INSTA October 2024 Static Quiz Compilation

INSTA STATIC QUIZ
OCTOBER 2024
WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM INSIGHTSIAS
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Table of Contents
1. POLITY ...................................................................................................................... 2
2. GEOGRAPHY ............................................................................................................. 30
3. ART AND CULTURE ..................................................................................................... 41
4. HISTORY .................................................................................................................. 47
5. ANCIENT AND MEDIEVAL INDIA ..................................................................................... 53
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INSTA STATIC QUIZ
1. Polity
1) Consider the following statements about the Cripps Proposal of 1942:
1. It proposed the framing of an independent Constitution for India after World War II.
2. The proposal was rejected by the Indian National Congress due to the demand for immediate
independence.
3. The Muslim League supported the Cripps Proposal because it ensured autonomy for Muslim-majority
provinces.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2
Solution: d)
Statement 1 is correct, as the Cripps Proposal in 1942 presented a draft for an independent constitution for India
to be framed after World War II.
Statement 2 is correct because the Indian National Congress rejected the proposal, demanding immediate
independence rather than a future constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the Muslim League rejected the proposal, as it did not satisfy their demand for
separate autonomous states or constituent assemblies for Muslims.
2) Consider the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India:

1. The first session of the Constituent Assembly was boycotted by the Muslim League.
2. Dr. Sachidanand Sinha was elected as the first temporary Chairman of the Assembly.
3. The National Anthem was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th January, 1950.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is correct as the Muslim League boycotted the first session of the Constituent Assembly, which was
held on 9th December, 1946.
Statement 2 is also correct, as Dr. Sachidanand Sinha, being the oldest member, was elected as the temporary
Chairman of the Assembly.
Statement 3 is incorrect, as the National Anthem was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January,
1950, not 26th January.
3) Consider the following statements regarding the members and election process of the Constituent Assembly:
1. Members of the Constituent Assembly from British Provinces were elected by direct adult franchise.
2. Representatives from the Princely States were partly elected and partly nominated.
3. Seats allocated to British provinces were divided among Muslims, Sikhs, and the General category in
proportion to their population.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
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c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Statement 1 is incorrect because the members from British Provinces were indirectly elected by the members of
the provincial assemblies, not by direct adult franchise.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the representatives from the Princely States were entirely nominated by the
heads of the princely states, not partly elected.
Statement 3 is correct, as the seats allocated to the British provinces were divided among Muslims, Sikhs, and the
General category (which included Hindus) in proportion to their population.
4) Consider the following statements regarding the Independence Act of 1947:

1. The Act made the Constituent Assembly dependent on the British Parliament for legal changes.
2. The Assembly functioned as both a legislative and a constituent body, performing these roles on
separate days.
3. The legislative functions of the Assembly were chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Independence Act of 1947 made the Constituent Assembly a fully sovereign
body, meaning it was no longer dependent on the British Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct, as the Assembly had two distinct roles: legislative and constituent, performed on separate
days.
Statement 3 is incorrect because G V Mavalankar chaired the Assembly when it functioned as a legislative body,
not Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
5) Consider the following statements about the implementation of the Indian Constitution:
1. The entire Constitution came into effect on January 26, 1950.
2. Articles related to citizenship, elections, and provisional Parliament came into force on November 26,
1949.
3. The Government of India Act, 1935 was retained as part of the Indian Constitution.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect because only the major part of the Constitution came into effect on January 26, 1950, not
the entire Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct, as Articles related to citizenship, elections, and provisional Parliament were brought into
force on November 26, 1949.
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Statement 3 is incorrect because the Government of India Act, 1935, along with the Indian Independence Act,
1947, was repealed when the Constitution was adopted.
6) Fundamental Rights in India are described as the Magna Carta of India. What does this imply?
a) They are temporary and can be revoked at any time by the government.
b) They promote arbitrary laws for better governance.
c) They serve as limitations on executive tyranny and arbitrary laws of the legislature.
d) They are guaranteed by the executive branch of government.
Solution: c)
The Fundamental Rights in India are often referred to as the Magna Carta of India because they safeguard
individual liberties and prevent the establishment of arbitrary or authoritarian rule . They serve as checks on the
power of the executive and the legislature, ensuring that the rule of law prevails over despotism and tyranny. This
is central to upholding political democracy and individual freedoms in India.
7) Which of the following statements about the Fundamental Rights under Article 19 is correct?
a) The rights under Article 19 are suspended automatically during any emergency.
b) The rights under Article 19 are suspended only during an external emergency, not internal
emergencies.
c) The rights under Article 19 cannot be suspended under any circumstances.
d) The rights under Article 19 can be suspended during both external and internal emergencies.
solution: b)
The Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended only during an external
emergency (resulting from war or external aggression), not during internal emergencies (such as armed
rebellion). This distinction reflects the seriousness of external threats to national security while maintaining
certain freedoms during internal unrest. The rights under Article 19 include important freedoms like speech,
assembly, and movement, but these freedoms are subject to reasonable restrictions during national emergencies
for the sake of public order and security.
8) Consider the following statements about the enforcement and amendment of Fundamental Rights in India:
1. The enforcement of Fundamental Rights is dependent solely on the discretion of the executive branch
of the government.
2. Fundamental Rights can be amended by a simple majority in Parliament.
3. The courts in India have no role in the protection or interpretation of Fundamental Rights.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: d)
Statement 1 is incorrect. The enforcement of Fundamental Rights is a matter for the judiciary, not the executive.
Individuals can approach the courts if their rights are violated, and the judiciary ensures their protection.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Fundamental Rights cannot be amended by a simple majority; any amendment
requires a constitutional amendment, which typically needs a special majority in both Houses of
Parliament.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The judiciary, particularly the Supreme Court and High Courts, plays a critical
role in protecting and interpreting Fundamental Rights. Judicial review ensures that the laws passed by
the legislature do not violate these rights.
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9) Consider the following statements regarding the limitations of Fundamental Rights in India:
1. The Parliament can suspend Fundamental Rights at any time for national security reasons.
2. Fundamental Rights can be suspended during a state of emergency, including the right to life and
personal liberty.
3. Fundamental Rights are granted only to individuals and not to groups or associations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) None of the above
solution: d)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Parliament cannot suspend Fundamental Rights at will; they can only be suspended
during a proclamation of emergency under certain conditions, as provided in the Constitution.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Even during a state of emergency, the right to life and personal liberty under Article
21 cannot be suspended. The suspension of other rights depends on the nature of the emergency and the
specific provisions invoked.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Fundamental Rights are available to both individuals and groups or associations. For
example, the right to form associations or unions is a collective right guaranteed under Article 19.
10) Consider the following statements regarding the scope and applicability of Fundamental Rights in India:
1. Fundamental Rights can only be claimed against private individuals, not against the state.
2. The Supreme Court can issue writs to enforce Fundamental Rights, but the High Courts cannot.
3. Fundamental Rights are the same in both the USA and India without any major differences.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
solution: d)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Fundamental Rights are primarily enforceable against the state, though some rights
can be claimed against private individuals in specific situations, such as the right against untouchability.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Both the Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to issue writs for the
enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Articles 32 and 226, respectively.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. While both India and the USA have provisions for Fundamental Rights (inspired by
the Bill of Rights), the structure, scope, and implementation of these rights differ significantly between the
two countries. Indian Fundamental Rights are more elaborate and cover a broader range of civil lib erties.
11) Which of these can be found both in Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties?
1. Conservation of the Environment
2. Promoting harmony and the spirit of fraternity
3. Upholding the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Only statement 1 is correct.
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Of the following Fundamental Duties, only environmental conservation and child education can be found in the
DPSP.
According to Article 51 A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India:
• to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National
Anthem;
• to cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom;
• to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
• to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
• to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending
religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the
dignity of women;
• to value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture;
• to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have
compassion for living creatures;
• to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
• to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
• to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly
rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; and
• to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
This duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
12) Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties incorporated in the Constitution.
1. All Fundamental Duties were incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the Constitution 42nd
Amendment Act, 1976.
2. They are not enforceable by law, but a court may take them into account while adjudicating on a
matter.
3. The concept of Fundamental Duties is taken from the Constitution of Russia.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the Constitution 42nd
Amendment Act, 1976. Today, there are 11 Fundamental Duties described under Article 51-A, of which 10 were
introduced by the 42nd Amendment and the 11th was added by the 86th Amendment in 2002.
These are statutory duties, not enforceable by law, but a court may take them into account while adjudicating
on a matter. The idea behind their incorporation was to emphasise the obligation of the citizen in exchange for
the Fundamental Rights that he or she enjoys. The concept of Fundamental Duties is taken from the Constitution
of Russia.
13) Consider the following statements.

1. The Fundamental Duties are held obligatory for all citizens subject to the State enforcing the same by
means of a valid law.
2. Any law that even though it deviates from the Fundamental Rights, but has been made to give effect to
the Directive Principles in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) would not be deemed invalid.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Solution: d)
The Relationship Between the Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties:
• Directive Principles have been used to uphold the Constitutional validity of legislation in case of conflict with
Fundamental Rights.
• According to the amendment of 1971, any law that even though it deviates from the Fundamental Rights,
but has been made to give effect to the Directive Principles in Article 39(b) and Article 39 (c) would not be
deemed invalid.
The Fundamental Duties will be held obligatory for all citizens subject to the State enforcing the same by means
of a valid law.
14) Consider the following statements regarding the Enforcement of Fundamental Duties in India.
1. Fundamental Duties are termed to be the moral obligations of a citizen, that are not obligatory in
nature.
2. The supreme court enforces these duties and holds the central government responsible and expects it
to take steps to make all Fundamental duties effective.
3. No writ can be issued in regard to the under fulfilment of the fundamental duties by the citizens.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Enforcement of Fundamental Duties of India:

• The fundamental duties are the duties that a citizen himself has to take care of. Court cannot enforce
these duties.
• No writ can be issued in regard to the under fulfillment or the over fulfillment of the fundamental
duties.
• However, in regard to the environmental contribution, the supreme court holds the central government
responsible and expects it to take a number of steps to make it effective.
• The citizens need to monitor their own efforts in the case of fundamental duties.
• These are termed to be the moral obligations of a citizen, that are not obligatory in nature.
15) Which of the following were the suggestions made by Swaran Singh Committee to be included as
Fundamental Duties?
1. Duty to pay taxes
2. Family Planning
3. Casting vote
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
Swaran Singh Committee suggested the incorporation of eight Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.
Certain recommendations of the Committee were not accepted and hence, not incorporated in the Constitution.
These include:
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• Parliament may provide for the imposition of such penalty or punishment as may be
considered appropriate for any non-compliance with or refusal to observe any of the duties
• No law imposing such penalty or punishment shall be called in question in any court on the ground of
infringement of any of Fundamental Rights or on the ground of repugnancy to any other provision of the
Constitution
• Duty to pay taxes should also be a Fundamental Duty of the citizens
16) Consider the following statements regarding 9th schedule of the Indian constitution.
1. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the First Amendment in 1951.
2. The Supreme court in I R Coelho case upheld the authority of judiciary to review any such laws that
damage the basic structure even if they have been put in 9th Schedule after the Kesavananda Bhartai
Judgment.
3. The Supreme Court laid down dual test to examine the validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule,
i.e; Whether it violates any fundamental right and if yes whether the violation also damages or destroys
the basic structure.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
The Ninth Schedule was introduced into the Constitution through the First Amendment in 1951.
In the case of IR Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu, several laws included in the Ninth Schedule were challenged on
the basis that any law violating fundamental rights should be deemed "unconstitutional" and that the
judiciary's power of review could not be stripped away. In January 2007, a nine -judge constitution bench of the
Supreme Court gave its ruling on this issue.
The Supreme Court upheld Parliament's authority to place laws within the Ninth Schedule, but clarified that these
laws are still subject to judicial review. It stated that laws included in the Ninth Schedule do not have absolute
immunity from legal scrutiny. Specifically, laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, when the
Kesavananda Bharati judgment established the “basic structure” doctrine, can be challenged.
The court outlined a dual test to assess the constitutionality of laws in the Ninth Schedule. First, it must be
determined whether the law violates any fundamental right. If so, the next question is whether this violation
damages or undermines the basic structure of the Constitution. Only if both conditions are met can a law in the
Ninth Schedule be declared unconstitutional.

1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of democracy, fundamental rights,
federalism and secularism.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to
preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
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The Doctrine of Basic Structure is a form of judicial review that is used to test the legality of any legislation by the
courts. The Constitution of India does not define the basic structure, it is a judicial innovation.
The doctrine was evolved by the Supreme Court in the 1973 landmark ruling in Kesavananda Bharati v State of
Kerala. In a 7-6 verdict, a 13-judge Constitution Bench ruled that the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution is
inviolable, and could not be amended by Parliament.
In the Kesavananda ruling, the Supreme Court cited several aspects of the Constitution that could be identified as
“basic features” of the document but added that it was not an exhaustive list.
For example, judicial review, rule of law, federalism, and democratic republic structure are identified as basic
features.
18) Article 355 of the constitution places which of the following duties on the Central Government?
1. Protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbance
2. Ensuring that every state government follows constitutional provisions
3. Ensuring that every state is protected against economic downturns
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Constitution imposes two duties on the Centre: (a) to protect every state against external aggression and internal
disturbance; and (b) to ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions
of the Constitution.
It is this duty in the performance of which the Centre takes over the government of a state under Article 356 in
case of failure of constitutional machinery in state. This is popularly known as ‘President’s Rule’. It is also known
as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’.
19) Consider the following statements regarding State emergency.

1. The imposition of the President’s rule is approved by the president and does not require the sanction
of the Parliament.
2. It can be revoked any time by the President, without the approval of Parliament.
3. President’s rule was imposed on all the states in India except Telangana.
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
A proclamation imposing president’s rule must be approved by both the houses of parliament within two
months from the date of its issue.
However, if the proclamation of President’s rule is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the
dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of two months without approving the proclamation,
then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution,
provided that the Rajya Sabha approves it in the meantime.
President's rule can be revoked at any time by the President and does not need Parliament's approval.
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Chhattisgarh and Telangana are the only states where the president’s rule has not been imposed so far.

1. National emergency can be declared even if security of India is not in threat, but there is a case of
imminent danger.
2. The operation of National Emergency always applies to the whole of Indian Territory.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is
threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. It may be noted that the president can declare a
national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is
satisfied that there is an imminent danger.
A proclamation of national emergency may be applicable to the entire country or only a part of it. The 42nd
Amendment Act of 1976 enabled the president to limit the operation of a National Emergency to a specified part
of India.
21) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Parliamentary Government:
1. The President is the Real Executive (de facto) in the Indian government.
2. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President, who uses their discretion.
3. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Rajya Sabha.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
Solution: d)
All statements are incorrect:

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the President is the Nominal Executive (de jure) and the Prime Minister
is the Real Executive (de facto).
• Statement 2 is incorrect as the Prime Minister is appointed by the President, but this appointment is
based on the majority party’s leader in the Lok Sabha, not the President's discretion.
• Statement 3 is incorrect because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, not
the Rajya Sabha.
22) Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India requires the Prime minster of India to furnish
information related to decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President of India?
a) Article 74
b) Article 75
c) Article 78
d) Article 81
Solution: c)
Article 78:
It shall be the duty of the Prime Minister —
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(a) to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of
the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation;
(b) to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for
legislation as the President may call for; and
(c) if the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a
decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council.

1. In Lok Sabha and state legislatures, the President and Governor respectively sets the date for the
election of the Speaker.
2. The Constitution specifies that the Speaker should be elected within 6 months from the formation of
new Government.
3. Usually, the Speaker comes from the ruling party.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
• The Constitution specifies offices like those of the President, Vice President, Chief Justice of India, and
Comptroller and Auditor General of India, as well as Speakers and Deputy Speakers. Article 93 for Lok Sabha
and Article 178 for state Assemblies state that these Houses “shall, as soon as may be”, choose two of its
members to be Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
• The Constitution neither sets a time limit nor specifies the process for these elections. It leaves it to the
legislatures to decide how to hold these elections. In Lok Sabha and state legislatures, the
President/Governor sets a date for the election of the Speaker. The legislators of the respective Houses vote
to elect one among themselves to these offices.
• Usually, the Speaker comes from the ruling party. In the case of the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, the
position has varied over the years.
24) Consider the following statements regarding the merits of the parliamentary system:
1. The system prevents despotism by dividing executive authority among multiple ministers.
2. The parliamentary system creates harmony between the executive and judiciary.
3. It provides wide representation to different regions and sections of society through the Council of
Ministers.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is correct, as the parliamentary system prevents despotism by dividing executive authority among
the Council of Ministers (CoM), rather than concentrating power in one individual.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the system ensures harmony between the executive and legislature, not the
judiciary.
Statement 3 is correct, as the CoM provides wide representation to different sections of society and regions
within the government.
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1. The position the Prime Minister of India holds is often described as “first among equals”.
2. The Prime Minister is responsible for decision-making on all important policy issues and other
portfolios not allocated to any other minister.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
The Prime Minister is the head of the Central Council of Ministers in an executive capacity. The position he
holds is often described as “first among equals”, wherein the PM has a unique role and is considered the primary
leader of the COM, but is nevertheless equal to his ministers.
Notably, Article 75 states: “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the
People.” Additionally, the PM is responsible for decision-making on all important policy issues and other
portfolios not allocated to any other minister.
26) Consider the following statements about the scope of judicial review in India and the USA:
1. The American Constitution explicitly mentions judicial review in its provisions.
2. In India, judicial review is based on ‘procedure established by law,’ limiting the judiciary’s scope to
evaluate the reasonableness of laws.
3. The concept of 'due process of law' in the USA allows courts to declare laws void on both substantive
and procedural grounds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: b)
The first statement is incorrect as the American Constitution does not explicitly mention judicial review. In India,
judicial review is based on the ‘procedure established by law’ (Article 21), which limits the judiciary's ability to
evaluate the reasonableness of laws (Statement 2 is correct). On the other hand, in the USA, the judiciary follows
‘due process of law,’ allowing courts to examine both the procedural and substantive aspects of the law
(Statement 3 is correct).
27) Consider the following statements regarding the reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights:
1. The Parliament has the sole authority to determine whether restrictions on Fundamental Rights are
reasonable.
2. Fundamental Rights cannot be restricted under any circumstances.
3. Restrictions on Fundamental Rights are justified if they maintain public order, security, or morality.
a) 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 only
solution: a)
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Statement 1 is incorrect. While Parliament can impose restrictions on Fundamental Rights, the judiciary has the
authority to determine whether these restrictions are reasonable and necessary. The courts act as a check on
legislative overreach, ensuring that any restrictions respect constitutional principles.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Fundamental Rights can be restricted under specific circumstances such as
public order, national security, or morality, provided the restrictions are reasonable.
• Statement 3 is correct. Restrictions on Fundamental Rights are justified in cases where they protect public
order, security, or morality, as long as they pass the test of reasonableness. The balance between
individual liberty and social control is a core aspect of India’s Fundamental Rights framework.
28) Consider the following statements regarding the definition of "State" under Article 12 of the Indian
Constitution:
1. Article 12 includes only statutory authorities in its definition of the "State."
2. A private entity performing public functions as an instrument of the state can fall within the meaning
of the "State."
3. The term "State" under Article 12 covers both the Government and Parliament of India.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
solution: b)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 12 includes both statutory and non-statutory authorities. This means that
even bodies that are not created by statute (like certain government-controlled corporations) can fall under
the definition of "State."
• Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court has held that private entities or agencies performing public
functions as an instrument of the state can be considered part of the "State" under Article 12. This
interpretation ensures that bodies discharging public duties are held accountable for violations of
Fundamental Rights.
• Statement 3 is correct. The "State" includes the Government of India, the Parliament of India, as well as the
government and legislature of states.

1. In India, the Constitution gives the government the right to levy taxes on individuals and organisations.
2. As per the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, Union and the States have concurrent power of
taxation.
3. In India, any tax being charged has to be backed by a law passed by the state legislature or Parliament.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
In India, the Constitution gives the government the right to levy taxes on individuals and organisations, but makes
it clear that no one has the right to levy or charge taxes except by the authority of law. Any tax being charged has
to be backed by a law passed by the legislature or Parliament.
Taxes in India come under a three-tier system based on the Central, State and local governments, and the
Seventh Schedule of the Constitution puts separate heads of taxation under the Union and State list. There is no
separate head under the Concurrent list, meaning Union and the States have no concurrent power of taxation.
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30) Consider the following statements regarding the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
1. The Constitution of India has specified the qualifications for becoming Speaker.
2. The salary of the Speaker is drawn from the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The speaker being in charge of the functioning of the House, is positioned as the Leader of Lok Sabha.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Only Statement 2 is correct.
• There are no specific qualifications for becoming Speaker, which means any member is entitled to be
considered. However, the post of Speaker is distinct from other members in the House.
• From the placement of the Speaker’s chair in the House to his having a casting vote, from effectively being in
charge of the functioning of the House to having crucial constitutional functions in dealing with
disqualification of members — the Speaker is evidently perched as the Presiding Officer of Lok Sabha.
• The salary of the Speaker is drawn from the Consolidated Fund of India unlike for other MPs, which flow
from a statute voted on by the House itself.
31) Consider the following statements about the office of the governor as mentioned in the constitution of India:
1. The office of the Governor is constitutionally under the control and subordinate to the Central
government.
2. The Governor of a particular state should not belong to that state.
3. The President of India must consult the Chief Minister of the concerned state before making the
appointment of the Governor of that state.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: d)
The governor holds an independent office under the constitution.
The Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of a person as a governor. These are:
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should have completed the age of 35 years.
Additionally, two conventions have also developed in this regard over the years.
First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed, so that he is free
from the local politics.
Second, while appointing the governor, the president is required to consult the chief minister of the state
concerned, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured. However, both
the conventions have been violated in some of the cases.

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Governor shall from time to time summon the House or
each House of the Legislature of the State to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit.
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2. The Governor always has to act on the aid and advice of the cabinet and cannot decide on his or her
own on summoning the House.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
“The Governor shall from time to time summon the House or each House of the Legislature of the State to meet
at such time and place as he thinks fit…” says Article 174 of the Constitution. The provision also puts on the
Governor the responsibility of ensuring that the House is summoned at least once every six months.
Although it is the Governor’s prerogative to summon the House, according to Article 163, the Governor is
required to act on the “aid and advice” of the Cabinet. So when the Governor summons the House under Article
174, this is not of his or her own will but on the aid and advice of the Cabinet.
There are a few instances where the Governor can summon the House despite the refusal of the Chief Minister
who heads the Cabinet. When the Chief Minister appears to have lost the majority and the legislative members
of the House propose a no-confidence motion against the Chief Minister, then the Governor can decide on his or
her own on summoning the House.
But the actions of the Governor, when using his discretionary powers can be challenged in court.
33) Consider the following statements regarding the terms of the Office of the Governor.
1. The Governor can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the Chief Minister of the
State.
2. The Constitution does not lay down the grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the
President.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
The resignation letter is submitted to the President, and not the Chief Minister.
A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, this
term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President.
The Supreme Court held that the pleasure of the President is not justifiable. The governor has no security of
tenure and no fixed term of office. He may be removed by the President at any time without mentioning any
grounds for his removal.
34) If any question arises whether a matter falls within the Governor’s discretion or not, whose decision shall be
final and why?
a) Chief Minister because he heads the Council of Ministers
b) State Legislature since it is the highest law-making body within the State
c) Governor of the State because the Constitution confers him this authority
d) President of India who advises Governor of the same
Solution: c)
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If any question arises whether a matter falls within the Governor’s discretion or not, decision of the Governor
shall be final, and the validity of anything done by the Governor shall not be called in question on the ground
that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.
Also, the constitution says that the advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into in any
court.

1. The Governor is the head of the state’s executive power, and acts only on the advice of the council of
ministers on all matters.
2. While the Governor does not have to seek anyone’s advice while appointing the Chief Minister, he can
appoint a minister only on the recommendation of the Chief Minister.
3. The Governor can determine the time needed for a party to prove its majority or which party must be
called first to do so, in a hung Assembly.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The position, role, powers, and conditions of office of the Governor are described in Articles 153-161 of the
Constitution. The position of Governor is similar to that of the President at the Union. He is at the head of the
state’s executive power, and barring some matters, acts on the advice of the council of ministers, which is
responsible, in accordance with the parliamentary system, to the state legislature.
The Governor is appointed by the President (on the advice of the central government) and, therefore, acts as the
vital link between the Union and the state governments.
The Governor enjoys certain powers such as giving or withholding assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature
or determining the time needed for a party to prove its majority — or which party must be called first to do so,
generally after in a hung Assembly.
“Article 164(1) deals with the appointment of the Chief Minister and other ministers. While the Governor does
not have to seek anyone’s advice while appointing the Chief Minister, he can appoint a minister only on the
recommendation of the Chief Minister. The Governor has no power to pick anyone he chooses to make a
minister. He can appoint a minister only on the advice of the Chief Minister.”
36) With reference to Collegium System in India, consider the following statements:
1. It has been entirely evolved through the laws promulgated by the Parliament.
2. A High Court collegium is entirely led by the incumbent Chief Justice of that court.
3. The government cannot raise any objections regarding the collegium’s choices.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: d)
The collegium system is the way by which judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed and
transferred.
Statement 1 is not correct: The collegium system is not rooted in the Constitution or a specific law promulgated
by Parliament; it has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court.
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Statement 2 is not correct: The Supreme Court Collegium is a five-member body, which is headed by the
incumbent CJI and comprises the four other seniormost judges of the court at that time. A High Court collegium is
led by the incumbent Chief Justice and two other seniormost judges of that court.
Judges of the higher judiciary are appointed only through the collegium system, and the government has a role
only after names have been decided by the collegium.
Statement 3 is not correct: The government can also raise objections and seek clarifications regarding the
collegium’s choices, but if the collegium reiterates the same names, the government is bound to appoint them.
37) Consider the followings statements regarding the qualifications of a person to be appointed as district judge:
1. He should not already be in the service of the Central or the state government.
2. He should have been an advocate or a pleader for ten years.
3. He should be recommended by the district court for appointment.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the governor of the state in
consultation with the high court.
A person to be appointed as district judge should have the following qualifications:
• He should not already be in the service of the Central or the state government. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• He should have been an advocate or a pleader for seven years. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• He should be recommended by the high court for appointment. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
38) Consider the following statements

1. A tribunal for the purpose of adjudication of election disputes can be established only on
recommendation of the supreme court.
2. No court except the supreme court is empowered to try election petitions.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
• Article 323B empowers the Parliament and state legislatures to establish a tribunal for adjudication of
election disputes. However no such tribunal has been established yet.
• The supreme court in Chandra Kumar case 1997 provided that if at any time, an election tribunal is
established, an appeal from its decision lies to the High court. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The constitution provides that no election to the Parliament or the state legislature is to be questioned except
by an election petition presented to such authority and in such manner as provided by the appropriate
legislature.
• Since 1966 election petitions are triable by high courts alone. However the appellate jurisdiction lies with
supreme court alone. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

1. The e-court project is implemented by the Supreme Court of India under National e -Governance plan.
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2. The National Judicial Data grid is updated by district courts under the e -courts project.
3. State governments can access data related to both Civil and criminal Case on the National Judicial Data
grid through Open Application Programming Interface.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
• The e-courts project is being implemented in Association with e-committee Supreme Court of India and the
Department of justice as part of the National e- governance plan
o the project is under implementation since 2007 for information and communication technology
development of judicial system of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The National Judicial Datagrid is a database of orders, judgements and case details of district, subordinate
courts as well as high courts
o it has been created as an online platform under the e courts project
o data is updated on near real time basis by the connected district and taluka courts. Hence statement
2 is correct.
• The Datagrid contains case data for both Civil and criminal cases along with the ability to perform drill down
analysis based on age of the case as well as state and district
• In consonance with the National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy announced by the government, Open
Application Programming Interface has been provided to the central and state governments to allow easy
access to the data in the Datagrid using a departmental ID and access key. Hence statement 3 is correct.
40) Consider the following statements:

1. The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district as he possesses original and appellate
jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters.
2. When he deals with civil cases, he is known as the session judge and when he hears the criminal cases,
he is called as the district judge.
3. He can impose death sentence but it is subject to confirmation by the Supreme Court.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
• The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district. He possesses original and appellate
jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In other words, the district judge is also the sessions judge. When he deals with civil cases, he is known as the
district judge and when he hears the criminal cases, he is called as the sessions judge. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
• The district judge exercises both judicial and administrative powers. He also has supervisory powers over all
the subordinate courts in the district. Appeals against his orders and judgements lie to the High Court. The
sessions judge has the power to impose any sentence including life imprisonment and capital punishment
(death sentence).
• However, a capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is
an appeal or not. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

1. The term ‘Federation’ is nowhere used in the Constitution.
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2. Indian Constitution has been described as Quasi-federal.
3. Indian Constitution contains federal features which includes single Constitution.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is correct: The term ‘Federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution. Article 1, on the other
hand, describes India as a ‘Union of States’ which implies two things: one, Indian Federation is not the result of an
agreement by the states; and two, no state has the right to secede from the federation.
Statement 2 is correct: The Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but, unitary in
spirit’, ‘quasi-federal’ by K.C. Wheare, ‘bargaining federalism’ by Morris Jones, ‘co-operative federalism’ by
Granville Austin,
Statement 3 is not correct: The Indian Constitution contains a large number of unitary or non-federal features,
viz., a strong Centre, single Constitution, single citizenship, flexibility of Constitution, integrated judiciary,
appointment of state governor by the Centre, all-India services, emergency provisions and so on.

1. The ‘Canadian model’ of federalism is different from the American model.
2. The Indian Federation resembles the Canadian Federation only in its formation.
3. The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is correct: The ‘Canadian model’ differs fundamentally from the ‘American model’ in so far as it
establishes a very strong centre.
The Indian federal system is based on the ‘Canadian model’ and not on the ‘American model’.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Indian federation resembles the Candian federation:
• in its formation (i.e., by way of disintegration);
• in its preference to the term ‘Union’ as the Canadian federation is also called a ‘Union’
• in its centralising tendency
Statement 3 is correct: The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the
American federation; and the states have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is union because
it is indestructible.
43) How many of the following features of the Indian Constitution violate the principle of Federalism?
1. Independent Judiciary
2. Flexibility of the Constitution
3. Emergency Provisions
4. All-India Services
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) Only one
b) Only two
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c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: c)
Along with the federal features, the Indian Constitution also possesses the unitary or non -federal features which
include:
• Flexibility of the Constitution: The process of constitutional amendment is less rigid than what is found in
other federations. The bulk of the Constitution can be amended by the unilateral action of the
Parliament, either by simple majority or by special majority.
• Emergency Provisions: The Constitution stipulates three types of emergencies—national, state and
financial. During an emergency, the Central government becomes all powerful and the states go into the
total control of the Centre.
• All-India services: In India, the Centre and the states have their separate public services. But, in addition,
there are all-India services (IAS, IPS, and IFS) which are common to both the Centre and the states.The
members of these services are recruited and trained by the Centre which also possess ultimate control
over them. Thus, these services violate the principle of federalism under the Constitution.
Independent Judiciary is a federal feature of the Indian Constitution.

1. Part XI of the Indian Constitution deals with the legislative relations between the Centre and the states.
2. The Indian Constitution does not place any restriction on the plenary territorial jurisdiction of the
Parliament.
3. The governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in
the state.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is correct: Articles 245 to 255 in Part XI of the Constitution deal with the legislative relations between
the Centre and the states. Besides these, there are some other articles dealing with the same subject.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Parliament alone can make ‘extra-territorial legislation’. Thus, the laws of the
Parliament are also applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world. However, the
Constitution places certain restrictions on the plenary territorial jurisdiction of the Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct: The governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a
scheduled area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
The Governor of Assam may likewise direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a tribal area (autonomous
district) in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
The President enjoys the same power with respect to tribal areas (autonomous districts) in Meghalaya, Tripura
and Mizoram.
45) With reference to the State Administrative Tribunals (SATs), consider the following statements:
1. The SATs exercise original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of state
government employees.
2. The chairman and members of the SATs are appointed by the Governor after consultation with the
Chief Minister of the state concerned.
3. As of now, no state has its State Administrative Tribunal.
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a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
• The Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985 empowers the Central government to establish the State
Administrative Tribunals (SATs) on specific request of the concerned state governments. So far (2019), the
SATs have been set up in the nine states of Andhra Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Odisha, Karnataka, Madhya
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Kerala. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• However, the Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh Tribunals have since been abolished.
• But subsequently, the Himachal Pradesh reestablished the SAT and the state of Tamil Nadu has also
requested now to re- establish the same. Further, the state government of Haryana has requested to
establish the SAT for their state. On the other hand, the state government of Odisha has submitted a proposal
for abolition of Odisha Administrative Tribunal.
• Like the CAT, the SATs exercise original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of state
government employees. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The chairman and members of the SATs are appointed by the president after consultation with the governor
of the state concerned. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
46) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Gram Nyayalayas?

a) Its presiding officer (Nyayadhikari) shall be appointed by the State Government in consultation with the
High Court.
b) Nyayadhikari can be an executive officer who shall hold office during the pleasure of Governor of
respective state.
c) The Gram Nyayalaya shall try criminal cases, civil suits, claims or disputes.
d) The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a mobile court and shall exercise the powers of both Criminal and Civil
Courts.
Solution: b)
The salient features of the Gram Nyayalayas Act are as follows:

• The Gram Nyayalaya shall be court of Judicial Magistrate of the first class and its presiding officer
(Nyayadhikari) shall be appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court.
• The Gram Nyayalaya shall be established for every Panchayat at intermediate level or a group of contiguous
Panchayats at intermediate level in a district or where there is no Panchayat at intermediate level in any
State, for a group of contiguous Panchayats.
• The Nyayadhikaris who will preside over these Gram Nyayalayas are strictly judicial officers and will be
drawing the same salary, deriving the same powers as First Class Magistrates working under High Courts.
Hence, statement (b) is incorrect.
• The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a mobile court and shall exercise the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts.
47) Consider the following statements regarding Urban local bodies.

1. 74th Constitution Amendment Act of 1992 identifies 18 local level functions to be devolved to
municipalities, including planning for economic and social development, regulation of land, construction of
buildings, urban planning and public health.
2. Since the enactment of 74th Constitution Amendment Act, elections to urban local bodies is held once
in every five years in all states in India.
3. As per the amended Municipal Corporation Act of 1888, Mayors are directly elected by the people in all
states.
a) Only one
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b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
In some States, elections to urban local bodies have not been held for years, defeating the lofty goal of
decentralised governance. The idea of giving more authority to the third tier of governance has suffered serious
stunting, in spite of the 74th Constitution Amendment Act of 1992 identifying 18 local level functions to be
devolved, including planning for economic and social development, regulation of land, construction of
buildings, urban planning and public health.
Only In some states Mayors are directly elected by the people.
48) A State Legislature may provide for the representation of which of the following persons in a municipality?
1. Members of the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assembly representing constituencies that comprise
wholly or partly the municipal area.
2. Teachers and graduates living within the municipal area
3. Persons having special knowledge or experience in municipal administration
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
The provision is made to augment municipal administration and the municipality may include:
• Persons having special knowledge or experience in municipal administration without the right to vote in
the meetings of municipality.
• The members of the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assembly representing constituencies that comprise
wholly or partly the municipal area.
• The members of the Rajya Sabha and the state legislative council registered as electors within the municipal
area.
• The chairpersons of committees (other than wards committees).
49) With reference to the ‘Cantonment’ boards, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area.
2. It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area.
It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006—a legislation enacted by the Central
government. It works under the administrative control of the defence ministry of the Central government.
50) Consider the following statements regarding Charter Act of 1813:

1. It allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India.
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2. It authorised the local governments in India to impose taxes on persons.
3. It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The features of Charter Act of 1813 were as follows:

• It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India i.e., the Indian trade was thrown open to all British
merchants.
• It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company’s territories in India.
• It allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people.
• It provided for the spread of western education among the inhabitants of the British territories in India.
• It authorised the Local Governments in India to impose taxes on persons. They could also punish the
persons for not paying taxes.
Charter Act of 1833 ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely
administrative body.
51) Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Office of Profit in India?
1. The word ‘office’ has not been defined in the Constitution or the Representation of the People Act of
1951.
2. Under the Representation of People Act, 1951, holding an office of profit is grounds for disqualification.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Statement 1 is correct: The word ‘office’ has not been defined in the Constitution or the Representation of the
People Act of 1951.
According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of the Constitution, an MP or MLA is barred from holding an office of
profit as it can put them in a position to gain a financial benefit.
Statement 2 is correct: Under the Representation of People Act too, holding an office of profit is grounds for
disqualification.
• “A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of
Parliament, (a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any
State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder,” says the law.
• Holding an office under the Central or State government, to which some pay, salary, emolument,
remuneration or non-compensatory allowance is attached, is “holding an office of profit” for the purpose
of Article 102 of the Constitution of India.
• A person who acquires a contract or licence from a government to perform functions, which the
government would have itself discharged, will not be held guilty of holding an office of profit.

1. The Constitution has not fixed the term of members of the Rajya Sabha.
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2. The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended during the national emergency.
3. The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by Presiding officer of the house.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: d)
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it
to the Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representation of the People Act (1951) provided that the
term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years.
Statement 2 is correct: The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended during the period of national emergency by a
law of Parliament for one year at a time for any length of time. However, this extension cannot continue beyond a
period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.
Statement 3 is correct: The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in
the case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha.
53) Which one of the following gave constitutional status and protection to the Co-operative societies in India?
a) The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988
b) The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985
c) The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992
d) The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011
Solution: d)
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to co-operative
societies.
In this context, it made the following three changes in the Constitution:
• It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19).
• It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of co-operative societies (Article 43-B).
• It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled as “The Co-operative Societies” (Articles 243-
ZH to 243-ZT).

Statement -I: The constitutional validity of Pressure Groups in India can be attributed to article 19 of the
Constitution of India.
Statement -II: No Pressure Group can be formed in India based only on religion or caste.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: c)
A pressure group is a group of people who are organised actively for promoting and defending their common
interest.
There is no explicit provision in the constitution of India regarding pressure groups.
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But these groups exist because of article 19 which gives citizens the right to form associations and unions. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
A large number of pressure groups exist in India; they can be broadly divided into following categories
Business groups
• Trade Unions
• Agrarian groups
• Professional associations
• Religious organisations
• Tribal Organisations
• Linguistic groups
• Caste groups
• Ideology based groups
• Student organisations
• Anomic groups
Pressure groups Based on religion play an important role in Indian politics. They represent narrow communal
interest. They include Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh, Anglo Indian Association, Shiromani Akali dal, Association of
Roman Catholics and so on.
There are various caste based groups in India in Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and several other states.

1. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against private individuals.
2. The writ of mandamus cannot be issued against private individuals.
3. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against private individuals.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals. The writ,
on the other hand, is not issued where the
• detention is lawful,
• the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court,
• detention is by a competent court, and
• detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court.
The writ of mandamus cannot be issued

• against a private individual or body;
• to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force;
• when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory;
• to enforce a contractual obligation;
• against the president of India or the state governors; and
• against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity.
The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.
It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.

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th
1. Under the 84 amendment Act of 2001, delimitations can be done in constituencies based on figures of
2001 census.
2. The constitution empowers the Chief Election Commissioner to constitute Delimitation Commission
after every census.
3. A law dealing with Delimitation of constituencies can never be questioned in any court of law.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
The 84th amendment Act of 2001 empowered the government to undertake readjustment of territorial
constituencies in States based on 1991 census.
The 87th amendment Act of 2003 provided for delimitation of constituencies based on 2001 census. Hence
statement 1 is incorrect.
• Delimitation commission Act was enacted in 1952.
• The Commission is appointed by the president of India
• it works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• According to the constitution of India, the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies
or the allotment of seats to such constituencies cannot be questioned in any court
• Consequently, orders issued by Delimitation Commission become final and cannot be challenged in any
court. Hence statement 3 is correct.
57) With reference to the All-India Services, consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament can create new All India Services but not the All-India Judicial Service.
2. Parliament can regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to all-India
services.
3. The all-India judicial service should not include any post inferior to that of a district judge.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
All-India Services
Article 312 makes the following provisions in respect of all-India services:
(a) The Parliament can create new all India services (including an all-India judicial service), if the Rajya Sabha
passes a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so. Such a resolution in
the Rajya Sabha should be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting. This power of
recommendation is given to the Rajya Sabha to protect the interests of states in the Indian federal system. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
(b) Parliament can regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to all -India services.
Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the All-India Services Act, 1951 for the purpose. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
(c) The services known at the commencement of the Constitution (that is, January 26, 1950) as the Indian
Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service are deemed to be services created by Parliament under this
provision.
(d) The all-India judicial service should not include any post inferior to that of a district judge. A law providing for
the creation of this service is not to be deemed as an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article
368. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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58) With reference to the suits against Public Officials, consider the following statements:
1. The governors of states cannot be sued during the term of their office or thereafter, for any act done
by them in the exercise and performance of their official powers and duties.
2. The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts and hence, cannot
be sued.
3. Civil Servants are conferred personal immunity from legal liability for official contracts.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
• The president and the governors cannot be sued during the term of their office or thereafter, for any act
done by them in the exercise and performance of their official powers and duties.
• The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts and hence, cannot be
sued.
• Under the Constitution, the civil servants are conferred personal immunity from legal liability for official
contracts. This means that the civil servant who made a contract in his official capacity is not personally liable
in respect of that contract but it is the government (Central or state) that is liable for the contract.
59) What is the difference between Article 323 A and article 323 B?
1. While Article 323 A contemplates establishment of tribunals for public service matters only, Article 323
B contemplates establishment of tribunals for certain other matters.
2. While tribunals under Article 323 A can be established both by Parliament and state legislatures,
tribunals under Article 323 B can be established only by Parliament.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Articles 323 A and 323 B differs in the following three aspects:

1. While Article 323 A contemplates establishment of tribunals for public service matters only, Article 323 B
contemplates establishment of tribunals for certain other matters. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
2. While tribunals under Article 323 A can be established only by Parliament, tribunals under Article 323 B can
be established both by Parliament and state legislatures with respect to matters falling within their legislative
competence. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
3. Under Article 323 A, only one tribunal for the Centre and one for each state or two or more states may be
established. There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals, whereas under Article 323 B a hierarchy of tribunals
may be created.
60) The “Jus soli Principle” in Indian Polity is associated with the-
a) Automatic grant of citizenship based on the place of birth
b) President’s autonomy with respect to the tribal areas
c) Predominance of the Union List over the State List
d) Parliament’s power to legislate on the state subjects
Solution: a)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
The “jus soli” principle is premised on the automatic grant of citizenship based on the place of birth provided
the person is domiciled in India, qualifying it with religious identity, was in fact a proposal to ingrain religion
into the bedrock of the Constitution.
61) Consider the followings statements.

1. The All-India Services Act of 1951 authorised the Central government to make rules for the regulation
of recruitment and service conditions of the members of all-India services
2. The members of these services belong to the centre and different state cadres.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
The All-India Services Act of 1951 authorised the Central government to make rules in consultation with the
state governments for the regulation of recruitment and service conditions of the members of all -India
services. The members of these services are recruited and trained by the Central government but are assigned to
different states for work. They belong to different state cadres; the Centre having no cadre of its own in this
regard.
They serve the Central government on deputation and after completing their fixed tenure they go back to their
respective states.
Hence, statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
62) Consider the following statements regarding the Impeachment of the President:
1. The impeachment charges can only be initiated by the Lower House of Parliament.
2. An impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament.
3. Only the elected members of the Parliament can participate in this procedure.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is not correct: The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These
charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days’ notice
should be given to the President.
Statement 2 is correct: An impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament.

In this context, two things should be noted:
Statement 3 is not correct: the nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the
impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election;

1. Both the terms ‘chargesheet’ and ‘First Information Report’ have been explicitly defined in the Indian
Penal Code.
2. A chargesheet must be filed against the accused within a prescribed period of 60-90 days otherwise the
accused is entitled to bail.
3. As per the Supreme Court, a chargesheet cannot be made publicly available as it’s not a ‘public
document’.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: c)
Statement 1 is not correct: The term ‘chargesheet’ has been expressly defined under Section 173 of the CrPC but
‘First Information Report’ or FIR, has not been defined in either the Indian Penal Code (IPC) or the CrPC.
Instead, it finds a place under the police regulations/ rules under Section 154 of CrPC, which deals with
‘Information in Cognizable Cases’.
Statement 2 is correct: A chargesheet must be filed against the accused within a prescribed period of 60-90 days,
otherwise the arrest is illegal and the accused is entitled to bail.
Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court held that a chargesheet cannot be made publicly available as it’s not a
‘public document’ under Sections 74 and 76 of the Evidence Act, as argued by the petitioners’.
Section 74 of the Evidence Act defines ‘public documents’ as those which form the acts or records of sovereign
authority, official bodies, tribunals, and of public offices either legislative, judicial or executive in any part of India,
Commonwealth or a foreign country.
64) With reference to the Devices of parliamentary procedures, consider the following statements:
1. The time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hour.
2. Zero hour is available to the members to raise matters without any prior notice.
3. Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: c)
Statement 1 is correct: The time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hour. It is an
Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and it does not include the Question hour. It has been
in existence since 1962
Statement 2 is correct: Thus, unlike question hour, zero hour is an informal device available to the members of
the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice. The zero hour starts immediately after the question
hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (ie, regular business of the House) is taken up.
Statement 3 is correct: Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
65) Consider the following statements regarding the Preventive Detention in India:
1. These detentions cannot be used to counter ordinary law and order situations.
2. It is an exceptional power of the State and affects personal liberty of individuals.
3. It must fall entirely within the ambit of Article 21 which is the due process of law.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court has held in an order that preventive detention cannot be used to
counter ordinary law and order situations.
Statement 2 is correct: Preventive detention is an “exceptional power” of the State which affects the personal
liberty of the individual and has to be employed sparingly. The State should not arbitrarily resort to “preventive
detention” to deal with all and sundry “law and order” problems, which could be dealt with by the ordinary laws
of the country.
Statement 3 is not correct: Preventive detention must fall within the four corners of Article 21 (due process of
law) read with Article 22 (safeguards against arbitrary arrest and detention) and the statute in question.
2. Geography
1) Which of the following are the winter crops grown in India?
1. Peas
2. Mustard
3. Barley
4. Wheat
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
Solution: c)
The crops that are sown in the winter season are called Rabi crops. (also known as the "winter crop") in India. The
Rabi means, when the crop is harvested. Crops that are grown in the winter season, from November to April are
called Rabi Crops. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard.
2) Consider the following agriculture practices.

1. Vertical farming is the practice of producing food in vertically stacked layers in structures like
skyscrapers and warehouse.
2. Vertical farming is possible only in the regions that have fertile soil.
3. Zero-Tillage helps in carbon sequestration and requires minimum labour compare to traditional
farming method.
a) 1, 3
b) 1 only
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
Zero tillage is the process where the crop seed will be sown through drillers without prior land preparation and
disturbing the soil where previous crop stubbles are present.
Zero tillage not only reduce the cost of cultivation it also reduces the soil erosion, crop duration and irrigation
requirement and weed effect which is better than tillage. Zero Tillage (ZT) also called No Tillage or Nil Tillage.
Adopting no-tillage in agro-ecosystems has been widely recommended as a means of enhancing carbon (C)
sequestration in soils.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Vertical farming is the practice of growing produce in vertically stacked layers. The practice can use soil,
hydroponic or aeroponic growing methods. Vertical farms attempt to produce food in challenging
environments, like where arable land is rare or unavailable.
3) Consider the following statements about microplastics and their effects:

1. Microplastics in the ocean only affect small marine organisms.
2. Microplastics can enter the human food chain through seafood consumption.
3. Toxic contaminants can adhere to microplastics and enter the marine food chain.
4. Once microplastics enter the ocean, they quickly degrade and disappear.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: b)
Microplastics in the ocean can affect organisms of all sizes, not just small marine species, making statement 1
incorrect. Microplastics can enter the human food chain when seafood contaminated with these particles is
consumed, and toxic contaminants attached to microplastics can enter marine food chains (statements 2 and 3
are correct). Microplastics are persistent and do not degrade quickly, making statement 4 incorrect.
4) Which of the following statements regarding the influence of topography on monsoon rainfall is correct?
1. The windward side of the Western Ghats receives heavy rainfall.
2. Northeastern states receive less rainfall due to their hilly terrain.
3. Coastal regions receive more rainfall compared to inland areas.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: b)
The windward side of the Western Ghats receives heavy rainfall due to the lifting of moist monsoon winds.
Coastal regions generally receive more rainfall than inland areas. However, northeastern states receive heavy
rainfall due to their hilly terrain, making statement 2 incorrect.
5) Consider the following statements regarding the equatorial easterly jet stream is/are correct?
1. It is dominant during the monsoon season in India.
2. It extends from Southeast Asia to the Atlantic Ocean.
3. It plays a role in bringing the south-west monsoon to India.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: d)
The equatorial easterly jet stream is prominent during the Indian monsoon season and extends from Southeast
Asia to the Atlantic. It plays a key role in influencing the onset and progress of the monsoon, including the south -
west monsoon in India.
6) Consider the following statements about Joint Sector Industries:

INSTA STATIC QUIZ
1. They are owned by both private firms and the state or its agencies.
2. Oil India Limited is an example of a joint sector industry.
3. These industries are run exclusively by private management.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Joint sector industries are indeed owned jointly by private firms and the state or its agencies (statement 1). Oil
India Limited is an example of such an industry (statement 2).
However, statement 3 is incorrect because joint sector industries are not run exclusively by private
management; the state also plays a role.
7) Which of the following statements is true regarding the Southern Mineral Belt?
a) It extends across Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
b) It lacks coal deposits, except for lignite in Neyveli.
c) It is rich in ferrous minerals.
d) All of the above.
Solution: d)
The Southern Mineral Belt extends over the Karnataka Plateau and parts of Tamil Nadu. It is primarily rich in
ferrous minerals like iron ore but lacks coal deposits except for lignite found in Neyveli. This makes all three
statements correct.
8) Consider the following statements regarding the South-Western Mineral Belt:

1. It includes parts of Western Karnataka and Goa.
2. The belt is rich in iron ore, garnet, and clay deposits.
3. This region has significant deposits of coal.
4. Goa is known for bauxite mining in this belt.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: b)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The South-Western Mineral Belt, comprising parts of Western Karnataka and
Goa, is rich in iron ore, garnet, and clay deposits. However, this belt does not have significant coal deposits
(statement 3 is incorrect). Goa is more famous for its iron ore mining, not bauxite mining (statement 4 is
incorrect).
9) Consider the following statements about oil and natural gas reserves in India:
1. Mumbai High is one of the largest oil-producing regions in India.
2. The Godavari Basin has significant natural gas reserves.
3. Assam is rich in both petroleum and lignite reserves.
4. The continental shelf around India holds potential for oil extraction.
a) Only one
b) Only two
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: c)
Mumbai High is indeed one of India's largest oil-producing regions (statement 1).
The Godavari Basin also has significant natural gas reserves (statement 2).
Assam is rich in petroleum, but not in lignite reserves (statement 3 is incorrect).
The continental shelf around India holds potential for future oil extraction with advanced technology (statement 4
is correct).
10) Consider the following statements about Haematite iron ore in India:
1. It contains around 70% metallic content.
2. It is primarily found in the Dharwar and Cuddapah rock systems.
3. Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Karnataka are the leading producers of Haematite in India.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Haematite indeed contains around 70% metallic content (statement 1) and is found in the Dharwar and Cuddapah
rock systems (statement 2). However, statement 3 is incorrect because the major producers of Haematite are
Odisha, Jharkhand, and Chhattisgarh.
11) Consider the following statements regarding the growth rate of population:
1. Growth rate is the net change in population between two points of time and is expressed as a
percentage.
2. Negative growth occurs when birth rates are higher than death rates.
3. Natural growth of population is the difference between the natural birth-rate and death-rate.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: b)
The growth rate of a population is the net change in population between two points in time and is typically
expressed as a percentage. This rate is calculated based on the difference between the number of births, deaths,
and migration over a given period (statement 1 is correct).
Natural growth of a population refers to the difference between the birth rate and the death rate within a
population, not considering migration. It reflects how much a population increases or decreases due to natural
factors such as births and deaths alone (statement 3 is correct).
However, negative growth occurs when the death rate exceeds the birth rate, leading to a decline in population,
not the other way around. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect, as negative growth does not happen when birth
rates are higher than death rates.
12) Which of the following statements regarding positive growth of population is correct?
a) Positive growth occurs when the death rate exceeds the birth rate
b) Positive growth occurs when the birth rate equals the death rate
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) Positive growth occurs when the birth rate is higher than the death rate or there is inward migration
d) Positive growth occurs when the fertility rate is below replacement level
Solution: c)
Positive population growth occurs when the birth rate exceeds the death rate, or when there is inward
migration that adds to the population. This increase in population can happen naturally, when the number of
births surpasses the number of deaths in a given period, or through migration, where people move into a country
or region, contributing to its population size.
In contrast, if the death rate were to exceed the birth rate, the population would decline. Similarly, when the
birth rate equals the death rate, there would be no significant change in population size, leading to zero
population growth.
Moreover, the fertility rate falling below the replacement level (approximately 2.1 children per woman) typically
leads to a declining population over time, as fewer children are born to replace the older generations.
13) The period of rapid population growth in India (1951-1981) can be attributed to which of the following
factors?
a) High mortality rates and high fertility rates
b) Declining fertility rates and declining mortality rates
c) Low fertility rates and improved migration policies
d) Declining mortality rates and high fertility rates
Solution: d)
The period of rapid population growth in India from 1951 to 1981 is often referred to as the period of population
explosion. This unprecedented growth can be primarily attributed to declining mortality rates and high fertility
rates. Significant advancements in healthcare, sanitation, and medical facilities during this period drastically
reduced mortality rates. The availability of vaccines, improved healthcare infrastructure, and better control of
diseases contributed to a longer life expectancy, causing a sharp decline in death rates.
14) Match the following census-related terms with their definitions:

Term Definition
1. Synchronous Census a. A population data collection done at different times in different regions.
b. Census conducted with coordination, covering the entire country at the same
2. Complete Census
time.
3. Non-synchronous
c. A census covering all demographic, social, and economic aspects comprehensively.
Census
4. Partial Census d. Census data collection covering only parts of the population or regions.
Options:
a) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
b) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
c) 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b
d) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
Solution: a)
A synchronous census is one conducted simultaneously across the country (1-b).

A complete census covers the population with a focus on demographic, social, and economic attributes (2-c). A
non-synchronous census happens at different times in different regions (3-a).
A partial census covers only parts of the population or regions (4-d).
15) What marked the beginning of the decline in India's population growth rate after 1981?
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
a) An increase in birth rates
b) Emigration of a large portion of the population
c) Declining fertility rates due to family planning efforts
d) High mortality rates from epidemics
Solution: c)
The beginning of the decline in India's population growth rate after 1981 can be attributed primarily to declining
fertility rates, driven by family planning efforts. The government launched several initiatives, including the
promotion of contraception and awareness campaigns about the benefits of smaller families. The increased
access to healthcare and education, especially for women, also played a crucial role in this shift. As families
became more aware of the economic and social benefits of having fewer children, the fertility rate steadily
declined.
Additionally, economic development during this period improved living standards, and with rising urbanization,
there was a greater inclination toward smaller family sizes. This decline in fertility, along with improved child
survival rates due to better healthcare, caused the overall population growth rate to slow down, marking a
significant shift from the earlier decades characterized by rapid population growth or "population explosion."
16) Which of the following mineral belts is known as the richest mineral belt of India?
a) Central Belt
b) Southern Belt
c) South-Western Belt
d) North-Eastern Peninsular Belt
Solution: d)
The North-Eastern Peninsular Belt, covering the Chhota Nagpur Plateau and Odisha Plateau, is the richest
mineral belt in India. It contains significant reserves of coal, iron ore, manganese, mica, bauxite, copper, and
chromite. This region is known as the mineral heartland of India due to its vast mineral wealth.
17) Which of the following statements about the sedimentary deposits along the base of the continental slope is
true?
a) These deposits form what is known as the continental rise, extending over several kilometers.
b) The continental slope itself is rich in sediments, making it a primary area for sedimentary deposits.
c) Sediment deposition on the continental slope is primarily due to river input from the land.
d) The sedimentary deposits on the continental slope are predominantly organic material from marine
life.
Solution: a)
Sediments accumulate at the base of the continental slope to form what is known as the continental rise. This
region, found between the slope and the abyssal plain, collects sediments that gradually settle after being
carried down the slope. The rise can vary significantly in width, sometimes extending up to 600 kilometers. Unlike
the slope itself, which has minimal sediment deposition, the continental rise serves as a major zone for sediment
accumulation.
18) Consider the following statements about the relationship between ocean currents and salinity:
1. Warm currents near the equator move salts from the western margins to the eastern margins of
oceans.
2. Ocean currents in temperate regions increase salinity near the eastern margins of oceans.
3. The Gulf Stream increases salinity along the western margins of the North Atlantic Ocean.
a) Only one
b) Only two
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect. Warm currents near the equator tend to move salts from the eastern margins to the
western margins of oceans, not the other way around.
Statement 2 is correct. Ocean currents in temperate regions, like the Gulf Stream, increase salinity near the
eastern margins of oceans.
Statement 3 is also correct. The Gulf Stream increases salinity along the western margins of the North Atlantic
Ocean by transporting warm, saline water.
19) Consider the following statements about the formation of Western Disturbances:
1. They are driven by the interaction between cold air from Polar Regions and warmer moist air.
2. They gain moisture primarily from the Mediterranean and Atlantic Oceans.
3. They form cyclonic conditions in northern India during the winter season.
4. They generally bring lower night temperatures and dense fog.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Solution: c)
Western Disturbances are formed due to the interaction of cold air from Polar Regions with warmer moist air and
gain moisture from the Mediterranean and Atlantic Oceans. They bring cyclonic conditions in northern India
during winter, but they generally cause higher night temperatures and not lower, making statement 4 incorrect.
20) Which of the following statements about the impact of Western Disturbances is correct?
1. They are crucial for the wheat crop in north-western India.
2. They can cause floods and avalanches in the Himalayas.
3. They bring heavy rainfall during the southwest monsoon season.
4. They influence the weather patterns in Central India.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: b)
Western Disturbances are crucial for the wheat crop in north-western India and can cause floods and avalanches
in the Himalayas due to excessive precipitation. However, they are unrelated to the southwest monsoon and
have little influence on Central India's weather, making statements 3 and 4 incorrect.
21) Consider the following statements about drainage patterns:

1. Dendritic drainage patterns resemble tree branches with lots of twigs.
2. Radial drainage patterns form when rivers flow from a central point, like a hill, in all directions.
3. Trellis drainage patterns develop when tributaries join main rivers at acute angles.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is correct; a dendritic drainage pattern looks like tree branches with numerous twigs, which is
common in the rivers of the northern plains.
Statement 2 is also correct; radial drainage patterns occur when rivers originate from a central point such as a hill
and flow outward in all directions, like those originating from Amarkantak.
However, Statement 3 is incorrect because trellis drainage patterns form when the main rivers and their
primary tributaries flow parallel to each other, and the secondary tributaries join at right angles, not acute
angles.
22) Consider the following statements about drainage systems:

1. A river basin covers a larger area than a watershed.
2. Centripetal drainage patterns occur when rivers flow outward from a central point.
3. The drainage pattern of a region is influenced by its geological structure, topography, and climate.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is correct; river basins cover larger areas than watersheds.

Statement 2 is incorrect because centripetal drainage patterns occur when rivers flow inward to a central
depression, not outward.
Statement 3 is correct; drainage patterns are influenced by geological structure, topography, and climate, among
other factors.
23) Which of the following statements about the Panch Prayag is/are correct?
1. Vishnuprayag is where the Alaknanda meets the Dhauli Ganga.
2. Nandprayag is where the Alaknanda meets the Mandakini.
3. Rudraprayag is where the Alaknanda meets the Pinder.
4. Devprayag is where the Alaknanda meets the Bhagirathi to form the Ganga.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3, and 4 only
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is correct; Vishnuprayag is where the Alaknanda meets the Dhauli Ganga.
Statement 4 is also correct; Devprayag is the place where the Alaknanda meets the Bhagirathi, forming the
Ganga.
Statement 2 is incorrect as Nandprayag is where the Alaknanda meets the Nandakini, not the Mandakini.
Statement 3 is incorrect because Rudraprayag is where the Alaknanda meets the Mandakini, not the Pinder.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
24) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the tributaries of the Yamuna?
1. The Chambal, the Sind, the Betwa, and the Ken are right bank tributaries of the Yamuna.
2. The Varuna and the Hindan are left bank tributaries of the Yamuna.
3. The Chambal is known for its badland topography, referred to as the Chambal ravines.
4. The Chambal rises near the Bandarpunch range in the Himalayas.
a) 1, 2, 3, and 4
b) 1, 2, and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3 only
Solution: d)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The Chambal, Sind, Betwa, and Ken are right bank tributaries of the Yamuna,
while the Hindan and Varuna are left bank tributaries.
The Chambal is famous for its badland topography, referred to as the Chambal ravines.
However, Statement 4 is incorrect because the Chambal rises near Mhow in the Malwa plateau of Madhya
Pradesh, not in the Bandarpunch range of the Himalayas.
25) Which of the following statements is/are correct about the physiography of the Himachal and Uttarakhand
Himalayas?
1. All three ranges of the Himalayas (Great Himalayas, Lesser Himalayas, and Shiwaliks) are present in this
region.
2. Important duns like Dehradun and Nalagarh are located in this region.
3. The Valley of Flowers, a UNESCO World Heritage site, is located in the Darjeeling Himalayas.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: c)
Statement 1 is correct as all three ranges (Great Himalayas, Lesser Himalayas, and Shiwalik) are prominent in the
Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas.
Statement 2 is also correct; important duns like Dehradun and Nalagarh are found in this region.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the Valley of Flowers is located in Uttarakhand, not the Darjeeling Himalayas.
26) Consider the following statements regarding Shield volcanoes.

1. The shield volcanoes are the largest of all the volcanoes on the earth.
2. The Hawaiian volcanoes are the examples of Shield volcanoes.
3. These volcanoes are very steep in nature.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Shield Volcanoes:
Barring the basalt flows, the shield volcanoes are the largest of all the volcanoes on the earth. The Hawaiian
volcanoes are the most famous examples. These volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt, a type of lava that is
very fluid when erupted. For this reason, these volcanoes are not steep. They become explosive if somehow
water gets into the vent; otherwise, they are characterised by low-explosivity.

1. In an Earthquake, greatest damage usually occurs closest to the epicentre and the strength of the
earthquake decreases away from the centre.
2. The velocity of earthquake waves remains constant as they travel through materials with different
densities.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
When the Lithospheric plates move, the surface of the earth vibrates. The vibrations can travel all-round the
earth. These vibrations are called earthquakes. The place in the crust where the movement starts is called the
focus. The place on the surface above the focus is called the epicentre. Vibrations travel outwards from the
epicentre as waves. Greatest damage is usually closest to the epicentre and the strength of the earthquake
decreases away from the centre.
The velocity of earthquake waves changes as they travel through materials with different densities. The denser
the material, the higher is the velocity. Their direction also changes as they reflect or refract when coming across
materials with different densities.
28) Which of the following are the reasons that can be attributed to the frequent landslides and debris
avalanches in Himalayan region?
1. The Himalayas are tectonically stable.
2. They are mostly made up of sedimentary rocks and unconsolidated deposits.
3. The slopes are very steep.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The reasons that can be attributed to the frequent landslides and debris avalanches in Himalayan region are
(i) The Himalayas are tectonically active. Thus, tectonically unstable.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
(ii) They are mostly made up of sedimentary rocks and unconsolidated and semi-consolidated deposits.
(iii) The slopes are very steep.
29) Consider the following statements regarding Earthquake Waves.

1. P-waves move faster than S-waves.
2. P-waves travel only through solid medium whereas S-waves travel through both solid and liquid
medium.
3. The surface waves are more destructive than body waves.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface waves. Body waves are generated due to
the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling through the body of the earth.
There are two types of body waves. They are called P and S-waves. P-waves move faster and are the first to
arrive at the surface. These are also called ‘primary waves’. The P-waves are similar to sound waves. They travel
through gaseous, liquid and solid materials. S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag. These are called
secondary waves. An important fact about S-waves is that they can travel only through solid materials.
The surface waves are the last to report on seismograph. These waves are more destructive. They cause
displacement of rocks, and hence, the collapse of structures occurs.

1. A fault is a place with a long break in the rock that forms the surface of the earth.
2. When an earthquake occurs on one of the faults, the rock on one side of the fault slips with respect to
the other.
3. Indonesia is not located on the fault lines in the Pacific Basin.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
A fault is a place with a long break in the rock that forms the surface of the earth. When an earthquake occurs
on one of these faults, the rock on one side of the fault slips with respect to the other.
Does Indonesia usually have earthquakes like this?

The country of more than 270 million people is frequently struck by earthquakes, volcanic eruptions and tsunamis
because of its location on the arc of volcanoes and fault lines in the Pacific Basin known as the “Ring of Fire.”
The area spans some 40,000 kilometers (25,000 miles) and is where a majority of the world’s earthquakes occur.
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3. Art and Culture

1) Which of the following is true about the Bhaja Caves in terms of musical history?
a) They contain the earliest depictions of the sitar in Indian art.
b) They house the earliest known musical notations in India.
c) The caves were used as a music school during the Gupta period.
d) The carvings in these caves prove that tabla, a percussion instrument, was used in India for at least
2300 years.
Solution: d)
Bhaja caves
• It is located near Pune
• They are believed to be excavated in 2nd century BC
• It belongs to the Hinayana Buddhism sect in Maharashtra
• These caves are notable for their indications of the awareness of wooden architecture
• The carvings prove that tabla – a percussion instrument – was used in India for at least 2300 years

1. Malla-yuddha was codified during the Vedic period and is one of the oldest recorded fighting arts in
India.
2. The Indus Valley Civilization has no known evidence of martial techniques or combat arts.
3. Indian martial arts are often linked to other traditional practices such as yoga and dance.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
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Malla-yuddha, codified during the Vedic period, is indeed one of the oldest recorded martial arts in India.
Martial traditions in India are closely connected to yoga, dance, and other performing arts. However, evidence of
martial techniques is found in Indus Valley artifacts such as seals depicting duels.
3) Consider the following statements about Thang Ta:

1. Thang Ta is another name for Huyen Langlon, the Manipuri martial art.
2. The martial art involves both armed and unarmed combat.
3. Thang Ta is primarily a form of ceremonial dance and lacks any real combat application.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
Solution: a)
Thang Ta is a component of the larger martial tradition of Huyen Langlon, which involves both armed and
unarmed combat. It is not limited to ceremonial purposes, as it includes practical combat techniques using
weapons such as the sword and spear. Although it has a ritualistic aspect, the martial art retains its combat
application.
4) Concerning Lathi Khela, consider the following statements:

1. Lathi Khela is an unarmed martial art primarily practiced in South India.
2. The practitioners of Lathi Khela are called "lathials."
3. Lathi Khela involves the use of bows and arrows in combat.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 only
Solution: c)
Lathi Khela – West Bengal

• Lathi is an ancient armed martial art of India. It also refers to one of the world’s oldest weapons used in
martial arts.
• Lathi or stick martial arts practised in Punjab and Bengal region of India
• Lathi still remains a popular sport in the Indian villages
• A practitioner is known as lathial
5) Consider the following statements about Harappan pottery:

1. Painted Grey Ware was exclusive to the Harappan Civilization.
2. Burial Pottery was common in Harappan sites and indicates ritualistic practices.
3. Harappan pottery was mostly undecorated and rough in texture.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: b)
Burial Pottery from the Harappan Civilization is evidence of ritualistic burial practices. While Painted Grey Ware
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
existed during the Harappan period, it continued into the Vedic Age and was not exclusive to Harappa.
Harappan pottery often exhibited detailed designs and decoration, not merely rough textures.
6) Which of the following pottery types is associated with the Chalcolithic Age in India?
a) Northern Black Polished Ware
b) Painted Grey Ware
c) Black and Red Ware
d) Polished Ware
Solution: c)
The Chalcolithic Age is marked by distinct pottery cultures such as Black and Red Ware, Black-on-Red Ware, and
Ochre-Colored Pottery. This pottery shows the transition between the Stone and Bronze Ages and provides
insights into early agrarian societies.
7) Consider the following statements regarding Pala School of Art.

1. It developed in the Magadha region of Southern Bihar in form of miniature paintings.
2. It is identified by a prominent use of straight lines and bright golden colours.
2. Early paintings were predominantly Buddhist.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 only
Solution: c)
• The earliest examples of miniature painting in India exist in the form of illustrations to the religious texts on
Buddhism executed under the Palas of the eastern India and the Jain texts executed in western India during
the 11th-12th centuries A.D.
• The Pala dynasty came to power around 750 A.D. The Pala school of art first flourished in the Magadha
region of Southern Bihar, the homeland of Buddhist religion. Not surprisingly, the majority of early Pala-
period remains are Buddhist.
• The Pala painting is characterised by sinuous line and subdued tones of colour. It is a naturalistic style
which resembles the ideal forms of contemporary bronze and stone sculpture, and reflects some feeling of
the classical art of Ajanta.
• The Pala art came to a sudden end after the destruction of the Buddhist monasteries at the hands of Muslim
invaders in the first half of the 13th century. Some of the monks and artists escaped and fled to Nepal, which
helped in reinforcing the existing art traditions there.
8) Consider the following statements about pottery in the Neolithic Age:

1. Pottery in the Neolithic Age was primarily hand-made.
2. The use of foot-wheel for making pottery was never introduced during this period.
3. Pottery in this age marks the first evidence of settled agricultural societies.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: b)
Neolithic pottery was initially hand-made, but the foot-wheel was introduced in the later part of the period. This
period's pottery marks the shift from a nomadic lifestyle to settled agricultural communities. The presence of
pottery signifies food storage and other domestic advancements.
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9) What is the major theme running common between the Central Indian and Rajasthani schools of painting?
a) They use light colours to portray extra-terrestrial themes.
b) They are highly secular in nature.
c) They are unaffected by historical developments and carry a unique style.
d) They are rooted in the Indian traditions.
Solution: d)
Unlike Mughal painting which is primarily secular, the art of painting in Central India, Rajasthani and the Pahari
region etc. is deeply rooted in the Indian traditions, taking inspiration from Indian epics, religious texts like the
Puranas, love poems in Sanskrit and other Indian languages, Indian folk-lore and works on musical themes.
The cults of Vaishnavism, Saivism and Sakti exercised tremendous influence on the pictorial art of these places.
Among these the cult of Krishna was the most popular one which inspired the patrons and artists.
The Rajasthani style of painting including that of Malwa, is marked by bold drawing, strong and contrasting
colours. The treatment of figures is flat without any attempt to show perspective in a naturalistic manner.
10) Concerning the role of pottery in understanding ancient cultures, consider the following statements:
1. Pottery provides critical evidence in cultures where the script is absent or undeciphered.
2. The style and quality of pottery can indicate the social and economic conditions of a culture.
3. Pottery was only used for storage and had no ritual significance in ancient India.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
Pottery serves as a valuable source of evidence in cultures where writing systems are absent or undeciphered,
helping archaeologists study social, economic, and environmental conditions. Pottery had a variety of uses,
including ritualistic functions in many ancient societies, making statement 3 incorrect.
11) Which of the following pottery traditions is associated with the Vedic Age?
a) Burial Pottery
b) Black-on-Red Ware
c) Ochre-Colored Pottery
d) Painted Grey Ware
Solution: d)
During the Vedic Age, Painted Grey Ware (PGW) was a significant pottery tradition. PGW, along with Northern
Black Polished Ware (NBPW), reflects the cultural and social practices of the time, particularly in the Gangetic
plains.
12) Consider the following statements regarding Bojjannakonda.

1. Bojjannakonda is a centuries-old Buddhist heritage site in Karnataka.
2. It shows elements of all the three Buddhist phases.
3. The site is famous for many stupas, rock-cut caves, brick-built edifices and early historic pottery.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
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Solution: a)
Bojjannakonda, a centuries-old Buddhist heritage site in (at Sankaram, near Visakhapatnam) Andhra Pradesh.
The main stupa at Bojjannakonda is a rock-carved structure covered with bricks and adorned with Buddha
sculptures. Lingalametta boasts rows of rock-cut monolithic stupas.
These sites show elements of all the three Buddhist phases:

• Theravada (Lord Buddha was considered a teacher)
• Mahayana (Buddhism was more devotional)
• Vajrayana (Buddhist tradition was more practised as Tantra and in esoteric form)
The site is famous for many votive stupas, rock-cut caves, brick-built edifices, early historic pottery, and
Satavahana coins that date back to the 1st century AD.
13) Regarding Chalcolithic Age pottery, consider the following statements:

1. The Chalcolithic Age is characterized by Black and Red Ware pottery.
2. Ochre-Colored Pottery (OCP) was unique to this period.
3. Pottery from this age shows a transition between the Stone Age and Bronze Age.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The Chalcolithic Age is indeed characterized by Black and Red Ware pottery, along with Black-on-Red Ware.
Ochre-Colored Pottery (OCP), however, was not unique to this period, as it continued into the Harappan
Civilization. This period's pottery indicates the transition from stone tools to metal tools, reflecting changing
social and technological landscapes.
14) Consider the following statements regarding Phanigiri artefacts.

1. Phanigiri, often referred to as the "hillock of snake hood," is a small village located in Madhya Pradesh.
2. Phanigiri provides evidence of the deification of Buddha and a transition towards canonization and
ritual in Buddhist practices.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
The Phanigiri Buddhist artefacts, discovered in 1942 and dating from 200 BCE to 400 CE, are currently showcased
at the New York Metropolitan Museum of Art in an exhibition called "The Tree and Serpent."
Phanigiri, often referred to as the "hillock of snake hood," is a small village approximately 150 km from
Hyderabad, with significant historical and spiritual significance in Buddhism.
Findings at Phanigiri:
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• Remarkable findings at Phanigiri are a set of thoranas, which are stone gateways, and one of these thoranas
displays both Mahayana and Hinayana schools of Buddhist thought, suggesting coexistence despite
philosophical differences.
• Phanigiri provides evidence of the deification of Buddha and a transition towards canonization and ritual in
Buddhist practices.
• The artefacts from this site, including a limestone carving of Buddha wearing what appears to be a Roman
toga, are considered highly important and are now part of the exhibition in New York.
15) Which civilization is associated with a wide range of pottery types, including Burial Pottery, Black -on-Red
Ware, and Painted Grey Ware?
a) Vedic Civilization
b) Chalcolithic Age
c) Harappan Civilization
d) Neolithic Age
Solution: c)
The Harappan Civilization had a rich variety of pottery, including Burial Pottery, Ochre -Colored Pottery (OCP),
Black-on-Red Ware, and Painted Grey Ware. These pottery types provide critical insights into the socio -economic
and ritualistic practices of the Harappan people.
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4. History
1) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Councils Act of 1909:
1. It allowed members of the legislative councils to move resolutions on the budget and ask
supplementary questions.
2. It provided for the first time the inclusion of Indians in the executive councils of the Viceroy and
Governors.
3. It introduced a direct election system for the legislative councils.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
The Indian Councils Act of 1909 significantly enhanced the powers and functions of the legislative councils at both
the Central and provincial levels.
One of the key reforms was the introduction of deliberative functions, where members were allowed to move
resolutions on the budget, ask supplementary questions, and discuss matters of public interest, which made the
councils more than just advisory bodies.
Additionally, the Act marked the first time that Indians were included in the executive councils of the Viceroy
and Governors.
Satyendra Prasad Sinha was the first Indian appointed to the Viceroy’s Executive Council as the law member.
However, the election process for the legislative councils remained indirect, with members being elected
through electoral colleges formed by local bodies. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
2) Consider the following statements regarding the Surat Split of 1907:

1. The split occurred due to differences between moderates and extremists within the Indian National
Congress over resolutions like Swaraj, Swadeshi, and Boycott.
2. The British utilized the split to suppress the Extremists by launching a massive crackdown, including the
imprisonment of Lokmanya Tilak.
3. The Surat Split strengthened the Indian National Congress by allowing it to focus on more moderate,
achievable goals.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: a)
The Surat Split in 1907 was a significant event in the history of the Indian National Congress. The split occurred
primarily due to ideological differences between the Moderates, who favored a gradual approach through
constitutional means, and the Extremists, who advocated for more radical actions such as Swaraj (self-rule),
Swadeshi (promotion of indigenous goods), Boycott of foreign goods, and National Education.
The British exploited this division through their "divide and rule" policy, suppressing the Extremists who were
seen as a more immediate threat to their rule.
Lokmanya Tilak, a prominent Extremist leader, was imprisoned and sent to Mandalay, which significantly
weakened the Extremist faction.
Contrary to statement 3, the split did not strengthen the Congress but rather led to a period of decline and
division within the party, with the Moderates losing touch with the younger generation of nationalists.
3) Consider the following statements regarding the Fourteen Points of Jinnah:

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1. The Fourteen Points were a response to the Simon Commission's recommendations.
2. One of the key demands was the abolition of separate electorates for Muslims.
3. The Fourteen Points demanded that Sindh be separated from the Bombay Presidency.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Solution: c)
The Fourteen Points of Jinnah were proposed in 1929 as a response to the Nehru Report, not the Simon
Commission.
The Nehru Report had advocated for joint electorates, which was one of the main reasons why it was strongly
opposed by Muslim leaders like Jinnah.
The Fourteen Points, instead of abolishing separate electorates, actually called for their continuation, with the
provision that any community could opt for joint electorates at any time.
Among the demands in the Fourteen Points was the separation of Sindh from the Bombay Presidency,
reflecting the Muslim League's concern for Muslim-majority regions. Therefore, only the third statement is
correct.
4) Which of the following was a demand by Gandhi that was rejected by Viceroy Irwin in the Gandhi-Irwin Pact?
a) Right to peaceful picketing
b) Suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement
c) Public inquiry into police excesses
d) Participation in the Round Table Conference
Solution: c)
Gandhi had demanded a public inquiry into police excesses during the Civil Disobedience Movement, but this
was rejected by Viceroy Irwin. Along with this, the commutation of Bhagat Singh’s death sentence to life
imprisonment was another demand that was turned down.
The pact did, however, result in several important agreements, including the suspension of the Civil Disobedience
Movement and the Congress’s participation in the next Round Table Conference.
These concessions were critical in creating an atmosphere for negotiations between the British and the Indian
National Congress.
5) Consider the following statements regarding the Gandhi-Irwin Pact:

1. The British government agreed to release all political prisoners, including those convicted of violent
acts.
2. The Indian National Congress agreed to participate in the next Round Table Conference.
3. The pact resulted in the immediate commutation of Bhagat Singh’s death sentence.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Solution: b)
The Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931 led to the release of political prisoners, but those convicted of violent crimes were
excluded, making Statement 1 incorrect.
The Indian National Congress did agree to participate in the next Round Table Conference, as mentioned in
Statement 2.
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However, the commutation of Bhagat Singh’s death sentence, a key demand by Gandhi, was not accepted by
the British government, making Statement 3 incorrect.
6) Consider the following statements about the objectives of the Landholders Society and Bengal British India
Society:
1. The Landholders Society primarily focused on issues concerning landowners and landlords.
2. The Bengal British India Society was mainly intended to represent both landlord and tenant interests.
3. Both societies used armed protests as a means to express their demands to the British government.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
Solution: a)
• The Landholders Society, founded in 1838, primarily represented the interests of landowners and landlords
in British India, advocating for their rights and working within the colonial administrative framework to
address issues like tax assessments and property rights. It aimed to protect the privileges of the landed elite
and relied on petitions rather than protests to communicate with the British government.
• The Bengal British India Society, established in 1843, differed in that it sought to represent broader interests,
focusing not only on land issues but also on civil rights and administrative reforms. However, it didn’t
specifically target tenant issues as a primary objective.
• Neither society engaged in armed protests; they adopted peaceful, formal channels of petitioning and
dialogue, understanding that open confrontation could threaten their objectives under colonial rule.
7) Consider the following statements regarding Bhagat Singh:

Statement-I: Bhagat Singh was involved in the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) and was
a prominent figure in the fight for India's independence.
Statement-II: He was executed for his role in the assassination of British police officer John Saunders.
Statement-I
Statement-I
Solution: a)
• Bhagat Singh was indeed a key member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) and
played a significant role in the Indian independence movement. He is celebrated for his revolutionary
activities against British rule and for advocating for socialism.
• He was executed on March 23, 1931, for his involvement in the assassination of John Saunders, a British
police officer, which was part of a larger plan to avenge the death of his fellow revolutionary Lala Lajpat Rai,
who had died from injuries sustained during a police baton charge.
• Thus, both statements are accurate, and Statement-II explains the context of Statement-I.
8) Consider the following statements about the objectives and recommendations of the British Indian
Association:
1. It demanded the creation of a separate legislature.
2. The Association advocated for a reduction in the salaries of higher British officers in India.
3. It called for the abolition of taxes such as abkari, salt duty, and stamp duties.
4. The Association succeeded in securing an Indian representative in the British Parliament.
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a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Solution: b)
The British Indian Association called for various reforms, including the establishment of a separate legislature,
reduction in the salaries of British officers, and abolition of taxes such as abkari, salt duty, and stamp duties.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The Association did not secure an Indian representative in the British Parliament;
instead, its recommendations influenced local governance reforms, not representation in the British Parliament.

Statement-I: The Extremists demanded Swaraj as the goal of the Indian National Movement during the
early 20th century.
Statement-II: The Moderates supported the same demand for Swaraj during the initial phase of the
national movement.
Statement-I
Statement-I
Solution: c)
The Extremists, led by leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, and Bipin Chandra Pal, demanded
Swaraj (self-rule) as the ultimate goal during the early 20th century, particularly after the Partition of Bengal in
1905.
The Moderates, who dominated the Indian National Congress in its early years, did not demand Swaraj initially.
They believed in petitioning the British government for reforms and hoped for gradual concessions under British
rule. Only later, after growing frustration, did some Moderates align with the Extremists on certain demands,
especially during the Lucknow Pact of 1916.
Thus, Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
10) Consider the following statements regarding the Madras Native Association:
1. The Madras Native Association was formed as a branch of the British Indian Association in Calcutta.
2. It aimed to work closely with the Calcutta Association to submit joint petitions to the British
Parliament.
3. The association remained influential in Madras until the early 1900s, advocating for Indian rights.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: d)
• The Madras Native Association, established in 1852, was an independent organization founded by
prominent Indians in Madras (now Chennai) and was not a branch of the British Indian Association in
Calcutta.
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• Its primary purpose was to represent the interests of the native population in the Madras Presidency,
focusing on issues such as administrative reforms, reducing discriminatory policies, and advocating for greater
Indian participation in the colonial administration.
• While it shared common goals with other regional associations, there was no formal collaboration with the
Calcutta-based British Indian Association to submit joint petitions.
• Additionally, the Madras Native Association did not remain influential into the early 1900s; it was
overshadowed by the formation of the Madras Mahajana Sabha in 1884, which took over as a prominent
platform for Indian rights in the region.
11) With reference to the East India Association (London), consider the following statements.
1. It was founded by Surendranath Banerjee.
2. It superseded the London Indian Society.
3. It was an extremist organization that had its main goal of organizing an armed struggle against the
British in India.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is INCORRECT: It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866, in collaboration with Indians and retired
British officials in London.
Statement 2 is correct: It superseded the London Indian Society and was a platform for discussing matters and
ideas about India, and to provide representation for Indians to the Government.
Statement 3 is INCORRECT: It was not an extremist organization.
12) Consider the following statements about Madam Bhikaji Cama.

1. She co-founded the Paris Indian Society.
2. She has once served as the president of the British Committee of the Indian National Congress (INC).
3. She unfurled the National Flag at the International Socialist Conference in 1907.
4. She has served as the Secretary General of the Indian Home Rule Society.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Solution: b)
Statement 1 and 3 is correct.
Statement 1: She co-founded the Paris Indian Society together with Singh Rewabhai Rana and Munchershah
Burjorji Godre.
Statement 2 and 4: She served as the private secretary of Dadabhai Naoroji, the president of the British
Committee of the Indian National Congress. Together with Naoroji and Singh Rewabhai Rana, Cama supported
the founding of Varma's Indian Home Rule Society in 1905.
Statement 3: In her appeal for human rights, equality and for autonomy from Great Britain, she unfurled what
she called the "Flag of Indian Independence"
13) Consider the following statements regarding the reaction of Extremists during Swadeshi Movement in Bengal.
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1. Extremists gave a call for passive resistance in addition to swadeshi and boycott which would include a
boycott of government schools and colleges, government service, courts and legislative councils.
2. The goal of independence was to be achieved through self-sacrifice.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
The Extremists gave a call for passive resistance in addition to swadeshi and boycott which would include a
boycott of government schools and colleges, government service, courts, legislative councils, municipalities,
government titles, etc.
The Extremists gave the idea of India’s independence the central place in India’s politics. The goal of
independence was to be achieved through self-sacrifice.

1. Pherozeshah Mehta was mainly responsible for the founding of ‘The Bombay Chronicle ’, an English
newspaper.
2. ‘A Nation in making’ book is the autobiography of Surendranath Banerjea.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Pherozeshah Mehta is an Indian political leader, planner of the municipal charter for Bombay and founder of the
English-language newspaper Bombay Chronicle. He presided over the sixth session of the Indian National
Congress in 1890. He had a major role in the establishment of a Swadeshi bank i.e. the Central Bank of India.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Surendranath Banerjea is one of important moderate political leader. He founded the Indian National
Association, through which he led two sessions of the Indian National Conference in 1883 and 1885, along
with Anandamohan Bose. He founded a new organization named Indian National Liberation Federation in 1919.
He was editor of "The Bengali" newspaper. Written in the last years of Sir Surendranath Banerjea s life, A Nation
in Making is not only the autobiography of a pioneering leader in Indian politics but also a commentary on public
life. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
15) Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act of 1919:
1. It introduced for the first-time bicameralism and direct elections in the country.
2. It granted limited franchise to people on the basis of property, tax, or education.
3. It introduced communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.
How many of the statements given above are not correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)
The Government of India Act of 1919 came into force in 1921. This Act is also known as Montagu-Chelmsford
Reforms (Montagu was the Secretary of State for India and Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India).
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It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial
subjects. The central and provincial legislatures were authorised to make laws on their respective list of subjects.
Statement 1 is correct: It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the
Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State)
and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly).
It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian
Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans.
Statement 2 is correct: It granted franchise to a limited number of people on the basis of property, tax or
education.
Statement 3 is not correct: The Government of India, 1909 introduced communal representation for Muslims by
accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’.
5. Ancient and Medieval India

1) Consider the following statements about the Sangam literature and period:
1. The Sangam period is often referred to as the ‘classical age’ of Tamil literature, similar to the
Renaissance in Europe.
2. All works from the Second Sangam perished except Tolkappiyam.
3. The Third Sangam produced no significant literary works that have survived to the present day.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: a)
The first and second statements are correct. The Sangam period is regarded as the 'classical age' of Tamil
literature, and Tolkappiyam is the only surviving work from the Second Sangam.
The third statement is incorrect because although many works from the Third Sangam have perished, several
significant pieces of literature, such as Silappadikaram, have survived.
2) Which of the following works is considered the oldest extant literary work in Tamil?
a) Silappadikaram
b) Tolkappiyam
c) Manimekalai
d) Tirukkural
Solution: b)
Tolkappiyam is the oldest extant literary work in Tamil, a treatise on Tamil grammar and poetics. It was likely
composed during the Second Sangam and serves as an essential source for understanding early Tamil language
and literary traditions.
3) The Sangam literature refers to which of the following works as “The Five Epics”?
a) Silappadikaram, Purananooru, Manimekalai, Aingurunooru, Tirukkural
b) Tolkappiyam, Silappadikaram, Manimekalai, Tirukkural, Kalittogai
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) Silappadikaram, Manimekalai, Valayapathi, Kundalakesi, Jivakachintamani
d) Tirukkural, Jivakachintamani, Tolkappiyam, Valayapathi, Manimekalai
Solution: c)
The Five Epics of Sangam literature include Silappadikaram, Manimekalai, Valayapathi, Kundalakesi, and
Jivakachintamani. These works are significant contributions to Tamil classical literature.
4) Which of the following works is primarily focused on ethics and morals in Sangam literature?
a) Aingurunooru
b) Silappadikaram
c) Kalittogai
d) Tirukkural
Solution: d)
Tirukkural is one of the most important works in Tamil literature, focusing on ethics and morals. It is part of the
Pathinenkilkanakku (Eighteen Minor Works) and is a classic in didactic literature.
5) Consider the following statements regarding the Sangam period political structure:
1. The Cheras, Cholas, and Pandyas all had their own royal emblems, including the bow for the Cheras and
the tiger for the Cholas.
2. The military commanders, spies, and ministers formed part of the king’s council and played significant
roles in governance.
3. Uraiyur was the capital of the Pandya kingdom during the Sangam period.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: a)
The first and second statements are correct. The Cheras, Cholas, and Pandyas had their own royal emblems—
bow for the Cheras, tiger for the Cholas, and carp for the Pandyas.
The military commanders, spies, and ministers were important parts of the king’s council and contributed to
governance.
The third statement is incorrect because Uraiyur was the capital of the Cholas, not the Pandyas.
6) Consider the following statements regarding the Harshavardhana’s Empire:

1. Harshavardhana unified most of northern India after the fall of the Gupta Empire.
2. His empire stretched till the Narmada River in the south.
3. Kannauj served as his capital city.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: d)
• Harshavardhana, after the fall of the Gupta Empire, emerged as a prominent ruler in northern India. He
successfully unified most of the northern region, creating a large empire that extended southward to the
Narmada River.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
• This southern boundary was significant, as it marked the limit of his empire’s expansion; he never conquered
the Deccan plateau.
• Kannauj served as his capital, becoming a political and administrative center. This city became an intellectual
and cultural hub under Harsha’s rule, reflecting the empire’s prosperity and centralization.
• Harsha’s consolidation of northern India, along with the establishment of a centralized capital, contributed to
his legacy as a unifying force in post-Gupta northern India.

1. Harshavardhana maintained cordial diplomatic relations with China.
2. Kannauj was a center for poets, artists, and scholars during his reign.
3. The scarcity of coins in his empire indicates a thriving mercantile economy.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: b)
• Harshavardhana maintained diplomatic relations with China, as seen in his correspondence with the Tang
dynasty. The Chinese traveler Xuanzang, who visited Harsha’s court, documented the emperor’s diplomatic
openness and intellectual environment, marking the era as one of cross-cultural exchanges.
• Kannauj, Harsha’s capital, became a significant center for poets, artists, and scholars, drawing intellectuals
from various regions and fostering a vibrant cultural scene.
• However, the scarcity of coins during Harsha’s reign does not indicate a thriving mercantile economy but
instead points to a predominantly feudal economy. This scarcity suggests that economic transactions relied
less on coinage and more on barter or other non-monetary exchanges.
8) Which of the following administrative divisions was used in the Pallava empire?
a) Nadus
b) Kottams
c) Mandalas
d) Pradesh
Solution: b)
• The Pallava empire was structured into administrative units known as “Kottams.” These divisions served as
the primary organizational framework, allowing the Pallavas to manage their territories effectively.
• The Kottams were overseen by officials appointed by the king, ensuring a direct line of administrative control
from the monarchy down to the local level. This hierarchical system allowed for centralized governance while
still maintaining local oversight.
• Unlike the “Nadus” used by the Cholas, the Kottams were specific to the Pallava dynasty and played a crucial
role in their administrative strategies.
• The division of territory into Kottams contributed to the Pallavas’ ability to consolidate power and
efficiently manage their empire.
• This system helped streamline tax collection, maintain law and order, and ensure effective governance across
the Pallava kingdom.
9) Consider the following statements regarding the Pallava administration:

1. The Pallavas had a decentralized monarchy where local assemblies had no authority.
2. Land revenue was the only source of income for the Pallava state.
3. Villages were governed directly by the king’s officers without any local assemblies.
INSTA STATIC QUIZ
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
Solution: d)
• The Pallava administration was monarchical but allowed for considerable local autonomy, especially
through village assemblies.
• These assemblies, such as the Sabha (for Brahmin settlements) and Urar (for non-Brahmin villages), held
authority in local governance, managing administrative and judicial matters within their respective
jurisdictions. Thus, statement 1, which claims that the monarchy was fully centralized, is incorrect.
• Furthermore, while land revenue was a significant income source, the Pallava state collected other taxes,
including those on professions, marriage, and the manufacture of goods.
• Statement 3 is also incorrect, as village governance was not handled solely by king-appointed officers; local
assemblies played a vital role. This enabled local communities to handle day-to-day matters autonomously,
promoting an organized yet flexible governance structure.
10) The Pancha Rathas at Mamallapuram is an example of which type of architecture?

a) Structural temples
b) Cave temples
c) Rock-cut temples
d) Stepwell architecture
Solution: c)
• The Pancha Rathas at Mamallapuram (Mahabalipuram), attributed to the reign of Pallava king
Narasimhavarman I, are remarkable examples of rock-cut temple architecture.
• These monolithic structures, carved from single granite boulders, represent the transition from cave temples
to free-standing temples in South India.
• Each of the five Rathas (chariots) is dedicated to a different deity or theme, and they exhibit distinct
architectural styles, showcasing the Pallavas' artistic mastery and architectural innovation.
• Unlike structural temples, which are constructed using masonry, rock-cut temples are hewn directly from the
rock, making the Pancha Rathas exemplary of this method.
• This style was crucial in the evolution of Dravidian temple architecture and set a precedent for later temple
constructions.
• The Pancha Rathas continues to be admired for their intricate carvings, architectural finesse, and historical
significance, confirming their categorization as rock-cut temples.

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INSTA STATIC QUIZ

3. ART AND CULTURE ..................................................................................................... 41

5. ANCIENT AND MEDIEVAL INDIA ..................................................................................... 53

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India:

4) Consider the following statements regarding the Independence Act of 1947:

Only statement 1 is correct.

13) Consider the following statements.

Enforcement of Fundamental Duties of India:

17) Consider the following statements.

19) Consider the following statements regarding State emergency.

20) Consider the following statements.

All statements are incorrect:

23) Consider the following statements.

25) Consider the following statements.

29) Consider the following statements.

Only Statement 2 is correct.

The governor holds an independent office under the constitution.

32) Consider the following statements.

35) Consider the following statements.

38) Consider the following statements

39) Consider the following statements

40) Consider the following statements:

41) Consider the following statements:

42) Consider the following statements:

Independent Judiciary is a federal feature of the Indian Constitution.

44) Consider the following statements:

46) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Gram Nyayalayas?

The salient features of the Gram Nyayalayas Act are as follows:

47) Consider the following statements regarding Urban local bodies.

Only Statement 1 is correct.

Only In some states Mayors are directly elected by the people.

50) Consider the following statements regarding Charter Act of 1813:

The features of Charter Act of 1813 were as follows:

52) Consider the following statements:

54) Consider the following statements

55) Consider the following statements:

The writ of mandamus cannot be issued

56) Consider the following statements

Articles 323 A and 323 B differs in the following three aspects:

61) Consider the followings statements.

Statement 2 is correct: An impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament.

63) Consider the following statements:

2) Consider the following agriculture practices.

3) Consider the following statements about microplastics and their effects:

6) Consider the following statements about Joint Sector Industries:

8) Consider the following statements regarding the South-Western Mineral Belt:

14) Match the following census-related terms with their definitions:

A synchronous census is one conducted simultaneously across the country (1-b).

21) Consider the following statements about drainage patterns:

22) Consider the following statements about drainage systems:

Statement 1 is correct; river basins cover larger areas than watersheds.

26) Consider the following statements regarding Shield volcanoes.

Only Statement 2 is correct.

27) Consider the following statements.

29) Consider the following statements regarding Earthquake Waves.

30) Consider the following statements.

Does Indonesia usually have earthquakes like this?

3. Art and Culture

2) Consider the following statements:

3) Consider the following statements about Thang Ta: