seat belt sign is off.
(4) During flight passenger announcements shall be made to ensure all safety
rules are being complied with.
(5) Prior to each landing the passengers shall be briefed with respect to the
requirements to return seatbacks and chair tables to the full upright and stowed
position and to ensure seatbelts are securely fastened. This briefing should
also ensure all smoking material has been extinguished prior to landing.
(6) Immediately after landing, passenger briefings shall be made to ensure all
safety rules are being complied with until the aircraft comes to it’s final stop.
(b) Each air carrier shall provide a passenger safety briefing card which illustrates by
means of pictures or diagrams all the information required by this section and shall
be located at each passenger seat. Passenger safety briefing cards supplementing
the oral briefing must be of sufficient detail so as to give clear instruction with
respect to:
(1) the methods of accessing and operating, the emergency exits: and
(2) the use of all required emergency equipment on board that aircraft which may
be applicable to the flight to be undertaken.
(c) Each card required by this section must represent the actual make, model and
configuration of aircraft it is intended for and shall be submitted to the Director for
approval.
(d) The air carrier shall describe in its manual the procedure to be followed in the
briefing required by Paragraph (a) of this section.
SUBPART F F-3
135.109 Briefing Passengers for Extended Overwater Operations.
(a) In addition to the oral briefing required by Section 135.107, each air carrier
operating an aeroplane in extended overwater operations shall ensure that all
passengers are orally briefed by the appropriate crewmember on the location and
operation of life preservers, life rafts, and other flotation means, including a
demonstration of the method of donning and inflating a life preserver.
(b) The air carrier shall describe in its manual the procedure to be followed in the
briefing required by Paragraph (a) of this section.
(c) If the aircraft proceeds directly over water after takeoff, or the briefing will be given
by a flight crewmember, the briefing required by Paragraph (a) of this section must
be done before takeoff.
(d) If the aircraft does not proceed directly over water after takeoff, no part of the
briefing required by Paragraph (a) of this section has to be given before takeoff, but
the entire briefing must be given before reaching the overwater part of the flight.
135.111 Cabin Preparation
(a) No person may cause an aeroplane carrying passengers to be moved on the

surface, takeoff, or land unless each automatically deployable emergency
evacuation device, is set for automatic deployment.
(b) Each air carrier shall ensure that, at all times passengers are on board prior to
aeroplane movement on the surface, at least one floor-level exit provides for the
egress of passengers through normal or emergency means.
(c) No air carrier may move an aircraft on the surface, takeoff, or land when any food,
beverage, or tableware furnished by the air carrier is located at any passenger seat.
(d) No air carrier may move an aircraft on the surface, takeoff, or land unless each food
and beverage tray and seat back tray table is secured in its stowed position.
(e) No air carrier may permit an aircraft to move on the surface, takeoff, or land unless
each passenger serving cart is secured in its stowed position.
(f) No air carrier may permit an aircraft to move on the surface, takeoff, or land unless
each movie screen that extends into an aisle is stowed.
135.113 Retention of Galley Equipment
The air carrier must provide and use means to prevent each item of galley equipment
and each serving cart, when not in use, and each item of crew baggage, which is
carried in a passenger or crew compartment from becoming a hazard by shifting under
the appropriate load factors corresponding to the emergency landing conditions under
which the aeroplane was type certificated.
SUBPART F F-4
135.115 Carry-on Baggage
(a) No air carrier may allow any carry-on baggage to be brought onboard an aeroplane
unless it has been determined that each passenger's baggage does not exceed the
baggage allowance prescribed in the air carrier's company operations manual.
(b) No air carrier may allow all passenger entry doors of an aeroplane to be closed in
preparation for taxi or pushback unless at least one required crewmember has
verified that each article of baggage is stowed in accordance with this section and
Section 135.117.
(c) No air carrier may allow an aeroplane to takeoff or land unless each article of
baggage is stowed in accordance with this section and 135.117.
135.117 Carriage of Cargo and Carry-on Baggage in Passenger Compartments
No person may carry cargo, including carry-on baggage in or on any aircraft unless
(a) It is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin, or compartment installed in or on the

aircraft:
(b) It is secured by an approved means: or
(c) It is carried in accordance with each of the following:

(1) For cargo it is properly secured by a safety belt or other tie down having
enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting under all normally
anticipated flight and ground conditions, or for carry-on baggage, it is
restrained so as to prevent its movement during air turbulence.
(2) It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants.
(3) It does not impose any load on seats or on the floor structure that exceeds the
load limitation for those components.
(4) It is not located in a position that obstructs the access to, or use of, any
required emergency or regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the crew
and the passenger compartment, or located in a position that obscures any
passenger's view of the "seat belt" sign, "no smoking" sign, or any required
exit sign, unless an auxiliary sign or other approved means for proper
notification of the passengers is provided.
(5) For cargo it is not carried directly above seated occupants.
(6) For baggage, other than articles of loose clothing, may not be placed in an
overhead rack unless that rack is equipped with approved restraining devices
or doors.
(7) It is stowed in compliance with this section for takeoff and landing.
(8) For cargo only operations, Paragraph (c)(4) of this section does not apply if
the cargo is loaded so that at least one emergency or regular exit is available
to provide all occupants of the aircraft a means of unobstructed exit from the
aircraft if an emergency occurs.
(d) Each passenger seat under which baggage is stowed shall be fitted with a means to
prevent articles of baggage stowed under it from sliding under crash impacts severe
SUBPART F F-5
enough to induce the ultimate inertia forces specified in the emergency landing
condition regulations under which the aircraft was type certificated.
135.119 Safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint systems
(a) No person may operate an aircraft unless there are available during the takeoff,
enroute flight, and landing:
(1) An approved seat or berth for each person on board the aircraft who has
reached his or her second birthday: and
(2) An approved safety belt for separate use by each person on board the aircraft
who has reached his or her second birthday, except that two persons
occupying a berth may share one approved safety belt and two persons
occupying a multiple lounge or divan seat may share one approved safety belt
during enroute flight only.
(b) Except as provided in this paragraph, each person on board an aircraft operated
under this part shall occupy an approved seat or berth with a separate safety belt
properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, for takeoff, and
for landing. A safety belt provided for the occupant of a seat may not be used by
more than one person who has reached his or her second birthday. Notwithstanding
the preceding requirements, a child may:
(1) Be held by an adult who is occupying an approved seat or berth if that child is
not yet two years old: or
(2) Notwithstanding any other requirement of the CASRs, occupy a child restraint
system furnished by the air carrier or one of the persons described in
Paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, provided that:
(i) The child is accompanied by a parent, guardian, or attendant
designated by the child's parent or guardian to care for the safety of the
child during the flight: and
(ii) The air carrier complies with the following requirements:
(A) The restraint system must be properly secured to an approved
forward-facing seat or berth: and
(B) The child must be properly secured in the restraint system and
must not exceed the specified weight limit for the restraint system.
(c) No air carrier may prohibit a child, if requested by the child's parent, guardian, or
designated attendant, from occupying a child restraint system furnished by the
child's parent, guardian, or designated attendant, provided the child holds a ticket
for an approved seat or berth, or such seat or berth is otherwise made available by
the air carrier for the child's use, and the requirements contained in Paragraphs
(b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(ii) of this section are met. This section does not prohibit the air
carrier from providing child restraint systems or, consistent with safe operating
practices, determining the most appropriate passenger seat location for the child
restraint system.
(d) Each aeroplane sideward facing seat must comply with the applicable requirements
of Section 25.785(c) of the CASRs.
(e) Except as provided in Paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(2) of this section, no air carrier
may take off or land an aeroplane unless each passenger seat back is in the upright
SUBPART F F-6
position. Each passenger shall comply with instructions given by a crewmember in

compliance with this paragraph.
(1) This paragraph does not apply to seats on which cargo or persons who are
unable to sit erect for a medical reason are carried in accordance with
procedures in the air carrier's manual if the seat back does not obstruct any
passenger's access to the aisle or to any emergency exit.
(2) On aeroplanes with no flight attendant, the air carrier may take off or land as
long as the flight crew instructs each passenger to place his or her seat back
in the upright position for takeoff and landing.
(f) No person may operate a turbojet aircraft or an aircraft having a passenger seating
configuration of 10 or more seats unless it is equipped with an approved combined
safety belt and shoulder harness at each flight deck station.
(g) Each flight attendant must have a seat for takeoff and landing that is equipped with
an approved combined safety belt and shoulder harness except when occupying a
passenger seat a shoulder harness is not required.
(h) Each occupant of a seat equipped with a shoulder harness or with a combined
safety belt and shoulder harness must have the shoulder harness or combined
safety belt and shoulder harness properly secured about that occupant during
takeoff and landing, except that a shoulder harness that is not combined with a
safety belt may be unfastened if the occupant cannot perform the required duties
with the shoulder harness fastened.
(i) At each unoccupied seat, the safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed, must be
secured so as not to interfere with crewmembers in the performance of their duties
or with the rapid egress of occupants in an emergency.
135.121 Exit Seating
(a) Air carriers operating turbojet aeroplanes or aircraft with a passenger seating
configuration of 10 or more seats shall make the following determinations and
designations:
(1) Each air carrier shall determine to the extent necessary to perform the
applicable functions of Paragraph (d) of this section, the suitability of each
person it permits to occupy an exit seat, in accordance with this section. For
the purpose of this section
(i) Exit seat means:
(A) Each seat having direct access to an exit: and,
(B) Each seat in a row of seats through which passengers would have
to pass to gain access to an exit, from the first seat inboard of the
exit to the first aisle inboard of the exit.
(ii) A passenger seat having "direct access" means a seat from which a
passenger can proceed directly to the exit without entering an aisle or
passing around an obstruction.
SUBPART F F-7
(b) No air carrier may seat a person in a seat affected by this section if the air carrier
determines that it is likely that the person would be unable to perform one or more
of the applicable functions listed in Paragraph (d) of this section.
(c) Each passenger shall comply with instructions given by a crewmember or other
authorized employee of the air carrier-implementing exit seating restrictions
established in accordance with this section.
(d) Each air carrier shall include on passenger information cards, presented in the
language in which briefings and oral commands are given by the crew, at each exit
seat affected by this section, information that, in the event of an emergency in which
a crewmember is not available to assist, a passenger occupying an exit seat may
use if called upon to perform the following functions:
(1) Locate the emergency exit:

(2) Recognize the emergency exit opening mechanism:
(3) Comprehend the instructions for operating the emergency exit:
(4) Operate the emergency exit:
(5) Assess whether opening the emergency exit will increase the hazards to which
passengers may be exposed:
(6) Follow oral directions and hand signals given by a crewmember:
(7) Stow or secure the emergency exit door so that it will not impede use of the
exit:
(8) Assess the condition of an escape slide, activate the slide, and stabilize the
slide after deployment to assist others in getting off the slide:
(9) Pass expeditiously through the emergency exit: and
(10) Assess, select, and follow a safe path away from the emergency exit.
(e) Each air carrier shall make available for inspection by the public at all passenger
loading gates and ticket counters at each airport where it conducts passenger
operations, written procedures established for making determinations in regard to
exit row seating.
(f) No air carrier may allow taxi or pushback unless at least one required crewmember has
verified that no exit seat is occupied by a person the crewmember determines is likely
to be unable to perform the applicable functions listed in Paragraph (d) of this section.
(g) Each air carrier shall include in its passenger briefings a reference to the passenger
information cards.
(h) An air carrier may deny transportation to any passenger under this section only
because:
(1) The passenger refuses to comply with instructions given by a crewmember or
other authorized employee of the air carrier implementing exit seating
restrictions established in accordance with this section, or
(2) The only seat that will physically accommodate the person's handicap is an
exit seat.
(i) Each air carrier shall submit their procedures for DGCA approval.
SUBPART F F-8
135.123 Alcoholic beverages
(a) No person may drink any alcoholic beverage aboard an aircraft unless the air carrier
operating the aircraft has served that beverage to him.
(b) No air carrier may serve any alcoholic beverage to any person aboard any of its
aircraft who:
(1) Appears to be intoxicated:
(2) Is escorting a person or being escorted for security purposes or
(3) Is authorized to carry and has a deadly or dangerous weapon accessible to
him while aboard the aircraft.
(c) No air carrier may allow any person to board any of its aircraft if that person
appears to be intoxicated.
(d) Each air carrier shall, within five days after the incident, report to the Director the
refusal of any person to comply with Paragraph (a) of this section, or of any
disturbance caused by a person who appears to be intoxicated aboard any of its
aircraft.
135.125 Oxygen for medical use by passengers.
(a) An air carrier may allow a passenger to carry and operate equipment for the
storage, generation, or dispensing of oxygen when the following conditions are met:
(1) The equipment is:
(i) Furnished by the air carrier:
(ii) Of an approved type or is in conformity with the manufacturing,
packaging, marking, labeling, and maintenance requirements of the
CASRs.
(iii) Free of flammable contaminants on all exterior surfaces:
(iv) Capable of providing a minimum mass flow of oxygen to the user of four
liters per minute:
(v) Constructed so that all valves, fittings, and gauges are protected from
damage: and
(vi) Appropriately secured.
(2) When the oxygen is stored in the form of a liquid, the equipment has been
under the air carrier's approved maintenance program since its purchase new
or since the storage container was last purged.
(3) When the oxygen is stored in the form of a compressed gas:
(i) The equipment has been under the air carrier's approved maintenance
program since its purchase new or since the last hydrostatic test of the
storage cylinder: and
(ii) The pressure in any oxygen cylinder does not exceed the rated cylinder
pressure.
(4) Each person using the equipment has a medical need to use it evidenced by a
written statement to be kept in that person's possession, signed by a licensed
physician which specifies the maximum quantity of oxygen needed each hour
and the maximum flow rate needed for the pressure altitude corresponding to
the pressure in the cabin of the aeroplane under normal operating conditions.
SUBPART F F-9
This paragraph does not apply to the carriage of oxygen in an aeroplane in

which the only passengers carried are persons who may have a medical need
for oxygen during flight, no more than one relative or other interested person
for each of those persons, and medical attendants.
(5) When a physician's statement is required by Paragraph (a)(4) of this section,
the total quantity of oxygen carried is equal to the maximum quantity of oxygen
needed each hour, as specified in the physician's statement, multiplied by the
number of hours used to compute the amount of aeroplane fuel required by
this part.
(6) The pilot in command is advised when the equipment is on board, and when it
is intended to be used.
(7) The equipment is stowed, and each person using the equipment is seated, so
as not to restrict access to or use of any required emergency or regular exit or
of the aisle in the passenger compartment.
(b) No person may, and no air carrier may allow any person to, smoke within 10 feet of
oxygen storage and dispensing equipment carried in accordance with Paragraph (a)
of this section.
(c) No air carrier may allow any person to connect or disconnect oxygen-dispensing
equipment, to or from a gaseous oxygen cylinder while any passenger is aboard the
aeroplane.
(d) The requirements of this section do not apply to the carriage of supplemental or first
aid oxygen and related equipment required by the CASRs.
135.127 Locking the Cockpit Door
(a) Except as provided in Paragraph (b) of this section, a pilot in command of an aircraft
that is equipped with a lockable flight crew compartment door, shall ensure that
such door is closed and locked prior to the commencement of boarding of any
passengers, until all passengers have disembarked at the termination of the flight.
(b) The provisions of Paragraph (a) of this section do not apply:

(1) During takeoff and landing if the crew compartment door is the means of
access to a required passenger emergency exit or a floor-level exit: or
(2) At any time that it is necessary to provide access to the flight crew or
passenger compartment, to a crewmember in the performance of his duties or
for a person authorized admission to the flight crew compartment under
Section 135.547.
(3) When a jumpseat is being used by persons authorized under Section 135.547
in aeroplanes in which closing and locking the flight crew compartment door is
impossible while the jumpseat is in use.
(4) The aircraft is being operated in accordance with Section 135.101(c) .
135.129 Emergency and emergency evacuation duties.
Each air carrier shall, for each type and model of aeroplane, assigned to each category
of required crewmember as appropriate, the necessary functions to be performed in an
SUBPART F F - 10
emergency or a situation requiring emergency evacuation. The air carrier shall show
those functions are realistic, can be practically accomplished, and will meet any
reasonably anticipated emergency including the possible incapacitation of individual
crewmembers or their inability to reach the passenger cabin because of shifting cargo in
combination cargo/ passenger aeroplanes.
135.130 Demonstration of Emergency Evacuation Procedures
(a) Each air carrier authorized to operate a turbojet aeroplane or any land aeroplane
that has a passenger seating configuration of 10 or more, and where overwater
operations are to be conducted, must demonstrate:
(1) a simulated ditching conducted in accordance with Paragraph (b) that it has
the ability to efficiently carry out its ditching procedures, and
(2) that all required equipment relating to the ditching procedure can be swiftly
and efficiently deployed.
(b) The ditching demonstration must assume that daylight hours exist outside the
aeroplane, and that all required crewmembers are available for the demonstration.
(1) If the air carrier’s manual requires the use of passengers to assist in the
launching of liferafts, the needed passengers must be aboard the aeroplane
and participate in the demonstration according to the manual.
(2) A stand must be placed at each emergency exit and wing, with the top of the
platform at a height simulating the water level of the aeroplane following a
ditching.
(3) After the ditching signal has been received, each evacuee must don a life vest
according to the air carrier’s manual.
(4) Each liferaft must be launched and inflated, according to the air carrier’s
manual, and all other required emergency equipment must be placed in rafts.
(5) Each evacuee must enter a liferaft, and the crewmembers assigned to each
liferaft must indicate the location of emergency equipment aboard the raft and
describe its use.
(6) Either the aeroplane, a mockup of the aeroplane or a floating device
simulating a passenger compartment must be used.
(i) If a mockup of the aeroplane is used, it must be a life-size mockup of
the interior and representative of the aeroplane currently used by or
proposed to be used by the air carrier, and must contain adequate seats
for use of the evacuees. Operation of the emergency exits and the
doors must closely simulate those on the aeroplane. Sufficient wing
area must be installed outside the over-the-wing exits to demonstrate
the evacuation.
(ii) If a floating device simulating a passenger compartment is used, it must
be representative, to the extent possible, of the passenger compartment
of the aeroplane used in operations. Operation of the emergency exits
and the doors must closely simulate operation on that aeroplane.
Sufficient wing area must be installed outside the over-the-wing exits to
demonstrate the evacuation. The device must be equipped with the
same survival equipment as is installed on the aeroplane, to
accommodate all persons participating in the demonstration.
SUBPART F F - 11
(c) For a type and model aeroplane for which the simulated ditching specified in
Paragraph (a) is conducted the requirements of Paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(4), and (b)(5)
are complied with if each life raft is removed from stowage, one life raft is launched
and inflated (or one slide life raft is inflated) and crewmembers assigned to the
inflated life raft display and describe the use of each item of required emergency
equipment. The life raft or slide life raft to be inflated will be selected by the Director.
SUBPART F F - 12
SUBPART G - MANUAL REQUIREMENTS
This subpart prescribes requirements for preparing and maintaining manuals by all air
carriers operating under this part.
135.133 Preparation, Approval and Authority
(a) An air carrier shall establish and maintain a company operations manual that meets
the requirements of this subpart.
(b) An air carrier shall submit to the Director for approval, its company operations
manual and any amendments to that manual.
(c) Where there is a change in any aspect of the air carrier’s operation, or where the
company operations manual no longer meets the requirements of Part 135 of the
CASR, the air carrier shall amend its company operations manual.
(d) The Director shall, where the provisions of this subpart have been met, approve
those parts of the company operations manual, and any amendments to those
parts, that relate to the information required by Part 135 of the CASR.
(e) In meeting the requirements of this subpart, an air carrier may produce its company
operations manual in the form of other manuals provided that:
(1) the company operations manual identifies such other manual/s by an official
title, and states that the manual/s form part of the company’s official policy,
giving cross-references as appropriate,
(2) the company operations manual publishes as appendices, copies of the index
or table of contents of such other manuals,
(3) any manual produced under this paragraph meet all the publishing, controlling
and amendment requirements of a company operations manual,
(4) distribution of such manuals shall be in accordance with this subpart, and
(5) the Director approves each manual in accordance with paragraph (d) of this
section.
(f) The rules and regulations, policies and procedures contained in a company
operations manual shall be in accordance with the CASR and other Regulations as
appropriate. When approved by the Director, it becomes the company’s official
policy manual. Each air carrier and each person employed by that air carrier, shall
comply with rules, regulations, policies and procedures contained in the approved
company operations manual.
135.135 Format of A Company Operations Manual
(a) A company operations manual shall be in a form that ensures:

(1) all parts of the company operations manual, or other manual produced under
subsection (e) of section 135.133, are consistent and compatible in form and
content,
SUBPART G G-1
(2) Appropriate indexing and division of the manual/s to enable quick and
accurate access to the information,
(3) the manual can be readily amended,
(4) the manual contains an amendment control page and a list of effective pages
which records all the pages in effect.
(5) each page contains at least:
(i) the legal name of the company and title of the manual,
(ii) the page number, or page and section number,
(iii) the date of last amendment of that page, and
(iv) an amendment bar which identifies only the amended information.
135.137 Contents of A Company Operations Manual
(a) The manual/s required by Section 135.133 must include instructions and
information in sufficient detail to enable the personnel concerned to perform their
duties and responsibilities with a high degree of safety.
(b) Except as provided in subsection (c) of this section, the information contained in the
manual/s required by Section 135.133, shall contain only that information required
by the subjects outlined in subsection (d) of this section.
(c) An air carrier may designate one chapter or section of its company operations
manual to deal with subjects of a non operational nature provided that:
(1) it is clearly identified as a section which is not approved by the Director and
does not contain any policy or procedure required by regulation, and
(2) it does not in anyway address, or conflict with any operational section of the
manual/s.
(d) The company operations manual shall contain at least the following, as applicable:
(1) a preamble relating to the use, authority and distribution of the manual, and list
of definitions sufficient to define the specific meaning of:
(i) all definitions, abbreviations and acronyms used in the manual,
(ii) the official titles of all operational managers, except where that precise
title is identified in the CASR,
(iii) any term used in the manual, which the Director decides requires
definition.
(2) a table of contents,
(3) amending procedures, amendment record sheet, distribution list and list of
effective pages,
(4) a copy of the air operator certificate and operations specifications,
(5) a chart of the air carriers management organization,
(6) the duties, responsibilities and succession of command of all persons
approved under this part,
(7) A description of the operational control system including the following:
(i) flight authorization and preparation procedures including the principles
of co-authority dispatch and conflict resolution,
(ii) preparation of the operational flight plan and flight release procedures,
SUBPART G G-2
(iii) procedures to ensure pilots are advised prior to dispatch, of any aircraft
defects that have been deferred by MEL or other authority and
maintenance release procedures,
(iv) flight watch, flight following and communication requirements and
procedures,
(v) procedures for the dissemination and acknowledgement of operational
information,
(vi) fuel and oil requirements,
(vii) weight and balance system,
(viii) accident or incident reporting and procedures for reporting overdue
aircraft,
(ix) maintenance discrepancy reporting and completion of flight
documentation including forwarding procedures and retention periods,
and
(x) description of the company’s dispatch centre(s), operational support
services and equipment.
(8) sample of all required company forms including operational flight plan/s,
weight and balance and load control sheets,
(9) use of checklists,
(10) weather minima applicable to IFR and VFR at all operational and alternate
airports including company approved weather observation procedures,
(11) instrument and equipment requirements,
(12) instrument approach procedures,
(13) procedures for establishing company approved routes in uncontrolled
airspace,
(14) procedures for management of navigation and communications equipment
including listening watch and collision avoidance,
(15) procedures for the avoidance or operations in hazardous conditions such as
but not limited to icing, thunderstorms, windshear, volcanic ash etc.,
(16) aircraft performance limitations, and operational restrictions as applicable’
(17) carriage and securing of cargo, including external loads, carry on baggage,
commissary, spares or other equipment as applicable,
(18) passenger briefing procedures,
(19) proper use of the aircraft flight manual, aircraft operating manual, standard
operating procedures and minimum equipment list as applicable,
(20) critical surface contamination procedures, as applicable, including a detailed
description of:
(i) How the carrier determines that conditions are such that frost, ice, or
snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft and that
ground deicing/anti-icing operational procedures must be in effect:
(ii) Who is responsible for deciding that ground deicing/anti-icing
operational procedures must be in effect:
(iii) The procedures for implementing ground deicing/anti-icing operational
procedures:
(IV) The specific duties and responsibilities of each operational position or
group responsible for getting the aircraft safely airborne while ground
deicing/anti-icing operational procedures are in effect.
SUBPART G G-3
(v) The use of holdover times.

(vi) Aircraft deicing/anti-icing procedures, including inspection and check
procedures and responsibilities.
(vii) Communications procedures.
(vii) A pre-takeoff contamination check to determine a representative surface
as defined in the air carrier's program, is free of frost, ice, or snow.
(21) procedures for the carriage of dangerous goods,
(22) fuelling procedures including:
(i) contamination precautions,
(ii) bonding and grounding requirements,
(iii) fuelling with:
(A) engines running, and
(B) with passengers on board.
(23) emergency procedures for:
(i) passenger preparation for landing/ditching,
(ii) short notice and long notice emergency evacuation procedures,
(iii) emergency functions of all crew members including succession of
command alternate actions in the event of the incapacitation of other
crew members,
(iv) unlawful interference,
(v) reporting of an emergency,
(vi) intervention or giving aid during an emergency,
(vii) emergency response plan
(viii) missing aircraft procedures,
(ix) procedures for checking emergency equipment required for flight,
(x) safety signals and announcements on board an aircraft,
(xi) in flight medical emergency, and
(xii) other emergency considerations.
(24) company safety program,
(25) minimum crew members required for flight and minimum crew qualifications,
(26) authority of the pilot in command and succession of command of all operations
personnel on the flight deck and in the passenger cabin,
(27) flight duty time limitations and rest periods including the commencement and
termination of air crew duty periods.
(28) training programs including sample training forms and records,
(29) use of oxygen,
(30) passenger and cabin safety procedures including passenger movement on the
apron,
(31) procedures governing the use of specialized equipment,
(32) policy on the use of the flight deck observer seats by authorized persons
including DGCA personnel,
(33) operational weather minima, including alternate means of establishing
prevailing weather conditions at airports where official observations are not
available, and
(34) other information relating to safety or as may be required by the Director.
SUBPART G G-4
(e) Where an air carrier is restricted to aerial work, is the owner/operator of a one
aircraft air transportation service, or where the Director deems it to be appropriate,
he may approve an abbreviated manual. In any case the manual must be in
accordance with Subsections (a) and (b) of this section and contain at least the
information required in Subsection (d) of this section, paragraphs: (1)-(2)-(3)-(4)-
(7,(i),(ii),(vi),(vii), and (viii)-(8)-(10)-(17)-(19)-(22 where applicable)-(29)-(32 where
applicable)-(33) and (34). Where the Director considers it necessary in light of the
type of service being operated, he may require additional information to be
published in the COM.
135.139 Distribution, Availability and Upkeep of the Company Operations Manual
(a) Subject to subsection (c) of this section, an air carrier shall issue a copy of the
appropriate parts of its company operations manual, including any revisions to
those parts, to:
(1) each crew member,
(2) ground operations personnel including maintenance if applicable, and
(3) the Director or his representative/s.
(b) Every person who has been issued a copy of a company operations manual,
whether whole or in part, shall insert all revisions issued to them in accordance with
the revision procedures contained in the manual.
(c) An air carrier may place a copy of its manual in every aircraft in lieu of providing a
copy to all crew members if there is a procedure in place to ensure the timely
insertion of the revisions to that manual.
(d) An air carrier shall maintain a complete copy of its company operations manual at
its main base, and appropriate parts of the manual at each dispatch center.
(e) Each employee who has been issued a company operations manual shall ensure
the appropriate parts of the manual are available and reasonably accessible at his
work station during the performance of their assigned duties.
135.141 Company Maintenance Manual
(a) An air carrier shall establish and maintain a company maintenance manual (CMM)
that meets the requirements of Section 135.379 of this Part.
(b) An air carrier shall submit to the Director for approval, its company maintenance
manual and any amendments to that manual.
(c) Where there is a change in any aspect of the air carrier’s operation, or where the
company maintenance manual no longer meets the requirements of Part 135 of the
CASR, the air carrier shall amend its company maintenance manual.
(d) The Director shall, where the provisions of this Section have been met, approve
those parts of the company maintenance manual, and any amendments to those
parts, that relate to the information required by Section 135.379 of the CASR.
SUBPART G G-5
135.143 Aircraft Operating Manual and Aircraft Flight Manual
(a) An air carrier may establish and maintain an aircraft operating manual for the use
and guidance of crew members in the operation of its aircraft. Such manual may be
carried in lieu of the aircraft flight manual provided the provisions of subsection
(b)(2) of this section is complied with. Every aircraft operating manual required by
this Section shall be approved in accordance with Subsection 135.133(b).
(b) For each of its aircraft that is required to be operated with two or more pilots, an
aircraft operating manual shall contain:
(1) the aircraft manufactures recommended operating procedures, and
(2) where the air carrier elects not to carry the approved aircraft flight manual on
board the aircraft, the aircraft limitations and performance data contained in
the aircraft flight manual must be contain in the Aircraft Operating Manual
(AOM). Such information must be clearly identified as aircraft flight manual
data.
(c) An air carrier that has elected to establish an aircraft operating manual shall ensure
that a copy of the manual is carried on board each aircraft of that type.
(d) Where an air carrier makes any change to the pages or information contained in an
aircraft operating manual, each new page containing company changes must be
identified as a company page.
(e) Where an air carrier elects to insert company pages into its aircraft operating
manual, it shall provide a copy of the manual to DGCA.
135.145 Standard Operating Procedures
(a) Every air carrier shall establish standard operating procedures that ensure the
aircraft is operated in accordance with the approved aircraft flight manual and the
manufactures recommended procedures. Where the aircraft is of a type that is
operated by two or more flight crew members, the standard operating procedures
must ensure proper co-ordination of all crew members including flight attendants.
(b) An air carrier that has established a standard operating procedures manual, shall
ensure it is maintained in a current condition and carried on board each aircraft of
that type.
(c) Where an air carrier elects to incorporate its standard operating procedures into the
aircraft operating manual, it must comply with Subsections (d) and (e) of
Section135.143.
135.147 Rotorcraft/Load Combination Flight Manual
(a) Each air carrier authorized to carry external loads in a helicopter shall publish a
Rotorcraft/Load Combination Flight Manual and submit it to the Director for
approval. The manual must be prepared in accordance with the rotorcraft flight
manual provisions of Subpart G of Part 27 or 29 of the CASRs, whichever is
applicable and shall set forth:
SUBPART G G-6
(1) Operating limitations, procedures (normal and emergency), performance, and

other information established under Subpart J of this part, except that the
limiting height/speed envelope data need not be listed as operating limitations.
(2)The class of rotor/load combinations for which the airworthiness of the rotorcraft
has been demonstrated in accordance with the flight characteristics
requirements laid down in Section 135.219 and, in the information section of
the Rotorcraft/Load Combination Flight Manual:
(3) Information on any peculiarities discovered when operating with particular
rotorcraft/load combinations:
(4) Precautionary advice regarding static electricity discharges for Class B, Class
C, and Class D rotorcraft/load combinations, and
(5) Any other information essential for safe operation with external loads.
SUBPART G G-7
SUBPART H - AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS
This subpart prescribes aircraft requirements for all air carriers operating under this part.
135.153 Aircraft Requirements General
(a) Subject to Subsection (b) of this section, no person shall operate any aircraft under
this part, unless there has been issued with respect to, and carried on board that
aircraft:
(1) a certificate of registration as a civil aircraft, issued by Indonesia,
(2) a valid certificate of airworthiness, or
(3) a document approved by DGCA for the purpose of certifying the airworthiness
of that aircraft,
(4) a current weight and balance document,
(5) a radio licence authorizing all radio apparatus installed in that aircraft, and
(6) any other document deemed appropriate by the Director, which gives
evidence as to the legal or operational status of that aircraft.
(b) The Director may approve an aircraft to be operated under this part without meeting
certain requirements of Subsection (a) of this section provided that:
(1) the aircraft is operated in accordance with a Minimum Equipment List
approved for that aircraft,
(2) the aircraft is the subject of a certificate of airworthiness or equivalent
document issued by a contracting state, or
(3) the aircraft is registered as a civil aircraft in a contracting state.
(c) In determining the acceptability of an aircraft to be operated pursuant to Subsection

(b) of the section, the Director will apply the criteria for leasing or chartering an
aircraft laid down in Section 135.41 of this part.
135.155 Aircraft Certification and Equipment Requirements
(a) Subject to Section 135.157 of this part, no air carrier shall operate an aircraft unless it
meets the applicable performance and equipment requirements contained in this part.
(b) No person shall operate any aircraft under this part that was type certificated by the
country of manufacture after July 1993 unless the aircraft meets the requirements of
Parts 23,25,27 or 29 of the CASRs.
135.157 Requirements for a Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
(a) All certificate holder operate under this part must have an approved Minimum
Equipment List for each type of airplane operated, and:
SUBPART H H-1
(1) An approved MEL must be onboard on airplane

(2) An operations specification authorizing operations in accordance with an
approved Minimum Equipment List has been issued by DGCA.
(3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must:
(i) Be prepared subject to the limitations specified in Sub-section (b) of this
section.
(ii) Provide for the operation of the aircraft with certain instruments and
equipment in an inoperable condition.
(4) Records identifying the inoperable instruments and equipment and the
information required by Paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section must be available to
the pilot.
(5) The aircraft is released and operated in accordance with all applicable
maintenance and operational conditions and limitations contained in the
Minimum Equipment List.
(b) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in the Minimum
Equipment List:
(1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by
the airworthiness requirements under which the aircraft is type certificated and
which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions.
(2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive to be in
operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides otherwise.
(3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by this part.
(c) Notwithstanding Paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(3) of this section, an aircraft with
inoperable instruments or equipment may be operated under a special flight permit
issued pursuant to Sections 21.197 and 21.199 of CASR Part 21.
135.159 Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
(a) Where a Master Minimum Equipment List has been established for an aircraft type
and issued pursuant to the applicable rules of the country of manufacture:
(1) the Director shall accept such MMEL if the country of manufacture is a
contracting state, or
(2) the Director may approve such MMEL if the country of manufacture is not a
contracting state.
(b) Where the country of manufacture has established a Supplemental Document to a

MMEL which has been approved or excepted in accordance with sub-section (a) of
this section, such supplemental document shall be considered to form part of that
Master Minimum Equipment List.
135.161 Aircraft Route Limitations
(a) No air carrier may operate an aircraft over a route that contains a point further than
one hour flying time, in still air at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative,
from an adequate airport, or in the case of a helicopter, an adequate landing area,
unless:
SUBPART H H-2
(1) authorized to do so in the air carrier’s operations specification,

(2) the aircraft is powered by three or more turbine engines,
(3) the aircraft is not certified in the transport category and based on the character
of the terrain, the kind of operation, or the performance of the aircraft to be
used, an emergency landing on an unprepared landing area could be safely
accomplished.
(b) After December 31, 2005 no air carrier may operate a land aeroplane with a
passenger seating configuration of 10 or more seats or turbojet aircraft in an
extended overwater operation unless it is certified or approved as adequate for
ditching under the ditching provisions of Part 25 of the CASRs. In the case of
aircraft certified prior to the enactment of Part 25, the Director may issue operations
specifications that allow deviation from the requirements of this paragraph if
standards of safety allow such a deviation.
135.163 Aircraft Proving Flights
(a) Prior to any new aircraft type being used for the first time in an air transportation
service, or as provided by Subsection (c) of this section, a schedule of proving
flights may be required. In addition to any aircraft certification tests, at least 50
hours of proving flights acceptable to the Director shall be flown. Where the
Director is of the opinion that a satisfactory confidence level has been reached, he
may reduce the number of flight hours accordingly.
(b) Where an air carrier is authorized to conduct special types of flights, the Director
may require proving flights for those kinds of operations. In certain types of
operations, the Director may allow the carriage of passengers where the proving
flights are for procedural verification only.
(c) Unless otherwise authorized by the Director, for each type of aircraft that has been
materially altered in design, an air carrier must, in addition to aircraft certification
tests, conduct proving flights in accordance with Subsection (a) of this section.
(d) Definition of materially altered. For the purposes of Paragraph (c) of this section, a
type of aircraft is considered to be materially altered in design if the alteration
includes:
(1) The installation of powerplants other than those of a type similar to those with
which it is certified: or
(2) Alterations to the aircraft or its components that materially affect flight
characteristics.
(e) Except as provided in Subsection (b), of this section, no air carrier may carry
passengers in an aircraft during proving flights. However, the air carrier may carry
mail, express parcels, or other cargo when approved by the Director.
SUBPART H H-3
SUBPART I - AIRPLANE PERFORMANCE OPERATING LIMITATIONS
This subpart prescribes aircraft performance operating limitations for air carriers
operating under this part.
135.173 General
Any determinations made for the purpose of complying with this sub-part shall be based
on approved performance data set out in the aircraft flight manual.
135.175 Take-off Weight Limitations
(a) No person shall conduct a take-off in an aircraft if the weight of that aircraft exceeds
the maximum take-off weight specified in the aircraft flight manual (AFM) for the
pressure altitude and ambient temperature at the aerodrome where the take-off is to
be made, or
(1) exceeds the maximum allowable landing weight for that aircraft specified in the
AFM taking into consideration, the flight planned fuel burn to the planned
destination or alternate airport, the pressure altitude and ambient temperature
at those airports.
(2) would be unable to comply as applicable, with Section 135.177 and 179 of this
subpart.
(b) In the determination of the maximum take-off weight referred to in sub-section (a) of
this section,
(1) for a small multi-engine aircraft,
(i) subject to sub-section (c) of this section, the required accelerate-stop
distance shall not exceed the accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA)
inclusive of the length of any stopway,
(ii) the all engines operating take-off distance shall not exceed the take-off
distance available (TODA) inclusive of any clearway up to the addition
of one-half the length of the runway, and
(iii) the take-off run shall not exceed the take-off run distance available.
(TORA).
(2) for a large aircraft, subject to sub-section (c),
(i) the required accelerate-stop distance shall not exceed the accelerate-
stop distance available, (ASDA) inclusive of the length of any stopway.
(ii) the required take-off run shall not exceed the take-off run distance
available, (TORA) and
(iii) the required take-off distance shall not exceed the take-off distance
available. (TODA) inclusive of any clearway up to the addition of one-
half the length of the runway.
(3) for a helicopter,
(i) the maximum take off weight specified in the aircraft flight manual taking
into account the ability to jettison the load.
SUBPART I I-1
(c) For the purposes of paragraphs (b), (1)&(2) of this section, the following factors
shall be taken into account:
(1) the pressure altitude at the aerodrome,
(2) ambient temperature,
(3) runway surface type and surface conditions,
(4) runway slope in the direction of take-off, and
(5) not more than 50% of the reported headwind component or not less than
150% of the reported tailwind component.
135.177 Net take-off Path
(a) No person shall conduct a take-off in a large aeroplane if the weight of that
aeroplane is greater than the weight specified in the aircraft flight manual as
allowing a net take-off path that clears all obstacles by at least,
(1) 35 feet vertically, or
(2) 200 feet horizontally within the aerodrome boundaries: and 300 feet
horizontally outside the aerodrome boundaries.
(b) For the purposes of Subsection (a) of this section, corrections for the following
factors shall be made.
(1) the runway to be used,
(2) the pressure altitude at the aerodrome,
(3) ambient temperature,
(4) runway slope in the direction of take-off, and not more than 50% of the
reported headwind component or not less than 150% of the reported tailwind
component.
(c) Calculations shall be based upon a flight profile where:

(1) the wings remain level until the aeroplane reaches 50 feet above ground level,
(2) thereafter, bank angle is limited to 15 degrees until reaching 400 feet above
ground level
(3) thereafter, bank angles shall be a based upon normal turning rates subject to
aircraft speed and configuration limitations.
(d) Where obstacle height and position relative to a take-off path can not be determined
by reference to an approved chart or plan drawing, a take-off may be conducted
provided the criteria and procedures laid down in the ICAO Annex 6, Attachment C,
are complied with.
135.179 Enroute limitations with One Engine Inoperative
(a) No person shall operate a multi-engine aircraft with passengers on board unless in
the event of the loss of any engine, the aircraft is capable of maintaining the
following altitudes:
SUBPART I I-2
(1) when the aircraft is being operated under IFR along airways, or air routes, or
in IMC flight, the minimum enroute altitude for that airway, or air route as
applicable,
(2) when operating in VFR flight, at least 500 feet above the surface.
135.181 Runway Requirements for Destination and Alternate Airports
(a) Subject to subsection (c) of this section, no person shall dispatch, or conduct a
take-off in any turbo-jet-powered, or any large aeroplane, unless the weight of the
aeroplane on landing at the destination or alternate aerodrome will allow a full stop
landing:
(1) in the case of turbo-jet-powered aeroplane, within 60% of the landing distance
available, or
(2) in the case of a propeller-driven aeroplane, within 70% of the landing distance
available.
(b) In determining the maximum allowable weight required by Subsection (a) of this
section, the following considerations shall be taken into account.
(1) the pressure altitude at the destination and alternate aerodromes,
(2) not more than 50% of the reported headwind or not less than 150% of the
reported tail wind component: and
(3) the suitability of the actual runways to be used, based upon expected wind
conditions, ground handling characteristics of the aeroplane and any other
condition which might adversely effect the approach and landing of the
aeroplane.
(c) Where conditions at the destination airport at the time of take-off would not permit a
take-off pursuant to Subsection (a) of this section, the aircraft may be dispatched
and a take-off conducted provided:
(1) at the time of take-off, the alternate aerodrome specified in the operational flight
plan would allow compliance with Subsections (a) and (b) of this section, and
(2) any fuel burn which may be required to reduce the aeroplane landing weight at
the destination, would not preclude the ability for the aeroplane to proceed to
the planned alternate with all required reserve and contingency fuels.
135.183 Landing Distance on Wet Runways
(a) Except where the aircraft flight manual provides specific information on landing
distance on wet runways, no person shall dispatch or conduct a take-off of an
aeroplane where the destination airport, based upon reported and forecast weather
conditions is likely to be wet, unless,
(1) the landing distance available is not less than 115% of the landing distance
required by Section 135.181 of this subpart, or
(2) the landing distance requirements are predicated on the AFM wet runways
data.
SUBPART I I-3
SUBPART J - CARRIAGE OF CARGO
This subpart prescribes the rules for the carriage of cargo for all air carriers operating
under this part.
135.213 Special Airworthiness Requirements
Aircraft utilized under this part for the carriage of cargo, must meet the certification
requirements (or the equivalent) of CASR 21,23, 25, 27 or 29 as appropriate.
135.215 [Reserved]
135.217 Carriage of Cargo in Cargo Compartments
(a) No air carrier shall operate a commuter or transport category aircraft in any cargo or
cargo/passenger combination unless:
(1) the aircraft has been released for flight in accordance with CASR Part 43 for
the configuration the aircraft is being operated in,
(2) the aircraft is operated in accordance with the operational data approved for
that configuration,
(3) the cargo is loaded and secured as applicable, in accordance with CASR Part
91 section 91.525 and
(4) the aircraft is otherwise operated in accordance with this Part.
(b) In the case of a single engine aircraft, the pilot may remove the seats for the
purpose of operating the aircraft in an all cargo, or cargo/passenger configuration
provided:
(1) the provisions of CASR Part 91, section 91.525 are complied with as
applicable, and
(2) a revised weight and balance form is approved for each specific configuration
the aircraft is to be operated in.
135.219 Helicopter Carrying External Cargo Loads
Each air carrier authorized in its operations specifications to carry external loads in a
helicopter shall perform such operations in accordance with the rules laid down in
Subpart C of this Part.
135.221 [Reserved]
SUBPART J J-1
12 January 2012 CASR Part 135 Amdt. 8
SUBPART K - AIRCARFT INSTURMENTS AND EQUIPMENT
This subpart prescribes instrument and equipment requirements for all air carriers
operating under this Part, except where noted.
135.303 Instruments and Equipment
(a) Instruments and equipment required by this Subpart must be approved and installed
in accordance with the airworthiness requirements applicable to them.
(b) Each airspeed indicator must be calibrated in knots or miles per hour as determined
by the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM), and each airspeed limitation and item of
related information in the AFM and pertinent placards must be expressed in knots or
miles per hour as applicable.
(c) Except as in accordance with an approved MEL, no person may takeoff any
aeroplane unless the following instruments and equipment are installed and in
operable condition:
(1) instruments and equipment required to comply with airworthiness
requirements under which the aeroplane is type certificated, and
(2) instruments and equipment specified in this Subpart as applicable to the type
of aircraft and operation being flown.
(d) Any instrument or equipment required by this Subpart which has been given a
compliance date, shall be installed on or before the dates indicated by the
respective sections.
135.305 Flight and Navigation Equipment for IFR
(a) No person may operate an aeroplane under the instrument flight rules unless it is
equipped with the following flight and navigational instruments and equipment:
(1) 2 Independent airspeed indicating systems with heated pitot tubes or
equivalent means for preventing malfunctioning due to icing,
(2) 2 independent sensitive altimeter systems,
(3) a sweep-second hand clock (or approved equivalent),
(4) a free air temperature indicator,
(5) a gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator (artificial horizon),
(6) a gyroscopic rate of turn indicator combined with an integral slip/skid indicator
(turn and bank indicator) except that only a slip/skid indicator is required when
a third attitude instrument system usable through 360° of pitch and roll is
installed in accordance with paragraph (10) of this section,
(7) a gyroscopic direction indicator (directional gyro or equivalent),
(8) a magnetic compass,
SUBPART K K-1
(9) a vertical speed indicator (rate of climb indicator),

(10) on each turbo jet and turbo propeller powered aeroplane two gyroscopic bank
and pitch indicators (artificial horizons) for use at the pilot stations. In addition,
for turbo jet powered airplanes a third such instrument that complies with the
provisions of Paragraph (11) of this section, and
(11) when required by Paragraph (10) of this section, a third gyroscopic bank and
pitch indicator (artificial horizon) that:
(i) is powered from a source independent of the electrical generating
system,
(ii) continues reliable operation for a minimum of 30 minutes after total
failure of the electrical generating system,
(iii) operates independently of any other attitude indicating system:
(iv) is operative without selection after total failure of the electrical
generating system,
(v) is located on the instrument panel in a position acceptable to the
Director that will make it plainly visible to and usable by each pilot at his
or her station, and
(vi) is appropriately lighted during all phases of operation.
135.306 Portable electronic devices
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate, nor may
any operator or pilot in command of an aircraft allow the operation of, any portable
electronic device on any Republic of Indonesia-registered civil aircraft operating
under this Part.
(b) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to—
(1) Portable voice recorders;
(2) Hearing aids;
(3) Heart pacemakers;
(4) Electric shavers; or
(5) Any other portable electronic device that certificate holder has determined will not
cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on
which it is to be used.
(c) The determination required by paragraph (b)(5) of this section shall be made by that
certificate holder operating the particular device to be used.
135.307 Instruments and Equipment for Night Operations
(a) No person shall operate an aeroplane at night unless, in addition to the instruments
and equipment required by this Subpart, it is equipped with the following approved
illumination systems:
(1) position lights,
SUBPART K K-2
(2) not less than one anti-collision light,

(3) two landing lights,
(4) instrument lights providing sufficient illumination to each required instrument,
switch, or similar control device, and
(5) a means of cockpit illumination adequate to facilitate reading any document,
checklist, map or approach plate, without creating a reflective glare which
could impede the pilot’s night vision within or outside the aircraft,
(6) a flashlight, and
(7) any other illumination device required by the AFM or type certificate, to
facilitate the operation of any aircraft normal or emergency system, during
official hours of darkness.
135.309 Radio Equipment for IFR Operations
(a) Except as provided by Section 135.321 of this subpart, no person may operate an
aircraft under IFR operations, unless it has at least the following radio
communication and navigational equipment:
(1) two transmitters,
(2) two microphones,
(3) two headsets or one headset and one speaker,
(4) a marker beacon receiver,
(5) two independent receivers for navigation, and
(6) two independent receivers for communications.
(b) The radio equipment required by this section must be appropriate to the facilities
upon which the flight is based and capable of transmitting to, and receiving from at
least one ground facility, from any place along the planned route.
(c) For the purpose of Subsections (a)(1) and (2) of this section, a receiver is
considered independent if its serviceability does not depend on the functioning of
any part of another receiver or associated instrument.
(d) For the purpose of this Section, a navigation receiver shall be taken to mean any
navigation instrument or system associated with that receiver. The combination of
navigation receivers must be such that the failure of any one system will not render
an aircraft incapable of navigation to its designation or a suitable alternate.
135.311 Radio Equipment for VFR Operations
(a) No person shall operate any aircraft under VFR unless it is equipped with
communication radio equipment adequate to ensure:
(1) the pilot in command is capable of maintaining a listening watch appropriate to
the aircraft position with respect to classes of airspace,
(2) the pilot in command is able to communicate with the appropriate air traffic
control unit as applicable,
SUBPART K K-3
(3) the pilot in command is able to meet all communication requirements of the air
carriers approved flight watch or flight following system, and
(4) the pilot in command would be able to transmit a distress or urgency message
on at least one emergency frequency.
(b) No person shall operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with adequate navigational
radio equipment to ensure reception as appropriate, of the navigational facilities
upon which any portion of the flight was planned.
135.313 Specialized Navigation Equipment
(a) No air carrier shall operate an aircraft under the instrument flight rules, when its
position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour, unless the aircraft
is equipped with a specialized means of navigation. Such specialized equipment
must be capable of providing a reliable determination of the aircraft position by each
pilot seated at his or her assigned crew station.
(b) No air carrier shall operate an aircraft using Doppler Radar, Inertial Navigation
Systems or any other specialized means of navigation unless such systems have
been approved in accordance with Procedures acceptable to the DGCA. Such
procedures must include dispatch and in-flight operational policies.
(c) Notwithstanding Subsection (a) of this section, the Director may require special
navigation equipment to be utilized on flights of 1 hour or less where he believes
specialized equipment is required for safety reasons. In making this determination,
the Director considers:
(1) The speed of the aeroplane:
(2) Normal weather conditions enroute:
(3) Extent of air traffic control:
(4) Traffic congestion:
(5) Area of navigational radio coverage at destination:
(6) Fuel requirements:
(7) Fuel available for return to point of departure or alternates:
(8) Predication of flight upon operation beyond the point of no return: and
(9) Any other factors he determines are relevant in the interest of safety.
(d) Operations where special navigation equipment is required are specified in the
operations specifications of the operator.
135.315 Weather Radar and Thunderstorm Detection Equipment
(a) After March 31, 2003 no air carrier may operate a turbojet aeroplane or any
aeroplane in passenger carrying operations unless:
(1) the aircraft is equipped with an approved serviceable weather radar or
thunderstorm detection equipment,
SUBPART K K-4
(2) the aircraft is operating under day VFR, and in the case of a turbo jet
aeroplane, there are no reported or forecasted thunderstorms or hazardous
weather expected along the planned route including arrival airports.
(b) No person shall commence a flight under the instrument flight rules or night VFR
when current weather reports or forecasts indicate that thunderstorms or other
detectable hazardous weather conditions may be expected along the route unless:
(1) the radar or detection equipment is in satisfactory operating condition, and
(2) should the airborne weather radar or thunderstorm detection equipment
becomes inoperative enroute, the aircraft must be operated in accordance with
the procedures approved for hazardous weather avoidance.
135.317 Engine Instruments and Indicators
(a) Except as may be required by the Director, no person may operate any piston
powered, transport category aeroplane under this part without the following engine
instruments and indicators:
(1) A carburetor air temperature indicator for each engine,
(2) A cylinder head temperature indicator for each air cooled engine,
(3) A fuel pressure indicator for each engine,
(4) A fuel flowmeter or fuel mixture indicator for each engine not equipped with an
automatic altitude mixture control,
(5) A means for indicating fuel quantity in each fuel tank to be used,
(6) A manifold pressure indicator for each engine,
(7) An oil pressure indicator for each engine,
(8) An oil quantity indicator for each oil tank when a transfer or separate oil
reserve supply is used,
(9) An oil in temperature indicator for each engine,
(10) A tachometer for each engine,
(11) An independent fuel pressure warning device for each engine or a master
warning device for all engines with a means for isolating the individual warning
circuits from the master warning device,
(12) A device for each reversible propeller, to indicate to the pilot when the
propeller is in reverse pitch, that complies with the following:
(i) The device may be actuated at any point in the reversing cycle between
the normal low pitch stop position and full reverse pitch, but it may not
give an indication at or above the normal low pitch stop position, and
(ii) The source of indication must be actuated by the propeller blade angle
or be directly responsive to it.
135.319 Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)
(a) No person may operate any turbine-powered aeroplane for which the
individual certificate of airworthiness is first issued on or after January 1, 1987 and
maximum certificated take off mass of over 5.700 kg (12.500 lbs), or is authorized
SUBPART K K-5
to carry 10 passengers or more unless it is equipped with a Ground Proximity

Warning System (GPWS).
(b) An aeroplane for which the individual certificate of airworthiness is first issued
before January 1, 1987 and with the maximum certificated take off mass of over
5.700 kg (12.500 lbs), or is authorized to carry 10 passengers or more may conduct
flight without a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) under the following
conditions:
(1) Comply with the Visual Flight Rules (VFR) during flight from point of
departure to the point of destination where both points are located in a
mountainous area.
(2) Applicable only for domestic flights. International flight approval is required
from local authorities prior to flight
(3) Must have an established Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) to conduct
operation without GPWS installed.
(c) For a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) required by this section, the
Airplane Flight Manual shall contain
(1) Appropriate procedures for
(i) The use of the equipment;
(ii) Proper flight crew action with respect to the equipment; and
(iii) Deactivation for planned abnormal and emergency conditions; and
(2) An outline of all input sources that must be operating.
(d) No person may deactivate a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) required
by this section except under procedures in the Airplane Flight Manual.
(e) Whenever a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) required by this section
is deactivated, an entry shall be made in the airplane maintenance record that
includes the date and time of deactivation.
(f) Requirements set forth in Sub-Part K point 135.319(a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) exempted
for aircraft Bell 412 SP, Bell 412 EP, CASA 212-100 and SD3-30 which has been
registered and operating in Indonesia.
(g) Requirements set forth in Sub-Part K point 135.319 for aircraft DHC 6-300 and
CASA 212-200, which has been registered and operating in Indonesia, pending its
application no later than December 31, 2012.
SUBPART K K-6
135.320 Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS)
(a) (1) No person may operate a turbine-powered aeroplane configured with 10 or more
passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, after November 30, 2009, unless that
aeroplane is equipped with an approved Terrain Awareness and Warning System
(TAWS) that meets the requirements for Class A equipment in the FAA Technical
Standard Order (TSO)–C151 or its equivalent. The aeroplane must also include an
approved terrain situational awareness display.
(2) No person may operate a turbine-powered aeroplane configured with 6 to 9

passenger seats, excluding any pilot seat, after November 30, 2009, unless that
aeroplane is equipped with an approved Terrain Awareness and Warning System
(TAWS) that meets as a minimum the requirements for Class B equipment in the
FAA Technical Standard Order (TSO)–C151 or its equivalent.
(b) [Reserved]
(c) Aeroplane Flight Manual.
The aeroplane Flight Manual shall contain appropriate procedures for—
(1) The use of the Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS); and
(2) Proper flight crew reaction in response to the Terrain Awareness and Warning
System (TAWS) audio and visual warnings.
(d) Requirements set forth in Sub-Part K point 135.320(a) and (c) exempted for aircraft
Bell 412 SP, Bell 412 EP, CASA 212-100 and SD3-30 which has been registered
and operating in Indonesia.
(e) Requirements set forth in Sub-Part K point 135.320 for aircraft DHC 6-300 and
135.321 Miscellaneous Equipment and Spares
Except as authorized by an approved MEL, no person may conduct a take-off from an

originating point unless the following equipment is installed and serviceable in the
aeroplane:
(a) where protective fuses and changeable light bulbs are installed on an aeroplane,
not less than:
(1) two spare fuses for each type and rating used and accessible from the cockpit,
and
(2) two spare light bulbs of a type and rating used by the essential instruments or
gauges located within the cockpit including at least one spare flood light bulb.
(3) Sufficient spare fuses and light bulbs to ensure any flight attendant station is
adequately lighted to enable such station or control panel to be readily useable.
(b) in the case of a large aircraft, a windshield wiper or equivalent for each pilot station.
SUBPART K K-7
(c) in the case of an aircraft certified under CASR Part 25, a power supply and
distribution system that meets the requirements of Sections 25.1309, 25.1331,
25.1351(a) and (b)(1) through (4), 25.1353, 25.1355, and 25.1431(b) or that is able
to produce and distribute the load for the required instruments and equipment, with
use of an external power supply if any one power source or component of the power
distribution system fails. The use of common elements in the system may be
approved if the Director finds that they are designed to be reasonably protected
against malfunctioning. Engine driven sources of energy, when used, must be on
separate engines.
(d) a means for indicating the adequacy of the power being supplied to required flight
instruments.
(e) where the aircraft is operated at night or IFR, two independent static pressure
systems, vented to the outside atmospheric pressure so that they will be least
affected by airflow variation or moisture or other foreign matter, and installed so as
to be airtight except for the vent. When a means is provided for transferring an
instrument from its primary operating system to an alternate system, the means
must include a positive positioning control and must be marked to indicate clearly
which system is being used.
(f) for large aircraft, a door between the passenger and pilot compartments, with a
locking means to prevent passengers from opening it without the pilot's permission.
(g) a key for each door that separates a passenger compartment from another
compartment that has emergency exit provisions. The key must be readily available
for each crewmember.
(h) a placard on each door that is the means of access to a required passenger
emergency exit, to indicate that it must be open during takeoff and landing.
(i) a means for the crew, in an emergency to unlock each door that leads to a
compartment that is normally accessible to passengers and that can be locked by
passengers.
135.322 Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)
(a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Director General after November 30, 2009, no
person may operate a turbine powered aeroplane that has a passenger seat
configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 to 30 seats unless it is equipped with an
approved Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS). If a TCAS II system
is installed, it must be capable of coordinating with TCAS units that meet FAA TSO
C–119 or its equivalent.
(b) The aeroplane flight manual required by 135.143 of this part shall contain the
following information on the TCAS I system required by this section:
(1) Appropriate procedures for—
(i) The use of the equipment; and
(ii) Proper flightcrew action with respect to the equipment operation.
(2) An outline of all input sources that must be operating for the TCAS to function
properly.
SUBPART K K-8
(c) Requirements set forth in Sub-Part K point 135.322(a) and (b) exempted for aircraft
Bell 412 SP, Bell 412 EP, CASA 212-100 and SD3-30 which has been registered
and operating in Indonesia.
(d) Requirements set forth in Sub-Part K point 135.322 for aircraft DHC 6-300 and
135.323 Equipment for Operations in Icing Conditions
(a) Except for aircraft certified under CASR Part 25 or an equivalent airworthiness
standard relating to ice protection, no person shall operate an aeroplane into
known, forecast, or actual icing conditions unless:
(1) the aeroplane is certified for flight into known icing conditions, and
(2) is equipped with means for the prevention or removal of ice on the
windshields, wings, empennage, propellers, and other parts of the aeroplane
where ice formation will adversely affect the safety of the aeroplane,
(b) No person may operate an aeroplane into known, forecast, or actual icing
conditions at night unless means are provided for illuminating or otherwise
determining the formation of ice on the parts of the wings that are critical from the
standpoint of ice accumulation. Any illuminating that is used must be of a type that
will not cause glare or reflection that would handicap crewmembers in the
performance of their duties.
(c) No person may release a helicopter, continue to operate a helicopter en route, or
land a helicopter, if in the opinion of the pilot in command or the operator, icing
condition are expected or met that might adversely affect the safety of flight.
135.325 Pitot Heat Indication Systems
No person may operate a turbojet aeroplane, or after December 31, 2000, any
aeroplane that has a passenger seating configuration of 20 or more seats unless the
aeroplane is also equipped with an operable pitot heat indication system that complies
with Section 25.1326 of the CASRs
135.327 Cockpit Voice Recorders
(a) After March 31, 2004 no air carrier may operate a turbojet or turbine-powered
aircraft having a passenger seating capacity of nine or more and for which two pilots
are required by the certification or operating rules unless:
(1) There is installed in that aircraft, an approved Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR), and
(2) Is continuously operable from a time no later than, the start of the first engine,
until the shut down of the last engine at the end of flight.
135.329 Flight Data Recorder
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (k) of this section, no person may operate under
this part a multi-engine, turbine-engine powered aeroplane or rotorcraft having a
SUBPART K K-9
passenger seating configuration, excluding any required crewmember seat, of 10 to

19 seats, that was either brought onto the Republic of Indonesia register, or was
registered outside the Republic of Indonesia and added to the operator's Republic
of Indonesia operations specifications after, August 31, 2009, unless it is equipped
with one or more approved flight recorders that use a digital method of recording and
storing data and a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium.
The parameters specified in either Appendix B or C of this part, as applicable must
be recorded within the range, accuracy, resolution, and recording intervals as
specified. The recorder shall retain no less than 25 hours of aircraft operation.
(b) After August 31, 2009, no person may operate a multiengine, turbine-powered
aeroplane having a passenger seating configuration of 20 to 30 seats or a
multiengine, turbine-powered rotorcraft having a passenger seating configuration of
20 or more seats unless it is equipped with one or more approved flight recorders
that utilize a digital method of recording and storing data, and a method of readily
retrieving that data from the storage medium. The parameters in appendix D or E of
this part, as applicable, that are set forth below, must be recorded within the ranges,
accuracies, resolutions, and sampling intervals as specified.
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section for aircraft type certificated
before October 1, 1969, the following parameters must be recorded:
(i) Time;
(ii) Altitude;
(iii) Airspeed;
(iv) Vertical acceleration;
(v) Heading;
(vi) Time of each radio transmission to or from air traffic control;
(vii) Pitch attitude;
(viii) Roll attitude;
(ix) Longitudinal acceleration;
(x) Control column or pitch control surface position; and
(xi) Thrust of each engine.
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section for aircraft type certificated
after September 30, 1969, the following parameters must be recorded:
(i) Time;
(ii) Altitude;
(iii) Airspeed;
SUBPART K K - 10
(iv) Vertical acceleration;
(v) Heading;
(vi) Time of each radio transmission either to or from air traffic control;
(vii) Pitch attitude;
(viii) Roll attitude;
(ix) Longitudinal acceleration;
(x) Pitch trim position;
(xi) Control column or pitch control surface position;
(xii) Control wheel or lateral control surface position;
(xiii) Rudder pedal or yaw control surface position;
(xiv) Thrust of each engine;
(xv) Position of each thrust reverser;
(xvi) Trailing edge flap or cockpit flap control position; and
(xvii) Leading edge flap or cockpit flap control position.
(3) For aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991, all of the parameters listed in
appendix D or E of this part, as applicable, must be recorded.
(c) Whenever a flight recorder required by this section is installed, it must be operated
continuously from the instant the aeroplane begins the takeoff roll or the rotorcraft
begins the lift-off until the aeroplane has completed the landing roll or the rotorcraft
has landed at its destination.
(d) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, and except for recorded data
erased as authorized in this paragraph, each certificate holder shall keep the
recorded data prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section until the aircraft has been
operating for at least 25 hours of the operating time specified in paragraph (c) of this
section. In addition, each certificate holder shall keep the recorded data prescribed
in paragraph (b) of this section for an aeroplane until the aeroplane has been
operating for at least 25 hours, and for a rotorcraft until the rotorcraft has been
operating for at least 10 hours, of the operating time specified in paragraph (c) of this
section. A total of 1 hour of recorded data may be erased for the purpose of testing
the flight recorder or the flight recorder system. Any erasure made in accordance
with this paragraph must be of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of
testing. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no record need be kept
more than 60 days.
(e) In the event of an accident or occurrence that requires the immediate notification of
the National Transportation Safety Committee (NTSC) under CASR Part 830 and
SUBPART K K - 11
that results in termination of the flight, the certificate holder shall remove the
recording media from the aircraft and keep the recorded data required by
paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section for at least 60 days or for a longer period upon
request of the Committee or the DGCA.
(f) (1) For aeroplanes manufactured on or before August 18, 2000, and all other
aircraft, each flight recorder required by this section must be installed in accordance
with the requirements of 23.1459, 25.1459, 27.1459, or 29.1459, as appropriate, of
the CASR. The correlation required by paragraph (c) of sections 23.1459, 25.1459,
27.1459, or 29.1459, as appropriate, of the CASR need be established only on one
aircraft of a group of aircraft:
(i) That are of the same type;
(ii) On which the flight recorder models and their installations are the same; and
(iii) On which there are no differences in the type designs with respect to the
installation of the first pilot's instruments associated with the flight recorder. The
most recent instrument calibration, including the recording medium from which this
calibration is derived, and the recorder correlation must be retained by the certificate
holder.
(2) For aeroplanes manufactured after August 18, 2000, each flight data recorder
system required by this section must be installed in accordance with the
requirements of 23.1459 (a), (b), (d) and (e), or 25.1459 (a), (b), (d), and (e) of the
CASR. A correlation must be established between the values recorded by the flight
data recorder and the corresponding values being measured. The correlation must
contain a sufficient number of correlation points to accurately establish the
conversion from the recorded values to engineering units or discrete state over the
full operating range of the parameter. Except for aeroplanes having separate altitude
and airspeed sensors that are an integral part of the flight data recorder system, a
single correlation may be established for any group of aeroplanes—
(i) That are of the same type;
(ii) On which the flight recorder system and its installation are the same; and
(iii) On which there is no difference in the type design with respect to the installation
of those sensors associated with the flight data recorder system. Documentation
sufficient to convert recorded data into the engineering units and discrete values
specified in the applicable appendix must be maintained by the certificate holder.
(g) Each flight recorder required by this section that records the data specified in
paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must have an approved device to assist in
locating that recorder under water.
(h) The operational parameters required to be recorded by digital flight data recorders
required by paragraphs (i) and (j) of this section are as follows, the phrase “when an
information source is installed” following a parameter indicates that recording of that
parameter is not intended to require a change in installed equipment.
(1) Time;
SUBPART K K - 12
(2) Pressure altitude;
(3) Indicated airspeed;
(4) Heading—primary flight crew reference (if selectable, record discrete, true or
magnetic);
(5) Normal acceleration (Vertical);
(6) Pitch attitude;
(7) Roll attitude;
(8) Manual radio transmitter keying, or CVR/DFDR synchronization reference;
(9) Thrust/power of each engine—primary flight crew reference;
(10) Autopilot engagement status;
(11) Longitudinal acceleration;
(12) Pitch control input;
(13) Lateral control input;
(14) Rudder pedal input;
(15) Primary pitch control surface position;
(16) Primary lateral control surface position;
(17) Primary yaw control surface position;
(18) Lateral acceleration;
(19) Pitch trim surface position or parameters of paragraph (h)(82) of this section if
currently recorded;
(20) Trailing edge flap or cockpit flap control selection (except when parameters of
paragraph (h)(85) of this section apply);
(21) Leading edge flap or cockpit flap control selection (except when parameters of
(22) Each Thrust reverser position (or equivalent for propeller aeroplane);
(23) Ground spoiler position or speed brake selection (except when parameters of
(24) Outside or total air temperature;
SUBPART K K - 13
(25) Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) modes and engagement status,
including autothrottle;
(26) Radio altitude (when an information source is installed);
(27) Localizer deviation, MLS Azimuth;
(28) Glideslope deviation, MLS Elevation;
(29) Marker beacon passage;
(30) Master warning;
(31) Air/ground sensor (primary aeroplane system reference nose or main gear);
(32) Angle of attack (when information source is installed);
(33) Hydraulic pressure low (each system);
(34) Ground speed (when an information source is installed);
(35) Ground proximity warning system;
(36) Landing gear position or landing gear cockpit control selection;
(37) Drift angle (when an information source is installed);
(38) Wind speed and direction (when an information source is installed);
(39) Latitude and longitude (when an information source is installed);
(40) Stick shaker/pusher (when an information source is installed);
(41) Windshear (when an information source is installed);
(42) Throttle/power lever position;
(43) Additional engine parameters (as designated in appendix F of this part);
(44) Traffic alert and collision avoidance system;
(45) DME 1 and 2 distances;
(46) Nav 1 and 2 selected frequency;
(47) Selected barometric setting (when an information source is installed);
(48) Selected altitude (when an information source is installed);
(49) Selected speed (when an information source is installed);
(50) Selected mach (when an information source is installed);
SUBPART K K - 14
(51) Selected vertical speed (when an information source is installed);
(52) Selected heading (when an information source is installed);
(53) Selected flight path (when an information source is installed);
(54) Selected decision height (when an information source is installed);
(55) EFIS display format;
(56) Multi-function/engine/alerts display format;
(57) Thrust command (when an information source is installed);
(58) Thrust target (when an information source is installed);
(59) Fuel quantity in CG trim tank (when an information source is installed);
(60) Primary Navigation System Reference;
(61) Icing (when an information source is installed);
(62) Engine warning each engine vibration (when an information source is installed);
(63) Engine warning each engine over temp. (when an information source is
installed);
(64) Engine warning each engine oil pressure low (when an information source is
installed);
(65) Engine warning each engine over speed (when an information source is
installed;
(66) Yaw trim surface position;
(67) Roll trim surface position;
(68) Brake pressure (selected system);
(69) Brake pedal application (left and right);
(70) Yaw or sideslip angle (when an information source is installed);
(71) Engine bleed valve position (when an information source is installed);
(72) De-icing or anti-icing system selection (when an information source is installed);
(73) Computed center of gravity (when an information source is installed);
(74) AC electrical bus status;
(75) DC electrical bus status;
SUBPART K K - 15
(76) APU bleed valve position (when an information source is installed);
(77) Hydraulic pressure (each system);
(78) Loss of cabin pressure;
(79) Computer failure;
(80) Heads-up display (when an information source is installed);
(81) Para-visual display (when an information source is installed);
(82) Cockpit trim control input position—pitch;
(83) Cockpit trim control input position—roll;
(84) Cockpit trim control input position—yaw;
(85) Trailing edge flap and cockpit flap control position;
(86) Leading edge flap and cockpit flap control position;
(87) Ground spoiler position and speed brake selection; and
(88) All cockpit flight control input forces (control wheel, control column, rudder
pedal).
(i) For all turbine-engine powered aeroplanes with a seating configuration, excluding
any required crewmember seat, of 10 to 30 passenger seats, manufactured after
August 18, 2000—
(1) The parameters listed in paragraphs (h)(1) through (h)(57) of this section must be
recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and recording intervals
specified in Appendix F of this part.
(2) Commensurate with the capacity of the recording system, all additional
parameters for which information sources are installed and which are connected
to the recording system must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies,
resolutions, and sampling intervals specified in Appendix F of this part.
(j) For all turbine-engine-powered aeroplanes with a seating configuration, excluding

any required crewmember seat, of 10 to 30 passenger seats, that are manufactured
after August 19, 2002 the parameters listed in paragraph (a)(1) through (a)(88) of
this section must be recorded within the ranges, accuracies, resolutions, and
recording intervals specified in Appendix F of this part.
(k) For aircraft manufactured before August 18, 1997, the following aircraft types need
not comply with this section: Bell 212, Bell 214ST, Bell 412, Bell 412SP, Boeing
Chinook (BV–234), Boeing/Kawasaki Vertol 107 (BV/KV–107–II), deHavilland
DHC–6, Eurocopter Puma 330J, Sikorsky 58, Sikorsky 61N, Sikorsky 76A.
SUBPART K K - 16
(l) Requirements set forth in Sub-Part K point 135.329(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h), (i)
and (j) exempted for aircraft Bell 412 SP, Bell 412 EP, CASA 212-100 and SD3-30
which has been registered and operating in Indonesia.
(m) Requirements set forth in Sub-Part K point 135.329 for aircraft DHC 6-300 and
135.331 Public Address System
(a) No person may operate an aircraft with a seating capacity of more than 19
passengers unless it is equipped with a public address system which:
(1) is capable of operation independent of the crewmember interphone system except
for handsets, headsets, microphones, selector switches, and signalling devices,
(2) is approved in accordance with Section 21.305 of the CASRs:
(3) is accessible for immediate use from each of two flight crewmember stations in
the pilot compartment,
(4) is audible at all passenger seats, lavatories, and flight attendant seats and
work stations: and
(5) for transport category airplanes manufactured on or after December 1996,
meets the requirements of Section 25.1423 of the CASRs.
(b) Each aircraft with a cabin certified for more than 19 passenger seats must have
available at each required floor level emergency exit, a public address system
microphone which:
(1) is readily accessible to each flight attendant while seated in any flight
attendant seat adjacent to such exit,
(2) is capable of operation within 10 seconds by a flight attendant at each required
flight attendant station required by this Subsection, and in the passenger
compartment from which its use is accessible:
135.333 Crewmember Interphone System
(a) No person may operate an aircraft with a seating capacity of more than 19
passengers unless the aeroplane is equipped with a crewmember interphone
system that:
(1) is capable of operation independent of the public address system except for
handsets, headsets, microphones, selector switches, and signaling devices:
and
(2) meets the requirements of Paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) The crewmember interphone system required by Paragraph (a) of this section must
be approved in accordance with Section 21.305 of the CASRs and meet the
following requirements:
(1) it must provide a means of two-way communication between the pilot
compartment, and
(i) each passenger compartment: and
(ii) each galley located on other than the main passenger deck level.
SUBPART K K - 17
(2) it must be accessible for immediate use from each of two flight crewmember
stations in the pilot compartment:
(3) it must be accessible for use from at least one normal flight attendant station in
each passenger compartment:
(4) it must be capable of operation within 10 seconds by a flight attendant at those
stations in each passenger compartment from which its use is accessible: and
(5) for large turbojet powered airplanes:
(i) it must be accessible for use at enough flight attendant stations so that
all floor-level emergency exits (or entryways to those exits in the case of
exits located within galleys) in each passenger compartment are
observable from one or more of those stations so equipped:
(ii) it must have an alerting system incorporating aural or visual signals for
use by flight crewmembers to alert flight attendants and for use by flight
attendants to alert flight crewmembers:
(iii) the alerting system required by Paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section must
have a means for the recipient of a call to determine whether it is a
normal call or an emergency call: and
(iv) when the aeroplane is on the ground, it must provide a means of two-way
communication between ground personnel and either of at least two flight
crewmembers in the pilot compartment. The interphone system station
for use by ground personnel must be so located that personnel using the
system may avoid visible detection from within the aeroplane.
135.335 Supplemental Oxygen for Piston Powered, Unpressurized A/C
(a) General. No person may operate an aeroplane unless supplemental oxygen is

furnished and used as set forth in Paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. The
amount of supplemental oxygen required for a particular operation is determined on
the basis of flight altitudes and flight duration, consistent with the operational
procedures established for each operation and route.
(b) Crewmembers.
(1) No person may act as a crewmember of an aircraft operated at cabin pressure
altitudes between 10,000 and 12,000 feet ASL inclusive, for more than 30
minutes duration unless supplemental oxygen is provided for and used by
such crewmember.
(2) Oxygen must be provided and used by each crewmember assigned to duty
onboard an aircraft during flight time where the cabin pressure altitudes are
above 12,000 feet ASL.
(3) When a flight crewmember is required to use oxygen, he must use it
continuously, except when necessary to remove the oxygen mask or other
dispenser in connection with his regular duties or physiological needs.
(4) For the purposes of this part, standby crewmembers who have been
scheduled for duty onboard that aircraft at any point during the flight time shall
comply with this Subsection.
(c) Passengers. Each air carrier shall provide a supply of oxygen, approved for
passenger safety, in accordance with the following:
SUBPART K K - 18
(1) For flights of more than 30 minutes duration at cabin pressure altitudes above
8,000 feet up to and including 14,000 feet, enough oxygen for 30 minutes for
10 percent of the passengers.
(2) For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet up to and including
15,000 feet, enough oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes for 30
percent of the passengers.
(3) For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet, enough oxygen for
each passenger carried during the entire flight at those altitudes.
135.337 Supplemental Oxygen for Piston-Powered, Pressurized Aircraft
(a) When operating a reciprocating engine powered aeroplane pressurized cabin, each
air carrier shall equip the aeroplane to comply with Paragraphs (b) through (d) of
this section in the event of cabin pressurization failure.
(b) For crewmembers. When operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet, each
crewmember must have sufficient oxygen for the entire flight at those altitudes and
not less than a two hour supply for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty. The
required two hours supply of oxygen shall be determined by assuming a constant
rate of descent from the airplane's maximum certified operating altitude, to 10,000
feet in ten minutes and thereafter for 110 minutes at 10,000 feet.
(c) For passengers. When operating at flight altitudes above 8,000 feet, the air carrier
shall provide oxygen as follows:
(1) When an aeroplane is not flown at a flight altitude above flight level 250,
enough oxygen for 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers, if at any point
along the route to be flown the aeroplane can safely descend to a flight
altitude of 14,000 feet or less within four minutes.
(2) If the aeroplane cannot descend to a flight altitude of 14,000 feet or less within
four minutes, the following supply of oxygen must be provided:
(i) For that part of the flight that is more than four minutes duration at flight
altitudes above 15,000 feet, the supply required by Section
135.339(c)(3).
(ii) For that part of the flight at flight altitudes above 14,000 feet, up to and
including 15,000 feet, the supply required by Section 135.339(c)(2).
(iii) For flight at flight altitudes above 8,000 feet up to and including 14,000
feet, enough oxygen for 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers.
(3) When an aeroplane is flown at a flight altitude above flight level 250, enough
oxygen for 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers for the entire flight
(including emergency descent) above 8,000 feet, up to and including 14,000 feet,
and to comply with Section 135.339(c)(2) and (3) for flight above 14,000 feet.
(d) For the purposes of this section it is assumed that the cabin pressurization failure
occurs at a time during flight that is critical from the standpoint of oxygen need and
that after the failure the aeroplane will descend, without exceeding its normal
operating limitations, to flight altitudes allowing safe flight with respect to terrain
clearance.
SUBPART K K - 19
135.339 Supplemental Oxygen for Turbine Powered, Pressurized A/C
(a) General. When operating a turbine engine powered aeroplane, each air carrier shall
equip the aeroplane with supplemental oxygen and dispensing equipment for use
as set forth in this section:
(1) The amount of oxygen provided must be sufficient to comply with Paragraphs
(b) and (c) of this section.
(2) The amount of supplemental and first aid oxygen required by this section is
determined on the basis of cabin altitudes and flight duration, consistent with
aircraft operational and route limitations.
(3) In making such calculations it must be assumed that loss of cabin pressure will
occur at the most critical point during the flight in terms of altitude and position.
It must also be assumed the immediately after the loss of pressure, the
aeroplane will descend in accordance with the emergency procedures
specified in the Airplane Flight Manual, to a flight altitude that will allow
successful termination of the flight.
(b) Crewmembers.
(1) No person may act as a crewmember of an aircraft operated at cabin pressure
altitudes between 10,000 and 12,000 feet ASL inclusive, for more than 30
minutes duration unless supplemental oxygen is provided for and used by
such crewmember.
(2) Oxygen must be provided and used by each crewmember assigned to duty
onboard an aircraft during flight time where the cabin pressure altitudes are
above 12,000 feet ASL.
(3) When a flight crewmember is required to use oxygen, he must use it
continuously, except when necessary to remove the oxygen mask or other
dispenser in connection with his regular duties or physiological needs.
(4) For the purposes of this Subpart, standby crewmembers who have been
scheduled for duty on board that aircraft at any point during the flight time,
shall comply with this Subsection.
(c) Passengers. Each air carrier shall provide a supply of oxygen for passengers in
accordance with the following:
(1) For flights at cabin altitudes between 10,000 feet, and 14,000 feet inclusive,
sufficient oxygen for 10 percent of the passengers for that part of the flight
flown at such altitudes for more than 30 minutes duration.
(2) For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet, up to and including
15,000 feet, enough oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes for 30
percent of the passengers.
(3) For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet, enough oxygen for
each passenger carried during the entire flight at those altitudes.
135.341 Supplemental Oxygen for Emergency Descent and First Aid
(a) General. When operating a turbine engine powered aeroplane with a pressurized
cabin, the air carrier shall furnish oxygen and dispensing equipment to comply with
Paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section in the event of the loss of cabin pressure.
SUBPART K K - 20
(b) Crewmembers. When operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet, the air carrier
shall supply enough oxygen to comply with Section 135.339, but not less than a two
hour supply for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty. The required two hours
supply shall be calculated in the same manner as in Subsection 135.337(b). The
oxygen required in the event of cabin pressurization failure by Section 135.339 may be
included in determining the supply required for flight crewmembers on flight deck duty.
(c) Use of oxygen masks by flight crewmembers.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2)(i) below, when operating at flight altitudes
above flight level 250, each flight crewmember station must be equipped with
a quick donning type oxygen mask. This mask must capable of being donned
and supplying useful oxygen upon demand within a period of 5 seconds from
the time of the loss of pressurization. It must also be so designed to allow
immediate communication between the flight crewmember and other
crewmembers over the aeroplane intercommunication system. When not in
use, the oxygen mask must be stowed in such manner and location so as to
be within the immediate reach of the flight crewmember while seated at his or
her flight crew station.
(2) When operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250, at least one pilot
seated at the flight controls shall wear and use supplemental at all times when:
(i) the aircraft is not equipped with quick donning type masks and is
operated below flight level 410.
(ii) the aircraft is being operated at or above flight level 410, or
(iii) one of the flight crew members is not occupying his or her flight crew
seat.
(3) Before the takeoff of a flight, each flight crewmember shall personally preflight
his oxygen equipment to ensure that the oxygen mask is functioning, fitted
properly, and connected to appropriate supply terminals, and that the oxygen
supply and pressure are adequate for use.
(d) Use of portable oxygen equipment by cabin attendants. Each attendant shall, during
flight above flight level 250 flight altitude, carry portable oxygen equipment with at
least a 15 minute supply of oxygen unless it is shown that enough portable oxygen
units with masks or spare outlets and masks are distributed throughout the cabin to
ensure immediate availability of oxygen to each cabin attendant, regardless of his
location at the time of cabin depressurization.
(e) Passenger. When the aeroplane is operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet,
the aircraft must be capable of supplying oxygen at the rate prescribed by this part,
to the following passenger cabin occupants:
(1) Where the aeroplane is operated at flight level 250 or below and is able to
descend to 14000 feet ASL within 4 minutes and safely maintain flight at that
altitude, sufficient oxygen to supply 10% of the passengers for 30 minutes.
(2) Where the aeroplane is operated at flight level 250 or below but is not capable
of descending to 14000 feet within 4 minutes or, the aeroplane is operated
above flight level 250 and in either case the cabin altitude remains above
10,000 feet ASL, the supply of oxygen must meet the requirements of
Subsection 135,139(c)(1)(2)(3) as applicable.
(3) Each air carrier must provide a supply of undiluted first aid oxygen in
accordance with CASR 25.1443(d), sufficient for at least 2% of the passengers
SUBPART K K - 21
on board but in no case less than one person. Not less than two first aid
oxygen dispensing units must be provided, with a means for the cabin
attendants to use this supply.
135.343 Oxygen Equipment Standards
The oxygen apparatus, the minimum rates of oxygen flow, and the supply of oxygen
necessary to comply with this Subpart must meet the standards established by the
DGCA. An air carrier may apply for a deviation pursuant to Section 135.9 of this part
where compliance with the oxygen requirements of this Subpart it would be impractical
and an equivalent level of safety can be achieved.
135.345 Cargo and Baggage Compartments
(a) Each Class C or D compartment, as defined in Section 25.857 of Part 25 of the

CASRs, greater than 200 cubic feet in volume must have ceiling and sidewall liner
panels which are constructed of:
(1) Glass fiber reinforced resin:
(2) Materials which meet the test requirements of Part 25, Appendix F, Part III of
the CASRs: or
(3) In the case of installations approved prior to CASR 25 the liner material must
be aluminum.
(b) For compliance with this section, the term "liner" includes any design feature, such as
a joint or fastener, which would affect the capability of the liner to safely contain a fire.
135.347 Lavatory Fire Protection
(a) After December 31, 2001 no person may operate a passenger-carrying aeroplane
unless each lavatory in the aeroplane is equipped with a smoke detector system or
equivalent that provides a warning light in the cockpit or provides a warning light or
audio warning in the passenger cabin which would be readily detected by a flight
attendant, taking into consideration the positioning of flight attendants throughout
the passenger compartment during various phases of flight.
(b) After December 31, 2001 no person may operate a passenger-carrying aeroplane
unless each lavatory in the aeroplane is equipped with a built-in fire extinguisher for
each disposal receptacle for towels, paper, or waste located within the lavatory. The
built-in fire extinguisher must be designed to discharge automatically into each
disposal receptacle upon occurrence of a fire in the receptacle.
135.349 Emergency Equipment
(a) General: No person shall operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with the
emergency equipment listed in this Subpart.
(b) Each item of emergency and flotation equipment listed in this Subpart:
(1) must be inspected regularly in accordance with inspection periods established
in the operations specifications to ensure its condition for continued
SUBPART K K - 22
serviceability and immediate readiness to perform its intended emergency

purposes,
(2) must be readily accessible to the crew and, with regard to equipment located
in the passenger compartment, to passengers:
(3) must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of
operation, and
(4) when carried in a compartment or container, must be carried in a compartment
or container marked as to contents and the compartment or container, or the
item itself, must be marked as to date of last inspection.
(c) Hand fire extinguishers for crew, passenger, cargo, and galley compartments. Hand
fire extinguishers of an approved type must be provided for use in crew, passenger,
cargo, and galley compartments in accordance with the following:
(1) The type and quantity of extinguishing agent must be suitable for the kinds of
fires likely to occur in the compartment where the extinguisher is intended to
be used and, for passenger compartments, must be designed to minimize the
hazard of toxic gas concentrations.
(2) Cargo compartments. At least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently
located for use in each cargo compartment that is accessible to crewmembers
during flight.
(3) Galley compartments. At least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently
located for use in each galley located in a compartment other than a
passenger, cargo, or crew compartment.
(4) Flight crew compartment. At least one hand fire extinguisher must be
conveniently located on the flight deck for use by the flight crew.
(5) Passenger compartments. At least one hand fire extinguisher must be
conveniently located in the passenger compartment of each aircraft having a
passenger seating configuration of 10 or more seats for both commuter and
charter air operators.
(6) Notwithstanding the requirement for uniform distribution of hand fire
extinguishers as prescribed in Paragraph (c)(5) of this section, for those cases
where a galley is located in a passenger compartment, at least one hand fire
extinguisher must be conveniently located and easily accessible for use in the
galley.
(7) At least one of the required hand fire extinguisher installed in
passenger-carrying airplanes must contain Halon 1211
(bromochlorofluoromethane) or equivalent as the extinguishing agent. Where
only one of the extinguishers carried onboard the aeroplane is of a Halon 1211
type, that extinguisher must be located in the passenger cabin.
(d) First aid and emergency medical equipment

For treatment of injuries or medical emergencies that might occur during flight time
or in minor accidents each aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 10 or
more seats for both commuter and charter air operators must have the following
equipment that meets the specifications and requirements acceptable to the
Director.
(1) Approved first aid kit with at least the following contents:
SUBPART K K - 23
First Aid Kit Contents Quantity

Adhesive bandage compressors, 1- inch 16
Antiseptic swabs 20
Ammonia inhalants 10
Bandage compressors, 4-inch 8
Triangular bandage compressors, 40-inch 5
Arm splint, non-inflatable 1
Leg splint, non-inflatable 1
Roller bandage, 4-inch 4
Adhesive tape, 1-inch standard roll 2
Bandage scissors 1
Protective latex gloves or equivalent non-permeable gloves 1 pair
Burn compound, 1/8-oz or an equivalent of other burn remedy 6
(2) In airplanes for which a flight attendant is required, an emergency medical kit
containing the following medical supplies.
Emergency Medical Kit Contents Quantity
sphygmomanometer 1
Stethoscope 1
Airways, oropharyngeal (3 sizes) 3
Syringes(as required to administer drugs) 4
Needles (as required to administer drugs) 6
50% Dextrose injection, 50cc 1
Epinephrine1:1000 single ample or equivalent 2
Diphenhydramine HCI injection, single dose ample or equivalent 2
Nitroglycerin Tablets 10
Basic instructions for use of the drugs in the kit 1
(e) Crash axe. Each aeroplane that has a lockable non frangible door separating the
flight deck from the passenger cabin must be equipped with a crash axe that is
readily accessible to the crew but inaccessible to passengers.
(f) After December 31, 2000, no person shall operate an aeroplane having a
passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats unless it has the following
additional emergency equipment:
(1) Means for emergency evacuation. Each passenger-carrying landplane
emergency exit (other than over the wing) that is more than 6 feet from the
ground with the aeroplane on the ground and the landing gear extended, must
have an approved means to assist the occupants in descending to the ground.
The assisting means for a floor-level emergency exit must meet the
requirements under which the aeroplane was type certificated. An assisting
means that deploys automatically must be armed during taxiing, takeoffs, and
landings. However, if the Director finds that the design of the exit makes
compliance impractical, he may grant a deviation from the requirement of
automatic deployment if the assisting means automatically erects upon
deployment.
(2) Interior emergency exit marking. The following must be complied with for each
passenger-carrying aeroplane:
SUBPART K K - 24
(i) Each passenger emergency exit, its means of access, and its means of
opening must be conspicuously marked. The identity and location of
each passenger emergency exit must be recognizable from a distance
equal to the width of the cabin. The location of each passenger
emergency exit must be indicated by a sign visible to occupants
approaching along the main passenger aisle. There must be a locating
sign.
(ii) Above the aisle near each over the wing passenger emergency exit, or
at another ceiling location if it is more practical because of low
headroom:
(iii) Next to each floor-level passenger emergency exit, except that one sign
may serve two such exits if they both can be seen readily from that sign:
and
(iv) On each bulkhead or divider that prevents fore and aft vision along the
passenger cabin, to indicate emergency exits beyond and obscured by
it, except that if this is not possible the sign may be placed at another
appropriate location.
(3) Each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign must meet
the requirements under which the aeroplane was type certificated. On
airplanes whose type certificate was filed with the country of manufacture prior
to May 1, 1972 no sign may continue to be used if its Luminescence
(brightness) decreases to below 100 microlamberts.
For an aeroplane for which the type certificate was filed with the country of
manufacture on or after May 1, 1972, each passenger emergency exit marking
and each locating sign must be manufactured to meet the interior emergency
exit marking requirements under which the aeroplane was type certificated. On
these airplanes, no sign may continue to be used if its luminescence
(brightness) decreases to below 250 microlamberts.
(4) Lighting for interior emergency exit markings. Each passenger-carrying
aeroplane must have an emergency lighting system, independent of the main
lighting system. However, sources of general cabin illumination may be
common to both the emergency and the main lighting systems if the power
supply to the emergency lighting system is independent of the power supply to
the main lighting system. The emergency lighting system must-
(i) Illuminate each passenger exit marking and locating sign:
(ii) Provide enough general lighting in the passenger cabin so that the
average illumination when measured at 40-inch intervals at seat armrest
height, on the centerline of the main passenger aisle, is at least 0.05
foot-candles: and
(iii) For airplanes type certificated by the country of manufacture after
January 1, 1958, include floor proximity emergency escape path
marking which meets the requirements of Section 25.812(e) of the
CASRs in effect December 1996.
(5) Emergency light operation. Except for lights forming part of emergency lighting
subsystems provided in compliance with Section 25.812(h) of the CASRs (as
prescribed in Paragraph (f) of this section) that serve no more than one assist
means, are independent of the airplane's main emergency lighting systems, and
are automatically activated when the assist means is deployed, each light
required by Paragraphs (c) and (f) of this section must comply with the following:
(i) Each light must:
SUBPART K K - 25
(A) Be operable manually both from the flight crew station and, for
airplanes on which a flight attendant is required, from a point in the
passenger compartment that is readily accessible to a normal flight
attendant seat:
(B) Have a means to prevent inadvertent operation of the manual
controls:
(C) When armed or turned on at either station, remain lighted or become
lighted upon interruption of the airplane's normal electric power.
(ii) Each light must be armed or turned on during taxiing, takeoff, and
landing. In showing compliance with this paragraph a transverse vertical
separation of the fuselage need not be considered.
(iii) Each light must provide the required level of illumination for at least 10
minutes at the critical ambient conditions after emergency landing.
Each light must have a cockpit control device that has an "on," "off," and
"armed" position.
(6) Emergency exit operating handles.
For a passenger-carrying aeroplane the location of each passenger
emergency exit operating handle and instructions for opening the exit must be
shown in accordance with the requirements under which the aeroplane was
type certificated. On these airplanes, no operating handle or operating handle
cover may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to
below 100 microlamberts.
(7) Emergency exit access. Access to emergency exits must be provided as
follows for each passenger-carrying transport category aeroplane:
(i) Each passage way between individual passenger areas, or leading to a
Type I or Type II emergency exit, must be unobstructed and at least 20
inches wide.
(ii) There must be enough space next to each Type I or Type II emergency
exit to allow a crewmember to assist in the evacuation of passengers
without reducing the unobstructed width of the passageway below that
required in Paragraph (f)(1) of this section. However the Director may
authorize deviation from this requirement for airplanes certificated prior
to CASR 25 if he finds that special circumstances exist that provide an
equivalent level of safety.
(iii) There must be access from the main aisle to each Type III and Type IV
exit. The access from the aisle to these exits must not be obstructed by
seats, berths, or other protrusions in a manner that would reduce the
effectiveness of the exit. In addition:
(A) For an aeroplane which was type certificated prior to CASR 25 the
access must meet the requirements under which the aeroplane
was type certificated.
(B) The access for an aeroplane type certificated under CASR 25
must meet the requirements of Section 25.813(c) in effect
December 1996.
(C) Contrary provisions of this section notwithstanding, the DGCA may
authorize deviation from the requirements of Paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of
this section if it is determined that special circumstances make
compliance impractical. Such special circumstances include, but
are not limited to, the following conditions when they preclude
achieving compliance with Section 25.813(c)(1)(i) or (ii) without a
reduction in the total number of passenger seats: emergency exits
SUBPART K K - 26
located in close proximity to each other: fixed installations such as

lavatories, galleys, etc.: permanently mounted bulkheads: an
insufficient number of rows ahead of or behind the exit to enable
compliance without a reduction in the seat row pitch of more than
one inch: or an insufficient number of such rows to enable
compliance without a reduction in the seat row pitch to less than
30 inches. A request for such grant of deviation must include
credible reasons as to why literal compliance with Section
25.813(c)(1)(i) or (ii) is impractical and a description of the steps
taken to achieve a level of safety as close to that intended by
Section 25.813(c)(1)(i) or (ii) as is practical.
(8) If it is necessary to pass through a passageway between passenger
compartments to reach any required emergency exit from any seat in the
passenger cabin, the passageway must not be obstructed. However, curtains
may be used if they allow free entry through the passageway.
(9) No door may be installed in any partition between passenger compartments.
(10) If it is necessary to pass through a doorway separating the passenger cabin
from other areas to reach required emergency exit from any passenger seat,
the door must have a means to latch it in open position, and the door must be
latched open during each takeoff and landing. The latching means must be
able to withstand the loads imposed upon it when the door is subjected to the
ultimate inertia forces, relative to the surrounding structure, listed in Section
25.561(b) of the CASRs.
(11) Exterior exit markings. Each passenger emergency exit and the means of
opening that exit from the outside must be marked on the outside of the
aeroplane. There must be a 2-inch colored band outlining each passenger
emergency exit on the side of the fuselage. Each outside marking, including
the band, must be readily distinguishable from the surrounding fuselage area
by contrast in color. The markings must comply with the following:
(i) If the reflectance of the darker color is 15 percent or less, the
reflectance of the lighter color must be at least 45 percent.
(ii) If the reflectance of the darker color is greater than 15 percent, at least
a 30 percent difference between its reflectance and the reflectance of
the lighter color must be provided.
(iii) Exits that are not in the side of the fuselage must have the external
means of opening and applicable instructions marked conspicuously in
red or, if red is inconspicuous against the background color, in bright
chrome yellow and, when the opening means for such an exit is located
on only one side of the fuselage, a conspicuous marking to that effect
must be provided on the other side.
Note: "Reflectance" is the ratio of the luminous flux reflected by a body to the
luminous flux it receives.
(12) Exterior emergency lighting and escape route.
(i) Each passenger-carrying aeroplane must be equipped with exterior
lighting that meets the emergency lighting requirements under which the
aeroplane was type certificated.
(ii) Each passenger-carrying aeroplane must be equipped with a slip
resistant escape route that meets the slip resistant escape route
requirements under which the aeroplane type certificated.
SUBPART K K - 27
(13) Floor level exits. Each floor level door or exit in the side of the fuselage (other
than those leading into a cargo or baggage compartment that is not accessible
from the passenger cabin) that is 44 or more inches high and 20 or more
inches wide, but not wider than 46 inches: each passenger ventral exit: and
each tail cone exit, must meet the requirements of this section for floor-level
emergency exits. However, the Director may grant a deviation from this
paragraph if he finds that circumstances make full compliance impractical and
that an acceptable level of safety has been achieved.
(14) Additional emergency exits. Approved emergency exits in the passenger
compartments that are in excess of the minimum number of required
emergency exits must meet all of the applicable provisions of this section
except Paragraphs (f)(1), (2), and (3) of this section and must be readily
accessible.
(15) On each large passenger-carrying turbojet-powered aeroplane, each ventral
exit and tailcone exit must be:
(i) Designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight: and
(ii) Marked with a placard readable from a distance of 30 inches and
installed at a conspicuous location near the means of opening the exit,
stating that the exit has been designed and constructed so that it cannot
be opened during flight.
(16) Portable lights. No person may operate a passenger-carrying aeroplane
unless it is equipped with flashlight stowage provisions accessible from each
flight attendant seat.
135.351 Survival Equipment for Overwater Operations
(a) Except for the purpose of take off and landing, no air carrier shall operate any single
engine aeroplane carrying passengers, over water beyond gliding distance from
shore unless,
(1) The aeroplane is of a type or configuration designed to take off or land on the
water and is not operated more than 50 nautical miles from shore, and
(2) Each occupant on board that aircraft is provided, a life preserver or approved
floatation device.
(b) Except as provided by Paragraph (5), below, no person may operate a multi-engine
aeroplane in passenger carrying operations more than 30 minutes flying time or 100
nautical miles from shore unless:
(1) Each occupant on board that aircraft is provided, a life preserver equipped
with an approved survivor locator light,
(2) There are on board that aeroplane, sufficient life rafts of a rated capacity and
buoyancy to accommodate all the occupants on board that aeroplane and
equipped with an approved survivor locator light. Unless excess rafts of
enough capacity are provided, the buoyancy and seating capacity of the rafts
must accommodate all occupants of the aeroplane in the event of a loss of
one raft of the largest rated capacity.
(3) At least one pyrotechnic and reflective signaling device for each life raft. Such
reflective devices must have a means of aiming the device at the intended
target.
SUBPART K K - 28
(4) Two approved survival type emergency locator transmitters, one of which
shall be automatic. Batteries used in these transmitters must be replaced (or
recharged, if the battery is rechargeable when the transmitters has been in
use for more than 1 cumulative hour, or when 50 percent of their useful life
(or for rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of their useful life of charge) has
expired, as established by the transmitter manufacturer under its
approval. The new expiration date for replacing (or recharging) the
battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitters. The
battery useful life (or useful life of charge) requirements of this paragraph do
not apply to batteries (such as water activated batteries) that are essentially
unaffected during storage intervals.
(5) By amending the operations specifications of the air carrier, the Director
General may authorize less than all the items of equipment listed above be
carried for all overwater operations. Or, after application by the air carrier,
the Director General may issue a Letter of Deviation Authority granting relief
from carrying specific items of equipment listed above for a specific overwater
operations.
(c) The required life rafts, life preservers, and survival type emergency locator
transmitter must be easily accessible in the event of a ditching without appreciable
time for preparatory procedures. This equipment must be installed in conspicuously
marked, approved locations.
(d) A survival kit, appropriately equipped for the route to be flown, must be attached to
each required life raft.
135.353 Equipment for Single Engine Helicopter Overwater Operations
No person may operate a single engine helicopter over water beyond autorotative
gliding distance from the land unless it is equipped with the following equipment:
(1) Helicopter flotation devices.
(2) A life preserver (or other adequate individual flotation device) for each
occupant.
(3) Any other equipment that the Director determines is necessary for safety for a
particular operation.
135.355 Emergency Flotation Device
(a) Except as provided in Paragraph (b) of this section, no person may operate an
aeroplane that has a passenger configuration of 10 or more seats used in commuter
operations in any overwater operation after December 31, 2000 unless:
(1) it is equipped with a life preserver or an approved flotation device for each
occupant, and
(2) such device is within easy reach of each seated occupant and must be readily
removable from the aeroplane.
(b) Upon application by the air carrier, the Director may approve the operation of an
aeroplane over water without the life preservers or flotation devices required by
Subsection (a) of this section, if the operator shows that the water over which the
SUBPART K K - 29
aeroplane is to be operated is not of such size and depth that life preservers or
flotation means would be required for the survival of its occupants in the event the
flight terminates in that water.
135.357 Emergency Equipment for Flights over Uninhabited Terrain
(a) No person may conduct operations over an uninhabited area or any other area that
(in its operations specifications) the Director General specifies required equipment
for search and rescue in case of an emergency, Unless the aircraft has the
following equipment,
(1) Suitable pyrotechnic and reflective signaling devices. Such reflective devices
must have a means of aiming the device at the intended target;
(2) Two approved survival type emergency locator transmitter, one of which
shall be automatic. Batteries used in these transmitters must be replaced (or
recharged, if the battery is rechargeable) when the transmitters has been in
use for more than 1 cumulative hour, or when 50 percent of their useful life
(or for rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of their useful life of charge) has
expired, as established by the transmitter manufacturer under its
approval. The new expiration date for replacing (or recharging) the
battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitters. The
battery useful life (or useful life of charge) requirements of this paragraph do
not apply to batteries (such as water activated batteries) that are essentially
unaffected during probable storage intervals;
(3) Enough survival kits, appropriately equipped for the route to be flown for the
number of occupants of the aeroplane; and
(4) Portable radio transmitter of a type approved by the Director General for the
operation being undertaken.
(b) Requirements set forth in Sub-Part K point 135.357(a) exempted for aircraft Bell 412
SP, Bell 412 EP, CASA 212-100 and SD3-30 which has been registered and
operating in Indonesia.
(c) Requirements set forth in Sub-Part K point 135.357 for aircraft DHC 6-300 and
135.359 [Reserved]
SUBPART K K - 30
17 Feb 2009 CASR Part 135 Amdt. 6
SUBPART L - MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE AND ALTERATIONS
(a) Except as provided by paragraph (b) of this section, this subpart prescribes
requirements for maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations for each
certificate holder.
(b) The Director may amend a certificate holder’s operations specifications to permit
deviation from those provisions of this subpart that would prevent the return to
service and use of airframe components, powerplants, appliances, and spare parts
thereof because those items have been maintained, altered, or inspected by
persons employed outside Indonesia who do not hold Indonesia licenses. Each
certificate holder who uses parts under this deviation must provide for surveillance
of facilities and practices to ensure that all work performed on these parts is
accomplished in accordance with the certificate holder’s Company Maintenance
Manual (CMM).
135.363 Responsibility for airworthiness.
(a) Each certificate holder is primarily responsible for:

(1) The airworthiness of its aircraft, including airframe, engines, propellers, rotors,
appliances, and parts thereof; and
(2) The performance of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration
of its aircraft, including airframes, engines, propellers, rotors, appliances,
emergency equipment, and parts thereof, in accordance with its CMM and the
CASR Part 43.
(b) Each certificate holder may make arrangements with another person for the
performance of any maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration. However,
this does not relieve certificate holder of the responsibility specified in paragraph (a)
of this section.
135.365 Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alteration Organization
(a) Each certificate holder that performs any of its maintenance (other than required
inspections), preventive maintenance, or alterations, and each person with whom it
arranges for the performance of that work, must have an organization adequate to
perform the work.
(b) Each certificate holder that perform any inspection required by its company
maintenance manual under Section 135.369, (in this subpart referred to as required
inspections), and each person with whom it arranges for the performance of that
work, must have an organization adequate to perform that work.
(c) Each person performing required inspection in addition to other maintenance,

preventive maintenance or alterations, shall organize the performance of those
functions so as to separate the required inspection functions from the other
maintenance, preventive maintenance and alteration functions. The separation shall
SUBPART L L-1
be below the level of administrative control at which overall responsibility for the
required inspection functions and other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and
alteration functions is exercised.
135.367 Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations program.
(a) Each certificate holder shall have an inspection program and a program covering
other maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations, that ensures that:
(1) Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations performed by it, or by
other persons, are performed in accordance with:
(i) The certificate holder’s manual; and
(ii) Approved continuous airworthiness maintenance program;
(2) Competent personnel and adequate facilities and equipment are provided for
the proper performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, and
alterations; and
(3) Each aircraft released to service is airworthy and has been properly
maintained for operation under this part.
(b) (1) Each certificate holder who operates an aircraft type certificated for a
passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of nine seats or
less, must comply with the manufacturer’s recommended maintenance
programs and approved by the Director, or approved aircraft inspection
program, for each aircraft engine, propeller, rotor, and each item of emergency
equipment required by the CASRs.
(2) For the purpose of this paragraph (b)(1), a manufacturer’s maintenance
program is one which is contained in the maintenance manual or maintenance
instructions set forth by the manufacturer as required by the CASRs for the
aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, rotor or item of emergency equipment.
(c) Whenever the Director finds that revisions to an approved maintenance program
are necessary for the continued adequacy of the program, the certificate holder
shall, after notification by the Director, make any changes in the program found by
the Director to be necessary.
(d) For each single engine aircraft to be used in IFR operations, the certificate holder
must incorporate into its maintenance program either:
(1) the manufacturer's recommended engine trend monitoring program, which
includes an oil analysis, if appropriate; or
(2) an approved engine trend monitoring program that includes an oil analysis at
each 100 hour interval or at the manufacturer's suggested interval, whichever
is more frequent.
(3) procedures for recording and maintaining in the engine maintenance records
the results of each test, observation, and inspection required by the applicable
engine trend monitoring program specified in paragraph (d)(1) and (d)(2) of
this section.
(e) For single engine aircraft to be used in IFR operations, written maintenance
instructions containing the methods, techniques, and practices necessary to
maintain the autopilot, navigation and flight equipment specified in Section
135.21(d) must be contained in the aircraft maintenance program.
SUBPART L L-2
(f) Changes from one maintenance program to another. When an operator changes
from one maintenance program to another, the time in service, calendar times, or
cycles of operation accumulated under the previous program must be calculated
to determine inspection due times under the new program.
(g) Inspection program and a program covering other maintenance, preventive

maintenance, and alterations required by this section shall be developed by
considering the human factor principals.
135.368 Performance Standards
Each certificate holder that performs any of its maintenance, preventive maintenance, or
alteration, and each person with whom it arranges for the performance of that work
must meet the following requirements of:
(a) CASR 145.35 or CASR 145.37 as appropriate;
(b) CASR 145.39 through CASR 145.45;
(c) CASR 145.47 or CASR 145.49 as appropriate;
(d) CASR 145.57; and
(e) CASR 145.59.
135.369 Company Maintenance Manual Requirements
The certificate holder shall provide the Director with a Company Maintenance Manual
approved by DGCA which shall contain:
(a) a statement signed by the Chief Executive, on behalf of the applicant's organization,
confirming that the company maintenance manual:
(1) defines the organization and demonstrate its means and methods for ensuring
ongoing compliance with this CASR; and
(2) will be complied with at all times; and
(b) procedures to control, amend and distribute the company maintenance manual to
each of its supervisory personnel and make it available to its other personnel in their
work area. The certificate holder is responsible for seeing that all supervisory and
inspection personnel thoroughly understand the company maintenance manual;
(c) a chart or description of the certificate holder’s organization required by CASR

135.365;
(d) the duties and responsibilities of the person or persons specified in paragraph (c)
including matters for which they have responsibility to deal directly with the Director
on behalf of the Certificate holder;
(e) a list of persons with whom it has arranged for the performance of any of its
required inspections, other maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations,
including a general description of that work;
SUBPART L L-3
(f) details of the applicant's staffing structure, or the persons with whom the certificate
holder has arranged to carry out the maintenance, at each of its maintenance
locations listed under paragraph (g) below;
(g) details of all locations where the applicant conducts maintenance and the facilities
at those locations;
(h) procedures regarding maintenance to be carried out at locations not listed in the
company maintenance manual;
(i) the procedures and programs required by CASR 135.367 that must be followed in
performing maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations of that certificate
holder’s airplanes, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances,
emergency equipment, and parts thereof;
(j) procedures to ensure that required inspections, other maintenance, preventive

maintenance, and alterations that are completed as a result of shift changes or
similar work interruptions are properly completed before the aircraft is released to
service;
(k) Samples of inspection forms, tags, and the method of executing them; and
(l) detailed description of the scope of work undertaken by the applicant; and details of
the applicant's procedures regarding:
(1) the responsibilities for airworthiness;
(2) arrangements made for the performance of maintenance by other persons;
(3) the provision of adequate housing and facilities;
(4) the provision of adequate equipment and materials;
(5) the provision of satisfactory storage and segregation of spare parts;
(6) procedures, standards, and limits necessary for periodic inspection and
calibration of precision tools, measuring devices, and test equipment;
(7) performance standards;
(8) inspection of work performed;
(9) all required inspection procedures including the method and procedures for
performing required inspections and a designation by occupational title of
personnel authorized to perform each required inspection;
(10) competence of personnel;
(11) the internal inspection system of the organization in a manner easily
understood by any employee of the organization including the continuity of
inspection responsibility;
(12) the internal quality assurance of the organization;
(13) on-going training of personnel;
(14) the method for controlling engineer duty time;
(15) the method of recording the scope of approvals granted to supervisors and
inspection personnel;
SUBPART L L-4
(16) the recording of maintenance carried out and retention of maintenance

records;
(17) the reporting of aircraft defects and unairworthy conditions;
(18) the control and amendment of airworthiness data;
(19) the procurement and acceptance of aircraft material, parts, components and
services from external sources; and
(20) procedures to ensure that reference, whenever necessary, is made to the
manufacturer’s inspection standards for the maintenance of any article.
135.371 Required Inspections and Appropriate Personnel
For the purpose of these regulations Required Inspection are items of maintenance and
alteration that must be inspected, includes those that could result in a failure,
malfunction, or defect endangering the safe operation of the aircraft, if not performed
properly or improper parts or materials are used.
(a) No person may use any person to perform required inspections unless the person
performing the inspection is appropriately licensed, properly trained, qualified, and
authorized to do so.
(b) No person may allow any person to perform a required inspection unless, at that
time, the person performing that inspection is under the supervision and control of
an inspection unit.
(c) No person may perform a required inspection if he performed the item of work
required to be inspected.
(d) The decision of an inspector, regarding any required inspection may not be
countermanded by a person other than supervisory personnel of the inspection unit,
or a person at that level of administrative control that has overall responsibility for
the management of both the required inspection functions and the other
maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations functions.
(e) Each person performing a Required Inspection Item (RII), in addition to other types
of maintenance, shall separate these maintenance functions. The separation shall
be below the level of administrative control which has overall responsibility for the
performance of the RIIs and the other maintenance.
(f) In the case of rotorcraft that operate in remote areas or sites, the Director may
approve procedures for the performance of required inspection items by the pilot in
command when no other qualified person is available, provided:
(1) The pilot is employed by the certificate holder;
(2) It can be shown to the satisfaction of the Director that each pilot authorized to
perform required inspections is properly trained and qualified;
(3) The required inspection is a result of a mechanical interruption and is not a
part of a certificate holder's continuous airworthiness maintenance program;
(4) Prior to each takeoff each item is inspected in accordance with the approved
limitations as laid down in the company maintenance manual; and
SUBPART L L-5
(5) Each item of work that is a required inspection item that is a mechanical part
of the flight control system shall be flight tested before the aircraft is approved
for return to service
135.373 Continuing analysis and surveillance.
(a) Each certificate holder shall establish and maintain a system for the continuing
analysis and surveillance of the performance and effectiveness of its inspection
program and the program covering other maintenance, preventive maintenance,
and alterations and for the correction of any deficiency in those programs,
regardless of whether those programs are carried out by the certificate holder or
another person.
(b) The continuing analysis and surveillance system shall include:

(1) a safety policy and safety policy procedures that are relevant to the applicant’s
organizational goals and the expectations and needs of its customers;
(2) a procedure to ensure quality indicators, including defect and incident reports,
and personnel and customer feedback, are monitored to identify existing
problems or potential causes of problems within the system;
(3) an internal audit program to audit the applicant’s organization for conformity
with the procedures in its company maintenance manual and achievement of
the goals set in its safety policy;
(4) a procedure for corrective action to ensure existing problems that have been
identified within the system are corrected;
(5) a procedure for preventive action to ensure that potential causes of problems
that have been identified within the system are remedied; and
(6) management review procedures, which shall include the use of statistical
analysis, to ensure the continuing suitability and effectiveness of the
continuing analysis and surveillance system in satisfying the requirements of
this Part.
(c) The safety policy procedures shall ensure that the safety policy is understood,
implemented, and maintained at all levels of the organization.
(d) The internal audit program shall:

(1) specify the frequency and location of the audits taking into account the nature
of the activity to be audited;
(2) ensure audits are performed by trained auditing personnel who are
independent of those having direct responsibility for the activity being audited;
(3) measure the results of audits are reported to the personnel responsible for the
activity being audited and the manager responsible for internal audits;
(4) require preventive or corrective action to be taken by the personnel
responsible for the activity being audited if problems are found by the audit;
and
(5) ensure follow up audits to review the effectiveness of any preventive or
corrective action taken.
SUBPART L L-6
(e) The procedure for corrective action shall specify how:

(1) to correct an existing problem;
(2) to follow up a corrective action to ensure the action is effective; and
(3) management will measure the effectiveness of any corrective action taken.
(f) The procedure for preventive action shall specify how:

(1) to correct a potential problem;
(2) to follow up a preventive action to ensure the action is effective;
(3) to amend any procedure required by this Part as a result of a preventive
action; and
(4) management will measure the effectiveness of any preventive action taken.
(g) The procedure for management review shall:

(1) specify the frequency of management reviews of the quality assurance system
taking into account the need for the continuing effectiveness of the system;
(2) identify the responsible manager who shall review the quality assurance
system; and
(3) ensure the results of the review are evaluated and recorded.
(h) The senior person who has the responsibility for internal quality assurance shall
have direct access to the Chief Executive on matters affecting safety.
(i) Whenever the Director finds that either or both of the programs described in
paragraph (a) of this section does not contain adequate procedures and standards
to meet the requirements of this part, the certificate holder shall, after notification by
the Director, make any changes in those programs that are necessary to meet
those requirements.
135.375 Maintenance and Preventive Maintenance Training Program
(a) Each certificate holder or person performing maintenance or preventive

maintenance functions for it shall have a training program to ensure that each
person (including inspection personnel) who determines the adequacy of work done
is fully informed about procedures and techniques and new equipment in use and is
competent to perform his duties.
(b) The training program shall ensure all maintenance personnel receive initial training
and continuation training appropriate to their assigned tasks and responsibilities,
and shall include training in knowledge and skills related to human performance,
including co-ordination with other maintenance personnel and flight crew.
135.377 Maintenance and Preventive Maintenance Personnel Duty Time Limitations
Within Indonesia, each certificate holder (or person performing maintenance or

preventive maintenance functions for it) shall relieve each person performing
maintenance or preventive maintenance from duty for a period of at least 24
SUBPART L L-7
consecutive hours during any seven consecutive days, or the equivalent thereof within
any one calendar month.
135.378 Certificate Requirements
(a) Except for maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, and required

inspections performed by Approved Maintenance Organizations certificated under
the provisions of subpart C of Part 145, each person who is directly in charge of
maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration, and each person performing
required inspections must hold an appropriate License issued under Part 65.
(b) For the purposes of this section, a person “directly in charge” is each person
assigned to a position in which he is responsible for the work of a shop or
organization that performs maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, or
other functions affecting aircraft airworthiness. A person who is “directly in charge”
need not physically observe and direct each worker constantly but must be
available for consultation and decision on matters requiring instruction or decision
from higher authority than that of the persons performing the work.
135.379 Authority to Perform and Approve Maintenance, Preventive

Maintenance, and Alterations
(a) A certificate holder may perform, or it may make arrangements with other persons
to perform, maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations as provided in its
company maintenance manual. In addition, a certificate holder may perform these
functions for another certificate holder as provided in the company maintenance
manual of the other certificate holder. However, this does not relieve the certificate
holder of the responsibility specified in paragraph 135.363(a) of this section.
(b) A certificate holder may approve any aircraft, airframe, engine, propeller, rotors or
appliance for return to service after maintenance, preventive maintenance, or
alterations that are performed under paragraph (a) of this section. However, in the
case of a major repair or major alteration, the work must have been done in
accordance with technical data approved by the Director.
135.380 Maintenance Recording Requirements
(a) The certificate holder must describe in its company maintenance manual a suitable
system (which may include a coded system) that provides for preservation and
retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the Director. The following records
shall be kept for the periods specified in paragraph (b) of this section:
(1) All the records necessary to show that all requirements for the issuance of a
maintenance release under CASR 43 and Section 135.709 have been met,
(2) A description (or reference to data acceptable to the Director) of the work
performed
(3) Records of all other maintenance work that it does, identifying by name and
number the licensed engineer who performed or supervised the work, and the
inspector of that work.
(4) Records containing the following information:
SUBPART L L-8
(i) The total time in service of the airframe.

(ii) The total time in service of each engine and propeller.
(iii) The current status of life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, rotor,
propeller, and appliance.
(iv) The time since last overhaul of all items installed on the aircraft which
are required to be overhauled on a specified time basis.
(v) The identification of the current inspection status of the aircraft,
including the times since the last inspections required by the inspection
program under which the aircraft and its appliances are maintained.
(vi) The current status of applicable airworthiness directives, including the
date and methods of compliance, and if the airworthiness directive
involves recurring action, the time and date when the next action is
required.
(vii) A list of current alterations to each airframe, engine, rotor, propeller, and
appliance.
NOTE: That 'time' means calendar time, hours or cycles as applicable.
(b) Each certificate holder shall retain the records required to be kept by this section for
the following periods:
(1) Except for the records of the last complete overhaul of each airframe, engine,
propeller, and appliance, the records specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this
section shall be retained until the work is repeated or superseded by other
work or for two years after the work is performed,
(2) The records of the last complete overhaul of each airframe, engine, rotor,
propeller, and appliance shall be retained until the work is superseded by work
of equivalent scope and detail.
(3) The records specified in paragraph (a)(4) of this section shall be retained for a
minimum period of 90 days after the unit to which they refer has been
permanently withdrawn from service.
(c) The certificate holder shall make all maintenance records required to be kept by this
section available for inspection by the Director.
135.380a Transfer of maintenance records
Each certificate holder who sells an Indonesian registered aircraft shall transfer to the
purchaser, at the time of sale, the following records of that aircraft, in plain language
form or in coded form at the election of the purchaser, if the coded form provides for the
preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the Director:
(a) The records specified in Section 135.380(a)(4).
(b) The records specified in Section 135.380(a)(1) and (a)(3) which are not included in
the records covered by paragraph (a) of this section, except that the purchaser may
permit the seller to keep physical custody of such records. However, custody of
records in the seller does not relieve the purchaser of his responsibility under
Section 135.380(c) to make the records available for inspection by the Director.
SUBPART L L-9
24 Sep 2008 CASR Part 135 Amdt. 5
SUBPART M - FLIGHT OPERATIONS PERSONNEL REQUIREMMENTS
This subpart prescribes the minimum number and qualifications of the flight operations
personnel required for all air carriers operating under this Part.
135.383 Minimum Flight Crew
(a) No air carrier may operate an aircraft in any air transportation service operated
under this part, with fewer than two pilots, where the aircraft:
(1) is an aeroplane with a certified seating configuration of 10 or more passenger
seats;
(2) is carrying passengers and is being operated IFR;
(3) is of a type required by its type certificate to be operated by two or more pilots; or
(4) is operating under special authority where the minimum flight crew is greater
than those specified in this section.
135.385 Designation of Pilot-in-command and Second-in-command
(a) Subject to subsection (b) of this section, an air carrier shall designate prior to each
flight, a pilot in command. Where the crew includes two pilots, flight crew
designation must include, the pilot in command and a second in command. Subject
to Section 135.387 of this Subpart, such crew designations shall remain in force for
the entire flight or series of flights.
(b) Where the minimum number of flight crewmembers required by Section 135.383 of
this subpart, has been increased due to operational needs, the extra crewmembers
shall be assigned a crew designation commensurate with their duties for the period
of time such additional crewmembers are occupying a flight crewmember seat.
135.387 Succession of Command and Assumption of Control
(a) In the event a situation is encountered during flight, where the pilot in command is
no longer able to perform his duties as pilot in command, the control and command
of the aircraft shall be relinquished to;
(1) another captain qualified on the type, in accordance with this Part; or
(2) to the assigned second-in-command of the flight.
(b) in any event the non-pilot-flying of a flight, has reason to believe that the pilot-flying
has become incapacitated to the point where the safety of the aircraft has been, or
is certain to become endangered, the non-flying-pilot shall, in a manner described in
the air carrier COM:
(1) notify the incapacitated pilot, of his intention to assume control of the aircraft;
(2) take what ever action is required to re-establish flight stability or control of the
aircraft; and
SUBPART M M-1
(3) where the incapacitation involves the pilot-in-command and it is expected to

remain unchanged for the remainder of the flight, the second in command will
as soon as practicable, comply with Subsection (a) of this section.
(c) Where any succession of command has occurred with the result that the flight
crewmembers operating the aircraft no longer meet the qualification requirements of
this Part, the remaining flight crew member shall as soon as practicable:
(1) notify ATC of the operating irregularity and request appropriate assistance;
and
(2) within 72 hours after the arrival of such flight, submit a full written report to the
DGCA.
135.389 Flight crew qualifications
(a) Subject to subsections (b) and (c) of this section, no air carrier shall assign a person
to act and no person shall act as a flight crewmember unless that person:
(1) Holds the flight crew licence, ratings and certificates required by CASR Part 61;
(2) Holds a valid medical certificate issued pursuant to CASR Part 67;
(3) Within the preceding 90 days has completed at least three take-offs and
landings:
(i) where a type rating is required, in an aircraft of that type or, in a flight
simulator of that type which has been approved by the Director for take-
off and landing credits;
(ii) where a type rating is not required, in an aircraft of that category, class
and type;
(iii) where the 90 day recency requirement has been exceeded by more
than 30 days, such pilot shall undergo the recency training prescribed in
Subpart N of this part.
(4) Has successfully completed all appropriate phases of training and checking
prescribed in Subpart N;
(5) Is otherwise qualified in accordance with this Subpart.
(b) Notwithstanding Section .139 of part 61, no air carrier shall permit and no person
shall act as the pilot in command of an aircraft with a maximum certified take-off
weight of more than 12500 pounds, unless that person is the holder of an airline
transport pilot licence issued pursuant to Part 61.
(c) No air carrier may assign and no person shall act as second in command of an
aircraft being operated under the instrument flight conditions, unless that person is
the holder of a valid airline transport pilot licence, or a commercial licence with a
valid instrument rating.
(d) The holder of any document required by Subsection (a) of this section, shall carry
such documents at all times when performing the privileges of the documents and
upon request of the Director, present such documents for inspection.
(e) No air carrier shall assign a person to act and no person shall act as the pilot in
command on an aircraft engaged in any air transportation service under this part, if
that person has reached his or her 60th birthday.
SUBPART M M-2
(f) In the case operation with more than one pilot, no air carrier shall assign a person
to act and no person shall act as the pilot in command on an aircraft engaged in
any air transport service under this part if that person has reached his or her 65th
birthday, and the amount of the age of both pilot exceed 115 years.
(g) Airmen who have reached their 65th birthday, may not function as a flight instructors
(airplane), nor may they serve as pilot flight crew members in operations under this
part.
135.391 Flight Attendants
No air carrier shall operate an aircraft with passengers on board, unless at least the
number flight attendants as laid down in Section 135.101 of this part are on board.
135.393 Flight Attendant Qualifications
(a) No air carrier shall assign and no person shall act in the capacity of a flight
attendant on an aircraft, unless that person,
(1) is the holder of a flight attendant certificate endorsed for the type of aircraft on
which such person is to act,
(2) has successfully completed the air carrier’s approved course of training and
checking appropriate to that type of aircraft as prescribed in Subpart N of this
part, and
(3) is otherwise qualified in accordance with this Subpart, except,
(4) in the case of a person performing flight attendant duties pursuant to
Subsection (c) of section 135.101.
135.395 Flight Operations Officers
(a) An air carrier shall provide sufficient flight operations officers to meet the operational
control requirements of Subsection 593 (c) of subpart P.
(b) FOO required by this Subpart shall normally be stationed at operational bases or
airports from which the air carrier operated originating flights using aircraft with a
maximum certified take-off weight (MCTOW), of greater than 12500 pounds, or as
prescribed by the Director.
135.397 Flight Operations Officer Qualifications
(a) No air carrier shall assign and no person shall act as a flight operations officer for
the purpose of exercising of operational control over a flight unless such person,
(1) is the holder of a flight operations officer licence endorsed for the type of
aircraft being released,
(2) has successfully completed all required initial and recurrent training and
checking prescribed in Subpart N of this part, and
(3) Is otherwise qualified in accordance with this Part.
SUBPART M M-3
SUBPART N - TRAINING AND CHECKING PROGRAMS AND VALIDITY PERIODS
(a) This subpart prescribes the requirements for the training and checking programs of
air carriers operating under this part and the validity periods for such training and
checking.
(b) Unless a person has been trained and certified pursuant to this subpart, as being
competent to perform their assigned duties, no air carrier shall assign a person to
act and no person shall act as;
(1) a flight crew member,
(2) a crew member,
(3) a flight operations officer, or
(4) a person performing any ground handling, or service related duty to an aircraft,
except those duties performed by certified maintenance personnel .
135.403 Training Programs
(a) Every air carrier shall establish and maintain a ground and flight training program that is;
(1) designed to ensure that each person who receives training, acquires the
competency to perform that persons assigned duties, and
(2) approved by the Director in accordance with Section 421 of this Subpart.
(b) An air carrier’s ground and flight training program shall, include the following
individual components, as applicable to the air carrier and each person receiving
training. The syllabus for each training component shall, be in written form and
include the assigned period of time allotted to the individual subject, during both
initial and recurrent phase of training as designated below. Each syllabus published
pursuant to this part shall be of sufficient detail to clearly illustrate the depth of the
material contained in each individual subject. Where specific training is required for
different functional rank, such syllabus must make appropriate clarification as to the
intended recipient.
No Required Training Component Initial Recurrent
1 Company Indoctrination Training Yes No
2 Windshear Training, Yes Yes
3 Crew Resource Management Training, Yes Yes
4 Transportation of Dangerous Goods Training, Yes Yes
5 Emergency Equipment and Procedures Training, Yes Yes
6 Aircraft Surface Contamination Training, Yes Yes
7 Category II and Category III Operations Training, Yes Yes
8 Extended Twin-engine Range Operations Training, Aircraft Yes Yes
9 Technical Ground Training, Yes Yes
10 Aircraft Flight Training, Yes Yes
11 Differences Training, Yes Yes
12 Upgrade Training, Yes No
13 Line Indoctrination Training for Flight Crew Members Yes No
14 Recency of Experience Training As req. As req.
15 Flight Attendant Ground Training, Yes Yes
16 Flight Attendant Operational Training, Yes Yes
17 Flight Operations Officer Ground and Flight Training, Yes Yes
18 Aircraft Servicing and Ground Handling Training, Yes No
SUBPART N N-1
(c) An air carrier’s ground training programs may be designed and delivered as;
(1) a classroom instructor lecturer or facilitator,
(2) audio-visual, video or film training,
(3) computer based training (CBT), or
(4) any combination of the above, provided that;
(i) each course given by, or on behalf of an air carrier shall include an
examination of sufficient scope and depth to establish the trainee’s
comprehension level, and
(ii) each examination shall be reviewed with the trainee in sufficient scope
and depth to clarify any misconceptions.
(d) In the case of single-engine aircraft, or as otherwise approved by the Director, an air
carrier may present certain portions of its training program through self study. In
such cases all related examinations must be completed in the presence of a
company instructor or supervisor.
(e) Each training component listed herein must publish a syllabus that meets the
criteria prescribed in Sections 135. 429 to 135.471 as applicable and appropriate to
the air carrier’s scope of operations. Minimum training times are published in Annex
N-B of this Part . Where no training time is published, the course duration must be
acceptable to the Director
135.405 Training Facilities
An Air carrier’s training equipment and facilities shall be adequate to ensure that the
training objectives can be achieved. Facilities shall be;
(1) quiet and free from distraction,
(2) suitably lighted for the type of instruction to be given with effective dimming
capability,
(3) furnished with sufficient training equipment so as to enable the training staff
full flexibility in their presentations, and
(4) equipped with training aids suitable to ensure a high level of comprehension
on any description or concept which should, by reason of its complexity, be
amplified by the use of visual aids.
135.407 Contract Training
(a) An air carrier may contract its crewmember training to another training organization
provided;
(1) the training agreement is included in the air carrier’s approved training
program and the methods by which the air carrier will monitor quality
assurance, of the training being delivered by the outside organization.
(2) the outside organization shall use the actual manuals, or procedural
documents approved for the air carrier’s use.
(3) all flight training devices and aircraft used for training, must be of the same
type and model as the aircraft operated by the carrier, except where adequate
differences training has been approved in the training program.
SUBPART N N-2
(4) The training organization shall record any training or checking administered by
it, on the company’s approved training records.
(b) When an outside training organization is used, an air carrier shall ensure that all
training received, has been given by training and checking personnel, who meet or
have equivalent qualifications as those prescribed by Section 409 of this subpart.
135.409 Qualifications and Training requirements for Instructors
(a) No air carrier shall use any person to give crewmember ground training, unless that
person;
(1) has satisfied the air carrier that he or she has the knowledge and skills
required to conduct that training,
(2) if conducting aircraft type training, has successfully completed the ground
school for the type of aircraft including required examinations, and
(3) has completed the training prescribed in Subsection (c) of this section.
(b) No air carrier shall use a person to give flight instruction to a flight crewmember
unless that person;
(1) is qualified in accordance with Subsection (a) of this section,
(2) is the holder of all licences, ratings and certificates issued pursuant to Part 61,
which are required to act as the pilot in command of the aircraft type he or she
is to give instruction on,
(3) has been certified as competent from both pilot seats, to perform the duties
and responsibilities of the pilot flying and pilot not flying, while giving flight
instruction to the trainee, and
(4) has been given training in operation of aircraft type flight simulators or other
synthetic flight training device used for training purposes.
(c) Each instructor used to give formal training to any crewmember shall receive
training in;
(1) the fundamental principles of the teaching/learning process,
(2) teaching methods and procedures,
(3) the instructor/student relationship, and
(4) human factors relating to the effects of stress and hazardous attitudes.
135.411 Qualifications and Training Requirements for Company Check Pilots
(a) No air carrier shall use a person and no person shall act as a company check pilot
(CCP), unless that person;
(1) meets all the requirements of Section 135.409 of this Part,
(2) has received CCP specific training in at least the following subjects;
(i) CCP duties and responsibilities and the reporting relationship between a
CCP, the chief pilot and the Director,
(ii) applicable civil aviation safety regulations, the carrier’s operations
specifications, and all relevant procedures manuals,
SUBPART N N-3
(iii) the appropriate methods, procedures, and techniques for conducting the
proficiency checks, including flight test protocol,
(iv) proper evaluation of pilot performance including the detection of
(A) improper and insufficient training; and
(B) personal characteristics that could adversely affect safety,
(v) the appropriate action in the case of an unsatisfactory assessment, and
(vi) the approved methods, procedures, and limitations for performing the
required normal, abnormal, and emergency maneuvers in the aircraft.
(3) is the holder of a delegation of authority issued by the Director which
authorizes;
(i) the type of check to be performed, and
(ii) the type of aircraft to be performed in.
(4) has within the preceding 12 months, completed at least one proficiency check,
while being monitored by a DGCA inspector.
135.412 Qualifications: Ground Instructors and Flight Instructors For Flight

Attendant; Instructor for Flight Operations Officer
(a) For the purpose of this section:
(1) A Ground Instructor is a person who has the appropriate knowledge,

experience, training and demonstrated ability to instruct Flight Attendant in all
curriculum segments pertinent to flight attendant training on ground as required.
(2) A Flight Instructor is a person who has appropriate knowledge, experience,

training and demonstrated ability to instruct Flight Attendant in all curriculum
segments pertinent to flight attendant training in flight on airplane as required
(3) A Flight Operations Officer Instructor is a person who has appropriate training
experience and demonstrated ability to evaluate and certify to the knowledge
and skills of other Flight Operation Officer/Dispatcher.
(b) No certificate holder may use a person nor may any person serve as a Ground
Instructor and Flight Instructor for Flight Attendant in a training program established
under this part unless, with respect to the airplane type involved, that person:
(1) Complete an approved initial training program and held a license/ certificate of
flight attendant on type of aircraft for three years or equivalent with his/her
experience as a flight attendant in previous company;
(2) Complete instructor training course or equivalent;
(3) Observe subject(s) being taught by a qualified Instructor (minimum of 40 hours

observation)
(4) Be observed by a Company Instructor teaching a course for at least eight

hours;
(5) Hold at least a Class III medical certificate unless serving as required
crewmember, in which case holds a Class I or a Class II medical certificate as
appropriate;
SUBPART N N-4
(6) Maintain currency by teaching initial or recurrent training during the year and
attend the annual Instructor Workshop at the training facility.
(c) No certificate holder may use a person nor may any person serve as Flight
Operation Officer Instructor in a training program established under this
subpart unless, with respect to the airplane involved, that person:
(1) Complete an approved initial training program and held
license/certificate of Flight Operation Officer;
(2) Complete instructor training course or equivalent;
(3) Observe subject(s) being taught by a qualified Instructor (minimum of
40 hours observation);
(4) Be observed by a Company Instructor teaching a course for at least
eight hours;
(5) Maintain currency by teaching initial or recurrent training during the
year and attend the Annual Instructor Workshop at the training facility
(d) Completion of the requirement of this section as applicable shall be entered
in the individual’s training record maintained by the certificate holder.
135.413 Company Check Pilot Program
(a) Subject to Subsection (b) of this section, each air carrier who has been approved to
use a company check pilot shall publish its Company Check Pilot Program, (CCPP)
which must include at least;
(1) the duties and responsibilities of a CCP,
(2) qualifications of each person performing any crewmember, or flight operations
officer check, on behalf of the company,
(3) reporting relationships of check personnel with, company management and
the Director,
(4) the company’s basic training and checking philosophy,
(5) administration including at least;
(i) completion of appropriate check reports,
(ii) procedures for withdrawing licence privileges,
(iii) reporting of checks assessed as unsatisfactory,
(iv) record keeping
(b) Notwithstanding Subsection (a) of this section, the Director may cause to be
published, an Air Carrier Check Pilot Manual, (ACCPM), forming the basis of all
company check pilot functions and procedures.
135.415 Training and Qualification Records
(a) Every air carrier shall, for each person required to receive training under this
subpart, establish and maintain a record of;
(1) a person’s name, licence number(where applicable), all ratings, certificates,
and endorsements relating to the person’s position and function,
SUBPART N N-5
(2) if applicable, the person’s medical category and the expiry date of that
category,
(3) the dates on which the person while in the air carrier’s employ, successfully
completed any training, proficiency or competency check, examination or
certification or other qualification required by this subpart.
(4) a record of attendance of all portions of any course for which a course
calendar or syllabus is required to be published under this part,.
(5) information relating to any failure of a person, while in the air carrier’s employ,
to successfully complete a training, examination, proficiency or competency
check, or to obtain any qualification required by this subpart.
(6) the type and registration of any aircraft, or flight training device.
(b) An air carrier shall keep any record of training and examination required by this
subpart, for the period of time such record gives evidence of the person’s currency.
In the case of any proficiency or competency check, or a failure to qualify, the
record shall be retained for a period of three years.
(c) Any record required by this section shall be in a form approved by the Director and
such forms will be used regardless of where the training was completed. Subject to
the foregoing, an air carrier may keep its record of training and checking in a
computer format provided the information may be easily deciphered.
(d) Except where approved by the Director, any training record required by this section,
shall be maintained at the company’s main operational base and completed prior to
the trainee being assigned to any duty related to that training.
134.417 [Reserved]
135.419 [Reserved]
135.421 Training program approval
(a) Prior to any training program being delivered to a person, every air carrier shall
submit each training program or revision thereto to the Director for approval.
(b) The Director may give conditional approval either whole, or in part, to a proposed
training program, where he believes an evaluation of the program or part thereof
should be undertaken.
(c) Where a conditional approval has been issued, the Director will within the approval
period, monitor the program, either whole or in part, or may request additional
information or revision prior to giving formal approval
(d) In granting conditional and formal approval of training programs or revisions, the
Director considers the training syllabi, aids, devices, methods, and procedures listed
in the carrier’s program, and assess the capability of the program to achieve the
training objectives for each course.
(e) Whenever the Director finds that revisions are necessary for the continued
adequacy of a training program, he will advise the air carrier of the nature of
SUBPART N N-6
revision required. The carrier shall within 30 days submit to the Director, the
required revision for approval. Failure on the carrier’s part to comply with this
requirement will be cause for the program approval to be withdrawn.
(f) Where a training program approval has been withdrawn, such program will not be
given any training credits, until the approval has been re-instated.
135.423 Approval of Flight Simulators and Other Training Devices
(a) Each aircraft type flight simulator and other training device that is used in an air
carrier’s training and checking program must;
(1) be specifically approved for;
(i) the certificate holder;
(ii) the type of aircraft to be used, and
(iii) The particular manoeuvre, procedure, or crewmember function involved.
(2) Maintain the performance, functional, and other characteristics that are
required for approval.
(3) Be modified to conform with any modification to the aircraft being simulated
that results in changes to performance, functional, or other characteristics
required for approval.
(4) Be given a daily functional preflight check before being used.
(5) Have a daily discrepancy log kept with each discrepancy entered in that log by
the appropriate instructor or check airman at the end of each training or check
flight.
(b) Notwithstanding Subsection (a) of this section, the Director may disallow certain
training or checking credits where he is of the opinion that the simulator or training
device does not adequately represent the carrier’s aircraft.
135.425 [Reserved]
135.427 [Reserved]
135.429 Company Indoctrination Training
(a) No air carrier shall use any person pursuant to Section 135.401(b) unless that
person has completed an initial course of training in company indoctrination that
includes at least the following areas as they relate to the different employee groups:
(1) Company Operations Manual and significant CASRs as related to the
company;
(2) Company’s operating certificate and operation specifications;
(3) Company’s organization, duties and responsibilities of the management
personnel and the reporting relationship of all operational personnel to the
respective managers;
(4) Flight planning and operating procedures;
SUBPART N N-7
(5) Fuelling procedures including procedures for fuelling with passengers aboard
and, fuel contamination checks, aircraft grounding and bonding procedures;
(6) Passenger safety briefings and safe movement of passengers to and from the
aircraft;
(7) Use of the minimum equipment list;
(8) Company safety and emergency response programs;
(9) Accident/incident reporting procedures;
(10) Handling of disabled passengers;
(11) Operational Control System including flight release, flight watch and flight
following;
(12) Administration of flight documentation;
(13) Sufficient meteorological and air traffic control procedures as would be
appropriate to the most advanced aircraft in the air carrier’s fleet, except:
(i) where the company uses both VFR and IFR pilots; or
(ii) Where the company operates both fixed and rotary wing aircraft, this
training may be modified to suit the person receiving training and in all
cases any examination would be commensurate to the knowledge level
required for the licence held by the trainee.
(b) Notwithstanding any requirement in this section, every person who advances to
positions within the company that require additional or specialized knowledge, shall
be given the additional training required to achieve an acceptable level of
knowledge.
135.431 Windshear Training
(a) No air carrier shall assign a person to act as a flight crewmember unless that
person has received windshear training in accordance with the following;
(1) in the case of an aircraft type which does not use a flight simulator in the
approved training program:
(i) technical training in the recognition, effects and immediate actions
appropriate to the type of aircraft flown.
(2) In the case of turbojet aircraft type which does use a flight simulator in its
training program:
(i) the technical training required by Subsection (a)(1)(i) of the section; and
(ii) sufficient practice in controlling windshear profiles in the aircraft type
simulator to ensure each pilot’s ability to recognize, announce and
control the aircraft from the initial onset of the shear, to the point where
the aircraft has regained normal flight parameters.
(b) Windshear training prescribed herein shall be given on an initial and annual basis
for each aircraft type on which a person is assigned to act as a flight crewmember.
SUBPART N N-8
135.433 Crew Resource Management Training.
(a) No air carrier shall assign a person to act as a crewmember on any aircraft requiring
two or more crewmembers, unless that person has received crew resource
management training in accordance with the following:
(1) Initial training for all crewmembers shall cover the following subjects:
(i) attitudes and behaviors;
(ii) communication skills;
(iii) problem solving;
(iv) human factors;
(v) conflict resolution;
(vi) decision making;
(vii) team building and maintenance; and
(iii) workload management.
(2) Recurrent training as prescribed herein, shall be given every 12 months and
cover safety and emergency procedures and where possible, include joint
participation of pilots and flight attendants:
(i) relationship of crew members;
(ii) review of incidents/accidents of air carriers;
(iii) presentation and discussion of selected coordinated emergency
procedures; and
(iv) crewmember evacuation drills and debriefing.
135.435 Transportation of Dangerous Goods Training
(a) No air carrier shall permit any person described in Section 135.401(b) including
shippers, or any person not employed by the company, to handle, offer or give
directions to offer for transport, any dangerous goods unless that person;
(1) has within the preceding 12 months, received training in accordance with this
section; and
(2) is the holder of a certificate of training; or
(3) is acting under the direct supervision of a person trained in accordance with
this section.
(b) An air carrier’s course of training in the transportation of dangerous goods shall
include instructions as required by the applicable ICAO technical instructions
regarding the compatibility, loading, storage, and handling characteristics of all
hazardous materials. The course must ensure that the persons receiving training,
will acquire adequate knowledge regarding the proper packaging, marking,
labelling, and documentation of dangerous articles and magnetized materials as
appropriate to their duties.
(c) An air carrier shall issue to each person who has successfully complete the course
in the transportation of dangerous goods, a certificate of training, in card form,
which must be displayed any time such person is performing a task relating to
dangerous goods.
SUBPART N N-9
135.437 Emergency Equipment and Procedures Training
(a) No air carrier shall use any person as a crewmember unless that person has
completed initial and recurrent training in accordance with this section. Except
where noted the emergency training set forth in this section must be given with
respect to each aircraft type, model, and configuration operated by the carrier. In
addition, emergency training must be specific to each required crewmember, and
each kind of operation conducted, insofar as appropriate. Consideration shall be
given to the syllabus for air carriers of varying scope and size.
(b) Emergency training must provide the following:

(1) Instruction in emergency assignments and procedures, including coordination
among crewmembers;
(2) Individual instruction in the location, function, and operation of emergency
equipment including:
(i) Equipment used in ditching and evacuation;
(ii) First aid equipment and its proper use;
(iii) Portable fire extinguishers, with emphasis on type of extinguisher to be
used on different classes of fires; and
(iv) Emergency exits in the emergency mode with the evacuation slide/raft
pack attached (if applicable), with training emphasis on the operation of
the exits under adverse conditions;
(3) Instruction in the handling of emergency situations including:
(i) Rapid decompression;
(ii) Fire in flight or on the surface, and smoke control procedures with
emphasis on electrical equipment and related circuit breakers found in
cabin areas including all galleys, service centers, lifts, lavatories and
movie screens;
(iii) Ditching and other evacuation, including the evacuation of persons and
their attendants, if any, who may need the assistance of another person
to move expeditiously to an exit in the event of an emergency;
(iv) Illness, injury, or other abnormal situations involving passengers or
crewmembers to include familiarization with the emergency medical kit;
and
(v) Hijacking and other unusual situations.
(4) Review and discussion of previous aircraft accidents and incidents pertaining
to actual emergency situations.
(c) Each crewmember must accomplish the following emergency training during the
specified training periods, using those items of installed emergency equipment for
each type of aeroplane in which he or she is to serve. Where approved by the
Director, training required by this Subsection may be accomplished by approved
pictorial presentation or demonstration:
(1) One time emergency drill requirements to be accomplished during initial
training. Each crewmember must perform:
(i) At least one approved fire fighting drill in which the crewmember
combats an actual fire using at least one type of installed hand fire
extinguisher or approved fire extinguisher that is appropriate for the type
of fire to be fought; and
(ii) An emergency evacuation drill with each person exiting the aeroplane or
approved training device using at least one type of installed emergency
SUBPART N N - 10
evacuation slide. The crewmember may either observe the aeroplane

exits being opened in the emergency mode and the associated
exit-slide/raft pack being deployed and inflated, or perform the tasks
resulting in the accomplishment of these actions.
(2) Additional emergency drill requirements to be accomplished during initial
training and once each 24 calendar months during recurrent training. Each
crewmember must:
(i) Perform the following emergency drills and operate the following
equipment if applicable:
(A) Each type of emergency exit in the normal and emergency modes,
including the actions and forces required in the deployment of the
emergency evacuation slides;
(B) Each type of installed hand fire extinguisher;
(C) Each type of emergency oxygen system;
(D) Donning, use, and inflation of individual floatation means, if
applicable; and
(E) Ditching, if applicable, including but not limited to, as appropriate:
(1) Cockpit preparation and procedures;
(2) Crew coordination;
(3) Passenger briefing and cabin preparation;
(4) Donning and inflation of life preservers;
(5) Use of life lines; and
(6) Boarding of passengers and crew into raft or a slide/raft pack.
(ii) Observe the following drills if applicable:
(A) Removal from the aeroplane (or training device) and inflation of
each type of life raft;
(B) Transfer of each type of slide/raft pack from one door to another;
(C) Deployment, inflation, and detachment from the aeroplane (or
training device) of each type of slide/raft pack; and
(D) Emergency evacuation including the use of a slide.
(d) Crewmembers who serve in operations above 25,000 feet must receive instruction
in the following:
(1) Respiration;
(2) Hypoxia;
(3) Duration of useful consciousness without supplemental oxygen at altitude;
(4) Gas expansion;
(5) Gas bubble formation,;and
(6) Physical phenomena and incidents of decompression.
135.439 Aircraft Surface Contamination Training
(a) No air carrier shall assign a person to act as a flight crew member of an aircraft
which could within reason, be expected to encounter the effects of surface
contamination, unless that person has received within the preceding 12 months;
(1) the initial and recurrent training in safety awareness of the effects of
contamination on the critical surfaces of the aircraft including;
(i) responsibility of the PIC and other operations personnel;
SUBPART N N - 11
(ii) regulations related to operations in icing conditions;

(iii) weather conducive to ice, frost and snow contamination;
(iv) inspection before flight and removal of contamination;
(v) in-flight icing recognition; and
(vi) hazards related to critical surface contamination of ice, frost and snow.
135.441 Category II and Category III Operations Training
(a) No air carrier shall assign a person to act as pilot in command of an aircraft in
weather conditions below Category I limits, unless that person has completed the
air carriers initial and recurrent ground and flight training as prescribed in this
section. The training prescribed herein must include:
(1) ground training in at least the following subjects:
(i) legal requirements for take-off and landing in lower than Cat I weather;
(ii) operational characteristics, capabilities and limitations of Cat II/III:
(A) aeroplane systems; and
(B) ground based systems.
(iii) resolution of DH/AH;
(iv) visual cues; and
(v) crew duties and co-ordination during normal, abnormal and emergency
situations.
(2) flight training required to be accomplished in an aircraft type simulator of the
type to be used and shall include at least the following procedures:
(i) two take-offs, with runway visual range reduced to 600 RVR;
(ii) one rejected take-off from speed of not less than V1 minus 10 knots,
with runway visual range reduced to 600 RVR;
(iii) a missed approach from the lowest minima, as applicable;
(iv) an auto landing from one of the approaches or a manual landing, as
appropriate, at the maximum crosswind authorized; and
(v) for category III operations predicated on the use of a fail-passive rollout
control system, a manual rollout using visual reference or a combination
of visual and instrument references.
135.443 Extended Range Twin-Engine Operations Training
(a) No air carrier shall assign a flight crewmember to act in an ETOPS operation unless
such person has completed the air carrier’s training/checking program in respect to
extended range operations. This training and checking program shall cover the
following and be given on an initial and recurrent basis.
(1) introduction to ETOPS regulations/ operational approvals;
(2) routes and airports intended to be used in the Extended Range area of
operations;
(3) performance:
(i) flight planning, and plotting, including all contingencies;
(ii) flight performance progress monitoring; and
(4) procedures:
SUBPART N N - 12
(i) diversion procedures and diversion "decision making". Special initial and
recurrent training to prepare flight crews to evaluate probable propulsion
and airframe failures must be accomplished;
(ii) use of appropriate navigation and communication systems including
appropriate flight management devices;
(iii) abnormal and emergency procedures to be followed in the event of
foreseeable failures for each area of operation, including:
(A) procedures for single and multiple equipment failures in flight that
would precipitate go/no-go and diversion decisions. If standby
sources of electrical power significantly degrade cockpit
instrumentation, then approved training that simulates approaches
with the standby generator as the sole power source should be
conducted during initial and recurrent training;
(B) operational restrictions associated with these failures including any
applicable MEL considerations;
(C) procedures for in-flight restart of the propulsion systems, including
APU, if required; and
(D) crew incapacitation.
(5) use of emergency equipment including protective breathing and ditching
equipment;
(6) procedures to be followed in the event that there is a change in conditions at
designated en route alternates that would preclude a safe approach and
landing;
(7) understanding and effective use of approved additional or modified equipment
required for ETOPS;
(8) fuel requirements and management: and
(9) dispatch considerations (MEL, DDG, CDL, weather minima, and flight crew
performed maintenance service checks); and
135.445 Aircraft Technical Ground Training
person has received the aircraft technical ground training prescribed by this Section,
as applicable to the aircraft type and that person’s assigned duties. Such training
shall include the following subjects to a depth of comprehension relative to the
crewmember’s need to know;
(1) description of all aircraft systems and major components including:
(i) design and operation philosophy;
(ii) applicable AFM limitations;
(iii) normal, abnormal and emergency procedure;
(iv) Standard Operating Procedures;
(v) MEL, DDG. CDL and supplemental procedures.
(2) In the case of the pilot in command of a rotorcraft, that training required by
CASR if and as applicable;
(3) aircraft performance;
(4) flight planning;
SUBPART N N - 13
(5) weight and balance procedures, and where the operation involves specialty
equipment or procedures:
(i) modified or special equipment installed; and
(ii) specific procedures relating to such modification or special equipment.
(b) Recurrent technical ground training shall be conducted every 12 months and be in
sufficient depth to provide an adequate review of all the subjects contained in
Subsection (a) of this section.
(c) All training times must meet the requirements of Appendix N-B, of this Part.
135.447 Aircraft Flight Training
person has successfully completed the aircraft type flight training prescribed by this
Section. Where approved by the Director, such training may be provided in:
(1) an aircraft type flight simulator;
(2) an aircraft;
(3) and in part, a synthetic training device (STD); or
(4) a combination of an aircraft type flight simulator, STD and an aircraft but in any
case not less than the minimum times laid down in Appendix N-B, of this Part.
(b) The Director may give certain flight training/checking credits to synthetic training
devices where he is of the opinion that such device is:
(1) a true mock-up of the actual aircraft and is accurate in layout, equipment and
design;
(2) is sufficiently functional to physically position switches and controls to their
appropriate position; and
(3) is used only to prepare a trainee flight crewmember:
(i) for the first motion session of the aircraft or aircraft type flight simulator;
or
(ii) the aural portion of a proficiency or competency check.
(c) Initial and recurrent flight training for pilots must include the standard operating
procedures for normal, abnormal, and emergency operation of the aircraft systems
and components as appropriate to crew position and duties. In providing practice in
the manoeuvres and procedures as specified herein, the flight training program
must include any additional manoeuvres required to satisfy the carrier’s programs
for:
(1) low level windshear;
(2) ETOPSl
(3) CAT II/III; or
(4) other special operations, for which the authority requires additional training.
(d) Where the manoeuvres and procedures required by Subsection (c) of this section,
are to be accomplished in an aircraft, they shall include as appropriate to the aircraft
type and trainee pilot and, consistent with safety;
SUBPART N N - 14
(1) all pre-flight activity as laid down in the COM and appropriate to flight training;
(2) use of aircraft checklist system, including interior and exterior checks;
(3) taxiing;
(4) aspects of flight and cabin crew co-operation, including briefing, and co-
ordination of duties;
(5) take-off, approach and landings including:
(i) normal, full stop and touch and go;
(ii) rejected from not more than 60 knots on take-off, or less than 100 feet
on approach to land;
(iii) simulated abnormal flap and flight control conditions;
(iv) landing with the critical engine in a simulated failed condition; and
(v) in the case of a single engine aircraft, no power forced landing.
(6) normal manoeuvres during climb, descent and level flight at low and high
altitudes;
(7) approaches to a stall and recovery procedures, simulating ground contact
imminent and ground contact not a factor, in the clean, take-off and landing
configuration;
(8) steep turns, onset of mach buffet, or other flight characteristic as applicable to
the aircraft type;
(9) simulated malfunction of aircraft systems sufficient to ensure practice in all
abnormal and emergency conditions for which the aircraft manufacture has
published a checklist or procedure, including:
(i) engine failure and fire while airborne and on the ground; and
(ii) emergency passenger evacuation; and
(10) other specialized aircraft equipment where applicable; and
(11) where the aircraft is operated IFR, the training shall include:
(i) take-off, departure, enroute, holding and arrival manoeuvres; and
(ii) all types of instrument approaches and missed approaches in simulated
conditions of low ceiling and visibility, including circling approaches
(where applicable) using all levels of automation within the aircraft’s
capability; and
(12) in the case of a helicopter, the training shall include:
(i) practice in carriage of external loads, ( as applicable);
(ii) precision hovering into and out of ground effect, including vertical
reference maneuvering;
(iii) autorotations, anti-torque and other malfunctions specific to helicopters;,
and
(iv) training in any other procedure or specialized operations as deemed
appropriate to the Director.
(e) Where the manoeuvres and procedures required by Subsection (c) of this section,
are to be accomplished in an aircraft type simulator, they shall include as
appropriate to the aircraft type and trainee pilot and consistent with simulator
capabilities:
(1) All the maneuvers and procedures prescribed by Subsection (d) of this
section, except they shall be presented:
SUBPART N N - 15
(i) in a manner that maximizes the training value gained by use of that
simulator including Line Orientated Flight Training (LOFT) exercises
where applicable; and
(ii) in accordance with the detailed lesson plans prescribed in Subsection
(f) of this section.
(f) In addition to the syllabus requirements prescribed by Subsection (b) of section 403,
of this subpart, where an air carrier is approved to conduct flight training, in an
aircraft type simulator, the air carrier shall publish a simulator training program:
(1) in a series of lesson plans that cover the entire simulator phase of training,
including a sample pre-flight test, in sufficient detail to:
(i) indicate the expected weather for the most part of the session;
(ii) indicates relevant aircraft data, dispatch deviations etc.;
(iii) lists specific pre-flight briefing points related to that lesson;
(iv) indicates any periods of time during the lesson, where unrealistic
exercises or departures from real time profiles may be experienced; and
(v) gives details as to the airports, routes, terminal and approach
procedures to be used during the session.
(2) that prescribes the specific manoeuvres and procedures to be presented
during each session;
(3) that shows a logical progression in the complexity of the exercises;
(4) that ensures, more demanding exercises receive adequate repetitions to
achieve a high level of skill;
(5) that gives the instructor the freedom to modify a lesson in order to make that
session more beneficial to the trainee pilot; and
(6) is approved by the director.
(g) Every flight or simulator instructor who gives instruction to a person shall;
(1) begin each training session with a briefing and aural quiz which will ensure the
trainee pilot understands;
(i) what he or she will be practicing in the session: and
(ii) the maneuvers and procedures sufficiently to under go the training
scheduled for that day.
(2) end each session with an in depth debriefing which will ensure the trainee
understands any errors made during the lesson and knows what remedial
study if any, will be required prior to progressing to the next lesson;
(3) prior to being relieved by another instructor on any flight training course, give a
comprehensive briefing to that instructor as to the progress being made by the
trainee pilot(s), to that point; and
(4) not recommend any trainee pilot for a proficiency or competency check until
the trainee has completed the entire approved flight training course and that
trainee’s record, indicates that incomplete or deficient areas have been
brought to a satisfactory level of achievement.
SUBPART N N - 16
135.449 Differences training:
(a) No air carrier shall use any person pursuant to Section 135.401(b) unless that
person has completed an initial course of training and differences training consisting
of at least the following as applicable to their assigned duties and responsibilities:
(1) Instruction in each subject required for initial and recurrent ground training
where differences in the carrier’s aircraft fleet occur; and
(2) instruction in each maneuver or procedure required for initial and recurrent
flight training, where differences in the carrier’s aircraft fleet occur.
(b) Differences training for all variations of a particular type aircraft may be
incorporated into the initial, and recurrent ground and flight training programs
for the aircraft type subject to differences or, may be published as a separate
syllabus.
135.451 Upgrade Training
(a) Where a flight crewmember has been previously trained and certified to act as a
second-in-command of an aircraft, no air carrier shall assign that person to act as
the pilot-in-command and that person shall not act as pilot-in-command of that
aircraft unless:
(1) that person has completed the initial technical ground and flight training
prescribed in Sections 135.445, 135.447 and is otherwise qualified in
accordance with this Subpart, to act as a pilot-in-command; or
(2) has undergone the upgrade training prescribed in Subsection (b) of this section.
(b) Upgrade training and checking for a pilot who is qualified as a second-in-command
on that aeroplane type shall include the following:
(1) training as pilot in command in all the areas of aeroplane handling and
operation as prescribed in Section 135.447;
(2) pilot in command decision making;
(3) any special operations training required specifically for a PIC;
(4) an initial pilot proficiency check for a PIC; and
(5) line indoctrination training and check as required by this subpart.
(c) Upgrade training shall not qualify a SIC to act as PIC if, the flight crewmember’s
PPC as second-in-command, has been expired for more than 24 months.
135.453 Line Indoctrination Training for Flight Crew Members
(a) No air carrier shall assign a person to act as a flight crewmember of and aircraft that
has a maximum certified take-off weight of more than 12,500 pounds or a turbojet
unless, that person has undergone or is undergoing, line indoctrination as
prescribed herein, while under the supervision of a flight instructor or CCP qualified
on that type:
(1) Line indoctrination shall be conducted over parts of the company’s route
structure, or in the case of a non scheduled air transportation service, over
routes within the operational areas which are typical to the air carrier;
SUBPART N N - 17
(2) Line indoctrination shall cover the following areas to ensure each flight
crewmember has been adequately trained to perform their assigned duties
and is aware of the company’s policies with respect to;
(i) crew management and discipline;
(ii) responsibilities of the PIC and other flight crew members; and
(iii) responsibilities of the cabin crew;
(iv) MEL policy and procedures;
(v) C of A and other documentation;
(vi) deferred defects;
(vii) dispatch and maintenance release;
(viii) manuals and logbook;
(ix) Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice Recorder;
(x) emergency exits-number, access, lighting and marking;
(xi) fire extinguishers;
(xii) crash axe;
(xiii) oxygen and first aid equipment, and survival equipment;
(xiv) company fuel policy.
(xv) fuelling procedures;
(xvi) load security;
(xvii) ground equipment and handling;
(xviii) pre-flight safety and crew briefings;
(xix) departure and climb procedures;
(xx) fuel management and checks;
(xxi) approach procedures;
(xxii) landing and taxiing procedures; and
(xxiii) flight logs and defect recording
(3) Special considerations such as significant terrain, noise abatement, unique
SAR requirements or any situation which presents itself during line
indoctrination training which would require a crew response.
(b) During line indoctrination, a flight crewmember shall be given the following minimum
operating experience, while performing the duties appropriate to their crew station.
Sectors/hours acquired during proving or ferry flights may be counted towards this
requirement. The required number of flying hours and sectors apply to both PIC
and SIC are;
(1) Reciprocating engines - 15 flight hours.
After completing the 4 flight hours, the remaining time may be reduced by 1
hour for each additional sector flown to a maximum reduction of 7.5 flight hours;
(2) Turbo propeller engines - 20 flight hours.
After completing the 5 flight hours, the remaining time may be reduced by 1 hour for
each additional sector flown to a maximum reduction of 10 flight hours;
(3) Turbojet engines - 25 flight hours.
No reduction in time requirement is permitted.
(c) A sector is considered to be any flight which has a take-off and landing at different
airports which are not less than 50 nautical miles apart.
SUBPART N N - 18
135.455 Recency of Experience Training
(a) Pursuant to Section 135.389(a)(3) of subpart M, any pilot who has not completed 3
takeoffs and landings within the previous 90 days shall regain competency by
undergoing the following recency of experience training:
(1) conduct three takeoffs and landings as the pilot flying in an aircraft which is not
carrying passengers; and
(2) where the period of time since the last flight in that type of aircraft, that the
pilot acted as the pilot flying is greater than 120 days:
(i) receive a briefing on changes that have occurred to the aircraft or its
operation since the last flight;
(ii) complete three take-off and landings in an aircraft not carrying
passengers; and
(3) where the aircraft type is a turbojet or has a MCTOW of greater than 12500
pounds, the take-off and landings shall be done under the supervision of a
training pilot or CCP qualified on that type, and one take-off and landing shall
be practiced with the simulated failure of the critical engine.
(b) Where the air carrier has been given authority to use a flight simulator for the type
of aircraft on which recency training is required, and that simulator has been given
landing credits, the take-off and landing requirement of this section may be satisfied
in that simulator.
135.457 Flight Attendant Ground Training
(a) No air carrier shall assign a person to act and no person shall act as a flight
attendant on an aircraft that is required to carry flight attendants, unless that person
has completed the air carriers ground training for flight attendants prescribed by this
section. Initial and recurrent ground training must include instruction in at least the
following:
(1) General subjects:
(i) The authority of the pilot in command, and succession of command;
(ii) Relevant Safety and Security Regulations;
(iii) Passenger handling, including under age children;
(iv) Approved crew resource management training;
(v) Company policy manuals relating to the duties of a flight attendant;
(vi) Customs and immigrations procedures;
(vii) Passenger briefing; and
(viii) Passenger cabin preparation and securing.
(2) For each aeroplane type:
(i) A general description of the aircraft emphasizing physical characteristics
that may have a bearing on ditching, evacuation, and in-flight
emergency procedures and on other related duties;
(ii) The use of both the public address system and the means of
communicating with other flight crewmembers; and
(iii) Proper use of electrical galley equipment and the controls for cabin heat
and ventilation.
(3) For emergency or security equipment and procedures;
SUBPART N N - 19
(i) location and operation of all aircraft exits, including normal, alternate
and emergency modes of operation;
(ii) location and use of all emergency equipment on board each aircraft;
(iii) normal and alternate means of communication and communication
procedures for normal, emergency and security situations;
(iv) alternate duties in the event of the incapacitation of other crew
members;
(v) passenger emergency briefings and aural commands;
(vi) armed intervention or unruly passengers;
(vii) cabin and passenger preparation for emergency landing, ditching and
evacuation; and
(vii) medical emergencies on board including administering oxygen.
(4) For practical training:
(i) use of fire extinguishers;
(ii) use of oxygen walk around equipment;
(iii) use of all emergency exits;
(iv) passenger preparation and evacuation, and
(v) use of any other life saving equipment on board a specific aircraft including the
onboard medical kit.
(b) Initial and recurrent ground training for flight attendants must include a competence
check to determine ability to perform assigned duties and responsibilities.
135.459 Flight Attendant Operational Training
attendant on an aircraft that is required to carry flight attendants, unless that person
has completed the air carrier’s flight attendant operational training prescribed by this
section:
(1) A flight attendant must for a number of hours acceptable to the DGCA perform
the assigned duties of a flight attendant on board an aircraft, while under the
supervision of a flight attendant supervisor qualified on that aircraft type.
(b) Flight attendant operational training is not required for a flight attendant who has
previously acquired such experience on any passenger-carrying aeroplane of the
same group, if;
(1) that person has received with respect to that aircraft, the initial ground training
as prescribed by section 135.457 (a)(2) and (3) of this subpart,
(2) that person has for that type of aeroplane, successfully completed the
competency check outlined in this Subpart.
(c) Flight attendant operational training prescribed herein may be completed in a

full-scale (except for length) cabin training device of the type aeroplane in which
they are to serve, provided;
(1) the cabin training device has been approved by the Director, and
(2) has successfully completed a competency check outlined in this Subpart.
SUBPART N N - 20
135.461 Flight Operations Officers Training

operations officer unless that person has successfully completed the initial and
recurrent ground and flight observation training prescribed in this section.
(b) Initial and recurrent ground training for flight operations officers must include
instruction in at least the following:
(1) General subjects:
(i) Civil Aviation Safety regulations as applicable,
(ii) Company Operations Manual (COM) with emphasis placed on;
(A) duties and responsibilities of an FOO,
(B) company operating specifications,
(C) principles of operational control over a flight,
(D) principle of co-authority dispatch, and flight release,
(E) flight crew briefing procedures,
(F) MEL procedures
(G) maintenance release procedures,
(H) company’s flight watch/ flight following systems,
(I) FOO hand-off procedures,
(J) company operational weather minima,
(K) company operational flight plans,
(L) weight and balance, load control procedures,
(M) fuelling policy,
(N) flight and duty time limitations,
(O) communication procedures for normal, emergency and security
situations,
(P) action in the event of a missing aircraft, or accident
(Q) company’s emergency response plan, and
(R) any other information contained in the COM which would be
considered significant to a FOO.
(iii) Meteorology, including various types of meteorological information and
forecasts, interpretation of weather data (including forecasting of
enroute and terminal temperatures and other weather conditions),
frontal systems, wind conditions, and use of actual and prognostic
weather charts for various altitudes;
(iv) The NOTAM system;
(v) Navigational aids and publications;
(vi) Characteristics of appropriate airports;
(vii) Prevailing weather phenomena and the available sources of weather
information;
(viii) Air traffic control and instrument approach procedures;
(ix) Approved dispatcher resource management (DRM) initial training.
(2) For each aircraft:
(i) A general description of the aeroplane emphasizing operating and
performance characteristics, navigation equipment, instrument
approach and communication equipment, emergency equipment and
procedures, and other subjects having a bearing on flight operation
officer duties and responsibilities;
(ii) Weight and balance computations;
(iii) Basic aeroplane take-off, enroute and landing performance
(iv) Flight planning including track selection, flight time analysis, and fuel
requirements; and
SUBPART N N - 21
(v) Emergency procedures.

(c) Prior to advancing to flight observation training, each FOO who has completed initial
and recurrent ground training prescribed herein shall undergo a competency check
conducted by a FOO supervisor. This check must be such that will confirm the
trainee’s knowledge in the subjects set forth in Paragraph (a) of this section, and the
ability to satisfactorily accomplish the duties of a FOO.
(d) Each FOO initial and recurrent training course must include at least one complete
flight or series of flights along a typical route or area of operation, in each aircraft
that person is assigned to act as a FOO. In aircraft where there is no flight deck
observer seat, a seat in the forward cabin which gives the best view of the cockpit,
and a head set shall be assigned to the observing FOO.
(e) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this section, a FOO may perform the duties of an
FOO provided;
(1) such duties are under the direct supervision of a FOO qualified under this part,
and
(2) such duties are for the purpose of providing on-the-job training to a FOO trainee
135.463 Aircraft Servicing and Ground Handling Training
(a) No air carrier shall assign a person to render any ground handling or servicing of
any aircraft unless such person has completed the training prescribed in this
section, except those duties performed by a certified aircraft maintenance engineer.
Training in aircraft servicing and ground handling shall include:
(1) fuelling procedures:
(i) types of fuel, oil and fluids use in the aircraft,
(ii) correct fuelling procedures,
(iii) procedures for checking fuel, oil and fluids and proper securing of caps.
(2) use of tow bars and maximum nose wheel deflection when towing,
(3) use of the parking brake, and emergency air braking system,
(4) installation of protective covers on the aircraft,
(5) aircraft handling procedures,
(i) marshalling procedures,
(ii) standard hand signals,
(6) opening and closing aircraft external doors,
(7) safety precautions to be taken around aircraft, and
(8) noise and flicker vertigo
135.465 [Reserved]
135.467 [Reserved]
135.469 Pilot Proficiency Checks
(a) Initial and recurrent pilot proficiency checks shall be conducted in accordance with
checking standards prescribed in Schedules I, II or lIl of Appendix N-A, to this Part,
SUBPART N N - 22
(FLIGHT CHECKING STANDARDS), as appropriate to the aircraft type and

crewmember.
(b) An air carrier shall publish in its training manual the competency check standards
for single-engine aircraft.
135.471 Validity Periods for Proficiency and Competency
(a) No air carrier shall assign a person to act and no person shall act, as;
(1) a flight crew member, (in the appropriate crew position)
(2) a flight attendant, or,
(3) a flight operations officer,
on any type of aircraft unless, in addition to completing the annual recurrent
training required by this subsection, that person has successfully completed a
Pilot Proficiency Check, (PPC), Pilot Competency Check, (PCC) or
Competency Check, (CC), the validity period of which has not expired.
Validity periods for a PPC, PCC, or CC, are as prescribed herein;
(1) In the case of a multi-engine aircraft with a MCTOW of greater than 12500
pounds, or a turbojet aircraft, a PPC shall be valid to;
(i) for a PIC, the first day of the seventh (7) month following the month the
PPC was taken, and
(ii) for a SIC, the first day of the thirteenth (13) month following the month in
which the PPC was taken,
(2) In the case of a multi-engine aircraft with a MCTOW of 12500 pounds or less,
except for turbojet aircraft, a PPC shall be valid to;
(i) for a PIC, the first day of the thirteenth (13) month following the month
the PPC was taken, and
(ii) for a SIC, the first day of the twenty fifth (25) month following the month
in which the PPC was taken.
(3) In the case of a single engine aeroplane, a Pilot Competency Check, (PCC),
shall be valid to the first day of the thirteenth (13) month following the month in
which the PCC was taken.
(4) In the case of a single engine helicopter, a pilot proficiency check, PPC shall
be valid to the first day of the thirteenth (13) month, from the month the PPC
was taken.
(5) In the case of a flight attendant, a competency check shall be valid to the first
day of the twenty fifth (25) month following the month in which the CC was
taken.
(6) In the case of a FOO, a competency check shall be valid to the first of the
thirteenth month, following the month in which the CC was taken.
(b) An approved company check pilot who has been delegated the authority to perform
flight checks on that aircraft type, or a DGCA inspector shall conduct any pilot
proficiency check required by this Subpart. The Director or a person acceptable to
him, shall conduct all other checks required by this Subpart. An air carrier shall
submit to the Director for approval, a list of proposed examiners, including their
qualifications relevant to their position as examiners.
SUBPART N N - 23
(c) For the purposes of completing any check required by this subpart, where an
aircraft type simulator has been approved for training;
(1) in the cases of a PPC required by Subsections (a)(1) and (2) of this section,
the same credits given the simulator for training purposes shall apply to the
PPC.
(2) In the case of the CC required by Subsection (a)(5) of this section, the same
training credits given to that cabin training device, shall apply to the CC.
(d) Where any flight simulator, or other training device approved for training and
checking, does not have all the training and checking credits needed to complete
the entire check, the portions of such check not approved to be completed in a
simulator, must be carried out in that type of aircraft, as appropriate.
(e) Where a pilot proficiency check, a competency check or annual training is renewed
within the last 90 days of its validity period, such check or training is deemed to have
taken place on the last day of the validity period.
(f) The Director may extend the validity period of a pilot proficiency check, a competency
check or annual training by up to 60 days where the Director is of the opinion that
aviation safety is not likely to be affected.
(g) Where the validity period of a pilot proficiency check, a competency check or annual
training has been expired for 24 months or more, the person shall requalify by
meeting all initial training requirements relating to that aircraft.
135.473 Line Checks
(a) No air carrier shall assign a person to act, and no person shall act, as pilot-in-
command of a multi-engine aircraft which has a MCTOW of greater than 12500
pounds, or is a turbojet aircraft unless,
(1) within the preceding twelve (12) months, that person has passed a line check as
prescribed in Subsection (b) of this section, in the type of aircraft he is to fly,
(2) the aircraft is not authorized in the carrier’s operations specifications for the
carriage of passengers.
(b) A line check required by this section shall, be conducted by a company check
pilot who has been delegated the authority to perform flight checks on that
aircraft type.
(c) A line check required by this section shall be administered to each PIC required to
undergo a line check and shall observe such person on at least one flight segment,
accomplishing his/her normal duties in the following phases of flight;
(1) Pre-flight procedures and duties as laid down in the COM
(2) Aircraft, acceptance and pre-flight checks including safety briefings
(3) take-off and departure including SID procedures and initial climb,
(4) enroute procedures, including fuel and progress monitoring,
(5) terminal procedures for arrival, approach and landing, and
(6) post flight duties, including log and defect reporting.
SUBPART N N - 24
SUBPART O - FLIGHT AND DUTY TIME LIMITATIONS
This subpart prescribes the rules governing flight and duty time limitations, required rest
periods and days off for pilots, flight attendants and flight operation officers.
135.493 Flight and Duty Time Monitoring System
(a) Every air carrier shall establish a system that monitors the flight time, flight duty
time, and rest periods for each person specified in Section 491 of this Subpart. The
details of that system must be published in the carrier’s COM.
(b) Where a person becomes aware that an air carrier has assigned them to act as a
crew member and that assignment will result in their maximum flight, or flight duty
time being exceeded, that crewmember shall notify the carrier of the projected
overrun.
135.495 Flight Time Limitations for Flight Crewmembers
(a) Subject to Subsection (b) of this section, no air carrier shall assign a person to act
as a flight crewmember and no person shall accept such assignment, if that flight
crewmember’s total flight time in all flights conducted by him or her will exceed;
(1) 1050 hours in any 365 consecutive days,
(4) where the flight is conducted on an aeroplane with a MCTOW of greater than
1500 pounds, 35 hours in any 7 consecutive days,
(5) where the flight is conducted on aeroplanes having a MCTOW of 12500
pounds or less, or any helicopter, 40 hours in any 7 consecutive days, and
(6) daily flight and duty time limitations as laid down in CASR 135.497 Schedule 1.
(b) An air carrier may assign a person to act as a flight crewmember and a Person may
accept such assignment, where the maximum flight time limitations exceed those
times specified in Subsection (a),(2), (3) and (4) of this section if,
(1) the air carrier is so approved in its operations specifications,
(2) the increased flight time limitations are not more than an additional 25 percent
of the maximums prescribed in Subsections, (a), (2), (3) and (4) of this section,
(3) the flight crewmember to be assigned, signs a letter stating their agreement, to
the increased flight times,
(4) the maximum flight duty period does not exceed, 12 hours in any 24
consecutive hours for flights conducted by day, or 10 hours in any 24
consecutive hours, where more than one third of the duty period is conducted
during the hours of darkness,
SUBPART O O-1
(5) the maximum flight time must not exceed 8 hours in any 24 consecutive hours,
for aeroplanes having a MCTOW of greater than 12500 pounds and 10 hours
in any 24 consecutive hours, for aircraft with a MCTOW of 12500 pounds or
less, and
(6) such flights are not for the purpose of conducting a commuter air service.
(b) For the purposes of calculating any flight times, or flight duty time limitation, all
limitations shall be deemed to have returned to zero, if;
(1) the flight crewmember has received, while in the employ of the air carrier, not
less than 30 consecutive days off, not including days off earned, annual, or
sick leave.
135.497 Flight and Duty Time Limitations
(a) Subject to Subsections (c), (d) and (e) of this section, no air carrier shall assign a
flight crewmember to a flight duty period, and no flight crewmember shall accept
such assignment, if that flight duty period, is scheduled to exceed the maximum
flight duty times prescribed herein. Such duty periods are to be calculate in periods
of 24 consecutive hours:
(b) schedule 1:
Maximum Flight
Minimum Additional Subject to Subsections/Remarks
and Duty times
Flight Crew Flight Crew
Duty Flight (c) (d) (e)
One Nil 12 Hrs 6 Hrs No No No
Two Nil 12 Hrs 9 Hrs No No No
Two One 14 Hrs 10 Hrs Yes No Yes
Two One 16 Hrs 11 Hrs No Yes Yes
One Nil 12 Hrs 6 Hrs Helicopter
Two Nil 12 Hrs 7 Hrs Helicopter
One /Two Nil 12 Hrs 5 Hrs Helicopter engaged in external
load or multi-landing operations.
(c) Where the air carrier elects to carry an additional flight crewmember for the purpose
of extending a flight duty period to a maximum of 14 duty hours, it shall provide a
flight relief facility in the form of a seat. Such seat must be fully reclining, with
adequate leg room for maximum comfort, equipped with a call device, seat restraint
system and be screened off from other passenger seats. The flight relief facility
seat must also be located where distractions or noise can controlled to a minimum.
Flight relief shall be divided in as much as possible into three segments of equal
length but shall in any event ensure the maximum flight deck time for any one pilot
is 6 hours.
(d) Where the air carrier elects to carry an additional flight crewmember for the purpose
of extending a flight duty period to a maximum of 16 duty hours, it shall provide a
flight relief facility in the form of a bunk. Such flight relief facility must meet all the
requirements of the seat described in Subsection (c) of this section except, it must
permit the flight crewmember to rest in the fully prone position. Flight relief shall be
divided in as much as possible into three segments of equal length but shall in any
event ensure the maximum flight deck time or any one pilot is 6 hours.
SUBPART O O-2
(e) Where an air carrier has assigned a flight crewmember to any extended flight duty
period, it shall provide that flight crewmember with extended crew rest periods. These
rest period extensions, of not less than two hours, shall be added to the minimum
required rest periods, both preceding and following that extended flight duty period.
(f) Notwithstanding the limitations prescribed in this section, where unforeseen

operational circumstances occur, a flight duty period may be extended by up to 3
consecutive hours provided that:
(1) the crew rest following the time overrun shall be extended by at least the
amount of time equivalent to the overrun,
(2) the flight crewmembers involved are of the opinion that flight safety will not be
adversely effected by the extended duty, and
(3) the PIC submits a full report on the delays or circumstances surrounding the
extension.
135.499 Flight Crewmembers on Reserve
(a) Where a flight crewmember is required to standby on reserve status, that

crewmember must be given an opportunity to received not less than 8 consecutive
hours of prone rest within each 24 hour reserve period, and;
(1) during which rest period there has been no contact from the carrier, and
(2) the flight crewmember has been given not less than 24 hours notice as to
when that rest period has been scheduled.
135.501 [Reserved]
135.503 Crew Rest Period
Except as provided in this Subpart for an increased crew rest period, at the conclusion
of each duty period, an air carrier shall provide such crewmember with a crew rest;
(1) that allows for not less than 8 hours of prone rest,
(2) that meets all the requirements of a crew rest period, as defined in Section
135.01 “Rest Period”.
135.505 Required Day Off
(a) An air carrier shall provide each crewmember and each flight operations officer with
not less than one day off as defined by section 135.01. “Required Day Off” in each 7
consecutive days, except:
(1) where a person is stationed for an extended period of time at a location other
than that person’s domicile, and where that person is in agreement, such station
may be considered, for the purposes of a day off, that person’s domicile.
(2) where an air carrier provides more than the minimum of one day off in any 7
consecutive day period, the requirement to provide such day off at that
person’s domicile, does not apply. All other provisions of Section 135.01,
“Required Day Off”, are applicable.
SUBPART O O-3
135.507 [Reserved]
135.509 [Reserved]
135.511 [Reserved]
135.513 Flight Attendant duty period limitations
(a) An air carrier may assign a Flight Attendant to a duty period only in accordance with
the duty time limitations prescribed herein.
(1) Subject to Subsection (a)(5) of this section, no air carrier may assign a Flight
Attendant to a scheduled duty period of more than 14 hours.
(2) No air carrier may assign a Flight Attendant any duty period unless the Flight
Attendant has had at least the minimum rest required by section 135.01, “Rest
Period”.
(3) An air carrier shall provide each Flight Attendant at least one day off as
defined by Section 135.01, “Required Day Off”, during any 7 consecutive day
period.
(4) A Flight Attendant is not considered to be scheduled for duty in excess of duty
period limitations if,
(i) the flights to which the Flight Attendant is assigned are scheduled and
normally terminate within the limitations,
(ii) due to unforeseen circumstances a delay at the originating station,
results in a projected late arrival at the destination airport, and
(iii) The provisions of Subsection 497(f) are adhered to
(5) A Flight Attendant may be assigned to duty on a flight which is scheduled in
accordance with Section 497 of this subpart, provided:
(i) the minimum required cabin crew is increased by at least one additional
flight attendant and a flight relief seat as defined in Section 497(c) of this
subpart is provided as a flight relief facility,
(ii) the in-charge flight attendant shall ensure the actual duty time is shared
approximately equally by each flight attendant.
(iii) All flight attendants assigned to duty, shall be considered to on active
duty during take-off, landing and all ground operations.
(iv) The increased crew rest periods as laid down in Section 497(e) of the
subpart shall apply to the each flight attendant assigned to an extended
duty period.
135.515 [Reserved]
135.517 [Reserved]
135.519 Maximum Duty Period for a Flight Operations Officer
(a) Except in cases where circumstances or emergency conditions beyond the control
of the air carrier or otherwise required for emergency conditions:
(1) No operator may schedule a flight operations officer for more than 10
consecutive hours of duty;
(2) If a flight operations officer is scheduled for more than 10 hours of duty in 24
consecutive hours, the operator shall provide him a rest period of at least eight
hours at or before the end of 10 hours of duty.
SUBPART O O-4
SUBPART P - FLIGHT OPERATIONS
This subpart prescribes the rule governing flight operations of all air transportation
services conducted under this Part.
135.533 [Reserved]
135.535 [Reserved]
135.537 [Reserved]
135.539 Operations Notices
(a) An air carrier shall establish a system for the timely publication and issuance of
operations notices, for the purpose of ensuring the operational people have the
latest relevant information available to them. Such system must ensure the
operations notices are of a design, that makes them readily identifiable and have;
(1) a numbering system, date of issuance and address group,
(2) status designations, such as “WARNING”, “CAUTION,” “INFORMATION”, as
appropriate,
(3) a means for each crewmember to acknowledge receipt of the information, and
(4) a means of rescinding the notice when it becomes no longer needed. Where
the notice introduces a permanent change, or new policy or procedure, that
procedure should be incorporated into the appropriate section of the COM and
the notice rescinded.
(b) An operations notice which alerts to a change in the use, or service deficiency of
any navigation aid, airport, air traffic control procedure, regulation, or known
hazards to flight, including icing and other potentially hazardous meteorological
conditions must;
(1) be sent to by the quickest means possible to all air carrier flight
crewmembers and dispatch centers, and
(2) to the agency who is responsible for such facility, or who may be in a position
to alert other aircraft as to a potential hazard.
135.541 Crewmember Duties during Flight Time
(a) No air carrier shall assign, and no crewmember shall perform, any duties during a
flight time, except those duties that relate to the safe and efficient operation of the
aircraft, or, passenger safety. Nothing in this section however, should be taken to
mean that certain passenger services cannot be provided, where the provision of
such services, do not interfere with the official safety function of a crewmember.
SUBPART P P-1
(b) No pilot in command shall permit, during critical phases of flight, any activity in the
cockpit that could distract a flight crewmember from, or interfere with in the proper
and diligent performance of his or her duties.
(c) For the purposes of this section, a critical phase of flight is defined as any period of
flight time including ground operations where it could reasonably be expected that
the safe operation of the aircraft, require full attention and or participation of all flight
crewmembers.
135.543 Flight Crewmembers at the Controls
(a) Except as provided in Subsection (b) of this section, each flight crewmember on
flight deck duty, shall remain in his or her seat, with their seat belt and shoulder
harness fastened;
(1) while the aircraft is taking off or landing, and
(2) any time the PIC has turned on the fasten seat belt sign on, due to turbulence
or other safety consideration.
(b) A required flight crewmember may leave the assigned seat;

(1) If the crewmember's absence is necessary for the performance of duties in
connection with the operation of the aircraft;
(2) If the crewmember's absence is in connection with physiological needs, and
(3) Where the aircraft is cruising above flight level 250, the remaining pilot must
remain in his or her seat with their seat belt and shoulder harness fastened
and wearing an oxygen mask, supplying undiluted oxygen.
135.545 Manipulation of Controls
(a) No pilot in command may allow any person to manipulate the controls of an aircraft
during flight nor may any person manipulate the controls during flight unless that
person is,
(1) a qualified pilot employed by the air carrier
(2) an authorized representative of the Director who has the permission of the pilot
in command, is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations; or
(3) Any pilot who is qualified in accordance with Subparts M and N of this Part and
is named on the flight release, as a flight crewmember assigned to that flight.
135.547 Admission to the Cockpit
(a) No person may admit any person to the cockpit or occupy a non-required pilot seat
of an aircraft carrying more than 9 passengers unless that person is;
(1) a crewmember;
(2) a DGCA inspector, or an authorized representative of the Director, who is
performing official duties;
(3) An employee of the Indonesian government, a certificate holder, or an
aeronautical enterprise who has the permission of the pilot in command and
SUBPART P P-2
whose duties are such that admission to the cockpit is necessary or

advantageous for safe operations; or
(4) Any person who has the permission of the pilot in command and is specifically
authorized by the certificate holder management and by the Director.
(b) Subsection (a) of this section does not limit the emergency authority of the pilot in
command to exclude any person from the cockpit in the interests of safety.
(c) For the purposes of Paragraph (a)(3) of this section, employees of the Indonesian
government who deal responsibly with matters relating to safety and employees of
the certificate holder whose efficiency would be increased by familiarity with flight
conditions, may be admitted by the certificate holder. However, the certificate holder
may not admit employees of other company departments that are not directly
related to flight operations, unless they are eligible under Paragraph (a)(4) of this
section.
135.549 Cockpit Check Procedures
(a) Each air carrier shall provide an approved cockpit check procedure for each type of
aircraft operated.
(b) The approved check procedures must ensure all the aircraft manufactures
recommended checks and procedures are completed as appropriate, prior to, push
back, engine start, taxi, take-off, cruise, descent and approach, and landing. Such
checks and procedures must address as applicable, the normal, abnormal,
emergency and supplementary modes of operation of all aircraft systems and
components.
(c) Approved check procedures must include a checklist that is readily available to the
Pilots and is used, either as;
(1) a read and do type of checklist,
(2) a read and confirm the actions of an approved scan flow, or
(3) a combination of such check procedures.
135.551 DGCA Inspector Official Credentials
Subject to Subsection (b) of Section 547, where a DGCA inspector presents his official
inspector credentials to the pilot in command of an aircraft, the inspector must be given
free and unrestricted access to the cockpit whether or not that aircraft is in flight.
135.553 Flying Equipment
(a) The pilot in command shall ensure that appropriate aeronautical charts containing
adequate information concerning navigation aids and instrument approach
procedures are aboard the aircraft for each flight.
(b) Each crewmember shall, on each flight, have readily available for his use a
flashlight that is in good working order.
SUBPART P P-3
135.555 Restriction or Suspension of Operation
(a) When an operator or pilot in command knows of conditions, including airport and
runway conditions, that are a hazard to safe operations, the operator or pilot in
command, as the case may be, shall restrict or suspend operations until those
conditions are corrected.
(b) No pilot in command shall continue toward an airport of intended landing under the
conditions set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, unless;
(1) in the opinion of the pilot in command the conditions that are a hazard to safety
may be reasonably expected to be corrected by the estimated time of arrival or,
(2) there is with respect to that flight, an alternate airport to which the aircraft can
divert to from any point along the route, maintaining required reserve and
contingency fuel at all times, or
(3) there is no safer alternative available to the PIC, in such case the pilot in
command is considered to be acting under the force of an emergency.
135.557 Compliance with Approved Routes and Limitations
No air carrier shall assign and no person shall operate an aircraft in IFR flight unless
such flight is along a designated airway or company approved route and in accordance
with any restriction or limitation associated with that route.
135.559 Declaration and Action in an Emergency
(a) In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, the pilot in
command may take any action that he considers necessary for the safety of the
aircraft and passengers. In such a case he may deviate from prescribed operations
procedures and methods, weather minimums, and the CASRs, to the extent
required to avoid imminent danger or, in the interests of safety.
(b) Where the Flight Operations Officer or Director of Operations becomes aware of
any emergency situation that could pose a hazard to a flight in progress, they shall
advise the pilot in command of such emergency, by the quickest means available.
Furthermore, they shall;
(1) remain available to the PIC of that flight on a continuous basis until;
(i) the threat of such emergency has passed,
(ii) they have ascertained the decision of the pilot in command,
acknowledged that decision, and determined they assistance is no
longer required, or
(iii) have handed off the flight to another competent person who is in a
better position to be of assistance.
(2) relay required messages through third parties as necessary to communicate
with the flight.
(3) declare an emergency and follow missing aircraft procedures as appropriate.
(c) Whenever a pilot in command or Flight Operations Officer or Director of Operations

exercises emergency authority, he shall declare an emergency and keep the
appropriate ATC facility and dispatch centers fully informed of the progress of the
SUBPART P P-4
flight. The person declaring the emergency shall send a written report of any
deviation to the operator’s operations manager and the Director. Where a Flight
Operations Officer or Director of Operations declared the emergency, they shall
send a report within 10 days after the date of the emergency, and a pilot in
command shall send his report within 10 days after returning to his home base.
135.561 Reporting Potential Hazards

(a) Where a meteorological condition, an irregularity in a ground or navigational facility,
or other potentially hazardous situation is encountered in flight, the knowledge of
which he considers essential to the safety of other flights, the pilot in command shall
notify an appropriate ground station as soon as practicable.
(b) The ground radio station that is notified under Subsection (a) of this section shall
report the information to the agency directly responsible for operating the facility.
135.563 Reporting Mechanical Defects or Irregularities
The pilot in command shall ensure that all mechanical defects and irregularities
occurring during flight time are entered in the maintenance log of the aircraft at the end
of that flight time. Before each flight the pilot in command shall ascertain the status of
each defect or irregularity entered in the log at the end of the preceding flight.
135.565 Engine Inoperative Landing Report

(a) Except as provided in Subsection (b) of this section, whenever an engine of an
aircraft fails, or intentionally shut down to prevent possible damage, the pilot in
command shall land at the nearest suitable airport.
(b) The pilot in command shall report the failure or shut down of the engine to the
appropriate ground radio station as soon as practicable and shall keep that station
fully informed of the progress of the flight.
(c) Where the pilot in command elects to land at an airport other than the nearest
suitable airport, he shall submit a written report to his director of operations stating
his reasons for not proceeding to the nearest suitable aerodrome. The director of
operations shall, within 10 days after the pilot returns to his home base, send a copy
of this report with his comments to the DGCA.
135.567 Instrument Approach Procedures
No person may make an instrument approach at an airport except in accordance with

the instrument approach procedures set forth in the certificate holder's operations
specifications.
135.569 [Reserved]
135.571 [Reserved]
135.573 [Reserved]
135.575 [Reserved]
135.577 [Reserved]
SUBPART P P-5
135.579 Minimum Altitudes for Use of an Autopilot
(a) Except as provided in Paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, no person may engage
an autopilot during the enroute phase of a an IFR flight, including climb and
descent, unless;
(1) the aircraft height above the terrain is not less than twice the maximum altitude
loss specified in the Airplane Flight Manual for a malfunction of the autopilot
under cruise conditions,
(2) less than 500 feet, whichever is higher, or
(3) the flight is able to maintain VMC flight conditions.
(b) No person may use an autopilot for an autocoupled approach, at an altitude of less
than twice the maximum altitude loss specified in the Airplane Flight Manual for a
malfunction of the autopilot selected to auto approach mode except;
(1) When reported weather conditions are less than the basic VFR weather
conditions in Section 91.155 of the CASRs, no person may use an autopilot
with an approach coupler for ILS approaches at an altitude above the terrain
that is less than 50 feet higher than the maximum altitude loss specified in the
Airplane Flight Manual for the malfunction of the autopilot with approach
coupler under approach conditions; and
(2) When reported weather conditions are equal to or better than the basic VFR
minimums in Section 91.155 of the CASRs, no person may use an autopilot
with an approach coupler for ILS approaches at an altitude above the terrain
that is less than the maximum altitude loss specified in the Airplane Flight
Manual for the malfunction of the autopilot with approach coupler under
approach conditions, or 50 feet, whichever is higher.
(c) Notwithstanding Paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the Director may issue
operations specifications to allow the use, to touchdown, of an approved flight
control guidance system with automatic capability if;
(1) The system does not contain any altitude loss (above zero) specified in the
Airplane Flight Manual for malfunction of the autopilot with approach coupler;
and
(2) He finds that the use of the system to touchdown will not otherwise affect the
safety standards required by this section.
135.581 Use of Certified Airports
Except as authorized by the Director, no air carrier shall assign and no pilot shall land or
attempt to land a turbojet aeroplane at an airport in Indonesia, unless that airport is
certified for such class and category of aircraft.
135.583 Aircraft Security

(a) Each air carrier shall establish a security program which shall;
(1) Provide for the safety of persons and property traveling with the air carrier
against acts of unlawful interference;
(2) Prohibit unauthorized access to the aircraft;
SUBPART P P-6
(3) Ensure that baggage carried in the aircraft is checked by a responsible agent
and that identification is obtained from persons, other than Regulated Agent,
shipping goods or cargo aboard the aircraft;
(4) Ensure that cargo and checked baggage carried aboard the aircraft is handled
in a manner that prohibits unauthorized access;
(5) Require a security inspection of the aircraft before placing it in service and after
it has been left unattended;
(6) Ensure that there is on board a checklist of the procedures to be followed in

searching for a bomb in case of suspected sabotage and for inspecting aircraft
for concealed weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices when a well-
founded suspicion exists that the aircraft may be the object of an act of unlawful
interference. The checklist shall be supported by guidance on the appropriate
course of action to be taken should a bomb or suspicious object be found and
information on the least-risk bomb location specific to the aircraft.
(7) Be in writing signed by the air carrier or any person delegated authority in this
matter;
(8) Be approved by the DGCA
(b) For the purposes of this section;
(1) Security Program means measures adopted to safeguard international civil

aviation against acts of unlawful interference.
(2) Regulated Agent means an agent, freight forwarder or any other entity who
conducts business with an operator and provides security controls that are
accepted or required by the appropriate authority in respect of cargo, courier
and express parcels or mail.
(c.) A certificate holder shall establish and maintain an approved security training
programme which ensures crew members act in the most appropriate manner to
minimize the consequences of acts of unlawful interference. As a minimum, the
programme shall include the following elements:
(1) determination of the seriousness of any occurrence;
(2) crew communication and coordination;
(3) appropriate self-defense responses;
(4) use of non-lethal protective devices assigned to crew members whose use is
authorized by the State of the Operator;.
(5) understanding of behaviour of terrorists so as to facilitate the ability of crew
members to cope with hijacker behavior and passenger responses;
(6) live situational training exercises regarding various threat conditions;
(7) flight deck procedures to protect the aircraft; and
(8) aircraft search procedures and guidance on least-risk bomb locations where
practicable.
SUBPART P P-7
SUBPART Q - DISPATCHING AND FLIGHT RELEASE RULES
This subpart prescribes dispatching rules for all air carriers operating under this Part
unless otherwise specified.
135.593 Co-Authority Dispatch System
Except as otherwise authorized by the Director, each air carrier that operates turbojet
aeroplanes, or large aircraft with a passenger seating configuration of 10 or more, in a
commuter air transportation service, shall release such aircraft under a co-authority
dispatch system as laid down in Subsection (c) of section 135.597.
135.595 Pilot Self-Dispatch System
(a) Any air carrier not required to release its flight under a co-authority dispatch system
should release its flights;
(1) under a pilot self-dispatch system as laid down in Subsection (d) of section
135.597, or at the company’s discretion,
(2) a co-authority dispatch system as laid down in Subsection (c) of section 597,
or where required by the Director,
(3) any dispatch system which exceeds the minimum requirements of a pilot self-
dispatch system but does not fully meet the co-authority requirements.
(b) In any case the Director must be satisfied that adequate operational control is being
maintained, notwithstanding the size or complexity of any air carrier.
135.597 Operational Control System
(a) Each air carrier shall establish an operational control system as defined in Section
135.1, “Operational Control System,” (OCS), for the purpose of dispatching and
monitoring the progress of each flight as required by this subpart. The OCS,
including the titles and functions of those persons authorized to exercise operational
control over a flight, shall be published in the COM.
(b) An air carrier shall develop and publish its procedures for the type, or types of
OCS/s, it intends to use for the purpose of releasing its aircraft. Such systems shall
meet the definitions of Section 135.1, “co-authority dispatch”, or, “pilot self
dispatch”.
(c) Under a co-authority dispatch system, the Director of Operations has delegated
authority and responsibility for operational control over each flight, jointly, to the pilot
in command and the flight operations officer, under which system;
(1) The Flight Operations Officer is responsible for;
(i) preparation of the operational flight plan as described in Section
135.601 of this subpart, except;
SUBPART Q Q-1
(A) for flights operated in accordance with VFR, only those items of
the operational flight plan identified with and asterisk in Section
135.601 need be recorded, and
(B) for aerial work operations, the flight planning and flight release
shall meet such standards as determined by the Director in
consideration of the operation being undertaken.
(ii) flight crew briefing and signing the flight release,
(iii) monitoring the progress of each flight,
(iv) issuing necessary information for the safety of the flight;
(v) assisting the captain in decision making with respect to the continuation,
diversion or termination of a flight, and
(vi) follows the procedures made pursuant to Section 135.559 of Subpart P,
during the progress of an emergency.
(2) The PIC is responsible for;
(i) the review of all dispatch documents relating to the proposed flight and
signing for his acceptance of the flight release,
(ii) providing the FOO with flight information relating to the progress
condition and arrival of the flight, if required,
(iii) returning to the company, all flight documents required, pursuant to
Subpart V of CASR Part 121, to be retained by the company and,
(iv) conducting the flight in accordance with all published rules and
regulations relating to such flight.
(3) The Director of operations is responsible for ensuring the flight documents
required by Subpart V of CASR Part 121 are retained for a period of not less
than 90 days or as otherwise determined by the Director.
(4) The air carrier is responsible for ensuring such communication equipment and
facilities as appropriate to the flight watch or flight following system required,
are in place and serviceable.
(d) Under a pilot-self-dispatch system, the director of operations has delegated the
authority and responsibilities laid down in Subsection (c), (1) and (2), of this section
to the pilot in command. In the event of an emergency however, the director of
operations or his delegate, shall be responsible for the appropriate actions laid
down in section 135.559 of Subpart P.
(e) Where a flight release has been issued with respect to a flight, and not withdrawn
prior to the take-off, the pilot in command has the final authority as to the departure,
continuation, diversion or termination of that flight.
(f) Each crewmember, passenger or other person on board an aircraft during flight
time, is subject to the authority of the pilot in command of that aircraft.
(g) The pilot in command of an aircraft during flight time is responsible for the safety of
all passengers, crewmembers or other persons on board that aircraft.
(h) No pilot may operate an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger

life or property.
(i) Subject to Subsection (d) of this section, no air carrier shall dispatch a flight unless
a flight release has been prepared and signed by a flight operations officer, except
where the aircraft is:
SUBPART Q Q-2
(1) a propeller driven aircraft with a maximum certified take off weight of 12500 e
pounds or less,
(2) operated in a class E all cargo configuration,
(3) a helicopter,
(4) conducting aerial work operations,
(5) so authorized in the air carrier operation specifications.
(j) Where an aircraft is of a type required to be released by a flight operations officer,

such flight release shall be by a means acceptable to the Director as appropriate to
the type of operation.
(k) Where a flight release has been issued with respect of a flight, it shall remain in
force for the duration of the flight, from the originating point, to the final destination
including enroute stops, except where;
(1) the aircraft has been delayed or otherwise detained at the originating point, or
any enroute station stop for a period of more than 4 hours,
(2) any flight crewmember has been changed from the original crew,
(3) any member of the flight crew has exceeded his or her maximum flight duty
time, necessitating an extension to such duty period,
(4) the aircraft has been involved in an incident or occurrence which may have
altered the status of the maintenance release,
(5) due to operational requirements the aircraft was forced to divert to an alternate
or other airport, not included in the planned itinerary, or
(6) in the opinion of the PIC or FOO, there has been significant change in the
operational weather, or other conditions upon which the flight release was
issued, thereby rendering it invalid.
135.599 Conflict Resolution
(a) Where a disagreement occurs between the pilot in command and the flight
operations officer, with respect to the operational flight plan of a proposed flight,
such conflict shall be resolved by;
(1) following what ever course of action that would provide the greatest margin of
safety, and
(2) submitting a report giving full details of the area of conflict and the action taken,
to the director of operations for his or her assessment and follow-up action.
(b) An air carrier shall describe in its COM, full details of its conflict resolution policy.
135.601 Operational Flight Plan and Flight Release
(a) Each air carrier that is required to dispatch its aircraft under a co-authority or pilot
self dispatch system shall prepare an operational flight plan (OFP), that contains the
following information as applicable. The OFP may be in any format an air carrier
chooses however a copy must be inserted into the carrier’s Company Operations
Manual pursuant to Section 135.137(d)(8) of Subpart G, and approved by the
Director.
SUBPART Q Q-3
(1) *air Operator's name;

(2) *date;
(3) *aeroplane registration;
(4) *aeroplane tail number (as applicable);
(5) *aeroplane types and models (as applicable);
(6) *flight numbers (as applicable);
(7) *type of flight; Instrument Flight Rules or Visual Flight Rules at night unless all
the air carrier’s flights are the same;
(8) *crew names, rank and assigned position;
(9) *flight dispatcher's name (if applicable);
(10) *departure aerodrome;
(11) *destination aerodrome;
(12) alternate aerodrome, as applicable, including enroute alternates where
required;
(13) routing to destination by successive navigational waypoints and a method to
obtain associated tasks for each;
(14) routing to alternate aerodrome;
(15) specification of any way points enroute to satisfy any special operations
requirements;
(16) planned cruise altitudes to destination and alternate (as applicable);
(17) planned cruise, True Air Speed;
(18) planned cruise, Indicated Air Speed, or mach number (as applicable);
(19) wind component at planned cruise altitude: these may be expressed in terms
of direction/velocity or as a component/drift angle;
(20) temperature at cruise altitude;
(21) ground speed during cruise;
(22) time from destination to alternate (as applicable); distance to destination: if
broken down into waypoint distance components, a total shall be specified;
(23) distance from destination to alternate;
(24) fuel burn enroute and from destination to alternate;
(25) *minimum fuel as applicable for the type of flight plan including;
(i) taxi,
(ii) destination,
(iii) alternate (as applicable),
(iv) contingency (as Applicable) and
(v) holding reserves;
(26) *operational weight and balance and load control including;
(i) aircraft basic weight,
(ii) zero fuel weight (if applicable),
(iii) total payload broken down into passenger and cargo weights and
distribution on board that aircraft,
SUBPART Q Q-4
(iv) total fuel on board at brake release,

(v) planned maximum take off weight, and where the determination of
aircraft trim position requires center of gravity, (C of G) position,
(vi) the C of G position,
(27) *signature of pilot in command and as applicable, the Flight Dispatcher
certifying the accuracy and acceptance of the OFP;
(28) *number of persons on board: crew and passengers, as amended by final load
figures.
(b) Every flight release required under this Subpart shall certify that the OFP has been
prepared and accepted, in accordance with the procedures laid down in the COM.
135.603 Dispatch Centers and Facilities
(a) An air carrier shall ensure it has sufficient dispatch centers, facilities and personnel
to effectively maintain operational control over each flight as required by this section
and shall provide;
(1) in the case of an air carrier utilizing turbojet aeroplanes, or aircraft having a
passenger seating configuration of 10 or more, in commuter operations;
(i) a dispatch center at each airport from which originating flights occur on
a scheduled basis, and
(ii) adequate dispatch facilities and personnel at other airports as
determined by the Director.
(2) in the case of a charter air carrier that uses non-turbojet aircraft with a
passenger-seating configuration of 9 or less;
(i) dispatch facilities and personnel shall be adequate for the proposed air
transportation service, as determined by the Director.
(3) In the case of an aerial work air transportation service utilizing any type or size
of aircraft;
(i) dispatch facilities and personnel adequate to the proposed specialty air
transportation service as determined by the Director.
(b) In making his determination as to the acceptability of an air carriers dispatch

facilities, equipment and personnel, the Director considers the overall ability of the
carrier’s operational control system, to effective release, following, or watch each
flight as appropriate.
135. 605 Required Flight Operations Officers
(a) Each operator required to utilize Flight Operations Officers as specified by 135.395
shall establish the daily duty period for each Flight Operations Officer so that it
begins at a time that allows him to become thoroughly familiar with existing and
anticipated weather conditions along the route before he dispatches any aeroplane.
He shall remain on duty until each aeroplane dispatched by him has completed its
flight, or has gone beyond his jurisdiction, or until he is relieved by another qualified
Flight Operations Officer.
SUBPART Q Q-5
135.607 Familiarity with Weather Conditions
(a) No flight operations officer may release a flight unless he is thoroughly familiar with
reported and forecast weather conditions on the route to be flown.
(b) No pilot in command may begin a flight unless he is thoroughly familiar with
reported and forecast weather conditions on the route to be flown.
135.609 Dispatch and In-flight Briefing

(a) The flight operations officer shall provide the pilot in command all available current
reports or information on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities
that may affect the safety of the flight.
(b) Before beginning a flight, the flight operations officer shall provide the pilot in
command with all available weather reports and forecasts of weather phenomena
that may affect the safety of flight, including adverse weather phenomena, such as
clear air turbulence, thunderstorms, and low altitude windshear, for each route to be
flown and each airport to be used.
(c) During a flight, the flight operations officer shall provide the pilot in command any
additional available information of meteorological conditions including adverse
weather phenomena, such as clear air turbulence, thunderstorms, and low altitude
windshear, and irregularities of facilities and services that may affect the safety of
the flight.
135.611 Maintenance Status

(a) No person may dispatch or release an aeroplane unless it is airworthy and all
known defects have been rectified and appropriately certified by an aircraft
maintenance engineer except where the dispatch of the aircraft is in accordance
with an approved MEL.
(b) Under a co-authority dispatch system the pre-flight briefing issued by the FOO shall
include a full review of the aircraft maintenance status.
135.613 Flight Watch and Flight Following Systems

(a) Every air carrier required to release its flights under a co-authority dispatch system,
shall provide to such flights, flight watch services as defined in Section 135.1 “flight
watch”, and as described in the COM. Except as otherwise approved, every flight
watch system must be capable of communicating with a flight, at any point along the
proposed route.
(b) Every air carrier which is authorized to release its flights under a pilot self dispatch
system, shall provide to such flights, the type of flight following services defined in
Section 135.1, “flight following”, or otherwise approved by the Director.
135.615 VFR Take-off Minima
No person shall commence a VFR flight unless the latest available ceiling and visibility
reports or forecasts as established in accordance with Section 135.649(b), indicate that
the weather conditions along the route to be flown and at the destination airport
indicated the flight could be conducted under VFR.
SUBPART Q Q-6
135.617 IFR Take-off Minima
(a) No person shall conduct a take-off in any aircraft in IMC where the weather
conditions as established in accordance with Section 135.649(b), are at or above
the take-off minima, but below landing limits for that runway except in accordance
with section 135.619.
135.619 Take-off Alternate Airport
(a) A person may conduct a take-off at an airport where the weather is below the
landing minima specified in the air carrier's operations specifications provided, the
aircraft has two or more engines and a suitable alternate airport located within the
following distances is listed on the operational flight plan:
(1) Aircraft having two engines. Not more than one hour from the departure airport
at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
(2) Aircraft having three or more engines. Not more than two hours from the
departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
(b) For the purpose of Paragraph (a) of this section, a suitable alternate airport is an
airport where the weather conditions at the estimated time of arrival are expected to
be at or above the alternate airport weather minima listed in the air carrier’s
operations specifications.
135.621 Dispatch Over Water
(a) No person may dispatch or release an aircraft for a flight that involves extended
overwater operation except in accordance with an operations specification
(b) Each operator shall conduct extended overwater operations under IFR unless it
shows that operating under IFR is not necessary for safety.
(c) Each operator shall conduct other overwater operations under IFR if the Director
determines that operation under IFR is necessary for safety.
(d) Each authorization to conduct extended overwater operations under VFR and each
requirement to conduct other overwater operations under IFR will be specified in the
operator's operations specifications.
135.623 Alternate Airport Criteria
(a) No person may dispatch an aeroplane under IFR unless he lists at least one
alternate airport for each destination airport in the operational flight plan. When the
weather conditions forecast for the destination and first alternate airport are
marginal, at least one additional alternate must be designated. However, no
alternate airport is required if for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the
estimated time of arrival at the destination airport the appropriate weather reports or
forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate;
(1) The ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation; and
(2) Visibility will be at least 5 statute miles, and
(3) the aircraft will have sufficient fuel to meet the requirements of Section 135.639(b).
SUBPART Q Q-7
(b) For the purposes of Paragraph (a) of this section, the weather conditions at the
alternate airport must meet the requirements of Section 135.625.
(c) No person may dispatch a flight unless he lists each required alternate airport in the
operational flight plan.
135.625 Alternate Airport Weather Minima
No person may list an airport as an alternate airport in the operational flight plan unless
the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts, indicate that the weather conditions
will be at or above the alternate weather minimums specified in the air carrier's
operations specifications for that airport when the flight arrives.
135.627 [Reserved]
135.629 Operation in Icing Conditions
(a) No person may attempt a takeoff, continue to operate an aircraft enroute, or land an
aircraft in icing conditions which in the opinion of the pilot in command, may
adversely affect the safety of the flight.
(b) No FOO may issue a flight release and no pilot in command shall attempt a takeoff
in an aircraft when frost, ice, or snow is adhering to the wings, control surfaces,
propellers, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces of the aircraft except in
accordance with that air carrier’s approved critical surface contamination
procedures.
(c) Takeoffs with frost adhering to the undersurface of the aircraft wing may be
authorized by the Director where such takeoffs have been approved by the aircraft
manufacture.
(d) An air carrier is not required to have a program as required in Paragraph (b) of this
section, if it includes in its COM, a statement that the air carrier will not dispatch its
aircraft into any region or country where if could be reasonably expected that
surface contamination could at anytime form on the aircraft, while parked or
operating on the ground.
135.631 [Reserved]
135.633 [Reserved]
135.635 [Reserved]
135.637 Minimum Fuel Requirements for Day VFR Flight
Except as may be required by the Director no aircraft shall be released for flight and no
pilot shall operate an aircraft under this Subpart unless the fuel on board the aircraft
meets the requirements of CASR 91.151.
SUBPART Q Q-8
135.639 Minimum Fuel Requirements for IFR Flight
(a) No person may release a flight and no person shall conduct a take-off in any aircraft
within Indonesia unless it has sufficient fuel to fly to the destination airport,
thereafter to fly to the flight planned alternate airport, and thereafter to fly for 45
minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. In the case of helicopter the required
reserve fuel is 30 minutes at normal cruise.
(b) No person may release an aeroplane to an airport for which an alternate is not
specified under 135.623(a) unless it has enough fuel, considering wind and other
weather conditions expected, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for at least two
hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
135.641 Fuel Planning
(a) When computing fuel requirements for the purposes of this subpart, the following
factors shall be considered;
(1) wind and other weather conditions forecast.
(2) anticipated traffic delays.
(3) one instrument approach and possible missed approach at destination.
(4) any other conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft.
(b) All fuel requirements are taken to mean usable fuel.
135.643 Takeoff and Landing Weather Minima for VFR Flight
No pilot may takeoff or lands an aircraft under VFR when the reported ceiling or visibility
as established in accordance with Section 135.649(b), is less than 1,000-foot ceiling
and the visibility is not less than three statute miles, (4.8 km).
135.645 Takeoff and Landing Weather Minima for IFR Flight
(a) No pilot may attempt a takeoff in an aircraft under IFR when the weather conditions
as established in accordance with Section 135.649(b), are less than those specified
for such operation in;
(1) The air carrier's operations specifications; or
(2) Part 91 of CASRs, if the air carrier's operations specifications do not specify
takeoff minima for the airport.
(b) Except as provided in Paragraph (d) of this section, no pilot may continue an
approach past the final approach fix, or where a final approach fix is not used, begin
the final approach segment of an instrument approach procedure unless the reported
visibility is at or above the visibility minimums prescribed for that procedure.
(c) If a pilot has begun the final approach segment of an instrument approach
procedure in accordance with Paragraph (b) of this section and after that receives a
later weather report indicating below minimum conditions, the pilot may continue the
approach to DH or MDA. Upon reaching DH or at MDA, and at any time before the
missed approach point, the pilot may continue the approach below DH or MDA and
touch down if;
SUBPART Q Q-9
(1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on

the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal
maneuvers, and where that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within
the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing;
(2) The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard
instrument approach procedure being used;
(3) Except for Category II or Category III approaches where any necessary visual
reference requirements are specified by authorization of the Director, at least
one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly
visible and identifiable to the pilot:
(i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below
100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights
as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars
are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
(ii) The threshold.
(iii) The threshold markings.
(iv) The threshold lights.
(v) The runway end identifier lights.
(vi) The visual approach slope indicator.
(vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.
(viii) The touchdown zone lights.
(ix) The runway or runway markings.
(x) The runway lights; and
(4) When the aircraft is on a straight-in non-precision approach procedure which
incorporates a visual descent point, the aircraft has reached the visual descent
point, except where the aircraft is not equipped for or capable of establishing
that point, or a descent to the runway cannot be made using normal
procedures or rates of descent if descent is delayed until reaching that point.
(d) For the purpose of this section, the final approach segment begins at the final
approach fix or facility prescribed in the instrument approach procedure. When a
final approach fix is not prescribed for a procedure that includes a procedure turn,
the final approach segment begins at the point where the procedure turn is
completed and the aircraft is established inbound toward the airport on the final
approach course within the distance prescribed in the procedure.
(e) Unless otherwise authorized in the air carrier's operations specifications, each pilot
making an IFR takeoff, approach, or landing at a foreign airport shall comply with
the applicable instrument approach procedures and weather minimums prescribed
by the authority having jurisdiction over the airport.
135.647 [Reserved]
135.649 Applicability of Reported Weather Minimums
(a) For the purpose of determining minimum ceiling and visibility values for take off and
landing, the latest official weather report published for that airport shall be used.
However, where the visibility in such report, or where the control tower expresses
the visibility is in terms of “runway visibility” or, “runway visual range” (RVR) for a
particular runway at that airport, that specified value shall be taken to be the official
visibility for the affected runway only. All other runways will be assessed in light of
the general visibility published for that airport.
SUBPART Q Q - 10
(b) Notwithstanding any clearance from ATC, no pilot may attempt a takeoff, approach
or landing in any aircraft when the weather conditions reported by the Badan
Meteorologi dan Geofisika (BMG), a source approved by the BMG, or a source
approved by the Director in the company operations manual, are;
(1) below the weather minima prescribed in this Subpart for the type of operation
proposed, and
(2) in the case of VFR, no pilot may continue a flight in weather conditions which
have deteriorated below the minimums prescribed for such flight.
135.651 Flight Altitude Rules

(a) General. Notwithstanding Section 91.119 or any rule applicable outside Indonesia,
no person may operate an aircraft below the minimums set forth in Paragraphs (b)
and (c) of this section, except when necessary for takeoff or landing, or except
when, after considering the character of the terrain, the quality and quantity of
meteorological services, the navigational facilities available, and other flight
conditions, the Director prescribes other minimums for any route or part of a route
where he finds that the safe conduct of the flight requires other altitudes. Outside of
Indonesia the minimums prescribed in this section are controlling unless higher
minimums are prescribed in the operator's operations specifications or by the
foreign country over which the aircraft is operating.
(b) Day VFR operations. No person may operate any aircraft under VFR during the day
at an altitude less than 1,000 feet above the surface or less than 1,000 feet from
any mountain, hill, or other obstruction to flight. VFR night is prohibited.
(c) IFR operations. No person may operate an aircraft under IFR at an altitude less
than 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of five miles
from the center of the intended course, or, in designated mountainous areas, less
than 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of five miles
from the center of the intended course.
135.653 [Reserved]
135.655 Initial Approach Altitude
When making an initial approach to a radio navigation facility under IFR, no person may
descend below the pertinent minimum altitude for initial approach (as specified in the
instrument approach procedure for that facility) until his arrival over that facility has been
definitely established.
135.657 [Reserved]
135.659 Flight Plan: VFR and IFR
No person may takeoff an aircraft unless the operator has filed a flight plan, containing
the appropriate information required by Part 91, with the nearest DGCA communication
station or appropriate military station or, when operating outside Indonesia, with other
appropriate authority. However, if communications facilities are not readily available, the
pilot in command shall file the flight plan as soon as practicable after the aircraft is
airborne. A flight plan must continue in effect for all parts of the flight.
SUBPART Q Q - 11
SUBPART R - RECORDS AND REPORTS
This subpart prescribes requirements for the preparation and maintenance of records
and reports for all air carriers.
135.683 Crewmember and Flight Operations Officer Record.
(a) Each air carrier shall.

(1) Maintain current records of each crewmember and each flight operations
officer that show whether the crewmember or flight operations officer complies
with the applicable sections of the CASRs, including, but not limited to,
proficiency and route checks, aeroplane and route qualifications, training, any
required physical examinations, flight, duty, and rest time records; and
(2) Record each action taken concerning the release from employment or physical or
professional disqualification of any flight crewmember or flight operations officer.
(b) Computer record systems approved by the Director may be used in complying with
the requirements of Paragraph (a) of this section.
135.685 Aircraft Record
Each air carrier shall maintain a current list of each aircraft that it operates and shall
send a copy of the record and each change to the DGCA. Airplanes of another air
carrier operated under an interchange agreement may be incorporated by reference.
135.687 [Reserved]
135.689 [Reserved]
135.691 [Reserved]
135.693 [Reserved]
135.695 Disposition of Flight Documentation

(a) All flight documentation required in Subpart V of CASR Part 121, to be prepared
with respect of a flight and which was carried onboard that flight shall be returned to
the company’s home base in accordance with 135.597(c)(2)(iii). Such
documentation shall include, weather maps and printed information, notams, cargo
and fuel loading sheets and manifests, and all paperwork which was used to record
the flight progress, diversion, irregular of emergency situations.
(b) The air carrier shall keep copies of the records required in this section for at least
three months.
135.697 [Reserved]
135.699 [Reserved]
SUBPART R R-1
135.701 Maintenance Log: Aircraft
(a) Each person who takes action in the case of a reported or observed failure or
malfunction of an airframe, engine, propeller, or appliance that is critical to the
safety of flight shall make, or have made, a record of that action in the aircraft
maintenance log.
(b) Each air carrier shall have an approved procedure for keeping adequate copies of
the record required in paragraph (a) of this section in the aircraft in a place readily
accessible to each flight crewmember and shall put that procedure in the air
carrier’s manual.
135.703 Service Difficulty Reports
(a) Each air carrier shall report the occurrence or detection of each failure, malfunction,
or defect concerning;
(1) Fires during flight and whether the related fire warning system functioned
properly;
(2) Fires during flight not protected by a related fire warning system;
(3) False fire warning during flight;
(4) An engine exhaust system that causes damage during flight to the engine,
adjacent structure, equipment, or components;
(5) An aircraft component that causes accumulation or circulation of smoke,
vapor, or toxic or noxious fumes in the crew compartment or passenger cabin
during flight;
(6) Engine shutdown during flight because of flameout;
(7) Engine shutdown during flight when external damage to the engine or aircraft
structure occurs;
(8) Engine shutdown during flight due to foreign object ingestion or icing;
(9) Engine shutdown during flight of more than one engine;
(10) A propeller feathering system or ability of the system to control overspeed
during flight;
(11) A fuel or fuel dumping system that affects fuel flow or causes hazardous
leakage during flight;
(12) An unwanted landing gear extension or retraction, or an unwanted opening or
closing of landing gear doors during flight;
(13) Brake system components that result in loss of brake actuating force when the
aeroplane is in motion on the ground;
(14) Aircraft structure that requires major repair;
(15) Cracks, permanent deformation, or corrosion of aircraft structures, if more than
the maximum acceptable to the manufacturer or the DGCA;
(16) Aircraft components or systems that result in taking emergency actions during
flight (except action to shut down an engine); and
(17) Emergency evacuation systems or components including all exit doors,
passenger emergency evacuation lighting systems, or evacuation equipment
SUBPART R R-2
that are found defective, or that fail to perform the intended functions during an
actual emergency or during training, testing, maintenance, demonstrations, or
inadvertent deployments.
(b) For the purpose of this section “during flight” means the period from the moment the
aircraft leaves the surface of the earth on takeoff until it touches down on landing.
(c) In addition to the reports required by paragraph (a) of this section and as prescribed
by the DGCA, each air carrier shall report any other failure, malfunction, or defect in
an aircraft that occurs or is detected at any time if, in its opinion, that failure,
malfunction, or defect has endangered or may endanger the safe operation of an
aircraft used by it.
(d) Each air carrier shall send each report required by this section, in writing, to the
DGCA office within the next 72 hours. However, a report that is due on Saturday or
Sunday may be mailed or delivered on the following Monday, and one that is due on
a holiday may be mailed or delivered on the next workday.
(e) The air carrier shall transmit the reports required by this section in a manner and on
a form as prescribed by the Director, and shall include in the first report as much of
the following as is available:
(1) Type and identification number of the aircraft.
(2) The name of the operator.
(3) The date, flight number, and stage during which the incident occurred (e.g.,
preflight, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, landing, and inspection).
(4) The emergency procedure effected (e.g., unscheduled landing and emergency
descent).
(5) The nature of the failure, malfunctions, or defects.
(6) Identification of the part and system involved, including available information
pertaining to type designation of the major component and time since
overhaul.
(7) Apparent cause of the failure, malfunctions, or defects (e.g. wear, crack,
design deficiency, or personnel error).
(8) Whether the part was repaired, replaced, sent to the manufacturer, or other
action taken.
(9) Whether the aircraft was grounded.
(10) Other pertinent information necessary for more complete identification,
determination of seriousness, or corrective action.
(f) An air carrier that is also the holder of a Type Certificate (including a Supplement
Type Certificate), a Parts Manufacturer Approval, or a Technical Standard Order
Authorization, or that is the licensee of a type air carrier, need not report a failure,
malfunction, or defect under this section if the failure, malfunction, or defect has
been reported by it under CASR 21.3.
(g) No person may withhold a report required by this section even though all
information required in this section is not available.
SUBPART R R-3
(h) When air carrier gets additional information, including information from the
manufacturer or other agency, concerning a report required by this section, it shall
expeditiously submit it as a supplement to the first report and reference the date
and place of submission of the first report.
(i) The air carrier shall transmit each report required by this section to the organization
responsible for the type design of the aircraft.
135.705 Mechanical Interruption Summary Report
Each air carrier shall regularly and promptly send a summary report on the following
occurrences to the Director:
(a) Each interruption to a flight, unscheduled change of aircraft enroute, or unscheduled

stop or diversion from a route, caused by known or suspected mechanical
difficulties or malfunctions that are not required to be reported under CASR
121.703.
(b) The number of engines removed prematurely because of malfunction, failure or

defect, listed by make and model and the aircraft type in which it was installed.
(c) The number of propeller feathering in flight listed by type of propeller and engine
and aircraft on which it was installed. Propeller feathering for training,
demonstration, or flight check purposes need not be reported.
135.707 Alteration and Repair Reports
(a) Each air carrier shall, promptly upon its completion, prepare a report of each major
alteration or major repair of an airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance of an
aircraft operated by it.
(b) The air carrier shall submit a copy of each report of a major alteration to, and shall
keep a copy of each report of a major repair available for inspection by, the
representative of the Director.
135.709 Maintenance Release or Aircraft Log Entry
(a) No air carrier may operate an aircraft after maintenance, preventive maintenance or
alterations are performed on the aircraft unless the air carrier, or the person with
whom the air carrier arranges for the performance of the maintenance, preventive
maintenance, or alterations, prepares or causes to be prepared:
(1) A maintenance release; or
(2) An appropriate entry in the aircraft log.
(b) The maintenance release or log entry required by paragraph (a) of this section
must:
(1) Be prepared in accordance with the procedures set forth in the air carrier’s
manual.
(2) Include a certification that:
SUBPART R R-4
(i) The work was performed in accordance with the requirements of the air
carrier’s manual;
(ii) All items required to be inspected were inspected by an authorized
person who determined that the work was satisfactorily completed;
(iii) No known condition exists that would make the aircraft un-airworthy;
and
(iv) So far as the work performed is concerned, the aircraft is in condition for
safe operation; and
(3) Be signed by an authorized licensed aircraft maintenance engineer.
(4) The entries cannot be erased.
Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(3) of this section, after maintenance, preventive
maintenance, or alterations performed by an Approved Maintenance Organization
certificate under the provisions of Subpart C of Part 145, the maintenance release
or log entry required in paragraph (a) of this section may be signed by a person
authorized by that Approved Maintenance Organization. The authorized person
shall meet the requirement of ICAO Annex 1.
(c) When a maintenance release form is prepared the air carrier must give a copy to
the pilot in command and must keep a record thereof for at least two months.
(d) Instead of restating each of the conditions of the certification required by paragraph
(b) of this section, the air operator may state in its manual that the signature of an
authorized licensed aircraft maintenance engineer constitutes that certification.
135. 711 [Reserved]
135. 713 [Reserved]
SUBPART R R-5
SUBPART S- MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
This Subpart provides rules and procedures for administrative matters as applicable,
pertaining to air carriers operating under Part 135 of the Civil Aviation Safety
Regulations.
135.803 Regulatory Powers of the Minister of Civil Aviation - [Reserved]
135.805 Regulatory Powers of the DGCA - [Reserved]
135.807 Delegation of Regulatory Powers
(a) The Director may delegate certain regulatory powers to his civil servants, or other
persons who are responsible for the certification and or monitoring of air carriers,
their employees or agents operating under this Subpart. Such regulatory powers
are for the purpose of;
(1) certification of a product or operation,
(2) sampling and accessing levels of competency or proficiency,
(3) inspecting for the purpose of establishing levels of conformance with a
standard,
(4) investigation for the purpose of detecting or proving non-compliance with a
regulation,
(5) taking emergency action for the purpose of ensuring the safety of persons or
property which have been exposed to an immediate threat, due to the activity
or proposed activity of an air carrier or its servants, and
(6) any person authorized pursuant to CASR Part 183.
(b) Every person who has been delegated regulatory powers, shall exercise those
powers in accordance with the procedures established for that purpose.
135.809 Carriage of Narcotic Drugs or Other Illegal Substances.
No air carrier shall knowingly permit any narcotic drug, marihuana, depressant or
stimulant drug, or, any other illegal substances, to be carried on board any aircraft
owned or operated by them. The violation of this section shall be considered the basis
for suspension or revocation or revocation of the air carrier’s Air Operator Certificate.
SUBPART S S-1
APPENDIX A (RESERVED)
APPENDIX A AA - 1
APPENDIX B—Aeroplane Flight Recorder Specifications
Installed Sampling
system1minimum interval
accuracy (to (per Resolution4read
Parameters Range recovered data) second) out
Relative time (from 25 hr ±0.125% per hour 1 1 sec.

recorded on prior to minimum
takeoff)
Indicated airspeed Vsoto ±5% or ±10 kts., 1 1%3.

VD(KIAS) whichever is greater.
Resolution 2 kts.
below 175 KIAS
Altitude −1,000 ft. to ±100 to ±700 ft. (see 1 25 to 150

max cert. alt. Table 1, TSO C51–
of A/C a)
Magnetic heading 360° ±5° 1 1°
Vertical acceleration −3g to +6g ±0.2g in addition to 4 (or 1 per 0.03g.

±0.3g maximum second
datum where
peaks, ref.
to 1g are
recorded)
Longitudinal ±1.0g ±1.5% max. range 2 0.01g.

acceleration excluding datum
error of ±5%
Pitch attitude 100% of ±2° 1 0.8°

usable
Roll attitude ±60° or ±2° 1 0.8°

100% of
usable
range,
whichever is
greater
Stabilizer trim position Full range ±3% unless higher 1 1%3.

uniquely required
APPENDIX B AB - 1
Or
Pitch control position Full range ±3% unless higher 1 1%3.

uniquely required
Engine Power, Each

Engine
Fan or N1speed or Maximum ±5% 1 1%3.

EPR or cockpit range
indications used for
aircraft certification
Or
Prop. speed and 1 (prop

torque (sample speed), 1
once/sec as close (torque)
together as
practicable)
Altitude rate2(need ±8,000 fpm ±10%. Resolution 1 250 fpm Below

depends on altitude 250 fpm below 12,000
resolution) 12,000 ft. indicated
Angle of attack2(need −20° to 40° ±2° 1 0.8%3

depends on altitude or of usable
resolution) range
Radio transmitter On/off 1

keying (discrete)
TE flaps (discrete or Each 1

analog) discrete
position (U,
D, T/O, AAP)
Or
Analog 0– ±3° 1 1%3

100% range
LE flaps (discrete or Each 1

analog) discrete
position (U,
D, T/O, AAP)
APPENDIX B AB - 2
Or
Analog 0– ±3° 1 1%3.

100% range
Thrust reverser, each Stowed or 1

engine (Discrete) full reverse
Spoiler/speedbrake Stowed or 1
(discrete) out
Autopilot engaged Engaged or 1

(discrete) disengaged
1
When data sources are aircraft instruments (except altimeters) of acceptable quality to
fly the aircraft the recording system excluding these sensors (but including all other
characteristics of the recording system) shall contribute no more than half of the values
in this column.
2
If data from the altitude encoding altimeter (100 ft. resolution) is used, then either one of
these parameters should also be recorded. If however, altitude is recorded at a minimum
resolution of 25 feet, then these two parameters can be omitted.
3
Per cent of full range.
4
This column applies to aircraft manufacturing after October 11, 1991.
[Doc. No. 25530, 53 FR 26152, July 11, 1988; 53 FR 30906, Aug. 16, 1988, as amended
by Amdt. 135–69, 62 FR 38397, July 17, 1997]
APPENDIX B AB - 3
APPENDIX C —Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications
Installed Sampling
1
system minimum interval
accuracy (to (per Resolution3read
Parameters Range recovered data) second) out
Relative time 25 hr minimum ±0.125% per hour 1 1 sec.

(from
recorded on
prior to
takeoff)
Indicated Vmin to VD(KIAS) ±5% or ±10 kts., 1 1 kt.

airspeed (minimum airspeed whichever is
signal attainable with greater
installed pilot-static
system)
Altitude −1,000 ft. to 20,000 ft. ±100 to ±700 ft. 1 25 to 150 ft.
pressure altitude (see Table 1, TSO
C51–a)
Magnetic 360° ±5° 1 1°.

heading
Vertical −3g to +6g ±0.2g in addition to 4 (or 1 per 0.05g.

acceleration ±0.3g maximum second
datum where
peaks, ref.
to 1g are
recorded)
Longitudinal ±1.0g ±1.5% max. range 2 0.03g.

acceleration excluding datum
error of ±5%
Pitch attitude 100% of usable range ±2° 1 0.8°.
Roll attitude ±60° or 100% of ±2° 1 0.8°.

usable range,
whichever is greater
Altitude rate ±8,000 fpm ±10% Resolution 1 250 fpm below
APPENDIX C AC - 1
250 fpm below 12,000.

12,000 ft. indicated
Engine
Power, Each
Engine
Main rotor Maximum range ±5% 1 1%2

speed
Free or Maximum range +5% 1 1%2

power turbine
Engine Maximum range ±5% 1 1%2

torque
Flight
Control—
Hydraulic
Pressure
Primary High/low 1
(discrete)
Secondary— High/low 1
if applicable
(discrete)
Radio On/off 1
transmitter
keying
(discrete)
Autopilot Engaged or 1
engaged disengaged
(discrete)
SAS status— Engaged/disengaged 1

engaged
(discrete)
SAS fault Fault/OK 1

status
(discrete)
APPENDIX C AC - 2
Flight
Controls
Collective Full range ±3% 2 1%2
Pedal Full range ±3% 2 1%2

position
Lat. cyclic Full range ±3% 2 1%2
Long. cyclic Full range ±3% 2 1%2
Controllable Full range ±3% 2 1%2

stabilator
position
1
When data sources are aircraft instruments (except altimeters) of acceptable quality to fly the
aircraft the recording system excluding these sensors (but including all other characteristics of
the recording system) shall contribute no more than half of the values in this column.
2
3
This column applies to aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991.
[Doc. No. 25530, 53 FR 26152, July 11, 1988; 53 FR 30906, Aug. 16, 1988, as amended by
Amdt. 135–69, 62 FR 38397, July 17, 1997]
APPENDIX C AC - 3
APPENDIX D —Aeroplane Flight Recorder Specification
Sampling
Accuracy interval
sensor input to (per resolution4read
Parameters Range DFDR readout second) out
Time (GMT or Frame 24 Hrs ±0.125% Per 0.25 (1 per 1 sec.

Counter) (range 0 to Hour 4 seconds)
4095, sampled 1 per
frame)
Altitude −1,000 ft to ±100 to ±700 ft 1 5′ to 35′1.

max (See Table 1,
certificated TSO-C51a)
altitude of
aircraft
Airspeed 50 KIAS to ±5%, ±3% 1 1kt

Vso, and Vsoto
1.2 VD
Heading 360° ±2° 1 0.5°
Normal Acceleration −3g to +6g ±1% of max 8 0.01g

(Vertical) range excluding
datum error of
±5%
Pitch Attitude ±75° ±2° 1 0.5°
Roll Attitude ±180° ±2° 1 0.5°.
Radio Transmitter On-Off 1

Keying (Discrete)
Thrust/Power on Each Full range ±2% 1 (per 0.2%2.

Engine forward engine)
Trailing Edge Flap or Full range or ±3° or as pilot's 0.5 0.5%2.

Cockpit Control each discrete indicator
Selection position
Leading Edge Flap on or Full range or ±3° or as pilot's 0.5 0.5%2.
APPENDIX D AD - 1
Cockpit Control each discrete indicator

Selection position
Thrust Reverser Position Stowed, in 1 (per 4

transit, and seconds per
reverse engine)
(discretion)
Ground Spoiler Full range or ±2% unless 1 0.222.

Position/Speed Brake each discrete higher accuracy
Selection position uniquely
required
Marker Beacon Passage Discrete 1
Autopilot Engagement Discrete 1
Longitudinal ±1g ±1.5% max 4 0.01g.

Acceleration range excluding
datum error of
±5%
Pilot Input And/or Full range ±2° unless 1 0.2%2.

Surface Position- higher accuracy
Primary Controls (Pitch, uniquely
Roll, Yaw)3 required
Lateral Acceleration ±1g ±1.5% max 4 0.01g.

range excluding
datum error of
±5%
Pitch Trim Position Full range ±3% unless 1 0.3%2.

higher accuracy
uniquely
required
Glideslope Deviation ±400 ±3% 1 0.3%2.

Microamps
Localizer Deviation ±400 ±3% 1 0.3%2.

Microamps
AFCS Mode And Discrete 1

Engagement Status
APPENDIX D AD - 2
Radio Altitude −20 ft to 2,500 ±2 Ft or ±3% 1 1 ft + 5%2above

ft whichever is 500′.
greater below
500 ft and ±5%
above 500 ft
Master Warning Discrete 1
Main Gear Squat Switch Discrete 1

Status
Angle of Attack (if As installed As installed 2 0.3%2.

recorded directly)
Outside Air Temperature −50° C to +90° ±2° c 0.5 0.3° c

or Total Air Temperature c
Hydraulics, Each Discrete 0.5 or 0.5%2.

System Low Pressure
Groundspeed As installed Most accurate 1 0.2%2.

systems
installed (IMS
equipped aircraft
only)
If additional recording capacity is available, recording of the following parameters is

recommended. The parameters are listed in order of significance:
Drift Angle When As installed 4

available. As
installed
Wind Speed and When As installed 4

Direction available. As
installed
Latitude and Longitude When As installed 4

available. As
installed
Brake pressure/Brake As installed As installed 1

pedal position
Additional engine
parameters:
APPENDIX D AD - 3
EPR As installed As installed 1 (per

engine)
N1 As installed As installed 1 (per

engine)
N2 As installed As installed 1 (per

engine)
EGT As installed As installed 1 (per

engine)
Throttle Lever Position As installed As installed 1 (per

engine)
Fuel Flow As installed As installed 1 (per

engine)
TCAS:
TA As installed As installed 1
RA As installed As installed 1
Sensitivity level As installed As installed 2

(as selected by
crew)
GPWS (ground Discrete 1

proximity warning
system)
Landing gear or gear Discrete 0.25 (1 per

selector position 4 seconds)
DME 1 and 2 Distance 0–200 NM; As installed 0.25 1mi.
Nav 1 and 2 Frequency Full range As installed 0.25

Selection
1
When altitude rate is recorded. Altitude rate must have sufficient resolution and sampling to
permit the derivation of altitude to 5 feet.
2
APPENDIX D AD - 4
3
For aeroplanes that can demonstrate the capability of deriving either the control input on
control movement (one from the other) for all modes of operation and flight regimes, the “or”
applies. For aeroplanes with non-mechanical control systems (fly-by-wire) the “and” applies. In
aeroplanes with split surfaces, suitable combination of inputs is acceptable in lieu of recording
each surface separately.
4
[Doc. No. 25530, 53 FR 26153, July 11, 1988; 53 FR 30906, Aug. 16, 1988]
APPENDIX D AD - 5
APPENDIX E —Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications
Accuracy
sensor input Sampling
to DFDR interval (per Resolution2read
Parameters Range readout second) out
Time (GMT) 24 Hrs ±0.125% Per 0.25 (1 per 4 1 sec

Hour seconds)
Altitude −1,000 ft to ±100 to ±700 1 5′ to 30′.

max certificated ft (See Table
altitude of 1, TSO-C51a)
aircraft
Airspeed As the installed ±3% 1 1 kt

measuring
system
Heading 360° ±2° 1 0.5°.
Normal Acceleration −3g to +6g ±1% of max 8 0.01g

(Vertical) range
excluding
datum error of
±5%
Pitch Attitude ±75° ±2° 2 0.5°
Roll Attitude ±180° ±2° 2 0.5°.
Radio Transmitter On-Off 1 0.25 sec

Keying (Discrete)
Power in Each 0–130% (power ±2% 1 speed 1 0.2%1to 0.4%1

Engine: Free Power Turbine Speed) torque (per
Turbine Speed and Full range engine)
Engine Torque (Torque)
Main Rotor Speed 0–130% ±2% 2 0.3%1
Altitude Rate ±6,000 ft/min As installed 2 0.2%1
APPENDIX E AE - 1
Pilot Input—Primary Full range ±3% 2 0.5%1

Controls (Collective,
Longitudinal Cyclic,
Lateral Cyclic, Pedal)
Flight Control Discrete, each 1

Hydraulic Pressure circuit
Low
Flight Control Discrete 1

Hydraulic Pressure
Selector Switch
Position, 1st and 2nd
stage
AFCS Mode and Discrete (5 bits 1

Engagement Status necessary)
Stability Augmentation Discrete 1

System Engage
SAS Fault Status Discrete 0.25
Main Gearbox As installed As installed 0.25 0.5%1

Temperature Low
Main Gearbox As installed As installed 0.5 0.5%1

Temperature High
Controllable Stabilator Full Range ±3% 2 0.4%1.

Position
Longitudinal ±1g ±1.5% max 4 0.01g.

Acceleration range
excluding
datum error of
±5%
Lateral Acceleration ±1g ±1.5% max 4 0.01g.

range
excluding
datum of ±5%
Master Warning Discrete 1
APPENDIX E AE - 2
Nav 1 and 2 Full range As installed 0.25

Frequency Selection
Outside Air −50° C to +90° ±2° c 0.5 0.3° c

Temperature C
1
2
[Doc. No. 25530, 53 FR 26154, July 11, 1988; 53 FR 30906, Aug. 16, 1988]
APPENDIX E AE - 3
APPENDIX F —Aeroplane Flight Recorder Specification
The recorded values must meet the designated range, resolution, and accuracy requirements
during dynamic and static conditions. All data recorded must be correlated in time to within one
second.
Accuracy Seconds per

(sensor sampling
Parameters Range input) interval Resolution Remarks
1. Time or 24 Hrs, 0 to ±0.125% Per 4 1 sec UTC time

Relative Time 4095 Hour preferred
1
Counts when
available.
Counter
increments
each 4
seconds of
system
operation.
2. Pressure −1000 ft to ±100 to ±700 1 5′ to 35&inch; Data should

Altitude max ft (see table, be obtained
certificated TSO C124a from the air
altitude of or TSO C51a) data
aircraft. computer
+5000 ft when
practicable.
3. Indicated 50 KIAS or ±5% and ±3% 1 1 kt Data should

airspeed or minimum be obtained
Calibrated value to Max from the air
airspeed V ≢and V to data
so so
1.2 V.D computer
when
practicable.
4. Heading 0−360° and ±2° 1 0.5° When true or

(Primary flight Discrete “true” magnetic
crew or “mag” heading can
reference) be selected
as the primary
heading
reference, a
discrete
indicating
selection
APPENDIX F AF - 1
must be
recorded.
5. Normal −3g to +6g ±1% of max 0.125 0.004g

Acceleration range
(Vertical)9 excluding
datum error of
±5%
6. Pitch ±75% ±2° 1 or 0.25 for 0.5° A sampling

Attitude aeroplanes rate of 0.25 is
operated recommende
under d.
§135.152(j)
7. Roll ±180° ±2° 1 or 0.5 0.5 0.5° A sampling

2
Attitude aeroplanes rate of 0.5 is
operated recommende
under d.
§135.152(j)
8. Manual On-Off 1 Preferably

Radio (Discrete) each crew
Transmitter None member but
Keying or one discrete
CVR/DFDR acceptable for
synchronizati all
on reference transmission
provided the
CVR/FDR
system
complies with
TSO C124a
CVR
synchronizati
on
requirements
(paragraph
4.2.1 ED–55).
9. Full Range ±2% 1 (per engine) 0.3% of full Sufficient

Thrust/Power Forward range parameters
on each (e.g. EPR, N1
engine— or Torque,
primary flight NP) as
crew appropriate to
reference the particular
engine being
recorded to
determine
APPENDIX F AF - 2
power in
forward and
reverse
thrust,
including
potential
overspeed
condition.
10. Autopilot Discrete “on” 1

Engagement or “off”
11. ±1g ±1.5% max. 0.25 0.004g.

Longitudinal range
Acceleration excluding
datum error of
±5%
12a. Pitch Full Range ±2° Unless 0.5 or 0.25 for 0.5% of full For
Control(s) Higher aeroplanes range aeroplanes
position (non- Accuracy operated that have a
fly-by-wire Uniquely under flight control
systems) Required §135.152(j) break away
capability that
allows either
pilot to
operate the
controls
independently
, record both
control inputs.
The control
inputs may be
sampled
alternately
once per
second to
produce the
sampling
interval of 0.5
or 0.25, as
applicable.
12b. Pitch Full Range ±2° Unless 0.5 or 0.25 for 0.2% of full
Control(s) Higher aeroplanes range
position (fly- Accuracy operated
by-wire Uniquely under
systems)3 Required §135.152(j)
13a. Lateral Full Range ±2° Unless 0.5 or 0.25 for 0.2% of full For
APPENDIX F AF - 3
Control Higher aeroplanes range aeroplanes

position(s) Accuracy operated that have a
(non-fly-by- Uniquely under flight control
wire) Required §135.152(j) break away
capability that
allows either
pilot to
operate the
controls
independently
, record both
control inputs.
The control
inputs may be
sampled
alternately
once per
second to
produce the
sampling
intereval of
0.5 or 0.25,
as applicable.
13b. Lateral Full Range ±2° Unless 0.5 or 0.25 for

Control Higher aeroplanes
position(s) Accuracy operated
(fly-by-wire)4 Uniquely under
Required §135.152(j)
14a. Yaw Full Range ±2° Unless 0.5 or 0.25 for 0.3% of full For
position(s) Accuracy operated that have a
(non-fly-by- Uniquely under flight control
wire)5 Required §135.152(j) break away
capability that
allows either
pilot to
operate the
controls
independently
, record both
control inputs.
The control
inputs may be
sampled
alternately
once per
second to
produce the
sampling
APPENDIX F AF - 4
interval of 0.5.
14b. Yaw Full Range ±2° Unless 0.5 0.2% of full

Control Higher range
position(s) Accuracy
(fly-by-wire) Uniquely
Required
15. Pitch Full Range ±2° Unless 0.5 or 0.25 for 0.3% of full For
Surface(s) Accuracy operated fitted with
Position6 Uniquely under multiple or
Required §135.152(j) split surfaces,
a suitable
combination
of inputs is
acceptable in
lieu of
recording
each surface
separately.
The control
surfaces may
be sampled
alternately to
produce the
sampling
interval of 0.5
or 0.25.
16. Lateral Full Range ±2° Unless 0.5 or 0.25 for 0.2% of full A suitable
Control Higher aeroplanes range combination
Surface(s) Accuracy operated of surface
Position7 Uniquely under position
Required §135.152(j) sensors is
acceptable in
lieu of
recording
each surface
separately.
The control
surfaces may
be sampled
alternately to
produce the
sampling
interval of 0.5
or 0.25.
17. Yaw Full Range ±2° Unless 0.5 0.2% of full For
APPENDIX F AF - 5
Control Higher range aeroplanes

Surface(s) Accuracy with multiple
Position8 Uniquely or split
Required surfaces, a
suitable
combination
of surface
position
sensors is
acceptable in
lieu of
recording
each surface
separately.
The control
surfaces may
be sampled
alternately to
produce the
sampling
interval of 0.5.
18. Lateral ±1g ±1.5% max. 0.25 0.004g

Acceleration range
excluding
datum error of
±5%
19. Pitch Trim Full Range ±3° Unless 1 0.6% of full

Surface Higher range
Position Accuracy
Uniquely
Required
20. Trailing Full Range or ±3° or as 2 0.5% of full Flap position

Edge Flap or Each Position Pilot's range and cockpit
Cockpit (discrete) Indicator control may
Control each be
Selection10 sampled
alternately at
4 second
intervals, to
give a data
point every 2
seconds.
21. Leading Full Range or ±3° or as 2 0.5% of full Left and right
Edge Flap or Each Discrete Pilot's range sides, of flap
Cockpit Position Indicator and position and
Control sufficient to cockpit
APPENDIX F AF - 6
Selection11 determine control may

each discrete each be
position sampled at 4
second
intervals, so
as to give a
data point to
every 2
seconds.
22. Each Stowed, In 1 (per engine Turbo-jet—2

Thrust Transit, and discretes
reverser reverse enable the 3
Position (or (Discrete) states to be
equivalent for determined
propeller Turbo-prop—
aeroplane) 1 discrete
23. Ground Full Range or ±2° Unless 1 or 0.5 for 0.5% of full
Spoiler Each Position Higher aeroplanes range
Position or (discrete) Accuracy operated
Speed Brake Uniquely under
Selection12 Required §135.152(j)
24. Outside −50 °C to +90 ±2 °C 2 0.3 °C

Air °C
Temperature
or Total Air
Temperature1
3
25. A suitable 1 Discretes

Autopilot/Auto combination should show
throttle/AFCS of discretes which
Mode and systems are
Engagement engaged and
Status which primary
modes are
controlling the
flight path and
speed of the
aircraft.
26. Radio −20 ft to ±2 ft or ±3% 1 1 ft +5% For

Altitude14 2,500 ft Whichever is above 500 ft autoland/cate
Greater gory 3
Below 500 ft operations.
and ±5% Each radio
Above 500 ft altimeter
should be
APPENDIX F AF - 7
recorded, but
arranged so
that at least
one is
recorded
each second.
27. Localizer ±400 As installed 1 0.3% of full For

Deviation, Microamps or ±3% range autoland/cate
MLS Azimuth, available recommende gory 3
or GPS sensor range d. operations.
Lateral as installed Each system
Deviation ±62° should be
recorded but
arranged so
that at least
one is
recorded
each second.
It is not
necessary to
record ILS
and MLS at
the same
time, only the
approach aid
in use need
be recorded.
28. ±400 As installed 1 0.3% of full For

Glideslope Microamps or ±3% range autoland/cate
Deviation, available recommende gory 3
MLS sensor range d operations.
Elevation, or as installed Each system
GPS Vertical 0.9 to + 30° should be
Deviation recorded but
arranged so
that at least
one is
recorded
each second.
It is not
necessary to
record ILS
and MLS at
the same
time, only the
approach aid
in use need
be recorded.
APPENDIX F AF - 8
29. Marker Discrete “on” 1 A single

Beacon or “off” discrete is
Passage acceptable for
all markers.
30. Master Discrete 1 Record the

Warning master
warning and
record each
“red” warning
that cannot be
determined
from other
parameters or
from the
cockpit voice
recorder.
31. Air/ground Discrete “air” 1 (0.25

sensor or “ground” recommende
(primary d.)
aeroplane
system
reference
nose or main
gear)
32. Angle of As installed As installed 2 or 0.5 for 0.3% of full If left and right
Attack (If aeroplanes range sensors are
measured operated available,
directly) under each may be
§135.152(j) recorded at 4
or 1 second
intervals, as
appropriate,
so as to give
a data point at
2 seconds or
0.5 second,
as required.
33. Hydraulic Discrete or ±5% 2 0.5% of full

Pressure available range.
Low, Each sensor range,
System “low” or
“normal”
34. As installed Most 1 0.2% of full

Groundspeed Accurate range.
APPENDIX F AF - 9
Systems
Installed
35. GPWS Discrete 1 A suitable

(ground “warning” or combination
proximity “off” of discretes
warning unless
system) recorder
capacity is
limited in
which case a
single
discrete for all
modes is
acceptable.
36. Landing Discrete 4 A suitable

Gear Position combination
or Landing of discretes
gear cockpit should be
control recorded.
selection
37. Drift As installed As installed 4 0.1°

Angle15
38. Wind As installed As installed 4 1 knot, and

Speed and 1.0°.
Direction
39. Latitude As installed As installed 4 0.002°, or as Provided by

and Longitude installed the Primary
Navigation
System
Reference.
Where
capacity
permits
latitude/longit
ude resolution
should be
0.0002°.
40. Stick Discrete(s) 1 A suitable

shaker and “on” or “off” combination
pusher of discretes to
activation determine
activation.
APPENDIX F AF - 10
41. Discrete 1.
Windshear “warning” or
Detection “off”
42. Full Range ±2% 1 for each 2% of full For

Throttle/powe lever range aeroplanes
r lever with non-
16
position mechanically
linked cockpit
engine
controls.
43. Additional As installed As installed Each engine 2% of full Where

Engine each second range capacity
Parameters permits, the
preferred
priority is
indicated
vibration
level, N2,
EGT, Fuel
Flow, Fuel
Cut-off lever
position and
N3, unless
engine
manufacturer
recommends
otherwise.
44. Traffic Discretes As installed 1 A suitable

Alert and combination
Collision of discretes
Avoidance should be
System recorded to
(TCAS) determine the
status of—
Combined
Control,
Vertical
Control, Up
Advisory, and
down
advisory. (ref.
ARINC
Characteristic
735
Attachment
6E, TCAS
VERTICAL
APPENDIX F AF - 11
RA DATA
OUTPUT
WORD.)
45. DME 1 0–200 NM; As installed 4 1 NM 1 mile.

and 2
Distance
46. Nav 1 and Full range As installed 4 Sufficient to

2 Selected determine
Frequency selected
frequency.
47. Selected Full Range ±5% (1 per 64 0.2% of full

barometric sec.) range.
setting
48. Selected Full Range ±5% 1 100 ft.

altitude
49. Selected Full Range ±5% 1 1 knot.

speed
50. Selected Full Range ±5% 1 .01.

Mach
51. Selected Full Range ±5% 1 100 ft./min.

vertical speed
52. Selected Full Range ±5% 1 1°.

heading
53. Selected Full Range ±5% 1 1°.

flight path
54. Selected Full Range ±5% 64 1 ft.

decision
height
55. EFIS Discrete(s) 4 Discretes

display format should show
the display
system status
(e.g., off,
normal, fail,
composite,
sector, plan,
APPENDIX F AF - 12
nav aids,
weather
radar, range,
copy.
56. Multi- Discrete(s) 4 Discretes

function/Engin should show
e Alerts the display
Display system status
format (e.g., off,
normal, fail,
and the
identity of
display pages
for
emergency
procedures,
need not be
recorded.
57. Thrust Full Range ±2% 2 2% of full

comand17 range
58. Thrust Full Range ±2% 4 2% of full

target range.
59. Fuel Full Range ±5% (1 per 64 1% of full

quantity in CG sec.) range.
trim tank
60. Primary Discrete GPS, 4 A suitable

Navigation INS, combination
System VOR/DME, of discretes to
Reference MLS, Loran determine the
C, Omega, Primary
Localizer Navigation
Glidescope System
reference.
61. Ice Discrete “ice” 4.

Detection or “no ice”
62. Engine Discrete 1.

warning each
engine
vibration
APPENDIX F AF - 13
warning each
engine over
temp.

warning each
engine oil
pressure low

warning each
engine over
speed
66. Yaw Trim Full Range ±3% Unless 2 0.3% of full

Surface Higher range.
Position Accuracy
Uniquely
Required
67. Roll Trim Full Range ±3% Unless 2 0.3% of full

Surface Higher range.
Position Accuracy
Uniquely
Required
68. Brake As installed ±5% 1 To determine

Pressure (left braking effort
and right) applied by
pilots or by
autobrakes.
69. Brake Discrete or ±5% (Analog) 1 To determine

Pedal Analog braking
Application “applied” or applied by
(left and right) “off” pilots.
70. Yaw or Full Range ±5% 1 0.5°.

sideslip angle

bleed valve “open” or
position “closed”
72. De-icing Discrete “on” 4.

or anti-icing or “off”
system
selection
APPENDIX F AF - 14
73. Computed Full Range ±5% (1 per 64 1% of full

center of sec.) range.
gravity
74. AC Discrete 4 Each bus.

electrical bus “power” or
status “off”
75. DC Discrete 4 Each bus.

electrical bus “power” or
status “off”
76. APU Discrete 4.

bleed valve “open” or
position “closed”
77. Hydraulic Full range ±5% 2 100 psi.

Pressure
(each system)
78. Loss of Discrete 1.

cabin “loss” or
pressure “normal”
79. Computer Discrete “fail” 4.

failure (critical or “normal”
flight and
engine control
systems)
80. Heads-up Discrete(s) 4.

display (when “on” or “off”
an information
source is
installed)
81. Para- Discrete(s) 1.

visual display “on” or “off”
(when an
information
source is
installed)
82. Cockpit Full Range ±5% 1 0.2% of full Where

trim control range mechanical
input means for
position— control inputs
APPENDIX F AF - 15
pitch are not

available,
cockpit
display trim
positions
should be
recorded.

input means for
position—roll control inputs
are not
available,
cockpit
display trim
position
should be
recorded.

input means for
position—yaw control input
are not
available,
cockpit
display trim
positions
should be
recorded.
85. Trailing Full Range ±5% 2 0.5% of full Trailing edge

edge flap and range flaps and
cockpit flap cockpit flap
control control
position position may
each be
sampled
alternately at
4 second
intervals to
provide a
sample each
0.5 second.
86. Leading Full Range or ±5% 1 0.5% of full

edge flap and Discrete range.
cockpit flap
control
APPENDIX F AF - 16
position
87. Ground Full Range or ±5% 0.5 0.3% of full

spoiler Discrete range
position and
speed brake
selection
88. All cockpit Full Range ±5% 1 0.3% of full For fly-by-wire
flight control Control Wheel range flight control
input forces ±70 lbs systems,
(control Control where control
wheel, control Column ±85 surface
column, lb Rudder position is a
rudder pedal) pedal ±165 function of the
lbs displacement
of the control
input device
only, it is not
necessary to
record this
parameter.
For
aeroplanes
that have a
flight control
break away
capability that
allows either
pilot to
operate the
control
independently
, record both
control force
inputs. The
control force
inputs may be
sampled
alternately
once per 2
seconds to
produce the
sampling
interval of 1.
1
For A300 B2/B4 aeroplanes, resolution = 6 seconds.
2
For A330/A340 series aeroplanes, resolution = 0.703°.
APPENDIX F AF - 17
3
For A318/A319/A320/A321 series aeroplanes, resolution = 0.275% (0.088°>0.064°). For
A330/A340 series aeroplanes, resolution = 2.20% (0.703°>0.064°).
4
For A318/A319/A320/A321 series aeroplanes, resolution = 0.22% (0.088°>0.080°). For
A330/A340 series aeroplanes, resolution = 1.76% (0.703°>0.080°).
5
For A330/A340 series aeroplanes, resolution = 1.18% (0.703°>0.120°).
6
7
For A330/A340 series aeroplanes, aileron resolution = 0.704% (0.352°>0.100°). For
A330/A340 series aeroplanes, spoiler resolution = 1.406% (0.703°>0.100°).
8
For A330/A340 series aeroplanes, resolution = 0.30% (0.176°>0.12°). For A330/A340 series
aeroplanes, seconds per sampling interval = 1.
9
For B–717 series aeroplanes, resolution = .005g. For Dassault F900C/F900EX aeroplanes,
resolution = .007g.
10
11
For A330/A340 series aeroplanes, resolution = 1.05% (0.250°>0.120°). For A300 B2/B4 series
aeroplanes, resolution = 0.92% (0.230°>0.125°).
12
For A330/A340 series aeroplanes, spoiler resolution = 1.406% (0.703°>0.100°).
13
For A330/A340 series aeroplanes, resolution = 0.5 °C.
14
For Dassault F900C/F900EX aeroplanes, Radio Altitude resolution = 1.25 ft.
15
For A330/A340 series aeroplanes, resolution = 0.352 degrees.
16
For A318/A319/A320/A321 series aeroplanes, resolution = 4.32%. For A330/A340 series
aeroplanes, resolution is 3.27% of full range for throttle lever angle (TLA); for reverse thrust,
reverse throttle lever angle (RLA) resolution is nonlinear over the active reverse thrust range,
which is 51.54 degrees to 96.14 degrees. The resolved element is 2.8 degrees uniformly over
the entire active reverse thrust range, or 2.9% of the full range value of 96.14 degrees.
17
For A318/A319/A320/A321 series aeroplanes, with IAE engines, resolution = 2.58%.
APPENDIX F AF - 18
APPENDIX G - SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
1. Statutory basis
This regulation is promulgated under the statutory authority in the Civil Aviation Act
Number 1 /2009 concerning Aviation, Chapter XIII-Aviation Safety, Part Four -
Safety Management System for Aviation Service Provider.
2. Scope and applicability

a. Scope
(1)This regulation describes the requirements for a service provider Safety
Management System (SMS) operating in accordance with ICAO Annex 6 —
Operation of Aircraft, ICAO Annex 11 — Air Traffic Services, and ICAO Annex
14 — Aerodromes.
(2) Within the context of this regulation the term “service provider” must be
understood to designate any organization providing aviation related services.
The term encompasses aircraft operators, maintenance organizations, air
traffic service providers and aerodrome operators, as applicable.
(3) This regulation addresses aviation safety related processes and activities
rather than occupational safety, environmental protection, or customer service
quality.
(4) The service provider is responsible for the safety of services or products
contracted to or purchased from other organizations.
(5) This regulation establishes the minimum acceptable requirements; the service
provider can establish more stringent requirements.
b. Applicability and acceptance

Effective 1 January 2009, a service provider shall have in place a Safety
Management System (SMS) that is acceptable to the Directorate General of Civil
Aviation (DGCA) that, as a minimum:
(1) identifies safety hazards and assesses and mitigates risks;
(2) ensures that remedial action necessary to maintain an acceptable level of
safety is implemented;
(3) provides for continuous monitoring and regular assessment of the safety level
achieved; and
(4) aims to make continuous improvement to the overall level of safety.
3. References
ICAO Annex 6 — Operation of Aircraft, ICAO Annex 11 — Air Traffic Services, and
ICAO Annex 14 — Aerodromes, and the ICAO Safety Management Manual (Doc
9859).
4. Definitions
For the purpose of this Decree, the term :
APPENDIX G AG - 1
Acceptable level of safety means minimum safety performance that service

providers should achieve while conducting their core business functions, expressed
by a number of safety performance indicators and safety performance targets.
Accountability means obligation or willingness to account for one’s actions.
Accountable Executive means a single, identifiable person which might be a

Chief Executive Officer, a Chairperson Board of Directors, a partner or a proprietor
who has full responsibility for the organization’s SMS and have full authority for
human resources issues, major financial issues, direct responsibility for the conduct
of the organization’s affairs, final authority over operations under certificate, and final
responsibility for all safety issues.
Consequence means potential outcome(s) of the hazard.
Hazard means condition, object or activity with the potential of causing injuries to
personnel, damage to equipment or structures, loss of material, or reduction of
ability to perform a prescribed function.
Mitigation means measures to address the potential hazard or to reduce the risk
probability or severity.
Predictive means a method that captures system performance as it happens in

real-time normal operations.
Proactive means the adoption of an approach which emphasizes prevention

through the identification of hazards and the introduction of risk mitigation
measures before the risk-bearing event occurs and adversely affects safety
performance.
Probability means the likelihood that an unsafe event or condition might occur.
Reactive means the adoption of an approach where safety measurement is as a

responds to the events that already happened, such as incidents and accidents.
Risk means the assessment, expressed in terms of predicted probability and

severity, of the consequence(s) of a hazard taking as reference the worst
foreseeable situation.
Risk management means the identification, analysis and elimination, and/or

mitigation to an acceptable level of risks that threaten the capabilities of an
organization.
Safety means the state in which the risk of harm to persons or property damage is
reduced to, and maintained at or below, an acceptable level through a continuing
process of hazard identification and risk management.
Safety assessment means a systematic analysis of a proposed changes to

equipment or procedures to identify and mitigate weaknesses before change is
implemented.
Safety assurance means what the service providers do with regard to safety
performance monitoring and measurement.
APPENDIX G AG - 2
Safety audit means what the Civil Aviation Authority performs with regard to its
safety programme, and the service providers perform with regard to the SMS.
Safety Management System (SMS) means a systematic approach to managing

safety, including the necessary organizational structures, accountabilities, policies
and procedures.
Safety manager means a person who is responsible for providing guidance and
direction for the operation of the organization's safety management system.
Safety oversight means the activities of Civil Aviation Authority as part of its safety
programme, performed with regard to the service providers SMS, in order to
confirm the organization's continuing fulfilment of its corporate safety policy,
objectives, goals and standards.
Safety performance indicator means established objectives of a services provider

SMS, linked to major components of a services provider SMS, and expressed in
numerical terms.
Safety performance monitoring means the activities of a service provider as part

of its SMS, in order to confirm the organization's continuing fulfilment of its
corporate safety policy, objectives, goals and standards.
Safety performance target means medium or long-term objectives of a services

provider SMS, determined weighing what is desirable and what is realistic for an
individual services provider, and expressed in numerical terms.
Safety policy means a statement reflecting the organization's philosophy of safety

management, and become the foundation on which the organization's SMS is built.
The safety policy outlines the methods and processes that the organization will use to
achieve desired safety outcomes.
Safety programme means an integrated set of regulations and activities aimed at

improving safety.
Safety requirement means the operational procedures, technology, systems

and programmes to which measures of reliability, availability, performance and/or
accuracy can be specified. are needed to achieve the safety performance
indicators and safety performance targets.
Severity means the possible consequences of an unsafe event or condition, taking

as reference the worst foreseeable situation.
System means organized set of processes and procedures.
Systematic means that safety management activities will be conducted in

accordance with a pre-determined plan, and applied in a consistent manner
throughout the organization.
APPENDIX G AG - 3
5. General
Service provider shall establish, maintain and adhere to a Safety Management
System (SMS) that is appropriate to the size, nature and complexity of the
operations authorized to be conducted under its operations certificate and the safety
hazards and risks related to the operations.
6. Safety policy and objectives

a. General requirements
(1) A service provider shall define the organization’s safety policy.
(2) The safety policy shall be signed by the Accountable Executive of the
organization.
(3) The safety policy shall be in accordance with all applicable legal requirements
and international standards, best industry practices and shall reflect
organizational commitments regarding safety.
(4) The safety policy shall be communicated, with visible endorsement,
throughout the organization.
(5) The safety policy shall include a clear statement about the provision of the
necessary human and financial resources for its implementation.
(6) The safety policy shall, among other things, include the following objectives:
(a) Commitment to implement an SMS;
(b) Commitment to continual improvement in the level of safety;
(c) Commitment to the management of safety risks;
(d) Commitment to encourage employees to report safety issues;
(e) Establishment of clear standards for acceptable behaviour; and
(f) Identification of responsibilities of management and employees with
respect to safety performance.
(7) The safety policy shall be reviewed periodically to ensure it remains relevant
and appropriate to the organization.
(8) A service provider shall establish safety objectives for the SMS.
(9) The safety objectives should be linked to the safety performance indicators,
safety performance targets and safety requirements of the service provider
SMS.
b. Organizational structure and responsibilities

(1) A service provider shall identify an Accountable Executive to be responsible
and accountable on behalf of the service provider for meeting the
requirements of this regulation, and shall notify the DGCA the name of the
person.
(2) The Accountable Executive shall be a single, identifiable person who,
irrespective of other functions, shall have the ultimate responsibility for the
implementation and maintenance of the SMS.
(3) The Accountable Executive shall have:
(a) Full control of the human resources required for the operations authorized
to be conducted under the operations certificate;
APPENDIX G AG - 4
(b) Full control of the financial resources required for the operations
authorized to be conducted under the operations certificate;
(c) Final authority over operations authorized to be conducted under the
operations certificate;
(d) Direct responsibility for the conduct of the organization‘s affairs; and
(e) Final responsibility for all safety issues.
(4) A service provider shall establish the safety structure necessary for the
implementation and maintenance of the organization’s SMS.
(5) A service provider shall identify the safety responsibilities of all members of
senior management, irrespective of other responsibilities.
(6) Safety-related positions, responsibilities and authorities shall be defined,
documented and communicated throughout the organization.
(7) A service provider shall identify a Safety Manager to be the member of
management who shall be the responsible individual and focal point for the
development and maintenance of an effective SMS.
(8) The Safety Manager shall:
(a) Ensure that processes needed for the SMS are established, implemented
and maintained;
(b) Report to the Accountable Executive on the performance of the SMS and
on any need for improvement; and
(c) Ensure safety promotion throughout the organization.
c. SMS implementation plan

(1) A service provider shall develop and maintain an SMS implementation plan.
(2) The SMS implementation plan shall be the definition of the approach the
organization will adopt for managing safety in a manner that will meet the
organization’s safety needs.
(3) The SMS implementation plan shall include the following:
(a) Safety policy and objectives;
(b) Safety planning,
(c) System description;
(d) Gap analysis;
(e) SMS components;
(f) Safety roles and responsibilities;
(g) Safety reporting policy;
(h) Means of employee involvement;
(i) Safety training;
(j) Safety communication;
(k) Safety performance measurement; and
(l) Management review of safety performance.
APPENDIX G AG - 5
(4) The SMS implementation plan shall be endorsed by senior management of

the organization.
(5) A service provider shall, as part of the development of the SMS
implementation plan, complete a system description.
(6) The system description shall include the following:
(a) The system interactions with other systems in the air transportation
system;
(b) The system functions;
(c) Required human performance considerations of the system operation;
(d) Hardware components of the system;
(e) Software components of the system;
(f) Related procedures that define guidance for the operation and use of the
system;
(g) Operational environment; and
(h) Contracted and purchased products and services.
(7) A service provider shall, as part of the development of the SMS
implementation plan, complete a gap analysis, in order to:
(a) identify the safety arrangements and structures that may be already exist
throughout an organization; and
(b) determine additional safety arrangements required to implement and
maintain the organization’s SMS.
(8) The SMS implementation plan shall explicitly address the coordination
between the SMS of the service provider and the SMS of other
organizations the service provider must interface with during the provision
of services.
d. Coordination of emergency response planning

A service provider shall develop and maintain, or coordinate, as appropriate, an
emergency response/contingency plan that shall ensure:
(1) Orderly and efficient transition from normal to emergency operations;
(2) Designation of emergency authority;
(3) Assignment of emergency responsibilities;
(4) Coordination of efforts to cope with the emergency; and
(5) Safe continuation of operations, or return to normal operations as soon as
possible.
e. Documentation
(1)A service provider shall develop and maintain SMS documentation, in paper
or electronic form, to describe the following:
(a) Safety policy;
(b) Safety objectives;
(c) SMS requirements, procedures and processes;
APPENDIX G AG - 6
(d) Responsibilities and authorities for procedures and processes; and

(e) SMS outputs.
(2) A service provider shall, as part of the SMS documentation, develop and
maintain a Safety Management System Manual (SMSM), to communicate the
organization’s approach to safety throughout the organization.
(3) The SMSM shall document all aspects of the SMS, and its contents shall
include the following:
(a) Scope of the Safety Management System;
(b) Safety policy and objectives;
(c) Safety accountabilities;
(d) Key safety personnel;
(e) Documentation control procedures;
(f) Hazard identification and risk management schemes;
(g) Safety performance monitoring;
(h) Emergency response/contingency planning;
(i) Management of change; and
(j) Safety promotion.
7 Safety risk management

a. General
(1) A service provider shall develop and maintain Safety Data Collection and
Processing systems (SDCPS) that provide for the identification of hazards
and the analysis, assessment and mitigation of safety risks.
(2) A service provider’s SDCPS shall include reactive, proactive and predictive
methods of safety data collection.
b. Hazard identification
(1) A service provider shall develop and maintain formal means for effectively
collecting, recording, acting on and generating feedback about hazards in
operations, which combine reactive, proactive and predictive methods of
safety data collection. Formal means of safety data collection shall include
mandatory, voluntary and confidential reporting systems.
(2) The hazard identification process shall include the following steps:
(a) Reporting of hazards, events or safety concerns;
(b) Collection and storing the safety data;
(c) Analysis of the safety data; and
(d) Distribution of the safety information distilled from the safety data.
c. Risk management
(1)A service provider shall develop and maintain a formal risk management
process that ensures the analysis, assessment and mitigation of risks of
consequences of hazards to an acceptable level.
APPENDIX G AG - 7
(2) The risks of the consequences of each hazard identified through the hazard
identification processes described in section 7.2 of this regulation shall be
analysed in terms of probability and severity of occurrence, and assessed for
their tolerability.
(3) The organization shall define the levels of management with authority to
make safety risk tolerability decisions.
(4) The organization shall define safety controls for each risk assessed as
tolerable.
8. Safety assurance
a. General
(1) A service provider shall develop and maintain safety assurance processes to
ensure that the safety risks controls developed as a consequence of the
hazard identification and risk management activities under paragraph 7
achieve their intended objectives.
(2) Safety assurance processes shall apply to an SMS whether the activities
and/or operations are accomplished internally or outsourced.
b. Safety performance monitoring and measurement

(1) A service provider shall, as part of the SMS safety assurance activities,
develop and maintain the necessary means to verify safety performance of
the organization in comparison with the approved safety policies and
objectives, and to validate the effectiveness of implemented safety risk
controls.
(2) Safety performance monitoring and measurement means shall include the
following:
(a) Safety reporting;
(b) Safety audits;
(c) Safety surveys;
(d) Safety reviews;
(e) Safety studies; and
(f) Internal safety investigations.
(3) The safety reporting procedure shall set out the conditions to ensure effective
safety reporting, including the conditions under protection from
disciplinary/administrative action shall apply.
c. Management of change
(1) A service provider shall, as part of the SMS safety assurance activities,
develop and maintain a formal process for the management of change.
(2) The formal process for the management of change shall:
(a) Identify changes within the organization which may affect established
processes and services;
(b) Describe the arrangements to ensure safety performance before
implementing changes; and
APPENDIX G AG - 8
(c) Eliminate or modify safety risk controls that are no longer needed due to
changes in the operational environment.
d. Continuous improvement of the safety system

(1)A service provider shall, as part of the SMS safety assurance activities,
develop and maintain formal processes to identify the causes of under-
performance of the SMS, determine the implications in its operation, and to
rectify situations involving below standard performance in order to ensure the
continual improvement of the SMS.
(2) Continuous improvement of the service provider SMS shall include:
(a) Proactive and reactive evaluations of facilities, equipment, documentation
and procedures, to verify the effectiveness of strategies for control of
safety risks; and
(b) Proactive evaluation of the individuals’ performance, to verify the fulfilment
of safety responsibilities.
9. Safety promotion
a. General
Service providers shall develop and maintain formal safety training and safety
communication activities to create an environment where the safety objectives of
the organization can be achieved.
b. Safety training
(1) A service provider shall, as part of its safety promotion activities, develop and
maintain a safety training programme that ensures that personnel are trained
and competent to perform the SMS duties.
(2) The scope of the safety training shall be appropriate to the individual’s
involvement in the SMS.
(3) The Accountable Executive shall receive safety awareness training regarding:
(a) Safety policy and objectives;
(b) SMS roles and responsibilities; and
(c) Safety assurance.
c. Safety communication
(1) A service provider shall, as part of its safety promotion activities, develop and
maintain formal means for safety communication, to:
(a) Ensure that all staff is fully aware of the SMS;
(b) Convey safety critical information;
(c) Explain why particular safety actions are taken;
(d) Explain why safety procedures are introduced or changed; and
(e) Convey generic safety information.
(2) Formal means of safety communication shall include:
(a) Safety policies and procedures;
APPENDIX G AG - 9
(b) News letters; and

(c) Bulletins.
d. Quality policy
A service provider shall ensure that the organization quality policy is consistent
with, and supports the fulfilment of the activities of the SMS.
e. Implementation of the SMS

(1) A service provider may implement SMS by a phased approach, which
encompasses four phases as described in subparagraph (2) through
subparagraph (5) of this paragraph.
(2) Phase 1 should provide a blueprint on how the SMS requirements will be met
and integrated to the organization’s work activities, and an accountability
framework for the implementation of the SMS:
(a) Identify the Accountable Executive and the safety accountabilities of
managers;
(b) Identify the person (or planning group) within the organization responsible
for implementing the SMS;
(c) Describe the system (air operator, ATC services provider, approved
maintenance organization, certified aerodrome operator);
(d) Conduct a gap analysis of the organization’s existing resources compared
with the national and international requirements for establishing an SMS;
(e) Develop an SMS implementation plan that explains how the organization
will implement the SMS on the basis of national requirements and
international Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs), the
system description and the results of the gap analysis;
(f) Develop documentation relevant to safety policy and objectives; and
(g) Develop and establish means for safety communication.
(3) Phase 2 should put into practice those elements of the SMS implementation
plan that refer to the safety risk management reactive processes:
(a) Hazard identification and risk management using reactive processes;
(b) Training relevant to:
i. SMS implementation plan components; and
ii. Safety risk management (reactive processes).
(c) Documentation relevant to:
ii. Safety risk management (reactive processes).
(4) Phase 3 should put into practice those elements of the SMS implementation
plan that refer to the safety risk management proactive and predictive
processes:
(a) Hazard identification and risk management using proactive and predictive
processes
(b) Training relevant to:
APPENDIX G AG - 10

ii. Safety risk management (proactive and predictive processes).
(c) documentation relevant to:
ii. Safety risk management (proactive and predictive processes).
(5) Phase 4 should put into practice operational safety assurance:
(a) Development of acceptable level (s) of safety;
(b) Development of safety indicators and targets;
(c) SMS continuous improvement;
(d) Training relevant to operational safety assurance; and
(e) Documentation relevant to operational safety assurance.
APPENDIX G AG - 11
APPENDIX A-A DESCRIPTION OF AERIAL WORK OPERATIONS
Aerial work operations, are air transportation services of a specialized nature. Such
services are substantially different form commuter and charter operations therefore
warrant special consideration for certification and operating authority. Speciality air
transportation services are certified under Part 135, however they may be required to
operate under special rules published as Advisory Circulars (AC) or other Parts of the
CASRs. In such cases the AC or CASR Part, containing special operating rules will be
referenced in the air carrier’s operating specifications.
These special purpose air transportation services fall into six specific categories,
however the regulations provide for a seventh category to accommodate new types of
services, as may be introduced from time to time. Aerial work authorizations do not
normally provide for the carriage of passengers except where such passengers are
required to be transported and specifically trained for the ground operations relating to
that service. These persons fall into three categories;
(a) persons required to perform duties during flight time, for example,
photographers, tree counters, airborne equipment operators, medics, etc., and
(b) persons who have no specific duty during flight however are being transported
to a location where their specialized services are required and where in the
opinion of the Director, are essential for the successful completion of the
mission. For example fire fighters, search and rescue specialists, paramedics
etc.
(c) passengers who are being transported for medical reasons as a patient.
A breakdown of each category is described herein and reflect all the types of
specialized services which are presently being authorized in Indonesia.
1. Helicopters carrying external loads pursuant to Subpart C and G of Part 135.

These operations are certified and authorized for the specific job or jobs being
proposed by the air carrier. They do not provide for the carriage of passengers
other than persons who have specific duties during flight time which are essential to
the operation of that service. All operations involving external loads will be certified
to ensure compliance with the relevant sections of Part 135 or other documents
which may be identified by the Operating Specification. In the case of External
Cargo Operations in a Class D configuration, each operation must be approved on
a case by case basis.
2. Towing objects, In most cases this special purpose operation deals with banner or
glider towing for sport purposes, but is not restricted to those services where the
Director is of the opinion other such other services may be provided in a safe and
proper manner. Flying schools certified under Part 141 may also hold this specialty
authority to provide glider towing if authorized to do so on their Air Operating
Certificate.
3. Dispersal of products.
This service provides for the dispersal of any product that in the opinion of the
Director can be safely discharged from an aircraft and in accordance with such
special rule as may be contained in, or referenced by the Operating Specification.
Services such as, but not limited to;
APPENDIX A-A AA-A - 1

(a) the application of chemicals, seeding or fertilizers for agricultural purposes,

(b) pestilent control,
(c) cloud seeding,
(d) oil slick containment,
(e) fire suppression,
(f) ejection of data gathering apparatus, and
(g) certain recreational or competitive activities.
Agriculture operations is governed by CASR Part 137.
4. Aerial survey and photography, except scenery. Photographing scenery is not

considered to be a commercial activity therefore does not require an AOC.
5. Air Ambulance. This service is self explanatory.
6. Flight Inspection and Calibration of air navigational facilities. Where such

calibration flights are operated by privately owned or operated aircraft they must be
conducted under the authority of an AOC.
7. Other service would include such specialties as parachute dropping pursuant to the
special rules adopted for that activity in CASR Part 105.
APPENDIX A-A AA-A - 2

APPENDIX D-A Description Of Elements For A Flight Safety Program
(a) Program Elements
The following elements shall be included in an air carrier's Flight Safety Program and
described in the appropriate Manuals:
• Air Carrier's Management Plan
• Qualifications of the Flight Safety Person
• Responsibilities of the Flight Safety Person
• Training for the Flight Safety Person
• Incident Management
• Flight Safety Committee
• Emergency Response Planning
• Communication and Safety Education
(b) Description of Program Elements

(1) Air Carrier's Management Plan
The plan shall identify the management position responsible for ensuring that:
(i) all the necessary elements of the program have been developed,
properly integrated, and coordinated;
(ii) the Program has been disseminated to all appropriate personnel;
(iii) a detailed description of the program is incorporated in the appropriate
air carrier's manuals; and
(iv) adequate Program management is maintained.
(2) Responsibilities of the Flight Safety Person
This person shall have direct access to the operations manager in flight safety
matters and shall be responsible for managing the flight safety program by:
(i) monitoring and advising on all air carrier flight safety activities which
may have an impact on flight safety;
(ii) establishing a reporting system which provides for a timely and free flow
of flight safety related information;
(iii) conducting safety surveys;
(iv) soliciting and processing flight safety improvement suggestions;
(v) developing and maintaining safety awareness program;
(vi) monitoring industry flight safety concerns which may have an impact on
air carrier operations;
(vii) maintaining close liaison with aeroplane manufacturers;
(viii) maintaining close liaison with DGCA;
(ix) maintaining close liaison with industry safety associations;
(x) developing and maintaining the air carrier accident response plan;
(xi) identifying flight safety deficiencies and making suggestions for
corrective action;
(xii) investigating and reporting on incidents/accidents and making
recommendations to preclude a recurrence;
(xiii) developing and maintaining a flight safety database to monitor and
analyze trends;
APPENDIX D-A AD-A - 1

(xiv) making recommendations to the air carrier senior management on

matters pertaining to flight safety; and
(xv) monitoring the response and measuring the results of flight safety
initiatives.
(3) Training of the Flight Safety Person
Except as approved by the DGCA, the flight safety person shall successfully
complete a training course over a period of not more than one year, that shall
include the following subjects:
(i) flight safety philosophy;
(ii) human factors and the decision making process;
(iii) accident prevention;
(iv) the role of the flight safety officer as advisor to senior management;
(v) risk management;
(vi) accident/incident management;
(vii) the aviation safety survey;
(viii) emergency response plan; and
(ix) incident investigation.
(4) Incident Management
The air carrier shall be responsible for providing employees with a timely
means of reporting any unsafe conditions. The person responsible for the flight
safety program shall institute and maintain an incident reporting system. This
system will provide for:
(i) a process of reporting incidents;
(ii) investigation of incidents;
(iii) the means of advising management; and
(iv) information feedback to employees.
(5) Flight Safety Committee
An air carrier shall establish a Flight Safety Committee that is capable of
representing all flight and ground divisions of the company and in the case of
companies with multiple bases, the oversight must also include such bases.
(i) Responsibilities
The responsibilities of the Committee shall be to monitor all areas of the
operation, identify safety concerns and deficiencies, and make
recommendations for corrective measures to senior management where
applicable.
(ii) Members
The Committee members shall be selected to ensure representation of
all operating departments in the organization and in matters concerning
the safety program, will report to the CASO or person designated by the
CASO, irrespective of their functional department.
(iii) Meetings
The Committee shall meet on a regular basis (at least twice a year) as
established by the committee chairperson. Special meetings on urgent
matters may be called by any Committee member. Committee
members may also attend other meetings for the purpose of delivering
safety committee reports.
(iv) Minutes

Minutes of the Committee meetings shall provide a record of agenda

items, decisions and corrective actions taken where applicable. A
mandatory circulation schedule of the minutes of all regular and extra-
ordinary meetings, based upon need to know, will be developed for the
entire company and a community minutes document/s, will be
maintained in a place or places, suitably available to any company
employee.
(6) Emergency Response Planning
The air carrier shall develop and maintain an Air Carrier Emergency Response
Plan that shall include the following elements:
(i) air carrier policy;
(ii) air carrier mobilization and agencies notification;
(iii) passenger and crew welfare;
(iv) casualty and next-of-kin coordination;
(v) accident investigation on behalf of the air carrier;
(vi) air carrier team's response to the accident site;
(vii) preservation of evidence;
(viii) media relations;
(ix) claims and insurance procedures;
(x) aeroplane wreckage removal; and
(xi) emergency response training.
(7) Communication and Safety Education
(i) The air carrier shall be responsible for an efficient system of distributing
appropriate safety material in a timely manner.
(ii) The air carrier shall by means of films, video, posters or other printed
material, ensure there is a means of safety education on areas where
the various departments of the air carrier may be at risk.

APPENDIX G-A MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE, AND

ALTERATIONS OF LIGHT AIRCRAFT UNDER CASR 135.361
135xGa Applicability
This appendix prescribes rules governing the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and
alterations of an aircraft that is maintained to an approved aircraft inspection program
under a CASR 135 operating certificate and operating within or outside of Indonesia.
135xGb General.
(a) The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining his
aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with CASR 39.
(b) No person may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations on an

aircraft other than as prescribed in this appendix, CASR 135, and CASR 43.
(c) No person may operate an aircraft for which a manufacturer’s maintenance manual
or instructions for continued airworthiness has been issued that contains an
airworthiness limitations section unless the mandatory replacement times,
inspection intervals, and related procedures specified in that section or alternative
inspection intervals and related procedures set forth in an operations specification
approved by the Director under CASR 121, or 135 or in accordance with an
inspection program approved under 135xGe have been complied with.
(d) Not withstanding the preceding sub paragraph (c), when the manufacturer amends
his published airworthiness limitations and that amendment decreases the
mandatory replacement times, inspection intervals, and related procedures, the
certificate holder shall within 30 days of publication by the manufacturer, notify the
Director by submitting an amendment to his currently approved operations
specification and maintenance manual. The proposed amendment shall contain
mandatory replacement times, inspection intervals, and related procedures that do
not exceed the manufacturers limitations.
135xGc Maintenance required.
Each certificate holder operating an aircraft –
(a) Shall have that aircraft inspected as required by this appendix and shall between
required inspections, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, have
discrepancies repaired as prescribed in CASR 43;
(1) Shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the
aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for
return to service;
(2) Shall have any inoperative instrument or item of equipment, permitted to be
inoperative by a CASR135 approved MEL, repaired, replaced, removed, or
inspected at the next required inspection; and
(3) When listed discrepancies include inoperative instruments or equipment, shall
ensure that a placard has been installed as required by CASR 43.11.
APPENDIX G-A AG-A - 1

135xgd Operation After Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding, or

Alteration.
(a) No person may operate any aircraft that has undergone maintenance, preventive
maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration unless -
(1) It has been approved for return to service by a person authorized under CASR
43.7; and
(2) The maintenance record entry required by CASR 43.9 or 43.1 1, as applicable,
has been made.
(b) No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an aircraft that has
been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed
its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until an
appropriately rated pilot with at least a private pilot certificate flies the aircraft,
makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made, and
logs the flight in the aircraft records.
(c) The aircraft does not have to be flown as required by paragraph (b) of this section if,
prior to flight, ground tests, inspection, or both show conclusively that the
maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration has not appreciably
changed the flight characteristics or substantially affected the flight operation of the
aircraft.
135xGe Approved Aircraft Inspection Program (AAIP)
(a) A Certificate holder requesting to use an Approved Aircraft Inspection Program

(AAIP), as required by CASR 135.367 (b), must submit a written request to the DAC
and if not approved to carry out such inspections, the certificate holder shall provide
an approved maintenance organization, or a CASR121 or 135 AOC holder, to
supervise or conduct the inspections.
(b) The certificate holder shall also provide-

(1) A current inspection manual available and readily understandable to pilot and
maintenance personnel containing, in detail:
(i) An explanation of the AAIP, including the continuity of inspection
responsibility, the making of reports, and the keeping of records and
technical reference material in accordance with CASR 135.380;
(ii) An inspection schedule of the individual tasks or groups of tasks
encompassing the total aircraft, including all avionics equipment,
emergency equipment, cargo provisions, etc. The schedule shall also
list the frequency of task(s) performance and may include instructions
for exceeding an inspection interval by not more than 1 0 hours while
enroute and for changing an inspection interval because of service
experience. These time intervals must also address a low aircraft
utilization schedule;
(iii) Sample routine and detailed inspection forms and instructions for their
use;
(iv) Instructions for accomplishing each task on the inspection schedule.
These instructions must satisfy CASR Section 43.13(a) regarding
methods, techniques, practices, tools, and equipment;

(v) A system for recording discrepancies and their correction. If deferral of

discrepancies is authorized by the program, a system for control and
follow up action is required;
(vi) A means of accounting for work forms upon completion of an inspection;
(vii) A Corrosion Protection Control Program and a Supplemental Structural
Inspection type program;
(viii) Procedures for transferring an aircraft from another program to a AAIP;
and
(ix) Sample reports and records as required by CASR 135.703 and .705
and instructions for their use;
(2) Enough housing and tools and equipment for the necessary disassembly and
proper inspection of the aircraft; and
(3) Appropriate currently amended technical information for the aircraft, engine,
propeller and appliances. The technical information shall include, but is not
limited to, maintenance manuals, parts catalogues, service bulletins, and
service letters.
(c) The AAIP shall provide for the complete inspection of the aircraft within each 12
calendar months and be consistent with the manufacturers recommendations, field
service experience, and the kind of operation in which the aircraft is engaged. The
inspection schedule must ensure that the aircraft, at all times, will be airworthy and
will conform to all applicable DGCA aircraft specifications, type certificate data
sheets, airworthiness directives, and other approved data.
(Note; if the aircraft is removed from CASR 135 operations and the AAIP is
discontinued, the owner or operator shall immediately notify the DGCA, in writing, of
the discontinuance. Procedures for reversion back to annual and 100-hour
inspections are discussed in CASR 91.409.)
135xgf Altimeter System and Altitude Reporting Equipment Tests and

Inspections
(a) No person may operate an airplane, or helicopter, in controlled airspace under IFR
unless -
(1) Within the preceding 24 calendar months, each static pressure system, each
altimeter instrument, and each automatic pressure altitude reporting system has
been tested and inspected and found to comply with appendix E of CASR 43;
(2) Except for the use of system drain and alternate static pressure valves,
following any opening and closing of the static pressure system, that system
has been tested and inspected and found to comply with paragraph (a),
appendices E and F, of CASR 43; and
(3) Following installation or maintenance on the automatic pressure altitude
reporting system of the ATC transponder where data correspondence error
could be introduced, the integrated system has been tested, inspected, and
found to comply with paragraph (c), appendix E, of CASR 43.
(b) The tests required by paragraph (a) of this section must be conducted by -
(1) The manufacturer of the airplane, or helicopter, on which the tests and
inspections are to be performed;
(2) An AMO properly equipped to perform those functions and holding -

(i) An instrument rating, Class 1;
(ii) A limited instrument rating appropriate to the make and model of
appliance to be tested;
(iii) A limited rating appropriate to the test to be performed;
(iv) An airframe rating appropriate to the airplane, or helicopter, to be
tested; or
(v) A limited rating for a manufacturer issued for the appliance in
accordance with CASR 145.101(b)(4) ;or
(3) A licensed mechanic with an instrument rating (static pressure system tests
and inspections only).
(c) Altimeter and altitude reporting equipment approved under Technical Standard
Orders are considered to be tested and inspected as of the date of their
manufacture.
(d) No person may operate an airplane, or helicopter, in controlled airspace under [FR
at an altitude above the maximum altitude at which all altimeters and the automatic
altitude reporting system of that airplane, or helicopter, have been tested.
135xGg ATC transponder tests and inspections
(a) No persons may use an ATC transponder unless, within the preceding 24 calendar
months, the ATC transponder has been tested and inspected and found to comply
with appendix F of CASR 43 and
(b) Following any installation or maintenance on an ATC transponder where data

correspondence error could be introduced, the integrated system has been tested,
inspected, and found to comply with paragraph (c), appendix E, of CASR 43.
(c) The tests and inspections specified in this section must be conducted by -
(1) An AMO properly equipped to perform those functions and holding -
(i) A radio rating, Class 111;
(ii) A limited radio rating appropriate to the make and model transponder to
be tested;
(iii) A limited rating appropriate to the test to be performed;
(iv) A limited rating for a manufacturer issued for the transponder in
accordance with CASR 145.101(b)(4); or
(2) A holder of a continuous airworthiness maintenance program as provided in
CASR 121, or 135.367; or
(3) The manufacturer of the aircraft on which the transponder to be tested is
installed, if the transponder was installed by that manufacturer.

APPENDIX N-A FLIGHT CHECKING STANDARDS
The following schedules lay down the standards for the Pilot proficiency checks required
by CASR 135.469 as applicable to the aircraft, simulator or pilot to be checked.
Schedule I - Pilot Proficiency Check - Airplane
1. Pre- Flight Phase

(a) Flight Planning and Equipment Examination
(1) flight planning shall include a practical examination on the pilot's
knowledge of standard operating procedures and the Airplane Flight
Manual including performance charts, loading, weight and balance and
Flight Manual Supplements; and
(2) the equipment examination shall show a practical knowledge of the
airframe, engine, major components and systems including the normal,
abnormal, alternate and emergency operating procedures and
limitations relating thereto.
(b) Airplane Inspection
(1) A pre-flight aeroplane inspection that includes:
(i) a visual inspection of the exterior and interior of the aeroplane,
locating each item to be inspected and explain the purpose of the
inspection;
(ii) the proper use of the pre-start, start and pre-taxi check lists; and
(iii) checks of the appropriate radio communications, navigation and
electronic equipment and selection of the appropriate
communications and navigation frequencies prior to flight.
2. Flight Phase
(a) Taxiing
(1) taxiing procedures include, where appropriate, sailing and docking
procedures;
(2) a taxiing check including:
(i) the use of the taxiing check list;
(ii) taxiing in compliance with clearances and instructions issued by
the appropriate air traffic control unit or by the person conducting
the pilot proficiency check; and
(iii) where a second-in-command is undergoing the pilot proficiency
check, outlined above to the extent practicable from the second-in-
command position.
(b) Engine Checks
(1) Engine checks shall be conducted as appropriate to the aeroplane type.
(c) Take-Off
(1) One normal take-off to be performed in accordance with the aeroplane
flight manual.
(2) An instrument take-off performed in the same manner as the normal take-
off except that instrument flight rules are simulated at or before reaching
an altitude of 200 feet above the airport elevation. An instrument take off
is not required to be demonstrated where the air carrier’s AOC authorizes
APPENDIX N-A AN-A - 1
operations under day VFR only, or the air operator assigns the pilot
undertaking the flight test to day VFR flight only.
(3) Where practicable under existing meteorological, airport or airport traffic
conditions, one crosswind take-off performed in accordance with the
aeroplane operating manual where applicable;
Note: Any or all of the above take-offs may be combined.
(4) A simulated engine failure after take-off as follows:
(i) where performed in a visual synthetic flight training device, the
simulated failure of the critical engine shall occur at the take-off
safety speed plus 10 knots; and
(ii) where performed in an aeroplane in flight, at a safe altitude as
close to the take-off safety speed plus 10 kts as is safe and
appropriate to the aeroplane type under the prevailing conditions;
(5) A rejected take-off:
(i) performed in a Level A synthetic flight training device prior to
reaching lift-off speed; or
(ii) explained by the candidate prior to the flight where the pilot
proficiency check is conducted in an aeroplane.
(d) Instrument Procedures
Except where an air operator certificate authorizes operation under day VFR
only, or an operator assigns the pilot to day VFR flight only, instrument
procedures shall consist of IFR pre-flight preparation, departure and enroute
procedures, terminal procedures and system malfunctions.
(1) An area departure and an area arrival procedure shall be performed
where the pilot:
(i) adheres to actual or simulated air traffic control clearances and
instructions; and
(ii) properly uses the available navigation facilities;
(2) holding procedures;
(3) at least two instrument approaches performed in accordance with
procedures and limitations in the approach charts being used, or
approved company approach procedure for the approach facility used.
Where practicable one of the approaches shall be a precision approach;
and
(4) a circling approach except where local conditions beyond the control of
the pilot prevent a circling approach from being performed;
(e) In Flight Manoeuvres
(1) at least one steep turn in each direction with a bank angle of 450 and a
change in heading of at least 1800 but not more than 3600; and
(2) approaches to stalls.
For the purposes of this maneuver the required approach to a stall is
reached when there is a perceptible buffet or other response to the
initial stall entry. When performed in an aeroplane the approach to stalls
shall be conducted at an altitude of at least 5000 feet AGL and if
conducted above cloud at an altitude of at least 2000 feet above cloud
tops.
The following approaches to stall are required during initial and upgrade
PPC's:
(i) one in the take-off configuration, except where a zero-flap take-off
configuration is normally used in that model and type of aeroplane;
(ii) one in a clean configuration; and

(iii) one in a landing configuration;
One of the approaches to stall must be performed while in a turn with a bank
angle of between 150 and 300;
(f) Landings and Approaches to Landings
(1) one normal landing which shall, where practicable, be conducted
without external or internal glideslope information;
(2) one landing from an instrument approach, and where prevailing
conditions prevent an actual landing, an approach to a point where a
landing could have been made. A landing from an instrument approach
is not required to be demonstrated where the air carrier’s operating
certificate authorizes operations under day VFR only, or the air operator
assigns the pilot undertaking the PPC to day VFR flights only;
(3) one cross wind landing where practicable under existing meteorological,
airport and airport traffic conditions;
(4) one landing and manoeuvring to that landing with a simulated failure of
50 percent of the available engines; and
(5) one landing under simulated circling approach conditions except that
where prevailing conditions prevent a landing, an approach to a point
where a landing could have been made;
Note: Any of the landings and approaches to landings specified in this
section may be combined. A minimum of two landings are required.
(g) Normal Procedures
The pilot shall demonstrate or show knowledge of as many of the normal
procedures as the person conducting the check finds are necessary to
determine that the pilot has the knowledge and ability to properly use installed
equipment. The demonstration of these procedures may be combined with in
flight manoeuvres. The following are examples of areas that may be
examined:
(1) anti-icing and de-icing systems;
(2) auto-pilot systems;
(3) automatic or other approach aid systems;
(4) stall warning devices, stall avoidance devices, and stability
augmentation system;
(5) airborne radar devices; and
(6) other systems, devices, or aids;
(h) Abnormal and Emergency Procedures
(1) The pilot shall demonstrate use of as many of the normal, abnormal and
emergency procedures as is necessary to confirm that the pilot has an
adequate knowledge and ability to perform these procedures.
(2) System malfunctions shall consist of a selection adequate to determine
that the pilot has satisfactory knowledge and ability to safely handle
malfunctions.
(3) At least two simulated engine failures any time during the check.
Schedule II - Pilot Proficiency Check - Airplane (Synthetic Training Device)
1. Pre-Flight Phase
Flight Planning and Equipment Examination:

(a) flight planning shall include a practical examination on the pilot's knowledge of
air operator's approved Standard Operating Procedures and the Airplane
Flight Manual including aeroplane and runway performance charts, and weight
and balance procedures;
(b) the equipment examination shall consist of a display of practical knowledge of
the airframe, engine, major components and systems including the normal,
abnormal and emergency operating procedures and limitations relating
thereto.
2. Flight Phase
(a) Taxiing
(1) the use of the taxiing check list; and
(2) taxiing in compliance with clearances and instructions issued by the
person conducting the pilot proficiency check;
(3) where a second-in-command is undergoing the pilot proficiency check,
outlined above to the extent practicable from the second-in-command
position.
(b) Engine Checks
Engine checks shall be conducted as appropriate to the aeroplane type.
(c) Take-Off
(1) one normal take-off to be performed in accordance with the Airplane
Flight Manual;
(2) an instrument take-off in the minimum visibility approved for the air
operator;
(3) a take-off in a minimum of a 10 kt crosswind component;
Note: Any or all of the above takeoffs may be combined.
(4) a take-off with failure of the critical engine. This activity may be
conducted in lieu of an engine failure during a rejected landing; and
(5) a rejected take-off from a speed not less than 90% of the calculated V1
or less as appropriate to the aeroplane type.
(d) Instrument Procedures:
Instrument procedures shall consist of IFR pre-flight preparations, terminal and
enroute procedures, arrival and departure procedures, system malfunctions
and where applicable, the proper programming and use of Flight Management
Systems, (as applicable).
(1) An area departure and an area arrival procedures shall be performed
where the crew:
(i) adheres to air traffic control clearances and instructions; and
(ii) properly uses the available navigation equipment and facilities;
(2) a holding procedure;
procedures and limitations in the approach charts being used or
approved company approach procedure for the facility used. One of the
approaches shall be a precision approach, and one a non precision
approach;
(4) one approach and manoeuvre to land using a scene approved for
circling where the air operator is authorized for approaches at the

published circling minima, and is required during initial qualification

check and annually thereafter.
(e) Manoeuvres
(1) At least one steep turn in each direction with a bank angle of 450 and a
change in heading of at least 1800 but not more than 3600.
(2) Approaches to stalls
Note: For the purpose of this manoeuvre the required approach to a
stall is reached when there is a perceptible buffet or other response to
the initial stall entry.
The following approaches to the stall are required during initial and
upgrade PPC's:
(i) one in the take-off configuration, except where a zero-flap take-off
configuration is normally used in that model and type of aeroplane;
(ii) one in a clean configuration; and
(iii) one in a landing configuration.
One of the approaches to stall shall be performed while in a turn with a
bank angle of between 150 and 300.
(f) Landings and Approaches to Landings:
(1) one normal landing;
(2) one landing from an approach in Instrument Meteorological Conditions
(IMC) not greater than the minimum recommended for the approach;
(3) one crosswind landing with a minimum of a 10 kt crosswind component;
(4) one landing and manoeuvre to that landing with a failure of 50 percent
of the available engines which shall be on one side of the aeroplane for
the pilot-in-command and the outboard engine only for other than the
pilot-in-command. Where the aeroplane type is a three engine
aeroplane, the loss of power shall be the centre engine and one other
engine for the pilot-in-command and an outboard engine for other than
the pilot-in-command. For three and four engine aeroplanes the pilot-in-
command is required to perform a two engine inoperative procedure
during the initial qualification check and annually thereafter;
(5) one rejected landing or a missed approach. For the purposes of the
rejected landing the landing shall be rejected at a height of
approximately 50 feet when the aeroplane is approximately over the
runway threshold;
(6) one Category II or Category III approach where these procedures are
authorized in an Air Operator Certificate. Required during the initial
qualification flight and annually thereafter;
(7) one landing without the use of an auto-land system.
Note: Any of the landings and approaches to landings specified in this
section may be combined. A minimum of two landings are required.
(g) Normal Procedures:

The crew shall demonstrate use of as many of the air operator's approved
Standard Operating Procedures, normal procedures for installed systems,
devices and aids as is necessary to confirm that the crew has the knowledge
and ability to properly use installed equipment, including the auto-pilot and
hand flown manoeuvres as appropriate.

(h) Abnormal and Emergency Procedures;

(1) The crew shall demonstrate use of as many of the air operator's
approved Standard Operating Procedures and abnormal and
emergency procedures for as many of the situations as is necessary to
confirm that the crew has an adequate knowledge and ability to perform
these procedures.
(2) System malfunctions shall consist of a selection adequate to determine
that the crew has satisfactory knowledge and ability to safely handle
malfunctions.
(3) At least two simulated engine failures any time during the check.
Schedule III - Pilot Proficiency Check - Helicopters
1. Pre-Flight Phase
(a) Flight Planning
(1) a practical oral examination on applicable flight planning procedures,
flight planning information sources and maintenance release
procedures; an
(2) a practical oral examination on the helicopter flight manual including
limitations, loading, weight and balance, applicable flight manual
supplements and the significance and use of performance charts.
(b) Pre-Flight Inspection
(1) a visual and, as applicable, functional exterior and interior inspection of
the helicopter to show a practical knowledge of the airframe, major
components, systems and applicable servicing procedures;
(2) use of check lists and procedures including engine and system checks;
and
(3) pre-flight checks of communications, navigation, electrical, flight
instruments and ice protection systems as appropriate.
2. Flight Phase
(a) Taxiing and Hover Maneuvres
(1) taxiing includes, when appropriate to the helicopter configuration, both
ground and air taxi and, where a second-in-command is undergoing the
pilot proficiency check, taxiing to the extent practical from the second-in-
command position
(2) taxiing in compliance with instructions issued by air traffic control or by
the person conducting the pilot proficiency check;
(3) compliance with appropriate taxi, hover and pre-departure check
procedures;
(4) 360 degree hover turns, sideward and rearward hovering manoeuvres
and, when practical, out of wind stationary hovering;
(5) landing from a hover to a sloped surface and take-off to a hover from a
sloped surface; and
(6) landing following simulated engine failure during hover or air taxi.
(b) Departure, Air Work, Approaches
(1) normal transition to forward flight, climb to assigned altitude and normal
approach and landing;

(2) for single-engine and multi-engine helicopters a take-off with a rapid

deceleration or rejected take-off procedure
(3) for multi-engine helicopters a simulated failure of one engine during
take-off that will allow continued climb in forward flight;
(4) at assigned altitude climbs, descents and level flight throughout the
normal speed range of the helicopter including steep turns with a
change of heading of at least 180 degrees but not more than 360
degrees;
(5) for single-engine helicopters autorotation approaches terminating at a
pre-determined area in a landing or power recovery. At least one
approach shall require a turn during authorotation descent through at
least 180 degrees;
(6) for multi-engine helicopters a simulated engine failure at assigned
cruise altitude and an approach and landing with one engine
inoperative;
(7) confined landing area procedure and approach terminating in a landing,
hover or rejected approach and, when practical, a confined area
departure; an
(8) steep approach which may be combined with the confined area
procedure.
(c) Instrument Procedures
Instrument procedures will consist of IFR pre-flight preparation, departure and
enroute procedures, terminal procedures and system malfunctions.
(1) instrument take-off so that instrument flight conditions are entered or
simulated at or before reaching an altitude of 200 feet above take-off
elevation;
(2) an area departure and an area arrival procedure where the pilot:
(i) adheres to actual or simulated air traffic control clearances and
instructions;
(ii) properly uses available navigation facilities.
(3) a holding procedure that may be combined with an area arrival or
departure and includes entry to, maintaining of and leaving a holding
pattern;
procedures and limitations for the approach facility used;
(5) at least one missed approach procedure and at least one landing after
transition from an instrument approach procedure; and
(6) emergencies and system malfunctions may be simulated during any
phase of the flight.
(d) Normal and Abnormal Procedures
The pilot shall demonstrate use of as many of the normal and abnormal
procedures for installed systems, devices and aids as the person conducting
the check find necessary to determine that the pilot has the knowledge and
ability to properly use installed equipment such as:
(1) anti-icing and de-icing systems;
(2) automatic flight control and auto-pilot systems; and
(3) weather radar.
(e) Emergency Procedures, Malfunctions and Flight Characteristics
(1) Emergency Procedures and Malfunctions

The pilot shall demonstrate or where demonstration is impractical, show

knowledge of, proper procedures for as many of the emergency
situations and malfunctions listed below as necessary to determine
adequate knowledge and ability:
(i) fire in flight;
(ii) smoke control;
(iii) anti-torque control failure and malfunctions;
(iv) emergency descent;
(v) hydraulic and electrical system failures and malfunctions;
(vi) flight instrument system failure and malfunction; and
(vii) any emergency procedure included in the flight manual or
helicopter operating manual.

APPENDIX N-B MINIMUM TRAINING TIMES
The following Matrix indicates the minimum ground and flight training time required for
initial and recurrent training. Where a flight simulator is used as the training device, it is
considered there will be an equal amount of Pilot Not Flying (PNF), training time
included in the course. In other words all times shown are Pilot Flying (PF) times and
where an aircraft is used for training, the times shown are meant to mean air time and
do not include the pilot proficiency check. Ground training times include examination
and review.
All times are minimum, training shall be to an acceptable standard.

Technical Ground Simulator and aircraft training
Aircraft
INITIAL Training (Hours) Program (PF)
Only
Basic Press. Turbine Level A Level B Level C A/C
Single engine 6 .5 4.0 3.0
S.E. Turbine 12 1.0 3.0
M.E. 6 or less 8 1.0 4.0 4.0
M.E. 7 to 9 12 1.0 4.0 4.0 1.5 5.0
M.E. 10 to 19 17 2.0 4.0 6.0 6.0 6.0 2.0 5.0
M.E. Piston 20 + 20 4.0 8.0 8.0 8.0 2.0 6.0
M.E. Turbine 20 + 40 10.0 10.0 10.0 2.0 8.0
R/W Large 40 8.0
R/W Medium 16 4.5
R/W Small 6 4.0 3.0
Technical Ground Simulator and aircraft training

Aircraft
INITIAL Training (Hours) Program (PF)
Only
Basic Press. Turbine Level A Level B Level C A/C
Single engine 2.0 .5 .5 1.0
S.E. Turbine 2.0 .5 1.0
M.E. 6 or less 2.0 .5 .5 1.5
M.E. 7 to 9 2.0 .5 .5 2.0 1.0 1.5
M.E. 10 to 19 4.0 .5 5. 4.0 4.0. 4.0 1.0 2.0
M.E. Piston 20 + 6.0 .5 4.0 4.0 4.0 1.0 3.0
M.E. Turbine 8.0 .5 4.0 4.0 4.0 1.0 4.0
R/W Large 8.0 3.0
R/W Medium 5.0 .5 2.0
R/W Small 2.0 .5 2.0
Due to the wide variance in some of the training components required by Subpart N, it is
not possible to list a minimum time for each component. Each component not listed
must include a proposed course duration and will be reviewed by the Director. In
APPENDIX N-B AN-B - 1

making his decision the Director will consider the type of training, scope and size of the
company and type of presentation aids being proposed.
Ir. JUSMAN SYAFII DJAMAL
APPENDIX N-B AN-B - 2

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CASR Part 135

CIVIL AVIATION SAFETY REGULATION (CASR)

CIVIL AVIATION SAFETY REGULATIONS

CERTIFICATION AND OPERATING REQUIREMENTS:

SUBPART A - GENERAL ...................................................................................... A - 1

SUBPART B - CERTIFICATION RULES ............................................................... B - 1

SUBPART C - Operating Rules for Aerial Work Air Operations ............................. C - 1

135.53 Helicopter External Cargo Loads Operating Rules ......................... C - 1

SUBPART D - FLIGHT SAFETY PROGRAM ........................................................ D - 1

SUBPART E - APPROVAL OF ROUTES .............................................................. E - 1

SUBPART F - CABIN SAFETY .............................................................................. F - 1

135.127 Locking the Cockpit Door.............................................................. F - 10

SUBPART G - MANUAL REQUIREMENTS ........................................................... G - 1

SUBPART H - AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS ........................................................ H - 1

SUBPART I - AIRPLANE PERFORMANCE OPERATING LIMITATIONS ..............I - 1

SUBPART J - CARRIAGE OF CARGO .................................................................. J - 1

SUBPART K - AIRCARFT INSTURMENTS AND EQUIPMENT ............................ K - 1

Table of Contents iii

135.306 Portable electronic devices ............................................................. K - 2

SUBPART L - MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE AND

135.377 Maintenance and Preventive Maintenance Personnel Duty Time

SUBPART M - FLIGHT OPERATIONS PERSONNEL REQUIREMMENTS ...........M - 1

SUBPART N - TRAINING AND CHECKING PROGRAMS AND VALIDITY

135.441 Category II and Category III Operations Training ......................... N - 12

SUBPART O - FLIGHT AND DUTY TIME LIMITATIONS....................................... O - 1

SUBPART P - FLIGHT OPERATIONS .................................................................. P - 1

135.547 Admission to the Cockpit ................................................................ P - 2

SUBPART Q - DISPATCHING AND FLIGHT RELEASE RULES........................... Q - 1

Table of Contents vii

135.635 [Reserved] ...................................................................................... Q - 8

SUBPART R - RECORDS AND REPORTS ........................................................... R - 1

SUBPART S- MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS .................................................. S - 1

APPENDIX A (RESERVED) .................................................................................... AA - 1

APPENDIX B—Aeroplane Flight Recorder Specifications ....................................... AB - 1

APPENDIX C —Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications ...................................... AC - 1

Table of Contents viii

APPENDIX D —Aeroplane Flight Recorder Specification ....................................... AD - 1

APPENDIX E —Helicopter Flight Recorder Specifications ...................................... AE - 1

APPENDIX F —Aeroplane Flight Recorder Specification ........................................ AF - 1

APPENDIX G - SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM .............................................. AG - 1

APPENDIX A-A DESCRIPTION OF AERIAL WORK OPERATIONS ................. AA-A - 1

APPENDIX G-A MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE, AND

CASR 135.361 .......................................................................... AG-A - 1

APPENDIX N-A FLIGHT CHECKING STANDARDS .......................................... AN-A - 1

APPENDIX N-B MINIMUM TRAINING TIMES ................................................... AN-B - 1

135.0 Regulatory Reference

135.1 Definitions and Abbreviations

“Air Transportation Service” - The operation for remuneration, including positioning

“AOC” - Air Operator Certificate. A certificate authorizing an operator to carry out

“Certificate” – A document issued by, or on behalf of DGCA which confirms a regulatory

“CC” – Competency Check. Any required operational check performed on company

“Crewmember” - a person assigned by an air carrier to official duty on board an aircraft.

“DGCP” – Designated Government Check Pilot. A person who is the holder of a

“ETOPS” – Extended Twin-Engine Operations. Means twin-engine, turbine powered

“Flight attendant” – a crewmember who performs, in the interest safety of passengers,

“Flight crewmember” – a crewmember assigned to duty in an aircraft as a pilot, flight

“Flight Operations Officer” (FOO) – A person who is authorized by an air carrier to

“He” - He or She (unless specified), taken in context with that section.

“Helicopter”- A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the