(Fold/Cover If You Don'T Wanna See The Answers Yet) B

Biochemistry Practice Exams: (FOLD/COVER IF YOU DON’T WANNA SEE THE
ANSWERS YET)
1. Which of the following single-base DNA gene encoding changes is least likely to significantly affect the B
function of resulting protein?
A. Missense mutation resulting to histidine-to-glutamic acid change Harper pages 361-363
B. Silent mutation in the third codon base
C. Frameshift mutation
D. Nonsense mutation
2. Which of the following is a property of enhancer elements? B

A. They do not work located downstream of the promoter.
B. They could work when located long distances from the promoter. Harper pages 384-385
C. Upon activation, they could repress transcriptional rate.
D. They are proteins binding to DNA sequences.
3. Which of the following is considered as a transcriptional regulation control? A

A. Chromatin remodelling
B. Alternative splicing Harper 383
C. RNA editing
D. Capping of the mRNA
4. Which of the following is true of biological membrane structure? B

A. Saturated fatty acids increase fluidity.
B. Cholesterol is an amphipathic molecule. Harper pages 415-421
C. The inner and outer sheets are symmetrical to each other.
D. They contain transport proteins, which are mainly peripheral.
5. Which of the following defines the specificity of hormone activity in a cell? B

A. The synthesis of the hormone in the target cell.
B. The presence of the hormone receptor. Harper page 435
C. The upregulation of the hormone in a cell.
D. Absence of other target cells adjacent to hormone-producing cells.
6. Which of the following is true of hormones? B

A. Hormones with intracellular receptors are usually hydrophilic.
B. Lipophilic hormones need transport proteins. Harper pages 437-438
C. Cathecholamines and steroid hormones act via a plasma membrane receptor.
D. Steroid hormones are derivatives of amino acids.
7. Which vitamin is essential for one-carbon metabolism? D

A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavin Harper page 494
C. Niacine
D. Folic Acid
8. Which of the following correctly characterize a component of the extracellular matrix? C

A. Collagen type IV, a component of the basement membrane, form compact bundles.
B. Elastin is essential for cell-cell communication. Harper pages 535-541
C. Fibronectin is involved mainly in cell adhesion and signalling.
D. Laminin acts intracellularly as a major component of the cytoskeleton.
9. Which of the following is NOT correctly paired? B

A. IgA: found in secretions
B. IgM: transplacental passage Harper page 593
C. IgG: opsonisation
D. IgE: allergic response
10. Which of the following statements characterizes ATP? C

A. It is used in the synthesis of DNA.
B. It contains 3 phosphate bonds for energy storage. Harper page 84
C. It is used to drive thermodynamically unfavourable reactions.
D. It is produced mainly by substrate level phosphorylation.
11. Enzymes, as biological catalysts, accelerate velocity of reactions by: A

A. lowering the free energy of activation of reactions
B. increasing transition state of reactants and products
C. lowering the net energy change between initial and final states of the reaction
D. increasing the equilibrium constant (Keq) of the reaction
12. A general class of enzymes that join molecules by creating a new chemical bond at the expense of ATP C
hydrolysis
A. Lyase
B. Isomerase
Biochem Reviewer | Page | 1

C. Ligase
D. Hydrolase
13. An enzyme catalyzing the reaction: lecithin + cholesterol → fatty acid cholesterol ester + lysolecithin is C
classified as:
A. Oxidoreductase
B. Lipase
C. Transferase
D. Hydrolase
14. The Michaelis Menten constant is equal to substrate concentration when: A

A. initial velocity is ½ Vmax
B. Vmax is doubled
C. Km=1/2 substrate concentration
D. Km/Vmax=1
15. The kinetic parameter that reflects the affinity of the enzymes for its substrate is called: C
A. Vmax
B. Q10
C. Km
D. Kcat
16. Double reciprocal plot of the Michaelis Menten equation is called: C

A. Hanes-Wolf
B. Eadie Hofstee
C. Lineweaver Burke
D. Briggs-Haldane
17. In the Lineweaver Burke plot, the slope of the line is equal to: B
A. -1/Km
B. Km/Vmax
C. 1/Vmax
D. 1/S
18. Which statement is true about competitive inhibition? C

A. Inhibitor binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme
B. Km is constant while Vmax decreases
C. Usually the inhibitor structurally resembles the normal substrate
D. Both the Km and Vmax decrease
19. Serum enzymes are elevated following tissue injury and death due to: C
A. enzyme induction secondary to stimulation of protein synthesizing machinery of the cell
B. allosteric enzyme activation by positive activators
C. increased cell membrane permeability and leakage of enzymes into blood
D. proteolytic activation of proenzymes or zymogens
20. Which of the following coenzymes is not appropriately paired with the enzymatic reaction it is associated A
with?
A. tetrahydrofolate – transamination
B. biocytin – carboxylation
C. NAD – dehydrogenation
D. Coenzyme A – transacylation
21. The active form of Vitamin B12 coenzyme: A

A. 5’-deoxyadenosylcobalamin
B. Hydrocobalamin
C. Aquocobalamin
D. Cobamide
22. In Bioenergetics, the amount of energy available for the performance of useful work is termed: B
A. Entropy
B. Free energy
C. Enthalpy
D. Equilibrium energy
23. During biological oxidations, reduced coenzymes such as NADH and FADH2 generate energy when oxidized B
thru the:
A. Krebs Cycle
B. Electron Transport Cycle
C. Cytochrome P450 enzyme
D. Embden Meyerhof Pathway

24. The final acceptor of electrons in the Respiratory Chain is: D
A. cytochrome oxidase
B. coenzyme Q
C. iron sulphur center
D. oxygen
25. Substrate level phosphorylation differs from oxidative phosphorylation in that: A

a. Oxidative phosphorylation synthesizes ATP via the Electron Transport Chain
b. substrate level phosphorylation only takes place in the cytosol
c. oxidative phosphorylation is coupled to a direct transfer of high energy Pi from a high energy compound to
ADP
d. substrate level phosphorylation is more energy efficient per molecule of substrate oxidized
26. Which of the following affects biological oxidation by dissociating mitochondrial respiration from A
phosphorylation?
a. 2,4 dinitrophenol
b. rotenone
c. antimycin
d. cyanide
27. Which of the following statements is correct regarding digestion of carbohydrates? B

a. digestion of dietary polysaccharides takes place to a significant extent in the stomach due to acid hydrolysis
b. digestion initially takes place in the mouth through the action of salivary amylase
c. pancreatic amylase hydrolyzes 1,4 glycosidic linkages in cellulose
d. the final end products of digestion are all glucose molecules from dietary carbohydrates
28. In man, glucose from dietary cellulose could not be available for energy because: C
a. cellulose is made up of very long polysaccharide chain made up of 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic bonds
b. human diet does not have a significant amount of cellulose
c. man inherently lacks enzyme to hydrolyze cellulose
d. cellulose is not made up of glucose units
29. A 3 month old infant develops diarrhea and abdominal discomfort following a milk formula. However D
feeding history revealed that he was able to tolerate breast feeding and the same milk formula at birth. The
most likely condition is:
a. primary a-galactosidase deficiency
b. milk allergy
c. lactose malabsorption
d. secondary lactose intolerance
30. The major pathway of glucose metabolism that exists in all cells is the: D
a. Pentose phosphate pathway
b. citric acid cycle
c. uronic acid pathway
d. Embden Meyerhof pathway
31. Hexokinase differs from glucokinase in which aspect? D

a. Glucokinase has a higher affinity to glucose
b. Hexokinase is induced by insulin
c. glucokinase phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6 phosphate
d. Hexokinase is inhibited by glucose-6 phosphate
32. The end product of glycolysis in exercising muscle and RBCs is: C
a. pyruvic acid
b. acetic acid
c. lactic acid
d. acetoacetic acid
33. The most important positive regulator of the committed step of glycolysis is the availability of: D
a. fructose 1,6 bisphosphate
b. ATP
c. Citrate
d. fructose 2,6 bisphosphate
34. True of the malate aspartate shuttle: C

a. can be considered as an anaplerotic reaction
b. less energetically efficient than the glycerophosphate shuttle
c. transports NADH from the cytosol into the mitochondria for oxidative phosphorylation
d. provides reducing equivalents for reductive biosynthesis of fats
35. The initial step in the TCA cycle is catalysed by: C

a. pyruvate dehydrogenase
b. lactate dehydrogenase

c. citrate synthase
d. a-keto glutarate dehydrogenase
36. The hexose monophosphate shunt is metabolically significant to nucleic acid metabolism because it: B
a. provides NADPH
b. furnishes pentose phosphates
c. is an alternative pathway for glycolysis
d. stabilizes structure of DNA
37. The rate limiting step in the pentose phosphate pathway is catalysed by: B
a. Hexokinase
b. glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase
c. 6-phosphogluconolactonase
d. transketolase
38. Which of the following enzymatic reaction is common to both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis? D
a. hexokinase
b. pyruvate carboxylase
c. phosphofructokinase 1
d. phosphotriose isomerase
39. The inherent absence of this enzyme prevents muscle glycogenesis to maintain glucose homeostasis: C
a. glycogen phosphorylase
b. glucose-1 phosphatase
c. glucose-6 phosphatase
d. UDP-Glucose pyrophosphorylase
40. Glycogen synthesis is activated while glycogenolysis is inhibited when: D

a. glucagon/insulin ration is elevated
b. glycogen synthase is covalently modified by phosphorylation
c. cyclic AMP dependent protein kinase is activated
d. glycogen synthase I predominates over glycogen synthase D
41. Mannose and fructose enter the mainstream of carbohydrate metabolism via: B
a. citric acid cycle
b. embden mayerhoff pathway
c. hexose monophosphate shunt
d. glycoxylic acid cycle
42. Fatty acids enter the mitochondrial matrix for oxidation in what form? D
a. acyl-CoAs through active transport
b. as free acids
c. following conversion to carnitine
d. complexed with carnitine as acyl-carnitine
43. The number of reduced electron carriers generated when one mole of palmitate is subjected to oxidation: C
a. 2 FADH2 AND 3 NADH + H+
b. 3 FADH2 AND 2 NADH + H+
c. 7 FADH2 AND 7 NADH + H+
d. 5 FADH2 AND 5 NADH + H+
44. Majority of the reducing equivalents necessary for fatty acid biosynthesis are generated during conversion B
of:
a. 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate to 3 phosphoglycerate
b. pyruvate to malate
c. glucose 6-phosphate to 6 phosphogluconate
d. 6 phosphogluconate to ribulose 5-phosphate
45. How many moles of NADPH + H+ can be derived from the pathway utilized in the transport of acetyl CoA A
out of the mitochondria?
a. 8 moles
b. 10 moles
c. 12 moles
d. 14 moles
46. The site of action of the NSAIDS is: B

a. thromboxane synthase
b. prostaglandin cyclooxygenase
c. lipooxygenase
d. prostacyclin synthase
47. Hepatocytes contribute to the overall body content of ketone bodies primarily because of the absence of: D
a. B-ketothiolase necessary to hydrolyze acetoacetyl CoA

b. HMG-CoA lyase
c. HMG-CoA synthetase
d. 3-ketoacyl-CoA transferase or acetoacetate succinyl CoA transferase
48. The principal plasma carrier of dietary triacylglycerols is: D

a. serum albumin
b. LDLs
c. HDLs
d. chylomicrons
49. Activation of lipoprotein lipase requires which apoprotein? C

a. Apo E
b. Apo B-100
c. Apo C-II
d. Apo B-48
50. VLDLs are synthesized in the liver for transport of which of the following to the peripheral tissues? A
a. triacylglycerols
b. apoproteins for HDL synthesis
c. LDL receptors
d. apo B-100
51. The committed step of cholesterol biosynthesis is catalysed by this enzyme: B

a. squalene synthase
b. HMG CoA reductase
c. mevalonate kinase
d. HMG CoA lyase
52. High dietary intake of cholesterol leads to: D

a. increase HMG CoA reductase synthesis
b. decreased apo B-100 synthesis
c. decreased ACAT activity
d. decreased LDL receptor synthesis
53. Several of the enzymes of cholesterol biosynthesis require which of the following cofactors? B
a. biotin
b. NADPH
c. FADH2
d. TPP
54. The molecule that helps stabilize the action of pancreatic lipase on dietary lipids: A
a. colipase
b. chenodeoxycholic acid
c. cholic acid
d. enteropeptidase
55. Source of the nitrogen atoms required for animal metabolism can be directly obtained from: C
A. atmospheric nitrogen
B. NO2
C. Ammonia
D. Nitric oxide
56. Aside from urea, the main circulatory system carrier of nitrogen atoms destined for excretion by the kidney D
is:
A. glutamate
B. asparagines
C. Alanine
D. Glutamine
57. A deficiency in the ability to secrete enterokinase leads to which of the following? B
A. abnormally low levels of intestinal zymogens
B. abnormally low levels of active intestinal proteases
C. abnormally low levels of undigested proteins in the lower GIT
D. increase plasma levels of serum amylase
58. Transamidation reactions include which of the following? C

A. formation of liver glutamate from alpha-ketoglutarate
B. formation of liver glutamine from glutamate
C. formation of liver asparagines from aspartate
D. formation of liver oxaloacetate from alanine
59. The important cofactor of transaminases: A

A.pyridoxal phosphate

B. tetrahydrofolate
C. Biocytin
D.tetrehydrobiopterin
60.The production of alanine by peripheral tissue, especially y the muscle, is primarily dependent on: B
A. allosteric effectors of ALT
B. intracellular levels of pyruvate
C. Intracellular levels of glutamate
D. Intracellular levels of NADH
61. Nitrogen of muscle alanine can be derived from tissue ammonia through this enzyme action: A
A. glutamate dehydrogenase
B. alanine dehydrogenase
C. Glutamine synthetase
D. Alanine Synthetase
62. Sulfur for cysteine synthesis is derived from: D
A. sulphites
B. H2S
C. Coenzyme A
D. methionine
63. Severe PKU and shortened life span is a result of: C
A. excess dietary phenylalanine
B. excess dietary tyrosine
C. Deficiency of dihydrobiopterin reductase
D. Deficiency of tetrahydrofolate
64. Serine is synthesized by: B
A. transamination of an amino acid with alpha-ketoglutarate as an amino receptor
B. transamination of an alpha-ketoacid derived from TCA
C. transamination of an alpha-ketoacid derived from EMP
D. modification of an essential amino acid
65. Lysine is an assential amino acid because: B
A. animals cannot make the lysine carbon skeleton
B. the epsilon – amino group of lysine cannot e formed by an aminotransferase
C. the alpha-caroxylic cannot be added to urocanate
D. lysine cannot be subjected to deamidation
66. Amino acids that are strictly ketogenic: A
A. lysine and leucine
B. leucine and isoleucine
C. Valine and isoleucine
D. Tyrosine and tryptophan
67. Choose the correct precursor – product relationship from the following: D
A. tyrosine is a precursor to dihydroxyphenylalanine
B. tyrosine is a precursor to melatonin
C. melatonin is a precursor of serotonin
D. dopamine is a precursor to norepinephrine
68. The Watson – crick model or the B-form of DNA is typified by: C
A. 12 base pairs per helical turn
B. a smaller number of purines than pyrimidines
C. bases located in the interior of the right – handed helix
D. two singles strands that run in the 5’  3’ direction
69. Guanine – cytosine (G-C) ase pairs in a DNA molecule are more stable to denaturation than adenine – C
thymine (A-T) pairs because:
A. adenine and thymine have bulkier structures than guanine and cytosine
B. A-T base pairs exhibit less electron clouds around them
C. G-C base pairs contain more hydrogen bonds than A-T pairs
D. the phosphodiester bonds among G-C base pairs are weaker
70. DNA is distinguished from RNA by: D
A. a high content of modified bases
B. it’s component sugar, ribose
C. its single stranded structure
D. the presence of thymine instead of uracil
71. Anti-cancer drugs like 50fluorouracil and 6-mercaptopurine act against cells by: A
A. being incorporated into DNA before replication
B. causing the denaturation of DNA in cancer cells
C. inactivating protein synthesis
D. inhibiting the enzymes that synthesize thymidilic acid
72. Which of the following is a nucleotide: D
A. uracil
B. cytidine
C. guanosine
D. adenylic acid

73. Which vitamin is essential in the synthesis of purine nucleotides in purine metabolism? B
A. ascorbic acid
B. folic acid
C. niacin
D. thiamin
74. Which clinical condition does not involve a defect in purine metabolism? D
A. adenosine deaminase deficiency
B. gout
C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
D. orotic aciduria
75. Salvage reactions that generate purine and pyrimidine nucleosides and nucleotides are characterized as: D
A. involving the same enzymes as in de novo synthesis
B. more efficient than nucleotide synthesis from new precursors
C. providing greater output of purines and pyrimidines
D. requiring less energy than does the de novo synthesis
76. The enzyme that catalyzes the committed step of purine nucleotide de novo pathway: B
A. carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
B. glutamine amidophosphoribosyl transferase
C. carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II
D. aspartate transcarbamoylase
77. In the management of gout, allopurinol is given to inhibit xanthine oxidase, the enzyme that catalyzes the D
synthesis of:
A. allantoate
B. ammonia
C. urea
D. uric acid
78. The correct flow of genetic information according to the central dogma of molecular biology is: A
A. replication transcription  translation
B. replication translation transcription
C. transcription replication translation
D. translation replication transcription
79. Transfer RNA (tRNA) as an adaptor molecule serves to: C
A. carry the nucleotide sequences that will dictate the amino acid to be synthesized
B. hold the promoter site that will be recognized by the polymerase
C. recognize the triplet codon in mRNA via its anti-codon arm
D. synthesize the amino acid to be incorporated into the peptide
80. Degeneracy of the genetic code means that: C

A. an amino acid can only be decoded by a single codon
B. a single codon encodes only one amino acid
C. multiple codons may encode the same amino acid
D. with time, codons degenerate into senseless code
81. The final product of gene expression is: D

A. amino acid
B. nucleotide
C. polynucleotide
D. protein
82. Normal growth and development of cells are controlled by genes known as: C
A. leader genes
B. non-coding genes
C. proto-oncogenes
D. transforming genes
83. The type of mutation that involves the substitution of a purine base with another purine base is: A
A. transition
B. transposition
C. transpyrimidation
D. transversion
84. This mineral helps guard against DNA damage as a cofactor of glutathione: C
A. iron
B. manganese
C. selenium
D. zinc

85. A tool in molecular biology in which a DNA sequence of interest is exponentially amplified in vitro by D
repeated cycles of enzymatic DNA synthesis is:
A. DNA sequencing
B. in situ hybridization
C. northern blotting
D. polymerase chain reaction
86. In the construction of recombinant DNA, which enzyme is used to cut DNA at precise base sequences? C
a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA-RNA exonuclease
c. Restriction endonuclease
d. T4 DNA Ligase
87. In recombinant DNA technology, antibiotic resistance genes in plasmids are used to: D
a. control copy number in bacteria
b. facilitate transformation of host cells
c. provide a marker for start of replication
d. select and screen for recombinant DNA clones
88. The pain felt by a patient with an enlarging malignant tumor is partly contributed by the: C
a. exaggerated metabolism of nutrients by the tumor cells
b. loss of enzyme for glucose oxidation in cancer tissue
c. release of cytokines such as IL-1 and IL-6 by the tumor cells
d. overgrowth of blood vessels in the interior of the cancer mass
89. Malignancy may be naturally prevented if the mutated cancer gene was repaired: B
a. after gene expression
b. before DNA replication
c. following transcription
d. shortly after DNA synthesis
90. With persistence of a mutation in cells during organogenesis, the resulting event is: C
a. development of cancer
b. inactivation of genetic disorders
c. occurrence of physical malformations
d. promotion of sterility
91. To specifically identify the mutation in the affected DNA segment in a patient with cancer, which blot B
transfer method should be used?
a. Northern
b. Southern
c. Southwestern
d. Western
92. The enzyme, Taq polymerase is used in the PCR because it: B
a. facilitates annealing of primers
b. is resistant to heat denaturation
c. promotes DNA polymerization
d. provides optimum condition for DNA synthesis
93. A 60-year old woman has developed red, roughened skin in sun-exposed areas over the past 2 years. She C
also has a chronic, watery diarrhea. On physical examination, she exhibits memory loss with confusion. These
findings are most consistent with which of the following vitamin deficiencies?
a. Thiamine
b. Pyridoxine
c. Niacin
d. Vitamin A
94. A clinical study is performed involving dietary iron metabolism in adults. It is observed that intestinal C
absorption of iron can be enhanced in patients with iron deficiency anemia by supplementing their diet with
another nutrient. Which of the following vitamins is most likely to have this effect?
a. D
b. E
c. C
d. B3
95. A 6-year old child was born at term, with no congenital anomalies. She is now only 70% of normal body B
weight, though she shows dependent edema of the lower extremities as well as an enlarged abdomen. Her
flaking skin shows irregular areas of depigmentation, hyperpigmentation and desquamation. These finding are
most suggestive of which of the following nutritional problems?
a. Marasmus
b. Kwashiorkor
c. Niacin deficiency
d. Vitamin A deficiency
96. A 41-year old man has had increasing dyspnea for the past year. On physical examination he has diffuse B
crackles at lung bases. A chest x-ray shows pulmonary edema and cardiomegaly. Echocargdiography shows an
ehection fraction of 40%. Laboratory studies show haemoglobin 14g/dL, hematocrit 42%, and WBC count
8320/micoliter. A deficiency of the following vitamins is most likely to produce these findings?
a. A
b. B1
c. B2
d. K

97. A 7-year old child has complained of pain in his legs for the past year. On physical examination, there is C
bowing deformity of his lower extremities. Plain film radiographs of his lower legs shows widened epiphyses
and bowing of tibiae. Bone mineral appears normal, consistent with failure of ostoid matrix formation. Which
of the following vitamin deficiencies is this child most likely to have?
a. D
b. E
c. C
d.B3
98. A 28-year old man has a history of multiple and recurrent pulmonary infections since childhood. He also has B
noted foul smelling stools for the past 10 years. Laboratory studies show an elevated sweat chloride test. He
has a quantitative stool fat of 10 g/day. A deficiency state involving which of the following nutrient is most
likely to develop in this patient?
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin D
c. Calcium
d. Vitmain A
99. A clinical study is performed to compare the risk for heatlh problems in obese persons with a BMI of 35, B
compared with a control group of persons with a BMI between 20 – 25. Persons in these 2 groups are followed
for 20 years. Which of the following conditions is most likely to appear equally in both groups?
a. Cholelithiasis
b. Cirrhosis
c. Hypertension
d. DM
100. A 15 year-old girl has been under a physician’s care for the past year after diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. A
Her BMI is now 18. On physical examination she has cheilosis. Laboratory studies show:
Haemoglobin 13.7 g/dL
Hematocrit 41.0%
MCV 88 fL
Platelet count 191055 /microliter
WBC count 4930 /microliter
Glucose 66mg/dL
Which of the following nutrient deficiencies is most likely to cause these patient’s findings?
a. riboflavin
b. Vitamin C
c. Folic acid
d. Iron
101. The metabolic function of the pentose phosphate pathway is to: B
a. act as a source of ADP biosynthesis
b. generate NADPH and pentoses for the biosynthesis of fatty acids and nucleic acids
c. participate in oxidation-reduction reaction during the formation of H2O
d. provide intermediates for the citric acid cycle
102. The FNRI Philippine RENI Committee 2002 recommends the following protein intake: A
a. 1.14 g/kg DBW/da
b. 2.14 g/kg DBW/da
c. 3.14 g/kg DBW/da
d. 4.14 g/kg DBW/da
103. number of moles of ATP generated from the complete oxidation of pyruvate as it undergoes the pyruvate D
dehydrogenase reaction and the Kreb’s cycle is: Harper’s 26th edition. Page 113
a. 12
b. 13
c. 14
d. 15
104. Which of the following enzymes when deficient will result in the accumulation of gangliosides in patients D
suffering with Tay Sach’s disease? Harper’s 26th edition. Page 203
a. glucocerebrosidases
b. arryl sulfatase
c. sphingomyelinase
d. hexosaminidase
105. Which of these is deficient in Cori’s disease? D
a. Glucose-6-phosphate Harper’s 26th edition. Page 152
b. glycogen phosphorylase
c. branching enzyme
d. debranching enzyme
106. Just before breakfast, what is the source of glucose in the body? B
a. glucose Harper’s 26th edition. Page 102, 107, 108
b. glycogen
c. ketones
d. Fatty acids
107. For every mole of glucose that goes though the glycolytic pathway, what is the net number of pyruvate B
generated? Harper’s 26th edition. Page 136 – 144
a. 1
b. 2

c. 3
d. 4
108. Which of these is the primary function of the Pentose Phosphate Pathway? C
a. generate ATP Harper’s 26th edition. Page 163-168
b. NADPH generation
c. NADPH generation and production of ribose residues
d. Provision of ribose residues of nucleotide and nucleic acids synthesis
109. Which enzyme generates NADPH + H needed to reduce GSSG: B
a. glutathione reductase
b. glucose 6PO₄ dehydrogenase
c. aldehyde dehydrogenase
d. lactate dehydrogenase
110. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is characterized by which one of the following? B
a. accumulation of glucose-6-phosphate in the tissue
b. decreased formation of NADPH
c. increased synthesis of reduced glutathione
d. may manifest as hemorrhagic anemia
111. The Citric Acid Cycle as the final common pathway in fuel metabolism provides greatest amount of energy B
by being directly linked to:
a. glycerol phosphate shuttle
b. malate aspartate shuttle
c. glycolysis
d. electron transport chain
112. Cyanide poisoning is very fatal. This is because cyanide has this effect on the Electron Transport Chain: B
a. inhibits Complex III
b. inhibits cytochrome oxidase
c. uncouples oxidative phosphorylation
d. enhance the transport of electrons
113. At high concentrations of blood glucose, as in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, haemoglobin reacts with C
glucose to form this compound which can be assayed to monitor glycemic control.
a. methemoglobin
b. hemochrome
c. glycosylated haemoglobin
d. hemin
114. The precursor of the sugar-phosphate moieties in the de novo synthesis of both purine and pyrimidine D
nucleotide is:
a. glucose 1 phosphate
b. glucose 6 phosphate
c. ribose 1 phosphate
d. ribose 5 phosphate
115. The highest reservoir of calories in muscle tissue is: B
a. Fats
b. Proteins
c. Glycogen
d. Ketone bodies
116. CAMP exerts its effect as a second messenger by: D
a. inducing release of cytokines
b. activating Protein Kinase C
c. activating cyclic adenylase
d. activating Protein Kinase A
117. Deficiency in the intake of carbohydrates and fats can lead to: A
a. increase in protein requirements
b. increase intake of calories
c. increase deposition of fats
d. decrease in the catabolism of body proteins
118. Gluconeogenesis is the major blood sugar during: C
a. fed state
b. period between meals
c. prolonged fasting
d. early refed state
119. Melatonin is a specialized product of tryptophan that is involved with C
a. pigment formation
b. vasodilation
c. circadian rhythm
d. thyroid gland secretion
120. The receptor involved in the G-protein coupled signal transduction pathway: C
a. tyrosine kinase receptor
b. guanylyl cyclase receptor
c. B adrenergic receptor
d. Janus Kinase receptor
121. Dinitrophenol (DNP) and other uncouplers which uncouple oxidation and phosphorylation are useful D
weight losing agents. They prevent ATP synthesis in the Electron Transport Chain by which of the following

mechanism?
a. Electron Transport is blocked
b. Protons build up in the intermembrane space
c. There is reduced availability of ADP
d. The electrochemical gradient is dissipated
122. The most active form of Vitamin D is: A
a. 1, 25 dihydroxycholecalciferol
b. Vitamin D3
c. ergocalciferol
d. 7-dehydrocalciferol
123. Plant fat is high in unsaturated fatty acids compared to animal fat. Which one of the following B
characteristics BEST describes unsaturated fatty acids in contrast saturated fatty acids?
a. lower rate of oxidation
b. lower rate of melting point
c. less water soluble
d. more solid at room temperature
124. This is the mechanism of action by which penicillin kills bacterial cells: D
a. it inhibits bacterial DNA replication
b. it acts as an allosteric inhibitor to the enzyme reverse trancriptase
c. it is an analogue of D-phe-D-phe effectively preventing the synthesis of tetrahydrofolates
d. it covalently binds to the active site of the enzyme for cell wall synthesis
125. An attack of acute asthma has been attributed to leukotrienes. Which of the following statements is TRUE B
regarding leukotrienes?
a. produced mainly in the nervous tissue
b. components of slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis
c. decrease vascular permeability
d. inhibit the release of lysosomal enzymes
126. This statement accurately describes Vitamin K: C
a. Menaquinone-7 is the major form of Vitamin K found in plants
b. It is found only in green leafy vegetables while intestinal bacteria are not able to synthesize it
c. it functions as a cofactor to a carboxylase that acts on glutamate residues of clotting factor precursors
proteins
d. its main function is to protect the erythrocytes
127. Bilirubin is an important end product during the course of hemolysis. Which of the following statements is A
TRUE regarding bilirubin?
a. excreted from the liver in the form of bilirubin diglucoronides
b. conjugation mainly it takes place in the kidneys
c. unconjugated bilirubin is readily excreted in the urine
d. unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to complete obstruction of the common bile ducts is generally
accompanied by increased urobilinogen in the urine
128. Kwashiorkor occurs when there is: B
a. lack of calories in the diet
b. lack of calories from protein in the diet
c. lack of carbohydrates and protein in the diet
d. lack of all macro and micro nutrients in the diet
129. Cancer can be attributed to mutation in the DNA. A mutation that converts an amino acid codon to a stop B
codon is:
a. silent
b. frameshift
c. missense
d. nonsense
130. The process by which a polypeptides destination in the cell is determined by which of these? A
a. codons
b. molecular chaperones
c. signal peptides
d. signal recognition particles
131. Which of the following histones is uniquely associated with the linker DNA? B
a. H3 Harper’s Biochemistry 26th Ed., pp. 314-315
b. H1
c. H4
d. H2A
132. Which of the following is a nucleoside? D

a. guanylic acid Harper’s Biochemistry 26th Ed., pp. 286-287
b. dUMP
c. guanosine 5`-monophosphate
d. cytidine
133. Which of the following about the salvage pathway of purine nucleotide synthesis is correct? A
a. Deficiency of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase is the cause of Lesch-Nyan syndrome Harper’s Biochemistry 26th Ed., p. 294
b. The rate limiting enzyme is PRPP amidotransferase
c. The donor of the ribose 5-phosphate is the HMP shunt
d. The salvage pathway for the free bases require more ATP than the novo synthesis of purine nucleotide

134. An individual who has fasted for more than 24 hours will have an increased production of which amino D
acids in the tissues? Harper’s Biochemistry 26th Ed., p. 14-20
a. aspartate and glutamine
b. glutamate and asparagine
c. valine, isoleucine, and leucine
d. glutamine and alanine
135. Which amino acid is purely ketogenic? A
a. leucine Harper’s Biochemistry 26th Ed., pp. 15, 259-260
b. tryptophan
c. isoleucine
d. proline
136. Kwashiorkor occurs when there is: B
th
a. lack of calories in the diet Harper’s Biochemistry 26 Ed., pp. 478-479
b. lack of calories from protein in the diet
c. lack of carbohydrates and protein in the diet
d. lack of all macro and micro nutrients in the diet
137. This amino acid is the source of most of the blood glucose during starvation: B
a. glutamine Harper’s Biochemistry 26th Ed., p. 246
b. alanine
c. glutamate
d. aspartate
138. Allopurinol is used in gout because it is an allosteric inhibitor of xanthine oxidase which is responsible for B
synthesizing this excretory metabolite of purines: Harper’s Biochemistry 26th Ed., p. 301
a. allanton
b. uric acid
c. urea
d. ammonia
139. The catecholamines, epinephrine and dopamine are sunthesized from this amino acid: A
th
a. tyrosine Harper’s Biochemistry 26 Ed., p. 445
b. isoleucine
c. arginine
d. threonine
140. Which of the following is the most important role of amino acids in the body? C
a. source of energy Harper’s Biochemistry 26th Ed., p. 249
b. precursor of non-protein nitrogen containing substances
c. building blocks of tissue protein
d. precursor glucose
141. Most of the ammonia that are used for the sunthesis of urea are directly derived from the deamination of: D
a. leucine Harper’s Biochemistry 26th Ed., pp. 243-244
b. aspartic acid
c. isoleucine
d. glutamic acid
142. A person suffering from gout should decrease his intake of: D
a. bread Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 26th Ed., p. 229
b. banana
c. egg
d. sardines
143. Most of the function membranes are accomplished by: A
th
a. proteins Harper’s Biochemistry 26 Ed., p. 416-417
b. phospholipids
c. carbohydrates
d. cholesterol
144. Which statements is best describes the arrangement of proteins and lipids in membranes? B
a. Protein form a continuous sheet on either side of the phospholipid bilayer Page 416-417 Harpers 26th edition chapter 41
b. Proteins occur in the lipid bilayer as discontinuous particles
c. Protein molecules are sandwiched between the exoplasmic and cytoplasmic lipid monolayers
d. Lipid molecules “float” on a sea proteins
145. Excessive ingestion of raw eggwhite is detrimental because it inhibits this step in extramitochondrial A
lipogenesis: Page 173-174 Harpers 26th edition chapter 11
a. Formation of malonyl CoA
b. Binding of malonyl to acyl carrier protein
c. Reduction step
d. Deacylation reaction
146. Gelatin has a high collagen content. It is not a good source of protein because: A
a. Collagen contains a limited variety of amino acids Page 38 Harpers 26th edition chapter 5
b. Collagen cannot be digested
c. Too much collagen causes brittle bones
d. Collagen contains more sugars than amino acids
147. Semi-conservative replication of DNA means: B
a. DNA synthesis occurs one strand at a time Page 306-307 Harpers 26th edition chapter 35
b. Each new DNA strand forms a pair with the template strands
c. The two new DNA strands pair with each other
d. Duplication occurs in opposite direction in two strands

148. Which of the following is the BEST describes the action of 5 FU in the treatment of cancer? A
a. Inhibits synthesis of DNA Page 328-330 Harpers 26th edition chapter 36
b. Inhibits protein synthesis
c. Depletes the cancer cells of necessary nutrients like vitamins
d. Depletes the cancer cells of required oxygen
149. Which of the following is TRUE regarding RNA? D
a. Messenger RNA contain peculiar bases Page 306-312, 341-357 Harpers 26th edition chapter
b. The codon is found in transfer RNA 35,37
c. Ribosomal RNA contain the anticodon
d. Transfer RNA carries the amino acid
150. During DNA replication, which enzyme joins Okazaki fragments? C
a. topoisomerase Page 328 Harpers 26th edition chapter 36
b. RNAse II
c. DNA ligase
d. helicase
151. Degeneracy of the genetic code denotes the existence of: A
a. multiple codons for a single amino aicd Page 359 Harpers 26th edition chapter 38
b. codons consisting only a 2 bases
c. base triplets that do not code for any amino acid
d. codons that include one or more of the “unusual” bases
152. In the normal resting state of humans, muscles will mainly use up energy provided by C
a. carbohydrates Page 574-576 Harpers 26th edition chapter 49
b. branched amino acids
c. fats
d. muscle glycogen
153. Familial hypercholesterolemia is due to: Page 228 Harpers 26th edition chapter 26
a. deficiencies or defective LDL receptors
b. mutation on HMG-CoA reductase
c. increased dietary intake of cholesterol
d. decreased excretion of cholesterol
154. Which of the following is the most metabolically active plasma lipid? Page 57 Harpers 26th edition chapter 7
a. nonesterified fatty acid
b. lecithin
c. free cholesterol
d. glucocerebroside
155. Deficiency of lipoprotein lipase will result in an increased plasma level of which of the following? B
a. chylomicron remnant
b. VLDL
c. LDL
d. HDL
156. Which of the following is needed for the transport of long-chain fatty acids from the cytosol to the A
mitochondrial matrix?
a. carnitine
b. S-adenosylmethionine
c. glutathione
d. phosphoadenosine phosphosulfate
157. Major enzyme that digest dietary triacylglycerol B
a. lingual lipase
b. pancreatic lipase
c. lipoprotein lipase
d. hormone sensitive lipase
158. In the liver cholesterol is mainly disposed by: D
a. being exported as HDL
b. being exported as VLDL
c. being secreted in the bile as free cholesterol
d. being converted to bile acids
159. Which is the immediate source of energy of ATP synthesis? B
a. electron transfer to O₂
b. electrochemical gradient
c. ADP and Pi
d. solar energy
160. The link between the catabolic and anabolic reactions in the energy cycle is: A
a. ATP
b. O₂
c. H⁺
d. NADH
161. Which of the following is a function of pyridoxal phosphate? A
a. prosthetic group of transaminases
b. lower plasma cholesterol
c. a coenzyme to many dehydrogenases
d. adds hydride ions to the pyridine ring
162. What is the role of oxygen in cellular respiration? B
a. source of the electrons to be passed along the respiratory chain

b. final receptor of electrons in the respiratory chain
c. transporter of electrons from cytosol to mitochondrial matrix
d. cofactor of ATP synthase
163. Which vitamin is solely synthesized by bacteria and is thus absent from all plants? A
a. Biotin
b. Ascorbic Acid
c. Pyridoxine
d. Riboflavin
164. This vitamin is required for synthesis of neurotransmitters like epinephrine: B
a. Niacin
b. Ascorbic Acid
c. Pyridoxine
d. Riboflavin
165. Deficiency of this mineral is prevalent among pregnant women living in mountainous areas: B
a. Iron
b. Iodine
c. Copper
d. Magnesium
166. Which of the ff. accumulates in carnitine deficiency in humans? B
a. glycogen
b. odd-numbered fatty acids
c. triglycerides
d. sphingolipids
167. Which regulatory action involves a reversible covalent modification of an enzyme? D
a. allosteric modulation
b. competitive inhibition
c. association of apoenzyme with a cofactor
d. phosphorylation of Ser hydroxyl on the enzyme
168. The Ping-Pong mechanism of enzyme kinetics applies to which of the reactions? B
a. one-substrate
b. bisubstrate
c. multiple substrate
d. hydrolytic
169. Enzymes hasten the rate of chemical reactions through of the ff.? C
A. covalent modification of coenzymes and reactants
B. enhancing proximity and local concentration of substrates
C. decreasing the free energy of activation
D. increasing the overall free energy change of the reaction
170. What is the role of oxygen in electron transport sytem? B
A. accepts electrons from FADH2
B. the final acceptor of electrons
C. a mobile electron carrier
D. donates electron to water
171. Which of the ff BEST explains why oxidation of FADH2 produces less ATP than NADH? A
A. FADH2 enters ETS via complex II
B. FADH2 transfers less electrons through ETS than NADH
C. Electrons from FADH2 are not transferred to oxygen
D. inner mitochondrial membrane is impereable to FADH
172. Which of the ff BEST applies to isoelectronic ph of protein B
A. ph is physiologic
B. net charge is zero
C. protonation is maximum
D. iozination is maximum
173. What of reaction is interconvention of aldose and jketose? D
A. dehydration
b. reduction
c. oxidation
d. isomerization
174. In the over-all scheme of human metabolism, which organ plays impt role? B
a. brain
b. liver
c. muscle
d. kidney
175. Which of these enzymes is important in protein digestion? B
a. ptyalin
b. trypsin
c. intvertase
d. pancreatic amylase
176. The beta pleated sheet of a protein is classified as which level of protein? B
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. super secondary

177. What is the cause for the lactic acidosis that develops in thiamine deficiency? A
A. conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coA is blocked
B. conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate is blocked
C. the transketolase reaction that transfers 3-carbon units is blocked
D. the transaldolase reaction has increased activity
178. Which of the ff state ments BEST describes collagen? D
A. left handed helix
B. 2 left handed alpha helices
C. double helical structure
D. triple helix
179. Which of these BEST explains the roleof HCL in the stomach? B
A. kills H. Pylori organisms
B. denatures proteins
C. ideal ph for amylase action
D. stimulates pancreatic juice sec’n
180. Which of the ff bonds stabilizes the primary structure of a protein? D
A. hydrogen
B. disulfiude
c. ionic
d. peptide
181. Which of the ff are products of the action of salivary amylase on glycogen? B
A. sucrose
b. maltose
C. ionic
d. peptide
182. A zwiterion is a molecule that contains which of the ff? A
A. cation and anion
b. hepatic glycogen
c. muscle protein
d. muscle glycogen
183. Which of the is most impt source of glucose during early fasting? B
a. liver tryglyceride
B. hepatic glycogen
c. muscle protein
d. muscle glycogen
184. A young infant, who was nourished by synthetic formula, had sugar in blood & urine. This compound gave C
positive reducing sugar test but negative with glucose oxidase test. Which of the ff compounds is MOST likely
to be present in infant’s blood & urine?
a. glucose
b. fructose
c. sorbitol
d. maltose
185. In normal resting state of humans, muscles will mainly use up energy that is provided by which of the ff? C
A. carbohydrates
B. Muscle glycogen
C. fats
D. amino acids
186. The anemia that develops in patients on anti-malarial therapy may be due to deficiency enzymes that C
belong to which metabloc pathway?
A. embeden-mayerhoff
B. Kerb’s TCA
C. hexose monophosphatase
D. kreb’s hanseleit
187. Which of the ff is the primary function of pentose pathway? C
A. ATP Production
B. NADPH generation
C. NADPh generation & production pf ribose units
D. Provision of ribose units for nucleotide nucleic acid synthesis
188. Which of the is the major metabolic substrate required by RBC? D
A. Glycerol
B. free fatty acids
C. fructose
D. glucose
189. Which of the ff is true about TATA box? B
A. binds to anti codon
B. binds RNA polymerase
C. encodes repressor proteins
D. located in first structural gene
190. SRS-A, the slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis is composed of which of the ff? C
A. thromboxane3
B. prostagalndin
C. leukotrienes

D. prostacyclins
191. The regulation of cholesterol synthesis primarily occurs at which enzymatic site? C
A. 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA synthase
B. 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA lyase
C. 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA reductase
D. 3-methyl-3-hydroxylglutaryl CoA oxidase
192. What is the major source of reducing eqivalents used for fatty acid synthesis? A
A. pentose phosphate pathway
B. Embden-Mayerhoff pathway
C. tricarboxylic acid cycle
D. pyruvate dehydrogenase pathway
193. What is the role of aspirin in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis? C
A. inhibits the release of arachidonic acid
B. directly neutralizes prostaglandins & thromboxanes
C. inactivates cyclooxygenase
D. shuts down the synthesis of all eicosanoid
194. Patients suffering from familial defect in Apo B 100 have significantly elevated levels of plasma LDLs. A
Which is the major reason for this?
A. Inability of LDL to interact with the LDL receptor
B. Inability of LDL to activate lipoprotein lipase
C. Inability of LDL to activate cholesterol transfer protein
D. LDL interaction with LDL receptors fail to stimulate endocytosis
195. What is the pharmacological benefit of the drug, Lovastatin? C
A. Inhibits intestinal absorption of dietary cholesterol
B. Inhibits hepatic production of VLDL
C. Inhibits HMG-CoA reductase
D. Absorbs bile acids, increasing their rate elimination in the feces
196. In an average adult, which % of body protein is turned over on a daily basis? A
A. 1-2%
B. 3-4%
C. 5-6%
D. 7-8%
197. Which of the following is the cause of muscle fatigue following vigorous exercise? D
A. Sodium & potassium imbalance
B. The utilization of ATP
C. Accumulation of ADP & PI
D. Accumulation of lactate
198. MISSING
199. Which intermediate of pyrimidine biosynthesis is common to the urea cycle? C
A. Ornithine
B. Citruline
C. Carbamoyl phosphate
D. Carbamoyl aspartate
200. Which of these is a function of nonsense codons? D
A. They code for non-essential amino acids
B. The are responsible for the degeneracy of the genetic code
C. They base pair with the anticodons
D. They may be used in the cell as termination signals
201. Which phase of protein synthesis does the release of newly synthesized polypeptide from the ribosome D
take place?
A. Initiation
B. Elongation
C. Release
D. Termination
202. Which of the ff. directs the polypeptide’s ultimate destination in the cell? C
A. Codons
B. Molecular chaperones
C. Signal peptides
D. Signal recognition particles
203. What is the primary action of methotrexate, a chemotherapeutic agent? A
A. Displaces cells of folate
B. Inhibits cellular kinase activity
C. Inhibits phosphorylation of free bases
D. Inhibits synthesis of nucleotides
204. Which of these is the first reaction in the metabolism of all sugars? D
A. Hydrolysis
B. Proteolysis
C. Isomerization
D. Phosphorylation
205. Which site on the operon is the site of RNA polymerase binding? C
A. Operator
B. Regulator

C. Promoter
D. Structural
206. What is the cellular site of synthesis of messenger RNA? B
A. Nucleus
B. Cytosol
C. Mitochondria
D. Ribosome
207. Which of the following BEST applies to transfer RNA? C
A. Largest of RNA species
B. Has no secondary structure
C. Exists in at least 20 diff forms
D. Assoc. w/ histones in cytosol
208. Which of the ff. is the biological function of DNA synthesis? D
A. Production of normal RNAs
B. Production of normal proteins
C. Prevents mutation
D. Assures viability of the species
209. During RNA synthesis, DNA template sequence 5’ TpApGpCp 3’ would be transcribed to produce which of D
the ff. sequences?
A. 5’-TpApCpGp-3’
B. 3’-GpCpTpAp-5’
C. 3’-ApUpCpGp-5’
D. 5’-GpCpUpAp-3;
210. Which of the ff. refer to sequential order of nucleotides in a polypeptide? A
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Tertiary structure
D. Quaternary structure
211. Which of the ff. enzymes in replication functions as proof-reading device? B
A. Polymerase enzyme
B. 3’ exonuclease
C. 5’ exonuclease
D. Nuclease
212. Which of these constitute the second level of organization of DNA? A
A. Nucleosome
B. Chromosome
C. Double helix DNA
D. Condensed metaphase chromosome
213. Which of the ff. BEST describes Okazaki fragments? C
A. Fragments of DNA attached to an initiator component
B. Fragments of continuous DNA which eventually are joined to form DNA
C. Fragments of DNA that are copied in direction away from replication fork
D. Synthesized from 5’ to 3’ & proceeds in same direction as replication fork
214. The antimetabolite, 5-FU, inhibits DNA replication by which mechanism? C
A. Intercalates into the DNA
B. Cross-links adjacent thymines in the DNA
C. Inhibits production of deoxythymidine monophosphate
D. Cross-links adjacent guanine residues in the DNA
215. Which posttranscriptional processing prevents 5’ exonuclease attack? C
A. Splicing reactions
B. Addition of extra COOH groups
C. Poly A tail
D. 7-methylguanosine triPO4
216. Which of the ff. reactions does RNA-directed DNA polymerase catalyze? A
A. Synthesis of DNA complimentary to the RNA strand
B. Synthesis of DNA complimentary to template DNA strand
C. Removal of wrong nucleotide inserted during DNA synthesis
D. Synthesis of an RNA that is complimentary to RNA template
217. During protein synthesis, which reads information in mRNA & transfers AA to a growing polypeptide D
chain?
A. messenger RNA
B. ribosomal RNA
C. heterogenous nuclear RNA
D. transfer RNA
218. What is the cause of polyuria in diabetes mellitus? C
a. overdrinking of water because of polydipsia
b. decreased ADH activity
c. osmotic diuresis
d. decreased aldosterone activity
219. Which is TRUE about methemoglobinemias? B

a. there is increased activity of methemoglobin reductase Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., pp46-47
b. it can result as a side effect of sulphonamides

c. increased reduction of Fe3+ of methemoglobin to Fe2+ occurs
d. there is absence of the Bohr effect
220. One of the following is a saturated fatty acid C
a. oleic acid Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 123
b. linolenic acid
c. palmitic acid
d. arachidonic acid
221. One of the following statements is true of the structure CH3(CH2)4CH=CHCH2CH=CH(CH2)7COOH: C
a. it is a saturated fatty acid with 18 C atoms Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 122
b. its common name is linolenic acid
c. it has two double bonds located at C9 and C12
d. its other name is 18:3cΔ9,12
222. Which of the following is TRUE of fatty acid synthase enzyme complex? D
a. it can synthesize two 18 carbon atom fatty acids simultaneously Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., pp196-197
b. it is composed of two polypeptide chains but each monomer is an active enzyme
c. FAS enzyme complex has seven sub-units with catalytic activities
d. the monomers are arranged in a head-to-tail configuration
223. The phosphophanthetheine side chain is part of which sub-unit of the fatty acid synthase enzyme C
complex? Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 196
a. acetyl transacylase
b. ketoacyl synthase
c. acyl carrier protein
d. malonyl transacylase
224. Deficiency of this phospholipid results to Respiratory Distress Syndrome of the newborn: D
a. phosphatidylinositol Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 125
b. phosphatidylinositide
c. phosphatidylserine
d. dipalmitoyl-lecithin
225. The committed step for the β-oxidation of fatty acids is inhibited by increased concentration of: C
a. acetyl-CoA Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 195
b. carnitine
c. malonyl-CoA
d. palmitoyl-CoA
226. The complete ATP yield of a saturated C16 fatty acid is: A
a. 106 Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 189
b. 108
c. 110
d. 112
227. What condition accelerates ketogenesis? D
a. high carbohydrate diet Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 192-193
b. increased [NAD+]/[NADH] ratio
c. low [beta-hydroxybutyrate]
d. decreased [Insulin]/[Glucagon] ratio
228. Ketone bodies can be utilized by extra-hepatic tissues because of this enzyme: D
th
a. beta-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase Harper’s Biochemistry 27 Ed., p. 191
b. HMG-CoA synthase
c. HMG-CoA lyase
d. succinyl CoA acetoacetate CoA transferase
229. Accelerated ketogenesis occurs in which situation? C
a. activation of CPT I Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 193
b. ↑ maloyl CoA
c. ↑ glucagon/insulin
d. activation of acetyl CoA carboxylase
230. This disease results from the accumulation of phytanic acid in the brain and kidneys of patients C
a. Tay-Sach’s disease Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 194
b. Zellweger’s disease
c. Refsum’s disease
d. Niemann Pick’s disease
231. Which is TRUE regarding apoproteins? C
a. Apo B46 and B100 are synthesized in the liver Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 218
b. Apo A, B,C and D are peripheral apoproteins
c. Apo D is present exclusively in HDL
d. Apo A II and C III are stimulate endothelial lipoprotein lipase
232. The concentration of this lipoprotein is inversely related to the incidence of coronary artery disease: B
a. HDL1 Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 222
b. HDL2
c. HDL3
d. pre β-HDL
233. Which receptors are actively involved in reverse cholesterol transport? D
a. LDL Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 222
b. ABCA 1
c. LRP
d. SR-B1

234. The only part of an odd-chain fatty acid that is glucogenic is: C
a. acetyl CoA Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 188
b. butyryl CoA
c. propionyl CoA
d. succinyl CoA
235. Which is the correct disease: enzyme deficiency pair? C
a. Fabry’s disease: ceramidase Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 215
b. Gaucher’s disease: hexosaminidase A
c. Niemann-Pick disease: sphingomyelinase
d. Tay-Sach’s disease: β-glucosidase
236. The patient with phenylketonuria has fair skin and eyes due to low levels of: D
a. biopterine Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 242
b. phenylalanine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
237. The preferred amino acid as substrate for gluconeogenesis is: A
a. alanine Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 173
b. arginine
c. asparagines
d. aspartate
238. A patient with mental retardation and pigmentation of connective tissues has a deficiency of: C
a. alanine aminotransferase Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 259
b. aspartate aminotransferase
c. homogentisate oxidase
d. phenylalanine hydroxylase
For questions 239-240, refer to the case below:

DD, a 2-week old male infant has failure to gain weight, nausea and vomiting after breastfeeding. Blood
+
examination revealed increased NH3 .
239. If DD had ↑ blood level of argininosuccinate and friable hair, the deficient enzyme is: B
a. argininosuccinate synthetase Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 252
b. argininosuccinate lyase
c. carbamoyl P synthetase 1
d. ornithine transcarbamoylase
240. The immediate treatment for DD is: C
a. antibiotics administration Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 251
b. hippurate administration
c. protein restriction
d. IV fluids
241. This reaction requires which coenzyme? D
a. ATP Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. FAD Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.247
c. NAD
d. Vit. B6
242. The final products of this reaction are: B
a. alanine and pyruvate Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. glutamate and α-ketoglutarate Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.248
c. glutamate and oxaloacetate
d. glutamine and oxaloacetate
243. The reaction that helps maintain normal acid-base balance is: B
a. arginase Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. glutaminase Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.249
c. glutamate dehydrogenase
d. glutamine synthetase
244. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter because it causes: ?
a. ↑ Cl efflux Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. ↓ Ca efflux Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.274
c. ↑ Cl influx
d. ↓ K influx
245. Which amino acid test dose administration is used to diagnose folate deficiency? B
a. cysteine Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. histidine Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.254
c. lysine
d. tryptophan
246. Which amino acid test dose administration is used to diagnose pyridoxal phosphate deficiency? C
a. histidine Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. leucine Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.262
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
247. To prevent obtaining a false positive test for phenylketonuria, the screening should be done how many D
days after birth? Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
a. immediately after birth Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.259

b. one day
c. 2 days
d. 3-4 days
248. A ten year old boy with pellagra-like symptoms and a urine finding of ↑ amount of large neutral amino D
acids (aminoaciduria). What is the problem with this patient? Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
a. homocystinuria Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.262
b. cystinuria
c. glycinuria
d. hartnup
249. One of the following statements about the THYROGLOBULIN is true C
a. it is the precursor of calcitonin Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. it is iodinated, glycosylated carbohydrate with a molecular mass of 660 kilodalton Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.455
c. it contains 115 tyrosine residues
d. it is initially synthesized in the apical portion of the cell
250. One of the following events is TRUE of the concentration of IODIDE A
a. It is an energy dependent process and is linked to the ATPase dependent Na-K pump Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. Thyroperoxidase is essential enzyme for the concentration of iodide Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.456
c. It involves the iodination of the 3 position of the aromatic ring
d. Phagocytosis and pinocytosis are essential in this process
251. The half life of T4 in the blood is D

a. 1.5 days Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. 3.5 days Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.462
c. 4.5 days
d. 6.5 days
252. One of the following statements about the THYROID BINDING GLOBULIN is TRUE: D
a. most of the T4 and T3 is in the unbound form Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
th
b. thyroxine binding prealbumins quantitatively more important Biochemistry, 27 Ed., p.462
c. thyroxine binding globulin binds covalently nearly all the T3 and T4
d. estrogens increases the synthesis of thyroid binding globulin
253. After exposing a jaundiced infant to phototherapy, the following is TRUE of bilirubin excretion: C
a. bilirubin is converted to bilirubin diglucoronide Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. phototherapy provides the sulfates needed to conjugate bilirubin Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.280
c. bilirubin will be excreted in the feces as mesobilirubin
d. increased amounts of urobilin are found in the urine
Blood Coagulation B
254. in normal patients, the fibronolytic system of the coagulation system is having the following Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
characteristized by Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.604
a. stabilization of the fibrin molecule by covalent cross-linkage bonding
b. glycoproteins that regulate coagulation mechanism
c. components which are thiol-dependent transglutaminases
d. glycoproteins that contain serine dependent active protease sites
255. Intracellular calcium is mobilized in the cytoplasm by this PIP2-derived second messenger B
a. protein kinase C Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
th
b. inositol triphosphate Biochemistry, 25 Ed., p.546
c. inositol diphosphate
d. phosphatidylinositol
256. During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle: B
a. there is sudden increase of the estradiol as the follicle enlargers Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. there is proliferation of the endometrial lining Biochemistry, 23rd Ed., p.550
c. the sudden drop in the velvets of FSH heralds the end of follicular phase
d. all of the above are true
257. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE of estrogen? A
a. in pregnancy, more estrone is coming from the placenta Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. estrogens are formed by the aromatizations of androgens in a complex process that involves 2 hydroxylation Biochemistry, 23rd Ed., p.450
steps
c. as much as 50% of estradiol produced during pregnancy are produced by the ovaries
d. all the statements are true
258. The following is TRUE about the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle C
a. there is follicular development
b. the endometrial lining is thickened with the glands
c. there is low levels of estrogen
d. FSH and LH levels are high
259. Whish statement is/are TRUE about mineralocorticoids? C
a. they are secreted from the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. the final step in the synthesis is the conversion of an aldehyde to alcohol Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.446
c. synthesis of the mineralocorticoids depends on the presence of the enzyme 18-hydroxylase
d. mineralocorticoid comes from the parent compound pregnenolone
260. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the glycemic index? A
a. foods with low glycemic index cause less fluctuations in insulin secretion Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. foods with high glycemic index cause rapid fluctuations in insulin resistance Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.485
c. glucose and galactose have lower glycemic index than non starch polysaccharides
d. fructose and sugar alcohols are absorbed rapidly and have a higher glycemic index

261. This water soluble vitamin requires a specific transport protein A
a. cobalamin Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s
b. thiamine Biochemistry, 27th Ed., p.486
c. folic acid
d. riboflavin
262. Which of the following statements about factors affecting the basal metabolic rate is TRUE? C
A. The basal metabolic rate is higher in females due to greater adiposity
B. Increase in body weight decreases the basal metabolic rate
C. Basal metabolic rate decreases with advancing age
D. Greater muscle tissue means a decrease in basal metabolic rate
263. The form of vitamin A involved in regulation of gene expression is D
A. Retinol
B. Retinaldehyde
C. Retinyl phosphate
D. Retinoic acid
264. The main storage form of Vitamin D is C
A. 7 dehydrocholesterol
B. Cholecalciferol
C. 25 hydroxycholecalciferol
D. 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol
265. This vitamin participates in the transfer of 1 carbon methyl units A
A. Folic acid
B. Pantothenic acid
C. Riboflavin
D. Thiamine
266. The following peptides arise from the proopiomelanocortin gene except D
A. Melanocyte stimulating hormone
B. Corticotropin like intermediate lobe peptide
C. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
D. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
267. Which of the following hormones is not a glycoprotein? B
A. Thyroid stimulating hormone
B. Prolactin
C. Follicle stimulating hormone
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin
268. Which of the following is the most utilized pathway of testosterone synthesis in the human testes? A
A. Dehydroepiandrosterone pathway
B. Progesterone pathway
C. Aromatase pathway
D. 21 hydroxylase pathway
269. Conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone in the mitochondria of the testes is promoted by D
A. Aromatase enzyme
B. FSH
C. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
D. Luteinizing hormone
270. Monosaccharides are characterized as B
A. Carbohydrates that can be hydrolyzed to simpler carbohydrates
B. Are classified based on the number of carbon atoms
C. Are condensation products of simpler units
D. Occur in linear configuration
271. The glycemic index is a measure of B
A. Polarity
B. Digestibility
C. Solubility
D. Amphotericity
272. The homopolymer structure of starch is called C
A. Dextrin
B. Amylopectin
C. Glucosan
D. Amylose
273. The enzymic hydrolysis of starch by amylase produces B
A. Lactose
B. Maltose
C. Lactulose
D. Sucrose
274. The phosphorylation of glucose during glycolysis involves D
A. An enzyme located in the mitochondrion
B. GTP as the ATP donor
C. A reversible reaction
D. An enzyme inhibited allosterically by the product
275. Which of the following is not a coenzyme of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex? D

A. Biotin
B. Lipoic acid
C. Coenzyme A
D. Pyridoxine
276. This enzyme of the Krebs cycle catalyzes a substrate level phosphorylation reaction D
A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
B. Malate dehydrogenase
C. Citrate synthase
D. Succinate thiokinase
277. Which is not a reaction that synthesizes purine nucleotides? C
A. Synthesis from amphibolic intermediates
B. Phosphoribosylation of nucleobases
C. Ribosylation of purine nucleosides
D. Phosphorylation of purine nucleosides
278. The multifunctional enzyme involved in the rate limiting reaction during pyrimidine synthesis includes B
A. IMP dehydrogenase
B. Dihydroorotase
C. Orotidylic decarboxylase
D. Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
279. Gout is a metabolic disorder caused by decreased activity of A
A. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
B. Adenosine deaminase
C. Glucose 6 phosphatase
D. Xanthine oxidase
280. The end products of pyrimidine catabolism are B
A. Less water soluble than those of purine catabolism
B. Increased in patients with leukemia
C. Produced by adenosine deaminase
D. Increased with increased dietary intake of nucleotides
281. Acetyl CoA derived from glycolysis is C
A. Reduced to water in the TCAC
B. Converted to NADPH in the hexose monophosphate shunt
C. Oxidized to CO2 and H2O in the TCAC
D. Converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase to form lactate
282. Which metabolic event occurs during the fed state? C
A. There is depletion of metabolic fuels
B. There is insulin mediated uptake of glucose in the liver
C. Extracellular lipoprotein lipase is activated in response to insulin
D. Increased secretion of glucagons by the pancreas
283. Muscle glycogen is not exported for utilization by peripheral tissues because of the absence of D
A. Glucokinase
B. Glycogen phosphorylase
C. Phosphofructokinase
D. Glucose 6 phosphatase
284. Which metabolic fuel provides the energy during prolonged starvation? B
A. Glucose
B. Ketone bodies
C. Amino acids
D. Lactate
285. The metabolic pathway that provides the fuel for erythrocytes is C
A. Beta oxidation
B. Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
C. Anaerobic glycolysis
D. Ketogenesis
286. Which statement best describes RNA? C
A. The sugar moiety attached to the base is deoxyribose
B. The guanine content is equal to the cytosine content
C. RNA contains ribonucleotide uracil
D. RNA cannot be hydrolyzed by alkali
287. The adapter molecule in translation is: B

A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. snRNA
288. The human telomere sequence is described as: A

A. Consisting of short repeat T-G rich sequences
B. Looped domains attached to the 3’ end of the chromosome
C. Binds sister chromatids during spindle formation
D. Involved with the aging when elongated

289. Which of the following features is NOT true of mitochondrial DNA? C
A. Encodes the 13 proteins involved in the respiratory chain
B. AGA and AGG are stop codons
C. Contains 200, 000 base pairs
Is circular and double stranded
290. The synthesis of the forward strand during replication is described as: C
A. A continuous process moving from the 3’ to 5’ direction
B. Producing short DNA fragments
C. Catalyzed by DNA polymerase in humans
D. Requiring an RNA primer for each short strand formed
291. Xeroderma pigmentosa results from ultraviolet damage to: B

A. the ORIC
B. Thymine dimers
C. TG rich palindromes
D. GATC sequence
292. The DNA strand that is translocated is referred to as the: C

A. Coding strand
B. Non- template strand
C. Template strand
D. Transcript strand
293. This RNA polymerase II is responsible for the synthesis of: B

A. rRNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. snRNA
294. The rate of transcription may be enhanced by the following sequence elements, EXCEPT: B
A. TATA box
B. Sigma factor
C. Enhancers
D. Silencers
295. In eukaryotes, the sequence that is translated to proteins is called: A

A. Exons
B. Cistrons
C. Introns
D. Spliceosomes
296. The enzyme that catalyzes the activation of amino acids is: C
A. Peptidyl transferase
B. RNA polymerase
C. Aminoacyl- tRNA synthetase
D. Methylguanosine synthase
297. Frameshift mutation results from C

A. Deletion of a triplet
B. Insertion of an amino acid
C. Insertion of a nucleotide
D. Deletion of an amino acid
298. The role of polyA tail during translation is observed during: B
A. Elongation
B. Initiation
C. Termination
D. Modification
299. Which antibiotic prevents binding of aminoacyl- tRNA to the A site? C

A. Chloramphenicol
B. Puromycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Rifampicin
300. DNA library that is composed of DNA copies from mRNA populations: C
A. Chimeric library
B. Colony
C. cDNA
D. Genomic library
301. Insulin promotes glucose storage in the liver and muscles by: C
A. Inhibition of PFK 2 (Reference: Murray, R.K., et al., Harper’s

B. Stimulation of G6-DH Biochemistry 27th Ed., p. 474)
C. Activation of glycogen synthase
D. Increased synthesis of F-2, 6 bisP
302. A patient’s DNA was analysed for its chemical characteristics. It was found to have a high melting B
temperature which means that the DNA: (Harper’s Biochemistry 27th Ed., pp. 312- 313—
A. Is rich in adenine- thymine base pairs Application)
B. Is denatured at a higher temperature
C. Will exhibit hypochromicity as this temperature
D. Cannot undergo renaturation
303. A 20 year old suffering from pneumonia was given a quinolone antibiotic by his physician. This antibiotic A
th
inhibits bacterial DNA topoisomerase. Which step in replication is inhibited by the quinolone? (Harper’s Biochemistry 27 Ed., pp. 339- 340—
A. Unwinding of the double helix Application)
B. Recognition of the origin of replication
C. Formation of the RNA primer
D. Elongation of the growing DNA polymer
304. A dermatologist advised her patient to avoid too much exposure to sunlight. Aside from sunburn, C
ultraviolet light causes what kind of damage to DNA? (Harper’s 27th Ed., p. 343—Application)
A. Insertion or deletion of a nucleotide
B. Oxidative free radical formation
C. Formation of thymine- thymine dimer
D. Cross linkage between bases
305. Cells cultured from patients with xeroderma pigmentosum exhibit low activity to which kind of DNA repair A
mechanism? (Harper’s 27th Ed., p. 345—Recall)
A. Nucleotide excision- repair
B. Base excision repair
C. Mismatch repair
D. Double strand break repair
306. Damage to the mitochondria may result in impaired mitochondrial DNA synthesis. In mammalian cells, this D
th
DNA is synthesized by which type of DNA polymerase? (Harper’s 27 Ed., p. 336—Recall)
A. DNA polymerase alpha
B. DNA polymerase beta
C. DNA polymerase delta
D. DNA polymerase gamma
307. Mammalian RNA polymerase II exhibit high sensitivity to the inhibitory effect of alpha- amanitin, a peptide C
toxin from a poisonous mushroom. Which of the following products will be decreased? (Harper’s 27th Ed., p. 351—Application)
A. Ribosomal RNA
B. Transfer RNA
C. Messenger RNA
D. Small nuclear RNA
308. Rifampicin, an anti- TB drug, inhibits DNA- dependent RNA polymerase. Which of the following steps of D
gene transcription will NOT be affected by the drug? (Harper’s 27th Ed., p. 349—Application)
A. Template binding
B. Chain elongation
C. Chain initiation
D. Posttranscriptional modification
309. A patient is taking steroid drug for his frequent attacks of asthma. Steroids have anti-inflammatory effects B
and also regulate gene expression. The effects of steroids are mediated by DNA elements found in which (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 354-356 – Application)
transcription control gene?
A. Coding region
B. Distal regulatory elements
C. Promoter proximal elemenrs
D. CAAT & TATA boxes
310. In beta thalassemia, the beta-globin gene is severely underexpressed resulting in diminished synthesis of A
the beta-chain of hemoglobin. This is a consequence of which posttranscriptional modification of primary RNA (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 362 – Application)
transcript?
A. Faulty exon-intron splicing
B. Addition of poly A tail in the 3’ end
C. Incorporation of 7 methylguanosine cap in the 5’ end
D. RNA editing in the coding region
311. The genetic code is affected by insertion or deletion of nucleotides in DNA resulting in frameshift C
mutation. Which characteristic of the genetic code is affected by this event? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 366,370,371 – Application)
A. Universal
B. Degenerate
C. Nonoverlapping

D. Unambiguous
312. Chloramphenicol, a broad spectrum antibiotics is known to inhibit peptidyltransferase during translation. B
What step in protein synthesis is affected by Chloramphenicol? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 374 – Recall)
A. Formation of initiation complex
B. Elongation of the peptide chain
C. Termination of protein synthesis
D. Posttranslational modification
313. The elongation stage of protein synthesis is a multistep process which can be inhibited by antibiotics. D
What will happen when the translocation step is inhibited by Streptomycin? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 375 – Application)
A. Incoming aminocyl-tRNA cannot bind to the A site
B. Small ribosomal subunit is unable to dissociated from large ribosomal subunit
C. No peptide bond synthesis can take place
D. Peptidyl-tRNA cannot shift from the A site to the P site
314. Some patients receiving methotrexate for treatment of cancer developed drug resistance. What could be A
the reason for this? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 399– Application)
A. Methotrexate induces amplification of genes for dihydrofolate reductase
B. This agent inhibits the transport of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
C. The drug produces instability to newly synthesized mRNA
D. It promoted the use of alternative transcription start site.
315. Genomic technology often use probes. What can these molecules do? B
A. They allow visualization of specific DNA fragments (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 409,420– Recall)
B. They are used to detect the presence of a specific fragment of DNA or RNA
C. They amplify specific DNA sequences
D. They are used to identify restriction sites
316. Oxygen toxicity can be attributed to the destructive effects of free radicals generated. These free radicals C
th
are removed by which of the following enzymes? (Harper’s 27 ed., p. 97-98– Recall)
A. NADPH-CYP450 reductase
B. Peroxidase
C. Superoxide Dismutase
D. Catalase
317. A suicide victim suffered from carbon monoxide poisoning when he was trapped in the garage with car C
engine running. Which component of the respiratory chain is inhibited by the poisonous gas? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 107– Recall)
A. NADH dehydrogenase of Complex I
B. Succinate dehydrogenase of Complex II
C. Cytochrome c oxidoreductase of Complex III
D. Cytochrome oxidase of Complex IV
318. People with bronchial asthma usually have hyperactive airway bronchoconstriction because of A
inflammation. Which of the following eicosanoid is responsible for this? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 122– Application)
A. Leukotrienes
B. Prostaglandins
C. Thromboxanes
A. D. Prostacyclin
319. A premature infant had respiratory distress syndrome after birth. Which of the following is a major D
constituent of the lung surfactant? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 125– Recall)
A. distearoyl cephalin
B. dioleyl lipositol
C. diarachidonyl plasmalogen
B. D. dipalmitoyl lecithin
320. Which of the following glycolipids is of considerable biologic interest because it serves as the receptor in B
human intestine for Cholera toxin? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 126– Recall)
A. sulfatide
B. ganglioside (GM3)
C. glucocerebroside
D. globoside
321. Which of the following steroids although NOT derived from cholesterol acquire antirachitic property when C
irradiated with ultraviolet light? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 127– Recall)
A. cholic acid
B. cholecalciferol
C. ergosterol
D. corticosterone
322.Which of the following glycolipids is of considerable biologic interest because it serves as the receptor in B
human intestine for Cholera toxin?
A. sulfatide *** THIS QUESTION IS THE SAME AS #320 and it was
B. ganglioside (GM3) repeated for some reason...
C. glucocerebroside

323. How will Carnitine deficiency affect the metabolism of glucose? A
A. It will lead to hypoglycemia (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 187– Application)
B. There is decreased synthesis of NADPH
C. It will promote glycogenolysis
D. It increases synthesis of glucuronic acid
324. A patient suffering from hypoalbuminemia will affect the transport of which lipid in the plasma? C
A. cholesterol (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 187– Application)
B. triacylglycerol
C. unesterified fatty acid
D. phospholipid
325. Lack of carnitine in the mitochondria will directly and immediately affect which aspect of fatty acid B
th
oxidation? (Harper’s 27 ed., p. 187– Application)
A. activation of fatty acid
B. transport of fatty acid into the mitochondrial matrix
C. oxidation of fatty acyl CoA
D. formation of acetyl CoA
326. Infants born without peroxisomes will suffer from neurologic symptoms because of the accumulation of D
what type of fatty acid? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 194– Recall)
A. short chain saturated fatty acid
B. medium chain saturated fatty acid
C. long chain saturated and unsaturated fatty acid
D. very long chain unsaturated fatty acid
327.The basic form of ketosis occurs in starvation which involves depletion of carbohydrates coupled with A
increased: (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 194– Application)
A. mobilization of free fatty acid
B. fatty acid synthesis
C. TAG synthesis
D. cholesterol metabolism
328. A patient taking Aspirin because of chronic arthritis will have decreased synthesis of which of the C
following? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 196– Application)
A. leukotrienes
B. ketone bodies
C. prostaglandin
D. glycosphingolipid
329. Deficiency of Biotin will result in decreased formation of which of the folliwing? B
A. acyl carrier protein (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 197– Application)
B. malony CoA
C. phosphatidic acid
D. ceramide
330. Essential fatty acid deficient may be exacerbated by increased intake of which of the following foodstuffs? A
A. margarine (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 203-204– Application)
B. butter
C. coconut oil
D. vegetable oil
331. Which of the following enzymes that degrade phosphoglycerides is one of the major toxins secreted by B
th
pathogenic bacteria? (Harper’s 27 ed., p. 212– Recall)
A. Phospholipase A1
B. Phospholipase C
C. Phospholipase A2
D. Phospholipase D
332. Enlarged liver and spleen, erosion of long bones, mental retardation in infants are seen in which of the C
th
following lysosomal storage diseases? (Harper’s 27 ed., p. 215 – Application)
A. Tay Sach’s disease
B. Fabry’s disease
C. Gaucher’s disease
D. Farber’s disease
333. Patients with lipoprotein lipase deficiency will affect lipoprotein metabolism in what way? D
A. Increased formation of lipoporotein remnants (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 219-220 – Application)
B. Increased degradation of VLDL
C. Decreased synthesis of HDL
D. Decreased triglyceride hydrolysis in chylomicron
334. Administration of simvastatin will decrease the activity of which of the following enzymes involved in B
cholesterol synthesis? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 231 – Recall)
A. HMG-CoA synthase
B. HMG-CoA reductase
C. Squalene oxidocyclase
D. Mevalonate kinase
335. During protein analysis a new amino acid was found which has a pK 3 value, 3 units lower than that of B
cysteine. This so called 21st amino acid is? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 14 – Recall)
A. Aluminocysteine
B. Selenocysteine

C. Manganocysteine
D. Mangesimosysteine
336. A protein isoldated from a cancerous tissue absorbs visible light in the region of 280 nm. Which amino acid D
component of the protein is responsible for this? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 18 – Recall)
A. Glycine
B. Arginine
C. Valine
D. Tryptophan
337. Hemoglobin has the ability to neutralize protons released by carbonic acid. Which of the following amino C
acids is responsible for this? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 45– Application)
A. Lysine
B. Glutamine
C. Histidine
D. Isoleucine
338. Proteins must be purified prior to analysis. Size exclusion chromatography separates proteins based on A
their Stokes radius which is a function of: (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 21-22– Application)
A. Molecular mass and shape
B. Solubility characteristics
C. Chemical interactions with other groups
D. Denaturation and renaturation potential
339. Scurvy which is due to Vitamin C deficiency results in the formation of defective collagen characterize by: A
A. Decreased number of hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 39– Application)
B. Increased in the number of covalent cross links
C. Decreased synthesis of disulfide bridges
D. Increased interactions with copper and other minerals
340. Tissue amino transferases reversibly interconvert. Which of the following 3 amino acids and their D
corresponding alpha-keto acids? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 243– Application)
A. Serine, threonine and tyrosine
B. Lysine, arginine and hisidine
C. Glycine, alanine and isoleucine
D. Valine, leucine and isoleucine
341. Which of he following is NOT a part of the stages occuring in urea biosynthesis: B
A. Transamination (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 247– Application)
B. Transaminidation
C. Oxidative deamination of glutamate
D. Ammonia transport
342. Deficiency of which of the following coenzymes will result in decreased transamination of amino acids? C
A. Thiamine pyrophosphate (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 248– Application)
B. Biotin
C. Pyridoxal phosphate
D. Tetrahydrofolate
343. Transamination refers to the concerted reactions catalyzed by which of the following pair of enzymes? A
A. Glutamate aminotransferase and glutamate dehydrogenase (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 248– Application)
B. Glutamate dehydrogenase and glutamine synthetase
C. L-amino acid oxidase and cysteine desulfurase
D. Serine dehydrase and glutamate transaminase
344. Of the six participating amino acids in urea synthesis which of the following functions solely as an enzyme D
activator? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 249– Recall)
A. Ornithine
B. Argininosuccinate
C. Citrulline
D. N-acetylglutamate
345. Ammonia intoxication impairs neuronal functions of the brain because it : C
A. Impairs the synthesis of glutamine (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 248– Application)
B. Inhibits the activation of asparagine synthetase
C. Depletes the levels of alpha-ketoglutarate of the Kreb’s cycle
D. Produces respiratory alkalosis
346. Which of the following chemical reactions typically initiates amino acid catabolism? B
A. Glutamate dehydrogenation (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 254– Recall)
B. Transamination
C. Transmethylation
D. Transulfuration
347. Alkaptonuria, an inborn error of tyrosine metabolism, is characterixed by darkening of the urine on A
exposure to air. This is due to oxidation of excreted: (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 259– Application)
A. Homogentisic acid
B. Hydroxyphenlypyruvate
C. Maleylacetoacetate
D. Fumarate
348. Maple syrup urine disease is a ametabolic disorder of branched-chain amino acid metabolism. This is due B
to which of the following? (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 265– Application)
A. Lack of leucine, isoleucine and valin aminotransferase complex
B. Defective alpha-keto acid decarboxylase
C. Mutation of dihydrofolate reductase

D. Inability to attach the biotin coenzyme
349. S-adenosylamethionine is important in the body because it is involved in which of the following reactions C
A. Transulfuration (Harper’s 27th ed., p. 274– Recall)
B. Acetylation
C. Methylation
D. Conjugation reaction
350. Which is a mechanism of oncogene activation A
A. Chromosome translocation (p. 794, MPL=1)
B. Initiation
C. Promotion
D. Proliferation
351. TRUE of oncogene activation of chronic myelogenous leukemia A
A. It involves gene re-arrangement of chromosome 9 and 14 (p. 794, MPL=0.25)
B. The mutation results to fusion of BCR-ABL gene
C. It is a recessive type of mutation
D. It results to overexpression of c-myc
352. Stage of chemical carcinogenesis which is genotoxic and irreversible? A
A. Initiation (p. 790, MPL=1)
B. Promotion
C. Progression
D. Mutation
353. Philadelphia Chromosome in CML is due to: B
a) Gene rearrangement of chromosome 9 and 22
b) Fusion of myc-ras
c) Activation of c-myc
d) Translocation of chromosome 8 and 14
354. Which of the following molecules function to transfer information from the nucleus to the B
cytoplasm?
a) DNA
b) mRNA
c) tRNA
d) proteins
355. Three types of RNA involved in comprising the structural and functional core for protein synthesis, D
serving as template for translation and transporting amino acid respectively are:
a) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
b) tRNA, mRNA, rRNA
c) rRNA, tRNA, mRNA
d) rRNA, mRNA, tRNA
356. What is added to the 3’-end of many eukaryotic mRNAs after transcription? B
a) introns
b) a poly A tail
c) cap structure, consisting of a modified G nucleotide
d) the trinucleotide 5’-CCA
357. The regions of DNA in eukaryotic gene that encode a polypeptide product are called: B
a) hnRNAs
b) exons
c) enhancers
d) leader sequences
358. A molecule containing sequences from two different species is known as a D

a) clone
b) cosmid
c) plasmid
d) chimeric molecule
359. The sequence of a gene that is transcribed but excised before translation: D
a) enhancer
b) exon
c) intronrepressor
d) intron
360. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding genomic library?

a) cDNA libraries are represented by exons

b) genomic DNA libraries are represented by introns
c) it is a collection of cloned fragments that represents the entire genome
d) libraries are prepared by performing partial digestion of total DNA with a restriction gene
361. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the genetic code? D
a) Some amino acids are encoded by several codons
b) In general, the 3rd nucleotide in a codon is less important than the first two in coding for a specific
aminoacid
c) It is universal with the exception of tRNA molecules in the mitochondria
d) The reading of the genetic code may involve overlap of codons in some instances
362. The genetic code is said to have this property because multiple codons code for the same amino A
acid.
a) Degenerate
b) Unambiguous
c) Universal
d) No punctuation
363. POMC gives rise to all the following substances, except. B

a) ACTH
b) Endorphins
c) Alpha-MSH
d) Renin
364. Which of the following structural motifs is important for the transcriptional activation produced by A
some steroid bound hormones?
a) Zinc fingers
b) Gly-x-y
c) Immunoglobulin folds
d) EF hands
365. Irreversible activator of adenylyl cyclase causing ribosylation of the alpha-stimulatory subunit of the C
G proteins:
a) Pertussis toxin
b) Phosphodiesterase
c) Cholera toxin
d) Calcium
366. Catecholamines undergo oxidative deamination by the action of this enzyme: B

a) Tryptophan-5 hydroxylase
b) MAO
c) COMT
d) Tyrosine hydroxylase
367. Estrogenic hormone which is predominant during pregnancy B

a) Estradiol
b) Estriol
c) Estrone
d) Diethylstilbestrol
368. Leprechaunism is a rare condition characterized by elfin facies, low birth weiht, decreased muscle mass D
and subcutaneous fat due to the following defects
a. Growth Hormone deficiency
b. Thyroid hormone deficiency
c. growth hormone receptor defect
d. insulin receptor defect
369. Growth hormone is synthesized and stored in large amounts in the anterior pituitary gland. Which of the B
following statement accurately describes GH?
a. it is secreted continuously
b. it stimulates cartilage and bone growth via somatomedin C
c. it has a proinsulin like effect in addition to its other actions
d. synthesis is stimulated by the action of somastostatin
370. In congenital adrenal hyperplasiainvolving 21-hydroxylase deficiency. Which of the following is true? C
a. cortisol accumulates
b. 17-OH progesterone is an effective treatment
c. most patients suffer “salt-wasting” due to lack of aldosterone

d. levels of ACTH in blood is increased
371. Which of the following is a direct effect of parathyroid hormone in regulating calcium metabolism? A
a. increases bone resorption
b. increases intestinal absorption of calcium
c. decreases renal secretion of calcium
d. decreases bone mineralization
372. the bond that links together complementary base pairs along DNA strands A
a. hydrogen
b. glycosidic
c. phosphodiester
d. peptide
373. Poly A tail and 7 methyl guanosine cap are features of: B
a.DNA
b. mRNA
c. tRNA
d. rRNA
374. DNA synthesis occurs during this phase of the cell cycle: D
a. G1
b. G2
c. G0
d. S phase
375. this drug blocks the reduction of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate: C
a. allopurinol
b. colchicine
c. methotrexate
d. sulfadrugs
376. a blot transfer procedure for RNA analysis C

a. southern blot
b. western blot
c. northern blot
d. southwestern blot
377. a manual enzymatic method of DNA sequencing?

a. Sanger’s method
b. restriction fragment length poly morphism
c. Maxam- Gilbert method
d. PCR
378. this is a method of amplifying a target sequence of DNA. B
a. fluorescence in situ hybridization
b. PCR
c. Sanger’s method
d. Microarray technology
379. a two year old boy. SHORT for his age, presented with leg edema and abdominal swelling. He was weaned A
from breastmilk at one year of age, because of the coming of another baby. He was fed rice or lugaw everyday
mixed with condensed milk. The edema is caused by:
a. lack of protein in his diet
b. excessive intake of water
c. kidney failure
d. presence of intestinal parasites
380. catabolism of amino acids requires the participation of transaminase enzyme. What conenzyme from of
vitamin B I important in this reaction.
a. Thiamin pyrophosphate
b. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
c. tetrahydrofolic acid
d. pyridoxical phosphate
393. Important in the synthesis of collagen, this vitamin serves as cofactor of the mixed function oxygenase C
enzymes, proline hydroxylases:
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin C
D. Folic Acid
394. Unlike other vitamins, niacin is a semi-essential vitamin because it can be synthesized from this amino C
acid:
A. Proline
B. Phenylalanine
C. Tryptophan
D. Histidine
395. Activity of the aldose reductase enzyme in the lens of the eye increases in the presence of high D

concentration of glucose. His initiates the conversion of glucose to a compound that has been linked to osmotic
damage and cataract formation. What compound is this?
A. Mannitol
B. Galactitol
C. Ribitol
D. Sorbitol
396. A patient was tested for transketolase activity of the erythrocyte lysate. Results showed markedly low D
activity of the enzyme, consistent with the physicians impression of deficiency of this vitamin:
A. Vitamin B2
B. Vitamin B3
C. Vitamin B5
D. Vitamin B1
397. Inorganic iron is best absorbed by the body in the ferrous form. What is the rationale behind the addition D
of Vitamin C in many iron preparations?
A. Vitamin C can take the place of iron
B. Absorption of other minerals is prevented
C. Vitamin C chelates iron
D. Vitamin C keeps the iron in the reduced (ferrous) state
398. In a routine medical checkup, an executive showed elevated plasma levels of lactic acid dehydrogenase C
enzymes 1&2 and low levels of LDH 5. This prompted the physician to refer him to a cardiologist because:
A. Low levels of LDH 5 indicated a clogged vessel
B. It is part of the medical checkup
C. Increase levels of LDH 1&2 is indicative of myocardial infarction
D. Angioplasty was needed
399. A tourist from the Caribbean fell ill and was diagnosed to have malaria. He was given primaquine upon B
admission to the hospital and was thought to be recuperating when he showed signs of haemolytic anemia.
Tests showed he had glucose 6-phosphate deficiency. What is the biochemical explanation for the hemolysis?
A. The malarial parasite had invaded the rbc
B. Inactivity of the Hexose Monophosphate Shunt prevented the NADPH-reduction of membrane
glutathione
C. The drug oxidized membrane proteins
D. Absence of G6PD initiated release of peroxides
400. Metabolic screening of a newborn showed absence of galactose uridyltransferase enzyme. What should B
be the dietary recommendation?
A. Galactose should not be included in the diet
B. Galactose-free and lactose-free milk should be given
C. Newborn should be breastfed
D. Liquid protein preparation instead of milk should be given
401. A born-again vegetarian was diagnosed to be suffering from vitamin B12 deficiency. Which of the C
following suggestions should be followed?
a. The vegetarian should include meat in the diet
b. He should be tested for pernicious anemia
c. The born-again can take in vitamin B12 preparation to meet the requirement
d. Intrinsic factor should be released from bonding
402. A woman had just given birth by caesarean section. For fast recuperation she should be advised to: C
a. Eat nutritious and protein-rich foods
b. Rest in bed until the incision heals
c. Include more carbohydrates in the diet
d. Drink a lot of water
Questions # 403-404
A 32 year old married woman consulted at the OPD because of increasing thirst and frequent urination. She is 5
feet 2 inches tall and weighs 168 lbs.
403. Which of the following statements best describes the metabolic status in this patient? B
a. her energy expenditure is greater than food intake hence she is diuresing
b. She is obese and she has increased mortality
c. The (BMR) basal metabolic rate of this patient is higher compared to a man of the same body weight
d. She is frequently urinating because she has increased protein reserves
404. The BMI of the patient is: D

a. 25
b. 27
c. 29
d. 31

405. You want to give this patient a 1,500 cal/day diet because you want her to lose weight. How do you A
formulate an appropriate plan for this patient?
a. CHO = 55% Fats = 35% CHON = 10%
b. CHO = 30% Fats = 20% CHON = 50%
c. CHO = 0% Fats = 40% CHON = 60%
d. CHO = 40% Fats = 40% CHON = 20%
406. The edema of a patient with kwashiorkor should respond best when prescribed with: A
a. Diet rich in protein
b. Diuretics
c. Bed rest
d. Virgin coconut oil
407. A 32 year old physician suffered a 3rd degree burn. He stayed in the hospital for almost one month. What B
can be said of his metabolic condition?
a. The excretion of nitrogenous compounds is less than the dietary intake
b. Negative nitrogen balance
c. Positive nitrogen balance
d. There is net retention of the nitrogen in the body as protein
408. The human body, even at rest, uses up energy. This amount of energy expenditure is termed as: B
a. Respiratory Quotient
b. Basal Metabolic Rate
c. Respiratory Burst
d. Body Mass Index
409. Uptake of glucose in these tissues is controlled by the hormone insulin: B

a. Liver & kidneys
b. Adipose tissue & muscle
c. Muscle & intestines
d. Liver & RBC
410. Between meals, the blood glucose concentration of the body is maintained through these metabolic D
pathways:
a. Glycolysis & gluconeogenesis
b. Glycogenesis & glycogenolysis
c. Glycolysis & glycogenolysis
d. Glycogenolysis & gluconeogenesis
411. During continuous anaerobic physical activity, (working out in the gym) this metabolic pathway is B
used by the muscles:
a) Gluconeogenesis
b) Glycolysis
c) HMP shunt
d) Glycogenesis
When tested, a young woman, complaining of fatigability and poor exercise tolerance was found to have only C
one-sixth the amount of carnitine found in other who had no muscle pathology. The symptoms mentioned are
due to.
a) Inability of her body to synthesize lipids
b) Inhibition of the ATP system
c) Failure of FA’s to enter beta-oxidation
d) Impairment of the mitochondria
413. Newborn infants can generate more heat needed by the body because they contain thermogenin, C
an uncoupling protein. Thermogenin exerts its effect by:
a) Increasing the amount of substrate oxidized
b) Preventing heat loss
c) Dissociating respiratory chain oxidation from ATP synthesis
d) Activating respiratory chain enzymes
414. Erythrocytes are hemolyzed when there is impairment of the Pentose Phosphate pathway and this is A
manifested in a person as hemolytic anemia. This defect is due to
a) Lack of NADPH from the Pentose phosphate pathway
b) Non-synthesis of ATP
c) Failure to release ribose
d) Defect in the membrane transport
415. A 30 Year old patient was diagnosed to be suffering from a mitochondrial disease that specifically A
involves a defect in mitochondrial energy transduction. Which symptoms will be evident?

a) High BMI, hyperactivity, increased appetite
b) Hyperventilation and clammy sweat
c) Muscle weakness, excessive perspiration and elevated BMR
Lack of appetite and hypoventilation

416. A newborn tested positive for Phenylketonuria screening. The attending physician ordered a change B
in the infant milk to one containing negligible amounts of
a) Lactose
b) Proteins
c) Fats
d) Glucose
417. A drug used as an adjunct in the treatment of obesity inhibits pancreatic lipase. Following its intake, B
which of the following is excreted in the feces?
a) Cholesterol
b) TAGs
c) FFAs
d) Bile salts
418. In the mucopolysaccharides, glycosaminoglycans are not degraded due to the absence of lysosomal A
hydrolases. Individuals suffering from this can be identified because of:
a) Excessive accumulation of urinary excretion of the proteoglycans
b) Presence of enzyme fragments in the urine
c) Release of the core proteins in urine
d) Increased turnover of affected cells
419. In the rare disease, analbuminemia, there is lack of serum albumin. The affected individual presents
with this:
a) Extreme edema
b) Edema and presence of free fatty acids
c) Accumulation of triglycerides
Elevated plasma cholesterol

420. Metabolic screening was requested for a week old newborn because the grandmother had noticed C
dark stains on the diaper whenever she attended the infant. Tests identified the condition as alkaptonuria.
What urinary metabolite should the physician request for?
a) Tryptophan
b) Tyrosine
c) Homogentistic acid
d) Melanin
421. Skeletal muscles do not have the enzyme glucose-6-phosphate. This means: B
A. They cannot degrade glucose
B. Glucose cannot be synthesized
C. ATP cannot be generated
Glycogen is stored in big amount
422. L-xylulose reductase catalyzes the reduction of xylulose to xylitol. In affected individuals, absence of this C
enzyme results in:
A. Formation of cataracts
B. Failure to synthesize nucleic acids
C. Excretion of large amounts of urinary pentose
Presence of skeletal deformities
423. When there is restricted intake of carbohydrates as in starvation and uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, C
ketosis results because of:
A. Change in pH of the body
B. Failure to oxidize glucose
C. Mobilization of fatty acids
Inactivity of buffer systems
424. Measurement of hba1c or glycosylated hemoglobin provides valuable information for the management of B
diabetes mellitus because it:
A. Is elevated in diabetes mellitus
B. Reflects the mean glucose concentration over the preceding 6-8 weeks
C. Is formed by reaction with hba
Is released when RBC dies
425. Inherited enzyme deficiencies of the Krebs-Henseleit cycle always present with this observation: C
A. Increase urea production
B. Formation of organic metabolites
C. Ammonia intoxication
Depletion of citrulline

426. The urine-soaked diaper of week old baby was noted by the mother to smell like burnt sugar. Her concern C
turned into worry when the pediatrician told her the baby may be suffering from maple syrup urine disease. To
confirm this, activity of the keto acid decarboxylase complex has to be measured. Which amino acids will have
increased concentration in plasma and urine?
A. Serine, threonine & hydroxyproline
B. Cysteine, cystine, methionine
C. Valine, leucine & isoleucine
Glycine, alanine & asparagine
427. Calcium deficiency manifestations may also be seen in people who consume: A
A. Large amounts of unleavened whole wheat products
B. High concentrations of fatty acids
C. High amounts of oxalates
All of the above
428. Milk intolerance, common among Asian populations and characterized by an osmotic type of diarrhea B
following the intake of milk is attributed to deficiency of:
A. Pancreatic amylase
B. Lactase
C. Sucrase
Maltase
429. Rate-limiting reaction in cholesterol synthesis which in inhibited by the “statins” group of drugs is D
catalyzed by this enzyme:
A. Cholesterol esterase
B. Squalene cyclase
C. Mevalonate kinase
Beta hydroxyl-beta methyl glutaryl coa reductase
430. All of the carbon atoms of cholesterol are synthesized from this common metabolite: B
A. Alanine
B. Acetyl coa
C. Glucose
Palmitate
431. Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins can be oxidized by acetyl coa or specific metabolites intermediates C
using a final common pathway. The pathway functions in gluconeogenesis, lipogenesis, and interconversion of
amino acids. This pathway is known as:
A. Glycolysis
B. Hexose monophosphate shunt
C. Citric acid cycle
Glucuronic acid pathway
432. in the capillaries, haemoglobin releases oxygen and accepts carbon dioxide. The process generates C
protons which can then lower blood ph. The buffering action of haemoglobin will prevent this from taking
place. What amino acid residues in haemoglobin are most important in ph buffering effect at normal blood ph?
a. arginine
b. lysine
c. histidine
d. glutamate
433. the highest number of energy released as ATp is obtained by complete oxidation of this compound to B
carbon dioxide and water:
a. an amino acid
b. a triglyceride
c. glucose
d. a nucleic acid
434. laboratory tests done on a 3 year old boy showed excessive nucleic acid bases in urine and negligible C
activity of hgprtase. Which statement explains the results obtained?
a. purine bases are very insoluble
b. low enzyme activity is due to feedback inhibition
c. salvage pathway of synthesizing nucleotides is inactive
d. young cells utilize the in vivo method for synthesis
435. in myocardial infarction where the major coronary artery is occluded. Ischemia results and a lowered B
oxygen supply diminishes the amount of ATP available in the cell, the effect on cellular energy is due to:
a. release of enzymes
b. lack of oxygen which slows down the mitochondrial electron transport chain
c. inhibition of substrate level phosphorylation
d. kind of occlusion
436. the patient was diagnosed to be suffering from megaloblastic anemia. Results of urinary tests showed B
10mg of formiminoglutamic acid (FIGLU). Making the physician conclude that the patient has folic acid
deficiency. Which statement explains the diagnosis given?
a. megaloblastic anemia is a unique feature of folic acid deficiency
b. transfer of the formino group of histidine to tetrahydrofolate does not take place and the figlu is excreted
c. figlu is a metabolite of folate
d. one carbon compounds are carried by folic acid

437. this is a correct statement regarding myoglobin: A
a. a monomeric protein
b. exhibits cooperativity
c. a tetrameric protein
d. transports oxygen
438. this a correct statement regarding haemoglobin: B

a. stores oxygen
b. exhibits cooperativity
c. A stores CO2
d. a non-heme protein
439. the globin chains in haemoglobin and myoglobin functions as/to: B
a. oxygen transporter
b. provides hindered environment for the heme iron
c. inhibits allosteric modulators
d. suit the proteins physiologic needs
440. allosteric properties of haemoglobin is a result of: B

a. primary structure
b. quarternary structure
c. tertiary structure
d. heme moiety
441. the color of the heme is due to its: A

a. conjugated ring structure
b. substituted side chains
c. cyclic structure
d. iron group
442. the key regulatory enzyme in heme biosynthesis is: B

a. ALA dehydratase
b. ALA synthase
c. heme oxygenase
d. UDP-glucoronyltransferase
443. sugar with a glycemic indes of less than 1: B

a. glucose
b fructose
c. galactose
d. lactose
519. In the intestinal mucosal cells, triglyceride is: C

A. Hydrolyzed
B. Esterified
C. Synthesized
D. Absorbed
520. Lipolysis will be formed with increased levels of this hormone: B

A. insulin
B. Epinephrine
C. Cortisol
D. Estrogen
521. In beta oxidation, for every break of an ester bond (saturated) this much amount of ATP is generated: C
A. 23
B. 3
C. 5
D.12
522. In fasting and starvation the level of these metabolites are increased: B
A. Oxysteroid
B. Ketone bodies
C. Thyroxine
D. Insulin
523. Arachidonic acid deficiency usually do not occur because of this enzyme: C
A. Polymerase
B. Kinase
C. Desaturase
D. Ligase
524. Amino acids are transported intracellularly using this cycle: D

A. Kreb’s cycle

B. Kreb’s – hanseleit cycle
C. Cori cycle
D. Gamma glutamyl cycle
525. The major product of nitrogen catabolism in humans is: C

A. Uric acid
B. Creatinine
C. Urea
D. Ammonia
526. What urinary metabolite is useful in the assessment of catecholamine induced hypertension? C
A. Hydroxyindole acetic acid
B. Phenylpyruvic acid
C. Vanillyl mandylic acid
D. Paraamino hippuric acid
527. The starting materials for porphyrin biosynthesis are: C

A. Acetyl CoA and serine
B. Malonyl CoA and glutamine
C. Succinyl CoA and glycine
D. Amino acyl and methionine
528. Which of these is the key regulatory enzyme in heme biosynthesis? B

A. Ferrochelatase
B. ALA synthase
C. Pyrollase
D. Uroporphyrin decarboxylase
529. What is this organic acid that is used to conjugate bilirubin? B

A. Propionic acid
B. Glucuronic
C. Acetic acid
D. Butyric acid
530. Which of these enzyme deficiency produces abdominal pain without skin manifestation? D
A. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
B. Uroporphyrin synthase
C. Ferrochelatase
D. Pyrollase
531. Activity exhibited by enzymes when fully saturated: B

A. Km
B. Vmax
C. Vmax
D. Vo
532. CPK elevation is suggestive of: B

A. Hepatitis
B. Cardiomyopathy
C. Pancreatitis
D. Bone tumor
533. Pyruvate kinase deficiency produces: B

A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Hypercholesterolemia
D. malabsorption
534. Which of these is a pyrimidine excretory metabolite? A

A. Ammonia
B. Urea
C. Uric acid
D. Allantoin
535. Which of these enzymes is important in DNA sequencing? C

A. Ligase
B. Polymerase
C. Exonuclease
D. Kinase
536. A very anxious student hyperventilates an hour before the biochemistry board exams. What is the effect A. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th pp 18-19/MPL
of hyperventilation on his PCO2 and blood pH? 0.25
A. PCO2 decrease and pH increases

B. PCO2 decrease and pH decreases
C. PCO2 increases and pH decreases
D. PCO2 increase and pH increases
537. A protein rick in which of the following amino acids will provide the greatest buffering capacity at D. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th p 26/MPL 0.75
physiologic pH?
A. Valine
B. Aspartic acid
C. Lysine
D. Histidine
538. Which of the following laboratory results would best indicate metabolic alkalosis? A.Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th p 304/MPL 0.75
A. Increase PCO2, increased pH, increased HCO3
B. Normal PCO2, increased pH, decreased HCO3
C. Increased PCO2, increased pH, normal HCO3
D. Decreased PCO2, increased pH, normal HCO3
539. What is the property of water that will contribute the most to its ability to dissolve compounds? D. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th p 15-17/MPL
A. Very few interactive forces in its structure. 0.75
B. Hydrogen bond formation between water and long-chain fatty acids.
C. Covalent bond formation between salt and water.
D. Hydrogen bond formation between water and biochemical molecules.
540. A 3-year-old is diagnosed to have Hurler’s syndrome. The diagnosis of Hurler’s syndrome is MOST B. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th p 678/ MPL 0.25
efficiently made by analysing the patient’s DNA for:
A. A region of DNA that does not encode RNA
B. Alternative forms of L-Iduronidase gene
C.The entire set of genes in one leukocyte
D. A nucleotide substitution in the L-Iduronidase gene.
541. Which of the following statements regarding a double-helical molecule of DNA is true? B. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th p 386/ MPL 0.75
A. All hydroxyl groups of pentoses are involved in linkags
B. Bases are perpendicular to the axis.
C. Each strand is identical.
D. Each strand replicates itself
542. A newborn baby has a sibling with sickle cell anemia and is at risk for this disease. The appropriate A. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th p468/ MPL 0.25
diagnostic test for sickle cell anemia in this baby would include which of the following?
A. DNA amplification
B. Hemoglobin antibodies
C. Red cell counting
D. DNA fingerprinting
543. Which of the following would BEST describe polymorphism? D. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th p 476/ MPL 0.25
A. One phenotype, multiple genotypes
B. Non-random allele association
C. One locus, multiple abnormal alleles
D. One locus, multiple normal alleles
544. What is the process that occurs at the 5-position off Cytidine and is often correlated with gene activation? D. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th p 466/ MPL 0.75
A. Gene conversion
B. Sister chromatid exchange
C. Gene rearrangement
D. DNA methylation
545. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) analysis can only be used to follow the inheritance of a A. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th p 478/ MPL 0.25
genetic disease if:
A.The disease-causing mutation is at or closely linked to an altered restriction site.
B. Proteins of mutated and normal genes migrate differently upon electrophoresis.
C. Mutations are outside restriction sites so that cleaving still occurs.
D. mRNA probes are used in combination with antibodies.
546. The chromosomes of mammalian cells are 20 times large as those of Escherichia coli. How can replication B. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th p 407/ MPL 0.75
of mammalian chromosomes be carried out in just a few minutes?
A. The higher temperature of mammalian cells allows for an exponentially higher replication rate.
B. Hundreds of replication forks work simultaneously on each piece of chromosomal DNA.
C. Many RNA polymerases carry out replication simultaneously on chromosomal DNA.
D. The presence of histones speeds up the rate of chromosomal DNA replication

547. Following ultraviolet damage to DNA in the skin, which of the following is MOST likely to occur? A
a. A specific nuclease detects damaged areas. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 814/MPL:0.75
b. Purine dimers are formed.
c. Both strands are cleaved.
d. Endonuclease removes the damaged strand.
548. Which of the following statements about the genetic code is the MOST accurate? B
a. Information is stored as sets of dinucleotide repeats called codons. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 433-
b. The code is degenerate. 434/MPL:0.75
c. There are 64 codons, all of which code for amino acids.
d. Information is stored as sets of trinucleotide repeats called codons.
549. Which of the following is provided by the Northern Blot Analysis? C

a. Detection of specific base pairs. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 472-
b. Detection of DNA molecules. 473/MPL:1.0
c. Detection of RNA molecules.
d. Detection of proteins.
550. In contrast to DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase: D

a. Fills in the gap between the Okazaki fragments. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 418/MPL:0.75
b. Works only in a 5’ to 3’ direction.
c. Edits as it synthesizes.
d. Synthesizes RNA primer to initiate DNA synthesis.
551. What is the function of a promoter site on DNA? B

th
a. Transcribes repressor Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24 ed. p. 420/MPL:1.0
b. Initiates transcription
c. Codes for RNA polymerase
d. Regulates termination
552. The consensus sequence 5’-TATAAAA-3’ found in eukaryotic genes is almost similar to a consensus D
sequence observed in prokaryotes. The consensus sequence is important as the: Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 421-
a. Only site of binding of RNA polymerase II. 422/MPL:0.75
b. Promoter site for all RNA polymerases.
c. Termination site for RNA polymerase II.
d. First site of binding of a transcription factor for RNA polymerase II.
553. the so-called “caps” of RNA molecules: D

a. Allow tRNA to be processed. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 428/MPL:1.0
b. Occur at the 3’-end of tRNA.
c. Are composed of poly A.
d. Are unique to eukaryotic mRNA.
554. In bacterial RNA synthesis, what is the function of the “rho” factor? D
th
a. It binds catabolite repressor to the promoter region. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24 ed. p. 419/MPL:1.0
b. It increases the rate of RNA synthesis.
c. It eliminates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.
d. It participates in the proper termination of transcription.
555. Which of the following statements correctly describes the nucleolus of a mammalian cell? B
a. It differs from that found in bacterial cells in that histones are present. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 428/MPL:0.75
b. It may contain hundreds of copies of genes for different types of ribosomal RNAs.
c. It synthesizes 5S rRNA.
d. It synthesizes all ribosomal RNA primary transcripts.
556. Which of the following statements correctly describes the synthesis of mammalian mRNA? B
a. Each mRNA often encodes several different proteins. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 427/MPL:0.75
b. Several different genes may produce identical mRNA molecules.
c. Mammalian mRNA undergoes minimal modification during its maturation.
d. The RNA sequence transcribed from a gene is identical to the mRNA that exits from nucleus to cytoplasm.
557. Certain amino acids are not part of the primary structure of proteins but are modified after translation. In D
scurvy, which amino acid that is normally part of collagen is not synthesized? Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 668-
a. Hydroxytryptophan 669/MPL:1.0
b. Hydroxytyrosine
c. Hydroxyhistidine
d. Hydroxyproline
558. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) molecules can be characterized by which of the following statements? D
A. They are maintained at a constant level in the serum. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 716/MPL: 1.0
B. They contain nucleic acids.
C. They contain mostly carbohydrates
D. They can be separated into subunits with a reducing reagent and urea.

559. Which of the following proteolytic enzymes is activated by acid hydrolysis of the proenzyme form? C
A. Trypsin Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. P.636/MPL: 1.0
B. Elastase
C. Pepsin
D. Carboxypeptidase
560. Which of the following amino acids is ionizable in proteins? B
A. Leucine Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 294/MPL: 0.75
B. Histidine
C. Valine
D. Alanine
561. The oxygen carrier of the muscle is the globular protein myoglobin. Which of the following amino acids is D
th
highly likely to be localized within the interior of the molecule? Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24 ed. p. 53/MPL: 0.75
A. Arginine
B. Aspartic acid
C. Glutamic acid
D. Valine
562. Which of the following statements concerning immunoglobulins is most accurate? C

A. IgE is the principal antibody in the serum. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 718/MPL: 1.0
B. The heavy chains are similar in each class of immunoglobulin.
C. The constant regions of the heavy chains are the same in each class of immunoglobulin.
D. IgE is the major immunoglobulin found in external secretions.
563. Under normal conditions in the blood, which of the following amino acid residues of albumin is neutral? C
A. Arginine Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 294/MPL: 0.75
B. Aspartate
C. Glutamine
D. Histidine
564. Which of the following carbohydrates would be most abundant in a diet of strict vegetarians? C
th
A. Amylose Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24 ed. p. 141/MPL: 1.0
B. Lactose
C. Cellulose
D. Glycogen
565. The major metabolic product under normal circumstances by erythrocytes and by muscle cells during D
intense exercise is recycled through the liver in the Cori cycle. The metabolite is: Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 200-201/MPL:
A. Oxaloacetate 0.75
B. Glycerol
C. Alanine
D. Lactate
566. Following a fad diet of skimmed milk and yogurt, an adult female patient experiences abdominal B
distention, nausea, cramping, and pain followed by watery diarrhea. This set of symptoms is observed each Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 645/MPL: 1.0
time the said meal is consumed. A most likely diagnosis is:
A. Steatorrhea
B. Lactase deficiency
C. Sialidase deficiency
D. Lipoprotein deficiency
567. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the high-energy phosphorylation of substrates during glycolysis? D
A. Pyruvate kinase Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 176/MPL: 1.0
B. Phosphoglycerate kinase
C. Triosephosphate isomerase
D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phospate dehydrogenase
568. Which of the following enzymes is common to both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis? C
A. Pyruvate carboxylase Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 194/MPL: 0.75
B. Hexokinase
C. Phosphoglycerate kinase
D. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
569. During the first week of a diet of 1500 calories per day, the oxidation of glucose via glycolysis in the liver of D
a normal 59-kg woman is inhibited by lowering of which of the following? Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 176/MPL: 0.75
A. Citrate
B. ATP
C. Ketone bodies
D. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase
570. Familial fructokinase deficiency causes no symptoms because: A

A. Hexokinase can phosphorylate fructose. Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 214/MPL: 0.75
B. Most tissues utilize fructose.

C. Liver fructose-1-phosphate aldolase is still active.
D. Excess fructose spills into the bowel and is eliminated in the feces.
571. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes phosphorylation with the use of inorganic phosphate? D.
A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase Harper’s Biochemistrry 24th ed. P. 179/MPL: 0.75
C. Phosphoglycerate kinase
D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
572. After a well-rounded breakfast, which of the following would be expected to occur? C.
A. Increased activity of pyruvate carboxylase
B. Decreased activity of acetyl CoA carboxylase Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. P. 179/MPL: 0.75
C. Decreased rate of glycogenesis
D. Decreased rate of protein synthesis
573. Contraction of skeletal muscle is initiated by the binding of calcium to: B.

A. Tropomyosin
B. Troponin Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. P. 667-688/MPL 0.75
C. Myosin
D. Actomyosin
574. Which of the following statements correctly describes transport of oxygen by haemoglobin? D.
A. Oxygen binds to haemoglobin more avidly than does carbon monoxide
th
B. The binding of oxygen to haemoglobin causes a valence change in the iron of the heme moiety Harper’s Biochemistry 24 ed. P. 436/MPL 0.75
C. Each of the four heme moieties binds oxygen independently
D. The plot of percentage of oxygen bound versus oxygen pressure is sigmoid in shape
575. Which of the following mutations would produce a sever form of thalassemia? D.
A. Deletion of one α-globin locus
B. Deletion of one β-globin locus Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. P. 734/MPL 0.75
C. Oxidation of heme groups to produce methemoglobin
D. Altered RNA processing at birth
576. An increased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen may result from which of the following? A.
A. Initial binding of oxygen to one of the four sites available in each deoxyhemoglobin molecule
B. High pH Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. P. 436/MPL 0.75
C. High carbon dioxide levels
D. High 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate levels within erythrocytes
577. The functions of many enzymes, membrane transporters, and other proteins can be quickly activated or B.
deactivated by phosphorylation of specific amino acid residues catalyzed by enzymes called:
A. Cyclases Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. P. 64-65/MPL 0.75
B. Kinases
C. Phosphatises
D. Proteases
578. The Vmax of the enzyme is the: B.

A. Reciprocal of the absolute value of the intercept of the curve with the x-axis
B. Reciprocal of the absolute value of the intercept of the curve with the y-axis Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. P. 75-90/MPL 0.75
C. Absolute value of the intercept of the curve with the x-axis
D. Slope of the curve
579. In the study of enzymes, the sigmoidal plot of substrate concentration versus reaction velocity may C.
indicate:
A. Michaelis-Menten Kinetics Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. P. 75-90/MPL 1.0
B. Myoglobin binding oxygen
C. Cooperative binding
D. Competitive inhibition
580. A non-competitive inhibitor of an enzyme: C.

A. Increases Km iwht no or little change in Vmax
B. Decreases Km and decreases Vmax Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. P. 86-88/MPL 0.75
C. Decreases Vmax
D. Increases Vmax
581. Which of the following statements correctly describes allosteric enzymes? A.

A. Effectors may enhance or inhibit substrate binding
B. They are not usually controlled by feedback inhibition Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. P. 104-105/MPL 0.75
C. The regulatory site may be catalytic site
D. Michaelis-Menten kinetics describe their activity
582. Which of the following enzymes is regulated primarily through allosteric interaction? D
A. Chymotrypsin Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. P. 104-105/MPL

B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 0.75
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Aspartate transcarbamoylase
583. Which of the following statements about flavoproteins is TRUE? D

A. They are not oxidized by Coenzyme Q Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.117-118/MPL
B. They receive electrons from cytochrome P450 in liver mitochondria 0.75
C. They do not participate in oxidation of NADH dehydrogenases
D. They can be associated with sulphur and non-heme iron
584. Which of he following compounds is a member of the electron transport chain? C

A. Octanyl carnitine Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 128/MPL 0.75
B. Cytochrome c
C. NADH
D. Palmitoyl carnitine
585. All known effects of cyclic AMP in eukaryotic cells result from C
A. Activation of the catalytic unit of adenylate cyclase Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.165/MPL 0.75
B. Activation of synthetases
C. Activation of protein kinase
D. Stimulation of calcium release from the endoplasmic reticulum
586. The connection between oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport is BEST described by: B
th
A. Existence of higher pH in the cisternae of the endoplasmic reticulum than in the cytosol Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24 ed. p.127/MPL 0.75
B. Synthesis of ATP as protons into the mitochondrial matrix along a proton gradient that exists across the inner
mitochondrial membrane
C. Dissociation of electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation
D. Absence of ATPase in the inner mitochondrial membrane
587. If all potential sources of ATP production are taken into account, the net number of ATP molecules formed B
per molecule of glucose in aerobic glycolysis is: Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.176-184/MPL
A. 2 0.75
B. 6
C. 18
D. 36
588. Which of the following reactions generates ATP? D

A. Glucose-6-phosphate to Fructose-6-phosphate Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.176-184/MPL
B. Glucose to Glucose-6-Phosphate 0.75
C. Fructose-6-phosphate to Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
D. Phosphoenolpyruvate
589. Which of the following products of triacylglycerol breakdown and subsequent β-oxidation may undergo A
gluconeogenesis? Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 284/MPL 0.75
A. Propionyl CoA
B. Acetyl CoA
C. All ketone bodies
D. Some amino acids
590. Inhibition of ATP synthesis during oxidative phosphorylation by oligomycin is thought to be due to: D
A. Blocking of the proton gradient between NADH-Q reductase & QH2 Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.701/MPL 0.75
B. Blocking of the proton gradient between cytochrome C1 and cytochrome C
C. Dissociation of cytochrome C from mitochondrial membranes
D. Inhibition of mitochondrial ATPase
591. The reactions of the urea cycle occur: D

A. In the cytosol Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.301-380/MPL
B. In the mitochondrial matrix 0.75
C. In the mitochondrial matrix and the cytosol
D. Only in lysosomes
592. The thyroid hormone thyroxine (T4) is derived from: B

A. Threonine Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.534-536/MPL
B. Tyrosine 0.75
C. Thiamine
D. Tryptophan
593. Which of the metabolites below is a precursor of tyrosine? D

A. L-dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p. 296-297/MPL
B. Dopamine 0.75
C. Norepinephrine
D. Pheylalanine

594. Which clinical laboratory observation is suggestive of Hartnup’s disease? A
A. High fecal levels of tryptophan and indole derivatives Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.322-325/MPL
B. Elevated plasma tyrosine and methionine levels 0.75
C. Elevation of glutamine in blood and urine
D. Extremely high levels of citrulline in urine
595. The important receive group of glutathione in its role as antioxidant is: B
A. Serine Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.753/MPL 0.75
B. Sulfhydryl
C. Tyrosine
D. Acetyl CoA
596. A newborn develops jaundice that requires laboratory evaluation. Which of the following porphyrin D
derivatives is conjugated, reacts directly, and is a major component of bile? Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.356/MPL 0.75
A. Stercobilin
B. Biliverdin
C. Bilirubin
D. Bilirubin diglucuronide
597. Which of the following porphyrins give stools their characteristic brown color? D
A. Biliverdin Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.354/MPL 0.75
B. Urobilinogen
C. Heme
D. Stercobilin
598. Ceramide is a precursor to which of the following compounds? B

A. Phosphatidyl serine Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.250-252/MPL
B. Sphingomyelin 0.75
C. Phosphatidyl glycerol
D. Phosphatidyl choline
599. Humans MOST easily tolerate a lack of which of the following nutrients? C
A. Protein Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.285-286/MPL
B. Iodine 0.75
C. Carbohydrate
D. Lipid
600. A deficiency in Vitamin B12 causes: D

A. Cheilosis Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.612-613/MPL
B. Beriberi 0.75
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Scurvy
601. Which of the following vitamins would MOST likely become deficient in a person who develops a D
th
completely carnivorous lifestyle? Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24 ed. p.612-613/MPL
A. Thiamine 0.75
B. Niacin
C. Cobalamin
D. Vitamin C
602. Biotin is involved in which of the following types of reactions? B

th
A. Hydroxylations Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24 ed. p.606-607/MPL
B. Carboxylations 0.75
D. Decarboxylations
D. Dehydrations
603. Which of the following conditions would primarily produce a functional deficiency of Vitamin K? A
A. Coumadin therapy Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.727/MPL 0.75
B. Broad spectrum antibiotic
C. Premature birth
D. Lack of red meat in the diet
604. A 3 month old boy presents with poor feeding & growth, hypotonia, lactic academia, and mild acidosis. A
The pyruvate to lactate ratio is high, and there is decreased conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA. Which of the Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.183/MPL 0.25
following may be considered for therapy?
A. Thiamine
B. FFA
C. Biotin
D. Vitamin C
605. A 2 year old child presents with cough and bronchitis, growth failure, & chronic diarrhea with light-colored C
foul smelling stools. A deficiency of which vitamin should be considered? Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.614-617/MPL
A. Vit B6 0.25

B. Vit C
C. Vit A
D. Vit B1
606. An infant presents with prominent forehead, bowing of the limbs, broad & tender wrists, swelling at the C
costochondral junction of the ribs, and irritability. Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.613/MPL 0.25
for this patient?
A. Removal of eggs from diet
B. Milk & sunlight exposure
C. Diet of baby food containing liver & ground beef
D. Diet of baby food containing leafy vegetables
607. Allopurinol effectively treats gout but has NO effect on the severe neurological symptoms of Lesch-Nyhan A
patients because it does not: Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.378/MPL 0.75
A. Decrease de novo purine synthesis
B. Decrease de novo pyrimidine synthesis
C. Inhibit xanthine oxidase
D. Increase PRPP levels
608. Which of the following would rule out hyperuricemia in a patient? C

A. Lesch-Nyhan synthesis Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.381/MPL 0.75
B. Gout
C. Carbonage phosphate deficiency
D. Xanthine oxidase
609. Which of the following contributes nitrogen atom to both purine & pyrimidine rings? A
th
A. Aspartate Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24 ed. p.376-377/MPL
B. Carbonage PO4 1.0
C. CO2
D. None of the above
610. What is the end product of fatty acid synthase activity in human? A
A. Palmitic acid Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.216-223/MPL
B. Palmetoleic acid 0.75
C. Linolic acid
D. Arachidonic acid
611. For every 2 moles of free glycerol released by lipolysis of triglycerides in adipose tissue? A
A. 1 mole of glucose can be synthesized via gluconeogenesis Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.267/MPL 0.75
B. 2 moles of triacrylglyceride is released
C. 2 moles of FFA is relased
D. 3 moles of Acyl CoA is produced
612. A 45-year old man has a mild heart attack and is placed on diet and Mevastatin therapy. Which of the B
following will result in this therapy? Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 24th ed. p.281/MPL 0.75
A. Low blood glucose level
B. Low blood LDLs
C. High blood cholesterol
D. Low oxidation of Fatty acids

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Biochemistry Practice Exams: (FOLD/COVER IF YOU DON’T WANNA SEE THE

2. Which of the following is a property of enhancer elements? B

3. Which of the following is considered as a transcriptional regulation control? A

4. Which of the following is true of biological membrane structure? B

5. Which of the following defines the specificity of hormone activity in a cell? B

6. Which of the following is true of hormones? B

7. Which vitamin is essential for one-carbon metabolism? D

8. Which of the following correctly characterize a component of the extracellular matrix? C

9. Which of the following is NOT correctly paired? B

10. Which of the following statements characterizes ATP? C

11. Enzymes, as biological catalysts, accelerate velocity of reactions by: A

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14. The Michaelis Menten constant is equal to substrate concentration when: A

16. Double reciprocal plot of the Michaelis Menten equation is called: C

18. Which statement is true about competitive inhibition? C

21. The active form of Vitamin B12 coenzyme: A

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25. Substrate level phosphorylation differs from oxidative phosphorylation in that: A

27. Which of the following statements is correct regarding digestion of carbohydrates? B

31. Hexokinase differs from glucokinase in which aspect? D

34. True of the malate aspartate shuttle: C

35. The initial step in the TCA cycle is catalysed by: C

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40. Glycogen synthesis is activated while glycogenolysis is inhibited when: D

46. The site of action of the NSAIDS is: B

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48. The principal plasma carrier of dietary triacylglycerols is: D

49. Activation of lipoprotein lipase requires which apoprotein? C

51. The committed step of cholesterol biosynthesis is catalysed by this enzyme: B

52. High dietary intake of cholesterol leads to: D

58. Transamidation reactions include which of the following? C

59. The important cofactor of transaminases: A

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80. Degeneracy of the genetic code means that: C

81. The final product of gene expression is: D

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132. Which of the following is a nucleoside? D

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219. Which is TRUE about methemoglobinemias? B

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For questions 239-240, refer to the case below:

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251. The half life of T4 in the blood is D

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287. The adapter molecule in translation is: B

288. The human telomere sequence is described as: A

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291. Xeroderma pigmentosa results from ultraviolet damage to: B