29/01/2023

Evening

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Answers & Solutions

Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2023 (Online) Phase-1

(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be rounded off
to the nearest integer.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening

PHYSICS
S = ut
SECTION - A
50 = F(10)
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices F =5
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
3. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of an  particle
Choose the correct answer: and a proton accelerated from rest by the same
1. The time period of a satellite of earth is 24 hours. If 1
potential is , the value of m is
the separation between the earth and the satellite m
is decreased to one fourth of the previous value,
(1) 16
then its new time period will become.
(2) 2
(1) 6 hours (2) 4 hours
(3) 3 hours (4) 12 hours (3) 8

Answer (3) (4) 4

Sol.  T2  R3 Answer (3)

 1 2(m)(e)V
T12 R13 Sol. = 
 = proton 2(4m) (2eV ) 1
T22 R23
1
242 R13 =
= 8
T22  R1 3
 4 m=8
 
4. At 300 K, the rms speed of oxygen molecule is
242 +5
2
= 43 times to that of its average speed in the
T2 
24 gas. Then, the value of  will be
T2 =
23 22
(used  = )
= 3 hours 7
2. A force acts for 20 s on a body of mass 20 kg, (1) 28
starting from rest, after which the force ceases and (2) 27
then body describes 50 m in the next 10 s. The
(3) 32
value of force will be:
(4) 24
(1) 10 N (2) 5 N
(3) 20 N (4) 40 N Answer (1)

Answer (2) +5

Sol. vrms = v
Sol. m = 20 kg  avg
t = 20 sec. 3RT  + 5 8RT
=
F m 5 m
Acceleration = m/s2
20
3   + 5
=
 v = u + at 8 
F  33  + 5
v = 0+  (20) =
 20  28 
= F ms–1
 = 28
Now for next 10 sec.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
5. Heat energy of 184 kJ is given to ice of mass (1) C only
600 g at –12°C. Specific heat of ice is 2222.3 J kg– (2) B and D only
1°C–1 and latent heat of ice in 336 kJ/kg–1
(3) A and C only
A. Final temperature of system will be 0°C. (4) A only
B. Final temperature of the system will be greater Answer (3)
than 0°C.
1
C. The final system will have a mixture of ice and Sol. Sensitivity 
k (potential gradient )
water in the ratio of 5 : 1.
D. The final system will have a mixture of ice and  length
water in the ratio of 1 : 5. 7. A point charge 2 × 10–2 C is moved from P to S in a
uniform electric field of 30 NC–1 directed along
E. The final system will have water only.
positive x-axis. If coordinates of P and S are
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1, 2, 0) m and (0, 0, 0) m respectively, the work
below: done by electric field will be
(1) A and C only (2) A and D only (1) –1200 mJ (2) 600 mJ
(3) B and D only (4) A and E only (3) –600 mJ (4) 1200 mJ

Answer (2) Answer (3)

Sol. Heat required to raise the temperature of ice to 0°C
is
60 Sol.
= (2222.3)(12)
1000
= 16000.5 J
 16 kJ
Heat required to melt ice completely w =  F  ds

 600 
=  (336) kJ F = qE = 2  10–2  30iˆ = 0.6Niˆ
 1000 
= 201.6 kJ w = F  d = (0.6iˆ)  (−iˆ, −2 jˆ)
Energy left = (184 – 16) = 168 kJ
= – 0.6 J
 Partial ice will melt
= – 600 mJ
 ( )
168 = mice melted 336
8. A square loop of area 25 cm2 has a resistance of
0.5 kg = (mice melted) 10 . The loop is placed in uniform magnetic field
of magnitude 40.0 T. The plane of loop is
 mice : mwater = 1 : 5 perpendicular to the magnetic field. The work done
6. With the help of potentiometer, we can determine in pulling the loop out of the magnetic field slowly
the value of emf of a given cell. The sensitivity of and uniformly in 1.0 sec, will be
the potentiometer is (1) 2.5 × 10–3 J
(A) Directly proportional to the length of the (2) 1.0 × 10–4 J
potentiometer wire
(3) 5 × 10–3 J
(B) Directly proportional to the potential gradient of
(4) 1.0 × 10–3 J
the wire
(C) inversely proportional to the potential gradient Answer (4)
of the wire Sol. From energy conservation.
(D) inversely proportional to the length of the
potentiometer wire Work done to pull the loop out
Choose the correct option for the above = Energy lost is resistance
statements:

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening

d  B  A 40  25  10−4 10. A fully loaded boeing aircraft has a mass of

Emf in the loop = = = 5.4 × 105 kg. Its total wing area is 500 m2. It is in
dt t 1s level flight with a speed of 1080 km/h. If the density
of air  is 1.2 kg m–3, the fractional increase in the
= 0.1 V speed of the air on the upper surface of the wing
relative to the lower surface in percentage will be.
emf 2 (0.1)2
Energy lost = = = = 10−3 J (g = 10 m/s2)
R 10 (1) 16 (2) 6
9. The time taken by an object to slide down 45° rough (3) 10 (4) 8
inclined plane is n times as it takes to slide down a
perfectly smooth 45° incline plane. The coefficient Answer (3)
of kinetic friction between the object and the incline
plane is:
Sol.
1 1
(1) 1 − 2 (2) 1− 2
n n
Velocity of aircraft = 1080 km/h
1 1
(3) (4) 1 + 2 = 300 m/s
1 − n2 n
Now, weight of aircraft = PA
Answer (1)
5.4  105  g
P = = 10800 Pa
500
From Bernoulli’s principle
Sol. 1  2
P =  V − Vlower
2 
2  upper 

1  V 
2 
10800 =  1.2  Vlower
2  upper  − 1
2  Vlower  
 
2
Smooth case:  Vupper  10800  2
  = 1+ = 1.2
1.2  ( 300 )
V 2
 lower 
9
a = g sin45º =
2 Vupper
= 1.096
Vlower
2L 2L 2 2L  Fractional increases = 9.6%.
t1 = = = .…(1)
a g/ 2 g
11. Given below are two statements:
Rough case: Statement I : Electromagnetic waves are not
deflected by electric and magnetic field.
a = g sin45º −g cos45º
Statement II : The amplitude of electric field and the
g magnetic field in electromagnetic waves are related
= (1 − )
2 0
to each other as E0 = B .
0 0
2L 2 2L
t2 = = ....(2) In the light of the above statements, choose the
a g(1− µ)
correct answer from the options given below :
t2 (1) Both statement I and statement II are false
From (1) to (2) and t1 = we have
n (2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
2 2L 1 2 2L 1
=   = 1− 2 (4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
g n g(1− ) n
Answer (3)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. Statement I is correct as photon do not carry any Choose the correct answer from the options given
charge, hence cannot feel force from either fields. below:
Statement II is wrong as E0 = cB0 (1) A and C only (2) B and E only
B0 (3) B, D and E only (4) B and D only
E0 =
00 Answer (2)
12. For the given figures, choose the correct options: Sol. B. Work done by gravitation will be negative if
something is lifted upward.
D. Work done by air resistance is negative.
14. Substance A has atomic mass number 16 and half
life of 1 day. Another substance B has atomic mass
1
number 32 and half life of day. If both A and B
2
(1) The rms current in circuit (b) can be larger than simultaneously start undergo radio activity at the
that in (a) same time with initial mass 320 g each, how many
(2) At resonance, current in (b) is less than that in total atoms of A and B combined would be left after
(a) 2 days.
(3) The rms current in figure (a) is always equal to (1) 6.76 × 1024
that in figure (b) (2) 3.38 × 1024
(4) The rms current in circuit (b) can never be (3) 6.76 × 1023
larger than that in (a)
(4) 1.69 × 1024
Answer (4)
Answer (2)
V 220
Sol. For (a), i = = = 5.5 A Sol. nA = 20 moles
R 40
nB = 10 moles
1 1 106
for (b), XC = = =  N = N0e–t
2fC 250  0.5  10−6 50
 ln2 
− 2 
XL = 2fL = 2 × 50 × 50 × 10–3 = 50  NA = ( 20 N) e 1 
XC > XL, hence impedance is greater than 40 .
20 N
= =5N (N = Avogadro’s Number)
220 4
irms =
Z
NB = 10 N e−4ln2
 irms b  irms a
 10 N 
13. Identify the correct statements from the following: = 
 16 
A. Work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a
10 N  90 N 
well by means of rope tied to the bucket is NA + NB = 5 N + =  = 3.38  10
24

negative. 16  16 
B. Work done by gravitational force in lifting a 15. A scientist is observing a bacteria through a
bucket out of a well by a rope tied to the bucket compound microscope. For better analysis and to
is negative. improve its resolving power he should. (Select the
C. Work done by friction on a body sliding down best option)
an inclined plane is positive. (1) Decrease the diameter of the objective lens
D. Word done by an applied force on a body (2) Decrease the focal length of the eye piece
moving on a rough horizontal plane with (3) Increase the refractive index of the medium
uniform velocity is zero. between the object and objective lens
E. Work done by the air resistance on an (4) Increase the wavelength of the light
oscillating pendulum is negative.
Answer (3)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening

 2n sin   18. An object moves at a constant speed along a

Sol. Resolving power of microscope =  
   circular path in a horizontal plane with centre at the
origin. When the object is at x = +2 m, its velocity is
nsin = Numerical aperture
−4 ˆj m/s. The object’s velocity (v) and acceleration
n is the refractive index of medium. (a) at x = –2 m will be
16. The modulation index for an A.M. wave having (1) v = 4iˆ m/s, a = 8 jˆ m/s2
maximum and minimum peak-to-peak voltages of
14 mV and 6 mV respectively is (2) v = 4 ˆj m/s, a = 8iˆ m/s2

(1) 1.4 (3) v = −4iˆ m/s, a = −8 jˆ m/s2

(4) v = −4 jˆ m/s, a = 8iˆ m/s2

(2) 0.6
(3) 0.4
Answer (2)
(4) 0.2 Sol.
Answer (3)
Sol. Ac + Am = 14 mV
Ac – Am = 6 mV
 2Ac = 20 mV
Ac = 10 mV
Am = 4 mV

Am  4 
= = 0.4
Ac  10 
Modulation Index =
v = 4 jˆ (m/s)

17. The equation of a circle is given by x2 + y2 = a2, v 2 16

a= = = 8 m/s2
where a is the radius. If the equation is modified to R 2

( )( )
change the origin other than (0, 0), then find out the
correct dimensions of A and B in a new equation a = 8 m/s2 iˆ
2
( x − At )2 +  y −
t  19. For the given logic gates combination, the correct
 = a2 . The dimension of t is
 B truth table will be
given as [T–1].
(1) A = [LT], B = [L–1T–1]
(2) A = [L–1T], B = [LT–1]
(3) A = [L–1T–1], B = [LT]
(4) A = [L–1T–1], B = [LT–1] (1) (2)

Answer (1)
Sol. [At] = [x] = [L]

 x  = LT
 A =  
t  (3) (4)

t 
 B  =  y  = L
 

t 
 B =   = L−1T−1  Answer (1)
L 

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. As per the circuit, Sol. As per given information

X = AB + AB R1 + R2 0.6

= …(1)
If: A = 0, B = 0  X = 0 10 0.4

A = 0, B = 1  X = 1 R1R2
A = 1, B = 0  X = 1 R + R2 0.4
& 1 = …(2)
3 0.6
A = 1, B = 1  X = 0
20. The electric current in a circular coil of four turns R1 + R2 = 15
   R1R2 = 30 
2
produces a magnetic induction 32 T at its centre. & R1R2 = 30 
The coil is unwound and is rewound into a circular
coil of single turn, the magnetic induction at the 22. For a charged spherical ball, electrostatic potential
centre of the coil by the same current will be inside the ball varies with r as V = 2ar2 + b.
(1) 4 T (2) 16 T Here a and b are constant and r is the distance from
(3) 8 T (4) 2 T the center. The volume charge density inside the
ball is –a. The value of  is _____.
Answer (4)
Sol. By given information  = permittivity of the medium

0 i Answer (12)
32 = 4  …(i)
2r
Sol. V = 2ar2 + b
Also, r = 4r …(ii)
dV
0 i  E=– = –4ar
and B ' = 1 …(iii) dr
2r '
0i  i 1 
1 Q
= –4ar
 B' = = 0 =  16 = 2 T 4 r 2
2(4r ) 8r 8
Q
SECTION - B  = 3    (–4a) = –12a
4 3
r
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 3
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a   = 12
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
23. A car is moving on a circular path of radius 600 m
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
such that the magnitudes of the tangential
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
acceleration and centripetal acceleration are equal.
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
The time taken by the car to complete first quarter
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
of revolution, if it is moving with an initial speed of
place designated to enter the answer.
54 km/hr is t(1 – e–/2) s. The value of t is_____.
21. When two resistances R1 and R1 connected in
Answer (40)
series and introduced into the left gap of a meter
bridge and a resistance of 10  is introduced into dv v 2 v2 dv
the right gap, a null point is found at 60 cm from left Sol. =  =v
dt R R ds
side. When R1 and R2 are connected in parallel and
introduced into the left gap, a resistance of 3  is dv ds v s
 =  ln v 15 =
introduced into the right gap to get null point at v R R
40 cm from left end. The product of R1R2 is
_______  2  v = 15e/R =
ds
 dt =
1 – /R
e ds
dt 15
Answer (30)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening

R v
t = [1– e–  /R ] 0.1 = 5  10–3  0.2 
15 .25  10–3

= 40[1– e– /2 ] seconds  v = 25 × 10–3 m/s

 t = 40 26. A particle of mass 250 g executes a simple

harmonic motion under a periodic force F = (– 25 x)
24. Unpolarised light is incident on the boundary N. The particle attains a maximum speed of 4 m/s
between two dielectric media, whose dielectric during its oscillation. The amplitude of the motion is
constants are 2.8 (medium – 1) and 6.8 (medium _______ cm.
– 2), respectively . To satisfy the condition, so that
the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular Answer (40)
to each other, the angle of incidence should be
1 Sol. F = –25x
 10  2
tan–1  1 +  the value of  is ____. d2x
   .250 = −25x
dt 2
(Given for dielectric media, r = 1)
d2x
= −100x
Answer (7) dt 2
Sol We know that   = 10 rad/sec
2
tan 0 = & A = vmax
1
10 A = 4
6.8 17
tan 0 = =  A = 0.4 m
2.8 7
= 40 cm
–1 10
0 = tan 1+ =7
7 27. In an experiment of measuring the refractive index
of a glass slab using travelling microscope in
25. A metal block of base area 0.20 m2 is placed on a physics lab, a student measures real thickness of
table as shown in figure. A liquid film of thickness the glass slab as 5.25 mm and apparent thickness
0.25 mm is inserted between the block and the of the glass slab as 5.00 mm. Travelling microscope
table. The block is pushed by a horizontal force of has 20 divisions in one cm on main scale and 50
0.1 N and moves with a constant speed. If the divisions on vernier scale is equal to 49 divisions on
viscosity of the liquid is 5.0 × 10–3 Pl, the speed of main scale. The estimated uncertainty in the
block is ______ × 10–3 m/s measurement of refractive index of the slab is
x
 10−3 , where x is __________.
10

Answer (41)

real depth (l1 )

Sol.  =
apparent depth(l 2 )
Answer (25)
5.25
Sol. As the block moves with constant speed, the = = 1.05
5
horizontal force is balanced by viscous force thus
d  dl1 dl 2
v = +
F = A  l1 l2
z

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening

 dl dl  Sol. Current drawn is maximum when circuit is in

d =  1 + 2   resonance.
 l1 l2 
1
 0.01 0.01  =
= +   1.05 LC
 5.25 5.00 
1
41 2 (7000) =
=  10−3 2  10−6 C
10

so x = 41 1
C= F
3872
28. A null point is found at 200 cm in potentiometer
when cell in secondary circuit is shunted by 5. 30. A particle of mass 100 g is projected at time t = 0
When a resistance of 15 is used for shunting, null with a speed 20 ms–1 at an angle 45° to the
point moves to 300 cm. The internal resistance of horizontal as given in the figure. The magnitude of
the cell is _________ . the angular momentum of the particle about the
starting point at time t = 2 s is found to be K kg
Answer (05)
m2/s. The value of K is _________.
Sol. Let the emf is E and internal resistance is r of this
secondary cell so (Take g = 10 ms–2)

RE
l
r +R

R1E
so  l1
r + R1

R2E
&  l2
r + R2

R (r + R2 ) l1
Answer (800)
 1 =
R2 (r + R1 ) l 2
Sol. Horizontal displacement x = v cost

5(r + 15) 200

OR = = 10 2t
15(r + 5) 300
So torque of weight about point of projection is
r=5

29. An inductor of inductance 2 H is connected in  = mgx  (−kˆ )

series with a resistance, a variable capacitor and an
AC source of frequency 7 kHz. The value of dL
capacitance for which maximum current is drawn = mgx( −kˆ )
dt
1
into the circuit is F, where the value of x is
x
 dL = 0.1 10  10 2  t dt ( −kˆ )
L 2

_______. 0 0

(Take  =
22
) L = −20 2kˆ
7
L = 20 2 = 800 kg m2/s
Answer (3872)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A 33. The concentration of dissolved oxygen in water for

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 growth of fish should be more than X ppm and
Biochemical Oxygen Demand in clean water should
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
be less than Y ppm. X and Y in ppm are,
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
respectively.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) X Y (2) X Y
31. Match List I with List II. 4 15 6 12
List I List II (3) X Y (4) X Y

A. Elastomeric I. Urea 4 8 6 5
polymer formaldehyde Answer (4)
resin Sol. For high growth, dissolved oxygen should be less
than 6 ppm and clean water has dissolved oxygen
B. Fibre polymer II. Polystyrene
less than 5 ppm.
C. Thermosetting III. Polyester
34. Correct order of spin only magnetic moment of the
polymer following complex ions is
D. Thermoplastic IV. Neoprene (Given At.no. Fe:26, Co:27)
polymer (1) [Co(C2O4 )3 ]3 − > [CoF6 ]3 − > [FeF6 ]3 −
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) [FeF6 ]3 − > [Co(C2O4 )3 ]3 − > [CoF6 ]3 −
below?
(3) [FeF6 ]3 − > [CoF6 ]3 − > [Co(C2O4 )3 ]3 −
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) [CoF6 ]3 − > [FeF6 ]3 − > [Co(C2O4 )3 ]3 −

(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II Answer (3)

(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III Sol. [FeF6 ]
3–
→ 5 unpaired electrons

Answer (1) 3–
Co ( C2O4 )3  → 0 unpaired electron

Sol. A. Elastomeric fibre (IV) Neoprene
[CoF6 ]
3–
B. Fibre polymer (III) Polyester → 4 unpaired electrons


C. Thermosetting (I) Urea Formaldehyde So, correct answer is : (3)

polymer Resin 35. According to MO theory the bond orders for O22− ,
D. Thermoplastic (II) Polystyrene CO and NO+ respectively, are
polymer (1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 1, 3 and 2
32. A solution of CrO5 in amyl alcohol has a ______ (3) 2, 3 and 3 (4) 1, 3 and 3
colour. Answer (4)
(1) Blue (2) Yellow Sol. Species B.O.
(3) Green (4) Orange-Red O –2
2
1
Answer (1) CO 3
Sol. CrO5 is blue in colour in amyl alcohol. NO⊕ 3

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
36. Match List-I with List-II.
(2)
List-I List-II

A. van’t Hoff I. Cryoscopic constant

factor, i
(3)
B. kf II. Isotonic solutions

C. Solutions III. Normal molar mass

with same Abnormal molar mass (4)
osmotic
pressure Answer (4)

D. Azeotropes IV. Solutions with same

composition of vapour Sol.
above it

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below.
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV Correct answer is (4)

(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV 38. Find out the major product for the following
reaction.
Answer (1)

Sol. A. van’t Hoff factor III. Normal molar mass

Abnormal molar mass Major Product

B. kf I. Cryoscopic constant

C. Solutions with same II. Isotonic solutions

osmotic pressure
(1) (2)
D. Azeotropes IV. Solutions with same
composition of
vapour above it
(3) (4)
37. Find out the major products from the following
reaction sequence.
Answer (3)

Sol.

(1)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
39. The one giving maximum number of isomeric 41. An indicator ‘X’ is used for studying the effect of
alkenes on dehydrohalogenation reaction is variation in concentration of iodide on the rate of
(excluding rearrangement) reaction of iodide ion with H2O2 at room temp. The
(1) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane indicator ‘X’ forms blue colored complex with
(2) 2-Bromopentane compound ‘A’ present in the solution. The indicator
(3) 2-Bromo-3, 3-dimethylpentane ‘X’ and compound ‘A’ respectively are
(4) 2-Bromopropane (1) Starch and H2O2
Answer (2) (2) Starch and iodine
(3) Methyl orange and H2O2

Sol. (4) Methyl orange and iodine

Answer (2)
Sol. Starch forms blue coloured complex with iodine.
42. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Nickel is being used as the catalyst
for producing syn gas and edible fats.
Statement II : Silicon forms both electron rich and
electron deficient hydrides.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
40. Given below are two statements:
(3) Both the statements I and II are correct
Statement I : The decrease in first ionization
enthalpy from B to Al is much larger than that from (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is
Al to Ga. incorrect
Statement-II : The d orbitals Ga are in completely Answer (4)
filled.
Sol. Statement I is correct.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Statement II is incorrect as Si forms electron
most appropriate answer from the options given
below. precise hydride.
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is 43. A doctor prescribed the drug Equanil to a patient.
incorrect The patient was likely to have symptoms of which
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is disease?
correct
(1) Hyperacidity
(3) Both the statements I and II are correct
(2) Depression and hypertension
(4) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
Answer (3) (3) Stomach ulcers

Sol. Statement I : It is correct as decrease in first (4) Anxiety and stress

ionisation enthalpy is much larger from B to Al. Answer (2)
Statement II : It is also correct Sol. Equanil is for depression and hypertension.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
44. When a hydrocarbon A undergoes combustion in Answer (1)
the presence of air, it requires 9.5 equivalents of Sol. Correct match is:
oxygen and produces 3 equivalents of water. What
A. Osmosis III. Solvent molecules
is the molecular formula of A?
pass through semi
(1) C9H9 (2) C8H6
permeable
(3) C6H6 (4) C9H6 membrane towards
Answer (2) solution side.
 y y B. Reverse I. Solvent molecules
Sol. CxHy +  x +  O2 → xCO2 + H2O
 4 2 osmosis pass to solvent side
through SPM.
y
=3
2 C. Electro IV. Dispersion medium
y=6 osmosis moves in an electric
field.
y 19
x+ = D. Electrophoresis II. Movement of
4 2
colloidal particle
19 3 towards oppositely
=x = – 8
2 2 charged electrodes.
So, formula is C8H6.
46. Which of the following relations are correct?
45. Match List I and List II.
(A) ∆U = q + p∆V (B) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
List I List II
qrev
A. Osmosis I. Solvent molecules (C) ∆S = (D) ∆H = ∆U – ∆nRT
T
pass through semi Choose the most appropriate answer from the
permeable options given below:
membrane towards
(1) B and C Only
solvent side.
(2) C and D Only
B. Reverse II. Movement of (3) A and B Only
osmosis charged colloidal
(4) B and D Only
particles under the
Answer (1)
influence of applied
electric potential Sol. (A) ∆U = q – p∆V
towards oppositely (B) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
charged electrodes. qrev
(C) ∆S =
C. Electro III. Solvent molecules T
osmosis pass through semi (D) ∆H = ∆U + (∆nRT)
permeable Hence, (B) and (C) relations are correct.
membrane towards 47. The major component of which of the following ore
solution side. is sulphide based mineral?
D. Electrophoresis IV. Dispersion medium (1) Sphalerite (2) Calamine
moves in an electric (3) Malachite (4) Siderite
field. Answer (1)
Choose the correct answer from the options given Sol. Sphalerite → ZnS
below : Calamine → ZnCO3
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II Malachite → CuCO3⋅Cu(H)2
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Siderite → FeCO3
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
48. Reaction of propanamide with Br2/KOH(aq) Sol. (i) Mn2O7 → Mn in (+7) oxidation state
produces : (ii) It is also correct
(1) Propanenitrile (2) Ethylnitrile (iii) Sc only shows +3 oxidation state
(3) Ethylamine (4) Propylamine (iv) Cr+6 is oxidising in nature
Answer (3) SECTION - B

2 Br /KOH Numerical Value Type Questions: This section

Sol. Propanamide 
→ Ethylamin e
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
49. Following tetrapeptide can be represented as questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
mouse andw the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
place designated to enter the answer.
51. The denticity of the ligand present in the Fehling's
reagent is ______.
Answer (4)
Sol. The denticity is 2 in Fehling’ reagent.
(F, L, D, Y, I, Q, P are one letter codes for amino
acids)
(1) YQLF (2) FLDY
(3) PLDY (4) FIQY
Answer (2)
Sol. The tetrapeptide code is However, the overall maximum denticity can be 4
with other metal ion.
FLDY
52. On heating, LiNO3 gives how many compounds
F → Phenyl alanine
among the following? _______
L → Leucine Li2O, N2, O2, LiNO2, NO2
D → Aspartic acid Answer (3)
Y → Tyrosine ∆
Sol. LiNO3  → Li2O + NO2 + O2
50. The set of correct statements is:
53. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
(i) Manganese exhibits +7 oxidation state in its Zn(s) + Sn2+ (aq)  Zn2+ (aq) + Sn(s) is 1 × 1020
oxide. at 298 K. The magnitude of standard electrode
(ii) Ruthenium and Osmium exhibit +8 oxidation in potential of Sn/Sn2+ if EoZn2 + /Zn = −0.76 V is
their oxides.
_______ ×10–2 V.
(iii) Sc shows +4 oxidation state which is oxidizing
(Nearest integer).
in nature.
2.303 RT
(iv) Cr shows oxidising nature in +6 oxidation state. Given : = 0.059 V
F
(1) (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv) Answer (17)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii) 2.303 RT
°
Sol. Ecell = log k
Answer (2) 2F

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
0.059 Sol. Radius of 3rd Bohr orbit of He+3
E°cell = log(1020 )
2
( 3 )2
= 0.6 ×
E°Zn2+ / Zn + 0.76 =
0.59 2
= 0.3 × 9
E°Zn2=
+
/ Zn
0.59 − 0.76
= 2.7 Å
E°Zn/ Zn2+ = 0.17 V = 270 × 10–12 pm
54. A metal M forms hexagonal close-packed structure. 59. At 298 K
The total number of voids in 0.02 mol of it is ______ N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g) 
 2NH3 ( g) ,K1 =

 4 × 105
× 1021 (Nearest integer).
(Given NA = 6.02 × 1023) N2 ( g) + O2 ( g) 
 2NO ( g) ,K 2 =

 1.6 × 1012

Answer (36) 1
H2 ( g) + O2 ( g) 
 H2O ( g) ,K 3 =

 1.0 × 10 –13
Sol. Number of voids = 0.02 × 3 × 6.02 × 1023 2

 36 × 1021 Based on above equilibria, the equilibrium constant

of the reaction,
55. When 0.01 mol of an organic compound containing
60% carbon was burnt completely, 4.4 g of CO2 was 5
2NH3 ( g) + O2 ( g) 
 2NO ( g) + 3H2O ( g)


2
produced. The molar mass of compound is
is_______ × 10–33 (Nearest integer).
_______ g mol–1 (Nearest integer).
Answer (4)
Answer (200)
5
4.4 Sol. 2NH3 ( g) O2 ( g) 
 2NO ( g) + 3H2O ( g)


Sol. Number of moles of CO2 = = 0.1 2
44
1
∴ Number of moles of C in 1 mole of compound Clearly, Keq = × k 2 × k 33
k1
= 10
1.6 × 1012 × 10 –39
60 =
∴ 120 = × (x) [where x is molar mass of OC] 4 × 105
100
Molar mass = 200 g mol–1 = 0.4 × 10–32

56. Total number of acidic oxides among = 4 × 10–33

60. The volume of HCl, containing 73 g L–1, required to
N2O3, NO2, N2O, Cl2O7, SO2, CO, CaO, Na2O and
completely neutralise NaOH obtained by reacting
NO is ______.
0.69 g of metallic sodium with water, is _______
Answer (4)
mL. (Nearest Integer) (Given: molar Masses of Na,
Sol. N2O3, NO2, Cl2O7, SO2 are acidic in nature
Cl, O, H, are 23, 35.5, 16 and 1 g mol–1 respectively)
57. For conversion of compounds A → B, the rate
Answer (15)
constant of the reaction was found to be 4.6 × 10–
1
5 L mol–1 s–1. The order of the reaction is________. Sol. Na + H2O → NaOH + H2
0.69 g 2
0.03 moles
Answer (2)
Sol. As unit is L mol–1 s–1, order of the reaction is 2. = 0.03 moles

58. Assume that the radius of the first Bohr orbit of ∴ 0.03 = 2 × V
hydrogen atom is 0.6 Å. The radius of the third Bohr 0.03
V= L
orbit of He+ is _______ picometer. (Nearest Integer) 2
Answer (270) = 15 mL

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - A 62. Let K be the sum of the coefficients of the odd

powers of x in the expansion of (1 + x)99. Let a be
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
200
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices  1 
the middle term in the expansion of  2 +  . If
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.  2
200
Choose the correct answer : C99K 2l m
= , where m and n are odd numbers,
61. The area of the region a n
  then the ordered pair (l, n) is equal to
A = ( x, y ) : cos x – sin x  y  sin x, 0  x  
 2  (1) (51, 101) (2) (51, 99)
is (3) (50, 101) (4) (50, 51)

(1) 5 − 2 2 +1 Answer (3)

3 3 Sol. K = 298
(2) − +1
5 2 a = 200C100 250

(3) 5 + 2 2 − 4.5 200

C99 · 298 2l m
 =
200
3 4 C100 · 250 n
(4) 1 − +
2 5
100 48 2l m
Answer (1)  ·2 =
101 n

Sol. 25 2l m
 · 250 =
101 n
 l = 50, m = 25, n = 101
x −1 y − 2 z + 3
63. If the lines = = and
1 2 1
x −a y +2 z−3
= = intersect at the point P, then
2 3 1
  the distance of the point P from the plane z = a is
4 2
Area =  ( sin x − ( cos x − sin x ) ) dx +  ( sin x − ( sin x − cos x ) ) dx (1) 28 (2) 16
−1 1 
tan
2 4 (3) 10 (4) 22
Answer (1)


4 x −1 y − 2 z + 3
=  ( say )
=  ( 2sin x − cos x ) dx + ( sin x ) 2

Sol.
1
=
2
=
1
1
tan−1 4
2 x −a y +2 z−3
& = = =  ( say )
 2 3 1
 1 
= 2cos x − sin x  4 1
+ 1 −    + 1 = 2 + a …(i)
tan−1  2
2 2 + 2 = 3 + 2 …(ii)
3 1 1 1 –3=+3 …(iii)
= + + + 1−
2 5 5 2 By (i) & (ii)

= 5 − 2 2 +1  3 – 2 = 4 + 2a + 2

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
  = –2(1 + a) &  = 5 – 3a Sol. B  ((~A)  B)  ~B  (~A  B)
Put  &  in (iii) we get  (~B  B)  (~A)  T
a = –9 Option (2) B  ((~A)  B)  (~B)  (~A  B)
 = 16  (~B)  (A  B)  T

 = 22 Option (3) B  (A  B)  B  ((~A)  B)

 Point of intersection  (23, 46, 19) (same as given)

Distance from z = – 9 is 28 Option (4) A  ((~A)  B)  (~A)  (A  B)  T

64. If the tangent at a point P on the parabola y2 = 3x is 66. The set of all value of t  R, for which the matrix
parallel to the line x + 2y = 1 and the tangents at the et e −t ( sin t − 2cos t ) e −1 ( −2sin t − cos t ) 
 
x2 y 2 et e −t ( 2sin t + cos t ) e −1 ( sin t − 2cos t )  is
points Q and R on the ellipse + = 1 are
4 1  
et e −1 cos t e −1 sin t 
perpendicular to the line x – y = 2, then the area of  
the triangle PQR is invertible, is
  
(1) 5 3 (2) 3 5 (1) ( 2k + 1) , k  Z  (2) R
 2 
9 3
(3) (4) 5   
5 2 (3) k  + , k  Z  (4) k , k  Z
 4 
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
 A 2A   3 −1 
Sol. P   ,  where  A = , m = e −t ( − sin t − 3cos t ) e −t ( −3 sin t + cos t )
m 2 m   4 2  0
Sol. 8 e −t ( 2sin t ) e −t ( −2cos t ) =0
 
a 2 m1 · b2 e −t cos t e −t sin t
& Q, R =  ,  et
 a2m2 + b2 
 1 a 2 m12 + b 2 
(If matrix is non invertible)
Where a2 = 4, b2 = 1 and m1 = 1
−2cos t ( − sin t − 3cos t ) − 2sin t ( cos t − 3 sin t ) = 0
 P  (3, –3)
 6 cos2 t + 6 sin2 t = 0
 −4 −1   4 1 
Q   ,  & R ,  t0
 5 5   5 5
67. Let S = w1, w 2 ,....... be the sample space
3 −3 1 3 −3 1 associated to a random experiment. Let
1 −4 −1 1
Area = 1 = −4 −1 5 P (w n −1 )
2 5 5 10 P (w n ) = , n  2. Let A = 2k + 3l : k, l  N
0 0 2 5 2
4 1
1 and B = w n : n  A. Then P(B) is equal to
5 5
1 1
2 5
= ( −15 ) = 3 5 (1)
16
(2)
32
10
3 3
65. The statement B  ((~A)  B) is equivalent to (3) (4)
64 32
(1) A  (A  B)
Answer (3)
(2) B  ((~A)  B)
P (w1 ) P (w1 )
(3) B  (A  B) Sol. P (w1 ) + + + ...... = 1
2 22
(4) A  ((~A)  B)
1
Answer (2, 3, 4)  P (w1 ) =
2
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
1 69. Consider a function f : N → R, satisfying
Hence, P (w n ) =
n
2 f (1) + 2f ( 2 ) + 3f ( 3 ) + .... + xf ( x ) = x ( x + 1) f ( x ) ; x  2
Every number except 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 is representable
1 1
with f(1) = 1. Then + is equal to
f ( 2022 ) f ( 2028 )
in the form
2k + 3l where k, l  N.
(1) 8200 (2) 8400
 P ( B ) = 1 − P (w1 ) − P (w 2 ) (3) 8100 (4) 8000
−P (w 3 ) − P (w 4 ) − P (w 6 ) Answer (3)
Sol. f (1) + 2f ( 2 ) + 3f ( 3 ) + ... + nf ( n ) = n ( n + 1) + ( n ) …(i)
3
=
64 n→n+1

2 t4 + 1 f (1) + 2f ( 2 ) + ... + ( n + 1) f ( n + 1) = ( n + 1)( n + 2 )

68. The value of the integral 1  t 6 + 1 dt is
  f ( n + 1) ...(ii)
1 
(1) tan−1 2 − tan−1 8 + (i) and (ii) gives
3 3
3f ( 3 ) − 2f ( 2 ) = 0
−1 1 
(2) tan 2 + tan−1 8 −
3 3 4f ( 4 ) − 3f ( 3 ) = 0

1 1 
(3) tan−1 + tan−1 8 −
2 3 3 ( n + 1) f ( n + 1) − nf ( n ) = 0
1 1 
(4) tan−1 − tan−1 8 + 2f ( 2 )
2 3 3  f ( n + 1) =
n +1
Answer (2)
1
f (n ) =
2 t4 +1 2n
Sol. 1 t 6 + 1dt
1 1
+ = 8100
f ( 2022 ) f ( 2028 )
(t 2 + 1)
2
2 2 t2
= dt − 2 dt 70. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
1 t6 + 1 1 t6 +1
dy
2 2 equation x loge x + y = x 2 loge x, ( x  1) . If y(2) = 2,
2 t +1 2 t dx
= 1 t 4 − t 2 + 1dt − 21 dt
( )
2 then y(e) is equal to
t3 +1
1 + e2 1 + e2
(1) (2)
( ) ( )1
2
= tan−1 2t + 3 + tan−1 2t − 3 2 4

4 + e2 2 + e2
2 (3) (4)
2
− tan−1 t 3
3 1
( ) 4 2
Answer (3)
= tan −1
( 4 + 3 ) + tan ( 4 − 3 ) − tan (2 + 3 )
−1 −1
Sol. x ln x
dy
+ y = x 2 ln x
dx
− tan−1 ( 2 + 3 )
dy 1
+ y = x
) 32 ( tan−1 8 − tan−11)
dx x ln x
− tan−1 2 3 − ( 1 1
 dx  dt
If = e x ln x = e t , where t = lnx
1 
= tan−1 2 + tan−1 8 −
3 3 = eln t = t = ln x
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening

x2 x2 1 Sol. G …………………….. 24
y  ln x =  x ln x = ln x −   H …………………….. 24
2 2 x
O …………………….. 24
x2 x2
y ln x = ln x − +C …(i) T G …………………….. 6
2 4
T H …………………….. 6
y ( 2) = 2  C = 1 T O G …………………… 2
Putting x = e in (i), T O H …………………… 2
T O U G H ……………… 1
e2 4 + e2
y= +1=
4 4 89
71. The shortest distance between the lines 2
tan–1 x
x –1 y +8 z – 4
= = and
x –1 y – 2 z – 6
= = is
73. The value of the integral  x
dx is equal to
1
2 –7 5 2 1 –3 2

(1) 4 3 (2) 3 3 
(1) loge 2 (2) loge2
4
(3) 5 3 (4) 2 3
 1
Answer (1) (3) loge 2 (4) loge 2
2 2
Sol. r1 = iˆ – 8 jˆ + 4kˆ Answer (3)

tan–1 x
2
r2 = iˆ + 2 jˆ + 6kˆ
Sol. I =  x
dx …(i)
a = 2iˆ – 7 jˆ + 5kˆ ½

1
b = 2iˆ + jˆ – 3kˆ x→
x
r –r a b 2
1 1
S.D. = 1 2 tan–1 dx
ab
I=  x x
…(ii)
½
0 –10 –2 2
1 
 r1 – r2 a b  = 2 –7 5 2I =   dx
x 2
½
2 1 –3
2
 10(–16) – 2(16) = –192 
= ln x =  ln2
2 ½
r1 – r2 a b  = 192

 I= ln 2
iˆ ˆj kˆ 2
a  b = 2 –7 5 = 16iˆ + 16 jˆ + 16kˆ 74. Let f and g be twice differentiable functions on
such that
2 1 –3
f ''( x ) = g ''( x ) + 6 x
a  b = 16 3
f '(1) = 4g '(1) – 3 = 9
192
S.D. = =4 3 f(2) = 3g(2) = 12.
16 3
Then which of the following is NOT true?
72. The letters of the word OUGHT are written in all (1) There exists x0  (1, 3 / 2) such that f(x0)
possible ways and these words are arranged as in
= g(x0)
a dictionary, in a series. Then the serial number of
the word TOUGH is (2) | f '( x ) – g '( x ) | 6  –1  x  1
(1) 84 (2) 86 (3) g(–2) – f(–2) = 20
(3) 89 (4) 79 (4) If –1 < x < 2, then |f(x) – g(x)| < 8
Answer (3) Answer (4)
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. f ( x ) = g ( x ) + 6 x 76. The plane 2x – y + z = 4 intersects the line segment
joining the points A(a, –2, 4) and B(2, b, –3) at the
 f ( x ) = g ( x ) + 3 x 2 + C
point C in the ratio 2 : 1 and the distance of the point
f (1) = g (1) + 3 + C
C from the origin is 5. If ab < 0 and P is the point
 g = 3 +3 +C  C = 3
(a – b, b, 2b – a) then CP2 is equal to
 f ( x ) = g ( x ) + 3 x 2 + 3
73 16
2
(1) (2)
 f ( x ) = g ( x ) + x + 3 x + C 3 3
x=2 97 17
(3) (4)
f(2) = g(2) + 14 + C 3 3
12 = 4 + 14 + C Answer (4)
 C = –6
 f(x) = g(2) + x3 + 3x – 6 Sol.
f(–2) = g(–2) – 8 – 6 – 6
g(–2) –f(–2) = 20
 a + 4 – 2 + 2b 4 − 6 
c: , ,
f ( x ) – g ( x ) = 3 x 2 + 3  3 3 3 
x  (–1, 1)
 a + 4 – 2 + 2b – 2 
= , ,
2
3 x + 3  (0, 6)  3 3 3 

 f ( x ) – g ( x ) (0, 6) c lies on plane 2x – y + z = y

f ( x ) – g( x ) = x3 + 3x – 6  a + 4   2b − 2  2
2 − − = 4
 3   3  3
At x = –1
f ( −1) – g (–1) = 10  2a + 8 – 2b + 2 – 2 = 12

 Option (4) is false.  a–b=2 …(i)

75. If a = iˆ + 2kˆ, b = iˆ + jˆ + kˆ, c = 7iˆ – 3 jˆ + 4kˆ, Now, OP = 5
r  b + b  c = 0 and r  a = 0. Then r  c is equal
2 2
to a+4  2b − 2  4
  +  + = 5 and using (i)
(1) 32 (2) 30  3   3  9
(3) 34 (4) 36 11
a= ,1
Answer (3) 5
Sol. ( r – c )  b = 0
1
 b= , –1
r = b + c 5
r a = 0 as also  a = 1, b = –1
 b  a + c  a = 0
 5 −4 −2 
 (3) + (7 + 8) = 0  P (2, – 1, – 3), c  , , 
3 3 3 
  = –5
1 1 49
CP 2 = + +
r = 5b + c 9 9 9
= –5iˆ – 5 jˆ − 5kˆ + (7iˆ + 3 jˆ + 4kˆ )
17
=
= 2iˆ – 8 ˆj – kˆ 3

 r  c = 17 + 24 – 4 = 34  Option (4) is correct.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
77. The number of 3 digit numbers, that are divisible by 79. Let a = 4iˆ + 3 jˆ and b = 3iˆ − 4 jˆ + 5kˆ . If c is a

( )
either 3 or 4 but not divisible by 48, is
(1) 432 (2) 507
( )
vector such that c · a  b + 25 = 0, c · iˆ + jˆ + kˆ = 4

and projection of c on a is 1, then the projection of

(3) 400 (4) 472
c on b equals
Answer (1)
Sol. Number divisible by 3 = 300 1 5
(1) (2)
5 2
Number divisible by 4 = 225
Number divisible by 12 = 75 1 3
(3) (4)
2 2
Number divisible by 48 = 18
Answer (2)
Total required number = 300 + 225 – 75 – 18
Sol. [c a b ] = − 25
= 432
 Option (1) is correct. Let c = liˆ + njˆ + nkˆ

78. The set of all values of  for which the equation l m n

cos2 2x – 2 sin4 x – 2cos2x =  has a real solution x, 4 3 0 = – 25
is 3 –4 5

 1  3   3l – 4m – 5n = – 5 …(i)
(1)  −1, −  (2)  − , − 1
 2  2  c ·(iˆ + jˆ + kˆ ) = 4
 3
(3)  −2, −  (4)  −2, − 1  l+m+n=4 …(ii)
 2
c ·a
= 1  c ·a = 5
Answer (2) |a|

Sol. cos2 2 x − 2 sin4 x − 2cos2 x =   4l + 3m = 5 …(iii)

1 Using (i), (ii) and (iii)

cos2 2 x − (2sin2 x )2 − (1 + cos 2x ) = 
2 l = 2, m = –1, n = 3

1 c ·b 25 5
 cos2 2x − (1 − cos 2x )2 − (1 + cos 2x ) Now, = =
2 |b| 5 2 2

1  Option (2) is correct.

 cos2 2x − (1 + cos2 2x − 2cos 2x ) − 1 − cos 2x
2 80. Let R be a relation defined on N as a R b if 2a + 3b

cos2 2 x 3 is a multiple of 5, a, b  N. Then R is

 −
2 2 (1) an equivalence relation
(2) not reflexive
cos2 2 x  [0, 1]
(3) symmetric but not transitive
2
cos 2 x  1  (4) transitive but not symmetric
 0, 
2  2 Answer (1)
2
cos 2 x 3  – 3  Sol. a R b if 2a + 3b = 5m, m  I
−  , –1
2 2  2  (1) (a, a)  R as 2a + 3a = 5a, a  N
–3  Hence R is reflexive
  , –1
 2  (2) If (a, b)  R then 2a + 3b = 5m
Option (2) is correct Now, 5(a + b) = 5n
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
3a + 2b + 2a + 3b = 5n 25 13 3
 − 2r1r2 =  2r1r2 =
 3a + 2b = 5(n – m) 16 16 4

 (b, a)  R 25 3 1
 r2 − r1 = − =
 R is symmetric 16 2 4

(3) If (a, b)  R and (b, c)  R then  r2 =

3
, r1 =
1
4 2
2a + 3b = 5m, 2b + 3c = 5n
1 1 27 27
 2a + 5b + 3c = 5(m + n)  a6 = 4  = , b4 = 4  =
5 8 64 16
2
 2a + 3c = 5(m = n – b)
 
 (a, c)  R   1 1 
and  CK = 4  +  = 24
 R is transitive 1 − 1 1 − 3 
K =1
Hence R is equivalence relation.  2 4

option (1) is correct. 

  CK − (12a6 + 8b4 ) = 09
SECTION - B K =1

Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 82. the total number of 4-digit numbers whose greatest
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five common divisor with 54 is 2, is _______.
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a Answer (3000)
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
Sol. gcd(a, 54) = 2 when a is a
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
4 digit no.
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the And 54 = 3 × 3 × 3 × 2
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the So, a = all even no. of 4 digits
place designated to enter the answer. – Even multiple of 3 (4 digits)
81. Let ak  and bk , k  N, be two G.P.s with = 4500 – 1500
common ratios r1 and r2 respectively such that a1 = = 3000

b1 = 4 and r1 < r2. Let ck = ak + bk, k  N. If c2 = 5 83. If the equation of the normal to the curve
 x −a
13 y= at the point (1, –3) is x – 4y = 13,
and c 3 = then  ck − (12a6 + 8b4 ) is equal to ( x + b )( x − 2)
4 k =1
then the value of a + b is equal to ________.
______.
Answer (04)
Answer (09)
x −a
Sol. {ak} be a G.P. with a1 = 4, r = r1 Sol. Given curve : y = at (1, −3)
( x + b)( x − 2)
And
1− a
{bk} be G.P. with b1 = 4, r = r2 (r1 < r2)  −3 =  3 + 3b = 1 − a
(1 + b )( −1)
Now
  a + 3b + 2 = 0
Ck = ak + bk
x −a
c1 = 4 + 4 = 8 and c2 = 5 y=
( x + b)( x − 2)
a2 + b2 = 5
dy ( x + b )( x − 2) − ( x − a)[( x + b ) + ( x − 2)]
5 =
 r1 + r2 = dx [( x + b )( x − 2)]2
4
13 13 −(1 + b) − (1 − a)(b)
and c3 =  r42 + r22 = at (1, –3) mT = = −4
4 16 (1 + b)2

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
 1 + b + b – ab = 4(1 + b)2 31
(61 + 91)
1
 1 + 2b + b(3b + 2) = 4b2 + 4 + 8b y= 2 =  152 = 76
31 2
 b2 + 4b + 3 = 0
2
xi 2 + y i 2  x + y 
(b + 1)(b + 3) = 0 2 = − 
62  62 
b = –1, a = 1 but 1 + b  0
= 705
b = –3, a = 7  b  –1
Now
 a + b = 04
x + y − 2
84. A triangle is formed by the tangents at the point
(2, 2) on the curves y2 = 2x and x2 + y2 = 4x, and = 26 + 76 − 705
the line x + y + 2 = 0. If r is the radius of its
= 603
circumcircle, then r2 is equal to _______.
  z – z 
Answer (10) 86. Let  = 8 – 14t , A = z  :  and
2 2
 z – ( z ) – 112i 
Sol. Tangent for y2 = 2x at (2, 2) is
L1 : 2y = x + 2 B = z  : z + 3i = 4. Then  (Re z – Im z ) is
Tangent for x2 + y2 = 4x at (2, 2) is z AB

L2 : y = 2 equal to _______.
Answer (07)
L3 : x + y = 2 = 0
Sol. Let z = x + iy
and  = 8 –14 i
z −  z
=1
2
z − z 2 − 112i
(16y − 28 x ) i
 =1
4 xy − 112i
(16y – 28x + 112)i = 4xy
abc
Radius of circumcircle =  z = –7i or 4
4
Now, z = –7i satisfy B
=
( ) ( 8)
20 (6)
B : x2 + (y + 3)2 = 16
1
4 62 A  B = (0, –7)
2
Re z – Im z = 7
R = 10 87. Let A be a symmetric matrix such that
R2 = 10    1 2
2 1
85. Let X = {11, 12, 13, ……, 40, 41} and Y = {61, 62, | A |= 2 and  A–  . If the sum of the
 3   
63, ……, 90, 91} be the two sets of observations. If 3 2 

x and y are their respective means and  2 is the s

diagonal elements of A is s, then is equal to
2
variance of all the observations in X  Y , then
_____.
2
x +y − is equal to _____. Answer (05)
a c 
Answer (603) Sol. A =  
Sol. x = {11, 12, 13 …, 40, 41} c b
|A| = ab – c2 = 2 …(1)
y = {61, 62, 63, …, 90, 91}
2 1
31
(11 + 41)   a c  =  1 2
x= 2
1
=  52 = 26  3 3   c b     
31 2  2

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (29-01-2023)-Evening
2a + c = 1 …(2)  8 b − n  b9 b10
 2S − T =   n + 8 + 9
2c + b = 2 …(3)  n −1 
 n =1 2  2 2
3
3a + c= …(4) 461
2 =
128
3
3c + b= …(5)  27 (2S − T ) = 461
2
From (1), (2) and (3) 89. A circle with centre (2, 3) and radius 4 intersects the
line x + y = 3 at the points P and Q. If the tangents
3 1
a= b=3 c =− at P and Q intersect at the point S(, ), then
4 2
4 – 7 is equal to _____.
6
 Now,  = Answer (11)
4
Sol. The line x + y = 3 …(i)
=3
is polar of S(, ) w.r.t. circle
15 (x – 2)2 + (y – 3)2 = 16
s=
4
 x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 3 = 0
15 45
3 Equation of polar is
s 4 = 4 =5
= x + y –2 (x + ) –3(4 + ) – 3 = 0
2 2 9
 6
4 4 ( – 2) x + ( – 3)y – (2 + 3 + 3) = 0 …(ii)
 
(i) and (ii) represent the same.
88. Let a1 = b1 = 1 and an = an –1 + (n − 1), bn = bn −1 + an −1,
 − 2  − 3 2 + 3 + 3
10 bn 8
n  = =
n  2. If S=  2n
and T =  2n –1
, then 1 1 3
n =1 n =1 –+1=0
7
2 (2S − T ) is equal to ______.  – 3 – 9 = 0
Answer (461)   = –6,  = –5

Sol.  an = an –1 + (n –1) and a1 = b1 = 1 4 – 7 = 11

90. Let 1,  2,..., 7 be the roots of the equation
bn = bn – 1 + an – 1
x 7 + 3 x 5 – 13 x 3 – 15 x = 0 and 1   2  ...  7 .
 bn + 1 = 2bn – bn – 1 + n – 1
Then 1 2 – 3  4 + 5  6 is equal to _______.
n bn bn – n Answer (09)
1 1 0 Sol. x7 + 3x5 – 13x3 –15x = 0

2 2 0 x(x6 + 3x4 – 13x2 – 15) = 0

3 4 1 x = 0 = 7

4 8 4 Let x2 = t
5 15 10 t3 + 3t2 – 13t – 15 = 0
6 26 20 (t + 1) (t + 5) (t – 3) = 0

7 42 35 t = x2 = –1, –5, 3

8 64 56 x =  i ,  5i ,  3
9 93 84 1, 2 =  5i , 3 ,  4  = 3, 5 ,  6 =  i
10 130 120
1 2 − 3  4 + 5  6 = 5 + 3 + 1 = 9

❑ ❑ ❑
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