p;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;cv 1) The centromere is a region in which

A) chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase.

B) metaphase chromosomes become aligned at the metaphase plate.
C) chromosomes are grouped during telophase.
D) the nucleus is located prior to mitosis.
E) new spindle microtubules form at either end.

2) What is a chromatid?
A) a chromosome in G1 of the cell cycle
B) a replicate chromosome
C) a chromosome found outside the nucleus
D) a special region that holds two centromeres together
E) another name for the chromosomes found in genetics

3) Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early
embryo with how many cells?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32 =2^5
E) 64

4) If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?

A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80

5) For a newly evolving protist, what would be the advantage of using eukaryote -like cell
division rather than binary fission?
A) Binary fission would not allow for the formation of new organisms.
B) Cell division would allow for the orderly and efficient segregation of multiple linear
chromosomes.
C) Cell division would be faster than binary fission.
D) Cell division allows for lower rates of error per chromosome replication.
E) Binary fission would not allow the organism to have complex cells.

6) How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cell
when it was in G1 of the cell cycle?
A) The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B) The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. D)
The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA. E) The
daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.
7) Which term describes two centrosomes arranged at opposite poles of the cell?
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase (2 tâm động nằm đối diện nhau) 🡺 kì giữa
E) prophase

8) Which term describes centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells?

A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) prophase (trung tử di chuyển trong tbao động vật) 🡺 kì đầu

Which is the longest of the mitotic stages?

A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) prophase

9) Which is the shortest of the cell cycle phase?

A) G1
B) G2
C) S phase
D) G0
E) mitosis

10) Which term describes centromeres uncoupling, sister chromatids separating, and the two new
chromosomes moving to opposite poles of the cell?
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) prophase
10 câu đầu, sai 2 câu
Thứ nhất: 2 tâm động nằm đối diện nhau ở kì giữa
Thứ hai: trung tử di chuyển trong tế bào động vật ở kì đầu
Nhớ hình là làm được
11) If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the
functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
A) anaphase
B) prophase
C) telophase
D) metaphase
E) interphase
dividing, mitosis be arrested 🡺 kì đầu (prophase)

12) A cell containing 92 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce
two nuclei each containing how many chromosomes?
A) 12
B) 16
C) 23
D) 46
E) 92

If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each
daughter cell following cytokinesis?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80

If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each
daughter cell following cytokinesis?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80
If there are 20 chromatids in a cell at metaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each
daughter cell following cytokinesis?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80

Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal cells?
A) centromere
B) centrosome
C) centriole
D) chromatid
E) kinetochore

If a cell has 8 chromosomes at metaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will it have during
anaphase?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
E) 16

Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis but not
cytokinesis, the result would be a cell with
A) a single large nucleus.
B) high concentrations of actin and myosin.
C) two abnormally small nuclei.
D) two nuclei.
E) two nuclei but with half the amount of DNA.
Chỉ đơn giản là nó nguyên phân 🡺 2 nuclei mà không phân chia thì lượng DNA không có thay
đổi
Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, taxol disrupts
microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating their assembly from the
protein precursor, tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, taxol must affect
A) the fibers of the mitotic spindle.
B) anaphase.
C) formation of the centrioles.
D) chromatid assembly.
E) the S phase of the cell cycle.
Câu này nhớ đáp án. Toxol thì chọn fibers of the mitotic spindle

Chromosomes first become visible during which phase of mitosis?

A) prometaphase
B) telophase
C) prophase
D) metaphase
E) anaphase
Ngay từ kì đầu đã đầu tiên visible
During which phases of mitosis are chromosomes composed of two chromatids?
A) from interphase through anaphase
B) from G1 of interphase through metaphase
C) from metaphase through telophase
D) from anaphase through telophase
E) from G2 of interphase through metaphase
Từ G2 đến M, nhớ cái hình vòng tròn (phiên mã + dịch mã)
Câu 11-20 sai 4 câu:
Thứ nhất: cell dividing, mistotic arrested 🡺 ở ngay kì đầu (Prophase)
Thứ hai: 20 tâm động, ở kì sau có bn chromosomes trong mỗi tbao con 🡺 vẫn là 20
chromosomes trong mỗi tbao con
Thứ ba, sinh ra 2 nuclei vì nguyên phân mà k xảy ra chu kì tế bào
Thứ tư, toxol 🡺 fibers of the mitotic spindle
Thứ năm, chrosomes first become ngay từ kì đầu (prophase)
Thứ 6, G2 🡺 M

Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that
A) reduces cyclin concentrations.
B) increases cyclin concentrations.
C) prevents elongation of microtubules.
D) prevents shortening of microtubules.
E) prevents attachment of the microtubules to the kinetochore.
Keyword: shortening of microtubules

Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a
growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which
stage of the cell cycle was the nucleus with 6 picograms of DNA?
A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have
an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. Those cells would have __________ picograms
at the end of the S phase and __________ picograms at the end of G2.
A) 8; 8
B) 8; 16
C) 16; 8
D) 16; 16
E) 12; 16
The somatic cells derived from a single-celled zygote divide by which process?
A) meiosis
B) mitosis
C) replication
D) cytokinesis alone
E) binary fission

1) The research team used the setup to study the incorporation of labeled nucleotides into a
culture of lymphocytes and found that the lymphocytes incorporated the labeled nucleotide at a
significantly higher level after a pathogen was introduced into the culture. They concluded that:
A) the presence of the pathogen made the experiment too contaminated to trust the results.
B) their tissue culture methods needed to be relearned.
C) infection causes lymphocytes to divide more rapidly.
D) infection causes cell cultures in general to reproduce more rapidly.
E) infection causes lymphocyte cultures to skip some parts of the cell cycle.

Cells that are in a nondividing state are in which phase?

A) G0
B) G2
C) G1
D) S
E) M

2) Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury?

A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk
Released … of an injury 🡺 PDGF

Which is a general term for enzymes that activate or inactivate other proteins by phosphorylating
them?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk
Activate or inactivate 🡺 protein kinase

Fibroblasts have receptors for this substance on their plasma membranes:

A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk
Fibroblasets … plasma membrane 🡺 protein kinase

Which of the following is a protein synthesized at specific times during the cell cycle that
associates with a kinase to form a catalytically active complex?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk
Protein synthesized … complex 🡺 cyclin

Which of the following is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle that
requires cyclin to become catalytically active?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk
Protein maintain 🡺 Cdk
Released … of an injury 🡺 PDGF
Activate or inactivate 🡺 protein kinase
Fibroblasts … membrane plasma 🡺 protein kinase
Synthesized … complex 🡺 cyclin
Protein maintained … cyclin … active? 🡺 Cdk
Không có MPF

DNA is replicated at this time of the cell cycle:

A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M

3) Nerve and muscle cells are differentiated cells and implicated in this phase:
A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M
Differentiates cells and implicated 🡺 G0
The cyclin component of (mitosis-promoting factor) MPF is destroyed toward the end of this
phase:
A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M
MPF is destroy 🡺 M plase

An enzyme that attaches a phosphate group to another molecule is called a:

A) phosphatase.
B) phosphorylase.
C) kinase.
D) cyclase.
E) ATPase.
Phosphate group to another molecule is called a 🡺 kinase

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in
concentration during the cell cycle, are called
A) ATPases.
B) kinetochores.
C) centrioles.
D) proton pumps.
E) cyclins.
Proteins 🡺 involved in the regulation : cyclins

The MPF protein complex turns itself off by

A) activating a process that destroys cyclin component.
B) activating an enzyme that stimulates cyclin.
C) binding to chromatin.
D) exiting the cell.
E) activating the anaphase-promoting complex.
MPF turn itself off 🡺 activating … component
Thứ nhất: DNA nhân đôi tại S phase kì trung gian
Thứ hai: nerve … differentiated 🡺 G0
Thứ ba: MPF is destroyed 🡺 M phase
Thứ tư: an enzyme … phosphate group 🡺 kinase
Thứ năm: involed in the regulation of the cell 🡺 cyclins
Thứ sáu: the MPF protein complex turn itself off by 🡺 activating … component

A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase
checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?
A) The cell would prematurely enter anaphase.
B) The cell would never leave metaphase.
C) The cell would never enter metaphase.
D) The cell would never enter prophase.
E) The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1 phase.
Mutation results in a cell in no longer 🡺 Prophase ☺
Which of the following describe(s) cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)?
A) Cdk is inactive, or ʺturned off,ʺ in the presence of cyclin.
B) Cdk is present throughout the cell cycle.
C) Cdk is an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins.
D) Both A and B are true.
E) Both B and C are true.
A: sai

4) The research team established similar lymphocyte cultures from a number of human donors,
including healthy teenagers of both genders, patients already suffering from long -term bacterial
infections, and elderly volunteers. They found that the increase in lymphocyte incorporation after
pathogen introduction was slightly lower in some of the women teenagers and significantly
lower in each of the elderly persons. They repeated the study with a larger number of samples
but got the same results. What might be among their conclusions?
A) The young women showed these results because they have poorer nutrition.
B) The elderly personsʹ samples demonstrated their lowered immune responses.
C) The young men had higher response because they are generally healthier.
D) The patient samples should have had the lowest response but did not, so the experiment is
invalid.
E) The elderly donor samples represent cells no longer capable of any cell division.
🡺 the elder’s person … responses

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Besides the ability of some cancer cells to overproliferate, what else could logically result in a
tumor?
A) metastasis
B) changes in the order of cell cycle stages
C) lack of appropriate cell death
D) inability to form spindles
E) inability of chromosomes to meet at the metaphase plate
Ability of some cancer cells 🡺 lack of appriate

5) Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with
the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to
A) disruption of mitotic spindle formation.
B) inhibition of regulatory protein phosphorylation.
C) suppression of cyclin production.
D) myosin denaturation and inhibition of cleavage furrow formation.
E) inhibition of DNA synthesis.
Vinblastine 🡺 disruption of mitosis spindle formation

6) One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells
A) are unable to synthesize DNA.
B) are arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle.
C) continue to divide even when they are tightly packed together.
D) cannot function properly because they are affected by density-dependent inhibition.
E) are always in the M phase of the cell cycle.
The decline of MPF activity at the end of mitosis is due to
A) the destruction of the protein kinase Cdk.
B) decreased synthesis of cyclin.
C) the degradation of cyclin.
D) synthesis of DNA.
E) an increase in the cellʹs volume-to-genome ratio.
Deline of MPF at the end of mistosis 🡺 the degradation of cyclin
7) The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the
cell cycle would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B?
A) spindle formation
B) spindle attachment to kinetochores
C) DNA synthesis
D) cell elongation during anaphase
E) cleavage furrow formation
Cytoclasin B blocks the function of actin 🡺 cell elongation during of anaphase

8) In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in
A) cells with more than one nucleus.
B) cells that are unusually small.
C) cells lacking nuclei.
D) destruction of chromosomes.
E) cell cycles lacking an S phase.
Without cytokinesis 🡺 more nucleus

9) Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?

A) condensation of the chromosomes
B) replication of the DNA
C) separation of sister chromatids
D) spindle formation
E) separation of the spindle poles
Does not occur during mitosis 🡺 replication of DNA
Thứ nhất: the mutation results in a cell 🡺 PROPHASE
Thứ hai: A sai (turn off)
Thứ ba: the elderly person’s … responses
Thứ tư: besides … overproliferate 🡺 lack of the death
Thứ năm: vinblastine … related to 🡺 disruption of mistotic spindle formation
Thứ sáu: decline of MPF activity at the end of mitotis 🡺 the gradation of cyclin
Thứ bảy: cytochalasin B blocks… 🡺 cell elongation during anaphase
Thứ tám: mitosis occurs without cytokinesis 🡺 more than 1 nucleus
Thứ chin: does not occur during mitosis 🡺 replication DNA

10) Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in
prokaryotes?
A) RNA polymerase transcribes through the polyadenylation signal, causing proteins to associate
with the transcript and cut it free from the polymerase.
B) RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to
separate from the DNA and release the transcript.
C) RNA polymerase transcribes through an intron, and the snRNPs cause the polymerase to let
go of the transcript.
D) Once transcription has initiated, RNA polymerase transcribes until it reaches the end of the
chromosome.
E) RNA polymerase transcribes through a stop codon, causing the polymerase to stop advancing
through the gene and release the mRNA.

11) Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic eukaryotic gene expression, but does in
eukaryotic gene expression?
A) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed.
B) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.
C) A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end.
D) Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun even a little.
E) RNA polymerase requires a primer to elongate the molecule.

12) RNA polymerase in a prokaryote is composed of several subunits. Most of these subunits are
the same for the transcription of any gene, but one, known as sigma, varies considerably. Which
of the following is the most probable advantage for the organism of such sigma switching?
A) It might allow the transcription process to vary from one cell to another.
B) It might allow the polymerase to recognize different promoters under certain environmental
conditions.
C) It could allow the polymerase to react differently to each stop codon.
D) It could allow ribosomal subunits to assemble at faster rates.
E) It could alter the rate of translation and of exon splicing.

13) Which of the following is a function of a poly-A signal sequence?

A) It adds the poly-A tail to the 3' end of the mRNA.
B) It codes for a sequence in eukaryotic transcripts that signals enzymatic cleavage ~10^35
nucleotides away.
C) It allows the 3' end of the mRNA to attach to the ribosome.
D) It is a sequence that codes for the hydrolysis of the RNA polymerase.
E) It adds a 7-methylguanosine cap to the 3' end of the mRNA.

14) In eukaryotes there are several different types of RNA polymerase. Which type is involved in
transcription of mRNA for a globin protein?
A) ligase
B) RNA polymerase I
C) RNA polymerase II
D) RNA polymerase III
E) primase
15) Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA polymerase?
A) the protein product of the promoter
B) start and stop codons
C) ribosomes and tRNA
D) several transcription factors (TFs)
E) aminoacyl synthetase

16) A part of the promoter, called the TATA box, is said to be highly conserved in evolution.
Which of the following might this illustrate?
A) The sequence evolves very rapidly.
B) The sequence does not mutate.
C) Any mutation in the sequence is selected against.
D) The sequence is found in many but not all promoters.
E) The sequence is transcribed at the start of every gene.

17) The TATA sequence is found only several nucleotides away from the start site of
transcription. This most probably relates to which of the following?
A) the number of hydrogen bonds between A and T in DNA
B) the triplet nature of the codon
C) the ability of this sequence to bind to the start site
D) the supercoiling of the DNA near the start site
E) the 3-D shape of a DNA molecule

18) What is a ribozyme?

A) an enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate
B) an RNA with enzymatic activity
C) an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits
D) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process
E) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication

20) During splicing, which molecular component of the spliceosome catalyzes the excision
reaction?
A) protein
B) DNA
C) RNA
D) lipid
E) sugar

Use the following model of a eukaryotic transcript to answer the next few questions (Question
from 21 to 25).
5' UTR E1 I1 E2 I2 E3 I3 E4 UTR 3'
21) Which components of the previous molecule will also be found in mRNA in the cytosol?
A) 5' UTR I1 I2 I3 UTR 3'
B) 5' E1 E2 E3 E4 3'
C) 5' UTR E1 E2 E3 E4 UTR 3'
D) 5' I1 I2 I3 3'
E) 5' E1 I1 E2 I2 E3 I3 E4 3'

22) When the spliceosome binds to elements of this structure, where can it attach?
A) to the exons
B) to the 5' UTR
C) to the 3' UTR
D) to an adjacent intron and exon
E) to the end of an intron

23) Which of the following is a useful feature of introns for this model?
A) They are translated into small polypeptides.
B) They become parts of snRNPs.
C) Each intron has enzymatic properties.
D) Introns allow exon shuffling.
E) Introns protect exon structure.

24) Suppose that exposure to a chemical mutagen results in a change in the sequence that alters
the 5' end of intron 1 (I1). What might occur?
A) loss of the gene product
B) loss of E1
C) premature stop to the mRNA
D) inclusion of I1 in the mRNA
E) exclusion of E2

25) Suppose that an induced mutation removes most of the 5' end of the 5' UTR. What might
result?
A) Removal of the 5' UTR has no effect because the exons are still maintained.
B) Removal of the 5' UTR also removes the 5' cap and the mRNA will quickly degrade.
C) The 3' UTR will duplicate and one copy will replace the 5' end.
D) The first exon will not be read because I1 will now serve as the UTR.
E) Removal of the 5' UTR will result in the strand not binding to tRNAs.

26) Which of the following is not true of RNA processing?

A) Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus.
B) Nucleotides may be added at both ends of the RNA.
C) Ribozymes may function in RNA splicing.
D) RNA splicing can be catalyzed by spliceosomes.
E) A primary transcript is often much longer than the final RNA molecule that leaves the
nucleus.
27) The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is
A) permanently turned on.
B) turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium.
C) turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
D) turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
E) turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.

28) Which of the following is a protein produced by a regulatory gene?

A) operon
B) inducer
C) promoter
D) repressor
E) corepressor

29) A lack of which molecule would result in the cell's inability to "turn off" genes?
A) operon
B) inducer
C) promoter
D) ubiquitin
E) corepressor

30) Which of the following, when taken up by the cell, binds to the repressor so that the
repressor no longer binds to the operator?
A) ubiquitin
B) inducer
C) promoter
D) repressor
E) corepressor

31) A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell
would result in
A) continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.
B) complete inhibition of transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.
C) irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator.
D) inactivation of RNA polymerase by alteration of its active site.
E) continuous translation of the mRNA because of alteration of its structure

32) When DNA is compacted by histones into 10-nm and 30-nm fibers, the DNA is unable to
interact with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act,
the chromatin must constantly alter its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic
activity?
A) DNA supercoiling at or around H1
B) methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails
C) hydrolysis of DNA molecules where they are wrapped around the nucleosome core
D) accessibility of heterochromatin to phosphorylating enzymes
E) nucleotide excision and reconstruction
33) Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are
A) DNA methylation and histone amplification.
B) DNA amplification and histone methylation.
C) DNA acetylation and methylation.
D) DNA methylation and histone modification.
E) histone amplification and DNA acetylation.

34) Your brother has just purchased a new plastic model airplane. He places all the parts on the
table in approximately the positions in which they will be located when the model is complete.
His actions are analogous to which process in development?
A) morphogenesis
B) determination
C) induction
D) differentiation
E) pattern formation

35) Tumor-suppressor genes

A) are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells.
B) are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses.
C) can encode proteins that promote DNA repair or cell-cell adhesion.
D) often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle.
E) do all of the above

36) BRCA1 and BRCA2 are considered to be tumor-suppressor genes because

A) they prevent infection by retroviruses that cause cancer.
B) their normal products participate in repair of DNA damage.
C) the mutant forms of either one of these promote breast cancer.
D) the normal genes make estrogen receptors.
E) they block penetration of breast cells by chemical carcinogens

37) Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene?
A) It is an activator for other genes.
B) It speeds up the cell cycle.
C) It causes cell death via apoptosis.
D) It allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage.
E) It slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase

38) Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is true?
A) Most of the DNA codes for protein.
B) The majority of genes are likely to be transcribed.
C) Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer.
D) Many genes are grouped into operon-like clusters.
E) It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells

39) Cell differentiation always involves

A) the production of tissue-specific proteins, such as muscle actin.
B) the movement of cells.
C) the transcription of the myoD gene.
D) the selective loss of certain genes from the genome.
E) the cell's sensitivity to environmental cues, such as light or heat

40) Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they
A) express different genes.
B) contain different genes.
C) use different genetic codes.
D) have unique ribosomes.
E) have different chromosomes