APPSC TEST NO 1_44084681_2024_11_2722_42

SLNS IAS ACADEMY
TEST NO 1
1) How does the Indian political system compare to british parliamentary system
1. India has adopted a parliamentary system of governance

2. India fully adopted the british system
3. The constitution holds supreme power in india.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: India has not fully adopted the British parliamentary system. The British system
is unitary, while India's system is mostly federal. Additionally, Britain has a monarchy and
India has a republic. Furthermore, India's constitution is written and holds supreme power,
unlike in Britain. Therefore, options 1 and 3 are correct.
2) Consider the following statements about the ninth schedule of the Indian constitution
1. It was not part of original constitution

2. It contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be challenged in courts
3. Laws under the ninth schedule have absolute immunity from judicial review.
How many statements are correct?

A. only one
B. only two
C. all three
D. none
ANS) OPTION B
The Schedule contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be challenged in courts
and was added by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951.The first Amendment
added 13 laws to the Schedule. Subsequent amendments in various years have taken the
number of protected laws to 284 currently.It was created by the new Article 31B, which
along with Article 31A was brought in by the government to protect laws related to agrarian
reform and for abolishing the Zamindari system.While Article 31A extends protection to
‘classes’ of laws, Article 31B shields specific laws or enactments.While most of the laws
protected under the Schedule concern agriculture/land issues, the list includes other
subjects.Article 31B also has a retrospective operation which means that if laws are inserted
in the Ninth Schedule after they are declared unconstitutional, they are considered to have
been in the Schedule since their commencement, and thus valid.Although Article 31B
excludes judicial review, the apex court has said in the past that even laws under the Ninth
Schedule would be open to scrutiny if they violated Fundamental Rights or the basic
structure of the Constitution.
3) Consider the following statements with respect to supreme court verdict on same sex
marriage in India
1. Then supreme court held that marriage is a statutory right not the fundamental right
guaranteed by the constitution
2. court upheld the regulation of central adoption resource authority which preludes
same sex couples from adoption of a child
3. The court recognised the civil union between same sex couples.
How many statements given above are correct

A. only one
B. only two
C. all three
D. none
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation:Statement 3 is incorrect The court held that it cannot mandate the state to
recognize a civil union.A civil union refers to legal status that allows samesex couples specific
rights and responsibilities normally conferred upon married couples.US,Sweden etc had
recognised civil union until same sex marriage was legalised in their country
4) Filing an affidavit by candidate with all the information about his criminal,financial and
educational details effectuates the fundamental right of citizen under
A. article 21
B. article 19
C. article 32
D. article 14
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: A voter has the elementary right to know full particulars of a candidate who is
to represent him in the parliament and such right to get information is universally
recognised natural right flowing from the concept of democracy and an integral part of
Article 19(1)(a) of the constitution of india
5) With reference to state emblem of india,consider the following statements
1. The state emblem is an adaptation of the lion capital of Ashoka at Sarnath

2. The state emblem was adopted by the government of india in the first sitting of
constituent assembly
3. The motto Satyameva jayathe which means Truth alone Triumphs written in
Devanagari script above the profile of lion capital is part of national emblem
4. The bell shaped lotus of lion capital was omitted during the adaption
How many statements is/are correct

A. only one
B. only two
C. only three
D. all four
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: The emblem of india was adopted by the government of india on 26th januvary
1950,the day become a republic.
6) For which of the following committes of the constituent assembly Dr.Rajendra prasad served
as chairman
1. Rules of procedure committee

2. steering committee
3. finance and staff committee
4. Adhoc committee on national flag
5. order of business committee
Choose the correct answer

A. all are correct
B. 1,2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 3 are correct
D. 1,2,3 and 5 are correct
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation:Kanaiyalal Maneklal Munshi was the first Chairman of the Order of Business
Committee in the Constituent Assembly of India.
7) Consider the following statements
1. Citizenship act provides for creation of national register of citizens

2. The amendment in citizenship provisions in constitution requires simple majority
3. An applicant is ineligible for OCI card if his/her parents or grandparents have ever
been a coitizen of Pakistan,Bangladesh or Afghanistan.
which of the above statements is/are correct

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. only 1
D. All of the above
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation: According to section 7A of OCI card rules.an applicant is not eligible for the OCI
card,if he his parents grand parents have ever been citizen of Pakistan or
Bangladesh.statement 3 is incorrect.section 14A was inserted in citizenship act,1955 in 2004
providing for the compulsory registration of every citizen of india and issue of a national
identity card to him/her.it also states that central government may maintain a national
register of Indian citizens.hence statement 1 is correct
8) Consider the following statements regarding language provisions in the constitution
1. A language can be recognised by the state if the governor is satisfied that a

substantial proportion of the population of a state desire the recoginition of a
language
2. The supreme court hears only those who petition or appeal in English
3. The constitution imposes a duty upon the centre to promote the spread and
development of the hindi language
4. The forms,styles and expression of official language in 8th schedule are to be used
for the enrichment of the hindi language

A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 2,3 and 3
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: when the president is satisfied that a substantial ptropotion of the population
of a state desire the use of any language spoken by them to be recognised by that state,then
he may direct that such language shall also be officially recognized in that state.hence
statement 1 is incorrect
9) Consider the following statements regarding Right to work in india
1. Right to work is a statutory right

2. Right to work is a constitutional right
3. if national rural employment guarantee act 2005,is withdrawn right to work will
cease to exist.

A. 2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3
D. all of the above
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation:Right to work ;the universal declaration of human rights includes the right to
work in the international convenant on economic,social and cultural rights.In india:Though
the right to work is not constitutional right but it was accorded statutory rights through
MNREGA act.under MNREGA ,a person can hold the state accountable for not fufilling the
right by demanding an unemployment allowance.But if the NREGA,Act 2005 is withdrawn
the statutory right to work will not be there.Hence statement 1 and 3 are correct
10) Consider the following statements with regards to detention laws in india present in part III
of the constitution
1. A person may be detained without trail on any of the following grounds like security
of state,maintainance of public order ,maintainance of supllies and essential services
and defences,foreign aggairs or security of India
2. A detainee under preventive detention cannot appeal against his detention 3) Till
now no law has been enacted under preventive detention.
Which of the given statements is/are correct

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None
ANS) Option C
Explanation: A person may be detained without trail only on any or some of the above
grounds.A detainee under the preventive detention can have no right of personal liberty
guaranteed by Article 19 or Article 21. To prevent reckless use of preventive
detention,certain safeguards are provided in the constitution .statement 1 is correct .these
rae not available to enemy aliens.hence statement 2 is incorrect.state as well as parliament
can make law on preventive detention preventive law made by parliament 1) national
security act,1980 hence statement 3 is incorrect
11) Which one of the following statements about the provisions of the constitution of india is
correct
A) constitution defines who minotities are

B) only linguistic, ethnic and religious minorities mention under Article 30
C) Minorities can establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
D) An educational institution established by a religious minority loses its minority status
on receiving finanacial aid from the government
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation:Article 30- Rights of minorities to establish and administer educational

institution.it is also called charter of educational rights.statement c is correct. The
constitution doesnot define minority statement a is wrong.
12) Consider the following statements on constitutional morality
1. it has been defined in the constitution

2. As per supreme court,it has to be limited to literal text only

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation:the term constitutional morality has not been defined in the constitution.so
statement 1 is not correct.As per supreme court,the magnitude of constitutional morality is
not confined to literay text which contains rather it embraces within itself virtues of a wide
magnitude.so statement 2 is not correct
13) Consider the following statements regarding the cultural and educational rights given in the
cultural and educational rights given in the Indian constitution
1. the protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities and does not extend to
any section of citizens as under article 29
2. The right to agitate for the protection of the language doesnot amount to corrupt
practice under representation of peoples act,1951
3. Institutions that seek only recognition from the state and not aid are subject to the
regulatory power the state
4. the right conferred on minorities under article 30 is not reverse discrimination in
favour of minorities

A. 1,2 and 4
B. 1 and 2
C. 3 and 4
D. 1,2,3 and 4
ANS) OPTION D
1. Article 26 gives Right to religious institutions subject to public order ,morality and
other fundamental rights
2. Religious institutions have the fundamental rights to own and acquire movable and
immovable property
3. Article 27 lays down that no person shall be compelled to pay taxes for the
promotion of any particular religion
4. Religious institutions recognised by the state are prohibited for religious
instructions.
which of the above statements given above is/are correct

A. 1,2 and 4
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 2,3 and 4
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: article 26 are also subject to public order,morality and health but not subject to
other provisions relating to fundamental rights.hence statement 1 is incorrect.Article 28
distinguished between four types of educational institutions a) instituitions wholly
maintained by the stateb) institutions administered by the state established under any
endowmentor trust c) institutions recognised by the state d) institutions receiving aid from
the state.in c and d, religious instruction is permitted on a voluntary basis.hence statement 4
is incorrect
15) Reservation in india is not applicable in
1. promotion in government jobs for OBCs

2. election to loksabha
3. promotion in government jobs for SCs and STs
4. Elections to the upper house
5. Election to local bodies
6. Reservation based on economic criteria.
select the correct answer using code given below

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 5
C. 3 and 5
D. 1 and 4
ANS) OPTION D
16) Consider the following statements regarding bonded labour
1. The prohibition of forced labour is a fundamental right under Indian constitution

2. India has also ratified the ILO abolition of forced labour convention,1957
3. Bonded labour system act,1976 provides vigilance committee at the district level
4. Under the scheme for rehabilitation of bonded labourers,financial assistance to the
extent of five lakhs is given to bonded labour.

A. all of the above
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1,2 and 3
ANS) OPTION D
17) Following statements have been made regarding the issue of Resrvation among Other
backward classes(OBCs)
1. Article 340 of the Indian constitution lays down condition for the appointment of a
commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes
2. The idea of sub categorization among OBCs was put forward first time by mandal
commission report of 1970
3. At present there is no sub categorisation among OBCs anywhere in the country 4)
Reservation to OBCs is a form of vertical reservation

A. 1 and 4
B. 1,2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. none
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation: According to NCBC ,11 states have subcategorised OBC for reservations in state
owned institutions.hence statement 3 is incorrect.the first backward class commission
report of 1955 had proposed sub categorisation of OBCs into backward and extremely
communities.in the mandal commission report of 1979 a dissent note by member LR naik
proposed sub categorisation in intermediate and depressed backward classes.however there
was no case for sbucategorisation made in final report.hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Reservation for SC,Stand other backward classes is referred to as vertical reservation
18) Which of the following articles under the constitution of india promote the idea of social
security
1. article 40
2. Article 41
3. Article 42
4. Article 43
Select the correct answer using code given below

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1,2 and 4
C. 2,3 and 4
D. All of the above
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: Article 40 of the Constitution of India is a Directive Principle of State Policy that
states the state should:Organize village panchayats .Give village panchayats the powers
and authority to function as self-government units. Article 41 -The State shall, within the
limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the
right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age,
sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.Article 42 of the Indian
Constitution guarantees the right to just and humane working conditions and maternity
relief. It was passed in the Constituent Assembly on November 23, 1948. Article 43 of the
Indian Constitution states that the state should ensure that workers have a living wage,
decent working conditions, and access to leisure and cultural opportunities
19) The schedule castes and tribes (prevention of atrocities)Act,1989 in Indian legal
jurisprudence
1. it seeks to achieve the objectives of Article 17 of the constitution 20

2. it is implemented by the respective state governments and union territories
administrations
3. under the act the civil servants may be punished for negligent of duties.
which of the statements given above is/are correct

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1,2 and 3
ANS) OPTION D
20) India has well established Affirmative action policy.the policy can be best described to be
based on the which of the following principle
A. The principle of absolute equality

B. The principle of equal opportunity
C. the principle of equal welfare
D. the principle of democracy
ANS) OPTION B
21) In india,separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoyed by
A. the preamble of the constitution

B. a directive principle of state policy
C. the seventh schedule
D. the conventional practice
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: Article 40 of the constitution exhorts for separation of judiciary from

executive.the stae shall take steps to separate judiciary from the executive in the public
services of the state (Article 50)
22) Consider the following
1. citizenship
2. provisional parliament
3. elections
4. fundamental rights.
how many of the above provision of the constitution came into effect on Nov 26th,1949
A) only one
B) only two
C) only three
D) All four
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: Some provisions of the Constitution came into force on Nov 26, 1949 itself, viz.
Citizenship, Elections, provisional Parliament, temporary and transitional provisions, and
short titles contained in Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392 and
393. Fundamental rights came into force on 26th January,1950
23) Consider the following statements with reference to Union Territories.
1. Part VII of the constitution deals with Union Territories in India

2. Administrator of the Union Territories is the agent of the President of India
3. Andaman and Nicobar Island comes under Madras High Court in Judiciary concern
4. The Governor of Punjab Acts as an administrator of Chandigarh Union Territory.
How many of the above statements is/are correct

A. only one
B. only two
C. only three
D. All four
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: statement 1 is incorrect Part VII of the Indian Constitution was repealed by the
Constitution (7th Amendment) Act of 1956. It dealt with the Part-B States in the Indian
Union, which were former princely states or groups of princely states. Ever since June 1984,
the Governor of Punjab has been functioning as the Administrator of Union Territory of
Chandigarh. His official residence is Raj Bhavan, Punjab in Chandigarh. The Andaman and
Nicobar Islands come under the jurisdiction of the Calcutta High Court. The Calcutta High
Court is India's oldest high court and was established in 1862. It has a permanent bench in
Port Blair, though its seat is still in Calcutta. an administrator of a union territory (UT) is an
agent of the President of India. The President is the chief administrator of UTs and appoints
an administrator to act on his behalf.
24) Match the following pairs
1. USA - presidential system

2. France – parliamentary system
3. Italy -presidential system
4. Britain – parliamentary system
5. Japan -semi presidential system.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 5
D. 1,2,3,4 and 5
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: France has a semi-presidential system (a system of government in which a

president exists alongside a prime minister and a cabinet, with the latter being responsible
to the legislature of the state.), whereas the Japan has Parliamentary system.
1. Mahatma Gandhi was part of the constituent assembly

2. objective resolution was introduced by BR Ambedkar
3. DR,Rajendra prasad is elected as president of constituent assembly.
select the correct answer using codes given below

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi was not part of the Constituent Assembly. 13th December,
1946 Objective Resolution was introduced by Jawahar Lal Nehru. Dr.Rajendra Prasad was
elected as President of the Constituent Assembly.
26) Which of the following statements are correct at the time of enactment of the constitution
1. it was adopted in 26th January 1950

2. At that time,it contained the preamble,395 articles and 8 schedules.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. none of the above
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: It was adopted on 26 November 1949. Out of a total 299 members of the
Assembly, only 284 were actually present on that day and signed the Constitution. At that
time, it contained the Preamble, 395 Articles, and 8 Schedules. The Preamble was
enacted after the entire Constitution was already enacted to align with the philosophy of
the Constitution
27) Which of the following fundamental rights as enshrined in the Constitution of India belong
only to the citizens?
1. Article 19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech

2. Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty)
3. Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination)
4. Article 16 (Equality of opportunity).
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,3 and 4
D. 1 and 4 only
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation:Fundamental rights available only to the citizens are:Article 15, Article 16,
Article 19, Article 29, and Article 30.
28) Consider the following statements about the constitution of india
1. the preamble of the constitution of india that india that is bharat,shall be a union of
states
2. the constitutent assembly unanimously accepted the use of name Bharat.
which statements is/are correct

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2
D. none
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: Article 1 was read out as india,that is bharat,shall be union of states,a division
arose among the members.so statement 2 is incorrect.
29) As per article 12 of the Indian constitution,state includes the following
1. The government of India

2. the government and legislatures of states
3. All local authorities within or outside the territoty of india or under the control of
government of India
4. It does not include statutory authorities.
which of the above statements are correct

A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation: Article 12 of the Indian Constitution defines "state" as including the following:
The Government and Parliament of India,The Government and Legislature of each state ,All
local or other authorities within India's territory ,All local or other authorities under the
control of the Government of India
30) Consider the following pairs regarding federalism by scholars and their opinions
1. K.C Where – Co-operative federalism

2. Granville austin – Quasi federalism
3. Morris jones – Bargaing federalism
4. Ivor Jenning – federalism with centralizing authority.
select the correct answer using codes given below

A. Only one pair
B. only two pairs
C. Only three pairs
D. all four pairs
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: K. C. Wheare described the Indian Constitution as quasi-federal.

Quasi Federal means a federal form of government where more power is given to the central
government than the state government. Granville Austin called Indian federalism as
"Cooperative federalism". Cooperative federalism means a combination of cooperation and
interdependence between the Centre and the States to ensure smooth governance of the
country. Granville Austin called it “Cooperative federalism” (need for national integrity and
unity). Morris Jones defined it as 'Bargaining Federalism'. Ivor Jenning termed it as
'Federalism with Centralizing tendency'.
31) According to ARTICLE 3 of the constitution of india,the parliament may by law :
1. Declare war on any country

2. Alter the boundaries of any state
3. Increase the area of any state
4. establish an autonomous council within any state.

A. 3 only
B. 1,2 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: formation of new states and alteration of areas,boundaries or names of existing

states.parliament may by law a) Form a new State by separation of territory from any State
or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any
State b) increase the area of any State c) diminish the area of any State d) alter the
boundaries of any State e) alter the name of any State;
32) Consider the following pairs of Schedule and Content of the Constitution of India:
1. First Schedule - Forms of Oaths or Affirmations

2. Third Schedule II - Allocation of seats in the Council of States
3. Fifth Schedule III - Provision's related to the administration of Scheduled Areas and
Scheduled Tribes
4. Ninth Schedule IV - Provision's related to the administration of tribal areas in certain
States
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
A. only one
B. only two pairs
C. only three pairs
D. All four pairs
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation: First schedule- It lists the states and union territories and their corresponding
territories. There are 28 states and 8 Union territories in the country. The third schedule of
the Indian Constitution contains the forms of oath and affirmation for Union Ministers of
India, Parliament Election Candidates, Members of Parliament (MPs), Supreme Court Judges,
Comptroller and Auditor General, State Ministers, State Legislature Elections' Candidates,
State Legislature Members. The Fifth Schedule provides for the administration of tribal Areas
in ten states in India, including Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh,
Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Telangana. The Ninth
Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be
challenged in courts. It was added by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951. The 13
laws were added to the schedule through the first Amendment in 1951.
1. there has been a central legislation restricting or regulating religious conversions

2. The individual right to freedom of conscience and religion cannot be extended to
construe a collective right to proselytize
3. freedom of conscience under the constitution is subject to a law providing for
welfare and reform

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1 and 3 only
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: Religious conversion is the adoption of a set of beliefs identified with one
particular religious denomination to the exclusion of others. Thus "religious conversion"
would describe the abandoning of adherence to one denomination and affiliating with
another. There has been no central legislation restricting or regulating religious conversions.
Over the years, several states have enacted ‘Freedom of Religion’ legislation to restrict
religious conversions carried out by force, fraud, or inducements. Hence, Statement 1 is
incorrect. The Constitution confers on each individual the fundamental right to profess,
practice and propagate his religion. Proselytizing is the act of trying to convert another
individual from the convertee's religion to the converter's religion. The individual right to
freedom of conscience and religion cannot be extended to construe a collective right to
proselytize. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. Freedom of conscience and free profession,
practice and propagation of religion are subjected to public order, morality, health and other
provisions relating to fundamental rights. Further, the State is permitted to: (a) regulate or
restrict any economic, financial, political or other secular activity associated with religious
practice; and (b) provide for social welfare and reform or throw open Hindu religious
institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
34) Apart from framing the Constitution and enacting ordinary laws, the Constituent Assembly
also
1. Ratified India's membership of the Commonwealth

2. Adopted the national flag and anthem
3. Elected the first President of India
Select the correct answer using the codes below

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly also performed the following functions: It ratified
the India's membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949. It adopted the national flag on
July 22, 1947. It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950. It adopted the national
song on January 24, 1950. It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on
January 24.1950
35) In which case considered fundamental duties are to be equally important as fundamental
rights
A. minerva mills case vs union of India

B. shankari prasad case
C. keshavananda Bharati case
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation: Minerva Mills V. Union of India, considered Fundamental duties to be equally

important as fundamental rights. Article 51-g Supreme Court often employs fundamental
duties as a means to interpret laws. One fundamental duty frequently used by the Supreme
Court is Article 51-g which imposes upon citizens the duty to (insert 51 (g) whenever a
problem of ecology is brought before the court, the court is bound to bear in mind article
48A of the Constitution and article 51A
1. Right to rest and leisure

2. Right to own property
3. Right to equal access to public services
4. Right to education.
which of the above are Human rights under Universal declaration of human rights?
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2,3 and 4
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation- Statement 1 is correct. "The Universal Declaration of

Human Rights is an international document adopted by the United Nations General
Assembly and there are 30 Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR). • The Universal
Declaration includes civil and political rights, like the right to life, liberty, free speech, and
privacy. The Universal Declaration also includes economic, social, and cultural rights, like the
right to social security, health, and education." Statement 1 is correct. "Under Article 23 of
UDHR, Everyone has the right to rest and leisure, including reasonable limitation of working
hours and periodic holidays with pay. Statement 2 is correct. Under Article 26 of UDHR,
Everyone has the right to own property alone as well as in association with others. No one
shall be arbitrarily deprived of his property. Statement 3 is correct. Under Article 21 of
UDHR, Everyone has the right to take part in the government of his country, directly or
through freely chosen representatives. Everyone has the right to equal access to public
service in his country." Statement 4 is correct. Under Article 26 of UDHR, Everyone has the
right to education. Education shall be free, at least in the elementary and fundamental
stages. Elementary education shall be compulsory. Technical and professional education
shall be made generally available and higher education shall be equally accessible to all on
the basis of merit
37) Constitution of india prescribes which of the following given below
A. procedure established by law

B. due process of law
C. both 1 and 2
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation: The Constitution of India prescribes “procedure established by law” and not
“Due Process of Law” i.e., it does not go into reasonableness of action in deciding
constitutionality of it
38) With reference to the fundamental duties of the constitution,consider the following
statements
1. they are confined to citizens of india only

2. they are non justicable in nature
3. All fundamental duties were added by 42nd amendment of the constitution

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: Fundamental duties were added by 42nd amendment of the constitution

based on the recommendation of Swaran Singh committee. Fundamental duties extend to
Indian citizens only and to the foreigners. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Fundamental duties mentioned in article 51A, part IV A of the constitution are non
justiciable. It means they can't be enforced in court of law. Hence statement 2 is correct. The
42nd amendment of the constitution added only one article i.e, 51A which consists of 10
duties. Later one more Fundamental duty was added by the 86th amendment act. The
Fundamental Duty added by the 86th amendment act directs citizens to provide
opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
39) Consider the following features of constitution of india
1. All india services

2. Appointment of governor
3. seventh schedule
4. Rigidity of the constitution
how many of the above are unitary features of Indian constitution

A. only one
B. only two
C. only three
D. all of the above
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: Only Statement 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct: Unitary features of the Constitution:
Strong Centre,States not indestructible, Single constitution,Flexibility of the Constitution,
Single citizenship, Integrated Judiciary,All-India services, Integrated Audit Machinery,
Appointment of Governor,Integrated election machinery
40) Which of the following best describe the provision which states that a statue should not be
interpreted or constructed in isolation but as a whole,so as to remove any inconsistency or
repugnancy
A. Doctrine of harmonious constitution

B. Doctrine of eclipse
C. Doctrine of pith and substance
D. Doctrine of severability
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: Harmonious construction. Harmonious construction is a principle of statutory

interpretation used in the Indian legal system. It holds that when two provisions of a legal
text seem to conflict, they should be interpreted so that each has a separate effect and
neither is redundant or nullified. The Doctrine of Eclipse says that any law inconsistent with
Fundamental Rights is not invalid. It is not dead totally but overshadowed by the
fundamental right. Pith and Substance means the true nature of law. The real subject matter
is challenged and not its incidental effect on another field. The doctrine has been applied in
India also to provide a degree of flexibility in the otherwise rigid scheme of distribution of
powers The doctrine of severability means that a law is void only “to the extent of the
inconsistency or contravention” with the relevant Fundamental Right according to Article 13
of the Indian Constitution
41) With reference to the migrants in india,consider the following statements
1. The citizenship act of 1955 defines illegal migrants in India

2. India has no legal provision to deport a foreigner
3. India is signatory of united nations refugee convention.
which of the above statements are correct

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation: Citizenship Act 1955 defines the illegal migrants in India as o Foreign national
who enters India on valid travel documents and stays beyond their validity, or o Foreign
national who enters without valid travel documents. Hence statement 1 is correct. The
Foreigners Act, 1946, gives the central government the right to deport a foreign national.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect. India has not signed the United Nations refugee convention
and protocol. Hence refugee policy is not governed by international convention. India does
not have a refugee law. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
42) Economic justice as an objective of the Indian constitution has been provided in :
A. the preamble and fundamental rights

B. the preamble and directive principles of state policy
C. the fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: "Economic Justice" is one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution provided
in the Preamble, which lays out the fundamental principles and goals of the Constitution. It
is also included in the Directive Principles of State Policy. The Directive Principles of State
Policy outlined in Part IV of the Constitution lays out certain guidelines for the government
to follow in its efforts to establish a just and equitable society. These principles include the
promotion of economic and social welfare, and the promotion of a just and humane society.
The state is required to strive to minimize economic and social inequalities, promote the
welfare of the people and ensure that the citizens have adequate means of livelihood which
is the fundamental aspect of Economic Justice.
43) Which one of the following pairs of the schedule in the constitution of india and its content
is not correctly matched?
Schedule – Content
A. Eighth schedule – languages
B. Second schedule – the forms of oaths and affirmations
C. Fourth schedule – Allocation of seats in the council of states
D. Tenth schedule – provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: Option 1: Eighth Schedule and Languages. This is a correct match. The Eighth
Schedule of the Constitution lists the recognized languages of India.Option 2: Second
Schedule and The forms of oaths and affirmations. This is the correct answer. The Second
Schedule of the Constitution actually deals with the salaries and allowances of the President,
Governors, Judges, and other public officials, and not the forms of oaths and
affirmations.Option 3: Fourth Schedule and Allocation of seats in the Council of States. This
is a correct match. The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution contains provisions regarding the
allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to each state and union
territory.Option 4: Tenth Schedule and Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of
defection. This is a correct match. The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution deals with anti-
defection laws and sets out the provisions for disqualification of members of Parliament and
state legislatures on the grounds of defection
1. Indra Sawhney judgement allows reservations in appointments and promotions

2. 77th constitutional +amendment act introduce 16(4A) allowing states to grant
reservations in promotions .
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. none
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: Indra Sawhney Judgment, 1992:In this nine judge bench judgement held that
Article 16(4) of the Constitution, which allows reservation in appointments, does not extend
to promotions.Court upheld the constitutionality of the 27% reservation but put a ceiling of
50% unless exceptional circumstances warranting the breach, so that the constitutionally
guaranteed right to equality under ARTICLE 14 would remain secured.Carry forward rule is
valid but it is subject to 50%. There should be no reservation in the promotions.The court
clarified that Article 16(4) is not a separate rule that overrides Article 16(1). The article 16(1)
is a fundamental right, article 16(4) is an enabling provision.Article 16(1): It states that there
shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or
appointment to any office under the State . 77th Amendment Act (1995): This act
empowered states to maintain existing reservation policies for promoting SC/ST
employees.It introduced a new article, 16(4A), allowing states to grant reservations in
promotions as long as they believe SC/STs are underrepresented.
45) which of the following is correct for republican form of government
1. the republican form of government is a government by the people directly or

through their representative
2. it is a government responsible to those who constitute it
3. it is a government representative in character and responsive to the will of the
people
4. it is a government limited in functions and limited in power.

A. only one
B. only two
C. only three
ANS) OPTION D
46) Equality before law mentioned in article 14 connotes
1. no person is above law

2. equal treatment under equal circumstances
3. absence of any privileges
4. like should be treated alike without any discrimination.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 1,2,3 and 4
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: Article 14 of the Indian Constitution clearly states that the state/country shall
not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within
the territory of India. This law is applicable to all citizens and foreigners. Statement 1 and 3
are covered under equality of law whereas statement 2 and 4 is a concept under equal
protection of law. Hence option b is the correct answer.
47) Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties contained in the
Constitution of India are correct ?
1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction

2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption
3. Fundamental Duties became a part of the Constitution in accordance with the
recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee
4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the citizens of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
ANS) Option D
Explanation: Option 1 states that Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ
jurisdiction. This statement is incorrect. Fundamental Duties are not enforceable in a court
of law, hence they cannot be enforced through writ jurisdiction.Option 2 states that
Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption. This
statement is correct. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd
Amendment Act in 1976.Option 3 states that Fundamental Duties became a part of the
Constitution in accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. This
statement is incorrect. While the Swaran Singh Committee did recommend the inclusion of
Fundamental Duties, they were actually added to the Constitution through an amendment
and not solely based on the committee`s recommendations.Option 4 states that
Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the citizens of India. This statement is correct.
Fundamental Duties are specific obligations and responsibilities that only apply to the
citizens of India, and not to foreigners or non-citizens
48) Which of the following are key elements of democratic government
1. resolution of conflict interest

2. participation of citizens in politics and civic life
3. absolute power of government
4. rule by the people
5. the rule of law

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1,2,3,4 and 5 only
D. 1,2,4 and 5 only
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: A modern democracy has certain important features which are enshrined
In its constitution. 1. Rule by the People: A democracy is a political system where the people
choose the government through regular, free and fair elections. During elections people
choose their representatives from competing parties. The people thus decide who will
represent them in parliament. Thus, in a democracy, the people are the highest form of
political authority. The leaders of government hold power only temporarily, i.e., as long as
they enjoy the trust of the people. 2. Justice and Equality: Justice and equality are the two
main pillars of democracy. Justice is to give each one what is due to him or her as a person.
Equality is defined by our constitution as “every citizen is equal before the law… there shall
be no discrimination by virtue of caste, sex, religion, wealth, etc.” To enjoy the equality there
should be justice. 3. Guarantee of basic human right to every citizen: In a democracy, every
citizen has certain basic rights or fundamental rights that are guaranteed by the constitution
of the country. These rights cannot be taken by the state. They include- The right to freedom
of speech and action, The right to equality, The right to freedom of religion, The right to
information, The right to travel and settle anywhere in the country, The right to associate,
The right to assemble freely. 4. The rule of law: In a democracy, there are several laws to
limit the power of the government, to maintain order and protect the rights of citizens. All
citizens are equal in the eyes of law. No one is above the law, not even a king or an elected
president. No one may be discriminated against on the basis of their race, religion, ethnic
group or gender. No one may be arrested or imprisoned, without adequate reason. Torture
or illtreatment of prisoners is forbidden. This is known as rule of law 5. Separation of
powers: To ensure smooth and impartial governance, most democracies provide for the
separation of the three bodies of government- the executive, the legislature and the
judiciary. 6. Governance for the public good: In a democracy the government is elected to
work for the good of the public. 7. Participation of citizens in politics and civic life: The citizen
of a democracy participate actively in its functioning. They are well informed about the
issues facing the country and how they want the issues addressed. The success of a
democracy depends on citizen’s peaceful participation. But absolute power of the
government is a feature of anarchic or dictatorship form of government. Hence option d is
the correct answer.
49) Preamble idea of equality is achieved through
1. laws aimed at ending the zamindari,untouchability etc

2. reservation for socially and educationally backward classes.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both1 and 2
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: The term ‘equality’ means the absence of special privileges or “Equal status”
(ex- Ending Zamindari, banning untouchability to end special privileges) to any section of the
society, and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any
discrimination (this means social justice approach through reservation to address historical
injustice).
50) Which of the following rights are fundamental rights are fundamental rights provided by the
constitution
1. right to work
2. right to constitutional remedy
3. right to property
4. right to vote.

A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 both
D. 3 only
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation: Right to vote and right to property are constitutional rights under Article 326
and Article 300a. Right to property from Fundamental rights was removed by 44th
Constitutional amendment act (article 31). Right to Work is legal right under National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act NREGA. Right to constitutional remedy is provided under art 32
of the Constitution. Under it the citizens can directly go to the Supreme Court for violations
of the fundamental right. The article gives the Supreme Court power to issue following writs:
1. Habeas corpus: A writ of habeas corpus means that the court orders that the arrested
person should be presented before it. It can also order to set free an arrested person if the
manner or grounds of arrest are not lawful or satisfactory. 2.
Mandamus: This writ is issued when the court finds that a particular office holder is not
doing legal duty and thereby is infringing on the right of an individual. 3. Prohibition: This
writ is issued by a higher court (High Court or Supreme Court) when a lower court has
considered a case going beyond its jurisdiction. 4. Quo Warranto: If the court finds that a
person is holding office but is not entitled to hold that office, it issues the writ of quo
warranto and restricts that person from acting as an office holder. 5. Certiorari: Under this
writ, the court orders a lower court or another authority to transfer a matter pending before
it to the higher authority or court. Hence option a is the correct answer.
51) With respect to the states sovereignity,consider the following statements
1. it makes state undisputable supreme authority within its territory and beyond
2. Chinese incursion in Ladakh is an example of threat to its internal sovereignity.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: Sovereignty: It is considered central element of the state. It is basically an

undisputed legal authority over a certain territory and people belonging to it is exercised
through the government. It includes: a) Protecting the territory and population within it is of
the important function of the state to ensure its sovereignty. b) Sovereignty distinguished
state from other social organisations. As these social institutions in spite of having laws,
rules, norms do not have “SUPREME LEGAL AUTHORITY” to enforce it
(nothing beyond or outside state) c) State is the SOURCE OF LAWS, to be obeyed by the
citizens d) State is governed by laws that circumscribe and regulate its working particularly in
a democracy e.g., Indian constitution Types of sovereignty: 1. Internal sovereignty: It
basically means supremacy acceptable and exercisable over all people and organisation in its
territory. Tools to improve it may be voluntary obedience in form of duty also coercion like
income tax laws. 2. External sovereignty: Recognition of states sovereignty in its territory and
over its people by other states and international organisations.
1. puttuswamy vs union of India

2. AK Gopalan case
3. Menaka gandhi case
How many of the above are related related to Article 21

A. only one
B. only two
C. All three
D. None of the above
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: Interpretation of Article 21 Judicial intervention has ensured that the scope of
Article 21 is not narrow and restricted. It has been widening by several landmark
judgements. A few important cases concerned with Article 21: 1. AK Gopalan Case (1950):
Until the 1950s, Article 21 had a bit of a narrow scope. In this case, the SC held that the
expression ‘procedure established by law’, the Constitution has embodied the British
concept of personal liberty rather than the American ‘due process’. 2. Maneka Gandhi vs.
Union of India Case (1978): This case overturned the Gopalan case judgement. Here, the SC
said that Articles 19 and 21 are not watertight compartments. The idea of personal liberty in
Article 21 has a wide scope including many rights, some of which are embodied under
Article 19, thus giving them ‘additional protection’. The court also held that a law that comes
under Article 21 must satisfy the requirements under Article 19 as well. That means any
procedure under law for the deprivation of life or liberty of a person must not be unfair,
unreasonable or arbitrary. 3. Francis Coralie Mullin vs. Union Territory of Delhi (1981): In this
case, the court held that any procedure for the deprivation of life or liberty of a person must
be reasonable, fair and just and not arbitrary, whimsical or fanciful. 4. Olga Tellis vs. Bombay
Municipal Corporation (1985): This case reiterated the stand taken earlier that any
procedure that would deprive a person’s fundamental rights should conform to the norms of
fair play and justice. Unni Krishnan vs. State of Andhra Pradesh (1993): In this case, the SC
upheld the expanded interpretation of the right to life. The Court gave a list of rights that
Article 21 covers based on earlier judgements. Some of them are: 1. Right to privacy 2. Right
to go abroad 3. Right to shelter 4. Right against solitary confinement 5. Right to social justice
and economic empowerment 6. Right against handcuffing 7. Right against custodial death 8.
Right against delayed execution 9. Doctors’ assistance 10. Right against public hanging 11.
Protection of cultural heritage 12. Right to pollution-free water and air 13. Right of every
child to a full development 14. Right to health and medical aid 15. Right to education 16.
Protection of under-trials
1. Attempted to reduce the power of supreme court and high court

2. It laid down fundamental rights to citizens
3. Terms like social,secular and integrity added to preamble.
How many of the above are added to constitution through 42nd constitutional amendment
A. only one
B. only two
C. All three
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: The 42nd amendment act is also called The Constitution Act, 1976 is termed as
one of the most controversial acts in the history of amendments to
Indian Constitution. It amended/ introduced various provisions given below:
Attempted to reduce the power of the Supreme Court and High Courts. Laid down
Fundamental Duties for citizens and made alteration to seventh schedule. Terms-
Socialist, Secular, and Integrity added to the Preamble
54) What might be reasons for keeping directive principles of state policy as non justicable
1. constitution did not want fiture government to be bound by certain policy decisions
2. government had limited resources.
select the correct answer using code given below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: These guidelines are ‘non-justiciable’ i.e., parts of the Constitution that cannot
be enforced by the judiciary. Those who framed our Constitution thought that the moral
force behind these guidelines would ensure that the government would take them seriously.
Besides, they expected that the people would also hold the governments responsible
for implementing these directives. So, a separate list of policy guidelines is included in the
Constitution
55) Which of the following provisions of constitution are not directly enforceable in court of law
by the power under the constitution itself
1. fundamental rights
2. fundamental duties
3. Preamble
4. directive principles of state policy.

A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2,3 and 4 only
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: OPTION B Fundamental rights are alone enforceable in the court of law
whereas fundamental duties, Directive principles of state policy and preamble are not
enforceable in the courts of law directly. Hence, other than statement 1, all are not true.
However, the Parliament can make some of these non-enforceable provisions enforceable
i.e., enforceable by laws made by the state. Ex- the Prevention of Insults to National Honour
Act, 1971 is an Act of the Parliament of India which prohibits the desecration of or insult to
the country's national symbols, including the National Flag, the constitution, the National
Anthem and map of India including contempt of Indian constitution.
56) Which of the following was/were committees associated with the Constituent Assembly of
India?
1. Welfare State Ideals committee

2. A States Committee for Negotiating with the States
3. A provincial Constitution Committee
Select the correct answer using the codes below

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with

different tasks of constitution-making. Out of these, eight were major committees
and the others were minor committees. The names of these committees and their chairmen
are given below: Major Committees: Union Powers Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru Union
Constitution Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru Provincial Constitution Committee - Sardar Patel
Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights,
Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas - Sardar Patel. Rules of Procedure Committee
- Dr. Rajendra Prasad States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) - Jawaharlal
Nehru Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
57) Which of the following erstwhile provinces had the largest membership in the
Constituent Assembly of India?
A) United Provinces
B) Madras
C) West Bengal
D) Bombay
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation: Both the Indian provinces and Princely states were the members of constituent
assembly of India. Former taken together were greater in number than the princely states.
United Provinces had 55 members, Madras had 49, West Bengal 19 and Bombay 21. Out of
all princely states, Travancore had the highest membership of 6. Other princely states had 1-
4 members in the constituent assembly of India
58) Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament

Reason (R): Preamble is not considered as a part of the constitution.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A
B. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A
C. A is correct, but R is incorrect
D. Both A and R are incorrect
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: The Supreme Court has held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. As
per the SC, the Preamble can be amended under A368, subject to the condition that no
amendment is done to the 'basic features'. The Preamble has been amended only once so
far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words-
Socialist, Secular and Integrity-to the Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid
59) The idea of fundamental duties was borrowed from which country’s constitution and was
added to the Indian constitution on recommendation of which committee
A. USA,sarkaria committee
B. USSR , Swaran singh committee
C. Germany ,Rajmannar committee
D. Japan,Ashok mehta committee
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: In 1976, these developments led the Congress Party to appoint the Swaran
Singh Committee to review of the Constitution. The Committee, among its
recommendations said that certain Fundamental Duties and obligations which every citizen
owed the nation should be included in the Constitution. In 1976, the Parliament accepted
the recommendations and in the same year, a chapter of fundamental duties under Article
51 A was introduced in our Constitution.Soon after the emergency ended and a new
Government assumed office in 1977, the Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978 was
passed, whereby many of the amendments brought in by the 42nd amendment were
undone. 44th Amendment did not disturb these provisions. Thus, article 51A commands the
confidence of all the political parties and has remained on the statute book for years.
1. president and legislators elected separately for a fixed terms

2. single executive
3. Responsibility
4. separation of powers
How many of the above are features of presidential form of government

A. only one
B. only two
C. only three
D. all four
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: Features of presidential form of Government: 1)Single executive

2)President and legislators elected separately for a fixed term 3)Non- Responsibility
4) Single Membership 5) Domination of president 6)No dissolution of lower house
7)Separation of powers
61) Which of the following commission appointed by the government of india has
recommended to struck the theory of basic structure
A. Narasimhan committee
B. venkatachaliah committee
C. justice Balakrishnan committee
D. justice chandrachud committee
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: Acknowledge around the Basic Structure doctrine In the year 2000 a
commission to review the working of the Constitution was appointed by the Government of
India under the chairmanship of a retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, Justice
Venkatachaliah. The commission stuck to the theory of basic structure and did not suggest
any measures that would endanger the basic structure of the Constitution
62) Who among the following dubbed directive principles of state policy as Pious superfluities?
A. KT shah
B. TT krishamachari
C. sir ivor Jennings
D. N.Srinivasan
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation: While K T Shah dubbed them as ‘pious superfluities’ and compared them with
‘a cheque on a bank, payable only when the resources of the bank
permit’. Even as T T Krishnamachari described the Directives as ‘a veritable dustbin of
sentiments.’ According to N Srinivasan, ‘the Directives are neither properly classified nor
logically arranged. The declaration mixes up relatively unimportant issues with the most vital
economic and social questions. It combines rather incongruously the modern with the old
and provisions suggested by the reason and science with provisions based purely on
sentiment and prejudice.’ Conservative: According to Sir Ivor Jennings, Part IV of the
Constitution expresses ‘Fabian Socialism without the socialism’. He opined that the
Directives ‘are deemed to be suitable in India in the middle of the twentieth century
63) Consider the following pairs committess and chairman
1. provisional constitution committee - sardar vallabhai patel

2. union powers committee - Jawaharlal nehru
3. rules of procedure committee -Dr.Rajendra prasad.
How many of the above pairs are correct
A. only one
B. only two pairs
C. All three pairs
D. none of the pairs
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: Major Committees: Union Powers Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru ,

Union Constitution Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru , Provincial Constitution
Committee - Sardar Patel , Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar , Advisory
Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas -
Sardar Patel , Rules of Procedure Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad , States
Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) - Jawaharlal Nehru , Steering Committee
- Dr. Rajendra Prasad
64) With reference to freedom of religion in india,consider the following statements
1. it includes freedom not follow any religion

2. the right Is available to the citizens of india only
3. the right is absolute and state cannot interfere with it
which of the statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
Answer: OPTION A
Explanation: Article 25 provides for the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice
and propagation of religion. Freedom of conscience allows a person not to follow any
religion. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Right to freedom of religion is also available to the
foreign nationals residing in the territory of India and is not just restricted to the Indian
citizens. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The reference to Hindus shall be construed as
including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion, and the
reference to Hindu religious institutions shall be construed accordingly. Hence, statement 3
is correct.
65) With regard to hate speech in india,which of the following is/are correct
1. hate speech is not defined in the indian penal code( IPC)

2. the constitution of india allows for absolute freedom of speech without any
restrictions
3. section 7 of protection of civil rights act 1955 penalizes incitement to untouchability
through words,speech or visible representation
4. the indian constitution does not provide any restrictions on hate speech

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1,2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation: There is no clear definition of what constitutes a “Hate Speech” in the Indian
Penal Code (IPC). The IPC contains various sections, such as 153A, 153B, and 298, that deal
with speech or words that could create mischief, outrage religious beliefs or cause
imputations to national integration. On the other hand, Article 19(2) of the Indian
Constitution provides for freedom of speech, but subject to "reasonable restrictions" for
preserving public order, decency or morality. Similarly, section 7 of the Protection of Civil
Rights Act, 1955 penalizes incitement to and encouragement of untouchability through
words, speech or visible representation. Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct while
statements 2 and 4 are incorrect.
66) With reference to fundamental duties in constitution,consider the following statements
1. they are confined to citizens of india only

2. They are non-justicable in nature
3. All the fundamental duties were added by 42nd amendment of the constitution.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation: Fundamental duties were added by 42nd amendment of the constitution based
on the recommendation of Swaran Singh committee.Fundamental duties extend to
Indian citizens only and to the foreigners. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Fundamental duties mentioned in article 51A, part IV A of the constitution are non
justiciable. It means they can't be enforced in court of law. Hence statement 2 is correct. The
42nd amendment of the constitution added only one article i.e, 51A which consists of 10
duties. Later one more Fundamental duty was added by the 86th amendment act. The
Fundamental Duty added by the 86th amendment act directs citizens to provide
opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
1. According to LM singvi ,the DPSPs are the life giving provisions of the constitution
2. according to BR Ambedkar, the directive principles are like instrument of
instructions.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2 only
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: According to L.M. Singhvi: "The Directives are the life-giving provisions of the
Constitution. They constitute the stuff of the Constitution and its philosophy of social
justice.” They lay down the basic philosophy or ideal of democratic socialism. Taken
together, they inscribe the objectives of a modern welfare state as distinguished from a
merely regulatory or negative State.According to Dr Ambedkar, "The Directive Principles are
like the Instruments of Instructions which were issued to the Governor General and the
Governors of colonies and to those of India by the British Government under the 1935
Government of India Act. What is called 'Directive Principles' is merely another name for the
Instrument of Instructions. The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature
and the executive."
1. N Goplaswamy Ayyangar and BN Rau were the members of the drafting committee
of constituent assembly
2. DR BR Ambedkar served the chairman of Drafting committee in his capacity as law
minister
3. The members of the constituent assembly which drafted the constitution of india
were elected by the legislative assemblies of various provinces.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: Among all the committees of the Constituent Assembly, the most important
committee was the Drafting Committee set up on August 29, 1947. It was this committee
that was entrusted with the task of preparing a draft of the new Constitution. It consisted of
seven members. They were: 1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (Chairman) 2. N. GopalaswamyAyyangar 3.
Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar 4. Dr. K.M. Munshi 5. Syed Mohammad Saadullah 6. N.
Madhava Rau (He replaced B.L. Mitter who resigned due to ill-health) 7. T.T. Krishnamachari
(He replaced D.P. Khaitan who died in 1948). Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the then Law Minister,
piloted the Draft Constitution in the Assembly. He took a very prominent part in the
deliberations of the Assembly. He was known for his logical, forceful and persuasive
arguments on the floor of the Assembly. He is recognised as the ‘Father of the Constitution
of India’. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. Sir B.N. Rau was appointed as the constitutional
advisor (Legal advisor) to the Constituent Assembly. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect. The
members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India were to be
elected by provincial assemblies under the system of proportional representation. Hence,
Statement 3 is correct.
69) Consider the following pairs
A. Social safeguards – Article 17,23

B. economic safeguards - Article 23,24 and 46
C. political and service safeguards – Reservation in public offices.
how many of the above are correct with regards to schedule castes
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: Social Safeguards: Article 17, 23, 24 and 25 (2) (b) of the constitution enjoys
upon the state to provide social safeguards to Scheduled Castes. Economic Safeguards:
Article 23, 24 and 46 form part of the economic safeguards for the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes. Political and Service safeguards: Reservation in public offices as well
legislature.
70) In essence, what does' Due Process of Law' mean?
A. The principle of natural justice

B. The procedure established by law
C. Fair application of law
D. Equality before law
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation:The concept of due process is fundamental to ensuring justice and fairness in

legal proceedings. Due process refers to the legal requirement that the state must respect
all legal rights owed to a person. This includes the right to fair procedures and protections
before depriving an individual of life, liberty, or property.The principle of natural justice is
closely linked to due process, emphasizing the need for fairness, impartiality, and the
opportunity to present a defense. It ensures that decisions are made based on unbiased and
just procedures, which upholds public confidence in the legal system.
1. protected by the constitution

2. sacrosanct in nature
3. rights are justiciable
4. suspension of rights
5. Restriction of laws.
how many of the above are features of Indian constitution
A. Only two
B. Only three
C. Only four
D. all of the above
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation:Protected by Constitution: Fundamental Rights, unlike ordinary legal rights, are

protected and guaranteed by the constitution of the country.Some of the rights are available
only to the citizens while others are available to all persons whether citizens, foreigners or
legal persons like corporations or companies. Not Sacrosanct, Permanent, or Absolute: They
are not sacrosanct or permanent and the Parliament can curtail or repeal them but only by a
constitutional amendment act.The rights are not absolute but qualified.The state can impose
reasonable restrictions on them, however, the reasonability of the restrictions is decided by
the courts. Rights are Justiciable: The rights are justiciable and allow persons to move the
courts for their enforcement, if and when they are violated.Any aggrieved person can
directly go to the Supreme Court in case of violation of any fundamental right. Suspension of
Rights: The rights can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except
the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.Further, the six rights guaranteed by Article 19
can be suspended only when there is an external emergency war or external aggression)
[and not on the ground of armed rebellion (i.e., internal emergency]. Restriction of Laws:
Their application to the members of armed forces, paramilitary forces, police forces,
intelligence agencies and analogous services can be restricted or abrogated by the
Parliament (Article 33).Their application can be restricted while martial law (military rule
imposed under abnormal circumstances) is in force in any area.
72) With reference to preamble,consider the following statements
1. preamble can be amended under Article 368 of the constitution,but the basic
structure of preamble cannot be amended
2. Till now,preamble is only amended twice through executive powers.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation:42nd Amendment Act, 1976: After the judgment of the Kesavanand Bharati
case, it was accepted that the preamble is part of the Constitution.As a part of the
Constitution, preamble can be amended under article 368of the Constitution, but the basic
structure of the preamble can not be amended.As of now, the preamble is only amended
once through the 42nd constitutional amendment act,1976.The term ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’,
and ‘Integrity’ were added to the preamble through 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.‘Socialist’
and ‘Secular’ were added between ‘Sovereign’ and ‘Democratic’.‘Unity of the Nation’ was
changed to ‘Unity and Integrity of the Nation’
1. TMA pai case

2. Bal patil case
How many of the above judgements are related to rights of minorities.

select the correct code given below
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation:Judgements related to determination on minority status: TMA Pai Case: The SC

had said that for the purposes of Article 30 that deals with the rights of minorities to
establish and administer educational institutions, religious and linguistic minorities have to
be considered state-wise. Bal Patil Case: In 2005, the SC in its judgment in ‘Bal Patil’ referred
to the TMA Pai ruling. The legal position clarifies that henceforth the unit for determining
status of both linguistic and religious minorities would be ‘state
74) Which district in india is will be officially declared indias first constitutional literate district
A. Kurnool
B. Kollam
C. Thiruvananthapuram
D. Sangareddy
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: Kollam will be officially declared India’s first Constitution literate district by
Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan and the authorities say the constitution literacy campaign will
continue even after that. The Citizen Constitution Literacy campaign: The campaign is
launched to educate the residents of the Kollam district of Kerela about the basics of
constitution. It aims to make Kollam district a constitutionally literate district
75) Which Articles have been inserted to provide reservations for econmicaly weaker sections
(EWS) in 2019?
A. Articles 15 (1) and 16 (1)

B. Articles 15 (2) and 16 (2)
C. Articles 15 (4) and 16 (4)
D. Articles 15 (6) and 16 (6)
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: Economically Weaker Section (EWS) Quota: The 10% EWS quota was introduced
under the 103rd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2019 by amending Articles 15 and 16. It
inserted Article 15 (6) and Article 16 (6). It is for economic reservation in jobs and admissions
in educational institutes for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). It was enacted to promote
the welfare of the poor not covered by the 50% reservation policy for Scheduled Castes
(SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs) and Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC).It
enables both the Centre and the States to provide reservations to the EWS of society
What are the Related provisions in the Constitution: Article 16(1) and 16(2) assure citizens
equality of opportunity in employment or appointment to any government office. Articles
15(4) and 16(4) state that the equality provisions do not prevent the government from
making special provisions in matters of admission to educational institutions or jobs in favor
of backward classes, particularly the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs).
Article 16(4A) allows reservations to SCs and STs in promotions, as long as the government
believes that they are not adequately represented in government services. Article 15(6): Up
to 10% of seats may be reserved for EWS for admission in educational institutions. Such
reservations will not apply to minority educational institutions. Article 16(6): It permits the
government to reserve up to 10% of all government posts for the EWS
76) With reference to project 39A, consider the following statements
1. it is criminal reforms advocacy group with National law university,Delhi

2. it is inspired by Article 39-A of indian constitution.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation:According to the Annual Death Penalty Report, 2022 by Project 39A, a criminal
reforms advocacy group with the National Law University, Delhi. trial courts awarded 165
death sentences in 2022, the highest in over two decades.Project 39A:It is inspired by Article
39-A of the Indian Constitution, a provision that furthers the intertwined values of equal
justice and equal opportunity by removing economic and social barriers.These are
constitutional values of immense importance given the manner in which multiple disparities
intersect to exclude vast sections of our society from effectively accessing justice.Using
empirical research to re-examine practices and policies in the criminal justice system, Project
39A aims to trigger new conversations on legal aid, torture, forensics, mental health in
prisons, and the death penalty. Article 39 a,The State shall secure that the operation of the
legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular,
provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that
opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or
other disabilities. The article was inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment)
Act, 1976
77) Which of the following statements regarding the constituent assembly is/are correct?
1. it was not based on adult franchise

2. it is resulted from the direct election
3. It was multi-party body
4. it worked through several committees.

A. 1,2 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1,2,3 and 4
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: Composition of Constituent Assembly (CA).Scheme - based on the cabinet
mission plan, Composition: 389 members (29.6 to British India & 93 to Princely states),
British India – 292 governor province and 4 chief commissioner provinces.Seats allotted in
proportion to population. Muslim, Sikh and general seats in proportion to their population
Representatives of each community were to be elected by the members of that community
in the provincial assembly. Representatives of provincial assembly are nominated by heads
of the Princely states. CA is partly elected and partly nominated .Elected members are
indirectly elected by provincial assembly.Nominations are by heads of princely states.
78) The purpose of uniform civil code incorporated in Article 44 of Indian constitution is for
A. National security
B. Cultural Integration
C. National unity
D. Welfare of minorities
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: Uniform Civil Code: UCC is one that would provide for one law for the entire
country, applicable to all religious communities in their personal matters such as marriage,
divorce, inheritance, adoption etc. Article 44 of the Constitution lays down that the state
shall endeavour to secure a UCC for the citizens throughout the territory of India.Article 44
is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). DPSP as defined in Article 37, are not
justiciable (not enforceable by any court) but the principles laid down therein are
fundamental in governance.
79) Which first Indian state to implement uniform civil code
A. Kerala
B. Uttarakhand
C. Maharastra
D. Jammu and Kashmir
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: Origin and History: The British government's 1835 report in colonial India called
for uniform codification of Indian law, including crimes, evidence, and contracts. However,
the Lex Loci Report of October 1840 suggested that personal laws of Hindus and Muslims
should be excluded from this codification. As British rule progressed, the B N Rau Committee
was formed in 1941 to codify Hindu law, leading to the enactment of the Hindu Succession
Act in 1956. UCC in States: UCC is one that would provide for one law for the entire country,
applicable to all religious communities in their personal matters such as marriage, divorce,
inheritance, adoption etc.Goa’s Portuguese Civil Code of 1867 is an example of a common
family law prevalent in a State. The promulgation of the UCC emerges as a positive obligation
and not duty of the State under Article 44 of the Constitution in the Directive Principles of
State Policy (DPSP). Article 44 says “the State shall endeavour to secure a UCC for the
citizens throughout the territory of India”.
80) Which one of the following is the correct combination of languages included in the eighth
schedule of the constitution of India
A. Nepali,konkani,Tulu and Santhali

B. Santhali,Urdu,Konkani and Maithili
C. Santhali,konkani,Bhojpuri and Urdu
D. Dogri,konkani,bhojpuri and Urdu
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: Official Languages of India:The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution lists

the official languages of the republic of India. It consists of 22 languages: Assamese, Bengali,
Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya,
Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri.Of these
languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution.Sindhi language was added by the
21st Amendment Act of 1967. Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were included by the 71st
Amendment Act of 1992. Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added by the 92nd
Amendment Act of 2003 which came into force in 2004.
81) Which of the following statements are true for the Fundamental Right to Life and Personal
liberty as guaranteed under article 21 of the constitution of India?
1. The Right is available to citizens as well as aliens

2. It covers protection against arbitrary executive and legislative action.
3. It includes the right to live with human dignity.
4. It can be taken away according to the procedure established by law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1,2 and 3 only
B. 2,3 and 4 only
C. 1,2,3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: The Fundamental Right to Life and Personal Liberty, guaranteed under Article
21 of the Constitution of India, has certain characteristics. Option 1 states that the right is
available to citizens as well as aliens. This is true because Article 21 does not differentiate
between citizens and aliens when it comes to the right to life and personal liberty. Option 2
states that the right covers protection against arbitrary executive and legislative action. This
is also true as Article 21 protects individuals from any arbitrary action by the executive or
legislative authorities. Option 3 states that the right includes the right to live with human
dignity. This is true as the Supreme Court of India has interpreted Article 21 to include the
right to live with human dignity. Option 4 states that the right can be taken away according
to the procedure established by law. This is true as Article 21
allows for the deprivation of life and personal liberty but only through a procedure
established by law.
82) Consider the following pairs cases and judgements
1. Unnikrishnan vs state of Andhra Pradesh – Supreme court held that children under
the age of 14 have the fundamental right to free education
2. st.stephen college vs Delhi university – supreme court held that minority educational
institutions enjoy the right to reserve not more than 50% of its seats in favour of its
own community
3. k.puttuswamy vs union of india – court held that Right to privacy is a fundamental
right.
select the correct pair using code given below

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: In 1993, the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment in the Unnikrishnan JP vs

State of Andhra Pradesh & Others held that Education is a Fundamental right flowing from
Article 21. Tapas Majumdar Committee (1999) was set up, which encompassed insertion of
Article 21A
83) Consider the following pairs sources and features borrowed
1. Australia – cocurrent list

2. United states – Fundamental rights
3. British – Bicameral legislature
4. USSR – Fundamental duties.
select the correct code given below

A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,3 and 4
D. 1,2,3 and 4
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: A) Australia-Concurrent List, Joint sitting of both the Houses of

Parliament B) United states - Fundamental Rights, Independent Judiciary,
Impeachment of President, Judicial review, Removal of Supreme Court and High
Court judges and post of Vice-president C) British - Parliamentary govt., Rule of Law, Single
Citizenship, Cabinet System, Parliamentary privileges, Bicameralism, and prerogative writs D)
USSR - Fundamental Duties and the ideal of justice (social, economic and political) in the
Preamble
84) Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution'
of a country?
A. It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

B. It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
C. It defines and limits the powers of government
D. It secures social justice, social equality and social security
ANS) OPTION C
Explanation: The chief purpose of a constitution is to establish the fundamental principles,

structure, and functions of a government and to define the rights and freedoms of
individuals within a country. Constitutions serve as the supreme law of the land and provide
a framework for governance, ensuring the balance of power,protecting individual rights, and
guiding the functioning of the state
85) What was the exact Constitutional Status of the Indian Republic on 26-1-1950 when the
Constitution came into force?
A. A Democratic Republic
B. A Sovereign Democratic Republic
C. A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
D. A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: The Constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950 was a Sovereign
Democratic Republic as the words – Socialist and Secular were added to the Preamble by the
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
86) with reference to Article 17, Consider the following statements
1. it abolishes practice of untouchability and forbids practice in any form

2. The constitution defines what constitutes untouchability.
Select the correct answer using code given below

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation: Article 17 of the constitution abolishes practice of untouchability and forbids its
practice in any form. Untouchability is a criminal offence and punishable in accordance with
law. The constitution doesn’t define what constitutes untouchability.
87) consider the following statements
1. preamble,fundamental duties and direct principles of state policy are enforceable in

court of law
2. central government can make some of the non-enforceable provisions enforceable.

A. 1 ONLY
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2
Ans) OPTION D
Explanation: Fundamental rights are alone enforceable in the court of law whereas
fundamental duties, Directive principles of state policy and preamble are not enforceable in
the courts of law directly. Hence, other than statement 1, all are not true. However, the
Parliament can make some of these non-enforceable provisions enforceable i.e.,
enforceable by laws made by the state. Ex- the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act,
1971 is an Act of the Parliament of India which prohibits the desecration of or insult to the
country's national symbols, including the National Flag, the constitution, the National
Anthem and map of India including contempt of Indian constitution.
88) consider the following pairs
1. Part-I – fundamental rights

2. Part -III – Panchayath raj
3. Part-IX – citizenship
4. Part-II – The union and its territory.
How many of the above pairs are correct

A. only two pairs
B. only three pairs
C. All four pairs
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: Part I—The Union and Its territories is a compilation of laws pertaining to the
constitution of India as a country and the union of states that it is made of. This part of the
Indian constitution contains the law in establishment, renaming, merging or altering the
borders of the states or union territories. The Fundamental Rights in India enshrined in part
III (Article 12– 35) of the Constitution of India guarantee civil liberties such that all Indians
can lead their lives in peace and harmony as citizens of India Part IX of the Constitution was
inserted by the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992. It contains provisions for
local self government at the rural level Citizenship in India is governed by Articles 5 – 11
(Part II) of the Constitution. The Citizenship Act, 1955 is the legislation dealing with
citizenship.
89) which of the following is/are correct pairs with regards to acceptance in the Indian
constitution
1. America – post of vice president

2. Canada – the concept of union for the central government
3. South Africa – election method of rajya sabha
4. Ireland – Nomination method of the members of the rajya sabha by the president
who have done special work in specific area
Select the correct code given below

A. ONLY 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 1,2 and 4
D. 1,2,3 and 4
ANS) OPTION D
90) How many of the following does the preamble to the constitution of india explicitly provide
for
1. To secure social,political and economic justice

2. To promote and protect the liberty of thought,expression,belief faith and worship
3. To assure the dignity of the individual
4. to render the national service when called upon.
How many of the above statements is/are correct

A. only one
B. Only two
C. All three
ANS) OPTION C
91) consider the following statements
1. indra sawhney vs union of india (1992) the supreme court has held that reservations
could only be provided at entry and not in matters of promotion
2. reservation in the matter of promotions in public posts is not a fundamental right
3. there is no need to collect quantifiable data on the backwardness of the schedule
tribe and schedule caste for reservation in promotion.
which of the above statements regarding reservation in india is/are correct
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. all of the above
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: recently,the supreme court has ruled that reservation in the matter of
promotions in public posts is not fundamental right.hence statement 2 is correct. In jarnail
singh vs lachhmi narain gupta case of 2018,the supreme court held that reservation in
promotions doesnot require the stae to collect quantifiable data on the backwardness of the
schedule castes and schedule tribes.hence statement 3 is correct
92) consider the following statements regarding the fundamental rights
1. a person whose land has been acquired by the government then he can reach out to
the supreme court under right to constitutional remedy
2. The state legislatures can modify the application of fundamental rights to security
agencies within its jurisdiction
3. Right to freedom of conscience and free profession,practice and propagation of
religion is only provided to the citizens of the country.

a) 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1,2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: Article 33 empowers only the parliament and not the state legislatures to
modify the application of fundamental rights to security agencies and others statement 2 is
incorrect. Right to property was removed from the fundamental right under 44 th CA and
made a constitutional right under article 300-A.Thus in this case one cant go directly to the
supreme court under the fundamental right to constitutional remedy violation
93) Indian federalism is
1. coming together federalism

2. holding together federalism
3. An agreement between the constituent units to setup a federal structure

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: Article 1 of the Indian constitution describes india as a union of states I.e it is
not due to agreement between states as in the USA,rather it is more of a constitutional
devolution of power to the state government.thus it is an example of holding together
federalism,where a large until tries to divide its powers between central government and its
states
94) consider the following statements regarding freedom of speech
1. the right to speech also includes the right not to speak

2. participation in sports Is also a form of freedom of speech
3. section 69A of the IT Act grants power to the central government to block public
access to online content.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. all of the above
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: In bijoe Emmanuel vs state of kerala or national anthem case it was held that
expulsion of children from school violated the right to freedom not to speak under Article
19(a)(1).statement 1 is correct.the supreme court has held that the participation in sports is
an expression of ones self and hence is a form of freedom of speech.hence statement 2 is
correct.section 69A states that the central government may direct any agency of the
government or intermediary to block access to online content but online video streaming
platforms do not fall into eitherof these two categories.hence statement 3 is correct
95) consider the following statements with respect to rights
1. fundamental Rights aims to check arbitrariness of the state action

2. Rights are social claims considerd necessary to live a life of dignity
3. Rights are privileges of a few citizens against many.
which of the above statements is/are incorrect

A. 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2 only
ANS) OPTION A
Explanation: FR are restrictions on the power of state or its limits state which check
arbitrariness in the state and ensures of rule of law.Rights are essentially a justified social
claim considered necessary for life of dignity for individual which also means they are
different from privileges
96) which one of the following categories of fundamental rights incorporates protection against
untouchability as a form of discrimination
A. Right against exploitation

B. right to freedom
C. right to constitutional remedies
D. right to equality
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: article 14 to 18 of the constitution contains right to equality .Article 17 outlaws

untouchability
97) which of the following is not included in the fundamental right to equality as enshrined in
the constitution
A. equality before law

B. social equality
C. equal opportunity
D. economic equality
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: The right to equality doesn’t include economic equality as a fundamental right
98) which of the following principles of secularism are adopted in the constitution of india?
A. that state will have nothing to do with religion

B. that state will recognise state religion
C. that state can discriminate among religious
D. principled distance that includes no establishment but avoids strict separation
between religion and state
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: Secularism in india takes the form of a principled distance that inclues non-
establishment but avoids strict separation between religion and state
99) The most important feature of the Federal system adopted by the Indian
Constitution is the principle that :
A. Separate elections to the Central and the State legislatures

B. Division of powers under which states enjoy more autonomy than the Centre
C. Indian Union is a federal state with subsidiary unitary features
D. Relations between the States and the Centre would be based on cooperation
ANS) OPTION D
Explanation: After India got independence, once the decision to partition India was taken,
the Constituent Assembly decided to frame a government based on the principles of unity
and cooperation between the Centre and the States and separate powers to the States. The
most important feature of the federal system adopted by the Indian Constitution is the
principle that relations between the States and the Centre would be based on cooperation.
Thus, while recognising diversity, the Constitution emphasized unity. For example, the
Constitution of India does not even mention the word federation, and it describes India in
Article 1 as, India that is, Bharat, shall be a Union of States. The States and the territories
thereof shall be as specified in the First Schedule. So, Option (d) is correct. Indian
Constitution contains both features of a federal constitution and unitary constitution. The
Supreme court of India describes it as “a federal structure with a strong bias towards the
Centre” (State of West Bengal vs Union of India. Here Subsidiary denotes supplementary or
secondary. Unitary feature cannot be concluded as subsidiary. So this cannot be the most
important feature of the federal system adopted by the Indian Consititution. So, Option (c) is
not correct.
100)Consider the following statements
1. in india,any state can frame its own uniform civil code

2. Till now,no state in india has a uniform civil code on its own
3. uniform civil code framed by any state needs the presidents assent.
how many statements is/are correct?

A. only one
B. only two
C. only three
D. none
ANS) OPTION B
Explanation: Goa civil code is the only state in india with a uniform civil code till
date,statement 2 is incorrect

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SLNS IAS ACADEMY

1. India has adopted a parliamentary system of governance

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

1. It was not part of original constitution

How many statements are correct?

How many statements given above are correct

5) With reference to state emblem of india,consider the following statements

1. The state emblem is an adaptation of the lion capital of Ashoka at Sarnath

How many statements is/are correct

1. Rules of procedure committee

Choose the correct answer

7) Consider the following statements

1. Citizenship act provides for creation of national register of citizens

which of the above statements is/are correct

8) Consider the following statements regarding language provisions in the constitution

1. A language can be recognised by the state if the governor is satisfied that a

which of the above statements is/are correct

9) Consider the following statements regarding Right to work in india

1. Right to work is a statutory right

which of the above statements is/are correct

Which of the given statements is/are correct

A) constitution defines who minotities are

Explanation:Article 30- Rights of minorities to establish and administer educational

12) Consider the following statements on constitutional morality

1. it has been defined in the constitution

which of the above statements is/are correct

which of the above statements is/are correct

14) Consider the following statements

which of the above statements given above is/are correct

15) Reservation in india is not applicable in

1. promotion in government jobs for OBCs

select the correct answer using code given below

16) Consider the following statements regarding bonded labour

1. The prohibition of forced labour is a fundamental right under Indian constitution

which of the above statements is/are correct

which of the above statements is/are correct

Select the correct answer using code given below

1. it seeks to achieve the objectives of Article 17 of the constitution 20

which of the statements given above is/are correct

A. The principle of absolute equality

21) In india,separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoyed by

A. the preamble of the constitution

Explanation: Article 40 of the constitution exhorts for separation of judiciary from

22) Consider the following

23) Consider the following statements with reference to Union Territories.

1. Part VII of the constitution deals with Union Territories in India

How many of the above statements is/are correct

24) Match the following pairs

1. USA - presidential system

select the correct answer using code given below

Explanation: France has a semi-presidential system (a system of government in which a

25) Consider the following statements

1. Mahatma Gandhi was part of the constituent assembly

select the correct answer using codes given below

1. it was adopted in 26th January 1950

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1. Article 19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech

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28) Consider the following statements about the constitution of india

which statements is/are correct