1256) Medical Surgical Nursing Medical Surgical Nursing

MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING
INDEX

S.NO. TOPIC NAME
1. CELL & TISSUE
2. BLOOD
3. CARDIO VASCULAR SYSTEM
4. NERVOUS SYSTEM
5. RENAL SYSTEM
6. ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
7. G.I. SYSTEM
8. SENSORY ORGAN & SKIN INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
9. RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
10. MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
11. ONCOLOGY
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14. A system is defined as a group of......... that
CELL & TISSUE
function together?
1. Antibodies are produced by: (a) Cells (b) Tissues
(a) Plasma cells (b) Lymphocytes (c) Molecules (d) Organs
(c) Erythrocytes (d) Basophils 15. Which is the biggest cell in the body?
2. The type of muscle found in the visceral organs (a) Nerve cells (b) Cardiac cells
and blood vessels is called (c) Renal cells (d) Ovum
(a) Voluntary (b) Cardiac 16. Anatomy is a term, which means the study of?
(c) Myocardium (d) Involuntary (a) Physiology (b) Morphology
3. Smooth muscle tissue is located in: (c) Cell Function (d) Human Function
(a) The stomach (b) Urinary bladder 17. Mitosis is a condition of:
(c) Intestines (d) All of the Above (a) Cell division with half chromosomes
4. Which of the following body structure (b) Cell division without reduction
keratinized stratified epithelium is found? (c) Cell breakdown
(a) Conjunctiva of the eyes (d) Cell death
(b) Stomach 18. Proteins that are to be used outside the cell
(c) Airway are synthesized:
(d) Hair (a) In the mitochondria
5. The hereditary determinants of humans are (b) On free ribosome
received from: (c) On the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(a) Allele (b) Genes (d) On the rough endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Nucleus (d) Cytoplasm 19. Which of the following is the largest organelle
6. Which of the following is the hereditary of a cell?
material of cells? (a) Mitochondria (b) Lysosome
(a) D.N.A in the chromosomes (c) Ribosome (d) Nucleus
(b) Protein in the ribosomes 20. Transformation of one type of cell into another
(c) R.N.A in the nucleus type is called:
(d) Ribosomes in the cytoplasm (a) Hyperplasia (b) Metaplasia
7. Which of the following 'Power house of a cell? (c) Dysplasia (d) Anaplasia
(a) Ribosome (b) Golgi apparatus 21. The cell from which human body develops is
(c) Mitochondria (d) Lysosome known as
8. Which of The epithelial tissue which lines the (a) Zygote (b) Sperm
urinary bladder is- (c) Ovum (d) Ovary
(a) Squamous (b) Columnar 22. The structure called are intracellular areas ith
(c) Stratified (d) Transitional specific function?
9. Bones are the example of which of the (a) Inclusions (b) Organs
following? (c) Organelles (d) Macromolecules
(a) Epithelium tissue (b) They are not tissues 23. What is the smallest functional unit of the
(c) Muscle tissue (d) Connective tissue body?
10. The thickest human skin is? (a) Cell (b) Molecule
(a) Palm (b) Sole (c) Atom (d) Tissue
(c) Neck (d) Head 24. Meibomian glands are
11. Which of the following is an example of tissue? (a) Sebaceous glands
(a) Brain (b) Blood (b) Sweat glands
(c) Liver (d) Stomach (c) Mixed
12. Which of the Cell organ is related to synthesis (d) None
of ATP? 25. What is the Percentage of body weight formed
(a) Mitochondria (b) Golgi body by body water in an adult?
(c) Lysosome (d) Ribosome (a) 40% (b) 90%
13. What is the cell organ which synthesizes (c) 80% (d) 60%
protein, is 26. The breast is a modification of?
(a) Mitochondria (b) Golgi body (a) Sebaceous Gland (b) Sweat Gland
(c) Lysosome (d) Ribosome (c) Thyroid Gland (d) Pituitary gland
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27. Which of the following known as protein 37. Which one is produced by mesoderm?
factory? (a) Heart and notochord
(a) Ribosome (b) Mitochondria (b) Heart and brain
(c) Lysosome (d) Ovary (c) Spinal cord and notochord
28. Which of the function of Golgi apparatus cell (d) Brain
organelle is helpful in? 38. The inner most layer of epidermis is called as
(a) Pinocytosis (a) Germinative
(b) Exocytosis (b) Lucidum
(c) Endocytosis (c) Granulosum
(d) None of them (d) Corneum
29. Blood vessels are present in: 39. The colour of skin is affected by except?
(a) Epidermis layer (a) Melanin
(b) Adipose tissue (b) Level of Hb saturation
(c) Dermis layer (c) Level of bile pigments in blood
(d) None of them (d) Vitamin-D
30. Blood brain barrier is made up of 40. Which of the following pigment is responsible
(a) Astrocytes for maintain the colour of skin is?
(b) Oligodendrocytes (a) Red pigment
(c) Oligodendroglia (b) Carotene
(d) Microglia (c) Melanin
31. Wavy fibers in the absence of other myocardial (d) Liver
pathology suggest what to the autopsy 41. What is the Function of skin includes except?
pathologist? (a) Protection
(a) Amyloidosis (b) Regulation of body temperature
(b) Cobalt cardiomyopathy (c) Formation of vitamin - D
(c) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (d) Respiration regulation
(d) Sudden coronary death 42. Which of the following is Temperature
32. What is the most important function of sweat regulating centre?
glands is? (a) Thalamus
(a) Maintaining body temperature (b) Cerebellum
(b) Maintaining water and electrolyte balance (c) Medulla oblongata
(c) Maintaining cleanliness of body (d) Hypothalamus
(d) Protection to the heart 43. Which of the following is the largest organ of
33. Which of the following techniques uses a sugar body?
to look at the functioning of the brain? (a) Brain
(a) EEG (b) CT scan (b) Kidney
(c) MRI scan (d) PET scan (c) Liver
34. Sebaceous glands are not found on: (d) Skin
(a) Axilla
(b) Palms of the hands ANSWER KEY
(c) Soles of feet 1. [b] 2. [d] 3. [c] 4. [d] 5. [b]
(d) Both B and C
6. [a] 7. [c] 8. [d] 9. [d] 10. [b]
35. Melanin is secreted in:
11. [b] 12. [a] 13. [d] 14. [d] 15. [d]
(a) Corneum layer
(b) Germinative layer 16. [b] 17. [b] 18. [d] 19. [d] 20. [b]
(c) Granulosum layer 21. [a] 22. [c] 23. [a] 24. [a] 25. [d]
(d) Dermis layer 26. [b] 27. [a] 28. [b] 29. [c] 30. [a]
36. Which of the following could NOT be part of an 31. [d] 32. [a] 33. [d] 34. [d] 35. [b]
acinus?
36. [c] 37. [a] 38. [a] 39. [d] 40. [c]
(a) Alveolar sacs
(b) Alveolar ducts 41. [d] 42. [d] 43. [d]
(c) Terminal bronchioles
(d) Respiratory bronchiole ❑❑❑
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BLOOD 13. The artery which supply blood to head and
neck is
1. Prothrombin is produced by: (a) Coronary artery
(a) Blood (b) Liver (b) Carotid artery
(c) Ovary (d) Spleen (c) Mesenteric artery
2. A primary central organ of the lymphatic (d) Intracostal artery
system, plays vital in immunity: 14. Blood groups were first discovered by:
(a) Liver (b) Spleen (a) Robert Koch
(c) Thymus (d) Tonsils (b) Karl Landsteiner
3. Which of the following immunoglobulin is (c) Paul Ehrlich
involved in allergic reaction? (d) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
(a) Ig A (b) Ig D 15. The color of the RBC’s is given by:
(c) Ig G (d) Ig E (a) Actin (b) Globin
4. During clotting, the Prothrombin is changed to (c) Chyme (d) Heme
thrombin in the presence of? 16. Prothrombin time is increased in
(a) Calcium ions and fibrinogen (a) Heparin therapy
(b) Thromboplastin and Vitamin K (b) Obstructive Jaundice
(c) Calcium ion and Vitamin K (c) Haemorrhagic disease of newborn
(d) Calcium ion and Thromboplastin (d) All of the Above
5. A failure in lymphatic system to return body 17. All increase the chances of deep vein
fluids adequately results in? thrombosis except
(a) Swelling of hands and legs (a) Oral contraceptive pills
(b) Swelling of face and hands (b) Hypertension
(c) Oedema in spleen (c) Superficial thrombophlebitis
(d) Swelling of tissues as oedema (d) Myocardial Infarction
6. Carbonic anhydrase occurs in? 18. Lymphatic’s are found in
(a) Lymphocytes (b) Blood plasma (a) Brain (b) Choroid
(c) RBC (d) Leucocytes (c) Vertebrae (d) Dermis of skin
7. Clotting can be prevented by using? 19. Bilirubin is a breakdown product of which of
(a) Antiemetic (b) Antibiotics the following
(c) Anticoagulants (d) Analgesics (a) WBC (b) RBC
8. Which artery supplies oxygenated blood to the (c) Enzymes (d) Platelets
stomach? 20. Precursor cells of RBC are
(a) Carotid artery (b) Gastric artery (a) Reticulocyte
(c) Celiac artery (d) Cephalic artery (b) Band Forms
9. Tunica adventitia is a layer of: (c) Myelocytes
(a) Blood vessels (b) Uterus (d) Melanomyelocytes
(c) Testis (d) Lungs 21. PCR stands for
10. A largest organ in abdominal cavity that filters (a) Polymerase reaction
blood is? (b) Polymerase circular reaction
(c) Polymerase chain reagent
(a) Lymph nodes (b) Palatine Tonsils
(d) Polymerase chain reaction
(c) Spleen (d) None of the Above 22. Low Prothrombin levels in absence of jaundice
11. The abnormal dilatation of the wall of an indicates?
artery is referred as? (a) Serious damage to liver
(a) Phlebitis (b) Aneurysm (b) Serious damage to Kidney
(c) Hemisphere (d) Atherosclerosis (c) Portal Hypertension
(d) IHD
12. The normal value of Hb in female is
23. Arterial supply of uveal tract
(a) 8-10 gm%
(a) Anterior Ciliary arteries
(b) 12-14 gm%
(b) Long posterior ciliary arteries
(c) 10-12 gm%
(c) Short posterior arteries
(d) 16-18 gm%
(d) All of the Above
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24. Who is the carrier of Haemophilia? 35. Smallest veins are known as
(a) Female (a) Vena - cava (b) Capillaries
(b) Male (c) Venules (d) Arterioles
(c) Both Male and Female 36. Where the AV node is situated
(d) None of the Above (a) In the wall of atrioventricular septum
25. Leukopenia is? (b) In the wall of ventricles
(a) Reduced number of WBC (c) In the wall of ventricular septum
(b) Increased number of WBC (d) In the wall of atrial septum
(c) Reduced number of RBC 37. In human heart impulses are originated from-
(d) Increased number of RBC (a) Purkinje fibers
26. Fetal blood cell formation takes place in: (b) AV node
(a) Spleen (b) Bone marrow (c) SA Node
(c) Liver (d) All of the Above (d) Bundle of his
27. What colour is oxygenated blood 38. The first heart sound ‘lubb’ is heard due to
(a) Red (b) Blue (a) Opening of the aortic and pulmonary valves
(c) Purple (d) White (b) Opening of the atrioventricular valves
28. In Kawasaki's disease, you will probably NOT see (c) Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
(a) Enlarged lymph nodes containing granulomas (d) Closure of the atrioventricular valves
(b) Erythema of the palms 39. The second heart sound 'dubb' is heard due to
(c) Fever (a) Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
(b) Opening of the atrioventricular valves
(d) Reddening of the oral mucosa
(c) Closure of the atrioventricular valves
29. What's the major risk factor for Buerger's
(d) Opening of the aortic and pulmonary valves
Thromboangiitis obliterans? 40. In ECG the wave arises during sweeping of
(a) Alcohol abuse (b) Cocaine use impulses over the atria from the SA node, is
(c) Old age (d) Smoking named as
30. Which of the following is the longest vein in the (a) T wave (b) QRS complex
body? (c) P wave (d) U wave
(a) Femoral vein 41. In ECG relaxation of ventricular muscles is
(b) Superior vena cava represented by
(c) Inferior vena cava (a) T wave (b) QRS complex
(d) Great saphenous vein (c) P wave (d) U wave
31. Which of the following is the largest vein in the 42. Mesenteric/Auerbach's plexus is found in:
body? (a) Muscle layer
(a) Great saphenous vein (b) Hair
(b) Inferior vena cava (c) Gastric Mucosa layer
(c) Sephanous vein (d) Sub mucosa layer
(d) Femoral vein 43. Acromion process is located on:
32. Which of the following statements about Hb is (a) Ilium (b) Scapula
FALSE? (c) Humerus (d) Ulna
(a) A higher P50 than normal means that the O2 binds 44. Great Sephanous vein which is the longest vein in
less tightly to Hb human body is found in
(b) An increase in 2, 3-DPG shifts the 02 uptake curve (a) Upper limb (b) Thoracic region
to the left. (c) Brain (d) Lower limb
(c) An increase in PCO2 causes a right shift of the O2 45. The fibrous tissue connecting bone to bone is
uptake curve. called?
(d) A decrease in pH increases P50. (a) Cartilage (b) Tendon
33. Vitamin-K is synthesized in human body by? (c) Muscle (d) Ligament
(a) Bacteria in colon 46. Which Muscle is located on the anterior part of
(b) Liver the thigh?
(c) Spleen (a) Vastus lateralis (b) Rectus femoris
(c) Vastus medialis (d) Sartorius
(d) Muscle fibres
47. The type of membrane that lines the knee joint:
34. Smallest arteries are known as (a) Mucous (b) Epithelial
(a) Collateral arteries (b) Venules (c) Serous (d) Synovial
(c) Capillaries (d) Arterioles
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48. The strongest joint in the body is: 62. the most serious complication of fracture is
(a) Shoulder joint (b) Knee joint (a) Infection (b) Fat embolism
(c) Sacroiliac joint (d) Hip joint (c) Hemorrhage (d) Air embolism
49. Mobile bone of skull? 63. the most common injury among elderly persons
(a) Maxilla (b) Mandible is
(c) Ethmoid (d) Sphenoid (a) Atherosclerotic changes in the blood vessels
50. A condition characterized by moving of bones out (b) Increased incidents of gallbladder disease
joint: (c) Urinary tract infection
(a) Fracture (b) Sprain (d) Hip fracture
(c) Strain (d) Dislocation 64. Which is the most important muscle to produce
51. Abnormal lateral deviation of vertebral column upwards rotation of the scapula?
is? (a) Serratus anterior (b) Trapezius
(a) Osteoporosis (b) Lordosis (c) Levator Scapulae (d) Deltoid
(c) Kyphosis (d) Scoliosis 65. A bone embedded within a tendon or a muscle is
52. Acetabulum is the part of? called?
(a) Humerus (b) Radius (a) Sesamoid (b) Ethmoid
(c) Scapula (d) Femur (c) Platypoid (d) None of the Above
53. Skull consists of: 66. The commonest deformity at hip in post-polio
(a) 18 bones (b) 22 bones residual paralysis is:
(c) 12 bones (d) 14 bones (a) Flexion deformity
54. A junction between two or more bones or (b) Extension deformity
cartilage: (c) Flexion adduction deformity
(a) Synovial joint (b) Sutures (d) Flexion abduction deformity
(c) Joint (d) Fontanelle 67. What types of anaesthetic is used for minor
55. The outermost covering of the bone is: procedure?
(a) Pericardium (b) Periosteum (a) Systemic (b) Local
(c) Peritoneum (d) Perimetrium (c) None (d) Both A and B
56. Head of the femur articulates with the: 68. KF ring seen in
(a) Obturator foramen (a) Wilson disease (b) Blunt trauma
(b) Foramen magnum (c) Chemical injury (d) Thermal injury
(c) Acetabulum 69. Burst fracture is seen in?
(d) Cerebellum (a) Talus fracture
57. Facilitated diffusion of glucose takes place in all (b) Vertebral fracture
sites except? (c) Femoral head fracture
(a) Skeletal muscle (d) Scaphoid
(b) Adipose tissue 70. Which bone is also known as 'collar bone?'
(c) Insulin dependent tissues (a) Clavicle (b) Scapula
(d) Renal tubules (c) Radius (d) Humerus
58. A physical therapist performs a manual muscles ANSWER KEY
test on the primary hip abductor. The therapist 1. [b] 2. [c] 3. [d] 4. [d] 5. [c]
should perform the test while palpating the: 6. [c] 7. [c] 8. [c] 9. [a] 10. [c]
(a) Rectus femoris (b) Gluteus medius 11. [b] 12. [b] 13. [b] 14. [b] 15. [d]
16. [d] 17. [c] 18. [c] 19. [b] 20. [a]
(c) Sartorius (d) Gluteus minimums
21. [d] 22. [a] 23. [d] 24. [a] 25. [a]
59. Locking is a feature of ..............injury?
26. [d] 27. [a] 28. [a] 29. [d] 30. [d]
(a) Collateral ligament
31. [b] 32. [b] 33. [a] 34. [d] 35. [c]
(b) Meniscus
36. [d] 37. [c] 38. [d] 39. [a] 40. [c]
(c) Cruciates
41. [a] 42. [a] 43. [b] 44. [d] 45. [d]
60. Which of the following bones is considered a 46. [b] 47. [d] 48. [c] 49. [b] 50. [d]
Sesamoid bone? 51. [d] 52. [d] 53. [b] 54. [c] 55. [b]
(a) Sternum (b) Ethmoid 56. [c] 57. [d] 58. [b] 59. [b] 60. [d]
(c) Phalanx (d) Patella 61. [c] 62. [b] 63. [d] 64. [b] 65. [a]
61. There are ..............long bones in hand 66. [d] 67. [b] 68. [a] 69. [b] 70. [a]
(a) 15 (b) 17
(c) 19 (d) 22 ❑❑❑
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10. All of the following can cause tachycardia
CARDIAC SYSTEM
except
1. If pericardial fluid exceed above 50 ml. This is (a) Fever
known as - (b) Exercise
(a) Pericardial oedema (c) Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
(b) Pericardial transudate (d) Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation
(c) Cardiac tamponade 11. the most important parameter of APGAR score
(d) Cardiac asthma is
2. Which of the following represents the correct (a) Heart rate (b) Respiratory rate
pathway for conduction of an action potential (c) Grimace (d) Reflex
through the heart? 12. What is the normal cardiac output?
(a) AV node, AV bundle, SA node, Purkinje fibers, (a) 1 litres/minute (b) 2 litres/minute
bundle branches (c) 4 litres/minute (d) 5 litres/minute
(b) SA node, bundle of his, bundle ranches, AV 13. What is the initial reaction of cryotherapy?
node, purkinje fibers (a) Vasodilatation
(c) SA node, AV node, bundle of his, bundle (b) Vasoconstriction
branches, purkinje fibers (c) Increased blood flow
(d) AV node, bundle branches, bundle of His, SA (d) Reduced metabolic rate
node, purkinje fibers 14. The systemic effects of cryotherapy is?
3. Each normal heart beat is initiated by which of (a) Increased blood pressure
the following? (b) Decreased blood pressure
(a) Sino atrial Node (c) Decreased cardiac output
(b) Bundle of His (d) None of the Above
(c) Cardiac center of Medulla 15. Drop of QRS complex is found in?
(d) Sympathetic nerves (a) 1st degree heart block
4. Which of the following is the largest and most (b) 2nd degree heart blocks
vascular chamber of the heart (c) 3rd degree heart block
(a) Right atrium (d) Both A & B
(b) Right ventricle 16. The instrument that is used for measuring BP
(c) Left atrium is known as:
(d) Left ventricle (a) Thermometer (b) Cardio scope
5. Permanent pacemaker is indicated in which of (c) Bronchoscope (d) Sphygmomanometer
the following dysrhythmias? 17. Baroreceptors are related to
(a) Ventricular fibrillation (a) Stimulating hunger
(b) Asymptomatic bradycardia (b) Vision
(c) Atrial fibrillation (c) Activity of thyroid gland
(d) Third degree heart block (d) Maintaining BP
6. Which valve prevents backward flow of blood 18. The highest blood pressure is found in the?
into the left atrium? (a) Venules (b) Aorta
(a) Aortic valve (b) Pulmonary valve (c) Arteries (d) Veins
(c) Tricuspid valve (d) Mitral valve 19. Walls are thickest in the?
7. Where is cardiac sphincter located? (a) Right atrium (b) Right ventricle
(a) Lungs (b) Liver (c) Left atrium (d) Left ventricle
(c) Stomach (d) Heart 20. Where would you find valves?
8. The outer covering of the heart is: (a) Arterioles (b) Capillaries
(a) Peritoneum (b) Pleura (c) Veins (d) Lungs
(c) Pericardium (d) Myocardium 21. Absolute refractory period in the heart
9. The volume of blood pumped from the left (a) Corresponds to the duration of relaxation
ventricle during each systolic contraction is (b) Lasts till half of cardiac contraction
termed: (c) Shorter than refractory period in skeletal
(a) Circulatory volume (b) Stroke volume muscle
(c) Cardiac output (d) Cardiac response (d) Lasts till cardiac contraction
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22. Positive bathmotropic effect on heart is 29. What is the normal stroke volume?
produced by (a) 60 ml
(a) Stimulation of vagus nerve (b) 55 ml
(c) 80 ml
(b) Stimulation of sympathetic nerves
(d) 70 ml
(c) Atropine
30. Which is most likely to produce tricuspid valve
(d) Sectioning of vagus
stenosis?
23. What is the Amount of cardiac output in a
(a) Carcinoid heart disease
healthy adult?
(b) Ebstein's anomaly
(a) 4 L/min (c) Endocarditis from IV drug use
(b) 10 Lit/min (d) Severe atherosclerosis
(c) 6 Lit/min 31. In cardiac cycle duration of atrial systole,
(d) 5 Lit/min ventricular systole and complete cardiac diastole
24. Which of the following conducting systems has are respectively
the slowest conducting velocity (a) 0.1 sec, 0.3 sec & 0.4 sec
(a) SA Node (b) 0.4 sec, 0.3 sec & 0.1 sec
(b) Atrial muscle (c) 0.3 sec, 0.1 sec & 0.4 sec
(c) Purkinje fibres (d) 0.3 sec, 0.4 sec & 0.1 sec
(d) AV Node 32. Which of the following is the largest serous
25. When a Pheochromocytoma suddenly membranes of the body?
discharges a large amount of epinephrine into (a) Pericardium (b) Peritoneum
the circulation the patient’s heart rate would (c) Myometrium (d) None of them
be expected to 33. What is the Location of SA node in the heart?
(a) Increase because epinephrine has a direct (a) In the wall of right ventricle
chronotropic effect on the heart (b) In the wall of left atrium
(b) Increase because of increased (c) In the wall of right atrium
parasympathetic discharge to the heart (d) In the wall of left ventricle
(c) Decrease because the increase in blood 34. Total period of one cardiac cycle is
pressure stimulates the carotid and aortic (a) 0.5 sec (b) 1 sec
baroreceptors (c) 1.2 sec (d) 0.8 sec
(d) Decrease because of increased tonic 35. What's the eponym for angina caused by coronary
spasm?
parasympathetic discharge to heart
(a) Buerger's (b) Ebstein's
26. Which is LEAST likely to cause high-output heart
(c) Heberden’s (d) Prinzmetal's
failure?
36. A healthy, sedentary adult's heart usually weighs
(a) Anemia
no more than
(b) High fever
(a) 150 gm (b) 250 gm
(c) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
(c) 350 gm (d) 450 gm
(d) Hyperthyroidism
37. Most "unstable angina” is probably due to
27. What is the Stroke volume? (a) A thrombus forming and lysing
(a) Pressure exerted by blood on the walls of (b) Extreme hypercholesterolemia and rapid
vessels atherogenesis
(b) Amount of blood ejected by each (c) Multiple emboli to the coronaries
(d) Serial haemorrhages within a plaque
contraction of the atrium
38. Which is most likely to produce Dextrocardia (a
(c) Amount of blood ejected by each heart on the right side instead of the left)?
contraction of the ventricles (a) Down's syndrome
(d) Total amount of blood ejected by heart (b) Fetal alcohol syndrome
(c) Immotile cilia syndrome
during a beat
(d) Rubella in the unborn child
28. What is the formula of cardiac output?
39. Which of the following structure is known as
(a) CO = stroke volume x heart rate pacemaker of heart
(b) CO = stroke volume - heart rate (a) Purkinje's fibers (b) AV node
(c) CO = stroke volume/heart rate (c) Bundle of his (d) SA node
(d) CO = stroke volume + heart rate
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40. Which is LEAST LIKELY to give you a dilated 48. Uncomplicated hypertension and diabetes are
cardiomyopathy? most likely to produce what change at the
(a) Amyloid cardiomyopathy level of the arterioles?
(b) Autoimmune cardiomyopathy (a) Amyloidosis
(c) Chagas’s cardiomyopathy (b) Atherosclerosis
(d) Duchene’s cardiomyopathy (c) Hyaline sclerosis
41. Which of the following event takes place when (d) Intimal onion skinning
ventricles are contracted in heart 49. A newborn infant presents with cyanotic heart
(a) The atrioventricular valves open disease and fails to thrive. On examination of the
(b) The pressure in the atrium rises heart, it was revealed that the aorta arouse from
(c) The atrioventricular valves remain unchanged the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk arouse
(d) The atrioventricular valves close from the left ventricle. What is the name given to
42. You are LEAST LIKELY to see hyper plastic this type of cardiac malformation?
arteriolar sclerosis as a result of (a) Transposition of the great vessels
(a) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome from E. coli (b) Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
(b) Malignant hypertension (c) Atrial-septal defect (ASD)
(c) Scleroderma (d) Tetralogy of Fallot
(d) Severe diabetes 50. If you increased the left atrial pressure from 5
43. The myocardial hypertrophy seen in patients mmHg to 15 mmHg, what effect would that have on
with aortic stenosis, which is often extreme pulmonary circulation?
but which usually allows the heart to empty (a) It would force blood the opposite direction.
adequately, is considered an example of: (b) It would increase the speed at which blood moves
through the pulmonary circulation.
(a) Concentric hypertrophy
(c) No change.
(b) Eccentric hypertrophy (d) Blood flow would almost or completely stop.
(c) Egocentric hypertrophy 51. Which of the following known as pulse regulation
(d) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy center?
(a) SA Node (b) Bundle of His
44. Which of the following blood vessels link the
(c) Purkinje fibers (d) AV Node
artery and vein? 52. Which of the following is NOT a portion of the
(a) Coronary artery (b) Aorta peritoneum?
(c) Capillaries (d) Arterioles (a) Mesocolon (b) Mesentery
(c) Hiatus (d) Greater omentum
45. Mitral valve is found 53. Heart is situated in?
(a) B/w a left atrium & ventricle in the heart (a) Cranial (b) Pelvic
(b) Between oesophagus & stomach (c) Abdominal (d) Thoracic
54. The right atrioventricular valve in the heart is
(c) B/w right atrium & ventricle in the heart
(a) Bicuspid valve (b) Monocuspid valve
(d) Between stomach & small intestine (c) Tetracuspid valve (d) Tricuspid valve
46. What's the common cardiac malformation in ANSWER KEY
fetal alcohol syndrome? 1. [b] 2. [c] 3. [a] 4. [d] 5. [d]
(a) Chiari meshwork 6. [d] 7. [c] 8. [c] 9. [b] 10. [d]
(b) Ebstein's anomaly 11. [a] 12. [d] 13. [b] 14. [a] 15. [b]
(c) Patent ductus arteriosus 16. [d] 17. [d] 18. [b] 19. [d] 20. [c]
21. [d] 22. [b] 23. [d] 24. [c] 25. [a]
(d) Ventricular septal defect
26. [c] 27. [c] 28. [a] 29. [d] 30. [a]
47. A very widely patent foramen ovale, causing
31. [a] 32. [b] 33. [c] 34. [d] 35. [d]
an atrial septal defect, is described as
36. [c] 37. [a] 38. [c] 39. [d] 40. [a]
(a) Lutembacher's syndrome
41. [d] 42. [d] 43. [d] 44. [c] 45. [a]
(b) Ostium primum defect
46. [b] 47. [c] 48. [b] 49. [a] 50. [d]
(c) Ostium secundum defect 51. [d] 52. [c] 53. [d] 54. [d]
(d) Roger's disease
-:: 9 ::-
4. It is essential for the nurse to ask the patient
BLOOD PRESSURE & HYPERTENSION
about any allergy to iodine or which of the
1. Which of the following is the correct time for assess following other substance before the cardiac
the diastolic blood pressure reading? catheterization?
(a) When the loud knocking sounds become muffled
(a) Eggs
(b) When the whooshing sound becomes loud
(b) Morphine
(c) When the swishing sound becomes faint
(d) When the last loud knocking sound is heard (c) Shellfish
2. Which of the following finding suggests (d) Aminophenol
hypertension? 5. Which of the following position the nurse must
(a) Unexplained nosebleeds and Dizziness keep the affected leg after the cardiac
(b) Heart palpitations
catheterization through the femoral artery?
(c) Frequency of urination
(d) Hypoxia and noisy respiration (a) Flexed (b) Abducted
3. Which of the following finding is the best indication (c) Extended (d) Adducted
for sustained Hypertension? 6. What should the nurse do first in recovery
(a) The patient has a strong SA heart sound
room after the femoral artery has been
(b) The patient has an arrhythmia
(c) The patient's heart is moderately enlarged. cannulised for cardiac catheterization?
(d) The patient's heart rate is 80 beats/minute. (a) Observe for cyanosis
4. The patient after a severe road accident becomes
(b) Auscultated the patient's heart and breathe
pulseless. The nurse gets no response from patient,
and activates the emergency medical response sounds.
system. Which nursing action becomes the next (c) Inspect the skin integrity in the patient's groin.
priority? (d) Palpate the patient's distal peripheral pulses.
(a) Administer a single blow to the sternum.
7. Which of the following assessment finding of
(b) Give two quick breaths that make the chest visibly
rise.
patient should be reported immediately to the
(c) Begin chest compressions. physician after the percutaneous transluminal
(d) Administer an epinephrine (Adrenalin) injection. coronary angioplasty (PTCA) procedure?
(a) Urine output of 40 mL/hour
ANSWER KEY (b) Chest pain
1. [b] 2. [b] 3. [c] 4. [c] (c) Blood pressure of 106/66 mm Hg
(d) Dry mouth
8. which of the following is the most common
CORONARY ARTERY DISEASE (CAD) blood vessel used in CABG surgery?
& CARDIAC CATHETERIZATION (a) The iliac artery
(b) The Sephanous vein
1. Which of the following patient is at risk for
developing Coronary Artery Disease? (c) The popliteal vein
(a) Weighing above normal (d) The femoral artery
(b) Rheumatic fever during childhood
9. Which of the following not true for assessing
(c) History of mitral valve repair
the Patient's pulse rate accurately?
(d) Drinking hot soup
2. Which of the following diet is suitable for a patient
(a) Places a thumb over the radial artery.
with cardiovascular disease except? (b) Rests the patient's arm on the abdomen.
(a) Whole milk with oatmeal (c) Counts the pulse rate for a full minute.
(b) Tuna fish with a small apple (d) Presses the radial artery against the bone.
(c) Garden salad with olive oil 10. After the CABG surgery, which of the following
(d) Soluble fiber cereal with skim milk assessment provides the best evidence that
3. Which of the following statement correct about
cardiac catheterization? circulation at the donor graft site is adequate?
(a) Patient will be anesthetized and will not feel any (a) The patient moves the operative leg easily.
discomfort." (b) The patient's heart rate remains regular.
(b) Patient will feel a heavy sensation all over his body."
(c) The patient is free from chest pain.
(c) Patient will be able to hear his heart beating in his
chest.” (d) The patient's toes are warm and non-
(d) Patient feel a warm sensation as the dye is instilled” oedematous.
-:: 10 ::-
11. After a cardiac catheterization an adult
MYOCARDIAL INFRACTION &
patient complains of numbness and pain in the
ANGINA PECTORIS
left foot. What action should the nurse take
first? 1. Which of the following health problem the
(a) Take the patient's blood pressure, nurses identify as the priority?
(b) Check the patients Apical pulses. (a) Abdominal pain
(c) Call the health care provider. (b) Fractured femur
(d) Check the patients pedal pulses (c) Ventricular fibrillation
12. What response should the nurse consider the (d) Head injury
priority when assessing cardiac catheterized 2. A patient who has angina pectoris, the chest
patient? pain is best relieved by which of the following
(a) Hematoma formation nursing measure?
(a) Rubbing the chest
(b) Acute pain
(b) Resting in a chair
(c) Impaired swallowing (c) Applying heat pad on chest
(d) Immobilized the affected leg (d) Taking a deep breath
13. What is the primary cause of the pain 3. Which blood level will increase first if a patient
experienced by a patient with a coronary has had a myocardial infarction?
blockage? (a) ALT
(a) Blocking of the Coronary artery (b) Total LDH
(b) Heart muscle ischemia (c) AST
(c) Arterial spasm (d) Troponin T
(d) Both A and B 4. Which of the following complications asses by
14. Which of the following infection can cause risk nurse during care of a patient with myocardial
for Endocarditis? infarction has pulse and respiration rate are
(a) Beta-haemolytic Streptococcal infection increasing and B.P.is decreasing?
(b) Gonococcus infection (a) Cardiogenic shock
(c) E. coli (b) Anaphylactic shock
(d) Arbo virus infection (c) Pulmonary embolism
15. Which of the following is a physiologic effect of (d) Cardiac tamponade
nicotine? 5. A patient with severe chest pain is evaluated
(a) Constriction of the superficial vessels dilates and a tentative diagnosis of myocardial
the deep vessels. infarction. Which of the following assessment
(b) Constriction of the peripheral vessels finding is most closely correlated with
increases the force of flow. myocardial infarction?
(c) Dilation of the peripheral vessels causes reflex (a) Profuse sweating
constriction of visceral vessels. (b) Severe headache
(d) Dilation of the superficial vessels causes (c) Coughing up pink-tinged mucus
constriction of collateral circulation. (d) Flushing the face
6. Which of the following classical signs should
ANSWER KEY the nurse assess when a patient developing
1. [a] 2. [a] 3. [d] 4. [c] 5. [c] cardiogenic shock?
6. [d] 7. [b] 8. [b] 9. [a] 10. [d] (a) Decrease pulse rate
11. [d] 12. [a] 13. [d] 14. [a] 15. [b]
(b) Ventricular dysrhythmias
(c) Falling central venous pressure
(d) Increase diastolic blood pressure
7. The chest pain of myocardial infarction (MI),
radiates to which area?
(a) Groin
(b) Shoulder
(c) Abdomen
(d) Flank
-:: 11 ::-
8. Which of the following is a common 14. The nurse is reviewing an electrocardiogram
complication of myocardial infarction? rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes
(a) Anaphylactic shock are regular. The PR interval is 0.14 second, and
(b) Hypokalemia QRS complexes measure 0.08 second. The
(c) Cardiac enlargement heart rate is 68 beats/min. Which of the
(d) Dysrhythmias following would be a correct interpretation
9. A patient complains that the angina pain is based on these characteristics?
severe and prolonged induced by exercise and (a) Normal sinus rhythm
relieved by rest How would the nurse describe (b) Sick sinus syndrome
this type of pain? (c) Sinus bradycardia
(a) Variant angina (d) First-degree heart block
(b) Non-Anginal pain 15. The client complains of having acute pain in
(c) Unstable angina the incisional area. The nurse would expect
(d) Stable angina the pain to have which possible effect on the
10. Which of the following description of chest vital signs?
pain is most characteristic of myocardial (a) Temperature may be elevated
infarction? (b) Pulse rate may become rapid
(a) “The pain has remained continuous." (c) Respiratory rate may slow.
(b) “The pain came on slowly." (d) Blood pressure may fall.
(c) “The pain comes and goes.” 16. A client with a dysrhythmia is admitted to
(d) “The pain is tingling in nature.” hospital for observation. In the morning the
11. Which of the following prescribed medication client asks for a cup of coffee. What is the nurse’s
would be most helpful for myocardial best response?
infarction pain? (a) "Hot drinks such as coffee are not good for your
(a) A non-salicylate such as acetaminophen heart."
(b) A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug such (b) "Coffee is not permitted on the diet that was
as ibuprofen ordered for you."
(c) A salicylate such as aspirin (c) "You cannot have coffee. I can bring you a cup of
(d) An Opioid such as morphine sulphate tea if you like."
12. Which of the following laboratory results to be (d) "Coffee has caffeine that can affect your heart. It
elevated if the patient had a myocardial should be avoided"
infarction? ANSWER KEY
(a) Isoenzymes and troponin 1. [c] 2. [b] 3. [d] 4. [a] 5. [a]
6. [b] 7. [b] 8. [d] 9. [d] 10. [a]
(b) RBC and WBC
11. [d] 12. [a] 13. [b] 14. [a] 15. [b]
(c) Sodium and potassium 16. [d]
(d) Plasminogen
13. When a client develops ventricular fibrillation
in a coronary care unit, what is the
responsibility of the first person reaching the
client?
(a) Administer oxygen.
(b) Initiate defibrillation.
(c) Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
(d) Administer sodium bicarbonate intravenously.
-:: 12 ::-
8. Which of the following technique is most
HEART FAILURE & CPR & ECG
appropriate for the nurse to use to open the
1. Which of the following priority nursing action if a airway of a victim who is not breathing?
patient had heart failure? (a) Jaw thrush maneuver.
(a) Collect the health history from patient. (b) Head tilt and Lift the chin.
(b) Collect the patient's blood specimen for (c) Abdominal thrust
electrolytes. (d) Clear the mouth.
(c) Assess the patient's heart and lung sounds. 9. Which of the following is the best method for
(d) Monitor the patient's temperature. determining if the victim requires rescue
2. A patient's ECG shows atrial and ventricular rates breathing?
of 110 beats/min. The PR interval is 0.16 second, (a) Feel for pulsations at the neck.
the QRS complex measures 0.06 second, and the (b) Observe the victim's skin color.
PP and RR intervals are regular. How should the (c) Check for absence of normal breathing.
nurse correctly interpret this rhythm? (d) Blow air into the victim's mouth.
(a) Sinus tachycardia (b) Sinus bradycardia 10. Which of the following technique the nurse
(c) Normal sinus rhythm (d) Sinus dysrhythmias deliver an effective volume of air into the lungs
3. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) of a victim who is not breathing?
changes occur in myocardial infarction? (a) Remove the victim's dentures.
(a) Elevated ST segment (b) Press on the victim's trachea.
(b) Inverted P wave (c) Pinch the victim's nose shut.
(c) Widened QRS complex (d) Ventilate with Ambu bag.
(d) Prolonged PR interval 11. The nurse assesses the client, who is unresponsive
4. Which of the following ECG change to be assessed and pulse less. Then nurse call for help then the
on cardiac monitor during care of a patient with nurse begins chest compressions. Where is the
a bundle branch block? correct placement for the nurse's hands before
(a) Widening of QRS complexes to a minimum of administering cardiac compressions?
(a) Over the costal cartilage
0.12 second
(b) Below the tip of the xiphoid process
(b) Absence of P wave configurations
(c) Directly above the Manubrium
(c) Sagging ST segments
(d) On the lower half of the sternum
(d) Inverted T waves following each QRS complex
12. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the nurse
5. A patient is on a continuous cardiac monitor, compresses the chest of an adult victim at which
which begins to sound its alarm and there is no rate?
electrocardiographic complexes on the monitor. (a) Average 60 compressions per minute
Which of the following should be the priority (b) Average 80 compressions per minute
action of the nurse? (c) Average 40 compressions per minute
(a) Call the physician. (d) Average 100 compressions per minute
(b) Check the patient status and lead placement. 13. A patient is found unconscious, pulse less and
(c) Call a code blue. unresponsive. What should the nurse do first?
(a) Check for a radial pulse.
(d) Give oxygen inhalation by mask
(b) Initiate a code blue or call for help.
6. Which of the following breath sounds would the (c) Compress the lower sternum.
nurse anticipate when auscultated a patient with (d) Give four full lung inflations.
myocardial infarction shows signs of pulmonary 14. When two rescuers perform CPR on an adult, what
edema? is the ratio of compressions to ventilations?
(a) Crackles (a) 30 compressions to 2 breaths
(b) 15 compression to 1 breath
(b) Stridor
(c) 10 compressions to 1 breath
(c) Rales
(d) 1 compression to 5 breaths
(d) Diminished breath sounds
15. Which of the following finding best indicates that
7. What is the most effective method for restoring
cardiac compressions can be stopped?
circulation in a pulse less victim?
(a) The pupils become dilated
(a) Keeping the airway open
(b) The victim's color improves
(b) Performing chest compressions
(c) A pulse can be palpated
(c) Using an automated external defibrillator (AED)
(d) The victim begins to talking
(d) Give oxygen inhalation
-:: 13 ::-
16. Which of the following body position is most 25. Which of the following highest priority to the
correct after the successfully resuscitated to the nurse while caring a patient with cardio version?
patient? (a) Assess the Status of airway
(b) Oxygen inhalation to the patient
(a) Flat with the knees extended
(c) Assess patient for Blood pressure
(b) On the side upper knee flexed
(d) Level of consciousness
(c) Prone with the head lowered 26. Which of the following finding indicates that the
(d) Supine with the head elevated cardio version procedure has been successful?
17. What should the nurse do to best reduce ankles (a) The pulse pressure is approximately 40 mm Hg.
edema? (b) Patient body temperature will 98 degree
(a) Apply elastic bandages. Fahrenheit.
(b) Elevate the legs. (c) The apical heart rate equals the radial rate.
(c) Restrict fluids. (d) Normal sinus cardiac rhythm is restored.
(d) Elevate the head end of bed. 27. Where the permanent pacemaker battery has
18. Which of the following is the earliest symptom of been implanted?
left sided heart failure? (a) Below the right clavicle
(a) Nausea (b) Headaches (b) Near the brachial artery
(c) Loss of appetite (d) Dyspnea (c) In the fifth intercostals area
19. Which of the following changes responsible for (d) In the midstream area
the pitting edema of a patient with right sided 28. Which of the following manifestation will be
heart failure:- present in a patient with chronic cardiac
(a) Decrease in the plasma colloid osmotic pressure diseases?
(b) Increase in tissue colloid osmotic pressure (a) Beau symptoms (b) Barrel-shaped chest
(c) Increase in plasma hydrostatic pressure (c) Clubbed fingertips (d) Chest pain
(d) None of them 29. Which of the following assessment finding is
20. Which of the following position is most beneficial related to the patient with reduced cardiac
for the patient with congestive heart failure? stroke volume?
(a) Side-lying on the right side (a) The patient has a bounding pulse.
(b) Supine with knees flexed inside (b) The patient manifests Cyanosis
(c) Left lateral position (c) The patient develops hypertension.
(d) Semi-Fowler's position (d) The patient faints with activity.
21. Which emotional response is related to the 30. A client has edema in the lower extremities
development of heart failure? during the day, which disappears at night. With
(a) Anger (b) Euphoria which medical problem does the nurse conclude
(c) Depression (d) Anxiety this clinical finding is consistent?
22. Which of the following assessment finding is the (a) Pulmonary edema
best indication that oxygen therapy is effective (b) Myocardial infarction
in Congestive Heart Failure patient? (c) Right ventricular heart failure
(a) The apical pulse is less bounding. (d) Chronic obstructive lung disease
(b) Capillary refill is 5 seconds.
(c) The patient's face is flushed ANSWER KEY
(d) Patient feels better 1. [c] 2. [a] 3. [a] 4. [a] 5. [b]
23. Which of the following value should be 6. [a] 7. [c] 8. [b] 9. [c] 10. [d]
monitored if the patient receiving large doses of 11. [d] 12. [d] 13. [c] 14. [a] 15. [c]
diuretics? 16. [b] 17. [b] 18. [d] 19. [c] 20. [d]
(a) Chloride level is 98 mEq/L 21. [d] 22. [d] 23. [b] 24. [a] 25. [a]
(b) Potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L 26. [d] 27. [a] 28. [c] 29. [d] 30. [c]
(c) Sodium level is 139 mEq/L
(d) Bicarbonate level is 26 mEq/L
24. Which of the following assessment would
support the possibility of right-sided heart
failure?
(a) Jugular vein distention (b) Flushed, red face
(c) Dry, hacking cough (d) Bradycardia
-:: 14 ::-
NERVOUS SYSTEM 10. The junction at which an impulse travels from
one neuron to another is called?
1. Factors influencing inhibition of growth and (a) Synapse (b) Stimulus
destruction of microorganisms include? (c) Nerve message (d) Axon
I. Temperature and contact 11. The total volume of CSF is?
II. Absence of organic material (a) 50 ml (b) 100 ml
III. Time (c) 150 ml (d) 275 ml
IV. Spore formation 12. All are motor nerve except?
(a) II, III and IV (b) I, II and IV (a) Accessory (b) Abducent
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and III (c) Trochlear (d) Trigeminal
2. What is the correct order from outer side to 13. The central nervous system consists of?
inner side of blood vessels? (a) The brain and spinal cord
(a) T. adventitia, T. media and T. intima (b) Spinal nerves only
(b) T. adventitia, T. intima & T. media (c) The brain stem and cerebellum
(c) T. media, T. adventitia & T. intima (d) The cerebellum and the spinal column
(d) Tunica intima, T. media & T. adventitia 14. The 10th cranial nerve is:
3. The autonomic nervous system regulates (a) Hypoglossal (b) Abdu cent
visceral activities such as? (c) Vagus (d) Facial
(a) Respiration 15. The middle layer of meninges is:
(b) Contraction of smooth muscles (a) Choroid Plexus (b) Dura mater
(c) Gastrointestinal motility (c) Piamater (d) Arachnoids mater
(d) All the Above 16. What is the outer most layer of blood vessels?
4. Which part of the brain is concerned with (a) Tunica media (b) Tunica mucosa
hearing, short term memory and sense of (c) Tunica intima (d) Tunica adventitia
smell? 17. The micturition reflex center is located in the
(a) Temporal lobe (b) Parietal lobe (a) Sacral plexus (b) Midbrain
(c) Cerebellum (d) Hypothalamus (c) Lumbar plexus (d) Pons
5. Hypoglossal nerve is 18. Part of brain that helps in maintaining posture
(a) 6th cranial nerve and equilibrium is:
(b) 7th cranial nerve (a) Medulla (b) Cerebellum
(c) 12th cranial nerve (c) Cerebrum (d) Thalamus
(d) 9th cranial nerve 19. Neurons that release acetylcholine are refer
6. One of the functions of cerebellum is to: as:
(a) Serve as a passage between spinal cord and (a) Adrenergic (b) Cholinergic
brain (c) Dopaminergic (d) None of the Above
(b) Maintain balance, coordination and muscular 20. Which nerve form an important part of the
control parasympathetic nervous system?
(c) Conduct nerve impulse (a) Facial nerve (b) Trigeminal nerve
(d) Maintain area of reason, thought, memory (c) Abducent nerve (d) Vagus nerve
and sensation 21. The paralysis of both upper and lower
7. Anterior 2/3 of the tongue carries taste extremities is known as?
sensation with the help of (a) Quadriplegia (b) Hemiplegic
(a) Glossopharyngeal (b) Vagus (c) Paraplegia (d) Monoplegia
(c) Hypoglossal (d) Facial 22. 7th cranial nerve is?
8. Muscle of tongue is mainly supplied - (a) Facial (b) Oculomotor
(a) IX CN. (b) X CN. (c) Glossopharyngeal (d) Abducent
(c) XI CN. (d) XII CN. 23. Circle of Willis is related with circulation of
9. The neurotransmitter serotonin is derived (a) Heart (b) Brain
from which precursor amino acid? (c) Kidney (d) Liver
(a) Dopamine 24. Which of the following extraocular muscles is
(b) Tryptophan not supplied by third cranial nerve?
(c) Tyrosine (a) Superior oblique (b) Inferior oblique
(d) Glutamine (c) Superior rectus (d) Inferior rectus
-:: 15 ::-
25. Wrist drop is caused by all except 38. Deep tendon reflex is exaggerated in lesion?
(a) Lead poisoning (a) Upper motor neuron
(b) Radial nerve palsy (b) Lower motor neuron
(c) Ulnar nerve palsy (c) Peripheral nerve injury
(d) Both A and B (d) None of the Above
26. Neurotransmitters 39. Which of the Following are the examples of
(a) Are electrical impulse mixed cranial nerves except?
(b) Are found only in neuron with myelin sheath (a) Hypoglossal nerve
(c) Are signal molecules released at synapse (b) Facial nerve
(d) Are produced by muscles (c) Vagus nerve
27. Which of the following is the largest cranial (d) Trigeminal nerve
nerve? 40. In Parkinsonism, the lesion is due to
(a) Vagus nerve (b) Optic nerve (a) Lateral thalamus (b) Substantia nigra
(c) Facial nerve (d) Trigeminal nerve (c) Caudate nucleus (d) Sub thalamic nucleus
28. Reflex are functions at the level of 41. Treatment of acute anterior uveitis includes
(a) Cerebellum (b) Cerebral hemispheres (a) Topical steroids (b) Cycloplegic
(c) Medulla (d) Spinal cord (c) Both (d) None
29. Erb's palsy effects 42. Which nerve supplies the diaphragm?
(a) Lumbar plexus (a) Radial (b) Peroneal
(b) Sacral plexus (c) Phrenic (d) Intercostal
(c) Brachial plexus 43. Damage to Nerve of bell results in
(d) Cranial nerves (a) CTEV (b) Winging of the scapula
30. Which cranial nerve carries sensation of smell? (c) Claw hand (d) Policeman's tip hand
(a) Optic nerve (b) Vagus nerve 44. What is the Total number of cervical nerves?
(c) Facial nerve (d) Olfactory nerve (a) 7 (b) 5
31. Vagus is which cranial nerve? (c) 12 (d) 8
(a) X (b) IX 45. Which of the following is the largest nerve in
(c) VII (d) V the body,
32. The endocrine system is quicker than the (a) Pudendal (b) Peroneal
nervous system (c) Sciatic (d) Tibial
(a) True (b) False 46. The space between arachnoid & pia matter is
(c) May be true (d) Don't know called
33. Treatment of aphakia is (a) Epidural (b) Subdural
(a) Spectacles (b) Intraocular lens (c) Subarachnoid (d) Extradural
(c) Contact lens (d) All of the Above 47. The relay center of brain is
34. Which of the following is a carbonic anhydrase (a) Medulla (b) Pons
inhibitor (c) Brain stem (d) Thalamus
(a) Mannitol (b) Acetazolamide 48. Neurotransmitter involved in pain relief is:
(c) Pilocarpine (d) Latanoprost (a) Acetylcholine (b) Norepinephrine
35. Which extrinsic muscle of the eye is not (c) Serotonin (d) Endorphins
supplied by Oculomotor Nerves? 49. the most common inhibitory
(a) Superior rectus neurotransmitter in the human brain is: (a)
(b) Superior oblique muscles Acetylcholine (b) Serotonin
(c) Inferior rectus (c) GABA (d) Dopamine
(d) Medial rectus 50. Thick band of neurons that connects the right
36. Lateral rectus supplied by and left cerebral hemispheres is:
(a) Trochlear nerve (a) Corpus callosum (b) Hippocampus
(b) Abducent nerve (c) Fornix (d) Amygdala
(c) Oculomotor nerve 51. The fat-covered membrane protecting the SI
(d) Trigeminal nerve and LI anteriorly is
37. All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except (a) Meninges (b) Pleura
(a) Ptosis (b) Diplopia
(c) Peritoneum (d) Mesentery
(c) Meiosis (d) Outwards eye deviation
-:: 16 ::-
52. What is the Total number of cranial nerves? 64. Which is related to maintenance of body
(a) 7 pairs (b) 31 pairs balance?
(c) 12 pairs (d) 33 pairs (a) Cerebrum (b) Medulla oblongata
53. The area of the brain which is involved in the (c) Pons (d) Cerebellum
understanding of meaning is: 65. What is the Total number of spinal nerves?
(a) Broca's area (b) Association areas (a) 12 pairs (b) 33 pairs
(c) Wernicke's area (d) Motor speech area (c) 7 pairs (d) 31pairs
54. Which of these vessels does not have 66. Which of the following supplies the muscles of
sympathetic control the perineum?
(a) Cerebral (b) Splanchnic (a) Pudendal nerve (b) Sciatic nerve
(c) Cardiac (d) Cutaneous (c) Femoral nerve (d) Tibial nerve
55. Which of the following is NOT an effector of 67. Which of the following eye muscles rotates the
respiration? eye downward and away from midline?
(a) Heart (b) Diaphragm (a) Inferior oblique (b) Superior oblique
(c) Intercostals (d) Trapezius. (c) Inferior rectus (d) Superior rectus
56. An area of neurons running through the 68. Which of the following eye muscles rotates the
middle of the medulla and pons, and is eye upward and toward midline?
responsible for keeping people alert and (a) Inferior oblique (b) Superior oblique
aroused as well selective attention to certain (c) Inferior rectus (d) Superior rectus
information: 69. Olfactory nerve is:
(a) Cerebellum (b) Hypothalamus (a) Both Sensory and Motor
(c) Limbic system (d) Reticular system (b) Purely Sensory
57. Loss of sense of smell is known as: (c) Mainly Motor
(a) Agnosia (b) Aphasia (d) None of the Above
(c) Apraxia (d) Anosmia 70. Damage to cranial nerve results in inability to
58. Which of the following is a specific shrug and weak head movement.
investigation to detect seizures? (a) Vagus nerve
(a) CT scan (b) MRI scan (b) Accessory nerve
(c) EEG (d) BEAP (c) Glossopharyngeal nerve
59. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT (d) Facial nerve
concerning central nervous systems and a 71. Fourth cranial nerve is:
factor they respond to by affecting (a) Trigeminal (b) Abducent
respiration? (c) Trochlear (d) Facial
(a) Cerebellum: Mechanoreceptor input 72. A cranial nerve with maximum branches in the
(b) Limbic system: emotional states body is:
(c) Cerebral cortex: voluntary control (a) Trigeminal (b) Auditory
(d) Cerebral motor cortex: exercise (c) Facial (d) Vagus
60. The part of the neuron that receive messages 73. What is Acalculia?
from other cells is called: (a) Inability to do mathematical calculations
(a) Axon (b) Soma (b) Inability to recognize sensory input
(c) Schwann cell (d) Dendrites (c) Visual aphasia
61. Which sensory area is found in Temporo (d) Inequality in size of the pupils
Parietal lobe of cerebrum? 74. What instruction is most appropriate in
(a) Olfactory (b) Auditory patient with trigeminal neuralgia to prevent
(c) Speech (d) All of the Above triggering the pain?
62. Which of the following is the largest part of brain? (a) Drink iced foods
(a) Cerebellum (b) Midbrain (b) Avoid oral hygiene
(c) Medulla oblongata (d) Cerebrum (c) Apply warm compresses
63. Brain stem is formed by: (d) Chew on the unaffected side
(a) Pons 75. The cranial nerve which innervates superior
(b) Midbrain oblique muscle is:
(c) Medulla oblongata (a) Optic (b) Trochlear
(d) All of the Above (c) Facial (d) Abducent nerve
-:: 17 ::-
76. Wernicke's area found in temporal lobe, also 85. Brain stem is formed by except
known as (a) Midbrain
(a) Sensory taste visual area (b) Cerebellum
(b) Sensory taste area (c) Pons
(c) Sensory olfactory area (d) Medulla oblongata
(d) Sensory speech area 86. Which is the largest part of brain
77. The receptors with which norepinephrine, (a) Cerebellum
epinephrine, or other adrenomimetic drugs (b) Spinal cord
combine are called: (c) Medulla oblongata
(a) Cholinergic receptors (d) Cerebrum
(b) Adrenoreceptors 87. The auditory sensory area of cerebral cortex is
(c) Nicotinic receptors found in
(d) None of the Above (a) Frontal lobe
78. The nerves which take impulses away from the (b) Occipital lobe
brain towards affected organ is known as (c) Parietal lobe
(a) Sensory nerves (b) Neurones (d) Temporal lobe
(c) Mixed nerves (d) Motor nerves 88. The olfactory area of cerebral cortex is found
79. Nodes of Ranvier are found in in
(a) Axon (a) Frontal lobe
(b) Dendrites (b) Parietal lobe
(c) Cell body (c) Temporal lobe
(d) Microglia (d) Occipital
80. What is the place where the nerve impulse 89. The visual area is found in
passes from one neuron to another is known (a) Occipital lobe
as (b) Temporal lobe
(a) Myelin sheath (c) Parietal lobe
(b) Node of Ranvier (d) Frontal lobe
(c) Synapse
(d) Neuroglia ANSWER KEY
81. Arrange the correct order from outer to inner 1. [d] 2. [a] 3. [d] 4. [a] 5. [c]
side of meninges?
6. [b] 7. [d] 8. [d] 9. [b] 10. [a]
(a) Duramater - arachnoidmater - Piamater
11. [c] 12. [d] 13. [a] 14. [c] 15. [d]
(b) Duramater - Piamater - arachnoidmater
(c) Pericardium - myocardium - endocardium 16. [d] 17. [d] 18. [b] 19. [b] 20. [d]
(d) Piamater - arachnoidmater - Duramater 21. [a] 22. [a] 23. [b] 24. [a] 25. [c]
82. What is the Total volume of CSF secreted in 24 26. [c] 27. [d] 28. [d] 29. [c] 30. [d]
hours? 31. [a] 32. [b] 33. [d] 34. [b] 35. [b]
(a) 500 ml
36. [b] 37. [c] 38. [a] 39. [a] 40. [b]
(b) 200 ml
(c) 1200 ml 41. [c] 42. [c] 43. [b] 44. [d] 45. [c]
(d) 2000 ml 46. [c] 47. [d] 48. [d] 49. [c] 50. [a]
83. Which of the following part of brain which 51. [c] 52. [c] 53. [c] 54. [a] 55. [d]
plays an important role in maintaining CSF 56. [d] 57. [d] 58. [c] 59. [a] 60. [d]
pressure?
61. [d] 62. [d] 63. [d] 64. [d] 65. [d]
(a) Arachnoid Villi
(b) Flax cerebra 66. [a] 67. [b] 68. [d] 69. [b] 70. [b]
(c) Septum Lucidum 71. [c] 72. [d] 73. [a] 74. [d] 75. [b]
(d) Piamater Villi 76. [d] 77. [b] 78. [d] 79. [a] 80. [c]
84. CSF is found in 81. [a] 82. [a] 83. [a] 84. [a] 85. [b]
(a) Subarachnoid space
86. [d] 87. [d] 88. [c] 89. [a]
(b) Subdural space
(c) Epidural space
(d) All
-:: 18 ::-
3. What should be avoided a patient with
MENINGITIS multiple sclerosis?
1. Which of the following clinical symptoms are (a) Rainy season (b) Hot weather
relevant with meningitis? (c) Dry environments (d) Cold temperatures
(a) Photophobia (b) A stiff neck 4. When preparing the patient for an EEG, which
(c) Fever (d) All of the Above nursing action is most appropriate?
2. Which of the following clinical manifestation (a) Assist with shampooing the patient's hair.
of meningitis? (b) NBM patient before procedure
(a) A positive Kerning sign (c) Administer a sedative before the test.
(b) Presence of nuchal rigidity (d) Take the patient's blood pressure while lying
(c) A positive Brudzinski's sign and sitting
(d) All of the above 5. If the patient begins to have a seizure, which
action should the nurse take first?
ANSWER KEY (a) Place the patient in a side-lying position.
1. [d] 2. [d] (b) Measure the blood pressure and pulse.
(c) Check the patient's pupils.
(d) Administer oxygen by nasal Cannula.
LUMBAR PUNCTURE 6. Which of the following is a priority action,
1. Which of the following intervention is most when assessing the patient with a head injury?
important after the lumbar puncture? (a) Pupillary responses
(a) Keep the patient flat for several hours. (b) Clarity of speech
(b) Assist the patient into a sitting position. (c) Mobility of fingers
(c) Withhold food and fluids for 1 hour. (d) Inability to swallow
(d) Keep the patient in a side-lying position. 7. Which finding should be reported to the
2. Which of the following assessment indicates physician immediately when assessing a
patient has spinal shock? patient with head injury?
(a) Flaccid paralysis (a) The patient headache
(b) Positive gag reflexes (b) The patient leaves most of the food on the
(c) Reflex emptying of the bowel dietary tray.
(d) Hyperreflexia (c) Orientation related problem
(d) The patient is difficult to arouse with
ANSWER KEY stimulation.
1. [d] 2. [d] 8. Which of the following actions would be
contraindicated if a patient experiencing
seizure activity?
SEIZURE (a) Positioning the patient to the side, if possible,
with the head flexed forward
1. When a nurse documenting a seizure patient,
(b) Loosening restrictive clothing
which information is most important to
(c) Removing the pillow and raising padded side
include?
rails
(a) The time the seizure started
(d) Restraining the patient's limbs
(b) The patient previous emotion
9. What is the priority nursing action in the post
(c) The duration of the seizure
phase of a seizure?
(d) The patient's comments after the seizure
(a) Assess the patient's level of arousal.
2. Which of the following interventions are
(b) Provide feeding to patient
essential when a patient having a tonic-clonic
(c) Reorient the patient to the surroundings.
seizure?
(d) Assess the patient's breathing pattern.
(a) Rolling the patient's body to the side
(b) Removing environmental hazards to protect
the patient ANSWER KEY
(c) Calling the respiratory therapy department 1. [c] 2. [d] 3. [b] 4. [a] 5. [a]
(d) All of the above 6. [a] 7. [d] 8. [d] 9. [d]
-:: 19 ::-
MYASTHENIA GRAVIS 2. Which of the following is the most indicative
symptom of Bell's palsy?
1. Which of the following sign or symptom (a) Unilateral facial paralysis
indicate a manifestation myasthenia gravis. ? (b) Paralysis of abdominal muscle
(a) Protruding tongue (c) Muscle spasms in Lower legs
(b) Loss of memory (d) Loss of motor function on the affected side
(c) Drooping eyelids 3. Immediate after craniotomy, the nurse notes
(d) Sudden hearing loss that the patient's dressing is moist. Which
2. Which of the following equipment is most action is most appropriate?
important to keep at the bedside with a (a) Inform to doctor.
patient of myasthenia gravis? (b) Remove the dressing.
(a) A suction machine in case of compromised (c) Reapply the dressing.
swallowing (d) Document the findings.
(b) A cardiac defibrillator in case of cardiac arrest 4. Which of the following cerebral response of
(c) A bite block in case of seizures pain assessing the motor function of an
(d) A cooling blanket in case of hyperthermia unconscious patient except?
(a) Nail bed pressure
ANSWER KEY (b) Sternal rub
1. [c] 2. [a] (c) Pressure on the orbital rim
(d) Squeezing of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
BAR SYNDROME, GBS & SLE 5. A patient with trigeminal neuralgia

1. Which of the following assessment finding experiencing paroxysmal pain, which of the
determines whether the patient with Guillain following nursing intervention is most
Barré syndrome is developing ineffective appropriate?
breathing? (a) Avoid warm facial compresses for pain.
(a) Respiratory rate is 24. (b) Avoid ice chips for patient
(b) Skin is flushed (c) Avoid care that involves touching the patient's
(c) Pulse oximetry reading is 82%. face.
(d) Activity is decreased. (d) All of the above
2. What is the instruction are essential for the
nurse to include in education if patient has ANSWER KEY
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? 1. [a] 2. [a] 3. [c] 4. [a] 5. [d]
(a) Eat foods high in vitamin
(b) Take temperature daily. ❑❑❑
(c) Balance periods of rest and activity.
(d) All of above
ANSWER KEY
1. [c] 2. [d]
MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
PARKINSON DISEASE & PALSY &
CRANIOTOMY
1. Which of the following clinical feature is the
initial sign of Parkinson's disease?
(a) Muscle tremors
(b) Muscle rigidity
(c) Muscle weakness
(d) Muscle spasm
-:: 20 ::-
12. Active transport of substance from blood into
RENAL SYSTEM
the nephron is called:
1. When blood pressure falls, which of the (a) Filtration
following is secreted by kidney to raise it? (b) Tubular secretion
(a) Renin (b) Epinephrine (c) Tubular reabsorption
(c) Aldosterone (d) Erythropoietin (d) Osmosis
2. Acid base balance is regulated by kidney by 13. Which is found in the highest concentration in
excreting hydrogen ion and electrolytes to the urine?
maintain the? (a) Uric acid (b) Urea
(a) Electrolyte balance in body (c) Glucose (d) Creatinine
(b) Specific gravity of urine 14. Renin is secreted from:
(c) Filter the protein from urine (a) Collecting ducts
(d) Normal pH of blood plasma (b) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
3. The concentration of sodium chloride in our (c) PCT
blood per 100 ml is (d) DCT
(a) 0.9% (b) 0.8% 15. What is normal weight of adult kidney?
(c) 0.5% (d) 0.1% (a) 30 gm. (b) 50 gm
4. Which of the following is not one of the 3 (c) 100 gm (d) 150 gm
external coverings of the kidney? 16. Glucose is completely reabsorbed by is:
(a) Renal capsule (b) Adipose capsule (a) Convoluted tubules
(c) Renal adventitia (d) Renal Fascia (b) Urethra
5. The left ureter is slightly longer than the right (c) Kidney
ureter because the? (d) Uric acid
(a) Left ureter has a three layered wall 17. Which of the following artery supplies blood to
(b) Left kidney is higher than the right kidney?
(c) Right kidney is higher than the left (a) Hepatic artery (b) Common iliac artery
(d) Left kidney performs more functions (c) Renal artery (d) Common artery
6. The primary function of the ascending loop of 18. When glucose if found in urine it is called...
Henle in the kidney is? (a) Glycosuria (b) Uraemia
(a) The active re-absorption of sodium (c) Urethritis (d) Glucose intolerance
(b) The active re-absorption of chloride ions 19. The primary function of the descending loop of
(c) The passive re-absorption of potassium Henle in the kidney is?
(d) The passive re-absorption of urea (a) Reabsorption of sodium ions
7. The middle layer of the urinary bladder is (b) Reabsorption of water by osmosis
identified as? (c) Secretion of hydrogen ions
(a) Mucous Coat (b) Sub mucous Coat (d) Secretion of potassium ions
(c) Muscular Coat (d) Sphincter Coat 20. Kidney is an organ which is related to
8. The organs of the excretory system consist of (a) Digestive system
the following except (b) Endocrine system
(a) Blood vessels (b) Skin (c) Reproductive system
(c) Liver (d) Kidneys (d) Excretory system
9. Which of the following match with the 21. Bean shaped organ of the body is,
definition: a poor output of urine? (a) Kidney (b) Gall bladder
(a) Oliguria (b) Pyuria (c) Lunge (d) Stomach
(c) Enuresis (d) Diuresis 22. What is the functional unit of kidney?
10. A hormone that controls closure of stomata in (a) Nephrons (b) Calyces
response to water stress is? (c) Medulla (d) Hilum
(a) Auxins (b) Cytokines 23. The hormone that increases water
(c) Gibberellins (d) Abscisic acid reabsorption is
11. Angiotensin IInd is a (a) Calcitonin
(a) Vasoconstrictor (b) Muscle relaxant (b) Thyroid
(c) Vasodilator (d) Bronchodilator (c) ADH
(d) Parathyroid
-:: 21 ::-
24. The pH of urine is
TURP
(a) 3.5 (b) 8.4
(c) 7.4 (d) 6.8 1. A patient with a diagnosis of benign prostatic
25. Aldosterone hyperplasia. Which of the following
(a) Increases calcium reabsorption information about the patient is important
(b) Decreases sodium reabsorption consider by nurse during care of patient?
(c) Increases potassium reabsorption (a) It predisposes to hydronephrosis.
(d) Increases sodium reabsorption (b) Benign prostatic hyperplasia develops over
26. Which organ produces and secretes the patient's life span
erythropoietin hormone? (c) Increase Uric acid level
(a) Kidney (b) Lung (d) Acid Phosphatase level increase
(c) Liver (d) Brain 2. Which of the following priority nursing action
27. Kidneys extend from the level of the when supra pubic catheter pulled out after
(a) 8th thoracic vertebra to the 12th thoracic suprapubic prostatectomy?
vertebra (a) Reinsert a New Foleys urethral catheter.
(b) 5th thoracic vertebra to the 3rd lumbar (b) No need for any action
vertebra (c) Notify the health, care provider.
(c) 10th thoracic to the 5th lumbar vertebra (d) Check for bleeding by irrigating the
(d) 12th thoracic vertebra to the 3rd lumbar suprapubic tube.
vertebra 3. Which technique is best for helping the nurse
28. Weight of kidney is about insert the tip of the catheter past the enlarged
(a) 300 gm (b) 500 gm prostate gland when the patients with a history
(c) 50 gm (d) 150 gm of benign prostatic hypertrophy?
29. The organ which plays an important role in (a) Push the catheter with additional force.
(b) Angle the penis in the direction of the toes.
balancing fluid intake and output
(c) Massage the tissue below the base of the penis.
(a) Heart
(d) Grasp the penis firmly within the hand
(b) Intestine
4. Which catheter is the best choice to use for a
(c) Lung
patient with BPH?
(d) Kidney
(a) A Caudle catheter (b) A Flexible catheter
30. Which is the most common cation in ECF (c) A Rubber catheter (d) A Silicone catheter
(a) Mg 5. Which of the following assessment finding would
(b) K the nurse expect to observe in a patient after
(c) Ca transurethral resection of the prostate?
(d) Na (a) Grossly bloody urine
31. In following which is the most common cation (b) Decrease Urine out put
in ICF (c) Light pink to clear urine
(a) Na (d) Both A&C
(b) Mg 6. Which of the following medication is most
(c) Са appropriate to administer to the patient who is
(d) K having bladder spasms after transurethral
resection of the prostate?
ANSWER KEY (a) Belladonna and opium rectal suppository
(b) Acetaminophen by mouth
1. [a] 2. [d] 3. [a] 4. [c] 5. [b]
(c) Meperidine hydrochloride intramuscularly
6. [a] 7. [c] 8. [a] 9. [a] 10. [d] (d) Aspirin by mouth
11. [a] 12. [b] 13. [b] 14. [b] 15. [d] 7. Which of the following action is most
16. [a] 17. [c] 18. [a] 19. [b] 20. [d] important for the nurse to perform first while
removing urinary catheter?
21. [a] 22. [a] 23. [c] 24. [d] 25. [d]
(a) Measure the urine in the drainage bag.
26. [a] 27. [d] 28. [d] 29. [d] 30. [d]
(b) Clean the patient's labia with soap and water.
31. [d] (c) Remove the fluid from the balloon.
(d) Disconnect the patient's catheter and
drainage bag
-:: 22 ::-
8. Which of the following nursing action is most 15. Which of the following postoperative nursing
appropriate to measure the residual volume of assessment is a priority after circumcision?
urine? (a) Assessing the patient's ability to achieve an
(a) Catheterize the patient as soon as possible. erection
(b) Catheterize the patient after her next voiding (b) Checking the patient's deep-breathing efforts
(c) Use a small-gauge catheter to drain the (c) Monitoring the volume of urine output
bladder. (d) Monitoring the infusion of I.V. Fluid
16. A patient with a hydrocele has the fluid aspirated
(d) Connect the catheter to gravity drainage.
from his scrotum when carrying out this
9. Which of the following suggestion best to
intervention, which of the following nursing
control patient's incontinence?
action is most appropriate?
(a) Show her how to apply an external catheter.
(a) Apply ice to the site in a sealed rubber bag.
(b) Empty bladder every 6 hourly (b) Place a covered ice pack to the scrotum.
(c) Teach her to perineal muscles exercise (c) Seat the patient on an ice-filled ring.
(d) Instruct her to limit her fluid intake. (d) Position the patient on a hypothermia blanket.
10. Which of the following outcome indicating 17. Which of the following position is preferred for a
that the patient is performing self- prostate examination?
catheterization appropriately? (a) Fowler's
(a) Patient empties 50 mL of urine from her (b) Modified standing
bladder each time. (c) Dorsal recumbent
(b) Patient is free of signs of a urinary tract (d) Lithotomy
infection. 18. Which of the following diagnostic test used to
(c) Patient maintains a urinary record of time and diagnose BPH in early stage?
amount. (a) An annual cystoscopy
(d) Patient inserts the catheter for 30 minutes (b) A semi-annual prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
each time. test
(c) A digital rectal examination
11. Which of the following instruction is correct
(d) A retrograde pyelogram
for the Sitz bath regimen for a patient with
19. Which of the following priority nursing action
Prostatitis?
when a patient with a TURP complains of bladder
(a) Use cool tepid water.
discomfort and a feeling of urgency to void?
(b) Soak for 20 minutes.
(a) Check that the urinary drainage catheter is
(c) Massage the scrotum while bathing. patent.
(d) Add mild spirit to the water. (b) Change the patient to squatting position.
12. Which suggestion will best promote the (c) Administer a prescribed analgesic as soon as
comfort of a patient with prostatitis? possible.
(a) Using a scrotal support (d) Get the patient out of bed to ambulate for a
(b) Buying larger underwear while.
(c) Wearing cotton briefs 20. What of the following special instruction
(d) Applying a hot compress concerning for taking vital signs is most
13. Which of the following condition is most important after prostatic surgery?
suggestive as the cause of the Orchitis? (a) Assess the patient's pulse at the radial artery.
(a) Sexually active homosexual. (b) Count the patient's respirations while he is
(b) Multiple sexual partners. resting
(c) Never immunized for mumps. (c) Take the patient's blood pressure with an
(d) Previous sports-related scrotal injury. electronic machine.
14. Which statement accurately explains the (d) Avoid taking a rectal temperature.
technique for testicular self-examination?
(a) Palpate both testicles with palm. ANSWER KEY
(b) Roll each testicle between the thumb and 1. [a] 2. [c] 3. [b] 4. [a] 5.[d]
fingers. 6. [a] 7. [c] 8. [b] 9. [c] 10. [b]
(c) Perform the self-examination in a cool room. 11. [b] 12. [a] 13. [c] 14. [b] 15. [c]
(d) Examine your testicles at least once yearly. 16. [b] 17. [b] 18. [c] 19. [a] 20. [d]
-:: 23 ::-
7. The patient with a spinal cord injury may
CATHETERIZATION & BLADDER
develop autonomic Dysreflexia. The nurse
1. Why women are at a greater risk than men for
would avoid which of the following activity
a urinary tract infection?
(a) Women have short size of urethra measures to minimize the risk for develop
(b) Proximity of the urethra to the anus autonomic Dysreflexia?
(c) Women have low urinary pH (a) Limiting bladder catheterization to once every
(d) Option Both A and B 12 hours
2. What should the nurse do if the urine (b) Maintaining bowel regularity
specimen of a routine urinalysis cannot be
(c) Preventing unnecessary pressure on the lower
sent immediately to the laboratory?
limbs
(a) No need of any action.
(b) Store it in the dirty utility room temperature. (d) Keeping the linen wrinkle-free under the
(c) Refrigerate the specimen. patient
(d) Discard the specimen and collect another 8. What is the following action to be taken by the
specimen later. nurse, when irrigating the bladder with
3. A catheterized patient complaint to nurse indwelling urinary catheter?
about discomfort in the bladder and urethra.
(a) Use sterile equipment.
What should the nurse do first as priority?
(a) Inform to the physician. (b) Instil the fluid under high pressure.
(b) Milk or twisting the tubing gently. (c) Use clean technique by nurse
(c) Irrigate the catheter (d) The solution takes at body temperature.
(d) Check the patency of the catheter. 9. What is the important nursing action to obtain
4. Which of the following nursing intervention is an accurate urine output for a patient with
best and priority to prevent UTI from a urinary
continuous bladder irrigation?
retention catheter?
(a) Stop the irrigation and determine the urine
(a) Irrigating the catheter once daily
(b) Encouraging adequate fluids output.
(c) Cleansing around the urethral meatus with (b) Measure the contents of the bedside
betadine routinely (c) Subtract the volume of irrigant from the total
(d) Cleansing the perineum drainage.
5. Which of the following is the most important (d) All of the above
nursing action during continuous bladder 10. When preparing the client for catheterization,
irrigation? how should the nurse position the client?
(a) Cleansing around the urethral meatus with (a) Prone (b) Lithotomy position
beta dine routinely (c) Recumbent (d) Knee-chest position
(b) Monitoring urinary colour for termination of 11. Which of the following symptoms will the
procedure patient most likely reported if patient has
(c) Subtracting irrigant from output to determine cystitis except?
urine volume (a) Burning on urination
(d) None of them (b) Sharp flank pain
6. Which of the following characteristic of urine (c) Urgency and Frequency
should the nurse assess in urine analysis (d) Increase pH of urine
report when a patient has a urinary tract 12. What is the effect of Phenazopyridine
infection? (Pyridium) on the urine?
(a) Odour of urine (a) Fruits odour in Urine
(b) Specific gravity of urine (b) Urine become cloudy
(c) Clarity of urine (c) Urine will become scant.
(d) pH of urine (d) Urine appears orange.
-:: 24 ::-
13. When the nurse reviews the results of the 19. Where the nurse should assess the
patient's Urinalysis, which substance in the characteristics of urine from a catheter if the
urine is most suggestive of a bladder physician inserts a suprapubic cystostomy?
infection? (a) Flank
(a) Glucose (b) Bilirubin (b) Abdomen
(c) Blood (d) Protein (c) Ureter
14. Which of the following nursing assessment is (d) Urethra
most important before beginning bladder 20. Which of the following nursing intervention is
retraining programme for incontinence of essential for evaluating the patency of the
urine patient? suprapubic catheter?
(a) Weighing the client's incontinence pad (b) (a) Attaching the catheter to a leg bag when the
Checking the specific gravity of the urine patient ambulates
(c) Monitoring the extent of bladder distention (b) Monitoring the patient's urine output every 2
(d) Recording the times at which the client is hours
incontinent (c) Inspecting the patient's skin around the
15. Which of the following measures performed by insertion site
the patient would protect against acquiring (d) Encouraging the patient to consume 100 mL
urinary tract infection? (a) Drying the perineum of oral fluid hourly
thoroughly after bowel elimination 21. Which of the following urinary symptom of
(b) Using a feminine hygiene spray after bowel patient expected by nurse after cystoscopy?
elimination (a) Patient has Polyuria
(c) Performing appropriate hand washing after (b) Patient has Dysuria
bowel elimination (c) Patient has Pyuria
(d) Wiping away from the urinary meatus after (d) Patient has Anuria
bowel elimination 22. Which of the following priority nursing
16. How far into the female urethra should the intervention is essential for evaluating the
nurse insert the Foleys catheter? patency of the suprapubic catheter?
(a) 1" (2.5 cm) (b) 3" (7.5 cm) (a) Inspecting the client's skin around the
(c) 5" (12.5 cm) (d) 4" (10 cm) insertion site
17. When the nurse mistakenly inserts the (b) Monitoring the client's urine output every 2
catheter into the female patient's vagina hours
rather than the urinary meatus, which action (c) Perform a crede maneuver every 4 hours.
is best to take next? (d) Measure the patient's abdominal girth daily.
(a) Discard the catheter and use another sterile 23. Which of the following technique is most
one. appropriate for stabilizing the indwelling
(b) Clean the catheter tip with Povidone iodine catheter to avoid damage to the penis in male
solution patient?
(c) Wipe the catheter tip with an alcohol swab (a) Tape the catheter to the lateral aspect of thigh
(d) Withdraw the catheter and insert it in the or abdomen.
urethra (b) Insert the catheter into the tubing of a
18. Which of the following nursing action is most
collecting bag.
appropriate in collecting the patient's urine
(c) Pass the catheter under the patient's leg.
specimen for 24-hour urine collection for
Creatinine clearance is to begin at 8 A.M.? (d) Above the thigh
(a) Have the patient void at 8 a.m., and refrigerate 24. Which of the following areas where nurse
the specimen. observe the pain when a patient get bladder
(b) Have the patient void at 8 a.m., and dispose trauma?
first of the specimen. (a) Flank region
(c) Have the patient void at 8 a.m., and place the
(b) Shoulder region
specimen in a preservative.
(d) Have the patient void at 8 a.m., and send the (c) Umbilicus
specimen to the laboratory. (d) Sternal border of chest
-:: 25 ::-
25. Which of the following manifestations of (a) Flushed appearance
urethritis? (b) Peripheral edema
(a) Dysuria and penile discharge (c) Skin haemorrhages
(b) Haematuria and urgency (d) Absence of body hair
(c) Dysuria and fruit like smell in urine 5. Which of the following nursing instruction is
(d) Penile discharge and Pyuria pyelonephritis and taking trimethoprim and
26. Which of the following findings assess by Sulfamethoxazole?
(a) Avoid carbonated soft drinks.
nurse on physical examination of a patient
(b) Eat more acidic citrus fruits.
who diagnosed as epididymitis?
(c) Drink 3 quarts (3 L) of water daily.
(a) Fever, diarrhoea, groin pain, and ecchymosis
(d) Take the medication with food
(b) Diarrhoea, groin pain, testicular torsion, and
6. When the nurse reviews medical history of a
scrotal edema glomerulonephritis patient which finding most
(c) Fever, nausea, vomiting, and painful scrotal likely precipitated the present illness?
edema (a) Treatment with an antibiotic
(d) Nausea, vomiting, scrotal edema, and (b) An upper respiratory infection
ecchymosis (c) Trauma to the lower abdomen
(d) An allergic reaction to X-ray dye
ANSWER KEY 7. A Patient has diagnosed glomerulonephritis,
1. [d] 2. [c] 3. [d] 4. [c] 5. [c] which of the following priority nursing
6. [c] 7. [a] 8. [a] 9. [c] 10. [c] intervention in this patient care?
11. [b] 12. [d] 13. [c] 14. [d] 15. [a] (a) Instructing the patient how to self-catheterize
16. [b] 17. [a] 18. [b] 19. [b] 20. [b] (b) Ambulating the patient twice daily
(c) Monitoring the patient's weight daily
21. [b] 22. [b] 23. [a] 24. [b] 25. [a]
(d) Encouraging the patient to increase fluid intake
26. [c]
❑❑❑
8. Which of the following finding best indicates the
RBC is present in urine when a patient diagnosed
GLOMERULONEPHRITIS as glomerulonephritis?
(a) The urine appears dark yellow.
1. Which of the following instructions should the (b) The urine appears smoky.
nurse provide to the patient to prevent recurrent (c) The urine appears bright orange.
glomerulonephritis? (d) The urine appears cloudy.
(a) Seek early treatment for respiratory tract
infections. ANSWER KEY
(b) Continue the same restrictions on fluid intake. 1. [a] 2. [d] 3. [a] 4. [b] 5. [c]
(c) Avoid drinking cold water
6. [b] 7. [c] 8. [b]
(d) Voiding urine in clean area
❑❑❑
2. Which of the following would the nurse expect to
be present in the urine of a client with
glomerulonephritis?
(a) Acetone (b) Glucose
(c) Bilirubin (d) Albumin
3. Which of the following observe by the nurse to
assess the signs of haemorrhage after a
nephrectomy patient is lying in the supine
position?
(a) Observe the dressings.
(b) Observe the patient for Haemoptysis
(c) Assess patient for capillary refill.
(d) Assess for Bradycardia
4. Which of the following finding would the nurse
expect to observe when conducting a head-to toe
physical assessment of a patient who diagnosed
with glomerulonephritis?
-:: 26 ::-
8. Which of the following clinical findings should
RENAL FAILURE & the nurse expect when assessing a patient
DIALYSIS & KIDNEY TRANSPLANTS with chronic kidney failure?
(a) Polyuria (b) Lethargy
1. Which of the following nursing assessment is
essential to add to the patient's care plan who (c) Muscle twitching (d) Both B and C
diagnosed with CRF? 9. Which of the following mechanism where
(a) Measure intake and output. peritoneal dialysis work?
(b) Monitor body temperature (a) Osmosis (b) Diffusion
(c) Assess for urine retention. (c) Perfusion (d) Both A and B
(d) Check the urine for bile test. 10. Which of the following clinical finding
2. Which of the following clinical indicators of end- indicates the need for haemodialysis for a
stage renal disease expect by the nurse except?
patient who has chronic renal failure?
(a) Polyuria (b) Oliguria
(a) Hypotension (b) Metabolic acidosis
(c) Azotaemia (d) Hypertension
(c) Ascites (d) Hyperkalaemia
3. What is the cause of metabolic acidosis
11. Which of the following nursing care should be
develops with renal failure?
included with a patient who has a mature
(a) Patient feels discomfort
arteriovenous fistula except?
(b) Depressed respiratory rate by metabolic
(a) Palpate the site to identify a thrill sound
wastes, causing carbon dioxide retention
(b) Auscultated for a bruit sound
(c) Inability of the renal tubules to secrete
(c) Irrigate with saline to maintain patency
hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate
(d) Avoid drawing blood from the affected
(d) Inability of the renal tubules to reabsorb water
extremity
to dilute the acid contents of blood
12. What is initial and important nursing action
4. What is the following important cause protein
before haemodialysis?
diet is avoided in a patient of acute kidney
(a) Administer anti pyretic medication to patient
failure?
(b) Weigh the patient to establish a baseline for
(a) Protein causes an increase in urea concentration
(b) Protein is not require for body
later comparison
(c) Protein prevent urine formation (c) Obtain a urine specimen for glucose test
(d) Urea nitrogen cannot be used to synthesize amino (d) Explain that the peritoneum serves as a semi
acids in the body, so the nitrogen for amino acid permeable membrane to remove wastes
synthesis must come from the dietary protein. 13. What is the priority nursing action should the
5. What is the common cause of twitching fingers nurse do when Creatinine level 3.5 mg/dL of a
and toes tingling with acute renal failure patient after kidney transplant?
patient? (a) Check the intravenous infusion.
(a) Potassium retention (b) Notify the physician.
(b) Hypocalcaemia (c) Obtain blood sample for test
(c) Increase depth of oxygen (d) Assess for decreased urine output
(d) Sodium chloride deficiency 14. Which of the following should the nurse
6. A patient with acute kidney failure becomes instruct the patient when the dialysate from
confused and irritable. Which is the cause the peritoneal cavity has ceased during
determine is the most likely cause? peritoneal dialysis before the required volume
(a) Dehydration has returned?
(b) Hyponatremia (a) Advice to drink a glass of water.
(c) Hyperkalaemia (b) Advice Turn from side to side.
(d) Increased level of blood urea nitrogen (c) Advice Deep breath and cough.
7. What is common sign of hyponatremia assess (d) Advice Rotate the catheter
by nurse during haemodialysis? 15. Which of the following symptom indicative of
(a) Cardiac dysrhythmias renal failure would the nurse expect to note
(b) Muscle cramps when assessing this patient?
(c) Extreme fatigue (a) Fever (b) Hypotension
(d) Both B and C (c) Anemia (d) Weight loss
-:: 27 ::-
16. During the Oliguria phase of renal failure, the nurse 24. What is the clinical finding should the nurse expect
would anticipate the patient's urine output to be to identify in a patient with CREST syndrome?
within what range? (a) Esophageal reflux
(a) 1000 to 2,000 mL/day (b) Spider-like hemangiomas
(b) 100 to 150 mL/hour (c) Episodic blanching of the fingers
(c) 50 to 100 mL/hour (d) All of above
(d) 100 to 400 mL/day 25. Which of the following Lab finding provides the best
17. Which diagnostic test is a sensitive indicator of evidence that peritoneal dialysis is achieving a
chronic renal disease will need to be closely therapeutic effect?
monitored by the nurse? (a) Potassium level falls. (b) Urine output decrease.
(a) Serum Creatinine level (c) Appetite improves. (d) RBC count is decrease.
(b) Urine specific gravity 26. Which of the following complication is most
(c) Serum sodium level important associated with peritoneal dialysis?
(d) Uric acid level (a) Pulmonary edema
18. Which nursing assessment is essential to add to the (b) Ruptured aorta
patient's care plan if patient has ESRD? (c) Pain on site
(a) Check the urine for glucose. (d) Abdominal peritonitis
(b) Measure intake and output. 27. Which of the following problem is the nurse's
(c) Assess for urine retention. immediate concern after kidney transplant
(d) Monitor body temperature. surgery?
19. Which of the following nursing assessment is most (a) Abdominal distention secondary to delayed
important in renal failure patient after Rapid peristalsis
infusion of IV fluid? (b) Pneumonia secondary to ineffective breathing
(a) Monitoring specific gravity patterns
(b) Assessing for rapid weight gain (c) Postoperative paralytic ileus due to colon
(c) Checking for pedal edema manipulation
(d) Auscultating breath sounds (d) Hypovolemic shock caused by postoperative
20. Which of the following nursing action is most bleeding
appropriate when renal failure patient complains 28. Which of the following assessment finding is most
about being thirsty because of the fluid Suggestive that the patient is haemorrhaging after
a nephrectomy?
restrictions?
(a) Cyanosis (b) Nausea and vomiting
(a) Giving the patient hard candy to suck
(c) Acute flank pain (d) Abdominal distention
(b) Give the patient an ice cream 29. Which of the following Acute Rejection sign of the
(c) Providing the patient with ice chips kidney transplantation?
(d) Give the fruit to patient (a) Transplanted kidney is enlarged and tender
21. Which of the following nursing assessment is most (b) Pyrexia to the patient
important to perform regularly when a patient has (c) Acute hypertension
(d) All of the above
an arteriovenous fistula for haemodialysis?
30. Which of the following appropriate response by the
(a) Checking the colour and temperature of the nurse when a patient complains of abdominal pain
patient's hand during peritoneal dialysis?
(b) Observing the tone and coordination of the (a) Stop the infusion.
patient's arm muscles (b) Inform to doctor
(c) Monitoring the patient's wrist and finger range of (c) Decrease the amount to be infused.
(d) Pain is expected it will subside after the first few
motion
exchanges.
(d) Inspecting the patient's forearm skin turgor
ANSWER KEY
22. Which of the following assessment before and after
1. [a] 2. [a] 3. [c] 4. [a] 5. [b]
peritoneal dialysis is most valuable in evaluating
the outcome of treatment? 6. [d] 7. [d] 8. [d] 9. [d] 10. [d]
(a) Abdominal girth (b) Body weight 11. [c] 12. [b] 13. [d] 14. [b] 15. [c]
(c) Pulse rate (d) Urine output 16. [d] 17. [a] 18. [b] 19. [d] 20. [a]
23. Which of the following priority force affect 21. [a] 22. [b] 23. [b] 24. [d] 25. [a]
peritoneal dialysis movement of urea and 26. [d] 27. [d] 28. [c] 29. [d] 30. [d]
Creatinine through the peritoneum?
(a) Filtration (b) Diffusion
(c) Osmosis (d) Gravity
-:: 28 ::-
RENAL CALCULI ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
1. Which of the following priority clinical PITUITARY GLAND
indicator assess by nurse when a patient is 1. Which results from too much cortisol
admitted with urethral colic?
secretion in the body?
(a) Haematuria in patient
(a) Addison's disease
(b) Pain
(c) Weight of patient (b) Cushing's syndrome
(d) Blood pressure of patient (c) Hypothyroidism
2. Which of the following are the most important (d) None of the Above
nursing actions during care of a patient with a
2. Which of the following is a master gland
urethral calculus except?
(a) Administering the prescribed analgesic
which influences the endocrine glands:
(b) Limiting fluid intake at night (a) Thyroid (b) Parathyroid
(c) Straining the urine at each voiding (c) Hypothalamus (d) Pituitary
(d) Monitoring intake and output 3. The gland that is located below Hypophyseal
3. Which of the following postoperative clinical
Fossa of Sphenoid bone is?
indicator should the nurse report to the
surgeon after perform nephrolithotomy? (a) Thyroid gland (b) Pineal gland
(a) Intake of water is 2250 ml in a day (c) Pituitary gland (d) Adrenal gland
(b) Pale Pink drainage on the dressing 4. Hyper functioning of anterior pituitary in
(c) Passage of pink-tinged urine pre pubertal children causes
(d) Urine output of 20 mL/hr
(a) Gigantism
4. Which of the following nursing interventions
are most appropriate during care of a patient (b) Acromegaly
who diagnosed with urolithiasis? (c) Addison's disease
(a) Administer antibiotics per physician order. (d) Cushing's disease
(b) Maintain the patient in Fowler's position. 5. The hyper secretion of growth hormone
(c) Restrict fluids to 1,000 mL/day.
leads to:
(d) Both A and B
ANSWER KEY (a) Grave's diseases (b)
1. [b] 2. [b] 3. [d] 4. [d] Cretinism
❑❑❑ (c) Myxoedema (d) Acromegaly
6. Concentration of the urine is controlled by
(a) MSH (b) ADH
(c) Oxytocin (d) ACTH
7. What is the important action of ADH except?
(a) Reduction in urine output
(b) Vasoconstriction
(c) Increase in systemic BP
(d) Vasodilatation
8. Hypothalamic functions include all except?
(a) Regulation of posterior pituitary
(b) Regulation of anterior pituitary
(c) Control of reproduction
(d) Control of respiration
9. Which is the master gland of the body?
(a) Adrenalin (b) Thyroid
(c) Hypothalamus (d) Ovary
-:: 29 ::-
10. Which of the following hormone increases 19. Which of the following hormone is not
water reabsorption? secreted by anterior pituitary?
(a) ADH (a) CRH
(b) Parathyroid hormone (b) ACTH
(c) Calcitonin (c) Prolactin
(d) Thyroxin (d) TSH
11. What is the function of vasopressin? 20. Which endocrine gland secretes FSH and LH?
(a) Vasoconstriction (a) Anterior pituitary
(b) Reduction in urine output (b) Thyroid
(c) Increase in systemic BP (c) Adrenal
(d) All of the Above (d) Pituitary
12. A patient have vasopressin deficiency, what 21. Hormone oxytocin is secreted by
is expectation by nurse? (a) Thyroid
(a) Reduction in urine output (b) Adrenal cortex
(b) Increase in systemic BP (c) Anterior pituitary
(c) Increase in urine output (d) Posterior pituitary
(d) None of them 22. Which of the following hormone increases
13. Which of the following affects the function uterine contraction
of other endocrine glands: (a) Oxytocin
(a) Thyroid (b) LH
(b) Hypothalamus (c) FSH
(c) Adrenal (d) Prolactin
(d) Pituitary 23. Which of the following hormone plays an
14. Size of pituitary gland is look like important role in milk ejection?
(a) Butterfly (b) Hammer (a) Prolactin
(c) Pea (d) Stick (b) FSH
15. The pituitary gland lies in the (c) ADH
(a) Fossa of ethmoid bone (d) Oxytocin
(b) Fossa of occipital bone 24. Which of the following hormone is essential
(c) Fossa of frontal bone for milk production?
(d) Fossa of sphenoid bone (a) FSH
16. Which is the most abundant hormone (b) Oxytocin
synthesized by the anterior pituitary (c) ADH
(a) ACTH (d) Prolactin
(b) TSH 25. Which of the following hormone is also
(c) GH known as vasopressin
(d) LH (a) LH
17. Which of the following gland is also known (b) Prolactin
as master gland? (c) Oxytocin
(a) Thyroid (d) ADH
(b) Thymus ANSWER KEY
(c) Adrenal 1. [b] 2. [d] 3. [c] 4. [a] 5. [d]
(d) Pituitary 6. [b] 7. [d] 8. [d] 9. [c] 10. [a]
11. [d] 12. [c] 13. [b] 14. [c] 15. [d]
18. Growth Hormone Releasing Hormones
16. [c] 17. [d] 18. [a] 19. [a] 20. [a]
(GHRH) is secreted by which of the
21. [d] 22. [a] 23. [d] 24. [d] 25. [d]
following? ❑❑❑
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Posterior pituitary
(c) Adrenal
(d) Anterior pituitary
-:: 30 ::-
THYROID GLAND ADRENAL GLAND
1. The hormone known to participate in 1. Which of the following hormones secreted by
metabolism of calcium and phosphorous is adrenal cortex include except
(a) Mineralocorticoids (a) Adrenaline (b) Mineralocorticoids
(b) Calcitonin (c) Androgens (d) Glucocorticoids
(c) Glucagon 2. Which of the following is the main glucocorticoid
(d) Glucocorticoids hormone
(a) Aldosterone (b) Adrenaline
2. Vitamin D regulates the level of
(c) Cortisol (d) Cortisone
(a) Calcium and Phosphorus
3. Which of the following is a mineralocorticoid
(b) Phosphorus and Magnesium hormone
(c) Calcium and Magnesium (a) Aldosterone (b) Adrenaline
(d) All of the Above (c) Cortisol (d) Cortisone
4. Hormone adrenaline is also known as
3. Which of the following element is essential for
(a) Vasopressin
the formation of thyroid hormone? (b) Norepinephrine
(a) Potassium (c) Epinephrine
(b) Sodium (d) Cortisol
(c) Iodine 5. Which of the hormone secreted by adrenal medulla,
(d) Calcium is
4. Which of the following hormone reduces (a) Adrenaline (b) Mineralocorticoids
absorption of calcium in human body (c) Androgens (d) Glucocorticoids
6. In following which is not a glucocorticoid hormone
(a) Thyroxine
(a) Aldosterone (b) Corticosterone
(b) Parathormone
(c) Cortisone (d) Cortisol
(c) Calcitonin 7. What is the Action of aldosterone hormone?
(d) Oxytocin (a) It stimulates excretion of both Na and K
5. What is the hormones secreted by thyroid (b) It stimulates reabsorption of K and excretion of Na
gland are except (c) It stimulates reabsorption of both Na and K
(a) Thyroid stimulating hormone (d) It stimulates reabsorption of Na and excretion of K
(b) Calcitonin 8. Enzyme Renin is secreted by
(c) Thyroxine (a) Kidney (b) Stomach
(c) Liver (d) Lung
(d) Tri-iodothyronine
9. Renin-angiotensin aldosterone system is related to:
6. Total number of parathyroid glands in human
(a) Maintaining sodium level
body are (b) Maintaining BP
(a) 4 (c) Maintaining blood volume
(b) 1 (d) All of the above
(c) 3 10. Which is the last product of renin angiotensin
(d) 2 aldosterone system,
7. What is the action of parathormone? (a) Angiotensin-II (b) Angiotensin-I
(a) It decreases blood sodium level (c) Renin (d) Angiotensinogen
11. Which of the following hormone is responsible for
(b) It decreases blood Ca level
fight or flight response?
(c) It increases blood sodium level
(a) Adrenaline (b) Aldosterone
(d) It increase blood Ca level (c) Corticosterone (d) Cortisol
12. Which of the following gland plays a vital role in
ANSWER KEY responding to stress
1. [b] 2. [a] 3. [c] 4. [c] 5. [a] (a) Parathyroid (b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal (d) Pancreas
6. [a] 7. [d]
ANSWER KEY
1. [a] 2. [c] 3. [a] 4. [c] 5. [a]
6. [a] 7. [d] 8. [a] 9. [d] 10. [a]
11. [a] 12. [c]
-:: 31 ::-
PANCREAS 10. Which gland is the example of both endocrine
and exocrine gland?
1. Glucagon hormone is secreted by the (a) Pancreas
(a) Thyroid gland (b) Adrenal
(b) Adrenal gland (c) Thyroid
(c) Pancreas (d) Pituitary
(d) Pituitary gland 11. Which of the following cell of pancreatic islets,
2. B-cells of pancreas secrete which hormone? secrete hormone glucagon?
(a) Insulin (a) Delta cells
(b) LH (b) Beta cells
(c) FSHE (c) Alpha cells
(d) TRH (d) All
3. Islets of Langerhans are concentrated in 12. Which of the following hormone is also known
which portion of Pancreas? as 5-hydroxytryptamine
(a) Head (a) Histamine
(b) Body (b) Thymosin
(c) Tail (c) Secretin
(d) Uncinate process (d) Serotonin
4. Insulin is secreted by? 13. Formation of new sugar from protein, fat etc.
(a) Alpha cells is known as
(b) Beta cells (a) Gluconeogenesis
(c) Gamma cells (b) Glucogenesis
(d) Delta cells (c) Glycogenolysis
5. A gland which can be classified as an endocrine (d) Lipogenesis
except? 14. Conversion of glucose to glycogen is known as
(a) Thyroid (a) Glycogenolysis
(b) Thymus (b) Lipogenesis
(c) Pancreas (c) Gluconeogenesis
(d) Pituitary (d) Glycogenesis
6. The regulation of blood glucose is maintained 15. Breakdown of glycogen into glucose is known
by the hormone: as
(a) Insulin (a) Gluconeogenesis
(b) Prolactin (b) Glucogenesis
(c) Oxytocin (c) Glycogenolysis
(d) Testosterone (d) Lipogenesis
7. Enzyme responsible for conversion of glucose 16. What is the action of Somatostatin except
to glucose-6-phosphate (a) It increases the secretion of glucagon
(a) Glycogen synthase (b) It inhibits the secretion of insulin
(b) G-6 phosphatase (c) It decreases the secretion of gastric juice and
(c) Glucokinase Gastrin
(d) Phosphorylase (d) It inhibits the secretion of growth hormone
8. The normal blood glucose level of an average
adult is: ANSWER KEY
(a) 70-110mg/dl 1. [c] 2. [a] 3. [c] 4. [b] 5. [c]
(b) 50-100 mg/dl 6. [a] 7. [c] 8. [a] 9. [c] 10. [a]
(c) 180-210 mg/dl 11. [c] 12. [d] 13. [a] 14. [d] 15. [c]
(d) 140-180 mg/dl 16. [a]
9. Which of the following gland secretes tears?
(a) Sweat gland
(b) Adrenal
(c) Lacrimal
(d) Sebaceous
-:: 32 ::-
CUSHING SYNDROME & ADRENALECTOMY 7. Which of the following clinical response should
the nurse monitor while steroid therapy is
1. A patient is planned for adrenalectomy. Which
being regulated after adrenalectomy?
of the following intervention should the nurse
expected will be ordered by physician for this (a) Hypotension
patient? (b) Hyperglycemia
(a) Administer IV steroids. (c) Potassium excretion
(b) Withhold all medications for 48 hours. (d) Sodium retention
(c) Collect a sputum specimen. 8. A patient with Cushing syndrome has an
(d) Provide a high-protein diet.
increased Cortisol level. What is the following
2. What is the most common cause of Cushing
response should assess by nurse with this
syndrome that the nurse should consider
before assessing this patient for physiological patient?
responses? (a) Hypoglycaemia
(a) Insufficient adrenocorticotropic hormone (b) Hyperkalemia
production (c) Hypovolemia
(b) Hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex (d) Hypernatremia
(c) Deprivation of adrenocortical hormones
9. What is the following purpose expected by
(d) None of them
nurse about a low-sodium, high-potassium
3. A nurse is caring a patient with Cushing
diet planned for a patient with Cushing
syndrome. Which clinical findings can the syndrome?
nurse expect to identify? (a) "Excess weight will be gained if sodium is not
(a) Buffalo hump limited"
(b) Menorrhagia (b) "The use of salt probably contributed to the
(c) Dependent edema disease."
(c) "The loss of excess sodium and potassium in
(d) Headache
the urine requires less renal stimulation."
4. Which of the following clinical indicators can
(d) "Excessive aldosterone and cortisone cause
the nurse expect when assessing a patient retention of sodium and loss of potassium."
with Cushing syndrome? 10. Which of the following nursing interventions
(a) Lability of mood managing the basic needs of a patient with
(b) Ectomorphism with a moon face Cushing's syndrome?
(c) A decrease in the growth of hair (a) Turning and repositioning the patient and to
use pressure-relieving devices
(d) Sadness of mood
(b) Check the patient frequently for suicidal
5. Which of the following clinical manifestation
ideation.
does the nurse expect for increase in a patient (c) Advise the patient to ask for assistance when
with Cushing syndrome? getting up.
(a) Serum potassium (d) All of the above
(b) Glucose level 11. Which of the following nursing measure is
(c) Urine output most appropriate for healing during the
postoperative period of Cushing's syndrome?
(d) Immune response
(a) Monitoring infusion of I.V. antibiotics
6. What is the purpose of steroids prescribed by (b) Removing tape toward the incision site
doctor before surgery of bilateral (c) Increasing the patient's dietary protein intake
adrenalectomy? (d) Covering the wound with gauze
(a) Facilitate urinary excretion or salt and water
following surgery
ANSWER KEY
(b) Increase the inflammatory action to promote
1. [a] 2. [b] 3. [a] 4. [a] 5. [b]
scar formation
6. [d] 7. [a] 8. [d] 9. [d] 10. [d]
(c) Poster accumulation of glycogen in the liver
11. [b]
(d) Compensate for sudden lack of these
hormones following surgery
-:: 33 ::-
7. Which of the following information should the
DIABETES INSIPIDUS &
nurse include in a teaching plan to modify
ADDISON DISEASE & DIABETES MELLITUS
dietary intake?
1. A patient is admitted in patient unit with a (a) Extra salt is needed to replace the amount
head injury. The nurse identifies that the being lost due to lack of sufficient aldosterone to
patients has large amounts of clear, colourless conserve sodium.
urine output. What does the nurse expected as (b) Increased protein is needed to heal the
the most likely cause? adrenal tissue and thus cure the disease.
(a) Excess amounts of IV fluid (c) Supplemental vitamins are needed to supply
(b) Deficient renal perfusion energy and assist in regaining the lost weight
(c) Inadequate ADH secretion (d) Increased amounts of potassium are needed
(d) Increased serum glucose to replace renal losses.
2. A patient diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. 8. Which of the following clinical findings
What should the nurse consider about the commonly associated with hyperglycaemia
response to secretion of ADH before assessing except?
this patient? (a) Polyuria (b) Polydipsia
(a) Serum osmolarity increases (c) Polyphagia (d) Polyphrasia
(b) Urine concentration decreases 9. Which range of a fasting plasma glucose level
(c) Tubular reabsorption of water increases does the nurse conclude that a patient is
(d) Glomerular filtration decreases considered to be diabetic?
3. A patient with the hypotension associated (a) 40 and 60 mg/dL (b) 80 and 99 mg/dL
with a diagnosis of Addison disease. Which of (c) 100 and 125 mg/dL (d) 126 and 140 mg/dL
the following hormone is impaired in its 10. Which of the following is the priority
production as a result of this disease? intervention when a patient is first admitted
(a) Glucocorticoid with hyperglycemichyperosmolar nonketotic
(b) Androgens syndrome (HHNS)?
(c) Estrogen (a) Encouraging carbohydrates
(d) Mineralocorticoids (b) Providing oxygen
4. A patient is admitted in patient unit with a (c) Administering fluid replacement
diagnosis of Addison disease. The patient (d) Teaching facts about exercise
reports muscular weakness and fatigue. 11. Which of the following situation associated
Which of the following disturbed body process with this physiologic finding about this
does the nurse determine is the important patient?
cause of the patient's condition? (a) Alcoholism
(a) Masculinising hormones (b) Starvation
(b) Electrolyte levels (c) Bone healing
(c) Protein anabolism (d) Positive nitrogen balance
(d) Fluid balance 12. A patient tells the nurse during the admission
5. Which of the following is an important nursing history that an oral hypoglycemic agent is
intervention that the nurse should include in taken daily. For which condition does the
the plan of care for a patient with Addison nurse conclude that an oral hypoglycemic
disease? agent may be prescribed?
(a) Protecting the patient from exertion (a) Type A diabetes
(b) Encouraging the patient to exercise (b) Obesity
(c) Restricting the patient's fluid intake (c) Ketosis
(d) Monitoring the patient for hypokalemia (d) Reduced insulin production
6. Which of the following outcome expected by 13. A nurse is assessing a patient with a diagnosis
nurse for treatment of Addison disease? of hypoglycaemia. What clinical
(a) Improvement of carbohydrate metabolism manifestations support this diagnosis except?
(b) Increase in lymphoid tissue (a) Thirst
(c) Restoration of electrolyte balance (b) Diaphoresis
(d) Decrease in lymphocytes (c) Palpitations
(d) Slurred speech
-:: 34 ::-
14. A nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis 20. A urine specimen is needed to test for the
of type-A diabetes who has developed diabetic presence of ketones in a patient who is
coma. Which element excessively accumulates diabetic. What should the nurse do when
in the blood to precipitate the signs and collecting urine specimen from a urinary
symptoms associated? retention catheter?
(a) Glucose from rapid carbohydrate metabolism, (a) Clean the drainage valve and remove the urine
causing drowsiness from the catheter bag.
(b) Ketones as a result of rapid fat breakdown, (b) Disconnect the catheter and drain the urine
causing acidosis into a clean container.
(c) Nitrogen from protein catabolism, causing (c) Wipe the catheter with alcohol and drain the
ammonia intoxication urine into a sterile test tube.
(d) Sodium bicarbonate, causing alkalosis (d) Clamp the catheter, cleanse the port with
15. Which is the most common cause of diabetic betadine, and use a sterile syringe to remove
ketoacidosis in postoperative patient of urine.
diabetic that the nurse needs to consider when 21. Which of the following Fasting Plasma Glucose
caring for this patient? level should the nurse identify that the patient
(a) Increased insulin dose has pre diabetes?
(b) Presence of infection (a) 100 mg/dL
(c) Emotional stress (b) 69 mg/dL
(d) Inadequate food intake (c) 130 mg/dL
16. What is the initial intervention expect by nurse (d) 160 mg/dL
when A patient is admitted to the hospital 22. Which of the following clinical findings
with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis? support for hypoglycemic reaction to insulin?
(a) IV fluids (a) Heart palpitations and Irritability
(b) Potassium (b) Glycosuria
(c) NPH insulin (c) Dry, hot skin
(d) Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) (d) Fruity odour of breath
17. A patient is diagnosed with diabetic 23. Which of the following factors can predispose
ketoacidosis. Which of the following insulin a patient to diabetic ketoacidosis coma?
should the nurse expect to prescribe by (a) Getting too much exercise
doctor? (b) Taking too much insulin
(a) Insulin lispro (Humalog) (c) Excessive emotional stress and fever
(b) Insulin Glargine (Lantus) (d) Eating fewer calories than prescribed
(c) NPH insulin (Novolin N) 24. Which of the following clinical findings related
(d) Regular insulin (Novolin R) to diabetic ketoacidosis should the nurse
18. A nurse is assessing a patient experiencing a document in the patients clinical record?
diabetic coma. What unique response (a) Retinopathy
associated with diabetic coma that is not (b) Sweating
exhibited with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar (c) Acetone breath and Decreased arterial carbon
nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) should the nurse dioxide level
identify when assessing this patient? (d) Increased arterial bicarbonate level
(a) Glycosuria 25. A nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes
(b) Fluid loss who is scheduled for a radiographic study
(c) Kussmaul respirations requiring contrast. Which of the following
(d) Increased blood glucose level
should the nurse expect the physician to
19. A patient with untreated type 1 diabetes
prescribe?
mellitus may lapse into a coma because of
acidosis. Which of the following component (a) Acetylcysteine before the test.
increase in the blood is a direct cause of this (b) Forced diuresis with Mannitol after the test.
type of acidosis? (c) Renal-friendly contrast medium for the test.
(a) Ketones (b) Glucose (d) Hydration with dextrose and water
(c) Glutamic acid (d) Lactic acid throughout the test.
-:: 35 ::-
26. A patient's blood gases reflect diabetic 32. Which of the following is nursing action that
ketoacidosis. Which of the following clinical should be included in the plan of care for a
indicator should the nurse expect to identify patient after an episode of ketoacidosis?
when monitoring this patient's laboratory (a) Monitoring for signs of hypoglycaemia as a
values? result of treatment
(a) Increased PCO2 (b) Withholding glucose in any form until the
(b) Decreased PO2 situation is corrected
(c) Increased pH (c) Giving fruit juices, broth, and milk as soon as
(d) Decreased HCO3 the patient is able to take fluids orally
27. What is the reason 15 g of a simple sugar is (d) Regulating insulin dosage according to the
administered when a patient experiences amount of ketones found in the patient's urine
hypoglycaemia? 33. What should the nurse do during A 24-hour
(a) Inhibits Glycogenesis urine test is ordered for a patient?
(b) Stimulates release of insulin (a) Start the time of the test after discarding the
(c) Increases blood glucose levels first voiding
(d) Provides more storage of glucose (b) Insert a urinary retention catheter to promote
28. A nurse identifies that a patient is
the collection of urine.
experiencing a hypoglycemic reaction. Which
(c) Discard the last voiding in the 24-hour time
of the following nursing intervention should
the nurse implement to relieve the symptoms period for the test.
associated with this reaction? (d) Strain the urine following each voiding before
(a) Providing a snack of cheese and dry crackers adding the urine to the container.
(b) Administering 5% dextrose solution IV 34. Which of the following characteristic symptom
(c) Withholding a subsequent dose of insulin of the Diabetes insipidus assess by nurse?
(d) Giving fruit juice
(a) Hyperglycaemia
29. A patient with type a diabetes mellitus has a
fingers tick glucose level of 268 mg/dL at (b) Polyuria
sleeping time. A prescription for sliding scale (c) Glycosuria
regular insulin (Novolin R) exists. What should (d) Polyphagia
the nurse do? 35. Which of the following expect by the nurse
(a) Call the doctor. about urine that is collected in a patient who
(b) Give the patient a half cup of orange juice.
has diabetes insipidus?
(c) Administer the insulin as prescribed
(a) Tea-colored appears the urine
(d) Encourage the intake of fluids.
30. Which of the following insulin does the nurse (b) Light pink appears the urine
conclude has the fastest onset of action? (c) Colourless appears the urine
(a) Insulin lispro (Humalog) (d) Pale yellow appears the urine
(b) NPH insulin (Novolin N) 36. Which of the following nursing assessment is
(c) Insulin Glargine (Lantus) essential for monitoring the patient's
(d) Regular insulin (Novolin R) condition who diagnosed with diabetes
31. A patient has a glycosylated haemoglobin insipidus?
measurement of 6.3%. What should the nurse (a) Measuring intake and output
conclude about this patient when prepare a (b) Inserting a Foley catheter
(c) Analysing blood glucose levels
teaching plan based on the results of this
(d) Sending urine samples to the laboratory
laboratory test?
37. Which of the following is most important for
(a) Is experiencing a rebound hyperglycaemia obtaining accurate weight of a patient who
(b) Needs the insulin changed to a different type diagnosed as diabetic insipidus?
(c) Has followed the treatment plan as prescribed (a) Ask that slippers be removed when being
(d) Requires further education about nutritional weighed
guidelines (b) Weigh the patient at the same time each day
(c) Have the patient stand on a bedside scale.
(d) Ask about the patient's pre-disease weight
-:: 36 ::-
38. Which of the following assessment is most 44. Which of the following finding provides the
beneficial in evaluating the status of a patient best indication that the patient has
with Addison's disease? successfully avoided an adrenal crisis after
(a) Blood pressure (b) Heart sounds surgery?
(c) Breath sounds (d) Bowel sounds (a) Blood Glucose level is within normal limits.
39. Which of the following activity should include (b) Urine output is approximately 2,000 mL/day.
in the nursing care plan for the client on the (c) The patient's pedal edema has lessened.
day of surgery? (d) Vital signs are within preoperative ranges.
(a) Have the client void immediately before going 45. Which of the following nursing action is
into surgery. important when a glucose tolerance test is
(b) Report immediately any slight increase in advice by physician to determine if the patient
blood pressure or pulse. has functional hypoglycaemia?
(c) Avoid oral hygiene and rinsing with (a) Nurse collect urine specimen to the
mouthwash. laboratory.
(d) Verify that the client has not eaten for the last (b) Nurse provides large meal to the patient just
24 hours. before the test.
40. What should the nurse instruct the client to (c) Nurse provides coffee or tea in the morning
avoid adrenal crisis? before the test.
(a) Getting too little sleep (d) Nurse provides a sweetened drink to patient
(b) Stress-producing situations before the test.
(c) Consuming alcoholic beverages 46. Which of the following dietary nutrient
(d) Eating complex carbohydrates provide to the patient with functional
41. A patient with Addison's disease is admitted to hypoglycaemia?
the hospital, which of the following nursing (a) Unsaturated fats
action is most important during administers a (b) Complete proteins
glucocorticoid, intravenously? (c) Complex carbohydrates
(a) Intake and output volumes (d) Simple sugars
(b) Daily weights 47. Which of the following provides the best
(c) Glucometer measurements evidence that the Complex carbohydrates to
(d) Frequent oral hygiene control functional hypoglycaemia are
42. A client is scheduled for surgery. The patient therapeutic?
cannot sign the operative consent the nurse (a) The patient experiences fewer incidences of
should take which of the following weakness and tremors.
appropriate action in this situation? (b) The patient experiences muscle spasms and
(a) Have the hospital director sign the informed fatigue.
Consent immediately. (c) The patient experiences thirst and dry mouth.
(b) Obtain a police order for the surgery. (d) The patient experiences hunger and
(c) Send the client to surgery without the consent abdominal cramps.
Form being signed. 48. Which of the best time for a measurement of
(d) Obtain telephone consent from a family postprandial blood glucose in an undiagnosed
member, following agency policy. diabetes mellitus client?
43. Which is the following statement is correct (a) 2 hours after fasting
about the collection of urine for a 24-hour (b) 2 hours after a meal
specimen? (c) 2 hours before bedtime
(a) The patient voids directly into the specimen (d) 2 hours before breakfast
container. 49. Which of the following nursing action provides
(b) The urine is placed in a container of the best data for monitoring the client's
preservative. therapeutic response to sodium restriction?
(c) The volume of each voiding is measured and (a) Assessing skin turgor
recorded. (b) Monitoring sodium intake
(d) Each voiding is taken immediately to the (c) Measuring pedal edema
laboratory. (d) Weighing the client
-:: 37 ::-
50. What are the classic signs and symptoms of 57. Which of the following nursing action is the
diabetes mellitus? best in combining two insulin's in one syringe?
(a) Polycholia, polyemia, and polyplegia (a) The additive-free insulin is always withdrawn
(b) Constipation, weight loss, and thirst first
(c) Diarrhea, anorexia, and weight gain (b) The client instils air into both the fast acting
(d) Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia and Intermediate-acting insulin vials.
51. Why a diabetic patient cannot take insulin (c) The client rolls the vial of intermediate acting
orally? insulin to mix it with its additive.
(a) Insulin is inactivated by digestive enzymes. (d) All of the above
(b) Insulin is incompatible with many foods. 58. Which of the following laboratory test is most
(c) Insulin is irritating to the gastric mucosa important for the nurse to monitor to
(d) Insulin is absorbed too quickly in the stomach. determine how effectively the patient's
52. Which of the following respiratory pattern is diabetes is being managed?
the best description of the patient's (a) Urine specimen for 24 hour
Kussmaul's respiration? (b) Fasting blood glucose
(a) Increase rate, deep, laboured respirations (c) Complete blood count
(b) Slow inhalation and exhalation through (d) Glycosylated haemoglobin (HBA1c)
pursed lips 59. Which of the location where a diabetes client
(c) Shallow respirations, alternating with apnoea use a continuous insulin infusion pump?
(d) Shortness of breath with pauses (a) Intra muscular
53. What is the following appropriate nursing (b) Intravenous
action where a patient's blood glucose reading (c) In the subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen
is 60 mg/dL? below the belt line
(a) Administer the next scheduled dose of insulin. (d) Intra dermal
(b) Give the patient 1/4 cup of sweet fruit juice. 60. Which of the following sign is most suggestive
(c) Report the patient's symptoms to the that a patient with type B diabetes is
physician. developing hyperosmolar
(d) Perform a complete assessment. hyperglycemicnonketotic syndrome (HHNS)?
54. Which of the following nursing action is (a) The patient's serum glucose level is 650
correct for administer the insulin injection? mg/dL.
(a) Piercing the skin at a 30-degree angle (b) The patient's skin is cool and moist.
(b) Using a syringe calibrated in grams (c) The patient's urinary output is 3,000 mL/24
(c) Using a 22-gauge needle on the syringe hours.
(d) Rotating abdominal sites for each injection (d) The patient's urine contains acetone
55. Which of the following least effect of 61. Which of the following nursing action is
occurrence as a complication of diabetes important when a patient with type a diabetes
mellitus? mellitus comes to the clinic complaining of
(a) Blindness persistent bouts of nausea, vomiting, and
(b) Stroke diarrhea?
(c) Renal failure (a) Monitor blood glucose levels every 2 to 4
(d) Liver failure hours.
56. Which of the following most correct (b) Test urine daily for bile pigment.
instruction given by nurse to a client to store (c) Attempt to drink a high-calorie beverage every
an opened vial of insulin? hour.
(a) The best place to store insulin is in the (d) Eat sugar frequently.
refrigerator. 62. Which of the following nursing action is most
(b) The best place for storing insulin is in the ice appropriate when nurse assess diabetes
water. patient received two doses of insulin?
(c) The best way to store insulin is at room (a) Notifying the physician
temperature. (b) Completing an incident report
(d) The best place for storing insulin is in a warm (c) Performing frequent vital signs
location but out of sunlight. (d) Monitoring the patient's blood glucose level
-:: 38 ::-
63. Which of the following expected management 70. A patient who has diagnosed as
by nurse when a patient is brought to the Pheochromocytoma and he is scheduled for
emergency department in an unresponsive adrenalectomy. What is the priority nursing
state and a diagnosis of care include in pre-operative period?
hyperglycemichyperosmolar nonketotic (a) Assess the patient for Blood pressure
syndrome? (b) Assess the patient for Intake and output
(a) Administer NPH insulin (c) Analysis Urine for glucose
(b) Tracheostomy intubation (d) Analysis Blood urea nitrogen results
(c) Intravenous infusion of normal saline 71. Which of the following assessment would
(d) Intravenous infusion of sodium bicarbonate indicate a potential complication with
64. Which of the following expected finding to Pheochromocytoma?
confirming the diabetic ketoacidosis? (a) (a) A blood urea nitrogen level of 20 mg/dL
Increased respirations and an increase in pH (b) A urinary output of 40 mL per hour
(b) Decreased urine output (c) A coagulation time of 6 minutes
(c) Comatose state (d) A heart rate is irregular
(d) Elevated blood glucose level and low plasma 72. Which of the following nursing action is
bicarbonate level appropriate when a diabetes mellitus patient
65. Which of the following symptoms are related is confused and diaphoretic?
to ketoacidosis except? (a) Call a code blue to obtain needed assistance
(a) Fruity breath odour immediately.
(b) Shakiness (b) Obtain a capillary blood glucose level and
(c) Blurred vision perform a focused assessment.
(d) Polyuria (c) Give 15 to 30 g of a carbohydrate snack for the
66. Which of the following expected next patient to eat.
management of diabetic ketoacidosis after a (d) Calls the physician for a prescription for
continuous intravenous infusion of regular intravenous 50% dextrose.
insulin along with normal saline but the serum 73. Which of the following patient complaint
glucose level is now 230 mg/dL? would alert the nurse to the presence of a
(a) Intravenous fluids containing 5% dextrose possible hypoglycemic reaction except?
(b) NPH insulin intravenous (a) Tremors
(c) Administer 50% dextrose (b) Muscle cramps
(d) Atropine administer to patient (c) Irritability
67. What is the priority nursing diagnosis in a (d) Nervousness
patient who has hyperglycaemia?
(a) Difficulty in passing the urine ANSWER KEY
(b) Lack of bowel movement 1. [c] 2. [c] 3. [d] 4. [c] 5. [a]
(c) Deficient fluid volume 6. [c] 7. [a] 8. [d] 9. [d] 10. [c]
(d) Imbalanced nutrition, less than body 11. [b] 12. [d] 13. [a] 14. [b] 15. [b]
requirements 16. [a] 17. [d] 18. [c] 19. [a] 20.[d]
68. Which of the following symptom is most 21. [a] 22. [a] 23. [c] 24. [c] 25.[a]
indicative of diabetes insipidus except? 26. [d] 27.[c] 28.[d] 29. [c] 30. [a]
(a) Weight loss of patient 31. [c] 32. [a] 33. [a] 34. [b] 35. [c]
(b) Low specific gravity of urine 36. [a] 37. [b] 38. [a] 39. [a] 40. [b]
(c) Polydipsia 41. [c] 42. [d] 43. [b] 44. [d] 45. [d]
(d) Weight gain
46. [c] 47. [a] 48. [b] 49. [c] 50. [d]
69. What is the priority nursing action when a
51. [a] 52. [a] 53. [b] 54. [d] 55. [d]
patient admitted to the emergency
56. [c] 57. [d] 58. [d] 59. [c] 60. [a]
department with diabetic ketoacidosis in the
61. [a] 62. [a] 63. [c] 64. [d] 65. [b]
acute phase?
66. [a] 67. [c] 68. [d] 69. [d] 70. [a]
(a) Correct the acidosis.
71. [d] 72. [b] 73. [b]
(b) Administer 5% dextrose intravenously.
(c) Administer Mannitol
(d) Administer regular insulin intravenously.
-:: 39 ::-
HYPO & HYPERTHYROIDISM 8. A nurse in the post-surgical care unit is caring
for a patient who has thyroidectomy. For
1. Which of the following patient response is which patient response is most important for
associated with an underproduction of the nurse to monitor just after
thyroxine? thyroidectomy?
(a) Myxoedema (b) Acromegaly (a) Decreased blood pressure
(c) Graves’ disease (d) Cushing disease (b) Signs of restlessness
2. What is the effect of Propylthiouracil (PTU) (c) Urinary retention
which is prescribed for a patient who (d) Signs of respiratory obstruction
diagnosed with hyperthyroidism? 9. Which of the following patient response
(a) Decrease Need for thyroid iodine should the nurse assess the patient when
supplements. concerned about an accidental removal of the
(b) Decrease Production of thyroid hormones. parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy?
(c) Decrease Vascularity of the thyroid gland. (a) Myxoedema
(d) Decrease Amount of already formed thyroid (b) Tetany
hormones. (c) Hypovolemic shock
3. Which of the following responses should the (d) Adrenocortical stimulation
nurse expect as a result of decreased levels of 10. Which of the following immediately nursing
Triiodothyronine (T3) & T4 in hypothyroidism action when a patient returns from the post
patient? anaesthesia care unit following a subtotal
(a) Profuse diaphoresis thyroidectomy?
(b) Tachycardia (a) Inspect the incision.
(c) Weight gain and Cold intolerance (b) Place a tracheostomy set at the bedside.
(d) Lethargy and Irritability (c) Instruct the patient not to speak.
4. Which of the following clinical findings should (d) Place in the dorsal recumbent position
the nurse expect when assessing a patient 11. When taking the blood pressure of a client who
with hyperthyroidism except? had a thyroidectomy, the nurse identifies that
(a) Increase appetite the client is pale and has spasms of the hand.
(b) Bradycardia The nurse inform the doctor. Which of the
(c) Weight loss following should the nurse expect the
(d) Diarrhea physician to prescribe?
5. Which of the following medication does the (a) Magnesium
nurse anticipate the doctor will prescribe to (b) Calcium
decrease the size and vascularity of the (c) Bicarbonate
thyroid gland before thyroidectomy? (d) Potassium chloride
(a) Vasopressin 12. Which of the following measures should the
(b) Levothyroxine
nurse include when caring a patient who is
(c) Potassium iodide
diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and is
(d) Propylthiouracil
6. Which of the following action should the nurse experiencing exophthalmia except?
implement on an hourly basis after (a) Tape eyelids shut at night if they do not
thyroidectomy? (b) Use warm, moist compresses.
(a) Ask the patient to speak. (c) Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees.
(b) Swab the patient's throat to test the gag (d) Use tinted glasses
reflex.
13. Which of the following patient response
(c) Collect article for tracheostomy.
should the nurse observe when assessing for
(d) Instruct the patient to swallow.
7. Which of the following diet will be ordered for complications of hyperparathyroidism?
a patient with a diagnosis of Graves's disease? (a) Tetany
(a) High-calorie diet (b) Graves's disease
(b) High-roughage diet (c) Bone pain
(c) Low-sodium diet (d) Seizures
(d) Mechanical-soft diet
-:: 40 ::-
14. Which of the following clinical manifestations 20. Which of the following signs and symptoms
should the nurse assess in a patient who should the nurse assess as adverse effects
diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism except? related to thyroid replacement therapy?
(a) Muscle tremors and abdominal cramps (a) Palpitations
(b) Decrease peristalsis (b) Dyspnea
(c) Hypoactive bowel sounds (c) Hyperactivity
(d) Cardiac dysrhythmias (d) All of the above
15. Which of the following clinical findings does 21. Which of the following interventions should be
nurse expect when assessing a patient who implemented by nurse for the patient who
diagnosis of Pheochromocytoma? diagnosed with a large goitre?
(a) Diaphoresis and Hypertension (a) Observe the patient's respiratory status
(b) Palpitations (b) Elevate the head of the patient's bed
(c) Tachycardia and Headache (c) Provide a soft and high in iodized salt diet
(d) All of the above (d) All of the above
16. A 24-hour urine specimen to assess the 22. Which of the following characteristics expect
presence of vanillymandelic acid (VMA) is by nurse during a physical examination of
ordered to the confirmation of the diagnosis of Graves' disease patient?
Pheochromocytoma. Which of the following (a) Bulging eyes
information should the nurse include in the (b) Large teeth
patient teaching regarding this test except? (c) Thick lips
(a) The patient should rest and avoid physical (d) Bulbous nose
activity 23. Which of the following is important instruction
(b) Avoid coffee, chocolate, and citrus fruit for 3 given by nurse to the patient during administer
days before and during the test. potassium iodide (Lugol's solution)?
(c) Only salicylate (aspirin) chlorpromazine can be (a) Take the drug before meals.
taken for discomfort during the test. (b) Swallow the drug quickly.
(d) All urine excreted over the 24-hour period (c) Dilute the drug in fruit juice.
must be saved and refrigerated. (d) Warm the drug before taking it.
17. Which of the following diagnostic test is 24. Which of the following is correct action of
performed to diagnose the thyroid potassium iodide (Lugol's solution)?
malignancies? (a) It decreases the postoperative recovery time.
(b) It firms the gland so it is easily removed
(a) Caloric test
(c) It decreases the risk of postoperative bleeding.
(b) Rinne test
(d) It eliminates the need for hormone
(c) A radioactive iodine uptake test replacement.
(d) Urine for 24 hour. 25. Which of the following information is most
18. Which of the following sign of myxoedema is important to teach the patient before the
the nurse likely to observe except? subtotal thyroidectomy?
(a) Hoarse, raspy voice (a) Techniques for changing positions
(b) The necessity for daily dressing changes
(b) Extreme restlessness
(c) Reasons for performing leg exercises
(c) Low body temperature (d) Postoperative use of the incentive spirometer
(d) Decreased blood pressure and amenorrhea in 26. Which of the following assess by nurse during
female start the Propylthiouracil drug which
19. Which of the following drug prescribed by prescribes by physician?
health care provider in the treated of (a) Client's pregnancy status
myxoedema? (b) Clients swallowing status
(a) Levothyroxine (c) Clients bowel status
(b) Levodopa (d) None of them
(c) Lignocaine
(d) Digoxin
-:: 41 ::-
27. Which of the following position should the 34. Which of the following is the best
nurse provided to patient after the subtotal concerning by the nurse during the care of a
thyroidectomy?
patient who has hyperparathyroidism?
(a) Sims
(b) Supine (a) The risk of developing epilepsy
(c) Semi-Fowler's (b) The inability to maintain balance
(d) Recumbent (c) Fainting when changing positions
28. Which of the following encouraging activity by (d) Pathologic bone fractures
nurse where need to consult the physician
35. Which of the following medication can the
after subtotal thyroidectomy?
(a) Forced coughing nurse expect the physician prescribed to
(b) Deep breathing treat the Tetany in a patient who diagnosed
(c) Dangling legs with hypoparathyroidism?
(d) Ambulating (a) Calcium gluconate
29. Which of the following nursing intervention is
(b) Sodium bicarbonate
most appropriate to include to the patient's
care when monitoring for incisional bleeding (c) Potassium chloride
after a subtotal thyroidectomy? (d) Ferrous sulphate
(a) Remove the dressing to directly inspect the 36. Which of the following patient complaint
wound would be characteristic of primary
(b) Assess for dampness at the back of the
hyperparathyroidism except?
patient's neck.
(c) Observe for signs of hypovolemic shock. (a) Polyphagia
(d) Weigh all gauze dressings before and after (b) Polyuria
changing (c) Constipation
30. Which of the following assessment technique
(d) Weight loss
is most appropriate when assessing for
37. Which of the following condition of patient
laryngeal nerve injury in a patient who had a
thyroidectomy? what nurse should immediately notify to
(a) Looking for tracheal deviation the physician after parathyroidectomy?
(b) Observing the patient swallowing (a) Difficulty in sleeping
(c) Turning the patient's head from side to side
(b) Difficulty in voiding
(d) Asking the patient to say “Ah”
31. Which of the following signs and symptoms (c) Laryngeal stridor
related to thyroid crisis where nurse need to (d) Incisional pain on site
notify to the physician?
(a) High fever and Heart palpitations ANSWER KEY
(b) Hand spasms 1. [a] 2. [b] 3. [c] 4. [b] 5. [c]
(c) Regular noisy respirations
6. [a] 7. [a] 8. [d] 9. [b] 10. [b]
(d) Falling blood pressure
11. [b] 12. [b] 13. [c] 14. [a] 15. [d]
32. What is Chvostek's sign?
(a) Sign of hypocalcemia 16. [c] 17. [c] 18. [b] 19. [a] 20. [d]
(b) Sign of Hypercalcemia 21. [d] 22. [a] 23. [c] 24. [c] 25. [a]
(c) Sign of Hypomagnesaemia 26. [a] 27. [c] 28. [a] 29. [b] 30. [d]
(d) Sign of hypokalemia 31. [a] 32. [a] 33. [b] 34. [d] 35. [a]
33. Which of the following assessment finding is 36. [a] 37. [c]
associated with the patients who has
hyperparathyroidism?
(a) Loose bowel movements
(b) Recurrent kidney stones
(c) Nightly leg cramps
(d) Excessive energy level
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11. Which of these structure holds the small
GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
intestine in its position?
1. Which part of body is affected in typhoid? (a) Mesentery (b) Mesocolon
(a) Lungs (b) Intestines (c) Lesser omentum (d) Greater omentum
(c) Liver (d) Pancreas 12. Which one of the following organs breaks fat
2. Aspartate aminotransferase enzyme? to produce cholesterol?
(a) Plays a role in processing proteins (a) Intestine (b) Liver
(b) Plays a role in metabolism, the process that (c) Lungs (d) Kidneys
converts food into energy 13. Through which of the following organs
(c) Both A and B maximum nutritional elements in the blood
(d) None of the Above are absorbed
3. Gall bladder is located in? (a) Mouth (b) Large intestine
(a) Upper right part of abdomen (c) Small intestine (d) Abdomen
(b) On right side of liver 14. In which of the following structure the human
(c) On the left side of liver body vermiform appendix is included?
(d) Below the liver (a) Large Intestine (b) Small Intestine
4. The Widal test is positive if TO antigen titer is (c) Gall bladder (d) Stomach
more than? 15. All are cause of portal hypertension EXCEPT -
(a) 1:70 in an active infection (a) Thrombophlebitis
(b) 1:160 in an active infection (b) DVT
(c) 1: 80 in an active infection (c) Cirrhosis
(d) 1:90 in an active infection (d) Jaundice
5. Inability of the liver to metabolize and remove 16. All are seen in portal hypertension except
bilirubin from the biliary system is: (a) Ascites
(a) Haemolytic jaundice (b) Caput medusa
(b) Obstructive jaundice (c) Haemorrhoid
(c) Hereditary hyperbilirubinemia (d) Urinary bladder obstruction
(d) Hepatocellular jaundice 17. A major function of the large intestine is to?
6. Which of the following structures carries bile (a) Secrete digestive enzymes
and pancreatic juice to the duodenum? (b) Remove waste material
(a) Pancreatic duct (b) Cystic duct (c) Regulate the release of bile
(c) Hepatic duct (d) Common bile duct (d) Secrete water in order to regulate blood
7. Mechanical digestion in the stomach is volume
accomplished by which of the following 18. Iron absorption part of intestine?
structures? (a) Duodenum (b) Large Intestine
(a) Mucosa (c) Stomach (d) Colon
(b) Smooth muscle layer 19. Which arrangement of gastro intestinal layer
(c) Striated muscle layer is correct from inside out?
(d) Gastric glands (a) Serous, mucosa, submucosa and muscular
8. Heart burn refers to an uneasy burning layer
sensation in the: (b) Mucosa, submucosa, serous and muscular
(a) Jejunum (b) Duodenum layer
(c) Oesophagus (d) Stomach (c) Mucosa, submucosa, muscular and serous
9. Which of the following structure covers the (d) Muscular, serous, submucosa and mucosa
larynx during swallowing? 20. Payer's patches are found in
(a) Hydroid cartilage (b) Vocal cords (a) Esophagus (b) Duodenum
(c) Soft palate (d) Epiglottis (c) Small Intestine (d) Large Intestine
10. An example of holocrine gland is 21. Rice or bread taste sweet on prolonged
(a) A sweat gland chewing because of the breakdown of starch
(b) A salivary gland in them. The enzyme in the saliva which takes
(c) A pancreatic gland part in this reaction is:
(d) A sebaceous gland (a) Pepsin (b) Renin
(c) Amylase (d) Invertase
-:: 43 ::-
22. Chyme is called to? 35. Which of the following stage not takes place in
(a) Food in the mouth the mouth?
(b) Food in the stomach (a) Food is fashioned into a bolus
(c) Food reached in the stomach (b) Carbohydrate digestion begins
(d) Food reached in the nectum (c) Food becomes partially liquefied
23. Enzyme which helps in digestion of fat: (d) Absorption of food
(a) Amylase (b) Lipase 36. The chemical digestion begins in the stomach
(c) Enterokinase (d) Trypsin through the action of the enzyme?
24. Downward displacement of enlarged spleen is (a) Fat; lipase
prevented by (b) Fat; bile
(a) Lienorenal ligament (c) Carbohydrate; salivary amylase
(b) Phrenicocolic ligament (d) Protein; pepsin
(c) Sigmoid colon 37. General functions of the stomach include the:
(d) Upper pole of rt. Kidney (a) Metabolism of consumed foods and vitamins
25. Which of the following sphincters is under (b) Absorption of many of the digested nutrients
voluntary control (c) Mixing of the gastric contents to form chyme
(a) Pyloric (b) Cardiac (d) Secretion of alkaline enzymes
(c) Internal anal (d) External anal 38. Example of passive natural immunity is
26. The part of the digestive system where no (a) Immunity provided by maternal antibodies to
digestion takes place is foetus
(a) Mouth (b) Oesophagus (b) Immunity achieved after immunization
(c) Ileum (d) Stomach (c) Immunity achieved after any infectious
27. Topical NSAIDs for ophthalmic use is? disease
(a) Ibuprofen (b) Nepafenac (d) Immunity achieved after administration of
(c) Aspirin (d) Vancomycin readymade antibodies
28. The site of production of cholecystokinin and 39. Amino acids, monosaccharide's, glycerol and
secretin is the? fatty acids are:
(a) Stomach (b) Pancreas (a) Transported in the lymph to all the lymph
(c) Small intestine (d) Large intestine nodes in the body
29. Dysphasia is a defect that causes difficulty in (b) All hormones
(a) Walk (b) Speech (c) Products of carbohydrate metabolism
(c) Swallowing (d) Vision (d) End products of digestion
30. Black Tarry stool is evidence of 40. What is normal Length of large intestine?
(a) Gastric hemorrhage (a) 1 meter. (b) 2.0 meter
(b) Haemorrhoids (c) 2.5 meter (d) 1.5 meter
(c) Anal fissure 41. Amount of bile secreted daily is:
(d) Intestinal obstruction (a) 300-500 ml (b) 1800-2000 ml
31. Which organ does Jaundice affect (c) 1200-1500 ml (d) 500-1000 ml
(a) Lungs (b) Heart 42. What is normal Length of duodenum?
(c) Liver (d) Stomach (a) 25 cm (b) 10 cm
32. Which body part separates abdominal and (c) 30 cm (d) 15 cm
thoracic cavity 43. Which of the following organ absorbed
(a) Liver (b) Diaphragm maximum part of food?
(c) Spleen (d) Ribs (a) Small intestine
33. Lower part of pharynx is attached to? (b) Intrinsic factor
(a) Stomach (b) Larynx (c) Large intestine
(c) Trachea (d) None of Above (d) Abdomen
34. Cholelithiasis is? 44. What is the main Function of intrinsic factor?
(a) Inflammation of gall bladder (a) Digestion of food
(b) Stone in Kidney (b) Digestion of food
(c) Stone in gall bladder (c) Absorption of glucose and amino acid
(d) Infection in Kidney (d) Absorption of Vitamin B12
-:: 44 ::-
45. Which of the following artery supply Blood to 57. Within the stomach lining, cells secrete
intestine? hydrochloric acid
(a) Coeliac artery (a) Parietal (b) Goblet
(b) Superior mesenteric artery (c) Principal (d) Argentaffin
(c) Inferior mesenteric artery 58. During which phase of gastric secretion is
(d) All of the Above. gastric juice released?
46. What are the Functions of tongue? (a) Cephalic phase (b) Gastric phase
(a) Speech (b) Deglutition (c) Intestinal phase (d) All of the Above
(c) Mastication (d) All of the Above. 59. Which of these is a structural modification
47. Largest taste buds is called: unique to the small intestine?
(a) Celiac (b) Vallate (a) Plicae circularis
(c) Filliform (d) Fungi form (b) Villi
48. Bile is stored in? (c) Microvilli
(a) Gallbladder (b) Lungs (d) All of these are unique to the small intestine.
(c) Pancreas (d) Liver 60. The longitudinal muscle layer of the large
49. In Osler-Weber-Rendu, you'll first notice the intestine forms three distinct muscle bands
little vascular malformations on the called
(a) Conjunctiva (b) Digits (a) Sigmoid colon (b) Taeniae coli
(c) Lips (d) Retina (c) Haustra (d) Epiploic appendages
50. A folic-acid deficient diet probably places a 61. Within the liver, bile is produced by and
person at risk for coronary disease by raising secreted into bile Canaliculi
plasma (a) Kupffer cells (b) Liver lobules
(a) Homocysteine (b) Homogentisic acid (c) Hepatocytes (d) Acinar cells
(c) Oxidized LDL (d) Lipoprotein A 62. A long tube that carries food from the mouth
51. Which of the following artery supplies the to the stomach.
pancreas? (a) Trachea (b) Esophagus
(a) Coronary (b) Abdominal (c) Urethra (d) All of the Above
(c) Hepatic (d) Splenic artery 63. This part of the digestive system removes solid
52. Another term for the swallowing of food is wastes such as feces from the body.
(a) Digestion (b) Ingestion (a) Large intestine (b) Small intestine
(c) Deglutition (d) Peristalsis (c) Esophagus (d) All of the Above
53. The serous membrane that passes from the 64. Tiny finger like projections in the small
lesser curvature of the stomach and the upper intestine.
duodenum to the inferior surface of the liver is (a) Villi (b) Anus
the (c) Rectum (d) All of the Above
(a) Visceral peritoneum 65. The opening at the end of the digestive tract in
(b) Mesentery which solid wastes are eliminated?
(c) Greater omentum (a) Anus (b) Mucosa
(d) Lesser omentum (c) Liver (d) All of the Above
54. Which of these is not a feature of the mucosa 66. An instrument used to examine the lower
of the gastrointestinal tract? portion of the colon is called:
(a) Lamina propria (b) Goblet cells (a) Sigmoidoscope (b) Bronchoscope
(c) Myenteric plexus (d) Plicae circularis (c) Catheter (d) EKG
55. Adults have true molars teeth. 67. In an adult, fats are digested in the:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (a) Mouth (b) Stomach
(c) 12 (d) 16 (c) Small intestine (d) All of the Above
56. Which of these is not one of the three pairs of 68. Where does food pass through between the
extrinsic salivary glands? mouth and the stomach?
(a) Parotid (a) The gullet
(b) Palatine (b) The rectum
(c) Submandibular (c) The small intestine
(d) Sublingual (d) The large intestine
-:: 45 ::-
69. All of the following are organs of the digestive 76. Which sequence lists the regions of the large
system except the intestine in order, from the end of the ileum to
(a) Spleen the anus?
(b) Liver (a) Cecum, rectum, anal canal, colon
(c) Tongue (b) Colon, rectum, anal canal, cecum
(d) Esophagus (c) Cecum, colon, rectum, anal canal
70. Which selection includes only accessory (d) Colon, cecum, rectum, anal canal
digestive organs? 77. Arrange the segments of the colon in the
(a) Salivary glands, thyroid gland, pancreas, liver sequence through which digested material
(b) Stomach, duodenum, pancreas, gall bladder passes prior to defecation:
(c) Gall bladder, liver, pancreas, salivary glands (1) Sigmoid
(d) Liver, thyroid gland, gall bladder, spleen (2) Transverse
71. Which mesentery covers most of the (3) Descending
abdominal organs, extending inferiorly like an (4) Ascending
apron from the greater curvature of the (a) 4,2,3,1 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
stomach? (c) 1, 3, 4, 2 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4
(a) Mesentery proper 78. Age-related changes in the digestive system
(b) Lesser omentum include which of the following?
(c) Greater omentum (a) Reduced secretion of mucin, enzymes, and
(d) Mesocolon acid
72. From deep to superficial, what are the tunics (b) Decreased replacement of epithelial cells
of the intraperitoneal portions of the GI tract? (c) Diminished muscular tone and GI tract motility
(a) Serosa, Muscularis, submucosa, and mucosa (d) All of the Above
(b) Mucosa, submucosa, Muscularis, and serosa 79. Outer layer of alimentary tract is called as
(c) Adventitia, Muscularis, submucosa, and (a) Adventitia (b) Submucosa
mucosa (c) Muscle (d) Mucosa
(d) Mucosa, submucosa, Muscularis, and 80. Bile is stored in which organ
adventitia (a) Liver (b) Gall bladder
73. In which of the following selections are the GI (c) Intestine (d) Pancreas
tract organs or regions correctly matched with 81. Tongue is attached by:
the type of epithelium that lines them? (a) Hyoid bone (b) Palatine bones
(a) Oral cavity and esophagus; stratified cuboidal (c) Maxilla (d) Mandible
(b) Stomach and small intestine; stratified 82. What is the largest taste buds?
squamous (a) Filliform (b) Fungiform
(c) Cecum, colon, and rectum; simple columnar (c) Vallate (d) None
(d) All of the Above 83. What is the Number of temporary teeth are
74. What are the three phases of the swallowing (a) 10 (b) 24
process? (c) 32 (d) 20
(a) Mastication, eruption, and dentition 84. Which of the following are cutting teeth?
(b) Oral, cranial, and pharyngeal (a) Incisor (b) Canine
(c) Voluntary, pharyngeal, and esophageal (c) Both a and b (d) Premolar
(d) Cardiac, gastric, and pyloric 85. What is the function of pre molar and molar
75. What is the function of the villi in the small teeth?
intestine? (a) Cutting the food (b) To secrete saliva
(a) To decrease the amount of exposed surface (c) Chewing the food (d) All
86. What is the part of teeth protruding from the
(b) To facilitate enzyme retention and dispersal
gum is known as
(c) To increase the surface area for absorption
(a) Pulp (b) Root
and secretion (c) Crown (d) Enamel
(d) To sweep particles across the surface with 87. Pulp cavity is surrounded by
wavelike actions (a) Crown (b) Cement
(c) Dentine (d) Root
-:: 46 ::-
88. What is the largest salivary gland? 101. What is the Length of duodenum is about
(a) Lingual (b) Submandibular (a) 3 meter (b) 1 meter
(c) Parotid (d) Pancreas (c) 25 cm (d) 10 cm
89. What is the enzyme present in saliva is 102. Bile and pancreatic juice are secreted in
(a) Ptyalin (b) Trypsin (a) Ileum (b) Jejunum
(c) Gastrin (d) Pepsin (c) Duodenum (d) Stomach
90. What is the Length of oesophagus in adult? 103. Pepsin is responsible for the digestion of
(a) 50 cm (b) 15 cm (a) Carbohydrate (b) Fat
(c) 25 cm (d) 40 cm (c) Protein (d) Minerals
91. Oesophagus lies… 104. What are the parts of small intestine are,
(a) Below the stomach except
(b) In front of trachea and heart (a) Colon (b) Jejunum
(c) Below the trachea (c) Duodenum (d) Ileum
(d) Behind the trachea and heart 105. Bile and pancreatic juice are secreted into
92. What is the shape of stomach? duodenum by
(a) J (b) I (a) Hepatopancreatic duct
(c) L (d) U (b) Pancreatic-duct
93. Gastric juice is secreted in (c) Cystic duct
(a) Oesophagus (b) Intestine (d) Bile duct
(c) Stomach (d) Duodenum 106. Villi are responsible for
94. Gastric juice consists of except (a) Forward movement of food
(a) Pepsin (b) Trypsin (b) Digestion of food
(c) HCl (d) Intrinsic factor (c) Metabolism of food
95. Intrinsic factor present in gastric juice is (d) Increasing surface area of small intestine
secreted by 107. The largest part of small intestine is
(a) Parietal cells (b) Salivary glands (a) Ileum (b) Duodenum
(c) Gastric cells (d) Goblet cells (c) Jejunum (d) Submucosa
96. Enzyme present in gastric juice, is 108. What is the enzyme present in intestinal juice?
(a) Pepsin (b) Ptyalin (a) Trypsin (b) Chymotrypsin
(c) Trypsin (d) Gastrin (c) Enterokinase (d) Jejunum
97. What is the Function of HCl acid present in 109. The pH of intestinal juice is
gastric juice? (a) Acidic (b) Zero
(a) It acidifies the food (c) Neutral (d) Basic
(b) It converts pepsinogen into pepsin 110. What is the Enzyme present in pancreatic juice
(c) It kills microbes is
(d) All of the above (a) Pepsin (b) Enterokinase
98. The hormone gastrin is secreted by (c) Trypsin (d) Ptyalin
(a) Enteroendocrine cell in the pyloric antrum and 111. Pancreatic juice consists of enzymes except
duodenum (a) Pepsin (b) Lipase
(b) Pharynx (c) Amylase (d) Trypsin
(c) Ileum 112. Enzyme lipase is responsible for the digestion
(d) Jejunum of
99. What is the function of Enterogastrone? (a) Protein (b) Carbohydrate
(a) It increases secretion of gastric juice (c) Fat (d) Vitamin
(b) Propulsion of food 113. The end product of digestion of protein is
(c) It promotes more secretion of gastric juice in (a) Amino acid (b) Fatty acid
intestine (c) Minerals (d) Glucose
(d) It slows down the secretion of gastric juice 114. What is the end product of fat digestion is
100. What is the Functions of stomach are except (a) Amino acid
(a) Absorption of food (b) Fatty acid
(b) Digestion of food (c) Glycerol
(c) Temporary storage of food (d) Both b and c
(d) Production of intrinsic factor
-:: 47 ::-
115. Enzyme Secretin and Cholecystokinin are 129. The diameter of RBC is about
secreted in (a) 5 u (b) 12 u
(a) Colon (b) Stomach (c) 7.2 u (d) 17 u
(c) Large intestine (d) Small intestine 130. RBCs are produced in:
116. Bile is helpful in which of the following? (a) Red bone marrow
(a) Emulsification of glucose (b) Blood
(b) Emulsification of fat (c) Liver
(c) Digestion of protein (d) Testes
(d) Digestion of fat 131. Life span of RBC is?
117. What is the Bilirubin? (a) 120 days (b) 80 days
(a) Waste product of the breakdown of (c) 10 days (d) 12 hours
erythrocytes 132. Haemoglobin contains
(b) Digestive enzyme (a) Only protein
(c) End product of protein after digestion (b) Both protein and iron
(d) End product of the breakdown of platelets (c) Protein and Ca
118. The form of bilirubin secreted in urine is (d) Only iron
(a) Sodium glycolate (b) Bile 133. Number of 02 molecules carried up by one
(c) Stercobilin (d) Urobilinogen molecule of Hb is?
119. The form of bilirubin secreted in faeces is (a) 2 (b) 8
(a) Urobilinogen (b) Bile (c) 6 (d) 4
(c) Stercobilin (d) None 134. Colour of blood is bright red due to presence of
120. Maximum absorption takes place in (a) Hb
(a) Colon (b) Large intestine (b) RBC
(c) Small intestine (d) Stomach (c) Carboxyhemoglobin
121. Length of large intestine is about (d) Oxyhemoglobin
(a) 1.0 meter (b) 2.5 meter 135. The blood group which is known as universal
(c) 1.5 meter (d) 3.0 meter recipient, is
122. Dark Brown colour of faeces is due to presence (a) AB+ (b) B+
of (c) A+ (d) O+
(a) Urobilinogen (b) Stercobilin 136. The blood group which is known as universal
(c) Epithelial cells (d) Water donor, is
123. What is the largest gland of the body? (a) O-ve (b) A+ve
(a) Liver (b) Thyroid (c) AB-ve (d) B-ve
(c) Pituitary (d) Pancreas 137. In which blood group no antigen is found
124. Kupffer cells are found in (a) 0- (b) A+
(a) Lungs (b) Liver (c) AB+ (d) B+
(c) Pancreas (d) Intestine 138. In which blood group maximum numbers of
125. What is the Function of Kupffer cells? antigens are found?
(a) Digestion of fat (a) АВ (b) В
(b) Destruction of fatty acids (c) A (d) O
(c) Metabolism of fat 139. Which blood group is more common?
(d) Destruction of foreign particles (a) O+ (b) AB-
126. Vitamins are stored in (c) AB+ (d) O-
(a) Liver (b) Gall bladder 140. Which of the following dye is used for staining
(c) Stomach (d) Pancreas eosinophils?
127. What is the most abundant plasma proteins is (a) Neither acidic nor basic
(a) Fibrinogen (b) Globulin (b) Alkaline
(c) Albumin (d) Pepsin (c) Both
128. The osmotic pressure of plasma is maintained (d) Acidic dye
by 141. Which is the dye used for staining basophils?
(a) Sugar (b) Urea (a) Eosin (b) Iodine
(c) Methylene blue (d) Purple dye
(c) Lipids (d) Proteins
-:: 48 ::-
142. If a person's blood group is AB. Then he can donate 157. Cell mediated immunity is provided by
his blood to the person having blood group (a) RBCs
(a) A (b) B (b) B-lymphocytes
(c) АВ (d) All (c) Both T & B lymphocytes
143. If a patient's blood group is B. Then he can receive (d) T-lymphocytes
blood from the person having blood group 158. Immunity provided by vaccination is
(a) A and B (b) A and O (a) Natural active
(c) A, B, AB and 0 (d) B and 0 (b) Natural passive
144. The blood cells which play an important role in (c) Passive artificial
phagocytosis, (d) Active artificial
(a) RBCs (b) Platelets 159. Immunity provided by maternal antibody is the
(c) WBCs (d) All example of
145. What is the Total number of WBC in a healthy adult? (a) Natural active
(a) 4.5 - 6.5 million/mm3 blood (b) Passive artificial
(b) 4000 - 11000/mm3 blood (c) Active artificial
(c) 2 - 4 million/mm3 blood (d) Natural passive
(d) 40000 - 60000/mm3 blood
146. WBC which found in most number is, ANSWER KEY
(a) Eosinophils (b) Neutrophils 1. [b] 2. [c] 3. [d] 4. [b] 5. [b]
(c) Lymphocytes (d) Monocytes
6. [d] 7. [b] 8. [d] 9. [d] 10. [d]
147. Which factor is known as Antihemophilic factor-B?
(a) Christmas factor 11. [a] 12. [b] 13. [c] 14. [a] 15. [a]
(b) Hageman factor 16. [d] 17. [b] 18. [a] 19. [c] 20. [c]
(c) Stuart prower factor 21. [c] 22. [b] 23. [b] 24. [b] 25. [d]
(d) Thromboplastin 26. [b] 27. [b] 28. [c] 29. [c] 30. [a]
148. Which of the following vitamin is helpful in blood
31. [c] 32. [b] 33. [b] 34. [c] 35. [d]
clotting
36. [d] 37. [c] 38. [a] 39 [c] 40. [d]
(a) Vitamin- K (b) Vitamin-C
(c) Vitamin- D (d) Vitamin A 41. [d] 42. [a] 43. [a] 44. [d] 45. [d]
149. Which electrolyte is helpful in blood clotting? 46. [d] 47. [b] 48. [a] 49. [c] 50. [a]
(a) Ca (b) K 51. [d] 52. [c] 53. [d] 54. [c] 55. [c]
(c) P (d) Na 56. [b] 57. [a] 58. [d] 59. [d] 60. [b]
150. Which is the final product of blood clotting process
61. [b] 62. [b] 63. [a] 64. [a] 65. [a]
(a) Fibrin (b) Thrombin
(c) Fibrinogen (d) Prothrombin 66. [a] 67. [c] 68. [a] 69. [a] 70. [c]
151. What is the largest lymph organ? 71. [c] 72. [b] 73. [d] 74. [c] 75. [c]
(a) Kidney (b) Thymus 76. [c] 77. [a] 78. [d] 79. [a] 80. [b]
(c) Spleen (d) Liver 81. [a] 82. [c] 83. [d] 84. [c] 85. [c]
152. Abnormal erythrocytes are mainly destroyed in
86. [c] 87. [c] 88. [c] 89. [a] 90. [c]
(a) Kidney (b) Liver
(c) Spleen (d) Lung 91. [d] 92. [a] 93. [c] 94. [b] 95. [a]
153. What is the important site for fetal blood cell 96. [a] 97. [d] 98. [a] 99. [d] 100. [a]
production? 101. [c] 102. [c] 103. [c] 104. [a] 105. [a]
(a) Spleen (b) Liver 106. [d] 107. [a] 108. [c] 109. [d] 110. [c]
(c) Both a and b (d) Brain
111. [a] 112. [c] 113. [a] 114. [d] 115. [d]
154. Payer's patches are found in
116. [d] 117. [a] 118. [d] 119. [c] 120. [c]
(a) Small intestine (b) Kidney
(c) Liver (d) Stomach 121. [c] 122. [b] 123. [a] 124. [b] 125. [d]
155. Cardinal signs of inflammation are except 126. [a] 127. [c] 128. [d] 129. [c] 130. [a]
(a) Pain (b) Hypothermia 131. [a] 132. [b] 133. [d] 134. [a] 135. [a]
(c) Swelling (d) Redness 136. [a] 137. [a] 138. [a] 139. [a] 140. [d]
156. Which of the following substance is released during 141. [c] 142. [c] 143. [d] 144. [c] 145. [b]
inflammation 146. [b] 147. [a] 148. [a] 149. [a] 150. [a]
(a) Pepsin 151. [c] 152. [c] 153. [c] 154. [a] 155. [b]
(b) HCl 156. [c] 157. [d] 158. [d] 159. [d]
(c) Histamine
(d) Thyroxine
-:: 49 ::-
PANCREASC LIVER
CCC
1. "What is the meaning of pseudo cyst of the 1. A client with hepatitis B develops liver failure
pancreas? and GI Bleeding. The blood products that
(a) Collection of undigested food particles would most likely bring about haemostasis in
(b) Malignancy the client are:
(c) Dilated space of necrotic tissue and blood (a) Whole blood and albumin.
(d) Sac filled with fluid (b) Platelets and packed red blood cells.
2. What is the priority nursing care when a patient (c) Fresh frozen plasma and whole blood
is diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas and is
(d) Cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen plasma
apprehensive and restless?
2. Which of the following symptom is related to
(a) Encouraging expression of concerns
side effect of Carbamazepine?
(b) Teaching the importance of getting rest
(a) Fainting (b) Black stools
(c) Administering steroid as prescribed
(d) Explaining that you will be all right (c) Cloudy urine (d) Abnormal bleeding
3. Which of the following type of pain is consistent 3. Which of the following clinical indicator should
with acute pancreatitis? be monitored by nurse before scheduling a
(a) Burning and aching, located in the epigastric patient for an endoscopic retrograde
area and radiating to the umbilicus cholangiopancreatography?
(b) Severe and unrelenting, located in the epigastric (a) Blood pressure
area and radiating to the back (b) Bilirubin level
(c) Burning and aching, located in the left lower (c) Urine output
quadrant and radiating to the hip (d) Serum glucose
(d) Severe and unrelenting, located in the left lower 4. Which of the following are Clinical
quadrant and radiating to the groin manifestation of Cholelithiasis and
4. Which of the following interventions to be obstructive jaundice except?
prescribed for the patient with acute (a) Dark urine and Clay-colored stool
pancreatitis except? (b) Yellow skin
(a) Administer antacids as prescribed and Give
(c) Coffee-ground vomitus
small, frequent high-calorie feedings.
(d) Pain in the right upper quadrant
(b) Encourage coughing and deep breathing.
5. What are the components of a therapeutic diet
(c) Administer Anticholinergics as prescribed
that are most appropriate for a patient who is
(d) Maintain the patient in a supine and flat position
recovering from esophageal varices except?
5. Which of the following laboratory test elevation
(a) Soft diet (b) High-protein diet
indicates pancreatitis? (c) Regular diet (d) High-carbohydrate diet
(a) Lactose tolerance (b) Serum amylase 6. Which of the body function maintained by
(c) Serum bilirubin (d) Glucose tolerance Thiamine (vitamin B1) and niacin (vitamin B3)
6. Which of the following instruction and education vitamins that are prescribed for a patient with
is provided by nurse during discharged a patient alcoholism??
with acute pancreatitis? (a) Neuronal activity
(a) The patient must avoid lifting heavy objects. (b) Prothrombin development
(b) The patient must never donate blood (c) Efficient circulation
(c) The patient must not drink alcohol in any form. (d) Bowel elimination
(d) The patient must forego taking strong laxatives. 7. What should the nurse do when caring for a
7. Which of the following is an early manifestation patient who is positive for hepatitis A?
of cancer of the pancreas? (a) Wear a gown when entering the patient's
(a) Bleeding (b) Weight loss room.
(c) Sharp pain (d) Fainting (b) Wear a protective mask when entering the
patient’s room.
ANSWER KEY
(c) Use gloves when removing the patient's
1. [c] 2. [a] 3. [b] 4. [d] 5. [b]
bedpan.
6. [c] 7. [b]
(d) Use caution when bringing in the patients
food.
-:: 50 ::-
8. Which of the following type of hepatitis 16. A patient with cirrhosis has ammonia level is
associated with tattoos? elevated. Which diet to be prescribed for this
(a) D (b) C patient?
(c) А (d) E (a) Low-protein diet
9. A patient is admitted for palliative treatment (b) High-carbohydrate diet
of cancer of the liver. In following which (c) Moderate-fat diet
objective information is most helpful for (d) High-protein diet
monitoring of the patient’s present condition? 17. Which of the following elevated level would
(a) Bowel sounds (b) Diet history suggest a possible liver disorder?
(c) Present weight (d) Pain description (a) Serum potassium
10. Which of the following clinical condition is (b) Serum Creatinine
associated with a complication of portal (c) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
hypertension? (d) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
(a) Perforation of the duodenum 18. Which of the following medication can be used
(b) Intestinal obstruction as post exposure of hepatitis A?
(c) Liver abscess (a) Hepatitis vaccine
(d) Hemorrhage from esophageal varices (b) Serum immunoglobulin
11. Which of the following classic signs of hepatic (c) An antibiotic
coma should the nurse assess in a patient with (d) An anti-inflammatory drug
cirrhosis of liver except? 19. Which of the following intervention is most
(a) Mental confusion appropriate if a nurse who has not received a
(b) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes vaccination for hepatitis B and get a needle
(c) Generalized twitching stick injury while caring for hepatitis B positive
(d) Flapping hand tremors patient?
12. Which of the following clinical indicator should (a) Take penicillin for a minimum of 10 days.
the nurse assess in patient with cirrhosis of (b) Receive hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 1
the liver? week.
(a) Icterus (c) Obtain immediate immunization with hepatitis
(b) Uremic frost B vaccine.
(c) Urticaria (d) Scrub the puncture site with diluted
(d) Haemangioma household bleach.
13. A patient with carcinoma of the liver has a 20. Which of the following activity avoided by the
prolonged Prothrombin time and a low patient for life who diagnosis as hepatitis -B?
platelet count. What should the nurse instruct (a) Drinking alcohol (b) Donating blood
the patient to do? (c) Sexual activity (d) Travelling
(a) Drink a glass of milk when taking aspirin. 21. What is Color of stool observe by nurse if
(b) Check the pulse several times a day. gallstones obstruct the flow of bile?
(c) Avoid foods high in Vitamin K. (a) Black and tarry
(d) Report signs of bleeding. (b) Light clay-colored
14. A patient is diagnosed with celiac disease. (c) Greenish yellow
Which of the following is including in diet of (d) Brown with bloody mucus
this patient? 22. Which of the following laboratory value is
(a) Corticosteroids most indicates that the patient may develop
(b) Vitamin B12 hepatic encephalopathy?
(c) Folic acid (a) Serum bilirubin (b) Serum Creatinine
(d) Gluten-free diet (c) Blood ammonia (d) Blood urea nitrogen
15. Which of the following early indicator of 23. Which of the followings assessment indicates
hepatitis A? that the cirrhosis of liver is worsening?
(a) Anorexia, nausea, Malaise (a) The patient is difficult to arouse.
(b) Weight gain (b) The patient's urine output is 100 ml/hr.
(c) Dark stools (c) The patient's breath smells fruity.
(d) Left upper quadrant discomfort (d) The patient develops pancreatitis.
-:: 51 ::-
24. What is the purpose of administering vitamin 32. The nurse is assessing a patient following a
K Before a cholecystectomy? cholecystectomy. The nurse notes that the
(a) Thromboplastin (b) Prothrombin tube has drained 700 mL of green-brown
(c) Bilirubin (d) Cholecystokinin drainage since the surgery. Which of the
25. What is the reason nurse should assess for following nursing intervention is appropriate?
clinical manifestation of respiratory (a) Irrigate the T-tube.
complications after an abdominal (b) Clamp the T-tube.
cholecystectomy? (c) Notify the physician.
(a) Surgery takes long time (d) Document the normal findings.
(b) Incision in close proximity to the patient's 33. Which of the following nursing action is most
diaphragm. appropriate while inserting a rectal
(c) Bloodstream is invaded by microorganisms suppository to relieve constipation?
from the biliary tract. (a) The nurse positions the patient on the right
(d) Patient's resistance is lowered because of bile side.
in the blood. (b) The nurse wears a sterile glove on the
26. A patient is scheduled for ligation of dominant hand
haemorrhoids. Which diet to be ordered prior (c) The nurse inserts the suppository
to surgery? approximately 5 to 10 cm.
(a) Bland (b) High-protein (d) The nurse instructs the patient to retain the
(c) Clear liquid (d) Low-residue suppository for 10 minutes.
27. Which factors probably related to the 34. Which of the following factor mostly
development of the haemorrhoids except? associated with the development of the
(a) Constipation haemorrhoids?
(b) Eating spicy foods (a) History of ulcerative colitis
(c) Long time sitting (b) Taking a daily stool softener
(d) Numerous pregnancies (c) Frequent constipation
28. What are the Sign and symptoms of (d) Sitting Occupation
haemorrhoids except? 35. What is the best way to evaluate the
(a) Flatulence effectiveness of the sitz bath after
(b) Rectal pressure haemorrhoidectomy of a patient?
(c) Blood in stool (a) The patient's rectum is less painful.
(d) Anal itching and Pain when defecating (b) The patient's incision is clean and well
29. Which of the following interventions should be approximated
given initially for a patient who had a (c) The patient has no evidence of a hematoma
Hemorrhoidectomy? (d) The patient feels refreshed
(a) Giving an enema 36. A patient is suspected for Cholecystitis. The
(b) Applying moist heat pain of this disease worsens at which time?
(c) Administering stool softeners (a) Shortly after eating
(d) Providing comfort (b) After periods of activity
30. Which most frequently Antidiarrheal drug for (c) When the stomach is empty
a patient with severe diarrhea? (d) Before rising in the morning
(a) Anti carminative (b) Bisacodyl
(c) Loperamide (d) Docusate sodium ANSWER KEY
31. Where should the nurse anticipate the 1. [d] 2. [d] 3. [b] 4. [c] 5. [c]
location of the pain in Cholecystitis? 6. [a] 7. [c] 8. [b] 9. [c] 10. [d]
(a) Right lower quadrant, radiating to the 11. [b] 12. [a] 13. [d] 14. [d] 15. [a]
umbilicus 16. [a] 17. [d] 18. [b] 19. [b] 20. [b]
(b) Right lower quadrant, radiating to the back
21. [b] 22. [c] 23. [a] 24. [b] 25. [b]
(c) Right upper quadrant, radiating to the left
26. [d] 27. [b] 28. [a] 29. [c] 30. [c]
scapula and shoulder
31. [d] 32. [d] 33. [c] 34. [c] 35. [b]
(d) Right upper quadrant, radiating to the right
scapula and shoulder 36. [a]
-:: 52 ::-
8. Which of the following last therapeutic
COLOSTOMY & RECTAL TUBE
management should be done for ulcerative
1. Which of the following important instruction colitis patient?
given by nurse to the patient before a (a) Intensive psychotherapy
gastrointestinal endoscopy? (b) low-residue, high-protein diet
(a) Avoid eating food and fluid during the test. (c) Surgical therapy
(b) Check the recorder every hour. (d) Continued medical therapy
(c) Avoid stooping and bending during the test. 9. A nurse is teaching a patient with a permanent
(d) Swallow the capsule as soon as it is placed in colostomy about self-care, which of the
the mouth following intervention should the nurse
2. What is the expected by nurse about Stool discuss with the patient?
specimens for a patient with chronic bowel (a) Wearing abdominal support
inflammation? (b) Limiting activity
(a) Ova and parasites (b) Occult blood (c) Dilating the stoma periodical
(c) Fat content (d) Dark brown colour stool (d) Maintaining a low-residue diet
3. How many inches should the nurse insert the 10. A patient has a transverse colostomy. What
rectal catheter? should the nurse do when inserting a catheter
(a) 2 (b) 4 for the colostomy irrigation?
(c) 8 (d) 6 (a) Instruct the patient to bear down.
4. Which of the following common clinical (b) Use an oil-based lubricant.
manifestation of colitis? (c) Apply gentle but continuous pressure.
(a) Weight loss (d) Direct it toward the patient's right side.
(b) Hemoptysis 11. Which of the following is the most frequent
(c) Decreased white blood cells complication of ileostomy?
(d) Increased red blood cells (a) Folate deficiency
5. What are the Intussusceptions of the bowel? (b) Intestinal obstruction
(a) Ribbon like stool (c) Malabsorption of fat
(b) Kinking of the bowel onto itself (d) Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
(c) Telescoping of a proximal loop of bowel into a 12. Which intervention is most appropriate when
distal loop managing a patient with Bowel incontinence?
(d) A protrusion of an organ or part of an organ (a) Keeping the bedside commode nearby
through the wall that contains it (b) Assisting the patient to the bathroom
6. A patient had removed part of the ileum frequently
surgically, now patient has anemia because? (c) Putting a disposable brief on the patient
(a) Folic acid is absorbed in the ileum. (d) Answering the patient's signal for help
(b) The Hemopoietic factor is absorbed in the promptly
ileum. 13. Which of the following nursing interventions
(c) The trace elements copper, cobalt, and nickel, are appropriate for managing the care of a
required for haemoglobin synthesis, are patient with a colostomy?
absorbed in the ileum. (a) Change the faceplate of the appliance and
(d) Iron absorption is dependent on simultaneous pouch daily.
(b) Inspect the size, color, and condition of the
bile salt absorption in the ileum.
stoma and apply a skin barrier substance to
7. What is indictor of Ulcerative colitis?
excoriated skin.
(a) Correlation with increased malignancy
(c) Clean the peristomal area with alcohol or
because of mal-absorption syndrome
acetone.
(b) Inclusion of Transmural involvement of the
(d) Empty the pouch of the appliance as soon as
small bowel wall
stool is expelled
(c) Pathology beginning proximally with
14. What is the normal color of colostomy stoma?
intermittent plaques found along the colon
(a) Dark tan
(d) Involvement starting distally with rectal
(b) Bright red and moist
bleeding that spreads continuously up in colon
(c) Pale pink
(d) Dusky blue or purple black
-:: 53 ::-
15. Which of the following technique is most 24. Which of the following technique is best for
appropriate, when the nurse cleans the skin around confirming that a patient has a fecal impaction?
the patient's stoma of the colostomy? (a) Administering an oil-retention enema
(a) Swabbing the skin with 70% alcohol (b) Inserting a gloved finger into the rectum
(b) Cleaning the area with Povidone-iodine (c) Listening to the patient's bowel sounds every 2
(c) Using water and mild soap hours
(d) Scrubbing the skin with peroxide (d) Reviewing the lower GI X-ray
16. Which of the following laboratory test to be done 25. How eliminates a patient's intestinal gas before
for a patient who has susceptive appendicitis? inserting a rectal tube?
(a) Prothrombin time (a) Ambulating the patient
(b) Serum potassium level (b) Restricting the intake of solid food
(c) Bilirubin level (c) Providing a carbonated beverage
(d) Leukocyte count (d) Administering an carminative drug
17. Which of the following food would be 26. What is the maximum length of time the rectal tube
contraindicated for the patient before colon can be left in rectum?
resection? (a) 45 minutes (b) 20 minutes
(a) Orange juice (b) Bran cereal (c) 15 minutes (d) 60 minutes
(c) Ground meat (d) Fish
18. What is the Effect of neomycin sulphate after bowel ANSWER KEY
resection? 1. [c] 2. [b] 3. [b] 4. [a] 5. [c]
(a) To reduce the number of bacteria near the incision 6. [b] 7. [d] 8. [c] 9. [d] 10. [d]
(b) To suppress the growth of intestinal bacteria 11. [d] 12. [a] 13. [b] 14. [b] 15. [c]
(c) To prevent the onset of postoperative diarrhea 16. [d] 17. [b] 18. [b] 19. [c] 20. [b]
(d) To treat any current infection the patient may have 21. [d] 22. [a] 23. [d] 24. [b] 25. [a]
26.[b]
19. A patient's bowel protrudes through the opening of
colostomy. What is the first action that the nurse
should take at this time?
(a) Call the patient's physician. PEPTIC ULCER, GERD
(b) Check the patient's vital signs.
(c) Cover the bowel with moist saline gauze. 1. The patient has difficulty swallowing food.
(d) Push the bowel back through the opening. Which method is most appropriate to provide
20. Which position is best for the patient when adequate nutrition for the patient at this
irrigating the colostomy? time?
(a) Lying on the left side
(a) Gastrostomy tube feedings
(b) Sitting on the toilet
(b) Nasogastric tube feedings
(c) Kneeling in the bathtub
(d) Standing at the sink (c) Total parenteral nutrition
21. Which of the following medications are known to (d) Crystalloid I.V. fluid
cause constipation? 2. Ulcerative colitis is characterized by except?
(a) Iron preparations (a) Mucus and blood in the stool
(b) Opiates (b) Left lower abdominal pain
(c) Antacids containing calcium (c) Incontinence
(d) All of the above (d) Shallow ulcerations in the patient's mouth.
22. Which of the following indicates that a patient has
3. A patient has a Nasogastric tube inserted and
a fecal impaction?
(a) The patient passes liquid stool frequently. is receiving continuous tube feedings. What
(b) The patient requests medication for a stomach should the nurse do according priority to best
ache. evaluate whether the feeding is being
(c) The patient has foul-smelling stools.
absorbed?
(d) The patient hasn't been eating well lately.
23. Which of the following conditions are (a) Evaluate the intake and the output.
contraindications for manually removing a fecal (b) Aspirate for a residual volume.
impaction?
(c) Instil air into the client's stomach while
(a) Presence of haemorrhoids
(b) Use of anticoagulants auscultation.
(c) History of cardiac surgery (d) Compare the client's body weight with the
(d) Both B and C baseline
-:: 54 ::-
4. Nurse is assessing for correct placement of a 10. Which of the following type of tube should the
Nasogastric tube before going to feed with nurse anticipate will most likely be used when
Nasogastric tube. The nurse verifies correct a patient intubation result of bleeding
tube placement if which pH value is noted?
esophageal varices?
(a) 7 (b) 6.5
(a) Sengstaken-Blakemore
(c) 3.5 (d) 7.5
5. A nurse is preparing to care for a client with (b) Salem sump
esophageal varices. Who has a Sengstaken (c) Miller-Abbott
Blakemore tube? Which of the following (d) Levin
article must be kept at the bedside with 11. Which of the following instructions should be
patient? given by a nurse to relieve the symptoms of
(a) A pair of scissors
GERD except?
(b) An irrigation set
(c) An Obturator (a) Avoid heavy lifting.
(d) Kelly clamp (b) Lie down after eating.
6. A nurse immediately cuts all balloon lumens (c) Avoid drinking alcohol.
and removes the tube. An Obturator and a (d) Eat small, frequent meals.
Kelly clamp are kept at the bedside of a client 12. What is the Effect of metronidazole in gastric
with a tracheostomy a patient is admitted to
ulcer disease?
the surgical unit from the postanesthesia care
(a) Effect as antacids.
unit with a Salem sump Nasogastric tube that
is to be attached to wall suction. Which (b) Increase the immune response.
nursing action should the nurse implement (c) Treat Helicobacter pylori infection.
when caring for this patient? (d) Reduce hydrochloric acid secretion.
(a) Allow the patient to have small sips of ice 13. What of the following instructions should be
water unless nauseated. given to GERD patient except?
(b) Employ sterile technique when irrigating the
(a) Four to six meals are preferred
tube.
(b) Avoid caffeine-containing products.
(c) Withdraw the tube quickly when
decompression is terminated. (c) Elevate the foot of the bed
(d) Use normal saline to irrigate the tube. (d) Elevate the head of the bed
7. Which of the following clinical manifestation 14. A patient has a pain associated peptic ulcer in
indicates that the patient is unable to tolerate the duodenum, pain is?
a continuation of the tube feeding? (a) An intermittent colicky flank pain
(a) Passage of flatus
(b) An ache radiating to the left side
(b) Rise of formula in the tube
(c) Tenderness of epigastric area (c) Relieved by intake of food
(d) Rapid inflow of the feeding (d) Increase after intake of food
8. A patient is receiving tube feedings. How 15. What is Dumping syndrome?
should the nurse evaluate whether the (a) Nausea resulting from a full stomach
feeding is being absorbed? (b) Build-up of flatulence within the large
(a) Aspirate for a residual volume.
intestine
(b) Instil air into the patient's stomach while
(c) Reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus
auscultating.
(c) Evaluate the intake in relation to the output. (d) Rapid emptying of stomach
(d) Compare the patient's body weight with the 16. A patient with a Jejunoileal bypass (JIB) has
baseline developed abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and
9. What is the cause of diarrhea when a patient is dizziness 30 minutes after meals; this is due to
receiving hypertonic tube feedings? which of the following complication?
(a) Bacterial contamination (a) Gastric reflux
(b) Increased fiber intake (b) Abdominal peritonitis
(c) Inappropriate positioning (c) Dumping syndrome
(d) High osmolarity of the feedings (d) Reflux gastritis
-:: 55 ::-
17. A physician orders intermittent Nasogastric tube 26. Which of the following characteristic of Stool
feeding to a client. Which hazard associated with a observe by nurse with a patient of Crohn's disease?
Nasogastric tube feeding will be reduced if the (a) Diarrhea
nurses administer this feeding over 50 to 60 (b) Constipation alternating with diarrhea
minutes? (c) Chronic constipation
(a) Regurgitation (b) Flatulence (d) Bloody diarrhea
(c) Indigestion (d) Distention 27. What is Asterixis?
18. Which of the following classical clinical finding (a) Measure the length of patient.
should observe by nurse in patients with (b) Dorsiflexed the patient's foot.
malabsorption syndrome? (c) Ask the patient to extend the arms.
(a) Bright red or Frank blood (d) Instruct the patient to lean forward.
(b) Melena 28. What is the characteristic expected by nurse while
(c) Fat globules care a patient with duodenal ulcer?
(d) Currant jelly consistency (a) Nausea and vomiting
19. Which of the following expected outcome is most (b) Weight loss
important for Crohn's disease patient? (c) Pain relieved by food intake
(a) Experiences less abdominal cramping (d) Pain radiating down the right arm
(b) Takes oral fluids 29. Which assessment finding provides the best
(c) Provide high calories diet indication that a transfusion reaction is occurring?
(d) None of them (a) The patient's skin is pale and cool.
20. Which of the following initial nursing action before (b) The patient suddenly becomes dyspnea
give the feeding to a patient with Nasogastric tube? (c) The patient's urine is very dark yellow.
(a) Instil normal saline into the tube to maintain (d) The patient experiences extreme
patency. 30. Which of the following symptom is patient's chief
(b) Obtain an x-ray to verify that the tube is in the complaint if patient has GERD?
stomach (a) Anorexia (b) Nausea
(c) Auscultate the epigastric area while instilling 15 mL (c) Vomiting (d) Heartburn
off air. 31. Which of the followings action can provide some
(d) Withdraw stomach contents to verify tube relief from the symptoms of GERD?
placement. (a) Eat spicy foods that are easy to swallow.
21. A patient with Gastroesophageal reflux disease (b) Eat three well-balanced meals a day.
which of the following item should the nurse (c) Avoid lying down after eating.
include in diet? (d) Drink clear liquids at room temperature.
(a) Fatty foods (b) Chocolate 32. Which of the following position is most appropriate
(c) Coffee (d) Non-fat milk to recommend to relieving symptoms of GERD?
22. A patient with a diagnosis of chronic gastritis is at (a) Advise the patient to sleep on a water bed
risk for which vitamin deficiency? temporarily.
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin B12 (b) Have the patient remain supine on a mattress that
(c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin E contains a bed board
23. Which of the following assessment finding would (c) Tell the patient to elevate the legs on pillows when
most likely indicate perforation of the peptic ulcer? retiring at night.
(a) Nausea and vomiting (d) Have the patient raise the head of the bed
(b) Numbness in the legs 33. Which of the following finding should be considered
(c) Blood in stool normal when assessing the gastrostomy drainage
(d) A rigid, board-like abdomen
soon after the gastrostomy tube is inserted?
24. Dumping syndrome can be prevented by?
(a) Green-tinged drainage
(a) Eat high carbohydrate foods.
(b) Serosanguinous drainage
(b) Ambulate following a meal.
(c) Milky drainage
(c) Limit the fluids taken with meals.
(d) Bright, bloody drainage
(d) Sit in a high Fowler's position during meals.
34. Which of the following technique is the best to
25. What are the early signs and symptoms of dumping
determine if the gastrostomy tube has migrated
syndrome are?
after being inserted?
(a) Syncope and pallor
(a) Monitoring the results of stomach X-rays
(b) Double vision and chest pain
(b) Testing the pH of aspirated secretions
(c) Bradycardia and indigestion
(c) Measuring the length of the external tube
(d) Abdominal cramping and pain
(d) Palpating the abdomen for distention
-:: 56 ::-
35. Which of the following nursing actions are most 43. Which of the following method will determine that
appropriate when a patient with tube feeding has the distal end of the Nasogastric (NG) tube is in the
feeling of fullness and nausea? stomach?
(a) Administer an antiemetic by gastrostomy tube.
(a) Requesting a portable X-ray of the stomach
(b) Measure the stomach residual.
(b) Adding 100 mL of tap water into the tube
(c) Stop the infusion temporarily.
(d) Turn the patient onto the right side. (c) Listening over the stomach as air is instilled
36. What is the priority will a nurse use after the tube- (d) Feeling for air at the proximal end of the tube
feeding formula has infused? 44. Which of the following technique is most
(a) Lower the head of the patient's bed. appropriate when the nurse irrigates the NG tube?
(b) Place the patient on the left side. (a) Instilling 30 mL of sterile distilled water into the tube
(c) Clamp the opening of the Gastrostomy tube. (b) Asking the patient to swallow frequently
(d) Instil of plain tap water down the tube. (c) Recording the volume instilled and removed
37. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates (d) Administering oxygen before the irrigation
about peptic ulcer? 45. Which of the following assessment indicates that
(a) Blood present in sputum the patient is becoming dehydrated after
(b) Urine that is positive for albumin diarrhoea?
(c) Stool that is positive for blood (a) Irregular heart rate
(d) Emesis that is positive for pepsin (b) Elevated blood pressure
38. What is the accurate Use of antibiotics for ulcer (c) Pink mucous membranes
therapy? (d) Dark yellow urine
(a) Antibiotics add a protective coating over the 46. Which is the potential adverse effect of midazolam
ulcerated mucosa. hydrochloride?
(b) Antibiotics eliminate a microorganism that depletes (a) Cardiac rhythm disturbance
gastric mucus. (b) Unstable blood pressure
(c) Antibiotics heal the irritated mucous membrane of (c) Respiratory depression
the stomach. (d) Altered consciousness
(d) Antibiotics prevent secondary infections. 47. Which of the following is the nursing priority for a
39. Which medication is most appropriate for the patient who returns from surgery, which was
patient with peptic ulcer to prevent GI irritation? performed under spinal anaesthesia?
(a) Acetaminophen (a) Fluids as desired
(b) Diet as tolerated
(b) Ibuprofen
(c) Vital signs until stable
(c) Aspirin
(d) Supine position
(d) Naproxen 48. Which postoperative assessment should be
40. To determine the length of Nasogastric (NG) tube to considered as priority after the patient's
insert, the nurse correctly places the tip of the tube
herniorrhaphy?
at the patient's tip of nose and measures the
(a) Ability to urinate
distance from there to which area?
(a) Umbilicus (b) Level of consciousness
(b) The mouth and then between the nipples (c) Coughing efforts
(c) The jaw and then midway to the sternum (d) Pain tolerance
(d) The ear lobe and then to the xiphoid process ANSWER KEY
41. During Nasogastric tube insertion which
1. [b] 2. [d] 3. [b] 4. [c] 5. [a]
instruction should the nurse give the patient when
the Nasogastric tube is in the oropharynx? 6. [d] 7. [b] 8. [a] 9. [d] 10. [a]
(a) “Hold your head in a sniffing position.” 11. [b] 12.[c] 13. [c] 14. [c] 15. [d]
(b) “Breathe deeply as the tube is advanced” 16. [c] 17. [a] 18. [c] 19. [c] 20. [d]
(c) “Press your chin to your upper chest." 21. [d] 22. [b] 23. [d] 24. [c] 25. [a]
(d) “Avoid coughing until the tube is down."
26. [a] 27. [c] 28. [c] 29. [b] 30. [d]
42. During NG tube insertion, which of the following
31. [c] 32. [d] 33. [b] 34. [c] 35. [c]
sign indicates that the tube has entered the
respiratory tract? 36. [d] 37. [c] 38. [b] 39. [a] 40. [d]
(a) Inability to speak and respiratory distress 41. [c] 42. [a] 43.[a] 44. [c] 45. [d]
(b) Vomiting and diarrhoea 46. [c] 47. [a] 48. [a]
(c) Sneezing
(d) Inability to swallow
-:: 57 ::-
ORAL CARE GASTRECTOMY
1. Which of the following life-threatening 1. What is dietary management for a patient who
problem should the nurse monitor if a patient is diagnosed with gastroenteritis?
has a fractured mandible that is immobilized? (a) Increase the amount of bulk and roughage in
(a) Vomiting (b) Infection the diet.
(c) Osteomyelitis (d) Bronchospasms (b) Provide optimal amounts of all important
2. Which of the following clinical manifestation nutrients.
may be present in a patient who has cancer of (c) Eliminate chemical, mechanical, and thermal
the tongue except? irritation.
(a) Alterations in taste (d) Provide psychological support with irritate
(b) Leukoplakia food
(c) Halitosis 2. What is the Purpose of a Vagotomy?
(d) Enlarged cervical lymph nodes (a) Eliminates pain sensations
3. Which food items should be avoided for a (b) Gastric emptying
patient with mucositis of the oral cavity (c) Increases the heart rate
except? (d) Decreases secretions in the stomach
(a) Tomato soup (b) Bland foods 3. Just after a subtotal gastrectomy, the nurse
(c) Lemon (d) Hot coffee observes that the drainage from the patient's
4. Which of the followings patient requires Nasogastric tube is bright red. What should
specialized oral care? the nurse do first?
(a) The patient who has full dentures (a) Notify the head nurse.
(b) The patient who is on fluid restrictions (b) Irrigate the Nasogastric tube with iced saline.
(c) The patient who sucks on ice chips (c) Determine that this is an expected finding.
(d) The patient who have diarrhoea (d) Clamp the Nasogastric tube for one hour.
5. Which of the position provided by nurse for an 4. Which of the following constituent's loss with
unconscious patient while brushing his teeth? intestinal suctioning?
(a) In Trendelenburg position with the head (a) Energy carbohydrates
slightly raised (b) Temperature of body
(b) Side-lying with the head lowered (c) Vitamins and minerals
(c) Supine with the head elevated (d) Water and electrolytes
(d) In a dorsal recumbent position with the head 5. What is the cause of pernicious anemia in a
elevated patient who had a gastrectomy?
6. Which of the following Clinical features of (a) Vitamin B12 is just absorbed in the stomach.
candidiasis (thrush)? (b) Chief Cells in the stomach promote the
(a) Red, ulcerated patches at the gum margin secretion of the extrinsic factor.
(b) Clear, shiny, domed vesicles on the tongue (c) Parietal cells of the stomach secrete the
(c) White, curd like patches throughout the mouth intrinsic factor.
(d) Dark brown, flat lesions in the oropharynx (d) Hemopoietic factor is secreted in the stomach.
7. Which of the following instruction should the 6. Which of the following is the best nursing
nurse plan to give the patient when action to prevent pulmonary complications in
administering the Nystatin oral suspension? a patient with subtotal gastrectomy?
(a) Dilute the medication with hot water.
(a) Ambulating the patient to increase respiratory
(b) Drink the medication through a straw.
function
(c) Swish the drug within the mouth, and then
swallow it. (b) Promoting frequent turning and deep
(d) Brush the teeth after using the medication. breathing to mobilize secretions
(c) Keeping a plastic airway in place to ensure
ANSWER KEY patency of the patient's airway
1. [a] 2. [c] 3. [b] 4. [b] 5. [b] (d) Maintaining a consistent oxygen flow rate to
6. [c] 7. [c]
increase oxygen saturation
-:: 58 ::-
7. Which of the following dietary modification should
be preferred to the patient after having a subtotal
gastrectomy?
SENSORY ORGAN & SKIN
(a) Avoid oral feedings for a prolonged period.
(b) Increase intake of dietary roughage slowly. 1. Many children with tonsillitis develop ear
(c) Small, easily digested feedings gradually. infection this is because the ear and throat are
(d) No need dietary modification connected by the
8. The patient is admitted to the hospital with viral (a) Larynx
Hepatitis, which of the following important (b) Eustachian Tube
instruction should the nurse gives the patient to
(c) Epiglottis
provide adequate nutrition?
(d) Esophagus
(a) Select spicy foods high in fat.
(b) Increase intake of fluids and low-fat diet. 2. Most of the infections spread to the ear from
(c) Eat less often, preferably only three large meals throat through?
daily. (a) Eustachian tube (b) Cochlea
(d) Eat a good supper when anorexia is not as severe. (c) Ear canal (d) Tympanic membrane
9. Which of the following nursing assessment is
3. Repair of tympanic membrane is
essential for evaluating the patient's response to
(a) Tympanoplasty (b) Myringoplasty
the TPN?
(a) Measure the arterial pulse pressure. (c) Myringotomy (d) Septoplasty
(b) Monitor the capillary blood glucose level. 4. Signs of pseudophakia?
(c) Test the urine specific gravity. (a) Surgical Scar
(d) Obtain an apical pulse rate. (b) Shining reflex in papillary area
10. Which of the following finding is the best evidence (c) Deep ac
that the patient is responding to the administration (d) All of the Above
of TPN? 5. Dendritic ulcer can be treated with
(a) The patient's appetite is returning.
(a) Topical acyclovir (b) Topical natamycin
(b) The patient is gaining weight.
(c) Topical steroids (d) Laser
(c) The patient's electrolytes are in balance.
(d) The patient is voiding clear, yellow urine. 6. Stapes is smallest bone it is situated in
(a) In wrist joint (b) In ear
ANSWER KEY (c) In nose (d) In ankle joint
1. [c] 2. [d] 3. [c] 4. [d] 5. [c] 7. Spiral organ of Corti is related with:
6. [b] 7. [c] 8. [b] 9. [b] 10. [b] (a) Vision. (b) Respiration
(c) Speech (d) Hearing
APPENDICITIS 8. Which of the following structure separates the
1. A patient is admitted with an acute onset of pain at outer ear from the middle ear?
McBurney's point. For which clinical feature should
(a) Vestibule membrane
be assessed?
(b) Ear canal
(a) Increased lower bowel motility
(b) Gastric hyperacidity
(c) Cochlear nerve
(c) Rebound tenderness (d) Tympanic membrane
(d) Urinary retention 9. Which of the following artery supplies blood to
2. A patient with a diagnosis of appendicitis begins to the eye?
complain of increased abdominal pain and begins to (a) Internal carotid artery
vomit, abdomen is distended and bowel sounds are (b) Left arch
diminished. Which of the following is the (c) Right Subclavian
appropriate nursing intervention?
(d) External carotid
(a) Notify the physician.
10. Which of the following structure play a vital
(b) Administer the pain medication.
(c) Reposition the patient and apply a heating pad on role in vibrating tympanic membrane
warm setting to the patient's abdomen. (a) Auditory canal (b) Ear pinna
(d) Call and ask the operating room team to perform (c) Eustachian tube (d) Cochlea
the surgery as soon as possible.
11. Which of the following auditory ossicle is of
ANSWER KEY hammer shaped?
1. [c] 2. [a] (a) Vomar (b) Incus
(c) Stapes (d) Malleus
-:: 59 ::-
12. Which of the following is not an auditory 1. In the complex sense of vision the image of an
ossicles? object focused on the retina and is transmitted
(a) Vomar (b) Incus to the brain
(c) Stapes (d) Malleus (a) Cornea (b) Optic nerve
13. Spiral organ of Corti is related with (c) Lens (d) Iris
(a) Vision (b) Respiration 2. The outer layer of the eye ball is
(c) Digestion (d) Hearing (a) Sclera (b) Choroids
14. Which of the following part of ear is related (c) Retina (d) Pars Plana
with body balance? 3. Short sightedness can be corrected by using
(a) Cochlea (b) Semi-circular canals spectacles with lens.
(c) Vestibule (d) Both b and c (a) Concave (b) Convex
ANSWER KEY (c) Cylindrical (d) Opaque
1. [b] 2. [a] 3. [b] 4. [d] 5. [a] 4. The anterior transparent part of the eye is:
(a) Sclera (b) Pupil
6. [b] 7. [d] 8. [d] 9. [a] 10. [c]
(c) Conjunctiva (d) Cornea
11. [d] 12. [a] 13. [d] 14. [d] 5. The human eye forms the image of an object
❑❑❑ at it’s:
1. For the patient with otitis media nursing care is
(a) Cornea (b) Iris
centred on reducing the severity or alleviating
problems?
(c) Pupil (d) Retina
(a) Dizziness and decreased hearing 6. All are dilators of pupil except
(b) Fever and tinnitus (a) Adrenalin (b) Pilocarpine
(c) Pain and pressure in the ear (c) Atropine (d) Phenylephrine
(d) Nausea and vomiting 7. Best to visualize corneal endothelium
2. Infection of middle ear is called: (a) Fundoscopy (b) Specular microscopy
(a) Otitis media (b) Labyrinthitis (c) Slit lamp (d) Gonioscopy
(c) Sinusitis (d) Mastoiditis 8. Which of the following is a mydriatics
3. Meniere's disease affects:
(a) Atropine (b) Acetylcholine
(a) Ear (b) Eye
(c) Nose (d) Skin
(c) Novocaine (d) Silver nitrate
4. One of the complication of chronic otitis media is: 9. Tubular vision is caused by
(a) Acute and chronic Mastoiditis (a) Retinitis pigmentosa (b) Glaucoma
(b) Irreversible hearing loss (c) Cataract (d) Papilledema
(c) Infection 10. The Ciliary body
(d) Internal injury (a) Consists of the pars plicata and pars plana
5. While instilling ear drops, the ear of an adult is (b) Produces aqueous humour
straightened by pulling the pinna (c) Is responsible for accommodation
(a) up and back (b) Straight down
(c) Down and back (d) Straight back
11. Latent squint also known as
6. Which of the antibiotics is likely to impair hearing
(a) Streptomycin (b) Neomycin (a) Hypertropia
(c) Erythromycin (d) Gentamycin (b) Exotropia
7. A disease of the inner ear characterized by vertigo, (c) Esotropia
nausea, vomiting, deafness, tinnitus is: (d) Heterophoria
(a) Otosclerosis (b) Meniere's disease 12. Uveal tissue consist of all except?
(c) Hunt's syndrome (d) Vestibular neuritis (a) Choroid
8. The ringing sound in the ear: (b) Iris
(a) Otitis media (b) Petit mat
(c) Ciliary body
(c) Tinnitus (d) Pharyngitis
(d) Vitreous
ANSWER KEY 13. Hypermetropia is a condition in which all are
1. [c] 2. [a] 3. [a] 4. [a] 5. [a] found except?
6. [a] 7. [b] 8. [c] (a) Axial length of eyeball is small
❑❑❑ (b) Correction with convex lens
(c) Image formed in front of the retina
(d) Refractive error can be diagnosed by
Retinoscopy
-:: 60 ::-
14. Advantages of indirect ophthalmoscopy are all 27. Pilocarpine causes all except.
except? (a) Salivation (b) Meiosis
(a) Peripheral retina can be visualized (c) Sweating (d) Cycloplegia
(b) Wider retinal field 28. All actions done by superior oblique except
(c) Brighter image (a) Elevation (b) Depression
(d) Opacity in the media visualized (c) Intorsion (d) Abduction
15. Forward displacement of eyeball is? 29. Staphylomas are
(a) Proptosis (b) Enopthalmos (a) Localized bulging of wall of eyeball
(c) Ptosis (d) None (b) Localized bulging of wall of orbit
16. Colour of the retina is due to? (c) Condition related to eye lid
(a) Anterior border layer (d) Condition related to optic nerve
(b) Stroma 30. Plica semilunar is also known as
(c) Anterior epithelium layer (a) First eyelid
(d) Posterior pigmented layer (b) Second eyelid
17. Most common primary intraocular tumour in (c) Third eyelid
adults (d) Ptosis
(a) Choroidal melanoma 31. Best site where Intra Ocular Lens (IOL) is fitted
(b) Retinoblastoma (a) Capsular ligaments
(c) Melanocytoma (b) Endosulcus
(d) Astrocytoma (c) Ciliary supported
18. In anterior uveitis the pupil is generally (d) Capsular bag
(a) Of normal size (b) Constricted 32. The crystalline lens derives its nourishment
(c) Dilated (d) None from
19. Types of corneal opacity are (a) Blood vessels
(a) Macular (b) Nebular (b) Aqueous humour and vitreous humour
(c) Leucoma (d) All of the Above (c) Connective tissue
20. Shape of the orbit is (d) Zonules
(a) Spherical 33. Aqueous humour is produced by?
(b) Quadrangular truncated Pyramidal Shape (a) Ciliary body (b) Retina
(c)Triangular (c) Vitreous (d) Cornea
(d) None 34. Adduction of eye is?
21. Hyaluronic acid is present in (a) Upward movement of eye
(a) Aqueous Humour(b) Vitreous humour (b) Downward movement of eye
(c) Cornea (d) Lens (c) Nasal movement of eye
22. Sensory pigmented layer of eye is (d) Temporal movement of eye
(a) Cornea (b) Retina 35. Choroid is composed of all except
(c) Sclerotic (d) Iris (a) Haller's layer (b) Sattler's layer
23. Colour of fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer (c) Henley's layer (d) Choriocapillaris
is 36. Causes of coloured halos in eyes?
(a) Yellow (a) Acute congestive Glaucoma
(b) Blue (b) Early stages of cataract
(c) Green (c) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
(d) Red (d) All of the Above
24. Red-green glasses are used for 37. Newborn eye is?
(a) Diplopia charting (b) Worth’s 4 dot test (a) Myopic
(c) Friend test (d) All of the Above (b) Hypermetropic
25. Surgical procedure to treat glaucoma is (c) Emmetropic
(a) Sic’s (b) Phacoemulsification (d) All of the Above
(c) Becca (d) Trabeculectomy 38. All of the following are signs of herpes zoster
26. At what distance, distant direct ophthalmicus except?
ophthalmoscopy is performed (a) Keratitis (b) Episcleritis
(a) 20-25 cm (b) 30-33 cm (c) Uveitis (d) Retinitis
(c) 35-40 cm (d) 40-44 cm
-:: 61 ::-
39. All occur in process of accommodation of eye 52. Gonioscopy is done to visualize?
except? (a) Angle of cornea
(a) Contraction of sphincter papillae (b) Angle of anterior chamber
(b) Dilatation of pupil (c) Angle of posterior chamber
(c) Change in lens curvature (d) Angle of retina
(d) Contraction of Ciliary muscle 53. Term Myopia is used for
40. Corneal sensation are diminished in (a) Far Sightedness (b) Near-Sightedness
(a) Herpes simplex keratitis (c ) Abnormal vision (d) Normal vision
(b) Conjunctivitis 54. Foreign body sensation can be produced by all
(c) Fungal keratitis except
(d) Marginal keratitis (a) Allergic conjunctivitis
41. All are the common causes of childhood (b) Contact lens wear
blindness except (c) Cataract
(a) Malnutrition (d) Trichiasis
(b) Glaucoma 55. Pus in anterior chamber is known as
(c) Opthalamia Neonatorum (a) Hypopyon (b) Hyphema
(d) Congenital Dacryocystitis (c) Exudates (d) Flare
42. Normal eye is 56. Horner's syndrome is characterized by except
(a) Monochromatic (b) Dichromatic (a) Meiosis (b) Sweating
(c) Trichromatic (d) Polychromatic (c) Proptosis (d) Ptosis
43. Commonest type of retinal detachment is? 57. All of the following eye diseases are included
(a) Rhegmatogenous (b) Exudative in vision 2020 except?
(c) Tractional (d) None (a) Cataract (b) Childhood blindness
(c) Trachoma (d) Glaucoma
44. Optic disc diameter is
(a) 1 mm (b) 1.5 mm 58. In indirect ophthalmoscopy the image is?
(c) 2 mm (d) 3 mm (a) Real and inverted
45. Polymyositis is (b) Virtual and inverted
(a) Infective myopathy (c) Real and erect
(b) Muscle degenerating disease (d) Virtual and erect
(c) Not myopathy 59. All of the following are near vision chart
(d) Inflammatory myopathy except?
46. Inward misdirection of cilia is known as? (a) Jagger’s chart
(a) Trichiasis (b) Entropion (b) Roman test type
(c) Ectropion (d) None (c) Snellen's
47. Treatment of choice for congenital glaucoma? (d) Pelli – Robson chart
(a) Goniotomy (b) Trabeculotomy 60. Which of the following visual problem need
(c) Iridectomy (d) None immediate attention
48. Peripheral Iridectomy is must in which of the (a) Photo sensitivity
following? (b) Flashes of light
(a) POAG (b) Closed angle glaucoma (c) Redness of eye
(c) Cataract (d) All of the Above (d) Tearing
49. Laser seen in LASIK 61. All are the tests for tear film adequacy except?
(a) Excimer laser (b) Argon (a) Schirmer’s test
(c) Nd-YaG (d) Holmium (b) Tear film break-up time
50. Nasociliary nerve supplies (c) Vital staining by fluorescein
(a) Lacrimal sac (b) Cornea (d) Fluorescein dye disappearance test
(c) Dilator papillae (d) Ethmoidal sinus 62. More than one pupil is known as?
51. All are the features of Vitamin A deficiency (a) Polycoria
except (b) Correctopia
(a) Bitot's spots (b) Tranta's spot (c) Heterochromia
(c) Keratomalacia (d) Conjunctival Xerosis (d) Aniridia
-:: 62 ::-
63. Perimetry is used for 76. The magnification obtained with a direct
(a) Visual fields charting ophthalmoscope is
(b) Central corneal Thickness (a) 5 times (b) 10 times
(c) IOP monitoring (c) 15 times (d) 20 times
(d) None 77. All of the following are antifungal except
64. Opthalamia Neonatorum within first 48 hours (a) Amphotericin B (b) Natamycin
of birth is caused by (c) Clotrimazole (d) Acyclovir
(a) Adenovirus 78. Visual acuity with pinhole is decreased in all
(b) Neisseria gonorrhoea conditions except
(c) Candia albicans (a) Posterior polar cataract
(d) Chlamydia trachomatis (b) Central corneal opacity
65. Ectropion is (c) Early Nuclear sclerosis
(a) Outward turning of eyelid (d) Macular scar
(b) Inward turning of eyelid 79. Keratometry is?
(c) Drooping of eyelid (a) Measurement of curvature of anterior surface
(d) Misdirection of cilia of cornea
66. Concave spherical lenses are used in? (b) Measurement of curvature of anterior surface
(a) Myopia (b) Hypermetropia of lens
(c) Astigmatism (d) All of these (c) Measurement of curvature of posterior
67. What is the power of the convex lens most surface of cornea
commonly used in indirect ophthalmoscopy? (d) Measurement of curvature of posterior
(a) 90 d (b) 78 d surface of lens
(c) 20 d (d) 60 d 80. Human natural lens is?
68. Most common cause of viral conjunctivitis is (a) Biconcave structure
(a) Pox Virus (b) Adeno Virus (b) Biconvex structure
(c) Herpes (d) None (c) Plano concave structure
69. Recovery in cataract surgery is fastest with (d) Plano convex structure
which of the following 81. Physiological insufficiency of accommodation
(a) ICCE (b) ECCE is?
(c) Sics (d) Phacoemulsification (a) Myopia (b) Hypermetropia
70. Corneal thickness is measured by (c) Presbyopia (d) None of the Above
(a) Pachymetry (b) Tonometry 82. the most common cause of reduced vision in
(c) Keratometry (d) Asthesiometry the world is
71. Fluorescein stain is used in detecting (a) Trachoma (b) Diabetic retinopathy
(a) Corneal Ulcer (b) Dry Eyes (c) Refractive error (d) Glaucoma
(c) Both A&B (d) None of the Above 83. Reflexes Move in opposite direction in
72. Most common organism infecting contact lens Retinoscopy in
(a) Staphylococcus (b) Streptococcus (a) Myopia of Less than 1D
(c) Acanthamoeba (d) Chlamydia (b) Myopia of More than 1 D
73. Calculation of IOL power is called? (c) Myopia of 1D
(a) Pachymetry (b) Tonometry (d) None of the Above
(c) Keratometry (d) Biometry 84. Intraocular lens is made up of
74. Ecchymosis is (a) PMMa (b) Hydrophilic acrylate
(a) Conjunctival oedema (c) Silicone (d) All of the Above
(b) Conjunctival inflammation 85. Drooping of upper lid is known as
(c) Sub conjunctival haemorrhage (a) Ptosis (b) Entropion
(d) Conjunctival dryness (c) Ectropion (d) Chalazion
75. Acuity of Near Vision is tested by 86. Sjogren syndrome is due to deficiency of which
(a) Snellen's chart layer of tear film
(b) Jaeger's chart (a) Aqueous deficiency
(c) Logmar chart (b) Lipid deficiency
(d) Ishihara chart (c) Mucous deficiency
-:: 63 ::-
87. Wing shaped fold of conjunctiva encroaching 97. Age related opacification of lens is known as
on cornea is (a) Senile cataract
(a) Pterygium (b) Complicated cataract
(b) Pinguecula (c) Traumatic cataract
(c) Concretion (d) Congenital cataract
(d) Chalazion 98. Uses of prisms in ophthalmology are
88. Following are the conjunctival Glands except (a) Measurement of angle of deviation
(a) Glands of Zeis (b) Slit lamp bio microscopy
(b) Glands of Wolfing (c) Applanation tonometry
(c) Glands of Manz (d) All of the Above
(d) Glands of Krause 99. Which of the following structures can be
89. Light passes through the following structures in examined with a slit lamp without any
which order? additional aid except
(a) Vitreous Humour, Lens, aqueous Humour, cornea (a) Conjunctiva
(b) Cornea, aqueous Humour, Lens, Vitreous Humour
(b) Cornea
(c) Cornea, Vitreous Humour, Lens, aqueous Humour
(c) Iris
(d) Aqueous Humour, cornea, Lens, Vitreous Humour
(d) Retina
90. Rhodopsin is present in
100. All are the gland of eyelid except
(a) Rods
(a) Meibomian gland
(b) Cones
(b) Glands of Manz
(c) Both
(c) Glands of zeis
(d) None of the Above
(d) Glands of Moll
91. Treatment of corneal ulcer include
101. Refractive index of human lens is
(a) Antibiotic (b) Cycloplegic
(a) 1.39 (b) 1.79
(c) Corneal Scrapping (d) All of the Above
(c) 1.99 (d) None
92. Use of convex lens, except
102. Which type of lenses are used for correction of
(a) For correction of Hypermetropia
myopia?
(b) For correction of aphakia
(a) Convex
(c) For correction of Presbyopia
(b) Concave
(d) For correction of Myopia
(c) Plano
93. Schirmer’s test is used for
(d) Plano concave
(a) Dry Eyes
103. Atropine is contraindicated in
(b) Corneal Ulcer
(a) Narrow angle glaucoma
(c) Both
(b) Open angle glaucoma
(c) Congenital glaucoma
94. Commonest cause of cataract is
(d) Steroid induced glaucoma
(a) Trauma
104. Safe strategy is used for
(b) Diabetes
(a) Onchocerciasis
(c) Old age
(b) Trachoma
(d) TORCH infections
(c) Trichiasis
95. Definition of blindness according to WHO is
(a) Va of <3/60 or its equivalent
105. Which part of the eye is affected in cataract?
(b) Va of <4/60 or its equivalent (a) Pupil
(c) Va of <5/60 or its equivalent (b) Lens
(d) Va of <2/60 or its equivalent (c) Iris
96. Arcus senilis refer to an annular lipid (d) Retina
infiltration of 106. In following which is the inner most layer of
(a) Cornea the eye
(b) Limbus (a) Sclera
(c) Conjunctiva (b) Cornea
(d) Sclera (c) Retina
(d) Iris
-:: 64 ::-
107. Which of the following coloured light has the 117. Inferior rectus muscle of eye rotates the
longest wavelength? eyeball
(a) Blue (b) Yellow (a) Downward
(c) Red (d) Green (b) Upward
108. which of the following is the inner most layer (c) Outward
of eye? (d) Upwards and outward
(a) Retina 118. Which of the following part of eye which
(b) Cornea generate nerve impulses in dim light?
(c) Sclera (a) Iris
(d) Iris (b) Cones
109. What is the lens found in human body? (c) Rods
(a) Biconcave (d) Lens
(b) Uniconvex
(c) Uniconcave ANSWER KEY
(d) Biconvex 1. [b] 2. [a] 3. [a] 4. [d] 5. [d]
110. Macula Lutea is found in
6. [b] 7. [d] 8. [a] 9. [b] 10. [d]
(a) Kidney
11. [d] 12. [d] 13. [c] 14. [b] 15. [a]
(b) Lens of eye
(c) Iris of eye 16. [d] 17. [a] 18. [b] 19. [d] 20. [b]
(d) Retina of eye 21. [b] 22. [b] 23. [c] 24. [d] 25. [d]
111. Which of the following area also known as 26. [a] 27. [d] 28. [a] 29. [a] 30. [c]
blind spot of human body? 31. [d] 32. [b] 33. [a] 34. [c] 35. [a]
(a) Optic disc
36. [d] 37. [b] 38. [d] 39. [b] 40. [a]
(b) Fovea centralis
(c) Macula Lutea 41. [d] 42. [c] 43. [a] 44. [b] 45. [d]
(d) Cons 46. [a] 47. [a] 48. [b] 49. [a] 50. [b]
112. What is the normal intra ocular pressure? 51. [b] 52. [b] 53. [b] 54. [c] 55. [a]
(a) 10-20 mm Hg 56. [c] 57. [d] 58. [a] 59. [a] 60. [b]
(b) 10-20 cm Hg
61. [d] 62. [a] 63. [a] 64. [b] 65. [a]
(c) 10 - 20 cm H2O
(d) 10 - 20 mm H2O 66. [a] 67. [c] 68. [b] 69. [d] 70. [a]
113. Which of the following coloured light has the 71. [c] 72. [c] 73. [d] 74. [c] 75. [b]
longest wavelength? 76. [c] 77. [d] 78. [c] 79. [a] 80. [b]
(a) Red 81. [c] 82. [c] 83. [b] 84. [d] 85. [a]
(b) Green
86. [a] 87. [a] 88. [a] 89. [b] 90. [a]
(c) Violet
91. [d] 92. [d] 93. [a] 94. [c] 95. [a]
(d) Yellow
114. The rhodopsin, which is a photosensitive 96. [a] 97. [a] 98. [d] 99. [d] 100. [b]
pigment found in 101. [a] 102. [b] 103. [a] 104. [b] 105. [b]
(a) Cones 106. [c] 107. [c] 108. [a] 109. [d] 110. [d]
(b) Iris 111. [a] 112. [a] 113. [a] 114. [d] 115. [c]
(c) Lens
116. [a] 117. [a] 118. [c]
(d) Rods
❑❑❑
115. The extrinsic muscles which rotates eyeball
inwards known as
(a) Superior rectus
(b) Superior oblique
(c) Medial rectus
(d) Inferior oblique
116. The extrinsic muscle which rotates the eyeball
downwards and outwards known as
(a) Superior oblique (b) Medial rectus
(c) Superior rectus (d) Inferior oblique
-:: 65 ::-
7. A patient's ear canal is red, swollen, and
EAR
tender. And the tympanic membrane is
1. Which of the following assessment finding is
intact. Which other assessment finding is
indication of a serious head injury in a
most indicative of an infection in the
patient who had motor vehicle accidents?
(a) The patient has clear fluid draining from the external ear?
ears. (a) Foul-smelling drainage
(b) The patient has no pain (b) Diminished hearing
(c) The patient unable to move (c) Scarred tympanic membrane
(d) The patient has a headache. (d) Enlarged lymph nodes
2. Which of the following nursing intervention
8. What is the purpose of the Myringotomy
is most important with serious head injury
procedure?
patient?
(a) Give the victim some water to drink. (a) A Myringotomy aids in administering
(b) Assist in obtaining the victim's insurance medications
card. (b) A Myringotomy provides a pathway for
(c) Cover the victim with a light blanket. drainage.
(d) Maintain the victim's present position. (c) A Myringotomy prevents permanent hearing
3. Which instrument is used for hearing acuity
loss.
test?
(a) Reflex hammers (d) A Myringotomy maintains motion of the ear
(b) Tuning fork bones.
(c) Otoscope 9. Which of the following finding in the health
(d) Stethoscope history would the nurse expect of a patient
4. Which one is most likely to have affected the with Otosclerosis?
patient's hearing? (a) A History of tonsils and adenoid removal
(a) Beta-adrenergic blocker (b) Upper respiratory infections with high
(b) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug fevers
(c) Amino glycoside antibiotic (c) Hearing loss beginning in childhood
(d) Histamine-2 (H2) antagonist (d) One or more relatives similarly diagnosed
5. When instilling prescribed medication into 10. Conductive hearing loss reflects that?
the ear of an adult, which is the correct (a) Sound waves do not travel to the inner ear.
technique for the nurse to use to straighten (b) The eighth cranial nerve is permanently
the ear canal? damaged
(a) Pull the ear upward and backward (c) There is a malfunction of inner ear
(b) Pull the ear upward and forward structures.
(c) Pull the ear downward and forward (d) Electric conversion of sound is not produced
(d) Pull the ear downward and backward 11. Which intervention is most appropriate to
6. Which of the following nursing instruction is include in the care plan of a patient with
most appropriate after instilling medication conductive hearing loss?
into the patient's ear? (a) Raise the pitch of your voice an octave
(a) Keep your head tilted for 5 minutes. higher.
(b) Do not blow your nose for at least 1 hour. (b) Face the patient directly when speaking.
(c) Pack a cotton ball tightly in your ear. (c) Drop your voice at the end of each sentence.
(d) Wipe the excess medication from the ear. (d) Speak directly into the patient's ear.
-:: 66 ::-
12. After the Stapedectomy, how does a nurse 18. The patient with Meniere's disease should
assess whether the patient's facial nerve restrict which of the followings?
(a) Fats
function is intact?
(b) Sodium
(a) Ask the patient to identify familiar odours. (c) Cholesterol
(b) Ask the patient to smile or raise the (d) Potassium
eyebrows. 19. A patient with Mastoiditis. On examination of
(c) Ask the patient to stick out the tongue. the tympanic membrane, which of the
following would the nurse expect to observe?
(d) Ask the patient to read printed information.
(a) A red, dull, thick, and immobile tympanic
13. How should the patient be positioned for the membrane
first 24 hours after a Stapedectomy? (a) Flat (b) A pink-coloured tympanic membrane
with the head elevated and tilted toward the non- (c) A transparent and clear tympanic membrane
operative ear. (d) Greenish discharge by tympanic membrane
(b) Prone with the head positioned toward the 20. which of the following is the most common
operated side. clinical manifestation associated with an inner
(c) Supine with the head of the bed elevated and ear disorder?
the head resting on the Occiput. (a) Pruritus
(d) Facing forward with the head raised and the (b) Hearing loss
knees in a flexed position. (c) Tinnitus
14. The patient who underwent a Stapedectomy (d) Rupture tympanic membrane
understands the discharge instructions which 21. Which of the following nursing measure will
activity to avoid for the next 6 months? provide best facilitate for communication with
(a) Avoid the singing a patient who diagnosed as hearing-impaired?
(b) Flying in an airplane (a) Speak by body movement.
(c) Driving an automobile (b) Speak very loudly.
(d) Listening to music (c) Speak at a normal volume.
15. A patient who was admitted to the hospital for (d) Speak directly into the hearing impaired ear.
possible Meniere's disease. Which of the
following subjective symptom is the patient 22. What is Presbycusis?
most likely to report to the nurse? (a) A conductive hearing loss that occurs with
(a) Pressure aging
(b) Burning (b) Nystagmus that occurs with aging
(c) Vertigo (c) A sensorineural hearing loss that occurs with
(d) Pain aging
16. Which information provided by the nurse to (d) Short-sightedness
the patient before caloric testing? 23. Which of the following important education
(a) Cold water and warm water will be instilled should the nurse give to the patient to assist
into each of the ears. in controlling the vertigo?
(b) The room will be darkened, and scalp (a) Avoid sudden head movements.
electrodes will be attached to the head (b) Lying in supine position
(c) You will wear earphones through which (c) Increase sodium in the diet.
sounds are transmitted (d) Increase fluid intake to 3000 mL a day
(d) Your blood will be drawn from a vein and
examined microscopically.
ANSWER KEY
17. A nurse is caring for a patient with Meniere's
1. [a] 2. [d] 3. [b] 4. [c] 5. [a]
disease, which of the following nursing action
6. [a] 7. [a] 8. [b] 9. [d] 10. [a]
is most helpful in preventing nausea and
11. [b] 12. [b] 13. [a] 14. [b] 15. [c]
vomiting?
16. [a] 17. [d] 18. [b] 19. [a] 20. [c]
(a) Increasing the patient's intake of oral fluids
21. [c] 22. [c] 23. [a]
(b) Keeping the room lights dim
❑❑❑
(c) Changing the patient's position frequently
(d) Avoiding sudden movement the head
-:: 67 ::-
7. The nurse uses a Snellen's chart to assess the
EYE IRRIGATION & CATARACT patient's visual acuity what does it means?
(a) Patient look at a colour picture and identify an
1. Which of the following nursing care avoided image.”
during postoperative period of a patient who (b) Patient look at a screen and tell me when an
has cataract surgery? object appears."
(c) Patient read words that are the size of
(a) Keep the client's bed in a low position at all
newsprint."
times. (d) Patient read letters from a distance of 20 feet (6
(b) Urge the client to cough every 2 hours while meters).”
awake. 8. Which type of eye medication would the nurse
(c) Reapply antiembolism stockings twice daily. instil in the patient's eye to dilate the pupil
(d) Assist the client when ambulating in the hall or and temporarily paralyze the ciliary muscle?
(a) Gentamicin (b) Dipivefrine
room.
(c) Meiotic (d) Mydriatics
2. The nurse is preparing to irrigate the eye. 9. Which of the following terms would reflect that a
What steps are appropriate in completing the patient has near-sightedness?
irrigation? (a) Hyperopia (b) Myopia
(a) Perform hand hygiene and put on gloves. (c) Presbyopia (d) Amblyopic
(b) Offer the client a paper tissue. 10. Which symptom is directly related to the
(c) Place the solution into the conjunctival sac development of cataracts in an older patient?
(d) All of the above (a) Feeling of fullness within the eye
3. A patient has splashed a chemical in the eyes (b) Flashes of light
which of the following information is most (c) Ocular pain or discomfort
(d) Gradual loss of vision
important for the nurse to obtain from the
11. Which clinical finding is most indicative of
patient initially?
cataracts during inspection of the patient's
(a) Whether the patient's vision is impaired eyes?
(b) The treatment already provided (a) A white spot behind the pupil
(c) Whether safety glasses were worn (b) Redness in the eye
(d) The name of the splashed chemical (c) An irregularly shaped iris
4. The nurse prepares to irrigate the pt's (d) A painless corneal lesion
irritated eye and following solutions are 12. Which of the following is essential for the
available, which one is best for the nurse to nurse to ask from patient preoperatively of
use at this time? cataract surgery?
(a) Normal saline (a) The patient's right eye for drainage
(b) Sodium bicarbonate (b) The time of the last dose of anticoagulant
(c) Magnesium sulphate (c) The patient's face for skin lesions
(d) Tap water (d) The patient's left eye for signs of strain
5. When irrigating the patient's eyes, how nurse 13. The nurse should instil the eye drops into
should the flow of irrigating solution? which part of the patient's eye?
(a) Toward the nasolacrimal duct (a) In the lower conjunctival sac
(b) Away from the inner canthus (b) At the inner canthus
(c) Within the anterior chamber (c) Onto the cornea
(d) Directly onto the corneal surface (d) At the outer canthus
6. When a foreign particle has embedded in a 14. After cataract surgery, the patient complains
patient's eye, which nursing action should be severe pain in the operative eye. Which
taken first before referring the patient to eye nursing action is most appropriate?
hospital? (a) Report the finding to the physician.
(a) Loosely patch both eyes. (b) Give the patient a prescribed analgesic
(b) Instil antibiotic ointment. (c) Reposition the patient on the operative side.
(c) Ask the person to blink rapidly. (d) Assess the patient's pupil response with a
(d) Remove the object with forceps. penlight
-:: 68 ::-
15. The patient is discharged from the hospital, 21. After an ophthalmologist examine a patient
the physician instructs the patient to wear a give results of the Snellen's chart tests are
metal shield over the operative eye while documented as 20/60. The nurse interprets
sleeping. When the patient asks the nurse this as:
about the purpose of the eye shield, which (a) The patient can read only at a distance of 20
explanation is best? feet what a patient with normal vision can read at
(a) The shield promotes dilation of the pupil at 60 feet.
night. (b) The patient is legally partial blind
(b) The shield protects the eye from accidental (c) The patient can read at a distance of 60 feet
trauma. what a patient with normal vision can read at 20
(c) The shield reduces rapid eye movement when feet.
dreaming (d) The patient's vision is complete normal.
(d) The shield keeps foreign substances out of the 22. A nurse is providing care for a patient
eye. following surgery to remove a cataract from
16. Which health education nurse should include the left eye. In which of the following position
in the discharge instructions for the patient should the nurse place the patient?
who has undergone a cataract extraction? (a) Left-side lying (b) Trendelenburg
(a) Avoid bending over from the waist. (c) Prone (d) Supine
(b) Expect bleeding to decrease in 1 week. 23. The client arrives in the emergency
(c) Sleep with the head slightly elevated department with a penetrating eye injury
(d) Keep both eyes patched at all times. from wood chips that occurred while cutting
17. The physician asks the nurse to assist with wood. The nurse assesses the eye and notes a
applying a stain to the eye of a client to piece of wood protruding from the eye. What
determine if a foreign body is embedded in the is the initial nursing action?
(a) Apply an eye patch.
cornea or if the cornea is injured. The nurse
(b) Perform visual acuity tests.
correctly hands the physician which solution?
(c) Irrigate the eye with sterile saline.
(a) Povidone-iodine (b) Gentian violet (d) Remove the piece of wood using a sterile eye
(c) Fluorescein (d) Methylene blue clamp.
18. What is the priority nursing action when a 24. A woman was working in her garden. She
patient who has had a cataract extraction accidentally sprayed insecticide into her right
complains of nausea and severe eye pain over eye. She calls the emergency department
the operative site? frantic and screaming for help. The nurse
(a) Call the physician. should instruct the woman to take which
(b) Administer the prescribed pain medication immediate action?
and antiemetic. (a) Call the physician.
(c) Provide position on non-operative side (b) Irrigate the eyes with water.
(d) This is normal expectation (c) Come to the emergency room.
19. A patient with a suspected diagnosis of (d) Irrigate the eyes with diluted hydrogen
cataract. Which of the following chief clinical peroxide.
manifestation in the early stages of cataract?
(a) Blurred vision (b) Diplopia ANSWER KEY
(c) Floating spots (d) Blindness 1. [b] 2. [d] 3. [b] 4. [a] 5. [b]
20. The patient has contusion of the eyeball 6. [a] 7. [d] 8. [d] 9. [b] 10. [d]
following a blunt object injury which of the 11. [a] 12. [b] 13. [a] 14. [a] 15. [b]
following priority nursing intervention applies 16. [a] 17. [c] 18. [a] 19. [a] 20. [b]
immediately? 21. [a] 22. [d] 23. [b] 24. [b]
(a) Cover the eye and refer to patient ❑❑❑
(b) Apply ice to the affected eye.
(c) Irrigate the eye with ice water.
(d) Notify the physician.
-:: 69 ::-
10. Which health education should be given by the
GLAUCOMA & CONJUNCTIVITIS nurse is most important for a patient with
conjunctivitis?
1. Which common characteristic of open-angle
(a) Always wear dark sunglasses when in bright light
glaucoma is this patient most likely to report?
(b) Eat a well-balanced, nutritious diet with plenty of
(a) Headaches while reading
fluids.
(b) Itching and burning eyes
(c) Do not share towels or washcloths with family
(c) Seeing halos around lights
members.
(d) Loss of peripheral vision
(d) Avoid all aspirin-containing products.
2. Which instrument should be used to check
11. A patient with macular degeneration can see?
intraocular pressure (IOP)?
(a) Objects that are at a far distance
(a) Retinoscope (b) Tonometer
(b) Objects that are close to the face
(c) Ophthalmoscope (d) Speculum
(c) Objects that are in outer peripheral fields
3. Which symptom related to the chronic progression
(d) Objects that are in the central field of vision
of untreated glaucoma?
12. The patient with glaucoma. Which of the following
(a) Tunnel vision (b) Bloodshot eyes
instructions would the nurse include in the
(c) Bulging eyes (d) Double vision
teaching during discharge?
4. In followings which drug is contraindicated in a
(a) Decrease fluid intake to control the intraocular
patient with glaucoma?
pressure.
(a) Atropine sulphate
(b) Decrease sodium in diet
(b) Ferrous sulphate
(c) Eye medications will need to be administered for the
(c) Magnesium sulphate
patient's entire life.
(d) Morphine sulphate
(d) Avoid sleeping in day time
5. When the intraocular pressure (IOP) of a patient
13. Which of the following clinical manifestation is
with angle closure glaucoma becomes dangerously
associated with retinal detachment?
high which assessment finding is noted by nurse?
(a) A sense of a curtain falling across the field of vision
(a) Pinpoint pupils
(b) Severe Pain in the affected eye
(b) Severe eye pain
(c) Total loss of vision
(c) Blurred vision
(d) A pink colour of the sclera
(d) Bulging eyes
14. The patient is diagnosed with Hyphema. Which of
6. After an iridectomy on a patient with angle closure
the following position to be provided to the patient?
glaucoma. When the nurse assesses the patient's
(a) Lateral on the affected side
operative eye after surgery, which finding is most
(b) Semi-Fowler's on bed rest
expected? (a) The pupil is a fixed size and shape.
(c) Lloyd position
(b) The pupil appears brown.
(d) Lateral on the unaffected side
(c) The entire iris lacks color.
15. Which of the following Normal intraocular
(d) A section of the iris appears black.
pressure?
7. Which factor is most likely to cause a retinal
(a) 23 to 32 mm Hg
detachment?
(b) 10 to 21 mm Hg
(a) The patient is being treated for glaucoma.
(c) 2 to 8 mm Hg
(b) The patient fell and struck the head.
(d) 33 to 45 mm Hg
(c) The patient has multiple allergies.
16. A nurse is caring for a client who underwent
(d) The patient is younger than age 40.
surgical repair of a detached retina of the right eye.
8. The patient undergoes a scleral buckling procedure
Which interventions should the nurse perform? (a)
retinal detachment as a treatment.
Approach the client from the left side.
Postoperatively, which of the following should be
(b) Discourage bending down.
the nurse's highest priority?
(c) Administer a stool softener.
(a) Fatigue
(d) All of above
(b) Vomiting
(c) Anxiety ANSWER KEY
(d) Pain 1. [d] 2. [b] 3. [a] 4. [a] 5. [b]
9. The patient has "pinkeye", the nurse will note 6. [d] 7. [b] 8. [b] 9. [a] 10. [c]
which symptom of conjunctivitis in addition to 11. [c] 12. [c] 13. [a] 14. [b] 15. [b]
erythema? 16. [d]
(a) Dried drainage along the eyelid ❑❑❑
(b) Loss of moisture on the cornea
(c) Bulging of the eye from the orbit
(d) Lack of pupil response to light
-:: 70 ::-
6. Which of the statements given below is/are
NOSE true about Antigen — specific immunoglobulin
E (IGE) in allergic Rhinitis?
1. Which kind of precautions a nurse should (a) Causes infiltration of inflammatory cells into
follow during the bathing of a patient with the nasal tissue
Cutaneous Kaposi's sarcoma lesions. The (b) Releases histamine and prostaglandins
lesions are open and draining a scant amount (c) Maintains the inflammatory response
of fluid? (d) Produced as a result of initial exposure to an
(a) Wearing a gown and gloves allergen
(b) Wearing gloves 7. Which of the statements regarding epistaxis is
(c) Wear a gown and gloves to change the bed not true?
linens and gloves only for the bath (a) Maxillary or Ethmoidal surgical artery ligation.
(b) Posterior source of epistaxis is Kisselbach's plexus
(d) Wearing a gown, gloves, and a mask
2. An older patient arrives at the emergency (c) Cauterization is by silver nitrate application
department with a severe nose bleed. On the (d) Nasal packing for 48 to 72 hrs
basis of the following data, which of the 8. Which, of the following procedure is used to
following assessment finding most likely correct Otosclerosis?
caused or contributed to the patient's (a) Myringoplasty
nosebleed? (b) Myringotomy
(a) Respirations of 24 breaths/minute (c) Mastoidectomy
(b) Blood pressure of 200/104 mm Hg (d) Stapedectomy
(c) Temperature of 96°F (36.4°C) orally 9. Which one of the following nursing measures
(d) Pulse rate of 110 beats /minute would be most appropriate in the care of the
3. Which of the following priority nursing action patient who has acute epistaxis?
is best for controlling the patient's nosebleed? (a) Place warm compresses on the patient's nasal
(a) Have the patient lie down and breathe bridge
through the mouth. (b) Tilt the patient's head back
(b) Nasal packing the patient (c) Place the patient's head between his legs
(c) Have the patient lean forward and apply direct (d) Pinch the nose and have the patient lean for-
pressure to the nose. ward
(d) Upright position and leaning forward head 10. The priority care after nasal surgery is:
pinch nose then exhale breath by mouth (a) Assessing pain
4. The physician uses silver nitrate to chemically (b) Inspecting for per orbital edema;
cauterize the patient's nasal area to stop the (c) Assessing respiratory status
nosebleed. Which nursing instruction is essential (d) Checking Melena
for preventing another nosebleed? 11. the most common cause epistaxis in elderly is:
(a) Tell the patient to sleep in a recliner or with the head
(a) Nasal allergy
up.
(b) Nose picking
(b) Advise the patient to limit dietary intake of fluids.
(c) Show the patient how to take the carotid pulse at
(c) Hypertension
hourly intervals. (d) Injury
(d) Warn the patient to avoid blowing the nose for
several hours. ANSWER KEY
5. Which of the following method is most 1. [a] 2. [b] 3. [d] 4. [d] 5. [c]
effective to administer nose drops? 6. [d] 7. [b] 8. [d] 9. [d] 10. [c]
(a) Bending the head forward, then instilling the 11. [c]
drops ❑❑❑
(b) Pushing the nose laterally, then instilling the
drops
(c) Tilting the head backward, then instilling the
drops
(d) Turning the head to the side, then instilling the
drops
-:: 71 ::-
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM 11. The collapse of the alveoli is prevented by:
(a) Pleural Fluid
(b) Cilia
1. Normally respiratory centre is stimulated by: (c) Mucus
(a) Oxygen (b) Blood PH (d) Surfactant
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Lactic acid 12. A normal respiration of healthy person is:
2. In human body unoxygenated blood is purified (a) 5-10/minute (b) 10-15/minute
by: (c) 16-20/minute (d) 20-30/minute
(a) Heart (b) Lungs 13. Pus in the pleural cavity
(c) Lever (d) Kidney (a) Pleural effusion
3. The trachea or wind pipe is made up of (b) Empyema
cartilage rings; shape of the rings is? (c) Emphysema
(a) C shaped (b) S shaped (d) Pyorrhoea
(c) Cone shaped (d) Straight 14. Normal values for pCO2 are considered:
4. Functional unit of bronchial tree? (a) 20-40 mm Hg
(a) Respiratory bronchiole (b) 25-30 mm Hg
(b) Alveolar duct (c) 30-40 mm Hg
(c) Alveoli (d) 35-45 mm Hg
(d) Acinus 15. Spirometry does not determine the?
5. All of Hyaline cartilage of larynx EXCEPT - (a) Tidal volume
(a) Cricoid (b) Corniculate (b) Inspiratory reserve volume
(c) Arytenoid (d) Thyroid (c) Vital capacity
6. The following are sinus areas except which (d) Residual volume
one? 16. Motor supply of diaphragm is
(a) Frontal (b) Maxillary (a) Thoraco dorsal (b) Intercostal nerves
(c) Ethmoid (d) Cranial (c) Phrenic nerve (d) Sympathetic
7. Find out the odd one 17. What cell type secrets surfactant?
(a) Trachea (b) Bronchi (a) Plasma cell
(c) Esophagus (d) Larynx (b) Type I alveolar cell
8. The primary muscles of inspiration? (c) Type II alveolar cell or Pneumocytes cell
(a) Abdominals and external intercostal (d) Type III alveolar cell
(b) Diaphragm and external intercostal 18. Type of the C-Shaped cartilage in Trachea
(c) Abdominals and internal intercostal (a) Costal cartilage
(d) Diaphragm and internal intercostal (b) Hyaline cartilage
9. Match the following? (c) Fibro cartilage
I. Pleural cavity 1. Pneumo-thorax filled (d) Elastic cartilage
with blood 19. Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act
II. Pleural cavity 2. Pleural effusion filled because no muscular contractions are
with pus involved Expiration, however, depends on two
III. Pleural cavity 3. Heamo -thorax filled factors. Which of the choices below lists those
with air two factors?
IV. Pleural cavity 4. Pyothorax filled with (a) The recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched
fluid during inspiration and the inward pull of surface
I II III IV tension due to the film of alveolar fluid,
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) The expansion of respiratory muscles that
(b) 3 4 1 2 were contracted during inspiration and the lack of
(c) 2 3 4 1 surface tension on the alveolar wall
(d) 4 1 2 3 (c) The negative feedback of expansion fibers
10. The _____membranes surround the lungs? used during inspiration and the outward pull of
(a) Pericardial surface tension due to surfactant
(b) Mediastinal (d) Combined amount of CO2 in the blood and air
(c) Pleural in the alveoli
(d) Peritoneal
-:: 72 ::-
20. Which of the following is NOT a function of the 26. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the
lungs? production and role of lung surfactant?
(a) Metabolism (a) It is part of a lipoprotein called dipalmitoyl
(b) Serves as a reservoir of blood for the left Phosphatidyl-choline.
ventricle. (b) It is synthesized by alveolar type II cells.
(c) It is a filter to protect the systemic vasculature (c) As the alveolar surface area decreases during
(d) All of the Above the compression curve, the surfactant decreases
21. Which of the following is the first branching of the surface tension at a constant rate.
the bronchial tree that has gas exchanging (d) When surfactant density is decreased during
capabilities? expansion, surface tension initially rises rapidly,
(a) Terminal bronchioles. then slows down until it reaches the starting
(b) Respiratory bronchioles. point.
(c) Alveoli 27. Which of the following is NOT true concerning
(d) Segmental bronchi respiratory distress syndrome in premature
22. Which of the following is NOT a normal infants?
occurrence with increasing age? (a) Their ability to synthesize DPPC is limited
(a) Vital capacity of the lung decreases. (b) Higher pressures are required to ventilate the
(b) Residual volume increases. lungs.
(c) Functional residual capacity increases. (c) Lung compliance is low.
(d) Expiratory reserve volume increases. (d) Alveoli tend to over expand and sometimes
23. Which of the following spirometry burst at the end of inspiration.
measurements has the greatest sensitivity for 28. Which of the following is NOT true at FRC?
detecting early air flow obstruction? (a) It is about 75% TLC
(a) FVC (b) The elastic recoil of the chest wall is outward
(b) FEV1 (c) The elastic recoil of the lung is inward
(c) FFE (d) The relaxation pressure of the lung and chest
(d) FEF25-75 wall combined is at atmospheric pressure.
24. Which of the following does NOT happen during 29. If the lung were punctured, which of the
inspiration? following would happen?
(a) The ribs move upward (a) The lung would collapse on the side of the
(b) The diaphragm lifts up. puncture.
(c) The antero-posterior dimensions of the chest are (b) Both the lung and the chest wall would
increased collapse on the side of the puncture.
(d) The tranverse dimensions of the thorax are (c) The relaxation pressure of the chest wall would
increased increase until it surpassed the atmospheric
25. According to the Law of Laplace, air should (d) The relaxation pressure of the chest wall
flow from the smaller alveoli to the larger, would increase, but stop before it reached
collapsing them. In the lungs, several factors atmospheric pressure.
counter that tendency, and stabilize the 30. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the
alveolar structures. Which of the following is airflow in the lungs?
NOT one of them? (a) During inspiration and expiration, the flow in
(a) Surfactant lowers surface tension to a greater the trachea and larger bronchi is turbulent.
degree when it is on a smaller surface area, (b) Towards the middle of the bronchial tree, the
allowing the smaller alveoli to stay open. flow is turbulent at the branches and laminar in
(b) Mechanical stability is given by surrounding between
alveoli. (c) Near the end of the bronchial tree, the flow is
(c) Transpulmonary pressure is lower for smaller laminar.
(d) The acini have very small radii which
alveoli, allowing them to stabilize in comparison
significantly increases the total air flow resistance
to the bigger ones.
of the bronchial tree.
(d) Surface tension at the gas-liquid interface
increases as alveolar surface area increases.
-:: 73 ::-
31. Which of the following is FALSE concerning 36. Which of the following is TRUE if a patient
airway resistance? breathes slower than normal with increased
(a) Up to 50% is in the nose. tidal volumes?
(b) The maximum resistance in the bronchial tree (a) More resistive work is done.
occurs at the fourth generation. (b) The total work done decreases.
(c) In the later generations, the radii are smaller, (c) More elastic work is done.
increasing the total resistance at each successive (d) Compliance is decreased
generation. 37. Which of the following is INCORRECT
(d) Airway resistance can be increased by loss of concerning the efficiency of breathing and the
tissue elasticity and contraction of bronchial oxygen consumption of the respiratory
smooth muscles. muscles?
32. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the (a) Efficiency is defined as the ratio of mechanical
effect of effort on airflow and volume during work done to move air to the amount of metabolic
inspiration and expiration? energy used by the respiratory muscles.
(a) During inspiration, greater effort always (b) The respiratory system uses less than 3% of
results in greater flow. the body's total oxygen consumption at rest.
(b) Peak expiratory flow occurs at the beginning (c) Respiratory muscles are more efficient than
of expiration. large muscle groups.
(c) At low and moderate lung volumes, the (d) Emphysema increases the oxygen
greater the effort above threshold, the greater requirement for respiratory muscles.
the airflow in expiration. 38. In what situation would the gas exchange
(d) Portions of the expiration curve are effort ratio be decreased compared to the
independent. respiratory quotient?
33. If the equal pressure point during expiration is (a) During slowed breathing.
in the lobar bronchi, which of the following is (b) Holding your breath.
TRUE? (c) During hyperventilation.
(a) Expiratory flow would be effort dependent. (d) Impossible. The two are always equivalent.
(b) Expiratory flow would be effort independent. 39. A 140 lb woman would have approximately
(c) The bronchi beyond the equal pressure point how much dead space in her lungs?
would compress. (a) 140 ml. (b) 70 ml.
(d) This situation would only occur during (c) 280 ml. (d) 35 ml.
medium and low lung volumes. 40. How do you calculate how much inspired air
34. Which of the following does NOT apply to the actually ventilates the alveoli during one
alveoli at the base of the lungs? minute?
(a) They are less elastic than the alveoli at the (a) Subtract the volume of dead space from the
apex, tidal volume.
(b) The pleural pressure is lower. (b) Subtract both the dead space volume that was
(c) At FRC they are less inflated than the alveoli at already in the lungs plus the dead space of the
the apex. inspired air that won't reach the alveoli from the
(d) They are closed at RV. tidal volume.
35. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the (c) Subtract the volume of dead space from the
closing volume for the lung? tidal volume and multiply it by the number of
(a) Comes between Phase 3 and Phase 4 on the breaths per minute.
single breath N2 washout curve. (d) It is equal to the tidal volume times the
(b) Marks the point where the alveoli at the apex frequency of breathing.
close. 41. Which of the following is NOT a function of
(c) Marks a sudden increase in nitrogen dead space?
concentration in the expelled breath. (a) Warms expired air to body temperature.
(d) Marks when the overinflated, poorly ventilated (b) Saturates inspired air with water vapor.
alveoli at the apex expel their air with high N2 (c) Removes bacteria and other particulate
concentrations. matter.
(d) Conducts the warmed air to the respiratory
membranes.
-:: 74 ::-
42. To which of the following is alveolar PCO2 directly 48. If you blocked the blood supply to an alveolus,
proportional? which of the following would NOT occur as a
(a) Rate of CO2 production and alveolar ventilation. result?
(b) Rate of CO2 production and rate of 02 (a) The ventilation perfusion ratio would be 0.
consumption. (b) The PAO2 would be greater than normal.
(c) Alveolar ventilation and rate of O2 consumption. (c) The PACO2 would be 0.
(d) Alveolar ventilation, rate of O2 consumption, and (d) All of the above are true.
49. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the
rate of CO2 production.
ventilation and perfusion of different regions of
43. If a patient's blood carries 10 grams of Hb per
the lung?
decilitre, what is the O2 carrying capacity of
(a) Alveoli at the top of the lung have a smaller
his blood?
dynamic compliance.
(a) 18 millilitres per decilitre. (b) The Hb moving through the base of the lung is
(b) 20 millilitres per decilitre. less saturated than that at the apex of the lung.
(c) 10 millilitres per decilitre. (c) PAO2 at the apex of the lung is higher than that
(d) 13 millilitres per decilitre. at the base of the lung.
44. Which of the following definitions is FALSE? (d) Regional variation in ventilation-perfusion is
(a) O2 content of blood is the actual amount of O2 more efficient for oxygenating blood than is uniform
in one decilitres of blood ventilation-perfusion.
(b) O2 saturation of blood is the ratio of O2 content 50. Which of the following will NOT increase the
to its O2 capacity. minute ventilation?
(c) The O2 uptake curve of blood is the functional (a) An increase in arterial pH
relationship between O2 content and PO2 (b) An increase in arterial partial pressure of carbon
(d) The O2 content of blood depends completely dioxide.
on the amount of Hb in the blood (c) Increase in alveolar pressure of carbon dioxide.
45. Which of the following in FALSE concerning (d) Exercise
51. Which of the following is the primary regulating
CO2 uptake?
variable of the central chemoreceptors?
(a) If PO2 = PCO2, then there will be more total CO2
(a) PaO2
in the blood
(b) PaCO2
(b) Oxygenation moves the CO 2 uptake curve
(c) Arterial pH
downward
(d) Input from stretch receptors.
(c) The CO2 uptake curve is generated by 52. In which situation would the response to hypoxia
comparing the total CO2 per unit volume of blood, be limited?
and the PCO2. (a) In a patient with obstructed airways.
(d) Deoxygenated blood carries less CO2 than (b) When hypoxia is accompanied by hypercapnia
oxygenated (c) In the hypoxia induced by high altitude.
46. Which of the following is INCORRECT (d) During hypoventilation.
concerning the O2/CO2 movement and 53. Possible causes of hypoxia include
processing through the lungs and tissues? (a) Too little oxygen in the atmosphere
(a) Binding of O2 to Hb changes its configuration (b) Obstruction of the esophagus
so that CO2 and H+ ions are more likely to (c) Taking several rapid deep breaths
dissociate. (d) Getting very cold
(b) When CO2 diffused into the alveoli, the PaCO2 54. Because the lungs are filled with fluid during
is lowered fetal life, which of the following statements is
(c) Carbonic acid is an intermediate in the reaction true regarding respiratory exchange?
combining H+ with HCO3- to form H20 and CO2 (a) Respiratory exchanges are made through the
ductus arteriosus.
(d) Arterial blood flows to the tissues where H+
(b) Respiratory exchanges are not necessary.
ions combine with HCO3- to form H2O and CO2
(c) Respiratory exchanges are made through the
47. Which of the following can cause stagnant
placenta
(a) COPD
(d) Because the lungs develop later in gestation,
(b) Shock or heart failure.
foetus do not need a mechanism for respiratory
(c) Cyanide poisoning.
exchange.
(d) Carbon monoxide poisoning.
-:: 75 ::-
55. Which of the following is not a stimulus for 63. A premature baby usually has difficulty
breathing? breathing. However, the respiratory system is
(a) Rising carbon dioxide levels developed enough for survival by -
(b) Rising blood pressure (a) 17 weeks (b) 24 weeks
(c) Arterial PO2 below 60 mm Hg (c) 28 weeks (d) 36 weeks
(d) Arterial pH resulting from CO2 retention 64. Which of the following statements is true
56. Respiratory control centers are located in regarding the respiratory rate of a newborn?
the_______________? (a) The respiratory rate of a newborn is slow.
(a) Midbrain and medulla (b) The respiratory rate of a newborn varies
(b) Medulla and pons between male and female infants.
(c) Pons and midbrain (c) The respiratory rate of a newborn is
(d) Upper spinal cord and medulla approximately 30 respirations per minute.
57. Which of the following is not found on the (d) The respiratory rate of a newborn is, at its
right lobe of the lung? highest rate, approximately 40-80 respirations
(a) Middle lobe per minute.
(b) Cardiac notch 65. Most inspired particles such as dust fail to
(c) Horizontal fissure reach the lungs because of the
(d) Oblique fissure (a) Ciliated mucous lining in the nose
58. Which of the choices below is not a role of the (b) Abundant blood supply to nasal mucosa
pleura? (c) Porous structure of turbinate bones
(a) Allows the lungs to inflate and deflate without (d) Action of the epiglottis
friction 66. Which of the disorders below is characterized
(b) Helps divide the thoracic cavity into three by destruction of the walls of the alveoli
chambers producing abnormally large air spaces that
(c) Helps limit the spread of local infections remain filled with air during exhalation?
(d) Aids in blood flow to and from the heart (a) Pneumonia (b) Tuberculosis
because the heart sits between the lungs (c) Emphysema (d) Coryza
59. Which of the following provide the greatest 67. What is the Total number of ribs in human
surface area for gas exchange? body?
(a) Alveolar sacs (a) 10 pairs (b) 12
(b) Alveoli (c) 10 (d) 12 pairs
(c) Respiratory bronchioles 68. Which is the largest cavity in human body?
(d) Alveolar ducts (a) Abdominal cavity
60. Gas emboli may occur because a
(b) Thoracic cavity
(a) Person holds his breath too long
(c) Cranial cavity
(b) Diver holds his breath upon ascent
(d) Pelvic cavity
(c) Pilot holds her breath upon descent
69. Length of pharynx in an adult is about?
(d) Person breathes pure oxygen in a pressurized
(a) 6–8 cm (b) 50-54 cm
chamber
(c) 20–25 cm (d) 12–14 cm
61. Inspiratory capacity is
70. Which structure is known as voice box?
(a) The total amount of air that can be inspired
(a) Pharynx (b) Intercostal muscles
after a tidal expiration
(c) Oesophagus (d) Larynx
(b) The total amount of exchangeable air
71. Which of the following cartilage of larynx,
(c) Functional residual capacity
Adam's apple is formed?
(d) Air inspired after a tidal inhalation
(a) Epiglottis (b) Cricoids
62. The nose serves all the following functions
(c) Arytenoids (d) Thyroid
except __
72. Which organ is known as a windpipe?
(a) As a passageway for air movement
(a) Larynx (b) Bronchi
(b) As the initiator of the cough reflex
(c) Lung (d) Trachea
(c) Warming and humidifying the air
73. What is the Length of trachea?
(d) Cleansing the air
(a) 2–4 cm (b) 25-30 cm
(c) 40-45 cm (d) 10–12 cm
-:: 76 ::-
74. What is the Number of incomplete rings found in 85. The air remaining in the lungs after forceful
trachea? expiration is known as
(a) 16-20 (b) 10-12 (a) Expiratory reserve volume
(c) 2-4 (d) 30 - 35 (b) Vital capacity
75. What is the shape of cartilage rings found in (c) Functional residual capacity
trachea? (d) Residual volume
(a) V-shaped (b) J-shaped 86. What is the formula for measuring vital capacity?
(c) 0-shaped (d) C-shaped (a) VC = tidal volume + inspiratory capacity + expiratory
76. Total is the number of lobes found in right lung capacity
(a) Two lobes (b) Five lobes (b) VC = tidal volume + inspiratory capacity + residual
(c) Four lobes (d) Three lobes volume
77. What is the action of surfactant in human body (c) VC = tidal volume + inspiratory reserve
except? (d) VC = tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume +
(a) It prevents the alveoli from drying out expiratory reserve volume
(b) Reduces surface tension 87. What is the normal tidal volume in adult?
(c) During expiration it prevents alveolar wall from (a) 500 ml
collapsing (b) 50 ml
(d) Help in breath (c) 2500 ml
78. Which of the following are the main muscles used in (d) 1000 ml
respiration? 88. What is the Amount of O2 in inspired air?
(a) Intercostals muscles (a) 60%
(b) Diaphragm (b) 78%
(c) Biceps and triceps muscles (c) 45%
(d) Both a and b (d) 21%
79. What is the Number of intercostals muscles in 89. Which of the following gas is found in maximum
human being? amount in air?
(a) 11 pairs (b) 7 pairs (a) Nitrogen (b) CO2
(c) 12 pairs (d) 10 pairs (c) Oxygen (d) Chlorine
80. Which of the organ separates the thoracic and 90. Most of O2 is carried in combination with
abdominal cavities? (a) Iron (b) Hb
(a) Diaphragm (b) Heart (c) RBC (d) Water
(c) Lung (d) Stomach
81. The amount of air passing into and out of the lungs ANSWER KEY
during each cycle of respiration is known as 1. [c] 2. [b] 3. [a] 4. [c] 5. [b]
(a) Residual volume
6. [d] 7. [c] 8. [b] 9. [b] 10. [c]
(b) Inspiratory reserve volume
(c) Inspiratory capacity 11. [d] 12. [c] 13. [b] 14. [d] 15. [d]
(d) Tidal volume 16. [c] 17. [c] 18. [b] 19. [a] 20. [d]
82. The extra volume of air that can be inspired during 21. [b] 22. [d] 23. [d] 24. [b] 25. [c]
maximal inspiration is known as
(a) Tidal volume
26. [c] 27. [d] 28. [a] 29. [a] 30. [d]
(b) Residual volume 31. [c] 32. [c] 33. [a] 34. [a] 35. [b]
(c) Inspiratory capacity 36. [c] 37. [c] 38. [c] 39. [a] 40. [c]
(d) Inspiratory reserve volume 41. [a] 42. [b] 43. [d] 44. [d] 45. [d]
83. The amount of air remaining in the air passages and
46. [d] 47. [b] 48. [a] 49. [d] 50. [a]
alveoli at the end of quiet expiration is termed as
51. [b] 52. [c] 53. [a] 54. [c] 55. [b]
(a) Functional residual capacity
(b) Residual volume 56. [b] 57. [b] 58. [d] 59. [b] 60. [b]
(c) Expiratory reserve volume 61. [a] 62. [b] 63. [c] 64. [d] 65. [a]
(d) Vital capacity 66. [c] 67. [d] 68. [a] 69. [d] 70. [d]
84. The largest volume of air which can be expired from 71. [d] 72. [d] 73. [d] 74. [a] 75. [d]
the lungs during maximal expiration is termed as 76. [d] 77. [d] 78. [d] 79. [a] 80. [a]
(a) Vital capacity 81. [d] 82. [d] 83. [a] 84. [d] 85. [d]
(b) Residual volume 86. [d] 87. [a] 88. [d] 89. [a] 90. [b]
(c) Functional residual capacity
(d) Expiratory reserve volume
-:: 77 ::-
ASTHMA & BRONCHOSCOPY 9. Which assessment technique is essential
before allowing a patient food or fluids after a
1. Which time of day is best to obtain a sputum bronchoscopy?
specimen from the patient? (a) Touch the arch of the palate with a tongue
(a) Before bedtime (b) After a meal blade.
(c) Between meals (d) On awakening (b) Listen to the abdomen for active bowel
2. What is the nursing education to be given for a sounds.
patient with asthma who is being discharged? (c) Inspect the oral mucous membranes for
(a) About pulse oximeter readings
integrity.
(b) Demonstrates use of a metered-dose inhaler
(d) Palpate the throat while the patient swallows
(c) Knows the sleeping hours
(d) Can identify the foods that may cause wheezing
10. Which of the following observation where
3. An adult patient who has had asthma and
nurse should inform to doctor immediately
respiratory distress. Which of the following
position is best for the patient to be in while during caring for a client after a biopsy with
auscultating breath sounds? bronchoscopy?
(a) Sitting (a) Dry cough
(b) Standing (b) Haematuria
(c) Lying on the back (c) Blood-streaked sputum
(d) Lying on the side (d) Bronchospasms
4. What is the Effect of Aminophylline?
(a) Aminophylline relieves persistent coughing. ANSWER KEY
(b) Aminophylline reduces sputum production 1. [d] 2. [b] 3. [a] 4. [c] 5. [d]
(c) Aminophylline dilates the bronchial airways. 6. [a] 7. [c] 8. [a] 9. [a] 10. [d]
(d) Aminophylline thins respiratory secretions.
5. What is the commonest Side effect of
Aminophylline? EMPHYSEMA & COPD & ABG
(a) Bronchospasms (b) Hypotension 1. What is the priority nursing action for a
(c) Drowsiness (d) Tachycardia patient who has a fever, chills, and difficulty
6. Which nursing action is appropriate to take breathing, and diagnosed with emphysema?
before the bronchoscopy? (a) Encouraging increased fluid intake
(a) Keep the patient from eating and drinking. (b) Suctioning secretions from the airway
(b) Have the patient cough several times.
(c) Administering a high concentration of oxygen
(c) Ensure that the patient gets adequate sleep.
(d) Checking for capillary refill
(d) Scrub the patient's upper chest with an
2. A COPD patient suspected for spontaneous
antiseptic
pneumothorax what is expected action should
7. What should the nurse closely monitor after the
the nurse take first?
bronchoscopy?
(a) The patient's level of consciousness (a) Give oxygen at 2 L per minute via nasal
(b) The patient's oral status Cannula
(c) The patient's respiratory effort (b) Administer 60% oxygen via a Venturi mask.
(d) The patient's ability to speak (c) Prepare for administration of electrolytes.
8. The nurse observes blood when suctioning (d) Place the patient on the unaffected side.
secretions that have accumulated in the 3. What is the long-term problem may occur in a
patient with emphysema?
patient's mouth after the bronchoscopy.
(a) Localized tissue necrosis
Which additional assessment is most (b) Carbon dioxide retention
important for the nurse to make after the (c) Increased respiratory rate
bronchoscopy? (d) Saturated hemoglobin molecules
(a) Count the pulse rate. 4. Where should the application of the sensor of
(b) Listen to heart sounds. the pulse oximeter?
(a) Apply it to the patient's finger.
(c) Check the pupillary response.
(b) Apply it to the patient's palm.
(d) Measure the chest expansion.
(c) Clip it to the patient's earlobe.
(d) Wrap it around the patient's leg.
-:: 78 ::-
5. Which of the following pulse oximetry reading 13. Barrel chest is a primary manifestation of?
indicates to normal tissue oxygenation (a) Emphysema
saturation? (b) Bronchial asthma
(a) 80 to 90 mm Hg (b) 95 to 100 mm Hg (c) Chronic obstructive bronchitis
(c) 80% to 85% (d) 95% to 100% (d) Bronchial asthma and bronchitis
6. Which is essential nursing action immediately 14. Which of the following position facilitates
after an ABG specimen is drawn? maximum air exchange in a patient with
(a) Apply direct pressure to the site for 5 minutes. emphysema?
(b) Warm the blood in the specimen tube for 5 (a) Supine
minutes. (b) Orthopneic
(c) Assess the patient's blood pressure in 5 (c) Low-Fowler
minutes. (d) Semi-Fowler
(d) Elevate the patient's arm for at least 5
minutes. ANSWER KEY
7. Which of the following signs and symptoms is 1. [a] 2. [b] 3. [b] 4. [a] 5. [d]
indicating oxygen toxicity except? 6. [a] 7. [c] 8. [c] 9. [c] 10. [d]
(a) Non-productive cough 11. [d] 12. [d] 13. [a] 14. [b]
(b) Sub sternal chest pain
(c) Nasal stuffiness
PULMONARY EMBOLISM & LARYNX
(d) Hyperventilation
8. What is Normal PaCO2 level? 1. Which of the following patient is at risk to develop
(a) 7.35 and 7.45 pulmonary embolism?
(b) 80 and 100 mm Hg (a) Who had a femur fracture or knee replacement.
(b) Who has bacterial pneumonia.
(c) 35 and 45 mm Hg
(c) Who had emergency dental surgery.
(d) 22 and 27 MEq/lit
(d) Who has a history of thrombocytopenia.
9. Which of the following finding strongly
2. Which patient has the least risk for developing a
suggests the presence of a flail chest? pulmonary embolism?
(a) Sucking air is heard near the chest. (a) Obese patient with leg trauma
(b) The trachea deviates from midline. (b) Pregnant patient
(c) A portion of the chest moves inward during (c) Diabetes Patient
inspiration. (d) Pneumonia
(d) The victim has severe chest pain during 3. A patient has a bronchoscopy, what action should
expiration. the nurse take to prevent laryngeal edema?
(a) Place ice chips in the patient's mouth.
10. Which nursing actions are appropriate while
(b) Offer liberal amounts of fluid to the patient.
attaches a pulse oximeter to the patient's (c) Keep the patient in the semi-Fowler position.
finger? (d) Tell the patient to suck on medicated lozenges.
(a) Remove the patient's fingernail polish. 4. Which of the following assessment finding observe
(b) Position the sensors on the patient's index by the nurse in a patient who had just undergone
finger. total laryngectomy and his respiratory status is
(c) Connect the cable to the pulse oximeter. compromised?
(d) All of the above (a) The patient's dressing is pinkish.
11. Which of the following is the clinical (b) The patient becomes restless.
(c) The patient's heart rate is regular,
manifestation of COPD?
(d) The patient indicates feeling cold
(a) Hypocapnia 5. After laryngectomy a patient has impaired speech,
(b) A hyper inflated chest noted on the chest X-ray which of the following nursing action facilitates
(c) Increased oxygen saturation with exercise effective communication?
(d) A widened diaphragm noted on the chest X-ray (a) Lip-read the patient's attempts at communication.
12. What is the primary purpose of pursed-lip (b) Inform the patient to speak slowly when talking
breathing? (c) Listen attentively to the patient's vocalizations.
(a) Promote oxygen intake. (d) Provide the patient with paper and pencil.
(b) Strengthen the diaphragm.
(c) Strengthen the intercostal muscles.
(d) Promote carbon dioxide elimination.
-:: 79 ::-
6. Which of the following instruction is given by the 4. If the patient complains of GI side effects
nurse before discharging a patient with fractured associated with Rifampicin which nursing
ribs? action is best?
(a) Breathe deeply several times every hour.
(a) Administering the drug at night
(b) Breathe shallowly to avoid discomfort.
(b) Giving the drug with food or at mealtimes
(c) Breathe rapidly to promote ventilation.
(d) Breathe into a paper bag every hour. (c) Encouraging the patient to drink plenty of
7. A pulmonary embolism is suspected in a patient water
after an abdominal surgery, where did the patient's (d) Providing the patient with an antacid
embolism most likely originate? 5. Which of the following diagnostic test will
(a) The deep veins of the legs confirm diagnosis of tuberculosis?
(b) The pulmonary artery (a) Chest X-ray
(c) The superior vena cava (b) Bronchoscopy
(d) The carotid artery
(c) Sputum microscopy
8. Which of the following expected intervention is
(d) Tuberculin skin test
most important if a patient has pulmonary
embolism?
(a) Administering oxygen by face mask ANSWER KEY
(b) Assessing the patient's capillary refill 1. [b] 2. [b] 3. [d] 4. [b] 5. [c]
(c) Having the patient rate the pain on a pain scale
(d) Requesting a physician's order for cardiac enzymes
9. Which of the following drug should the nurse CHEST TUBE DRAIN &
anticipate will be administered intravenously to THORACENTESIS
treat dyspnoea related to pulmonary embolism?
(a) Heparin 1. What is the Clinical manifestation of pleural
(b) Aminophylline effusion?
(c) Nitro-glycerine (a) Wheezing in the upper lobes
(d) Aspirin
(b) A friction rub posterior to the affected area
ANSWER KEY (c) Crackles over the affected area
1. [a] 2. [d] 3. [c] 4. [b] 5. [d] (d) Decreased sounds over the involved area
6. [a] 7. [a] 8. [a] 9. [a] 2. Position of the patient while undergoing a
Thoracentesis is?
TUBERCULOSIS (a) Lithotomy position
(b) Upright
1. How long after administering a tuberculin skin
test should the nurse inspect the patient's (c) Prone
injection site? (d) Supine
(a) 1 week 3. Where would the nurse expect to see bloody
(b) 72 hours drainage after chest tube insertion?
(c) 48 hours (a) From the victim's nose
(d) 5 days
(b) From the victim's mouth
2. What is the significance of a positive
(c) From the tube in the upper chest
tuberculin skin test for tuberculosis patient?
(a) The patient has an active infection. (d) From the tube in the lower chest
(b) Antibodies are present in the patient's blood 4. Which assessment finding indicates that air is
(c) The patient is immune to this type of disease. leaking from chest tube insertion site?
(d) The patient needs to be in strict isolation. (a) The tissue appears pale.
3. Which health measure is most important to (b) A Whooshing sound, like a leaking tire, can be
prevent transmitting tuberculosis?
heard
(a) Use HEPA mask by patient.
(c) The skin crackles when touched and rapid
(b) Wash your hands after dispose cough with
paper tissue. bubbling in water seal bottle.
(c) Cover your nose and mouth when coughing (d) Intermittent bubbling in water seal bottle.
-:: 80 ::-
5. Which nursing action is most appropriate 2. Which of the following nursing action is essential
before transporting the patient for X-rays before suctioning the patient with a tracheostomy
where the chest tubes and water-seal tube?
(a) Pre oxygenating the patient
drainage system are still in place?
(b) Moistening the catheter
(a) Clamp the chest tubes before leaving the
(c) Cleaning around the stoma
room. (d) Removing the inner cannula
(b) Keep the drainage system below the insertion 3. When suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy,
sites. when is the best time to occlude the vent on the
(c) Attach a portable suction machine to the chest suction catheter? (a) Before inserting the catheter
tubes. (b) When inside the inner cannula
(d) Provide mechanical ventilation during transport. (c) While withdrawing the catheter
(d) When the patient begins coughing
6. What is the best method for determining the 4. When suctioning the airway of a patient with a
amount of drainage from a chest tube when a tracheostomy, the nurse applies suction for no
closed water-seal system is used? (a) Empty the longer than how many seconds?
collection chamber, and measure the volume. (a) 5 to 7 (b) 10 to 12
(b) Subtract the patient's fluid intake from drainage (c) 15 to 20 (d) 25 to 30
output. 5. While withdrawing the suction catheter from a
(c) In still sterile irrigation solution, and measure the patient's tracheostomy tube, which of the following
nursing technique is correct?
drainage.
(a) Remove the catheter slowly.
(d) Subtract the previously marked volume from the
(b) Pinch and pull the catheter.
current amount.
(c) Plunge the catheter up and down.
7. Which of the following is most important for the
(d) Twist and rotate the catheter.
nurse to observation by the nurse just after the
6. What is the best to determine whether a patient
Thoracentesis? with a tracheostomy is becoming hypoxemic during
(a) Signs of infection suctioning?
(b) Expectoration of blood (a) Monitoring level of consciousness
(c) Increased breath sounds (b) Assessing skin colour and temperature
(d) Decreased respiratory rate (c) Watching pulse oximetry levels
8. Which of the following important signs would (d) Counting the respiratory rate
indicate the presence of a pneumothorax? 7. Which of the following nursing care is correct when
(a) A low respiratory rate performing the patient's tracheostomy care?
(b) Diminished breath sounds (a) Cut gauze square to fit around the patient's stoma
(c) The presence of a barrel chest (b) Secure the ties at the back of the patient's neck.
(d) A sucking sound at the site of injury (c) Attach new ties before removing old ones.
9. The nurse should wear which of the following (d) Replace the Cannula after changing the ties.
protective items wear when performing bed bath 8. What is the advantage of using a cuffed
to an immobilized client with tuberculosis? tracheostomy tube on the patient?
(a) Surgical mask, gown, and protective eyewear (a) The cuff prevents skin breakdown.
(b) Particulate respirator, gown, and gloves (b) The cuff prevents aspiration.
(c) Particulate respirator and protective eyewear (c) The cuff is more comfortable.
(d) Surgical mask and gloves (d) The cuff reduces infection.
9. A nurse is suctioning fluids from a client through a
ANSWER KEY
tracheostomy tube. During the suctioning
1. [d] 2. [b] 3. [d] 4. [c] 5. [b] procedure, the nurses observe bradycardia. Which
6. [d] 7. [b] 8. [b] 9. [b] of the following is the appropriate nursing
intervention?
(a) Continue to suction.
TRACHEOSTOMY (b) Notify the physician immediately.
(c) Stop the procedure and reoxygenate the client.
1. Which assessment finding best indicates that the (d) Ensure that the suction is limited to 15 seconds.
nurse needs to suction the tracheostomy? ANSWER KEY
(a) Respirations are low. 1. [c] 2. [a] 3. [c] 4. [b] 5. [d]
(b) Pulse rate is slow. 6. [c] 7. [c] 8. [b] 9. [c]
(c) Breath sounds are noisy.
(d) Blood pressure is elevated
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MUSCULO SKELETAL SYSTEM 7. Which of the following part of the body should
the nurse instruct the patient to place weight
CRUTCH WALKING & TOTAL HIP during crutch walking who had arthroscopic
REPLACEMENT surgery of the knee?
1. Which of the following principle should the (a) The Axillary region
nurse Mira consider during assisting a patient (b) Palms of the hands
with crutches to learn the four-point gait? (c) Dorsal surface of palm
(a) Pressure on the Axilla may damage nerves in (d) Both lower extremities
the area. 8. How should the nurse position the affected hip
(b) Elbows should be kept in rigid extension. after the client undergoes a total hip
(c) The patient must be able to bear weight on replacement?
both legs. (a) Adduct the hip (b) Flex the hip
(d) Option A and C (c) Abduct the hip (d) Extend the hip
2. Which of the following instruction given by the 9. Which of the following device is most helpful
nurses to help a patient for walking with to have on hand postoperatively when
crutches? providing nursing care for the patient who is
(a) Use of the trapeze to strengthen the biceps recovering from a total hip replacement?
muscles (a) A bed cradle (b) Lower side rails
(b) Exercise the triceps muscles and wrist (c) An overhead trapeze (d) A
extensors bed board
(c) Exercises with or without weights to 10. What of the following comfort device is best
strengthen the muscles of the upper extremities for preventing external rotation of the
(d) Both B and C operative leg when caring for a patient with a
3. Which of the following position should a nurse total hip replacement?
avoid placing a patient who had surgery for a (a) A turning sheet (b) A trochanter roll
total hip replacement? (c) A footboard (d) A foam mattress
(a) Supine 11. Why the crutches cannot rest up underneath
(b) Semi-Fowler the arm for extra support?
(c) Orthopneic (a) Patient cannot move with crutches
(d) Lateral (b) Injury to the brachial plexus nerves
4. Which of the following nursing activity should (c) Skin breakdown in the area of the Axilla
be help to prevent thrombus formation in a (d) A fall and further injury
patient who had a total hip replacement?
(a) Pacing the patient in sitting position ANSWER KEY
(b) Encouraging the patient to perform ankle 1. [d] 2. [d] 3. [c] 4. [b] 5. [b]
exercises 6. [a] 7. [b] 8. [c] 9. [c] 10. [b]
(c) Turning the patient from side to side 11. [b]
(d) Ambulating the patient just after surgery
5. Which of the following priority for observe the GOUT
haemorrhage when a nurse is caring for a 1. Which of the following medication does the
patient who had a total hip replacement? nurse anticipate to prescribe to prevent and
(a) Checking pulse of patient every hours treat an acute attack of gout?
(b) Examining the bedding under the patient (a) Probenecid
(c) Observing for ecchymosis at the operative site (b) Colchicine’s
(d) Measuring the weight of patient (c) Diclofenac sodium
6. Which of the following complication should (d) Hydrocortisone
the nurse conclude for a client who had a total 2. Which of the following foods avoid with gout
hip replacement 24 hours ago? patient to limit painful attacks?
(a) Fat embolism (a) Cheese
(b) Urinary incontinence (b) Banana
(c) Hypovolemic shock (c) Egg
(d) Pulmonary embolism (d) Shellfish
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3. Which of the following laboratory test (a) Elevated the residual limb on a pillow.
typically validate a diagnosis of gout? (b) Provide semi fowler position
(a) Creatinine clearance (c) Turn the patient to the prone position
routinely.
(b) Blood urea nitrogen
(d) Encourage the patient to lying on the
(c) Calcium
unaffected side.
(d) Serum uric acid 5. A patient has a hip replacement. Which of the
4. Which of the following body part is usually following clinical assessment indicate of
affected by gout? pulmonary embolism except?
(a) Wrist joints (a) Elevation rate of respiration
(b) Index finger (b) Unilateral chest pain
(c) Sacrococcygeal vertebrae (c) Flushing of the face
(d) Great toe (d) Sudden onset of shortness of breath
5. Which of the following laboratory values 6. Which of the following advice given by the
assess by nurse in a patient who diagnosed as nurse to a patient who is allowed out of bed
gout? after an above the-knee amputation?
(a) Phosphorus level of 3.2 mg/dl (a) Do not follow doctor's order
(b) Uric acid level of 8.6 mg/dl (b) Lift the patient hip to the affected side
(c) Potassium level of 3.7 mEq/L (c) Keep the hip raised with the residual limb
(d) Calcium level of 9.2 mg/dl elevated
(d) Keep the hip in extension and alignment.
ANSWER KEY 7. Which of the following crutch gait should the
1. [b] 2. [d] 3. [d] 4. [d] 5. [b] nurse advice to the patient after a single-leg
amputation?
(a) Three-point
AMPUTATION
(b) Four-point
1. Which of the following least nursing intervention (c) Tripod
initially should receive by a patient who
(d) Swing-through
experiences a traumatic amputation of a leg in a
8. A patient with diabetes mellitus has had a left
vehicle accident?
(a) Educate about residual limb care
below-knee amputation. Which of the
(b) Maintaining the compression dressing following specific signs observe by nurse
(c) Monitoring Haematocrit value because of the history of diabetes?
(d) Using therapeutic communication techniques (a) Slight redness of the incision area
2. A patient has an amputation of a lower limb. Which (b) Edema of the amputation site
of the following instructions should the nurse give (c) Haemorrhage
the patient to prevent a hip flexion contracture? (d) Wound evisceration
(a) Sit in a chair for 60 minutes twice times a day.
(b) Turn from side to side every 1 to 2 hours.
ANSWER KEY
(c) Lie on the abdomen 30 minutes four to six times
daily.
1. [a] 2. [c] 3. [c] 4. [c] 5. [c]
(d) Perform muscle setting exercises thrice daily. 6. [d] 7. [a] 8. [d]
3. Which of the following nursing measurement FRACTURE, SPLINT & TRACTION

is needed to control edema of the residual limb
to a patient after above the-knee amputation? 1. A patient is admitted in patient unit with a
(a) Restrict the sodium intake. fracture of the neck of the femur. Which of the
following position should the nurse maintain
(b) Administer the osmotic diuretic
(c) Apply the elastic bandage as necessary. the patient's affected extremity?
(d) Residual limb should be elevated on a pillow. (a) External rotation with flexion of the knee and
4. Which of the following priority should the hip
(b) Internal rotation with flexion of the knee and
nurse use to promote early and efficient
ambulation after a patient has a mid-thigh hip
amputation? (c) Internal rotation with extension of the knee
and hip
-:: 83 ::-
(d) External rotation with extension of knee and 9. Which of the following emergency measures,
hip should the nurse perform first in a road side
2. Which of the following clinical finding should accident patient care?
the nurse expect when assessing a patient (a) Check the client breathing.
with a fracture of the neck of the femur? (b) Assess the client for injuries.
(a) Adduction with internal rotation (c) Move the patient to the stretcher.
(b) Shortening of the affected extremity with (d) Cover the injured site with a bandage.
external rotation 10. Which of the following assessment finding is
(c) Increase the size of affected extremity the best indication that the patient is
(d) Abduction with external rotation experiencing secondary complications from
3. Which of the following type of contracture the fractured ribs?
expected by nurse with a patient who has hip (a) Coughing up pink, frothy sputum
fractured? (b) Asymmetrical chest expansion
(a) Flexion of the hip (c) Expiratory wheezing on auscultation
(b) Externally rotation of the hip (d) Arrhythmia
(c) Hyperextension of the hip 11. The nurse sees a bone fragment protruding
(d) Both Option A and B from the patient's thigh as well as profuse
4. Where should the nurse begin applying the bleeding from the wound. Which technique is
elastic bandage when a patient has severely most appropriate to control the bleeding?
sprain in ankle? (a) Elevate the injured extremity.
(b) Apply direct pressure on the wound.
(a) Above the ankle
(c) Compress the femoral artery.
(b) Below the knee
(d) Place a tourniquet around the leg.
(c) Across the phalanges 12. Which of the following is the most preferred
(d) At the metatarsals position when transporting a victim with a
5. Which is the best technique for applying the possible back injury?
elastic bandage to the patient's lower (a) Prone
extremity when a patient has sprain in ankle? (b) Side-lying
(c) Supine and rolling
(a) Figure-eight bandage
(d) Semi-Fowler's
(b) Mitten bandage 13. Which of the following risk factor most
(c) Spiral-reverse bandage significant for sustaining a hip fracture?
(d) Spica bandage (a) The patient is postmenopausal.
6. A patient has fracture of the tibia. To (b) The patient has type B diabetes.
immobilize the fractured part, how should the (c) The patient who is obese.
nurse apply a splint? (d) The patient is bed ridden.
(a) Above the knee to below the hip 14. Which of the following diet would the nurse
(b) Below the knee to above the hip encourage for the patient with immobility due
(c) Above the ankle to below the knee to the fractured hip?
(d) Below the ankle to above the knee (a) Potassium rich diet (b) Carbohydrate diet
7. Which of the following explanation correct by (c) Protein rich diet (d) Fat rich diet
nurse about comminuted fracture of the distal 15. What is the purpose of Antiembolism
tibia? stockings used for patient after surgery?
(a) One bone end is driven into the other. (a) Antiembolism stockings prevent blood from
(b) There is no open break in the skin. pooling in the legs.
(c) The bone is splintered into pieces.
(b) Antiembolism stockings keep the blood
(d) A portion of the bone is split away.
8. Which of the following findings suggest that vessels constricted
the patient is developing fat embolism (c) Antiembolism stockings keep the blood
syndrome except? pressure lower in the legs.
(a) Bradycardia (b) Petechiae (d) Antiembolism stockings reduce blood flow to
(c) Dyspnea (d) Mental status changes the extremities.
-:: 84 ::-
16. How should the nurse position the chair to 22. which of the following equipment should the
facilitate transferring the patient from the nurse anticipate needing to facilitate the
bed? client's bowel elimination after apply hip Spica
cast is used to immobilize and promote
(a) Perpendicular to the bed
healing of a hip joint or fractured femur?
(b) At the end of the bed
(a) Raised toilet seat
(c) Parallel with the bed (b) Mechanical lift
(d) Away from bed (c) Fracture bedpan
17. When preparing the patient for cast (d) Bedside commode
application, which of the following statement 23. Which of the following assessment finding
by the nurse is most accurate? suggests that the patient in the hip spica cast
may be developing cast syndrome?
(a) You may feel itchy while the cast is wet.
(a) Abdominal distention and abdominal pain
(b) You will feel warm as the wet plaster sets. (b) The patient becomes Hypotensive.
(c) You will feel a foul odour until the cast is dry. (c) The patient becomes confused.
(d) You feel anxiety after plaster is dry. (d) The patient becomes dyspnoeic
18. How can the nurse best support the wet cast 24. Which nursing technique is best when
while the physician wraps the arm with rolls of planning to change the patient's bed linens
when he placed in Buck's traction?
wet plaster?
(a) Do not change the sheet
(a) By using the finger of hands
(b) Apply the linens from the foot to the top of the
(b) By resting it on a firm mattress bed.
(c) By using a restrain (c) Roll the patient from one side of the bed to the
(d) By using the palms of the hands other.
19. After the arm cast has been applied, which (d) Raise the patient from the bed with a
nursing observation is the best indication that mechanical lift.
the patient may be developing compartment 25. Which of the following assessment finding
warrants immediate action by the nurse when
syndrome except?
a patient has Buck's traction?
(a) The fingers develop muscle spasms.
(a) The leg is in line with the pull of the traction.
(b) The patient's hand becomes appear pale.
(b) The traction weights are hanging above the
(c) The patient experiences severe pain.
Floor.
(d) The radial pulse feels weak or absent. (c) The rope is in the groove of the traction pulley.
20. Which of the following is the highest priority (d) The patient's foot is touching the end of the
when planning care of a patient with bed.
permanent paraplegia? 26. Which of the following technique is the best
(a) Teaching the patient about prevention of skin for assessing circulation in the leg when a
breakdown patient has Buck's traction?
(b) Avoided rehabilitation to the patient (a) Check temperature of patient four hourly
(c) Strengthening the patient's upper body (b) Palpate for pulsation of the Dorsalis pedis
muscles artery.
(d) Letting the patient verbalize about the (c) Take the patient's blood pressure with
accident popliteal artery
21. Which of the following is the best method to (d) Observe whether the patient can wiggle or
assess circulation in the casted extremity? move the toes.
27. To prevent skin breakdown while the patient
(a) Ask the patient to wiggle the fingers.
is placed in Russell's traction, the nurse must
(b) Depress the patient's nail beds, and document inspect the skin in which of the following area?
the time it takes for the colour to return. (a) Near the iliac spine
(c) Inserts a finger between the cast. (b) In the popliteal space
(d) Ask to patient about deep breathing (c) Over the ischial spines
(d) At the metacarpal area
-:: 85 ::-
28. Which of the following necessary for the 34. What is the expectation by nurse when a
effectiveness of Russell's traction except? patient do not get relief in closed fracture pain
(a) Traction weights must hang freely above the by The nurse elevates the limb, applies an ice
floor for effective use.
bag, and administers an analgesic ?
(b) The patient's foot should not touch the end of
(a) Pain may be caused by the recent occurrence
the bed.
(c) The rope is knotted at the location of a pulley. of the fracture
(d) The weight is about 61 cm from the floor. (b) Pain may be caused the anxiety of the patient
29. Which of the following observation requires (c) Pain may be caused impaired tissue perfusion
the nurse's immediate attention when a (d) Pain may be caused Infection under the cast
cervical halter type of skin traction is applied 35. What is the nursing intervention when a
to a patient?
patient has a leg fracture and had a plaster
(a) The weight hangs between the headboard and
wall. cast applied?
(b) The patient's ears are clear of the traction (a) Elevate the leg for 2 hours and put it flat for 12
ropes. hour.
(c) The halter rests under the patient's chin and (b) Keep the leg in a level position.
Occiput. (c) Keep the leg level for 2 hours and elevate it for
(d) There is a soft pillow beneath the patient's
30 minute.
head
(d) Elevate the leg on pillows continuously for 24
30. Which material added by the nurse is best for
covering the tips of the pin to prevent injuries to 48 hours.
while the patient is in skeletal leg traction? 36. Which of the following is an early symptom of
(a) Gauze and Cotton balls compartment syndrome when a patient has
(b) Sand bags arm cast?
(c) Cork blocks (a) Pain during coughing
(d) Rubber tubes
(b) Pain that increases when the arm is
31. Which of the following finding is the best
dependent
indication that the patient has an infection at
skeletal traction at the pin site? (c) Numbness and tingling in the fingers
(a) Mucoid drainage at the pin site (d) Cold, bluish-coloured fingers
(b) Bloody drainage at the pin site
(c) Serous drainage at the pin site ANSWER KEY
(d) Purulent drainage at the pin site 1. [c] 2. [b] 3. [d] 4. [d] 5. [a]
32. Which of the following nursing observation 6. [d] 7. [c] 8. [a] 9. [a] 10. [b]
provides the best indication that the halo 11. [c] 12. [c] 13. [a] 14. [c] 15. [a]
cervical traction device is applied 16. [c] 17. [b] 18. [d] 19. [a] 20. [c]
appropriately? 21. [b] 22. [c] 23. [a] 24. [b] 25. [d]
(a) The client has full range of motion in the 26. [b] 27. [b] 28. [c] 29. [d] 30. [c]
(b) The client's neck pain is within a tolerable 31. [d] 32. [c] 33. [b] 34. [c] 35. [d]
level.
36. [c]
(c) The client reports the ability to see straight
ahead
(d) The patient can feel comfort
33. A nurse is evaluating the pin sites of a patient
in skeletal traction. The nurse would be least
concerned with which of the following
findings?
(a) Inflammation
(b) Serous drainage
(c) Purulent drainage
(d) Pain at a pin site
-:: 86 ::-
7. What is the appropriate about increase the
RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
counter traction in a patient who has hip
1. Which nursing action a nurse should avoid fracture?
when caring for a patient with a newly applied (a) Restraint the patient
long leg cast? (b) Increase weight to the traction
(a) Elevating the cast on a pillow (c) Elevating the foot of the bed uses gravity and
(b) Drying the cast exposed to natural air the patient's weight for counter traction.
(c) Drying the cast by using a bed cradle (d) Elevate the waist of the patient
(d) Handling the cast with fingertips 8. Which of the following important
2. Which of the following is best initial response characteristics of the pedal pulses?
by nurse when a patient discomfort and asks (a) Local temperature and visible pulsations
the nurse to release the traction? (b) Colour of skin and rhythm
(a) I cannot remove because the weights are (c) Amplitude (quality) and symmetry
needed to keep the bone aligned" (d) Body balance and vertigo
(b) I will remove half of the weights and notify 9. Which of the following laboratory test help in
your health care provider. diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?
(c) I have to follow the physician directions, and (a) Alkaline Phosphatase
releasing weights is not ordered (b) Bence Jones protein
(d) Nurse give prescribed pain medication to (c) Antinuclear antibody
patient (d) Amylase test
3. Which of the following assessment where 10. Which of the following nursing intervention
nurse should contact to physician during care should be preventing deformities in a patient
a patient with a long leg cast? with rheumatoid arthritis?
(a) Prolonged capillary refilling test (a) Bracing of joints
(b) Swelling of the toes (b) Massage the joints
(c) Drainage and Foul odour from the plaster cast (c) Active exercise
(d) Both Option A and B (d) Isometric exercises
4. Which of the following nursing intervention 11. Which of the following joints affect in
prevent contractures of the joints of the lower osteoarthritis?
extremities in a patient with paraplegia (a) Knees joints
(b) Hips joints
except?
(c) Distal inter phalangeal joints
(a) Using supportive devices to maintain
alignment 12. What is the use of hydrocortisone injected into
(b) Changing the patient's position every hour the knee joint of a patient who diagnosed as
(c) Providing the patient with active exercise rheumatoid arthritis?
instructions (a) Reduce joint fever of patient
(d) Performing passive range-of-motion exercises (b) Reduce inflammation
(c) Provide Lubrication to the joint
several times daily
(d) Prevent risk of fracture
5. What is the use of tilt table when a patient who
13. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis, may have
has been immobilized? following symptoms except?
(a) Prevent loss of calcium from long bones. (a) Boutonniere deformity
(b) Prevent orthostatic hypotension. (b) Heber den nodes
(c) Maintain circulation to the skin. (c) Swan neck deformity
(d) Both Option A and B (d) Ulnar drift
14. What is the commonest time where patient
6. What is the purpose of the traction?
experience maximum pain with rheumatoid
(a) Relieve muscle spasm and pain
arthritis?
(b) Increase further complication after fracture
(a) In the morning on awakening
(c) Prevent contractures from developing
(b) During passive exercise
(d) Maintain the limb in an external rotation
(c) Cold applications on joint increase pain
(d) When the latex fixation test is positive
-:: 87 ::-
15. Which of the following nursing action to
prevent deformities of the knee in a patient ONCOLOGY
with an exacerbation of arthritis? 1. Which of the following serum level should the
(a) Encourage Range of motion exercise of the nurse have to monitor to identify cancer
joint follow a patient diagnosis of prostate?
(b) Maintain joints in functional alignment during (a) Increased blood urea nitrogen
(b) Prostate-specific antigen
resting time.
(c) Troponin
(c) Immobilize the joint. (d) Non protein nitrogen
(d) Both A and B 2. the most likely clinical feature of the prostate
16. Which of the following laboratory test value cancer?
diagnostic indicator of rheumatoid arthritis? (a) Edema
(a) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (b) Urge to void
(c) Retention
(b) Blood urea nitrogen
(d) Polyuria
(c) Fasting blood sugar
3. Which of the following is an early-warning sign
(d) Partial thromboplastin time of lungs cancer?
17. Which of the following appropriate nursing (a) Difficulty swallowing
action for administer aspirin to a patient? (b) Gradual weight loss
(a) Give aspirin with hot coffee. (c) Persistent cough
(b) Give aspirin Give aspirin with cold water. (d) Coughing up blood
4. A patient is scheduled for a dilation and
(c) Give aspirin before meals only.
curettage, which nursing observation is most
(d) Give aspirin with food or meals.
important to note for this patient? (a) The
18. Which finger joints would the nurse expect to patient's pelvic pain is relieved
be most affected by the rheumatoid arthritis? (b) The patient can empty her bladder
(a) Proximal finger joints (c) The patient can eat without nausea
(b) Lateral finger joints (d) The patient's perineal pad has been changed
(c) Medial finger joints 5. Which of the following finding in a patient
indicates the highest risk for cervical cancer?
(d) Distal finger joints
(a) Spontaneous abortion at age 36 years
19. Which of the following assessment finding
(b) Onset of menstruation at age 12 years
would the nurse consider a likely adverse (c) Human papilloma virus infection at age 26
effect of the patient's Methotrexate therapy? years
(a) Constipation (d) Maternal history of breast cancer
(b) Chest pain 6. Which of the following nursing interventions
should be included in the care plan when a
(c) Mouth sores
patient is receiving internal radiation therapy
(d) Polyuria
for treatment of cervical cancer except?
20. Which of the following assessment finding is (a) Maintain the patient on strict bed rest.
the best indication of aspirin toxicity? (b) Stand at a distance and talk with the patient
(a) Dizziness from the door.
(b) Ringing in the ears (c) Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees.
(c) Orange red colour of urine (d) Spend as little time as possible with the
patient.
(d) Proteinuria
7. If the nurse finds the radioactive on the
ANSWER KEY
patient's bed, which nursing action is most
1. [d] 2. [a] 3. [d] 4. [c] 5. [d] appropriate?
6. [a] 7. [c] 8. [c] 9. [c] 10. [c] (a) Return it to the nuclear medicine department.
11. [d] 12. [b] 13. [b] 14. [a] 15. [d] (b) Reinsert it immediately.
16. [a] 17. [d] 18. [a] 19. [c] 20. [b] (c) Discard it in the infectious waste receptacle.
(d) Place it in a lead container.
-:: 88 ::-
8. Which of the following precaution provides the 3. Tumor of blood vessel of brain is:
best protection for the nurse while handling (a) Astrocytoma (b) Glioma
the radioactive implant? (c) Meningioma (d) Haemangioma
(a) Washing hands before putting on vinyl gloves 4. Cancer of epithelial tissue is called
(b) Putting on sterile vinyl gloves (a) Hodgkin's disease (b) Carcinoma
(c) Using long-handled forceps to handle the (c) Sarcoma (d) Leukaemia
implant 5. Nursing responsibilities for either external or
(d) Enclosing the implant in a glass jar internal radiation therapy include:
9. Which staff nurse is best suited to care for a (a) Provide emotional support
patient with a radioactive implant? (b) Carefully assess and manage any
(a) A male nurse with oncology nursing complications, in collaboration with the radiation
experience oncologist
(b) A female nurse who has had a hysterectomy (c) Assist in documenting the results of therapy
(c) A male nurse whose wife died of cancer (d) All the above
(d) A female nurse who has breast cancer herself 6. the most likely side effect of external radiation
10. Which of the following information is essential to the neck for cancer of larynx is:
to accurately determine the dosage of (a) Constipation (b) Dyspnea
antineoplastic drugs? (c) Sore throat (d) Diarrhoea
(a) Urine output for the past 24 hours 7. Malignant malaria is caused by
(b) Body weight and height (a) Plasmodium vivax
(c) Allergies from drugs (b) Plasmodium ovale
(d) Date of surgery (c) Plasmodium falciparum
11. Which of the following laboratory test is most (d) Plasmodium malaria
important to monitor for patient safety while 8. The goal on nursing care for a client with acute
a Patient is taking antineoplastic drugs? myeloid-leukaemia is to prevent:
(a) Skin colour (a) Renal failure (b) Haemorrhage
(b) Differential cell count (c) Cardiac arrhythmia (d) Liver failure
(c) Total leukocyte count 9. Principles underlying radio therapy is:
(d) Complete blood count (a) Malignant cells are more sensitive radiation
12. Which of the following nursing precaution is than normal cells
best for preventing accidental self-absorption (b) Resistance to normal cells is increased
of the antineoplastic drug? (c) Radiation may cause metastasis
(a) Dilute the drug with dextrose solution. (d) Radiation kills the organisms
(b) Wear disposable examination gloves. 10. A patient is admitted with a suspected bladder
(c) Use only prefilled syringes. cancer a nurse assesses the patient for which
(d) Mix the drug in a closed vial. of the following earliest manifestation of the
ANSWER KEY disease?
1. [b] 2. [c] 3. [c] 4. [b] 5. [c] (a) Proteinuria and dysuria
6. [c] 7. [d] 8. [c] 9. [b] 10. [b] (b) Haematuria and no pain
11. [d] 12. [b] (c) Painful urinations and haematuria
❑❑❑ (d) Pyuria and palpable abdominal mass
1. All the following cancers have infective 11. When disposing plastic bags, tubing’s,
etiology except syringes and gloves used to administer
(a) Kaposi's sarcoma antineoplastic drugs, the nurse should
(b) Squamous carcinoma of penis implement which nursing intervention?
(c) Squamous carcinoma of lung (a) Avoiding contact with the equipment by
(d) Burkett’s lymphoma allowing housekeeping to remove it!
2. Which one of the following cancer does not (b) Discarding all used equipment in a container
metastasize commonly to liver? marked "Isolation"
(a) Prostate (c) Dispose all equipment in a container marked
(b) Breast “Bio health Hazard"
(c) Lung (d) Disposing all used equipment in the regular
(d) Colon trash receptacles
-:: 89 ::-
12. Disorders like Cancer, CHD, Schizophrenia, 21. Features of brain stem being affected during
IHD, Mental retardations are examples of: the surgical removal of brain tumour is
(a) Unifactoral disorders (a) Inability to swallow
(b) Multifactorial disorders (b) Elevated temperature
(c) Chromosomal disorders (c) Altered hearing ability
(d) Genetic disorders (d) Orthostatic hypotension
13. Benign skin tumours include the following 22. The commonest cause of death in women with
I. Warts cancer cervix is:
II. Angiomas (a) Septicaemia (b) Renal failure
III. Kaposi's sarcoma (c) Haemorrhage (d) Cachexia
IV. Keloids 23. Exposure to sun without appropriate
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV protection may cause
(c) I, II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV (a) Skin Cancer (b) Blood Cancer
14. A client taking cyclophosphamides (Cytoxan) (c) Bone Cancer (d) Mouth Cancer
for treatment of lymphoma. The nurse should 24. Primary prevention for cervical cancer include
be very cautious in administering the except
medication because this drug pores the fatal (a) Raising the age of marriage
side effect of (b) Use of condom during early intercourse
(a) Haemorrhagic cyst (c) Effective therapy of STDs
(b) Alopecia (d) Radiotherapy
(c) Myeloma 25. A predisposing factor for oral cancer
(d) Central nervous system toxicity (a) Tabaco use (b) Taking hot fluids
15. Radioactive cobalt and radium are used for the (c) Taking cold fluids (d) Taking spicy food
treatment of diseases. 26. Cigarette smoking can cause which of the
(a) Sickle cell anaemia (b) Cholera following cancer
(c) Haemophilia (d) Cancer (a) Stomach cancer (b) Lungs cancer
16. Of the following, which is the most common (c) Blood cancer (d) Bone cancer
site for metastasis in lung cancer? 27. Staging of cervical cancer is primarily based
(a) Spleen (b) Kidney (a) Severity of symptoms (b) Age of female
(c) Stomach (d) Liver (c) Clinical examination (d) All of the Above
17. Which of the following symptoms is most 28. The most common area for finding cancer in
characteristic of a patient with a cancer of the women is the:
lung? (a) Ovaries (b) Fallopian tubes
(a) Persistent or intense coughing (c) Cervix (d) Urinary bladder
(b) Air hunger 29. A primary risk factor for development of
(c) Exertion Dyspnea cancer larynx is:
(d) Cough with night sweats (a) Chronic allergy
18. A client is receiving chemotherapy with (b) Chewing Tobacco
several antineoplastic agents. The side effects (c) Exposure to dusty environment
of chemotherapy is: (d) Smoking
(a) Slow slurred speech 30. Which one of the following in food can
(b) Increased leukocytes on CBC increase the risk of cancer?
(c) Gingivitis and oral cancer (a) High fat (b) High carbohydrate
(d) Sinus dysrhythmias bradycardia (c) Low CHO (d) Low protein
19. Which of the following is a risk factor for ANSWER KEY
development of breast cancer? 1. [c] 2. [a] 3. [d] 4. [b] 5. [d]
(a) Early first pregnancy (b) Late menarche 6. [c] 7. [c] 8. [b] 9. [a] 10.[b]
(c) Early menopause (d) No pregnancies 11. [c] 12. [b] 13. [c] 14. [a] 15. [d]
20. Small painful nodes on fingers and toes called 16. [d] 17. [a] 18. [c] 19. [d] 20. [d]
osier's nodes are seen in: 21. [b] 22. [c] 23. [a] 24. [d] 25. [a]
(a) Myocarditis (b) Cardiomyopathy 26. [b] 27. [c] 28. [c] 29. [d] 30. [d]
(c) Pericarditis (d) Infective endocarditis ❑❑❑
-:: 90 ::-
1. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results 6. The nurse is caring for a client who is
of a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma. postoperative following a pelvic exenteration,
Which would the nurse expect to note and the surgeon changes the client’s diet from
NPO (nothing by mouth) status to clear
specifically in this disorder?
liquids. The nurse should check which priority
(a) Increased calcium level
item before administering the diet?
(b) Increased white blood cells (a) Bowel sounds
(c) Decreased blood urea nitrogen level (b) Ability to ambulate
(d) Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone (c) Incision appearance
marrow (d) Urine specific gravity
2. The nurse is creating a plan of care for the 7. A client is admitted to the hospital with a
suspected diagnosis of Hodgkin’s disease.
client with multiple myeloma and includes
Which assessment finding would the nurse
which priority intervention in the plan? expect to note specifically in the client?
(a) Encouraging fluids (a) Fatigue
(b) Providing frequent oral care (b) Weakness
(c) Coughing and deep breathing (c) Weight gain
(d) Monitoring the red blood cell count (d) Enlarged lymph nodes
8. During the admission assessment of a client
3. While giving care to a client with an internal
with advanced ovarian cancer, the nurse
cervical radiation implant, the nurse finds the
recognizes which manifestation as typical of
implant in the bed. The nurse should take the disease?
which initial action? (a) Diarrhea
(a) Call the primary health care provider (PHCP). (b) Hypermenorrhoea
(b) Reinsert the implant into the vagina. (c) Abnormal bleeding
(c) Pick up the implant with gloved hands and (d) Abdominal distention
9. A client who has been receiving radiation
flush it down the toilet.
therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that
(d) Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps
it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina.
and place it in a lead container.
The nurse interprets that the client may be
4. The nurse should plan to implement which
experiencing which condition?
intervention in the care of a client
(a) Rupture of the bladder
experiencing neutropenia as a result of
(b) The development of a vesicovaginal fistula
chemotherapy?
(c) Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of
(a) Restrict all visitors.
cancer
(b) Restrict fluid intake.
(d) Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of
(c) Teach the client and family about the need for
radiation therapy
hand hygiene.
10. The nurse is instructing a client to perform a
(d) Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to
testicular self-examination (TSE). The nurse
prevent skin breakdown.
should provide the client with which
5. The home health care nurse is caring for a
client with cancer who is complaining of acute information about the procedure?
pain. The most appropriate determination of (a) To examine the testicles while lying down
the client’s pain should include which (b) That the best time for the examination is after
assessment? a shower
(a) The client’s pain rating (c) To gently feel the testicle with one finger to
(b) Nonverbal cues from the client
feel for a growth
(c) The nurse’s impression of the client’s pain
(d) That TSEs should be done at least every 6
(d) Pain relief after appropriate nursing
intervention months
-:: 91 ::-
11. A gastrectomy is performed on a client with 16. The nurse is assessing a client who has a new
gastric cancer. In the immediate ureterostomy. Which statement by the client
postoperative period, the nurse notes bloody indicates the need for more education about
urinary stoma care?
drainage from the nasogastric tube. The nurse
(a) “I change my pouch every week.”
should take which most appropriate action?
(b) “I change the appliance in the morning.”
(a) Measure abdominal girth. (c) “I empty the urinary collection bag when it is
(b) Irrigate the nasogastric tube. two-thirds full.”
(c) Continue to monitor the drainage. (d) “When I’m in the shower I direct the flow of
(d) Notify the primary health care provider water away from my stoma.”
(PHCP). 17. The nurse is monitoring a client for signs and
symptoms related to superior vena cava
12. The nurse is teaching a client about the risk
syndrome. Which is an early sign of this
factors associated with colorectal cancer. The oncological emergency?
nurse determines that further teaching is (a) Cyanosis
necessary related to colorectal cancer if the (b) Arm edema
client identifies which item as an associated (c) Periorbital edema
risk factor? (d) Mental status changes
18. The nurse manager is teaching the nursing
(a) Age younger than 50 years
staff about signs and symptoms related to
(b) History of colorectal polyps
hypercalcemia in a client with metastatic
(c) Family history of colorectal cancer prostate cancer and tells the staff that which
(d) Chronic inflammatory bowel disease is a late sign or symptom of this oncological
13. The nurse is assessing the perineal wound in a emergency?
client who has returned from the operating (a) Headache
room following an abdominal perineal (b) Dysphagia
resection and notes serosanguineous (c) Constipation
drainage from the wound. Which nursing (d) Electrocardiographic changes
intervention is most appropriate? 19. As part of chemotherapy education, the nurse
(a) Clamp the surgical drain. teaches a female client about the risk for
(b) Change the dressing as prescribed. bleeding and self-care during the period of
(c) Notify the surgeon. greatest bone marrow suppression (the
(d) Remove and replace the perineal packing. nadir). The nurse understands that further
14. The nurse is assessing the colostomy of a client teaching is needed if the client makes which
who has had an abdominal perineal resection statement?
for a bowel tumor. Which assessment finding (a) “I should avoid blowing my nose.”
(b) “I may need a platelet transfusion if my
indicates that the colostomy is beginning to
platelet count is too low.”
function?
(c) “I’m going to take aspirin for my headache as
(a) The passage of flatus soon as I get home.”
(b) Absent bowel sounds (d) “I will count the number of pads and tampons
(c) The client’s ability to tolerate food I use when menstruating.”
(d) Bloody drainage from the colostomy 20. The community health nurse is instructing a
15. The nurse is reviewing the history of a client group of young female clients about breast
self-examination. The nurse should instruct
with bladder cancer. The nurse expects to note
the clients to perform the examination at
documentation of which most common sign or which time?
symptom of this type of cancer? (a) At the onset of menstruation
(a) Dysuria (b) Every month during ovulation
(b) Hematuria (c) Weekly at the same time of day
(c) Urgency on urination (d) One week after menstruation begins
(d) Frequency of urination
-:: 92 ::-
21. The nurse is caring for a client following a 26. A client with acute myelocytic leukemia is
mastectomy. Which nursing intervention being treated with busulfan. Which laboratory
would assist in preventing lymphedema of the value would the nurse specifically monitor
affected arm? during treatment with this medication?
(a) Placing cool compresses on the affected arm (a) Clotting time
(b) Elevating the affected arm on a pillow above (b) Uric acid level
heart level (c) Potassium level
(c) Avoiding arm exercises in the immediate (d) Blood glucose level
postoperative period 27. A client with small cell lung cancer is being
(d) Maintaining an intravenous site below the treated with etoposide. The nurse monitors
antecubital area on the affected side the client during administration, knowing that
22. The nurse is instructing a client with iron which adverse effect is specifically associated
deficiency anemia regarding the with this medication?
administration of a liquid oral iron (a) Alopecia
supplement. Which instruction should the (b) Chest pain
nurse tell the client? (c) Pulmonary fibrosis
(a) Administer the iron at mealtimes. (d) Orthostatic hypotension
(b) Administer the iron through a straw. 28. A clinic nurse prepares a teaching plan for a
(c) Mix the iron with cereal to administer. client receiving an antineoplastic medication.
(d) Add the iron to apple juice for easy When implementing the plan, the nurse
administration. should make which statement to the client?
23. Laboratory studies are performed for a client (a) “You can take aspirin as needed for
suspected to have iron deficiency anemia. The headache.”
nurse reviews the laboratory results, knowing (b) “You can drink beverages containing alcohol
that which result indicates this type of in moderate amounts each evening.”
anemia? (c) “You need to consult with the primary health
(a) Elevated hemoglobin level care provider (PHCP) before receiving
(b) Decreased reticulocyte count immunizations.”
(c) Elevated red blood cell count (d) “It is fine to receive a flu vaccine at the local
(d) Red blood cells that are microcytic and health fair without PHCP approval because the flu
hypochromic is so contagious.”
24. Chemotherapy dosage is frequently based on 29. A client with ovarian cancer is being treated
total body surface area (BSA), so it is with vincristine. The nurse monitors the client,
important for the nurse to perform which knowing that which manifestation indicates
assessment before administering
an adverse effect specific to this medication?
chemotherapy?
(a) Diarrhea
(a) Measure the client’s abdominal girth.
(b) Calculate the client’s body mass index. (b) Hair loss
(c) Measure the client’s current weight and (c) Chest pain
height. (d) Peripheral neuropathy
(d) Ask the client about his or her weight and 30. The nurse is reviewing the history and physical
height. examination of a client who will be receiving
25. A client with squamous cell carcinoma of the
asparaginase, an antineoplastic agent. The
larynx is receiving bleomycin intravenously.
nurse contacts the primary health care
The nurse caring for the client anticipates that
provider before administering the medication
which diagnostic study will be prescribed?
if which disorder is documented in the client’s
(a) Echocardiography
history?
(b) Electrocardiography
(a) Pancreatitis
(c) Cervical radiography
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(d) Pulmonary function studies
(c) Myocardial infarction
(d) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
-:: 93 ::-
31. Tamoxifen citrate is prescribed for a client 35. The nurse is providing medication instructions
with metastatic breast carcinoma. The client to a client with breast cancer who is receiving
asks the nurse if her family member with cyclophosphamide. The nurse should tell the
client to take which action?
bladder cancer can also take this medication.
(a) Take the medication with food.
The nurse most appropriately responds by
(b) Increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily.
making which statement? (c) Decrease sodium intake while taking the
(a) “This medication can be used only to treat medication.
breast cancer.” (d) Increase potassium intake while taking the
(b) “Yes, your family member can take this medication.
medication for bladder cancer as well.” 36. A client with non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is
receiving daunorubicin. Which finding would
(c) “This medication can be taken to prevent and
indicate to the nurse that the client is
treat clients with breast cancer.” experiencing an adverse effect related to the
(d) “This medication can be taken by anyone with medication?
cancer as long as their health care provider (a) Fever
approves it.” (b) Sores in the mouth and throat
32. A client with metastatic breast cancer is (c) Complaints of nausea and vomiting
receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically (d) Crackles on auscultation of the lungs
monitors which laboratory value while the 37. The nurse is monitoring the laboratory results
client is taking this medication? of a client receiving an antineoplastic
(a) Glucose level medication by the intravenous route. The
(b) Calcium level nurse plans to initiate bleeding precautions if
(c) Potassium level which laboratory result is noted?
(d) Prothrombin time (a) A clotting time of 10 minutes
33. Megestrol acetate, an antineoplastic (b) An ammonia level of 10 mcg/dL (6 mcmol/L).
(c) A platelet count of 50,000 mm3 (50 × 109/L)
medication, is prescribed for a client with
(d) A white blood cell count of 5000 mm3 (5.0 ×
metastatic endometrial carcinoma. The nurse
109/L)
reviews the client’s history and should contact
the primary health care provider if which ANSWER KEY
diagnosis is documented in the client’s 1. [a] 2. [a] 3. [d] 4. [c] 5. [a]
history? 6. [a] 7. [d] 8. [d] 9. [b] 10. [b]
(a) Gout 11. [c] 12. [a] 13. [b] 14. [a] 15. [b]
(b) Asthma 16. [c] 17. [c] 18. [d] 19. [c] 20. [d]
21. [b] 22. [b] 23. [d] 24. [c] 25. [d]
(c) Myocardial infarction
26. [b] 27. [d] 28. [c] 29. [d] 30. [a]
(d) Venous thromboembolism
31. [c] 32. [b] 33. [d] 34. [c] 35. [b]
34. The nurse is analyzing the laboratory results of
36. [d] 37. [c]
a client with leukemia who has received a ❑❑❑
regimen of chemotherapy. Which laboratory
value would the nurse specifically note as a
result of the massive cell destruction that
occurred from the chemotherapy?
(a) Anemia
(b) Decreased platelets
(c) Increased uric acid level
(d) Decreased leukocyte count
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-:: 95 ::-
-:: 96 ::-

1256) Medical Surgical Nursing Medical Surgical Nursing

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MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING

MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING

1. CELL & TISSUE

3. CARDIO VASCULAR SYSTEM

8. SENSORY ORGAN & SKIN INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM

10. MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM

BAR SYNDROME, GBS & SLE 5. A patient with trigeminal neuralgia

3. Which of the following nursing measurement FRACTURE, SPLINT & TRACTION

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