JE ME

DSSSB JE
Mechanical Engg Paper (2019)

Participant ID
Participant Name
Test Center Name Ion Digital Zone IDZ1 Mundka
Test Date 06/11/2019
Test Time 12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Subject JUNIOR ENGINEER MECHANICAL
Section : Mental Ability
Q.1 In the following question, select the odd figure from the given alternatives.
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question ID : 54592780010
Q.2 A is father of B. B is son of Z. Z is mother of S. S is father of K. How is B related to K?

Ans 1. Father
2. Son
3. Grandson
4. Uncle
Q.3 A series is given with one term wrong. Select that wrong term from the given alternatives.
PQ, RO, TM, UJ, XI, ZG

Ans 1. TM
2. UJ
3. ZG
4. XI
Q.4 A team of 5 members is to be selected from A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. A and B can only be

selected together. C cannot be selected with E and E cannot be selected with H. Which of
the following in a valid team selection?
I. A, B, C, H, G
II. A, B, E, F, H
III. C, D, F, G, H
Ans 1. II and III
2. I and III
3. I, II and III
4. I and II
Q.5 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
NS : MT :: AB : ?
Ans 1. ZC
2. BA
3. BC
4. ZA
Q.6 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions
based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of
the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements:
I. All A are B.
II. No B is C.
III. All B are D.
Conclusions:
I. Some A are C.
II. Some D are A.
III. No D is C.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion follow
2. Only conclusion III follows
3. Only conclusion I follows
4. Only conclusion II follows
Q.7 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 7
2. 8
3. 9
4. 6
Q.8 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the
given figure?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.9 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions
based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of
the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements:
I. All X are Y.
II. All Y are Z.
Conclusions:
I. Some Z are X.
II. All X are Z.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows
2. Only conclusion I follows
3. Neither I nor II
4. Both conclusion I and II follows
Q.10 In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.
Ans 1. Bat – Play
2. Pen – Write
3. Travel – Car
4. Water – Drink
Q.11 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
43 : 78 :: 136 : ?
Ans 1. 167
2. 171
3. 173
4. 169
Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘PEN’ is written as ‘35’, ‘TOM’ is written as ‘48’. What is the code
for ‘CAL’ in that code language?
Ans 1. 16
2. 34
3. 18
4. 36
Q.13 A goes towards North. He then turns right and walks some distance. He then turns left and
walks some distance. He turns right and walks some distance. He then turns left and walks
some distance. Which direction is he facing now?
Ans 1. East
2. North
3. South
4. West
Q.14 In the following question, select the odd figure from the given alternatives.
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.15 A car travels 20 km towards South. It then turns right and travels 60 km. If then turns right
and travels 170 km. If then turns left and travels 20 km. How far and in which direction is
car from its initial point?
Ans 1. 220 km, North West
2. 170 km, South West
3. 220 km, South West
4. 170 km, North West
Q.16 6 books are kept over the other. B1 and B2 are always kept together. 3 books are kept above
B5. B6 cannot be at top or at bottom. B1 and B2 cannot be kept with B5. Which book is at
the bottom?
Ans 1. B1 or B3
2. B1 or B4
3. B3 or B4
4. B2 or B3
Q.17 How many pens are blue?

Ans 1. 16
2. 22
3. 26
4. 20
Q.18 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones
that will complete the series.
AD17, DH80, GL193, ?

Ans 1. KP377
2. JP364
3. KP393
4. JP356
Q.19 In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Carpenter : Saw :: ? : ?
Ans 1. Musician : Flute
2. Actor : Acting
3. Pen : Writer
4. Dancer : Dance
Q.20 If 4 @ 9 # 6 = 58 and 5 @ 8 # 7 = 61, then 6 @ 12 # 3 = ?

Ans 1. 64
2. 36
3. 42
4. 56
Section : General Awareness
Q.1 Who won Oscar 2019 in Best Director category?

Ans 1. Alfonso Cuaron for ‘Roma’
2. Spike lee for ‘Black klansmen’
3. Pawel Pawlikowski for ‘Cold War’
4. Adam McKay for ‘Vice’
Q.2 The fuse wire used in Electrical Circuits is based on which principle?
Ans 1. Ductility of wire
2. Heating effect of electricity
3. Magnetic effect of electricity
4. Electromagnetic Induction
Q.3 Which Cricket nation has been suspended by ICC for violation of its Constitution in 2019?
Ans 1. Zimbabwe
2. Kenya
3. Ireland
4. Nepal
Q.4 Yanam, Part of Puducherry, is located in which Indian state?

Ans 1. Karnataka
2. Kerala
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Andhra Pradesh
Q.5 भारत म भाषा के चार और संर ण के लए भाषाई अ धकारी क नयु कौन करता है?
Ans 1. संसद
2. रा प त
3. भारत के मु य यायाधीश
4. धानमं ी
Q.6 Which is the highest plateau in the world?

Ans 1. East African Plateau
2. Tibetan Plateau
3. Deccan Plateau
4. Western Plateau, Australia
Q.7 To eliminate malaria from India by 2030, Indian council of Medical Research has launched
______.
Ans 1. ‘Say no to Malaria’
2. ‘MERA India’
3. ‘Malaria Mukt Bharat’
4. ‘Goodbye Malaria’
Q.8 The property of metals by which they can be beaten into thin sheets is called ______
Ans 1. Malleability
2. Electrical conductivity
3. Sonorous
4. Ductility
Q.9 कस मुगल शासक ने आगरा का कला बनवाया?

Ans 1. जहांगीर
2. अकबर
3. औरंगजेब
4. शाहजहाँ
Q.10 Which of the following rivers is a west – flowing river?

Ans 1. Godavari
2. Krishna
3. Mahanadi
4. Narmada
Q.11 Hiuen Tsang came to India from which country?

Ans 1. China
2. Spain
3. Persia
4. England
Q.12 ना शा म, वायु संगीत वा यं को ______ के अंतगत वग कृत कया जाता है।

Ans 1. घन वा
2. अवन वा
3. तत् वा
4. सु षर वा
Q.13 गंभीर और लंबे समय तक मंद से जूझ रही अथ व था को ______ क थ त म कहा जाता है।
Ans 1. अवमू यन
2. मू य ास
3. अप फ त
4. महामंद
Q.14 Feather star belongs to ______

Ans 1. Mollusca
2. Echinodermata
3. Arthopoda
4. Protochordata
Q.15 A facility under which Scheduled Commercial Banks can borrow additional amount of
overnight money from Reserve Bank of India by dipping into their statutory liquidity ratio
upto a limit at penal rate of interest is called ______
Ans 1. Repo rate
2. Marginal Standing Facility
3. Bank rate
4. Liquidity Adjustment Facility
Q.16 रा कूट सा ा य क थापना कसने क ?

Ans 1. द त ग
2. क तवमन
3. पुलके शन
4. समुका
Q.17 Who won the 2019 Pulitzer prize for fiction?

Ans 1. Tommy Orange for ‘There There’
2. Richard Powers for ‘The Overstory’
3. Rebecca Makkai for ‘The great Believers’
4. Andrew Sean Greer for ‘Less’

Q.18 Which athlete won Khel Ratna 2019 in para – athletics?

Ans 1. Swapna Burman
2. Harmeet Rajul Desai
3. Sonia Lather
4. Deepa Malik
Q.19 1920 - 22 के बीच असहयोग कसके नेतृ व म आ?

Ans 1. गोपाल कृ ण गोखले
2. लाला लाजपत राय
3. मोतीलाल नेह
4. महा मा गांधी
Q.20 Under which Article of the constitution of India, special provisions regarding state of
Mizoram are mentioned?
Ans 1. Article 371 E
2. Article 371 F
3. Article 371 D
4. Article 371 G
Section : Arithmetic Ability
Q.1 The sum of circumference and the radius of a circle is 102 cm. What is the area of the
circle?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.2 If 45682P is divisible by 12, then what is the value of P?

Ans 1. 8
2. 2
3. 4
4. 0
Q.3 What is the average of first 20 whole numbers?

Ans 1. 10
2. 9.5
3. 10.5
4. 9
Q.4 A work was finished by Rahul, Mohan and Gagan together. Rahul and Mohan together
finished 75 percent of the work and Mohan and Gagan together finished 65 percent of the
work. Who among the three is most efficient?
Ans 1. Gagan
2. All one equally efficient
3. Mohan
4. Rahul
Q.5 नीचे दया गया वृ च एक कंपनी ारा व भ वभाग पर कये खच को दशाता है। खच को कंपनी के कुल
खच के तशत के प म दशाया गया है।
ख ड D2 तथा D3 ारा बनाये गए क य कोण के बीच का अंतर या है?

Ans 1. 18.6°
2. 24.2°
3. 15.3°
4. 21.6°
Q.6 The bar graph given below shows the number of cars parked on different days in a parking
area.
Number of cars parked on D10 is how much percentage more than the number of cars
parked on D1?
Ans 1. 47.1 percent
2. 57.1 percent
3. 52.1 percent
4. 42.1 percent
Q.7 Find the value of:
Ans 1. 27/7
2. 32/21
3. 29/7
4. 34/21
Q.8 A train of length, 240 metres, takes 36 seconds to cross a 480 metres long platform. How
much time will the train take to cross a 360 metres long platform?
Ans 1. 35 seconds
2. 25 seconds
3. 20 seconds
4. 30 seconds
Ans 1. 0.333
2. 3.4
3. 3
4. 2.994
Q.10 What is the compound interest on a sum of Rs 15000 for 3 years at the rate of 20 percent
per annum compounded annually?
Ans 1. Rs 11520
2. Rs 9980
3. Rs 10720
4. Rs 10920
Q.11 On selling an article for Rs 390, a shopkeeper losses 40 percent. For how much he should
sell the article in order to earn a profit of 20 percent?
Ans 1. Rs 780
2. Rs 680
3. Rs 750
4. Rs 840
Q.12 If area of a square increases by 32.25 percent, then what is the increase in its side?
Ans 1. 15 percent
2. 11.5 percent
3. 35 percent
4. 25 percent
Q.13 Which of the following expression is/are true?
I. Highest Common Factor of 36 and 24 is 12.

II. Least Common Multiple of 27 and 36 is 216.
III. 37030 is completely divisible by 15.
Ans 1. I, II, and III
2. Only I
3. I and II
4. I and III
Q.14 The bar graph given below shows the marks out of 100 obtained by 10 students in a
subject.
What is the average marks by per student?
Ans 1. 89.9
2. 82.9
3. 90.9
4. 91.9
Q.15 A train is running at the speed of 90 km/hr. How much time will it take to cover a distance of
1200 meter?
Ans 1. 40 seconds
2. 48 seconds
3. 60 seconds
4. 54 seconds
Q.16 The lengths of two diagonals of a rhombus are 13 cm and 24 cm. What is the area of the
rhombus?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.17 If P : Q = 2 : 3 and Q : R = 4 : 5, then what is (P + Q) : (Q + R)?

Ans 1. 8 : 15
2. 20 : 27
3. 2 : 3
4. 25 : 27
Ans 1. 3256
2. 3456
3. 3686
4. 3746
Q.19 The ratio of number of boys and girls in a class is 13 : 8. If 50 boys leave the class and 50
girls join the class, then their ratio will becomes 4 : 3. What is the final number of the girls in
the class?
Ans 1. 400
2. 350
3. 500
4. 450
Q.20 If P = 300 and Q = 450, then P is how much percentage less than Q?
Ans 1. 50 percent
2. 25 percent
3. 66.66 percent
4. 33.33 percent
Section : General English
Q.1 In the given question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Choose
the correctly spelt word
Ans 1. Rhyme
2. Rhime
3. Rhiyme
4. Riyme
Q.2 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order. We would toast the.
P: manufactured mini-fire pit

Q: that was set up on our table
R: marshmallows over the
Ans 1. RPQ
2. PRQ
3. RQP
4. QRP
Q.3 Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.
Little
Ans 1. Small
2. Glob
3. Inadequate
4. Few
Q.4 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose ‘No
error’.
My advice to all those who (1)/ drive or ride in the city is to (2)/ stay by your lanes (3)/. No
error (4)
Ans 1. 2
2. 3
3. 1
4. 4
Q.5 Choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.
A man who is womanish in his habits

Ans 1. Misanthrope
2. Effeminate
3. Uxorious
4. Heretic
Q.6 In the given question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Choose
the correctly spelt word
Ans 1. Lovely
2. Loveley
3. Lovaley
4. Lovly
Q.7 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose ‘No
error’.
Bananas may not be overflowing (1)/ with calcium, but they are still helpful (2)/ keep in
bones strong (3)/. No error (4)
Ans 1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 1
Q.8 Choose the word that means the same as the given word.
Brief
Ans 1. Ample
2. Concise
3. Mislead
4. Expansive
Q.9 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best
expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
A MARE’S NEST
Ans 1. A brief lecture
2. Talking behind the curtain
3. A small possession
4. A complicated situation
Q.10 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case if there is no improvement, select no
improvement.
The store will open (at) 27th August.

Ans 1. over
2. No Improvement
3. on
4. during
Q.11 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case if there is no improvement, select no
improvement.
An elephant is (more stronger) than a camel.

Ans 1. No Improvement
2. more strongest
3. stronger
4. strongest
Q.12 A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Choose the
correctalternative.
Has a novel ______ by Navya?

Ans 1. been written
2. been wrote
3. being writing
4. being written
Q.13 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best
expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
A DIME A DOZEN
Ans 1. Something that is impossible to be bought
2. Very crucial part of something
3. Something that is extremely common and valueless
4. Far from the reach of rich people
Q.14 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.
Coffee contains chemical :

P: our calorie intake, triggering acne
Q: properties that boost the
R: stress hormones which tend to increase
Ans 1. RPQ
2. QPR
3. PRQ
4. QRP
Q.15 A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Choose the
correct alternative.
It is half past twelve ______ my watch.

Ans 1. from
2. in
3. by
4. on
Comprehension:
Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Theatre had its origins in the earliest parts of human history. Before there were actual
theatres and actors, the first form of theatre can be found in the development of dance
culture. Dances were originally performed in commemoration of major events, celebrations
and religious ceremonies. At first, they were very informal affairs with little practice, but
dancing as rituals evolved into very sophisticated forms of artistry by the 3000B BCE era. The
theme of religion that first originated in ritualistic dancing continued in theatre for more than
four thousand years. Modern theatre has changed a lot since the time of traditional Greek
Tragedies and Roman Theatrics. Today’s theatre has many contrasting and diverse styles; it
contains both higher levels of musical and acting talent. Greek theatre is where modern
theatre draws its roots from. It is the start of the Western tradition of theatre because not only
did the Greeks enjoy theatre as part of religion, but also saw it as an art form. The first steps
towards Greek theatre occurred when dances and rituals to the ancient Greek God of Wine,
Dionysus, became more sophisticated. The biggest change was the addition of style and
theme that led to the development of plays, where spoken word was used rather than only
song and dance. Formal Greek theatre is renowned for its style, themes and physical
constructions. The great Greek playwrights were very interested in the development of a
theme in their plays. Following Greek theatre, the next evolution of theatre occurred during the
Roman era. Roman theatre was not extremely original because it took many of the elements
of Greek theatre. Many Roman plays were adaptations or even direct copies of Greek plays
but the biggest difference between the two is that Romans made theatre much more secular.
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 What does the following phrase mean: ‘Dances and rituals became very sophisticated’?
Ans 1. Dances and rituals became more advanced
2. Dances and rituals became more widespread
3. Dances and rituals became more complicated
4. Dances and rituals became more problematic
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 What is the difference between Modern theatre and Greek theatre?
Ans 1. Modern theatre is a place for everyday life whereas Greek theatre celebrated
festivals and major events.
2. Modern theatre has a higher level of acting unlike Greek theatre.
3. Modern theatre focuses on music while Greek theatre focused on spoken words.
4. Modern theatre is seen as a religious place whereas Greek theatre was only
considered as an art form.
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 How is dancing related to theatres?
Ans 1. Dance was the reason people started going to the theatres.
2. Ritual of dancing laid the foundation of the Greek theatre.
3. Dance helped in expressing the themes of plays well.
4. Theatre is responsible for the development of dance culture.
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Choose the word from the passage that is opposite in the meaning to ‘identical’.
Ans 1. Diverse
2. Renowned
3. Sophisticated
4. Informal
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched based on the information given in the
passage?
Ans 1. Dance – religious ceremonies
2. Dionysus – Roman God
3. Roman theatre – secular
4. Greek theatre – style
Section : General Hindi
Q.1 न न ल खत म से शु वतनी का चयन क जए।

Ans 1. तया
2. द वतया
3. तीया
4. तीया
Q.2 दए गए श द का समानाथ श द ात क जए।
कुसुम
Ans 1. श श
2. पु प
3. सरोज
4. नशा
Q.3 दए गए वा य म उ चत अ य का चयन करके र थान क पू त क जए।
हमारे दे श क ______ अ य धक षत हो गई है।

Ans 1. वतं ता
2. स यता
3. न दयाँ
4. उदासी
Q.4 र थान म दए गए चार वक प म उस वक प का चयन करे जो दए गए मुहावरे के अथ को सव े प से

करता है।
जो सभी मनु य को ______, वह सचमुच महान होता है।

Ans 1. एक और एक यारह
2. आँखे दखाना
3. एक आँख से दे खना
4. ओखली म सर दे ना
Q.5 दए गए श द का सं ध व छे द क जए।
कम
Ans 1. षः + कम
2. ः + कम
3. ः + कम
4. ष् + कम
Q.6 न न ल खत म से कौन सा वा य सरल वा य है?

Ans 1. दौड़ता आ कु ा क गया और मा लक को दे खने लगा।
2. दौड़ता आ कु ा मा लक को दे खकर क गया।
3. कु े ने मा लक को दे खा फर दौड़ने लगा।
4. दौड़ते ए कु े ने मा लक को दे खा और क गया।
Q.7 दए गए श द का समास व ह ात क जए।
बहारीर चत
Ans 1. बहारी पर र चत
2. बहारी से र चत
3. बहारी क र चत
4. बहारी के ारा र चत
Q.8 न न ल खत म से कौन सा श द यु म त सम - त व का यु म नह है?

Ans 1. पय - ध
2. अ न - आग
3. जल - पानी
4. आ - आम
Q.9 दए गए वा य म कस वराम च का उपयोग कया गया है उसक पहचान क जए।
'आतंकवादः एक ज टल सम या'
Ans 1. उप वराम
2. अ प वराम
3. पूण वराम
4. अध वराम
Q.10 दए गए श द म उपसग ात क जए।
उ ार
Ans 1. उद् + हार
2. उत् + धार
3. उत् + हार
4. उद् + धार
Q.11 दए गए वा य का काल ात क जए।
वह कूल जा चुक थी।

Ans 1. पूण भूतकाल
2. अपूण भूतकाल
3. सामा य भूतकाल
4. सं द ध भूतकाल
Q.12 दए गए श द का पयायवाची ात क जए।
सून
Ans 1. अजर
2. ग
3. नभ
4. सुमन
Q.13 दए गए वा य के लए उ चत लोको का चयन क जए।
स चा कसी से नह डरता।
Ans 1. साँच को आँच नह
2. स चे का बोलबाला
3. साँच बराबर तप नह
4. स चे से डरना या
Q.14 दए गए वा य का वा य ात क जए।
या नमक न खा रही है।

Ans 1. वा य
2. कतृवा य
3. भाववा य
4. कमवा य
Q.15 दए गए वा य म कस कार का पु ष है ात क जए।
तुम सब कहाँ थे?

Ans 1. म यम
2. थम
3. उ म
4. अ य
Comprehension:
ग ांश को यानपूवक पढ़ तथा येक म चार वक पो म से सही वक प चुने।
आधु नक कं यूटर क गणना ही नह अ पतु ढे र सारे काम करता है। रेलवे टे शन पर रजवशन, बड़ी-बड़ी कंप नय क
लाभ-हा न, लोग क इ छा-अ न छा या कुछ नह अब अगर यो तष शा को दे ख तो वह भी कं यूटर के बना कुछ नह
करता। वा य क जानकारी भी कं यूटर दे ता है, और तो और हम ब च के खेल का साधन भी है। कं यूटर अब तो मनु य
का दाया हाथ हो गया है कं यूटर क अपनी भाषा होती है और वे उसे ही समझता है। कं यूटर म वायरस भी आता है उसक
यह छू त क बीमारी ज द उसे जकड़ लेती है। कं यूटर का मजाज ज द ही गम हो जाता है इसके लए वातावरण को ठं डा
रखना पड़ता है। 1970 तक के कं यूटर जतने बड़े लंब-े चौड़े आकार के होते थे वह अब इतने छोटे हो गये ह क ीफकेस
म ही समा जाता ह एक अकेले बल गेट्स ने ही ऐसे सॉ टवेयर न मत कए ह जनसे पूरी नया म तहलका मच
गया। आजकल कं यूटर के बना तो जैसे जीवन नीरस है चार तरफ कं यूटर का ही मह व है।
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 कं यूटर के ारा हम कौन सी जानकारी ा त कर सकते ह?
I. कंप नय क लाभ-हा न
II. वा थय क जानकारी
III. वायरस
IV. रेलवे टे शन का रजवशन
Ans 1. III, IV तथा II
2. I, II तथा III
3. I, III तथा IV
4. I, II तथा IV
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 कं यूटर को मनु य या मानता है?
Ans 1. जीवन
2. वातावरण
3. दायां हाथ
4. खेल
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 ब च के लए कं यूटर का साधन या है?
Ans 1. खेल
2. अ श त
3. बमारी
4. लड़ाई
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 उपयु ग ांश का उपयु शीषक या होगा?
Ans 1. खेल का साधन
2. कं यूटर का मजाज
3. बड़े लंबे - चौड़े आकार वाले कं यूटर
4. कं यूटर का मह व
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 कं यूटर के लए कैसा वातावरण रखना पड़ता है?
Ans 1. अ य धक गम
2. वषा
3. ठं डा
4. गम
Section : Discipline1
Q.1 The relationship for helical spring between mean shear stress (Sm) mean force (Fm), mean
diameter (D) and wire diameter (d):
Ans 1. Sm ∝ 16Fm D/πd4
2. Sm ∝ 16Fm D/πd3
3. Sm ∝ 8Fm D/πd3
4. Sm ∝ 8Fm D/πd4
Q.2 If two cap screw of same material has equivalent stiffness of threaded portion and first cap
screw threaded portion has cross sectional area twice of second cap screw threaded
portion. Then find the relationship between their threaded portion lengths (where k =
stiffness, A = cross sectional area, E = young’s modulus, L = length, axial load = P. All for
threaded portion of cap screw):
Ans 1. L1 = 8L2
2. L1 = 2L2
3. L1 = 4L2
4. L1 = L2
Q.3 It is not the theory of failure:

Ans 1. Octahedral shear stress theory
2. Mohr’s theory
3. Guest’s theory
4. Stefan’s theory
Q.4 A material will be called theoretically ideal material:

Ans 1. Elastic properties are same at each and every point of body
2. If a material is equally elastic in all direction
3. If it has different elasticity in different direction
4. If it has same composition throughout the body

Q.5 The relation for finding bending moment of a slender column under the action of eccentric
load P with eccentricity e and deflection δ curve is concave in positive y direction:
Ans 1. M = P(δ - e - y)
2. M = -P(δ - e -y)
3. M = -P(δ + e - y)
4. M = P(δ + e - y)
Q.6 According to Grashof’s law following is true:

Ans 1. S + L ≥ P + Q
2. S + L < P + Q
3. S + L > P + Q
4. S + L ≤ P + Q
Q.7 The unit of elastic sectional modulus:

Ans 1. mm2
2. mm3
3. mm
4. mm4
Q.8 In stress - strain diagram for cast iron, this relationship is correct:
Ans 1. There is no definite yield point
2. Yield point is below ultimate point
3. Yield point and ultimate point are at same point
4. Yield point is above ultimate point
Q.9 The relationship between two sums and two planets gears to achieve flexibility in speed
ratio:
Ans 1. S1 - P1 = S2 + P2
2. S1 + P1 = S2 + P2
3. S1 + P1 = S2 - P2
4. S1 - P1 = S2 - P2
Q.10 A 50 kg brick is resting on a floor without any movement. What is the normal force and work
done by it?
Ans 1. 0 N and 0 J
2. 490 N and 0 J
3. 490 N and 490 J
4. 0 N and 490 J
Q.11 Not the principle method of computing the deflection of beam:

Ans 1. Conjugate beam method
2. Shear stress method
3. Strain energy method
4. Moment area method
Q.12 Deflection of beam during cantilever with point load at the free end:
Ans 1. WL3/8EI
2. WL3/48EI
3. WL3/6EI
4. WL3/3EI
Q.13 For quick return mechanism, advance to return time stroke ratio should be:
Ans 1. Less than 1
2. Greater than 1
3. No relation
4. Equal to 1
Q.14 If we push the break of car then car will begin to slide when:
Ans 1. Braking torque is higher than limiting friction force from the road
2. Braking torque is equal to limiting friction force from the road
3. They don’t have any relation
4. Braking torque is less than limiting friction force from the road
Q.15 For worm and gear assembly if worm diameter and rotation speed is 5 mm and 500 rpm
respectively while gear diameter and rotational speed is 4 mm and 300 rpm. Therefore, find
input power if, output power is 280 W with efficiency 80 percent.
Ans 1. 350 W
2. 320 W
3. 360 W
4. 370 W
Q.16 Helical pair has degree of freedom:
Ans 1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 1
Q.17 Which type of gear we will use to modify the direction of drive in perpendicular direction?
Ans 1. Compound gear
2. Rack and pinion gear
3. Spur gear
4. Bevel gear
Q.18 There is following relation of surface stresses with sliding friction and existence of
lubricant:
Ans 1. Directly
2. Affected
3. Inversely
4. Unaffected
Q.19 For disk and pad arrangement, increase of braking torque is not dependent on:
Ans 1. Radius of center of pad contact from axis of disk rotation
2. Number of pads
3. Increase the pad contact area
4. Number of disk
Q.20 A steel bar is sandwiched between two copper bar and both ends are fixed, for temperature
rise how much tension or compressive stress on steel bar will be found:
Ans 1. Tensile stress twice of copper bar
2. Compressive stress half of copper bar
3. Tensile stress half of copper bar
4. Compressive stress twice of copper bar
Q.1 Which thermocouple will be used to measure temperature range -150 to -10 °C?
Ans 1. silver in glass thermocouple
2. silver resistance thermocouple
3. mercury in glass thermocouple
4. platinum resistance thermocouple
Q.2 What is the unit of inductance?

Ans 1. Henry
2. Farad
3. Tesla
4. Weber
Q.3 This cycle is not consists of the reversible processes:

Ans 1. Sterling cycle
2. Brayton cycle
3. Carnot cycle
4. Ericsson cycle
Q.4 Entropy of the universe is:

Ans 1. constant
2. zero
3. increasing
4. decreasing
Q.5 What will be the modulus of elasticity (E) of equivalent bar with area (A) which has same
elongation and length of compound bar? Compound bar elasticity are E1, E2 and areas are
A1, A2.
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.6 For throttling device this relation is correct:

Ans
1. internal energy is constant
2. Workdone is zero
3. enthalpy is constant
4. Workdone is constant
Q.7 No heat transfer through the boundary of system is called:

Ans 1. adiabatic process
2. isothermal process
3. isobaric process
4. isochoric process
Q.8 If the modulus of elasticity is 130 GPa and Poisson’s ratio is 0.3 of steel then what will be
the approximate value of modulus of rigidity of steel in MPa?
Ans 1. 110
2. 110000
3. 50
4. 50000
Q.9 The strain energy (U) of the prismatical bar for deflection δ, cross section area A, young’s
modulus E and length of bar l:
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.10 The internal energy during the free expansion process:

Ans 1. maximum
2. constant
3. zero
4. minimum
Q.11 In dual gas cycle heat rejection takes place during:

Ans 1. constant temperature process
2. isentropic process
3. constant volume process
4. constant pressure process
Q.12 One torr is equal to how much pascal?

Ans 1. 133
2. 1.013
3. 1.33
4. 101.3
Q.13 What will be the cross sectional area in mm2 of prismatical bar of length 5 mm and weight
per unit volume of bar is 5 N/mm3 and applied load at the end is 50 N. Where working stress
is 50 MPa and ultimate stress is 100 MPa.
Ans 1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 1
Q.14 For spherical shell, what is the thickness of plate (t) if p is internal pressure, D is diameter
of shell, σat is permissible stress at plate in axial tension and η is the efficiency of riveted
joint:
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.15 The isothermal process is associated with:

Ans 1. Avogadro’s law
2. Gay-Lussac law
3. Boyle’s law
4. Charles’ law
Q.16 If two aluminum bar have different length (L1 = 2L2) and diameter (d1 = 2d2) with identical
angle of twist then, find torque value for bar 1, If bar 2 torque value is 50 N-m.
Ans 1. 12.5 N-m
2. 6.25 N-m
3. 400 N-m
4. 200 N-m
Q.17 What is exergy of a reversible engine at temperature T into which Q heat is supplied and
heat is rejected to the sink at dead state T0?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.18 If effective length of aluminum (E = 70 GPa) column is two times of steel (E = 190 Gpa) and
Euler buckling load of aluminum is 5000 KN, then what will be the Euler buckling load (in
KN)for steel with equivalent moment of inertia?
Ans 1. 27143
2. 13572
3. 6786
4. 54286
Q.19 For uniformly distributed load (w) acting on the beam with one end hinged and one end free
if length of beam is L, distance from left hand is x, young’s modulus E and moment of inertia
is I then find the maximum deflection (δmax) of beam:
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.20 What will be the factor of safety for steel if working stress is 100 N/mm2 yield stress is 150
N/mm2 and ultimate stress is 200 N/mm2?
Ans 1. 1.5
2. 1.33
3. 1
4. 2
Q.1 Kelvin- Planck’s law gives the relationship for:

Ans 1. conversation of work into heat
2. conversation of heat into entropy
3. conversation of heat into work
4. conversation of entropy into heat
Q.2 In a plain turning operation on steel by using cemented carbide single point cutting tool
combination having a Taylor exponent is 0.25, if the cutting speed is halved, then the tool
life becomes:
Ans 1. two times
2. eight times
3. sixteen times
4. one forth
Q.3 Copper becomes hard and brittle when mechanically worked, but it can be made soft again
by annealing. Within what temperature range must you heat it to anneal it?
Ans 1. 500 ℉ to 600 ℉
2. 700 ℉ to 900 ℉
3. 900 ℉ to 1100 ℉
4. 600 ℉ to 700 ℉
Q.4 Coefficient of performance for a reversible heat pump will be:

Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.5 Which reason is responsible for the formation of Continuous chip with built up edge?
Ans 1. High friction between Tool & chip
2. large rake angle with low feed rate
3. High cutting speed
4. Sharp cutting edges
Q.6 Which form of iron can be produced by reduction of iron ore into blast furnace?
Ans 1. pure iron
2. cast iron
3. direct reduced iron
4. pig iron
Q.7 What is the primary cause of distortion and cracking of the heat-treated steel part?
Ans 1. heating one section of the part more rapidly than other parts
2. increasing the soaking temperature too slowly
3. heating the part too slowly
4. uneven expansion due to carbon deposits in the part
Q.8 It is not the Maxwell’s equation:

Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.9
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.10 In which welding process, Wire electrode is used?

Ans 1. Gas metal arc welding
2. submerged arc welding
3. TIG welding
4. electric resistance welding
Q.11 Shrinkage and weld stress in casting is responsible for which welding defect?
Ans 1. Rat tail
2. Lamellar tearing
3. Shrinkage void
4. Incomplete fusion
Q.12 Which material has highest capacity to absorb the maximum stress for an infinite number of
cycles?
Ans 1. bronze
2. titanium
3. brass
4. chilled cast iron
Q.13 For irreversible process, which relation is correct?

Ans 1. loss of exergy is indirectly proportional to rate of entropy generation
2. loss of exergy is directly proportional to rate of entropy generation
3. loss of exergy has no relation with rate of entropy generation
4. loss of exergy is equals to rate of entropy generation
Q.14 What is the value of fatigue notch sensitivity for a fully sensitive material?
Ans 1. 1
2. infinity
3. 0
4. 0.5
Q.15 How do you determine the soaking period when parts are uneven in cross section?
Ans 1. by the largest section
2. by the lightest section
3. by the total weight
4. by the number of parts
Q.16 The ratio of the strain in a direction orthogonal to the direction of stress to the strain in the
direction of stress is known as:
Ans 1. Poisson’s ratio
2. Elastic limit
3. Volumetric strain
4. Shear modulus
Q.17 Which property of material is necessary to produce spiral elements?

Ans 1. resilience
2. ductility
3. stiffness
4. malleability
Q.18 Stirling cycle have these processes:

Ans 1. Two reversible isobarics and two reversible isentropics
2. Two reversible isobarics and two reversible isotherms
3. Two reversible isochores and two reversible isentropics
4. Two reversible isochores and two reversible isotherms
Q.19 Which cutting technology principle is used for drilling of holes in a metallic substrate?
Ans 1. oblique cutting
2. straight cutting
3. uniform cutting
4. orthogonal cutting
Q.20 If 40 kJ heat is transferred from gas and work done to compress gas is 20 kJ then what is
the change in internal energy?
Ans 1. 60 kJ increase
2. 60 kJ decrease
3. 20 kJ increase
4. 20 kJ decrease
Q.1 Boundary layer thickness is the distance from the boundary to the point where velocity of
the fluid is
Ans 1. equal to 90 percent of free stream velocity
2. equal to 10 percent of free stream velocity
Q.2 Find out the correct relation between Bulk modulus (K), Shear modulus (G) and Poisson's
ratio (ν).
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.3 What will be the value of diameter of big end in mm for tapered job if diameter of small end
and length of job is 60mm and 1m respectively? Given half taper angle is equal to 12.4
degrees. (given tan12.4 = 0.22)
Ans 1. 400
2. 500
3. 600
4. 300
Q.4 Which component of the surface force is acting in case of the inviscid fluid?
Ans 1. normal component
2. tangential component
3. component at an angle θ
4. both normal and tangential component
Q.5 Which of the following can be used to reverse the direction of lead screw relative to the
direction of spindle movement?
Ans 1. Speed lever
2. Feed Lever
3. Tumbler gear lever
4. Friction clutch
Q.6 One of which NDT method is used to detect internal weld defect/discontinuities:
Ans 1. liquid penetration testing
2. magnetic particle testing
3. radiographic testing
4. eddy current testing
Q.7 If Specific volume of any material is 0.000112 m3/kg, then calculate the specific gravity of
that material.
Ans 1. 7.8
2. 8.92
3. 9.81
4. 8.52
Q.8 Which statement is wrong when a tubular product with an encircling coil sample is
inspecting by eddy current method?
Ans 1. ID discontinuities can be found
2. Axial discontinuity locations can be noted
3. Circumferential discontinuity locations can be noted
4. OD discontinuities can be found
Q.9 Which dimensionless number provides the relationship between pressure force and inertia
number on a fluid element?
Ans 1. Weber number
2. Euler number
3. Reynolds number
4. Froude number
Q.10 What is Darcy-Weisbach formula for heat loss due to friction? Where, f = Darcy's coefficient
of friction:
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.11 In the case of steady flow, which relation is correct for stream line, streak line and path line?
Ans 1. all three lines coincide
2. stream line is parallel to path line but perpendicular to streak line
3. all three lines are parallel to each other
4. stream line is parallel to streak line but perpendicular to path line
Q.12 When a body is floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly by external mean then this body will
oscillate about which point?
Ans 1. Center of buoyancy
2. Meta center
3. Center of pressure
4. Center of Gravity
Q.13 Which pair of hydraulic turbine you will choose, if the operating condition of head is more
than 400 m and for part load operation respectively?
Ans 1. Pelton wheel turbine, Kaplan turbine
2. Francis turbine and propeller turbine
3. Francis turbine and Kaplan turbine
4. Bulb turbine and Deriaz turbine
Q.14 For the measurement of flow rate of liquid, the method used is:
Ans 1. Bourdon tube
2. Coriolis method
3. Thermal mass flow measurement
4. Conveyor-based methods
Q.15 What is the water pressure on the sea bottom at a depth of 6500 m? The specific gravity of
sea water is assumed to be 1.03.
Ans 1. 70 MPa
2. 65 MPa
3. 60 MPa
4. 75 MPa
Q.16 Select the correct pair of expression which defines the specific speed of hydraulic turbine
and hydraulic pump.
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.17 A compound pipe of diameter d1, d2 and d3 having lengths I1, I2 and I3 is to be replaced by
an equivalent pipe of uniform diameter d and of the same length (l) as that of the compound
pipe. The size of the equivalent pipe is given by:
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.18 Which of the following can produce both external as well as internal threads?
Ans
1. Thread chasing with multiple‐rib chasers
2. Thread tapping with taps
3. Die threading with self‐opening die heads
4. Thread milling and multiple‐thread cutters
Q.19 A round billet made of 70-30 brass is extruded at a temperature of 675 ℃ (k = 250 MPa).
The billet diameter is 100 mm, and the diameter of the extrusion is 50 mm. Calculate the
extrusion force required. (given ln 2.5 = 0.92)
Ans 1. 6.6 MN
2. 5 MN
3. 4.6 MN
4. 5.6 MN
Q.20 If cutting tool travel 1000mm in the direction of feed motion with work piece rotational
speed of 500 rpm and feed rate of 0.2 mm/rev, machining time in minutes will be:
Ans 1. 2
2. 8
3. 10
4. 6
Q.1 Which of the following generator will be preferred if they are required to be run in parallel?
Ans 1. Series generators
2. Compound generators
3. Shunt generators
4. Shunt and series generators
Q.2 Permanent magnets are normally made of:

Ans 1. cast iron
2. copper
3. alnico alloy
4. wrought iron
Q.3 The resistor which is nonlinear in nature is called as:

Ans 1. Resistance
2. Varistor
3. specific resistance
4. Thermistor
Q.4 If the field of the synchronous motor is overexcited then its power factor will be:
Ans 1. Lagging
2. Zero
3. Unity
4. Leading
Q.5 With a bank of two single phase transformers connected in V - V fashion supplying a
balanced three phase load with Cosφ as power factor. The power factor of the two
transformers is given by:
Ans 1. Cos(30-θ), Cos(30+θ)
2. Cosθ, Cos(30+θ)
3. Cosθ, Cos(30-θ)
4. Cosθ, Cosθ
Q.6 In which case Cavitation phenomenon occurs?

Ans 1. Francis turbine
2. Centrifugal pump
3. Both Francis turbine and reciprocating pump
4. Reciprocating pump
Q.7 Which of the following parameters is used for distinguishing between a large signal and a
small signal amplifier?
Ans 1. Amplifier
2. Input/Output impedances
3. Harmonic distortion
4. Frequency response
Q.8 Which feature of D.C. motors is essential for traction applications?

Ans 1. The torque is proportional to armature current
2. Torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current
3. The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is proportional to
square of armature current
4. The torque is proportional to square root of armature current
Q.9 Fitting of air vessel to reciprocating pump is recommended for saving of work done and
power. How much amount we can save in case of double acting reciprocating pump?
Ans 1. 39.2 percent
2. 49.2 percent
3. 84.8 percent
4. 68.8 percent
Q.10 Obtain the pressure difference ‘P-P0’ in figure1.
Ans 1. g(2ρ’H’ + ρH)
2. g(ρ’H’ + ρ2 H2)
3. g(ρ’H’ + 2ρH)
4. g(ρ’H’ + ρH)
Q.11 P-type extrinsic semiconductor doped with impurity having how much valence electron?
Ans 1. 5
2. 1
3. 3
4. 2
Q.12 In case of semiconductor, forbidden energy gap between valence band and conduction band
is nearly?
Ans 1. 1.5ev
2. 2.5ev
3. 2ev
4. 1ev
Q.13 The transformer Utilization factor of a bridge rectifier is approximately:

Ans 1. 0.41
2. 1.1
3. 0.81
4. 0.61
Q.14 Which galvanometer is highly sensitive in nature?

Ans 1. Double galvanometer
2. Vibration galvanometer
3. Spot ballistic galvanometer
4. Elastic galvanometer
Q.15 Find out the correct conversion of hexadecimal number represented by “D” into binary
number
Ans 1. 1100
2. 1010
3. 1111
4. 1101
Q.16 Current amplifiers are made of which type of semiconductor device?

Ans 1. BJT
2. JFET
3. MOSFET
4. LED
Q.17 In an R-L circuit connected to an alternating sinusoidal voltage, size of transient current
primarily depends on:
Ans 1. the instant in the voltage cycle at which circuit is closed
2. the circuit impedance
3. the peak value of steady-state current
4. the voltage frequency
Q.18 Which type of instrument is used to measure very small currents of high frequency?
Ans 1. Thermocouple type
2. PMMC type ammeter
3. Dynamometer type
4. Inductance type
Q.19 Zener diode works under which region of V-I characteristics of the semiconductor diode?
Ans 1. forward biasing
2. Reverse biasing
3. No biasing
4. Zero external voltage
Q.20 The algebraic function of “NOR” Logic Gate is expressed as:

Ans 1. F = (xy’+x’y)
2. F = (x-y)’
3. F = (x+y)’
4. F = (xy)’

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Mechanical Engg Paper (2019)

Section : Mental Ability

Q.2 A is father of B. B is son of Z. Z is mother of S. S is father of K. How is B related to K?

PQ, RO, TM, UJ, XI, ZG

Q.4 A team of 5 members is to be selected from A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. A and B can only be

2. Only conclusion III follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.7 How many triangles are there in the given ﬁgure?

2. Only conclusion I follows

4. Both conclusion I and II follows

2. 170 km, South West

3. 220 km, South West

4. 170 km, North West

Q.17 How many pens are blue?

AD17, DH80, GL193, ?

Q.20 If 4 @ 9 # 6 = 58 and 5 @ 8 # 7 = 61, then 6 @ 12 # 3 = ?

Q.1 Who won Oscar 2019 in Best Director category?

2. Spike lee for ‘Black klansmen’

3. Pawel Pawlikowski for ‘Cold War’

4. Adam McKay for ‘Vice’

2. Heating effect of electricity

3. Magnetic effect of electricity

Q.4 Yanam, Part of Puducherry, is located in which Indian state?

Q.6 Which is the highest plateau in the world?

4. Western Plateau, Australia

3. ‘Malaria Mukt Bharat’

Q.9 कस मुगल शासक ने आगरा का कला बनवाया?

Q.10 Which of the following rivers is a west – ﬂowing river?

Q.11 Hiuen Tsang came to India from which country?

Q.12 ना शा म, वायु संगीत वा यं को ______ के अंतगत वग कृत कया जाता है।

Q.14 Feather star belongs to ______

2. Marginal Standing Facility

4. Liquidity Adjustment Facility

Q.16 रा कूट सा ा य क थापना कसने क ?

Q.17 Who won the 2019 Pulitzer prize for ﬁction?

2. Richard Powers for ‘The Overstory’

3. Rebecca Makkai for ‘The great Believers’

4. Andrew Sean Greer for ‘Less’

Q.18 Which athlete won Khel Ratna 2019 in para – athletics?

2. Harmeet Rajul Desai

Q.19 1920 - 22 के बीच असहयोग कसके नेतृ व म आ?

2. लाला लाजपत राय

Section : Arithmetic Ability

Q.2 If 45682P is divisible by 12, then what is the value of P?

Q.3 What is the average of ﬁrst 20 whole numbers?

2. All one equally eﬃcient

ख ड D2 तथा D3 ारा बनाये गए क य कोण के बीच का अंतर या है?

Q.7 Find the value of:

Q.9 Find the value of:

Q.13 Which of the following expression is/are true?

I. Highest Common Factor of 36 and 24 is 12.

Q.17 If P : Q = 2 : 3 and Q : R = 4 : 5, then what is (P + Q) : (Q + R)?

Q.18 Find the value of:

Section : General English

P: manufactured mini-ﬁre pit

A man who is womanish in his habits

2. Talking behind the curtain

The store will open (at) 27th August.