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LISTENING SUB-TEST – QUESTION PAPER

CANDIDATE NUMBER:

LAST NAME:

FIRST NAME:

MIDDLE NAMES: Passport Photo

PROFESSION: Candidate details and photo will be printed here

VENUE:

TEST DATE:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION
By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way (other than to take the test) or assist any other person to disclose or
use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of the rules or
regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the sole
discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take any further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE: _________________________________________________________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
TIME:
DO NOTAPPROXIMATELY 40 MINUTES
open this question paper until you are told to do so.

One mark will be granted for each correct answer.

Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.

At the end of the test, you will have two minutes to check your answers.

At the end of the test, hand in this Question Paper.

You must not remove OET material from the test room.

HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

Part A: Write your answers on this Question Paper by filling in the blanks. Example: Patient: Ray
Sands1___________

Part B & C: Mark your answers on this Question Paper by filling in the circle using a 2B pencil. Example:
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Occupational English Test

Listening Test

This test has three parts. In each part, you’ll hear a number of different extracts. At the start of each extract,
you’ll hear this sound: -beep-

You’ll have time to read the questions before you hear each extract and you’ll hear each extract ONCE ONLY.
Complete your answers as you listen.

At the end of the test, you’ll have two minutes to check your answers.

PART A
In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, a health professional is talking to a
patient.

For questions 1-24, complete the roles with information you hear.

Now, look at the notes for extract one.

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Extract 1: Questions 1 to 12

You will hear part of a consultation between a psychologist and a patient called Mr Barry. For questions 1-12,
complete the notes with a word or short phrase.

You now have 30 seconds to look at the notes.

Patient Mr Barry
Background
● Continued anxiety and (1) __________________________________
● Started medication (2) _________________ ago
Medication
● Citalopram/chlordiazepoxide
● chlordiazepoxide (3) _____________ mg (4) ________________ daily
● non-compliant
● feels meds don’t (5) ____________________ him sufficiently
● patient trying to (6) ____________________ more
● citalopram 20mg
● side effects: ongoing (7) ________________ improving
● stress related?
● possible (8) ____________________
● takes citalopram (9) _______________________

Symptoms
● inability to leave house
● palpitations / SOB / intense fear
● feels (10) _____________ when outside
● patient normalizing
● went to shops for the (11) ____________________
● since beginning (12) _______________________

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Extract 2: Questions 13 to 24
You will hear part of a consultation between a GP and a patient called Mr Martin. For questions 13 to 24,
complete the following notes with a word or short phrase.

You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient Mr. Martin

Background/Symptoms
● Stomach pain
● Condition present (13) ________________ for years but worse recently
● Located across (14) _________ of abdomen radiating towards (15) _______
● Describes pain as not severe
● Like an (16) _________________
● Pain moves side to side
● Patient suspects (17) ____________________ problems
● Feels (18) _________________ as well as pain
● Ongoing problem
● 4 yrs ago diagnosed suspected (19) _______________________
● Bowel movements variable
● Ongoing problems with (20) ____________ but recently stool (21) ________
● Drinks plenty of water
● No diarrhea
● No presence of (22) _______________________ in stool
● No black motions

Medications
● Previously prescribed Colofac
● Monitors diet rather than take (23) _______________
● Takes OTC (24) __________________ capsules which provide relief

This is the end of Part A. Now look at Part B.

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Part B
In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking a different
healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B, or C) which fit best according to what you hear. You’ll have
time to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25.

25. You hear a doctor and a trainee discussing the application of a plaster cast.
What does the trainee need to tell the patient about the cast?
The appropriate length of time to let the cast dry properly
The temperature of the cast as it begins to harden.
The reduction in the fracture after the cast has been applied.

26. You hear a manager explaining new data management processes to clinical staff.
What should staff do with their feedback reports?
File them on paper and digitally
Copy them onto the new servers
Fill them out digitally to save time

27. You hear a presentation about the introduction of a new type of wound dressing.
What is the main advantage of the new wound dressing?
They are ideal for oozing wounds due to high absorbency.
They are made from naturally bacteria resistant seaweed.
They are somewhat less costly than traditional cloth bandages.

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28. You hear two hospital managers discussing completion rates for an online course.
How will management inform staff who do not attend the meeting about the deadline?
Face to face
By email
Over the phone

29. You hear two colleagues discussing an online training course.

request IT help to reset so he can complete the course.
wait until the weekend and complete the course.
advise a manager that he has completed the course.
What advice does the female nurse give her colleague?

30. You hear an educator describing methods for creating medical abbreviations to nursing trainees.
Why does the speaker think it is important for trainees to understand the different methods of
abbreviating?
So they can create new abbreviations using the first letter rule.
So they can easily pronounce medical acronyms accurately.
So they can more efficiently learn commonly used abbreviations.

That is the end of Part B. Now look at Part C.

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Part C
In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking aspects of their work.

For questions 31-42, choose the answer (A, B, or C) which fit best according to what you hear.
Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one.

Extract 1: Questions 31-36

You hear an interview with a health administrator called Marvin Lee discussing an article about delivering
high quality non-visit care.

You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36.

31. How does Dr Lee describe the movement from traditional care systems to non-visit care?
Large pre-existing medical providers will probably dominate the market.
There will be a mixture of reactions from existing and new organisations.
Flexible new organisations will have an advantage over existing ones.

32. According to Dr Lee a non-visit care culture

views face to face consultations as a final resort in treatment.
will develop more rapidly in new medical start-ups.
requires a blend of responses from medical organisations.

33. Dr Lee believes that current technology is

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closely matched to users medical needs.

changing expectations for medical services.
not capable of supporting non-visit care yet

34. Dr Lee suggests that in person visits

ideally occur earlier in the care process.
have a negative impact on many patients.
should be easy for patients to manage.

35. Why does Dr Lee mention specimen collection services?

To highlight the expense of creating offices and labs.
To describe how these services could be provided more efficiently.
To suggest they could be delivered more nimbly with technology.

36 What advice does Dr Lee give organisations wanting to move to non-visit care models?
Wait for more precise technology before transitioning to remote care.
Re-evaluate the safety and quality of non-visit care before making the change.
Find transition opportunities by close analysis of each instance of in-person care.

Now look at extract two.

Extract 2: Questions 37-42

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You hear an interview with a public health researcher called Dr. Pauline Davidson discussing a research on a
secret safe injection facility in the United States.

You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. The research suggests that in the USA

supervised injection centres are fundamentally different.
supervised injection centres are being successfully integrated.
supervised injection centres have the same impact as elsewhere.

38. According to Dr Davidson the secret facility was

based on international evidence and good practice.
waiting for legal advocacy in the United States.
experiencing the death of too many patients.

39. According to Dr Davidson what is the outcome of having staff and drug users in the same room?
Patient check in and registration is more efficient.
Overdose prevention is the major benefit.
Staff can address many potential health issues.

40. What does Davidson suggest users of the centre most appreciate?

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the clean and hygienic surfaces

the private and relaxed space
they can't get arrested there

41. Some users of the facility suggested that the facility

needs a far more open space.
can't combine with other services since it is secret.
would be better as a treatment agency.

42. What concern did staff raise about the running of the facility?
That patients might disclose information about the centre
Necessary exclusion of psychologically ill patients
The small number of patients they could help

That is the end of Part C.

You now have two minutes to check your answers.
END OF THE LISTENING TEST

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READING SUB-TEST – TEXT BOOKLET: PART A

CANDIDATE NUMBER:

LAST NAME:

FIRST NAME:

MIDDLE NAMES: Passport Photo

PROFESSION: Candidate details and photo will be printed here

VENUE:

TEST DATE:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION
By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way (other than to take the test) or assist any other person to disclose or
use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of the rules or
regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the sole
discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take any further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE: _________________________________________________________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
You must not remove OET material from the test room.

MANAGING OPIOID DEPENDENCE

Text A
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Identifying opioid dependence
The International Classification of Disease, Tenth Edition [ICD-10] is a coding system created by the
World Health Organization (WHO) to catalogue and name diseases, conditions, signs and symptoms.
The ICD-10 includes criteria to identify dependence. According to the ICD-10, opioid dependence is
defined by the presence of three or more of the following features at any one time in the preceding
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Text B

WHY NOT JUST PRESCRIBE CODEINE OR ANOTHER OPIOID?

Now that analgesics containing codeine are no longer available OTC (over the counter), patients may
request a prescription for codeine. It is important for GPs to explain that there is a lack of evidence
demonstrating the long-term analgesic efficacy of codeine in treating chronic non-cancer pain. Long-
term use of opioids has not been associated with sustained improvement in function or quality of life,
and there are increasing concerns about the risk of harm.
GPs should explain that the risks associated with opioids include tolerance leading to dose escalation,
overdose, falls, accidents and death. It should be emphasised that OTC codeine-containing analgesics
were only intended for short-term use (one to three days) and that longer-term pain management
requires a more detailed assessment of the patient's medical condition as well as clinical management.
New trials have shown that for acute pain, nonopioid combinations can be as effective as combination
analgesics containing opioids such as codeine and oxycodone. If pain isn’t managed with nonopioid
medications then consider referring the patient to a pain specialist or pain clinic.
Patient resources for pain management are freely available online to all clinicians at websites such as:
• Pain Management Network in NSW - www.aci.health.nsw.gov.au/networks/pain-management
• Australian and New Zealand College of Anaesthetists Faculty of Pain Medicine -
www.fpm.anzca.edu.au
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Text C

Table 2. COMPARISON OF MEDICATION APPROACHES FOR SHORT-TERM MANAGEMENT OF OPIOID WITHDRAWAL (OVER
7 TO 10 DAYS)8-16

Abbreviations: OTC= Over The Counter; RCT= Randomised Controlled Trial

Text D
Preparation for tapering
As
13soon as a valid indication for tapering of opioid analgesics is established, it is
important to have a conversation with the patient to explain the process and
develop a treatment agreement. This agreement could include:
Time frame for the agreement
Objectives of the taper
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READING SUB-TEST – QUESTION PAPER: PART A

CANDIDATE NUMBER:

LAST NAME:

FIRST NAME

MIDDLE NAMES: Passport Photo

PROFESSION: Candidate details and photo will be printed here

VENUE:

TEST DATE:

CANDIDATE DECLARATION
By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way (other than to take the test) or assist any other person to disclose or
use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break any of the rules or
regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you may be disqualified and your results may not be issued at the sole
discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take any further disciplinary action against you and to pursue any other
remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and investigated for malpractice, their personal details and details of
the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE: _________________________________________________________________

TIME: 15 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
DO NOT open this Question Paper or the Text Booklet until you are told to do so.

Write your answers on the spaces provided on this Question Paper.

You must answer the questions within the 15-minute time limit.

One mark will be granted for each correct answer.

Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.

At the end of the 15 minutes, hand in this Question Paper and the text booklet.
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DO NOT not remove OET material from the test room.
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Part A

TIME: 15 minutes

● Look at the four texts, A-D, in the separate Text Booklet.

● For each question, 1-20, look through the texts, A-D, to find the relevant information.
● Write your answers on the spaces provided in this Question Paper.
● Answer all the questions within the 15-minute time limit.
● Your answers should be correctly spelt.

Deep Vein Thrombosis: Questions

Questions 1-7

For each question, 1-7, decide which text (A, B, C or D) the information comes from. You may use any letter
more than once.

In which text can you find information about

Questions 1-7

For each question, 1-7, decide which text (A, B, C or D) the information comes from. You may use any letter
more than once.

In which text can you find information about

1 What GPs should say to patients requesting codeine? _____________

2 Basic indications of an opioid problem? _____________

3 Different medications used for weaning patients off opioids? _____________

4 Decisions to make before beginning treatment of dependence? _____________

5 Defining features of a use disorder?

6 The development of a common goal for both prescriber _____________

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and patient?

7 Sources of further information on pain management?

Questions 8-14

Answer each of the questions, 8-14, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may
include words, numbers or both.

8. What will reduced doses of opioids lead to a reduction of?

9. What is the most effective medication for tapering opioid dependence?

10. How long should over the counter codeine analgesics be used for?

11. When should doctors consider referring a patient to a pain expert or clinic?

12. What might a patient give permission to before starting treatment?

13. What might be increasingly neglected as a result of opioid use?

14. How many Buprenorphine patches are needed to taper from codeine tablets?

Questions 15-20

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Complete each of the sentences, 15-20, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may
include words, numbers or both.

15. The use of Buprenorphine-naloxone requires a ____________________ before treatment.

16. The use of symptomatic medications for the treatment of opioid dependence has been found to have
______________ than tramadol.

17. Different definitions of opioid dependence share the same _____________________.

18. Once it is decided that opioid taper is a suitable treatment the doctor and patient should create a
_________________.

19. Recent research indicates that ___________________ can work as well as combination analgesics
including codeine and oxycodone.

20. The ICD – 10 defines a patient as dependent if they have _______________________ key symptoms
simultaneously.
END OF PART A

THIS QUESTION PAPER WILL BE COLLECTED.

READING SUB-TEST—QUESTION PAPER: Part B & C

CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
MIDDLE NAMES:
Passport Photo
PROFESSION: Candidate details and photo will be printed here.

VENUE:
TEST DATE:

CANDIDATE DECLATION
By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way (other than to take test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice,
break any of the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you may be disqualified and your
results45
TIME: may not be issued at the sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take further disciplinary
MINUTES
action against you and to pursue any other remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and
investigated for malpractice, their personal details of the investigation may be passed to a third party where
INTRUCTIONS
required. TO CANDIDATES
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CANDIDATE SIGNATURE: _______________

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DO NOT open this Question Paper or the Text Booklet until you are told to do so.

One mark will be granted for each correct answer.

Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.

At the end of the 15 minutes, hand in this Question Paper and the text booklet.

HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS

Mark your answers on this Question Paper by filling in the circle using a 2B pencil. Example:
A

Part B

In this part of the test, there are six short extracts relating to the work of health professionals. For questions 1-6, choose
answer (A, B, or C) which you think fits best according to the text.

1. According to the guidelines nurses must

advise the practice as soon as they get to the next home visit.
call the patient to confirm a time before they make a home visit.
inform fellow staff members when they return from a home visit.

Home Visit Guidelines

The nurse will complete all consultation notes in the patient’s home (unless not appropriate),
prior to beginning the next consultation. With a focus on nurse safety, the nurse will call the
practice at the end of each visit before progressing to the next home visit and will also
communicate any unexpected circumstances that may delay arrival back at the practice (more
than one hour).
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Calling from the patient’s home to make a review appointment with the GP is sufficient and can
help minimise time making phone calls. On return to the practice the nurse will immediately
advise staff members of their return. This time will be documented on the patient visit list,
scanned and filed by administration staff.
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2. In progressive horizontal evacuation

patients are evacuated through fire proof barriers one floor at a time.
patients who can't walk should not be moved until the fire is under control.
patients are moved to fire proof areas on the same level to safely wait for help.

Progressive horizontal evacuation

The principle of progressive horizontal evacuation is that of moving occupants from an area
affected by fire through a fire-resisting barrier to an adjoining area on the same level, designed
to protect the occupants from the immediate dangers of fire and smoke (a refuge). The
occupants may remain there until the fire is dealt with or await further assisted onward
evacuation by staff to a similar adjoining area or to the nearest stairway. Should it become
necessary to evacuate an entire storey, this procedure should give sufficient time for non-
ambulant and partially ambulant patients to be evacuated vertically to a place of safety.

3. The main purpose of the extract is to

provide information of the legal requirements for disposing of animal waste.
describe rules for proper selling and export of animal products.
define the meaning of animal by-products for healthcare researchers.

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Proper disposal of animal waste

Animal by-products from healthcare (for example research facilities) have specific legislative
requirements for disposal and treatment. They are defined as “entire bodies or parts of animals
or products of animal origin not intended for human consumption, including ova, embryos and
semen.” The Animal By-Products Regulations are designed to prevent animal by-products from
presenting a risk to animal or public health through the transmission of disease. This aim is
achieved by rules for the collection, transport, storage, handling, processing and use or disposal
of animal by-products, and the placing on the market, export and transit of animal by-products
and certain products derived from them.

4. According to the extract, what is the outcome of reusing medical equipment meant to be used
once?
The maker will take no legal responsibility for safety.
Endoscopy units will save on equipment costs.
There is a higher incidence of cross infection.

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Cleaning and disinfection of endoscopes should be undertaken by trained staff in a dedicated

room. Thorough cleaning with detergent remains the most important and first step in the
process. Automated washer/disinfectors have become an essential part of the endoscopy unit.
Machines must be reliable, effective, easy to use and should prevent atmospheric pollution by
the disinfectant if an irritating agent is used. Troughs of disinfectant should not be used unless
containment or exhaust ventilated facilities are provided.

Whenever possible, “single use” or autoclavable accessories should be used. The risk of transfer
of infection from inadequately decontaminated reusable items must be weighed against the
cost. Reusing accessories labelled for single use will transfer legal liability for the safe
performance of the product from the manufacturer to the user or his/her employers and should
be avoided unless Department of Health criteria are met.

5. According to the extract what is the purpose of the guidelines?

To present statistics on the incidence of melanoma in Australia and New Zealand.
To support the early detection of melanoma and select the best treatments.
To explain the causes of melanoma in populations of Celtic origin.

6. W Foreword
h
aAustralia and New Zealand have the highest incidence of melanoma in the world.
tComprehensive, up-to-date, evidence-based national guidelines for its management are
therefore of great importance. Both countries have populations of predominantly Celtic origin,
sand in the course of day-to-day life their citizens are inevitably subjected to high levels of solar
hUV exposure. These two factors are considered predominantly responsible for the very high
oincidence of melanoma (and other skin cancers) in the two nations. In Australia, melanoma is the
uthird most common cancer in men and the fourth most common in women, with over 13, 000
lnew cases and over 1, 750 deaths each year.
d
The purpose of evidence-based clinical guidelines for the management of any medical condition
eis to achieve early diagnosis whenever possible, make doctors and patients aware of the most
meffective treatment options, and minimise the financial burden on the health system by
pdocumenting investigations and therapies that are inappropriate.
l
oyees declare?

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Every item received from one donor.

Each item from one donor valued at over $50.
Every item from one donor if the combined value is more than $50.

Reporting of Gifts and Benefits

Employees must declare all non-token gifts which they are offered, regardless of whether or not
those gifts are accepted. If multiple gifts, benefits or hospitality are received from the same
donor by an employee and the cumulative value of these is more than $50 then each individual
gift, benefit or hospitality event must be declared.

The Executive Director of Finance will be responsible for ensuring the gifts and benefits register
is subject to annual review by the Audit Committee. The review should include analysis for
repetitive trends or patterns which may cause concern and require corrective and preventive
action. The Audit Committee will receive a report at least annually on the administration and
quality control of the gifts, benefits and hospitality policy, processes and register.

Part C

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In this part of the test, there are two tests about different aspects of health care. For questions 7 – 22, choose the
answer (A, B, C, or D) which you think fits best according to the text

Text 1: The case for and against e-cigarettes

Electronic cigarettes first hit European and American markets in 2006 and 2007, and their popularity has been
propelled by international trends favouring smoke-free environments. Sales reportedly have reached $650 million a
year in Europe and were estimated to reach $3. 6 billion in the US in 2018.Text 1: Questions 7-14

Although research on e-cigarettes is not extensive, a picture is beginning to emerge. Surveys suggest that the vast
majority of those who use e-cigarettes treat them as smoking-cessation aides and self-report that they have been key
to quitting. Data also indicate that e-cigarettes help to reduce tobacco cigarette consumption. A 2011 survey, based
on a cohort of first-time e-cigarette purchasers, found that 66. 8 percent reported reducing the number of cigarettes
they smoked per day and after six months, 31 percent reported not smoking. These results compare favorably with
nicotine replacement therapies (NRTs) like the patch and nicotine gum. Interestingly, a randomized controlled trial
found that even e-cigarettes not containing nicotine were effective both in achieving a reduction of tobacco cigarette
consumption and longer term abstinence, suggesting that “factors such as the rituals associated with cigarette
handling and manipulation may also play an important role. ” Some tobacco control advocates worry that they simply
deliver an insufficient amount of nicotine to ultimately prove effective for cessation.

Nevertheless, the tobacco control community has embraced FDA approved treatments—NRTs, as well as the drugs
bupropion and varenicline —that have relatively low success rates. In a commentary published in the Journal of the
American Medical Association, smoking cessation experts Andrea Smith and Simon Chapman of the University of
Sydney said that smoking cessation drugs fail most of those who try them. “Sadly, it remains the case that by far the
most common outcome at 6 to 12 months after using such medication in real world settings is continuing smoking.
Few, if any, other drugs with such records would ever be prescribed, ” they wrote.

Amongst smokers not intending to quit, e-cigarettes—both with and without nicotine—substantially reduced
consumption in a randomized controlled trial, not only resulting in decreased cigarette consumption but also in
“enduring tobacco abstinence. ” In a second study from 2013, the authors reported that after 24 months, 12. 5
percent of smokers remained abstinent while another 27. 5 percent reduced their tobacco cigarette consumption by
50 percent. Finally, a third study commissioned in Australia has come to the same conclusion, though a high dropout
rate (42 percent) makes these findings questionable.

Users widely perceive e-cigarettes to be less toxic. While the FDA has found trace elements of carcinogens, levels are
comparable to those found in nicotine replacement therapies. Results from a laboratory study released in 2013 found
that that while e-cigarettes do contain contaminants, the levels range from 9 to 450 times lower than in tobacco
cigarette smoke. These are comparable with the trace amounts of toxic or carcinogenic substances found in medicinal
nicotine inhalers. A prominent anti-tobacco advocate, Stanton Glantz, has warned of the need to protect people from
secondhand emissions. While one laboratory study indicates that passive “vaping, ” as smoking an e-cigarette is
commonly known, releases volatile organic compounds and ultrafine particles into the indoor environment, it noted
that the actual health impact is unknown and should remain a chief concern. A 2014 study concluded that e-
cigarettes are a source of second hand exposure to nicotine but not to toxins. Nevertheless, bystanders are exposed
to 10 times less nicotine exposure from e-cigarettes compared to tobacco cigarettes.

There are a number of interesting points of agreement among proponents and skeptics of e-cigarettes. First, all agree
that regulation to ensure the quality of e-cigarettes should be uniform. Laboratory analyses have found sometimes

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wide variation across brands, in the level of carcinogens, the presence of contaminants, and the quality of nicotine.
Second, proponents and detractors of e-cigarettes tend to agree that — considered only at the individual level—e-
cigarettes are a safer alternative to tobacco cigarette consumption. The main concern is how e-cigarettes might shape
tobacco use patterns at the population level. Proponents stress the evidence base that we have reviewed. Skeptics
remain worried that e-cigarettes will become “dual use” products. That is, smokers will use e-cigarettes, but will not
reduce their smoking or quit.

Perhaps most troubling to public health officials is that e-cigarettes will "renormalize" smoking, subverting the
cultural shift that has occurred over the past 50 years and transforming what has become a perverse habit into a
pervasive social behaviour. In other words, the fear is that e-cigarettes will allow for re-entry of the tobacco cigarette
into public view. This would unravel the gains created by smoke-free indoor (and, in some scientifically-unwarranted
instances) outdoor environments. Careful epidemiological studies will be needed to determine whether the individual
gains from e-cigarettes will be counteracted by population-level harms. For policy makers, the challenge is how to act
in the face of uncertainty.

7. What does the writer suggest about the research into e-cigarettes?
Not enough research is being carried out.
Early conclusions are appearing from the evidence.
Too much of the available data is self-reported.
An extensive picture of e-cigarette use has emerged.

8. What explanation does the writer offer for the effect of non-nicotine e-cigarettes?
They deliver an insufficient volume of nicotine to help smoking cessation.
They compare well with patches, nicotine gum and other NRT's.
First time e-cigarette buyers tend to use them

Behavioural elements are significant in quitting smoking.

9. What is the attitude of Andrea Smith and Simon Chapman to the use of smoking cessation drugs?
They approve of and embrace these treatments.
They consider them largely unsuccessful as treatments.
They think they should be replaced with other treatments.

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They believe they should never be prescribed as treatment.

10.What problem with one of the studies is mentioned in paragraph 4?

The research questions the study asked.
The number of participants who left the study.
The similarity of the conclusion to other studies.
The study used e-cigarettes without nicotine.

11.What is "these" in paragraph 5 referring to?

Laboratory study results
Nicotine inhalers
Contamination levels
Tobacco cigarettes

12.Research mentioned in paragraph 5 suggests that

E-cigarettes release dangerous toxins into the air.
E-cigarettes should be banned from indoor environments.
E-cigarettes are more toxic than nicotine replacement therapies
cigarettes present a far greater risk of secondhand exposure to toxins

13.The word uniform in paragraph 7 suggests that e-cigarettes should

Be clearly regulated against.
Only come in one brand.
Be of a standard quality.

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Contain no contaminants.

14.What do both critics and supporters of e-cigarettes agree?

Available research evidence must be reviewed.
E-cigarette use may not result in quitting.
Smoking tobacco is more dangerous than vaping.
E-cigarettes are shaping the public's tobacco use.

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Text 2: Vivisection

In 1875, Charles Dodgson, under his pseudonym Lewis Carroll, wrote a blistering attack on vivisection. He
sent this to the governing body of Oxford University in an attempt to prevent the establishment of a
physiology department. Today, despite the subsequent evolution of one of the most rigorous governmental
regulatory systems in the world, little has changed. A report sponsored by the UK Royal Society, “The use of
non-human primates in research”, attempts to establish a sounder basis for the debate on animal research
through an in-depth analysis of the scientific arguments for research on monkeys.
In the UK, no great apes have been used for research since 1986. Of the 3000 monkeys used in animal
research every year, 75% are for toxicology studies by the pharmaceutical industry. Although expenditure on
biomedical research has almost doubled over the past 10 years, the number of monkeys used for this
purpose (about 300) has tended to fall. The report, which mainly discusses the use of monkeys in biomedical
research, pays particular attention to the development of vaccines for AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis, and to
the nervous system and its disorders. The report assesses the impact of these issues on global health,
together with potential approaches that might avoid the use of animals in research. Other research areas are
also discussed, together with ethics, animal welfare, drug discovery, and toxicology.

The report concludes that in some cases there is a valid scientific argument for the use of monkeys in medical
research. However, no blanket decisions can be made because of the speed of progress in biomedical
science (particularly in molecular and cell biology) and because of the available non-invasive methods for
study of the brain. Every case must be considered individually and supported by a fully informed assessment
of the importance of the work and of alternatives to the use of animals.

Furthermore, the report asks for greater openness from medical and scientific journals about the amount of
animal suffering that occurred in studies and for regular publication of the outcomes of animal research and
toxicology studies. It calls for the development of a national strategic plan for animal research, including the
dissemination of information about alternative research methods to the use of animals, and the creation of
centres of excellence for better care of animals and for training of scientists. Finally, it suggests some
approaches towards a better-informed public debate on the future of animal research.

Although the report was received favourably by the mass media, animal-rights groups thought that it did not
go far enough in setting priorities for development of alternatives to the use of animals. In fact, it
investigates many of these approaches, including cell and molecular biology, use of transgenic mice (an
alternative to use of primates), computer modelling, in-silico technology, stem cells, microdosing, and
pharmacometabonomic phenotyping. However, the report concludes that although many of these
techniques have great promise, they are at a stage of development that is too early for assessment of their
true potential.
The controversy of animal research continues unabated. Shortly after publication of the report, two highly
charged stories were published in the media. A study that used systematic reviews to compare treatment
outcome from clinical trials of animals with those of human beings suggested that discordance in the results
might have been due to bias, poor design, or inadequacies of animals for modelling of human disease.
Although the study made some helpful suggestions for the future, its findings are not surprising. The

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imperfections of animals for study of human disease and of drug trials are documented widely.

The current furore about the UK Government's ban on human nuclear-transfer experiments involving animals
should not surprise us either. This area of research had a bad start when this method of production of stem
cells was labelled as therapeutic cloning, thus confusing it with reproductive cloning - a problem that, surely,
licensing bodies and the scientific community should have anticipated. The possibilities that insufficient
human eggs will be available, and that insertion of human nuclei into animal eggs might be necessary, have
been discussed by the scientific community for several years, but have been aired rarely in public, leaving
much room for confusion

Biomedical science is progressing so quickly that maintenance of an adequate level of public debate on
ethical issues is difficult. Hopefully the sponsors of the recent report will now activate its recommendations,
not least how better mechanisms can be developed to broaden and sustain interactions between science and
the public. Although any form of debate will probably not satisfy the extremists of the antivivisection
movement, the rest of society deserves to receive the information it needs to deal with these extremely
difficult issues.
Text 2: Questions 15 to 22

15.How does the writer characterise Lewis Carroll's attitude to vivisection?

He was in favour of clear regulations to control it.
He felt the Royal Society should not support it.
He was strongly opposed to it.
He supported its use in physiology.

16.The word rigorous in paragraph 1 implies that the writer thinks UK vivisection laws are
Strict and severe
Careful and thorough
Ambiguous and unhelpful
Accurate and effective

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17.What is the major focus of the report mentioned in paragraph 2?

Animal experimentation in the pharmaceutical industry
Recent increases in spending on Biomedical research
Testing new treatments for serious disease on monkeys
Possible alternatives to testing new drugs on animals

18.What is the main conclusion of the report?

Scientific experimentation on monkeys is justified.
Rapid development in biomedicine makes it hard to draw conclusions.
Non-invasive techniques should be preferred in most cases.
Research that requires monkeys should be evaluated independently.

19.What conclusion is drawn about alternative techniques to vivisection?

Developing alternatives should be prioritised.
Transgenic mice are a viable alternative to monkeys.
Many alternative techniques are more promising than animal testing.
They aren't well enough understood yet to adopt for research.

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20.What does the writer claim about the use of animals in medical research?
The limitations of using animals in research are well understood.
Results from too many animal trials are biased.
Human studies are known to be more reliable.
Strong media reaction has kept up the controversy.

21.The phrase a problem in paragraph 6 refers to the

Government licensing of animal experiments.
Confusion between the names of two different methods.
Chortage of human embryos available for experiments.
Prohibition against human nuclear transfer in the UK.

22. The author thinks it is hard to keep the public adequately informed about this research because
The report sponsors have not activated the recommendations.
Of the rapid evolution of biomedical technologies.
Scientists don't interact with the public enough.
Extreme views from opponents cloud the debate.

END OF READING TEST

THIS BOOKLET WILL BE COLLECTED

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WRITING SUB-TEST—TEST BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
MIDDLE NAMES:
Passport Photo
PROFESSION: Candidate details and photo will be printed here.

VENUE:
TEST DATE:

CANDIDATE DECLATION
By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way (other than to take test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break
any of the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you may be disqualified and your results may not
be issued at the sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take further disciplinary action against you and
to pursue any other remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and investigated for malpractice, their
personal details of the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE: ____

INTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
You must write your answer for the Writing sub-test in the Writing Answer Booklet.
You must NOT remove OET material from the test room.

OCCUPATIONAL ENGLISH TEST

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WRITING SUB-TEST: NURSING

TIME ALLOWED: READING TIME: 5 MINUTES

WRITING TIME: 40 MINUTES

Read the case notes below and complete the writing task which follows.

Notes:

Today’s Date
Patient Details:
Name: Bronwyn Green
DOB: 15/03/1948
Widow, no children
Husband died 2007
Lives alone in low set house; no stairs
Patient’s sister lives close and comes to help sometimes
Patient uses community services: Meals on Wheels; A personal carer for cleaning and
shopping.
Uses home oxygen NP 1L
Ex-smoker: 20 cig/day (20 years). Recently stopped smoking.

Medical History COPD since 2003: Takes Tiotropium inhaler 1 puff mane, Fluticasone & Salmeterol
250/25mcg inhaler 2 puff BD
HTN since 1992: Takes Amlodipine 5mg mane, BP stable
Anxiety and depression since 2012: takes Oxazepam 15mg Nocte, Citalopram 10mg
mane.
Recent, patient dx w/ low grade adenocarcinoma and admitted surgical ward, North
West Hospital 18/01/2018
Patient had R/ hemicolectomy 20/01/2018

Post – operative condition 20/01/18 – 27/01/18

Patient using oxygen 2L NP daily.
Very anxious and c/o SOB during mobility. Requires reassurance.

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Able to walk 10m with 4w/ walker Assist x 1

Takes regular analgesic: Paracetamol 1g QID and PRN Endone 2.5mg (Max dose
20mg) PRN for surgical pain.
Takes regular laxative: Coloxyl and Senna 2 tabs BD. Bowels open regularly.
Urgent incontinence of urine: Wears pull up pad.
Lost 5kg after operation. Poor appetite.
Regular dietician review; HP diet and monitor oral intake.
Observation stable. Sats 98% with NP2L. Aim Sats 88-91%. The goal is weaning
oxygen to NP1L.
Abdo wound: pain well controlled with paracetamol, minimal exudate.

Recent Nursing Notes:

30/03/18
Patient became very anxious during shower.
Required prompting and moderate assistance.
Sat 98% with NP2L. Suggested patient ↓ oxygen 1L, but patient refused to change.
Patient required encouragement with mobility.
Abdo wound redressed. Only minimal exudate & reduced pain.
Poor appetite. Notified Dietician.

04/04/18
Patient only required minimal assistance with shower and ADL’s
Sat 91% NP1L
Mobilizing with 4w/ walker, required supervision
SOB with long distance, and temporary required NP2L after mobility.
Mood and appetite improved.
ACAT (Aged Care Assessment Team) completed for TCP (Transition Care Program)
this morning.
Plan or OT HV (home visit) today.

05/02/18
Patient requires bathroom and toilet modification as a result of HV; applying rails.
OT will organize prior to discharge
Patient is keen to go home with community service
Existing home oxygen need to be checked prior to discharge,

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10/02/2018
Patient is able to walk with (Single point stick) SPS. Supervision required
Mood is stable, appetite ↑
Occasional incontinence of urine, still wears pull up pad.
OT reports home modifications completed
Plan for discharge 11/02/2018
Patient’s sister will escort to home by taxi
Patient is happy to take own medication at home
Requires 3/7 dressing change for abdo wound
Monitor anxiety & O2 usage
WRITING TASK:
You are Registered Nurse at Spirit Hospital. Using the information, write a referral letter to Nursing
Director, North West Transition Care Program Community Service 12 West St Northbridge, QLD, 4543

In your answer:

● Expand the relevant notes into key sentences

● Do not use note form
● Use letter format
The body of the letter should be approximately 180-200 words.

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WRITING SUB-TEST—ANSWER BOOKLET

CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
MIDDLE NAMES:
Passport Photo
PROFESSION: Candidate details and photo will be printed here.

VENUE:
TEST DATE:

CANDIDATE DECLATION
By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way (other than to take test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break
any of the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you may be disqualified and your results may not
be issued at the sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take further disciplinary action against you and
to pursue any other remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and investigated for malpractice, their
personal details of the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE: ____

TIME ALLOWED

READING TIME: 5 MINUTES

WRITING TIME: 40 MINUTES

INTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Reading time: 5 minutes
During this time you may study the writing task and notes. You MUST NOT write, highlight, underline or
make any notes.
36 time: 40 minutes
Writing
Use the back page for notes and rough draft only. Notes and rough draft will NOT be marked.
Please write your answer clearly on page 1 and page 2.
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Please record your answer on this page.

(Only answers on Page 1 and Page 2 will be marked.)

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__________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________

OET Writing sub-test - Answer booklet 1

Please record your answer on this page.

(Only answers on Page 1 and Page 2 will be marked.)

__________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________
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__________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________

OET Writing sub-test - Answer booklet 2

Please record your answer on this page.

Space for notes and rough draft. Only your answers on Page 1 and Page 2 will be marked.

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SPEAKING SUB-TEST
CANDIDATE NUMBER:
LAST NAME:
FIRST NAME:
MIDDLE NAMES:
Passport Photo
PROFESSION: Candidate details and photo will be printed here.
VENUE:
TEST DATE:

CANDIDATE DECLATION
By signing this, you agree not to disclose or use in any way (other than to take test) or assist any other person to
disclose or use any OET test or sub-test content. If you cheat or assist in any cheating, use any unfair practice, break
any of the rules or regulations, or ignore any advice or information, you may be disqualified and your results may not
be issued at the sole discretion of CBLA. CBLA also reserves its right to take further disciplinary action against you and
to pursue any other remedies permitted by law. If a candidate is suspected of and investigated for malpractice, their
personal details of the investigation may be passed to a third party where required.

CANDIDATE SIGNATURE: ____

INTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Please confirm with the interlocutor that your roleplay card number and colour match the Interlocutor card before
you begin.

Interlocutor to complete only

ID No: Passport: ⃞ National ID: ⃞ Alternative ID approved: ⃞
Speaking sub-test:
ID document sighted? ⃞ Photo match? ⃞ Signature match? ⃞ Did not attend? ⃞
Interlocutor name: ____
Interlocutor Signature: ____

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OET SPEAKING 1

SETTING Hospital Emergency Department

NURSE You are talking to the son/ daughter of 74-year-old female patient
admitted half an hour ago following a CVA. The medical registrar has
not yet arrived to examine her.
You are responsible for monitoring the patient’s condition (BP, vital
signs , etc). Her condition has not deteriorated since admission, but she
is comatose.

TASK ⱷ Explain to the son/daughter the reason for the monitoring

procedures.

ⱷ Reassure him/her that no active medical intervention is

possible/ appropriate at this stage

ⱷ Sympathize with the relative’s concern and admit your

uncertainty about the prognosis.

OET SPEAKING 2

SETTING GP Clinic
NURSE You are speaking to a 40-year-old man/woman who has come to the
clinic for routine check-up. He/she is travelling overseas next month
with work, and the GP asked you to advice him/her on
recommended travel Immunization prior to international travel.
TASK ⱷ Find out his/her vaccination history

ⱷ Explain that she/he needs to get vaccinated against typhoid,

hepatitis and tetanus

ⱷ Explain and emphasize the importance of following the

schedule of shots ( 2 weeks before the expected travel day)

ⱷ Stress out that he/she needs to come back after six months for
the booster

ⱷ Reassure him/her that the shots are not painful and are

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generally well

OET SPEAKING 1

SETTING Hospital Emergency Department

PATIENT Your 74-year-old mother has just been admitted to the Emergency after
a severe stroke. She is unconscious and her breathing is laboured. You
are afraid that she will die.
The doctor has not yet seen her and the nursing staff have carried out
monitoring but seem unconcerned.
You are increasingly agitated and feel that your mother is being
neglected.

TASK ⱷ Convey your anxiety to the nurse and demand to know why so
little is being done.

ⱷ Ask about appropriate procedures for your mother’s condition

and possible outcomes.

ⱷ Be insistent.

OET SPEAKING 2

SETTING GP Clinic
PATIENT You are a 40-year-old man/woman and work as an International
Business Manager. Your company is sending you to Cambodia and
Vietnam next month for 4 weeks . your doctor suggested you to
speak to a nurse in the clinic regarding vaccinations prior to
travelling overseas.

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TASK ⱷ Explain when asked, that you were given flu vaccines, Hep B
and tetanus as a child ( approx. 30 years ago)

ⱷ Ask the nurse why she need to get vaccinated again stressing
that you have been managing well without the medications all
these years and that you will be staying at a five star resort, so
the risk of infection is unlikely to happen/occur.

ⱷ Resist the idea of getting injections because you feel they are
painful and uncomfortable

ⱷ Reluctantly agree to get the shots

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