Elcei Jen R.

Lazo
YE-1

1. The temperature at which an alligator's egg is incubated will determine the sex of the
offspring. The dependent and the independent variables in this experiment are ________.
A) sex of the baby alligator and temperature respectively
B) temperature and sex of the baby alligator respectively
C) size of the incubator and size of the baby alligator respectively
D) number of offspring and temperature in the incubator respectively

2. The best experimental design ________.

A) includes a large sample size for each condition
B) includes a control
C) alters only one condition between the controls and the experimental condition
D) includes a large sample size and a control, and alters only one condition between the controls
and the experimental condition

3. A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning. He asks for your help.
You say that you think the battery must be dead. If so, then jump-starting the car from a good
battery will solve the problem. In doing so, you are ________.
A) testing a theory for why the car will not start
B) making observations to inspire a theory for why the car will not start
C) stating a hypothesis and using that hypothesis to make a testable prediction
D) comparing multiple hypotheses for why the car will not start

4. Followinga scientific method, which of the following is the correct order of steps?
A) Observation → Analysis → Hypothesis → Conclusion → Communicate results →
Experiment
B) Observation → Hypothesis → Experiment → Communicate results → Analysis →
Conclusion
C) Experiment → Hypothesis → Observation → Analysis → Conclusion → Communicate
results
D) Observation → Hypothesis → Experiment → Analysis → Conclusion → Communicate
results

5. You are suffering from Streptococcus throat infection. You share the following with the
bacteria that is responsible for your condition.
A) You both belong to the same domain.
B) You both are made up of cells.
C) You both have genetic material in your nucleus.
D) You and Streptococcus have nothing in common.
6. Which of the following statements is true?
A) mRNA is the only type of RNA found in the living system
B) All forms of life employ the same genetic code
C) A typical human liver cell has one set of chromosomes
D) Organisms interact but do not affect their environment

7. Characters are transmitted from parents to offspring. ________ are the units of inheritance.
A) Genes
B) Proteins
C) RNA
D) DNA

8.)When your body temperature rises on a hot day, the neural and hormonal mechanisms activate
sweating. Evaporation of sweat leads to cooling of the body surface. This is an example of
________.
A) positive feedback regulation
B) negative feedback regulation
C) chemical cycling
D) emergent properties

9. Which of the following statements is true regarding the complexity of biological systems?
A) An understanding of the interactions between different components within a living system is
an approach towards understanding reductionism.
B) Knowing the function of a component of a living system can provide insights into the
structure and organization of the living system.
C) Understanding the chemical structure of DNA reveals how it directs the functioning of a
living cell.
D) An ecosystem displays complex properties of the biotic component only.

10. Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their genetic
material but do not have their DNA encased within a nuclear envelope?
A) animal
B) plant
C) archaean
D) fungi

11. Ina diploid cell with 5 chromosome pairs (2n = 10), how many centromeres will be found in
a nucleus at G2 of the cell division cycle?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 40
12. )
In what way do kinetochore microtubules facilitate the process of splitting the centromeres?
A) They use motor proteins to hydrolyze the centromere at specific arginine residues.
B) They create tension by pulling toward opposite poles.
C) They slide past each other like actin microfilaments.
D) They phosphorylate the centromere, thereby changing its conformation.

13. How is plant cell cytokinesis different from animal cell cytokinesis?
A) The contractile filaments found in plant cells are structures composed of carbohydrates; the
cleavage furrow in animal cells is composed of contractile proteins.
B) Plant cells deposit vesicles containing cell wall building blocks on the metaphase plate;
animal cells form a cleavage furrow.
C) The structural proteins of plant cells separate the two cells; in animal cells, a cell membrane
separates the two daughter cells.
D) Plant cells divide after metaphase but before anaphase; animal cells divide after anaphase.

14. Ina diploid cell with 5 chromosome pairs (2n = 10), how many sister chromatids will be
found in a nucleus at prophase of mitosis?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 40

15. If
there are 40 centromeres in a cell at anaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will be
found in each daughter cell following cytokinesis?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 40
D) 80

16. Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol
prevents microtubule depolymerization. Thus, Taxol stops mitosis by interfering with which of
the following structures or processes?
A) the mitotic spindle
B) cytokinesis
C) centriole duplication
D) chromosome condensation

17. Thebeginning of anaphase is indicated by which of the following processes?

A) Loss of kinetochores from the chromatids.
B) Attachment of sister chromatids to each other by cohesin.
C) Enzymatic cleavage of cohesin.
D) Disappearance of the nuclear membrane.
18 A cleavage furrow is ________.
A) a ring of vesicles forming a cell plate
B) the separation of divided prokaryotes
C) a groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei
D) the space that is created between two chromatids during anaphase

19. Use the figure to answer the question below.

The unlettered circle at the top of the figure shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes that
have not yet replicated. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other
short. One haploid set is black, and the other is gray. The circles labeled A to E show various
combinations of these chromosomes.

What is the correct chromosomal condition at prometaphase of mitosis?

A) B
B) C
C) D
D) E

20. Use the figure to answer the question below.

If the cell whose nuclear material is shown in the figure continues toward completion of mitosis,
which of the following events would occur next?
A) spindle fiber formation
B) nuclear envelope breakdown
C) formation of telophase nuclei
D) synthesis of chromatids

21. At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes usually photographed in the preparation of a
karyotype?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) interphase

22. Whichof the following statements is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n =
16?
A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.
B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
C) Each diploid cell has eight homologous pairs of chromosomes.
D) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes.

23. Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Which of the following
characteristics do all sexual life cycles have in common?

I. Alternation of generations
II. Meiosis
III. Fertilization
IV. Gametes
V. Spores

A) I, II, and IV
B) II, III, and IV
C) II, IV, and V
D) I, II, III, IV, and V

24. Which of the following statements describes an example of alternation of generations?

A) A grandparent and grandchild each have dark hair, but the parent has blond hair.
B) A diploid plant (sporophyte) produces a spore by meiosis that gives rise to a multicellular,
haploid pollen grain (gametophyte).
C) A diploid animal produces gametes by meiosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization to
produce a diploid zygote.
D) A haploid mushroom produces gametes by mitosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization,
which is immediately followed by meiosis.

25. A triploid cell contains three sets of homologous chromosomes. If a cell of a diploid species
that normally has 42 chromosomes per cell is triploid, this cell would be expected to have which
of the following sets of chromosomes?
A) 63 chromosomes in 31 1/2 pairs
B) 63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3
C) 63 chromosomes, each with 3 sister chromatids
D) 21 chromosome pairs and 21 unique chromosomes

27. In
a life cycle such as that shown in part III of the figure above, if the zygote's chromosome
number is ten, which of the following statements will be true?
A) The sporophyte's chromosome number per cell is ten and the gametophyte's is five.
B) The sporophyte's chromosome number per cell is five and the gametophyte's is ten.
C) The sporophyte and gametophyte each have ten chromosomes per cell.
D) The sporophyte and gametophyte each have five chromosomes per cell.

28. Whichof the following characteristics do homologous chromosomes exhibit?

A) They carry information for different traits.
B) They carry information for the same traits.
C) They carry the same alleles.
D) They align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II.

29. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the human X chromosomes?
A) It is present in every somatic cell of males and females.
B) It is the same size as other chromosomes and has the same number of genes.
C) It carries genes that determine an individual's biological sex.
D) It is referred to as an autosome.

30. During which of the following processes do sister chromatids separate from each other?
A) during meiosis I only
B) during meiosis II only
C) during both mitosis and meiosis I
D) during both mitosis and meiosis II

31. Cellstransplanted from the neural tube of a frog embryo to the ventral part of another embryo
develop into nervous system tissues. This result indicates that the transplanted cells were
A) totipotent.
B) determined.
C) differentiated.
D) mesenchymal.

32. Which of the following is common to the development of both birds and mammals?
A) holoblastic cleavage
B) epiblast and hypoblast
C) trophoblast
D) gray crescent

33. Just prior

to the onset of gastrulation in an embryo, the "organizer" cells are specified. If you
were to experimentally block the specification of these cells, what would you expect the result to
be in the developing embryo?
A) There would be no effect on development.
B) Gastrulation would not occur, and normal development would cease.
C) The body axes would develop normally, but the embryo would not grow appendages.
D) The embryo would not develop an intestine, but all other organs and tissues would develop
normally.

34. One primary

factor in shaping the polarity of the body axes in chick embryos is ________.
A) light
B) membrane potential
C) gravity
D) moisture

35. During metamorphosis, a tadpole's tail is reduced in size by the process of ________.
A) regeneration
B) apoptosis
C) oxidative phosphorylation
D) redifferentiation

36. Thalidomide, now banned for use as a sedative during pregnancy, was used in the early 1960s
by many women in their first trimester of pregnancy. Some of these women gave birth to
children with limb and organ deformities, suggesting that the drug most likely influenced
________.
A) early cleavage divisions
B) differentiation of bone tissue
C) morphogenesis
D) gastrulation

37. At thetime of implantation, the human embryo is called a ________.

A) blastocyst
B) gastrula
C) fetus
D) zygote

38. An embryo with meroblastic cleavage, extraembryonic membranes, and a primitive streak
must be that of ________.
A) an insect
B) an amphibian
C) a bird
D) a sea urchin

39. A human blastomere is ________.

A) an embryonic cell that is smaller than the ovum
B) an embryonic structure that includes a fluid-filled cavity
C) that part of the acrosome that opens the egg's membrane
D) a cell that contains a (degenerating) second polar body

40. Inan egg cell treated with a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions, the ________.
A) acrosomal reaction would be blocked
B) fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked
C) fast block to polyspermy would not occur
D) fertilization envelope would not be formed

41. Septicshock, a systemic response including high fever and low blood pressure, is a response
to ________.
A) certain bacterial infections
B) specific forms of viruses
C) the presence of natural killer cells
D) increased production of neutrophils

42. Which of the following would help a virus avoid triggering an effective adaptive immune
response?

I) having frequent mutations in genes for surface proteins

II) building the viral shell from host proteins
III) producing proteins very similar to those of other viruses
IV) infecting and killing helper T cells

A) only I and III

B) only I, II, and IV
C) only I, II, and III
D) only II, III, and IV

43. Yearly vaccination of humans for influenza viruses is necessary because ________.
A) of an increase in immunodeficiency diseases
B) the flu can generate anaphylactic shock
C) surviving the flu one year exhausts the immune system to nonresponsiveness the second year
D) rapid mutation in flu viruses alters the surface proteins in infected host cells

44. Which of the following components of the immune system destroys cancerous cells by
punching holes in plasma membranes and triggering apoptosis?
A) toll-like proteins
B) macrophages
C) plasma cells
D) cytotoxic T cells

45. The number of major histocompatibility (MHC) protein combinations possible in a given
population is enormous. However, an individual in that diverse population has a far more limited
array of MHC molecules because ________.
A) the MHC proteins are made from several different gene regions that are capable of
rearranging in a number of ways
B) MHC proteins from one individual can only be of class I or class II
C) each of the MHC genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual only inherits two
for each gene
D) once a B cell has matured in the bone marrow, it is limited to two MHC response categories

46. Jenner'ssuccessful use of cowpox virus as a vaccine against the smallpox virus was due to the
fact that ________.
A) the immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens
B) the cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox
C) there are some epitopes (antigenic determinants) common to both pox viruses
D) cowpox and smallpox are caused by the same virus

47. )A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the helper T cell being
unable to ________.
A) respond to circulating viral antigens
B) lyse tumor cells
C) stimulate a cytotoxic T cell
D) interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex

48. Which of the following proteins can be classified as immunoglobulins?

I) T cell receptors
II) B cell receptors
III) Antigens

A) only I
B) only II
C) both II and III
D) both I and II

49. Which of the following statements about epitopes are correct?

I) B cell receptors bind to epitopes.

II) T cell receptors bind to epitopes.
III) There can be 10 or more different epitopes on each antigen.
IV) There is a one-to-one correspondence between antigen and epitope.

A) only I and III

B) only II and IV
C) only I, II, and III
D) only II, III, and IV

50. What major advantage is conveyed by having a system of adaptive immunity?

A) It enables a rapid defense against an antigen that has been previously encountered.
B) It enables an animal to counter most pathogens almost instantly the first time they are
encountered.
C) It results in effector cells with specificity for a large number of antigens.
D) It allows for the destruction of antibodies.

51. Suppose that100 pollen grains land on a stigma, and 50 mature seeds are formed in the fruit.
What does this indicate about the pollination process and success?
A) 50% success: 100 pollen grains grew to 50 ovules, and double fertilization occurred.
B) 50% success: Evidently, only 50 sperm pollinated 50 anthers.
C) 50% success: 50 sperm fertilized 50 eggs, and 50 sperm fused with 50 polar nuclei.
D) 50% success: 50 sperm fertilized 50 eggs, and 50 sperm fused with 100 polar nuclei.

52. Pineapple is a ________ fruit.

A) simple
B) multiple
C) aggregate
D) accessory

53. Thevast number and variety of flower species is probably related to various kinds of
________.
A) seed dispersal agents
B) pollinators
C) herbivores
D) climatic conditions

54. Whichof the following is correctly paired with its life cycle generation?
A) anther—sporophyte
B) pollen—sporophyte
C) embryo sac—gametophyte
D) stamen—gametophyte

55. The generative cell of male angiosperm gametophytes is haploid. This cell divides to produce
two haploid sperm cells. What type of cell division does the generative cell undergo to produce
these sperm cells?
A) mitosis
B) meiosis
C) mitosis without subsequent cytokinesis
D) meiosis without subsequent cytokinesis

56. Use the following information to answer the question.

The Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to tropical rain forests of South
America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to over 50 meters tall, is a source of high-quality
lumber, and is a favorite nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled
fruits, each containing 8-25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts are composed
primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are harvested each year. Scientists have
discovered that the pale yellow flowers of Brazil nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit
only female orchid bees as pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the
only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut fruits. It typically eats
some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still others inside the fruit, which moisture can now
enter. The uneaten seeds may subsequently germinate.

Animals that consume Brazil nuts derive nutrition mostly from tissue whose nuclei have how
many chromosomes?
A) 17
B) 34
C) 51
D) 68
57. While looking at a flower in your garden, you notice that it has carpels with very long styles,
and stamens with very short filaments. This plant is most likely to reproduce by ________.
A) cross-pollination
B) selfing
C) asexual reproduction
D) vegetative reproduction

58. Which of the following is a potential advantage of introducing apomixis into hybrid crop
species?
A) Cultivars would be better able to cope with a rapidly changing environment.
B) They would have a larger potential genome than inbred crops.
C) All of the desirable traits of the cultivar would be passed on to offspring.
D) They would benefit from positive mutations in their DNA.

59. Which of the following is an effective method to produce plants exhibiting hybrid vigor?
A) self-pollination
B) cloning
C) tissue culture
D) genetic engineering

60. The
most immediate potential benefits of introducing genetically modified crops include
________.

I) creating crops that can grow on land previously unsuitable for agriculture
II) creating crops with better potential for biofuel production
III) creating crops with better nutritional attributes
IV) increasing crop yield
V) decreasing the mutation rate of certain genes

A) only II, III, and IV

B) only I, II, III, and IV
C) only III, IV, and V
D) I, II, III, IV, and V