30eoct DSSSB Je-Cropped

Participant ID 12360505814
Participant Name Vinay Saini

Test Center Name iON Digital Zone iDZ 2 Sector 62
Test Date 30/10/2019
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:30 PM
Subject JUNIOR ENGINEER CIVIL
Section : Mental Ability
Q.1 Find out which of the figure (a), (b), (c), (d) can be formed from the pieces given in fig. (X).
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Question ID : 54592769306
Q.2 Four word pairs are given and three of them share a certain similarity. Choose the pair
which is different from the other three.
Ans 1. Cricket : Googly
2. Tennis : Smash
3. Hockey : Short corner
4. Shooting : Back stroke
Q.3 Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image of the given
combination.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.4 There are five friends. They are standing in row facing south. Komal is to the immediate
right to Akanksha. Satvik is between Sandeep and Jay. Jay is between Komal and Satvik.
Who among the following is third to the left of Satvik?
Ans 1. Sandeep
2. Komal
3. Akanksha
4. Jay
Q.5 A group of letters is given which are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 , 6 and 7. Below are given four
alternatives containing combinations of these numbers. Select that combination of
numbers so that letters arranged accordingly, form a meaningful word.
NTAODRO
1234567
Ans 1. 2753164
2. 2461357
3. 2463517
4. 2736154
Q.6 Which two signs need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
88 ÷ 11 + 52 × 15 = 4
Ans 1. × and =
2. + and ÷
3. × and –
4. ÷ and –
Q.7 In the following diagram, which of the following group of employees represents those
employees, who are not businessmen.
Ans 1. a, g, h
2. a, e, g, h
3. e, g, h
4. b, e, g
Q.8 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is
related to the first term.
267 : 5 :: 549 : ?
Ans 1. 9
2. 14
3. 11
4. 13
Q.9 Select the term that will come next in the following series.
FHE, KMJ, PRO, UWT,?

Ans 1. ZCB
2. ZBA
3. ZBY
4. ZAB
Q.10 Select the related word from the given alternatives.
Muslims : Quran :: Jews : ?

Ans 1. Torah
2. Ramayana
3. Talmud
4. Guru granth sahib
Q.11 Find the wrong term in the series?
P, M, O, L, R, K
Ans 1. O
2. P
3. R
4. Q
Q.12 One of the four figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) does not fit into the series. Find out the figure.
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.13 In the question below, there are three statements followed by two conclusions. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follow(s) from the
given statements.
Statements:
I. Some shockers are mockers.
II. All hockers are mockers.
III. Some mockers are dockers.
Conclusion:
I. Some shockers are hockers.
II. Some dockers are mockers.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows
2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3. Either conclusion I or II follows
4. Only conclusion I follow
Q.14 Find the missing figure in the series from the given option figures.
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.15 In a birthday party there were 84 chocolates inside a box. Child took 24 from it but put 22
back to the box. Then again he took 27 out but put 19 back into the box. Lastly, he took 15
Chocolates out from the box. So, how many Chocolates are there inside the box?
Ans 1. 63
2. 59
3. 48
4. 55
Q.16 Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.17 Which one of the following figures represents the relationship among TV, Radio, and
Cinema hall?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.18 Select the related letter group from the given alternatives.
EV : IZ :: GT : ?
Ans 1. KX
2. IU
3. KQ
4. LW
Q.19 Choose the odd one from the given alternatives.

Ans 1. UX : SZ
2. PS : NU
3. QT : NV
4. HK : FM
Q.20 A statement is given followed by four assumptions, (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to consider
the statement to be true, even if it seems to be variance from commonly known facts. You
are to decide which of the given assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given
statement. Indicate your answer.
Statement:
Television has a strong influence in the young children’s development.
Ans 1. While developing TV programmes, educational, developmental and moral aspects of
children should be take care of
2. Young Children should not allowed to watch TV programmes
3. Television affects the academic progress of your children
4. Children watching TV should be controlled by the parents
Section : General Awareness
Q.1 In which year was the Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY) launched?
Ans 1. 2002
2. 1999
3. 2004
4. 2000
Q.2 ‘Burrakatha’ is regional music of which of the following Indian States?

Ans 1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Odisha
Q.3 Which article of Indian constitution is about Prohibition of employment of children in

factories?
Ans 1. Article 21 A
2. Article 26
3. Article 22
4. Article 24
Q.4 When was Namami Gange Programme approved?

Ans 1. August 2012
2. January 2013
3. June 2014
4. October 2017
Q.5 Who was appointed as the Subhedar of Awadh in 1722?

Ans 1. Murshid Quli Khan
2. Asaf Jah
3. Saadat Khan
4. Farrukh Siyar
Q.6 Bhaichung Bhutia is associated with which of the following sport?

Ans 1. Basketball
2. Cricket
3. Hockey
4. Football
Q.7 The National song of India, ‘Vande Matram’ has been taken from which book?
Ans 1. Rajani
2. Anand Math
3. Bankim Rachnavali
4. Neel darpan
Q.8 Which national movement is also known as Vandematram Movement?

Ans 1. Non-Cooperation Movement
2. Swadeshi Movement
3. Home Rule Movement
4. Champaran Satyagraha
Q.9 Ashoka was ruler of which of the following dynasty?

Ans 1. Gupta Empire
2. Kushana Dynasty
3. Chalukya Dynasty
4. Mauryan Empire
Q.10 Which color is observed when presence of protein in a food item is tested using copper
sulphate and caustic soda?
Ans 1. Green
2. Brown
3. Pink
4. Violet
Q.11 Where is Bahai Temple situated?
Ans 1. Mumbai
2. Chennai
3. New Delhi
4. Kolkata
Q.12 Who among the following did not receive the Bharat Ratna Award 2019?
Ans 1. Shri Pranab Mukherjee
2. Shri Nanaji Deshmukh
3. Dr. Bhupen Hazarika
4. Shri Anilkumar Manibhai Naik
Q.13 Which of the following is a type of protecting tissue in an animal body?

Ans 1. Muscular tissue
2. Epithelial tissues
3. Connective tissue
4. Nervous tissue
Q.14 What was the Constitution (Twenty-first Amendment) Act, 1967 all about?
Ans 1. Formation of Sikkim as a State within the Indian Union
2. Inclusion of Sindhi as an Official Language
3. Formation of State of Nagaland, with special protection under Article 371A
4. Inclusion of Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali as Official Languages
Q.15 Yamini Krishnamurthy is associated with which of the following fields?

Ans 1. Classical Dance
2. Sports
3. Science
4. Politics
Q.16 Who is the present Chief Minister of Goa?

Ans 1. Manohar Parrikar
2. Pramod Sawant
3. Laxmikant Parsekar
4. Digambar Kamat
Q.17 Where is the RBI museum situated in India?

Ans 1. Kolkata
2. Bhopal
3. Delhi
4. Bhubaneswar
Q.18 Bachendri Pal received which of the following Award in 2019?

Ans 1. Padma Shree
2. Arjuna Award
3. Padma Vibhushan
4. Padma Bhushan
Q.19 With the opening of Suez canal how much distance between India and Europe is reduced?
Ans 1. 5000 km
2. 7000 km
3. 10,000 km
4. 9000 km
Q.20 Which water highway is present between Sadiya and Dhubri?

Ans 1. NW-2
2. NW-4
3. NW-1
4. NW-3
Section : Arithmetic Ability
Q.1 A sum of money in 3 years becomes Rs.1344 and in 7 years it becomes Rs.1536. What is
the principle when simple rate of interest is to be charged?(in Rs.)
Ans 1. 1200
2. 1800
3. 1500
4. 1000
Q.2 A certain number is added to each of a pair of numbers which are in the ratio 4 : 5. The sum
of the resulting numbers is 39 and their ratio (taken in the same order as mentioned above)
is 6 : 7. What is the number added?
Ans 1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 9
Q.3 A is thrice as good a workman as B. C alone takes 48 days to paint a house. All three A, B
and C working together take 16 days to paint the house. It will take how many days for A
alone to paint the house?
Ans 1. 96
2. 64
3. 32
4. 72
Q.4 A train, running at a speed of 36 kmph, takes 60 seconds to cross an electric pole. How
much time it will take to cross a platform of length 250 meter?
Ans 1. 75 second
2. 85 second
3. 10 second
4. 80 second
Q.5 10 years ago the average age of all the 25 teachers of the Girls College was 45 years. 4
years ago, the Principal retired at the age of 60 years and after one year, a new Principal,
whose age was 54 years, was recruited. What is the present average age of all the teachers
if the Principal is also considered as a teacher?
Ans 1. 56 years
2.
3.
4. 55 years
Q.6 Study the following graph carefully and answer the question that follow.
Demand and Production of Cars in different Companies in a year

What is the ratio of the companies having more demand than production to those having
more production than demand?
Ans 1. 1 : 4
2. 2 : 1
3. 2 : 3
4. 1 : 3
Q.7 Study the following table carefully and answer the given question.
Based on the given Table, Percentage salary increase during the period 2008 -2010 is:
Ans
1.
2.
3. 25 percent
4. 30 percent
Q.8 If (p + q) : (q + r) : (r + p) = 5 : 6 : 7 and p + q + r = 18, find the value of p : q : r.

Ans 1. 4 : 5 : 6
2. 5 : 6 : 7
3. 9 : 6 : 12
4. 2 : 3 : 4
Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
Ans 1. 1702
2. 1865
3. 1576
4. 1682
Q.10 Two trains of lengths 80 m and 100 m are moving in the same direction with their speeds in
the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. If they cross a 20 m long bridge, then find the ratio of the time
taken by first train to the time taken by second train to cross the bridge?
Ans 1. 9 : 5
2. 5 : 9
3. 6 : 5
4. 5 : 6
Q.11 The average age of 25 students and the principal is 15 years. When the principal's age is
excluded, the average age decreases by 1 year. What is the age of principal?
Ans 1. Data inadequate
2. 38 years
3. 40 years
4. 39 years
Q.12 Simplify the following expression.
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.13 Given below is a bar graph, showing the percentage profit of company A from 2010 to 2014.
Study the graph carefully and answer the question.
If the investment of company A in each year was Rs. 2.4 crore, find the average profit per
year for the company for the given period.
Ans 1. 0.5 Crore
2. 1.176 crore
3. 0.49 crore
4. 1.165 crore
Q.14 38514 is completely divisible by which of the following?

Ans 1. 12
2. 21
3. 14
4. 14 and 21 both
Q.15 The price of an article becomes Rs. 63 after a decrease of 30 percent. Find the original
price. (in Rs.)
Ans 1. 96
2. 80
3. 90
4. 100
Q.16 In the equilateral Δ ABC, the base BC is trisected at D and E. The line through D, Parallel to
AB, meets AC at F and the line through E parallel to AC meets AB at G. If EG and DF
intersect at H, then what is the ratio of the sum of the area of parallelogram AGHF and the
area of the Δ DHE to the area of the Δ ABC?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.17 A man buys an article for 10 percent less than its value and sells it for 10 percent more than
its value. His profit or loss percent is:
Ans 1. 1 percent
2. 22.2 percent
3. 20 percent
4. 21 percent
Q.18 A discount of 5.5 percent is given to the customer on marked price of an article. A man
bought the article for Rs. 141.75. The marked price of article is:
Ans 1. Rs 148
2. Rs 145
3. Rs 146
4. Rs 150
Q.19 A gives 39 percent of his salary to B. From this amount, B spends 19 percent on his food
items and 15 percent on repair of furniture and the remaining Rs. 21879 puts in the saving
account. What is the half of the salary of A?
Ans 1. Rs 42500
2. Rs 84000
3. Rs 41500
4. Rs 64000
Q.20 Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 6 and 8 minutes respectively. If A starts the work and
they be turned on alternatively for one minute each, how long will it take to fill the cistern?
Ans
1.
2.
3. 6 minutes
4.
Section : General English

Q.1 Select the synonym of the given word.
Assured
Ans 1. Guaranteed
2. Confidant
3. Involved
4. Provoked
Q.2 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
One who specialises in the treatment of babies and children.

Ans 1. Paediatrician
2. Oncologist
3. Podiatrist
4. Gynaecologist
Q.3 Out of the four words given below, find the word which is not correctly spelt?
Ans 1. Guarantee
2. Believe
3. Occurrence
4. Occassion
Q.4 Find the correctly spelt word.

Ans 1. Millenium
2. Millennium
3. Mellinium
4. Mellinneium
Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, No substitution required.
Not knowing the language and having no acquaintances in the city, he found it hard getting
work.
Ans 1. hard in getting work.
2. No substitution required
3. hard to get work.
4. hard to getting to work.
Q.6 Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined. Choose the alternative which
best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.
Despite working very hard, Edward remained a cog in the wheel and his absence from the
crucial group project didn’t have much impact on the team.
Ans 1. functionally necessary but of small significance
2. holding an important job title
3. to shirk work & responsibility
4. to be a liability
Q.7 Out of the four sentences given below, which is the correct indirect speech of the sentence?
“Please give me something to eat. I am hungry” the old man said to them.
Ans 1. The old man ordered them to give him something to eat and said that they were
hungry.
2. The old man threatened them to give him something to eat and said that he was
hungry.
3. The old man commanded them to give him something to eat and said that they were
hungry.
4. The old man requested them to give him something to eat and said that he was
hungry.
Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
Bindu is strongly desiring to buy a car, so that she can travel fast and reach the office in
time.
Ans 1. strongly desires
2. is desiring strongly
3. was strongly desiring
4. desired strongly
Q.9 Select the antonym of the given word.
Dismal
Ans 1. Pleasant
2. Erratic
3. Modern
4. Random
Q.10 Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences.
a. Leadership is primarily about being people-centric.

b. It’s about treating people as equals and with respect.
c. It’s equally important to find balance between delegation and abdication.
d. Mentoring and coaching should be done not by sermons but working in real situations.
Ans 1. Only a
2. c and d
3. Only d
4. a and b
Q.11 Rearrange the following sentence in their correct order to form a meaningful paragraph.
Their nurses fed them

P - between meals, and at all times
Q - so they grew ever so much faster
R - than most babies do
Ans 1. PQR
2. RQP
3. QRP
4. PRQ
Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The few articles of furniture _______ a narrow bed, a chair, and a desk in one corner.
Ans 1. consists
2. including
3. included
4. consisting
Q.13 Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined. Choose the alternative which
best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.
In spite of the manager’s persistent efforts to reconcile the existing situation, all he
received was a cold shoulder from the management‘s side.
Ans 1. pay no attention to
2. a warm welcome
3. firmly acknowledge
4. be resistant to
Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
She's not speaking to him and he's not talking to her and ________ haven't spoken for years.
Ans 1. they
2. it
3. she
4. he
Q.15 In the following question, there are six parts marked S1, S6, P, Q, R and S. The position of S1
and S6 are fixed. Some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts
and choose the proper sequence from the given options.
S1. Old age are two words that people are scared to utter, let alone living it.
P. But, this couldn’t be farther from the truth in today’s time.

Q. Its perception is such that it worries people.
R. Recently, 71-year-old Sarah Simpsons was seen cycling in a resort in Goa where she was
holidaying.
S. Greying hair is equated to slowing down.
S6. Whether it is true or not, one could gauge her fitness levels by watching her being at
ease on the bicycle.
Ans 1. RPQS
2. RPSQ
3. QSRP
4. QSPR
Comprehension:
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions.
Air pollution has jumped to number five spot amongst the top killers in India. Releasing India-
specific data, the Global Burden of Disease (GBD) warned that outdoor air pollution caused
6,27,000 deaths and 17.7 million healthy years of life in 2010.
Worldwide, outdoor air pollution caused 3.2 million premature deaths and over 74 million
years of healthy life in 2010. A substantial rise in cardiovascular diseases, strokes and chronic
obstructive pulmonary diseases in India in 2010 are directly attributed to the rising levels of
particulate-matter pollution. Two-thirds of the rising disease graphs worldwide are found in
South Asia.
Dr Vinod Raina, heading the oncology wing at AIIMS, confirmed that ‘we are getting 10 lakh
new cancer cases every year, out of which approximately one Iakh are lung cancer cases. We
still have to quantify how many of these lung cancer cases are pollution-related’.
Dr Aaron Cohen, principal scientist, Health Effects Institute, Boston, and chairperson of the
4Jr Pollution Group at Institute for Health Metrics and Evaluation for Global Burden of
Disease, pointed out that a study of lung cancer amongst non-smokers had shown a 60 per
cent increase caused by air pollution.
Prof. S K Chhabra, heading the department of cardiorespiratory physiology at the Vallabhbhai

Patel Chest Institute, warned against the risk from new generation pollutants, especially
ozone that is currently responsible for a four per cent increase in mortality rates. ‘Ozone has
become a key ingredient of urban smog,’ said Prof. Chhabra.
Prof. Randeep Guleria, head of the pulmonary unit at AIIMS, highlighted how indoor air
pollution had emerged as another major killer amongst women using biomass for their
cooking requirements. ‘Women in the Gujjar community suffer high incidence of, cancer
caused by indoor air pollution,’ Prof. Guleria explained.
Allergies, respiratory diseases, bronchitis, asthma, etc. were all caused by air pollution. The
harmful fumes from vehicles are a major cause of air pollution.
The India-related data was calculated from the largest global database ever assembled using
India-specific levels of baseline mortality and incidence of five leading causes of death in
India and was released at a workshop organised by ICMR and CSE.
The 2010, GBD was produced by a rigorous scientific process involving 150 global experts led
by the Institute of Health Metrics and Evaluation along with WHO and Harvard University.
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Why is ozone a dangerous new-generation pollutant?
A. It is a major constituent of urban smog.

B. It is responsible for a four per cent Increase is mortality rates.
C. it is highly toxic.
Ans 1. Only B
2. Only A and B
3. Only A
4. Only C
Comprehension:
South Asia.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 The Global Burden of Disease warned that:
Ans 1. Healthy people had become unhealthy
2. People had increased the use of fossil fuels
3. Obesity was a killer
4. Many healthy years of life were lost due to air pollution
Comprehension:
South Asia.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Which of the following statements is false according to the passage?
Ans 1. The 2010 GBD was produced by a rigorous scientific process involving 150 global
experts
2. The head of oncology department confirmed getting thousands of new cases of
lung cancer every year
3. Air pollution has jumped to number five spot amongst the top killers in India
4. Two-thirds of the rising disease graphs worldwide are found in South Asia
Comprehension:
South Asia.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 What are the consequences of rising levels of particulate matter pollution?
A. Rise In cardiovascular diseases

B. Rise in strokes
C. Rise in obesity
Ans 1. Only C
2. Only A
3. Only B
4. Only A and B
Comprehension:
South Asia.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Which of the following sentence/s is true about women In the Gujjar community?
A. They use biomass for cooking.
B. They are highly prone to cancer because of indoor air pollution.
C. They are concerned about the pollution caused by biomass.
Ans 1. Only B
2. Only C
3. Only A
4. Only A and B
Section : General Hindi
Q.1 लोको ‘तेते पाँव पसा रए, जेती लंबी सौर’ का अथ है:
Ans 1. चादर के अनुसार ही पैर फैलाना
2. शु है क जान बच गई
3. जसको मा लक चाहे वह बुरा भी अ छा
4. अपनी औकात दे खकर ही खच करो
Q.2 वष बाद उसका वासी प त लौटा है। इस वा य म वशेषण या है?

Ans 1. वासी
2. वष
3. प त
4. लौटा है
Q.3 ‘परत ’ का पयायवाची श द है:

Ans 1. पराधीन
2. त काल
3. वनय
4. पग
Q.4 कस वा य म वराम च ह का योग सही कया गया है?

Ans 1. राजा-दशरथ, के चार पु थे।
2. दोन साथ-साथ खेलते, खाते,पढ़ते और टहलते है।
3. रा धका ब त खुश ई “वह माँ बननेवाली थी न”
4. दोन साथ साथ खेलते, खाते,पढ़ते, और टहलते है।
Q.5 दए गए वा य के लए एक श द का चयन क जए।

‘वह नाटक जसम गीत अ धक ह ’
Ans 1. गीत पक
2. ग र ठ
3. गीतछ व
4. चाटु कार
Q.6 वा य कार का चयन क जए।
‘अ प ानी य बु मान क क करना या जाने’।

Ans 1. संयु त वा य
2. म वा य
3. व धवाचक वा य
4. सरल वा य
Q.7 असंगत (बेमेल श द) का चयन क जए।

Ans 1. पहले
2. सुनहरे
3. चमक ले
4. कनक
Q.8 ‘मा ानंद’ म कौन-सी सं ध है?

Ans 1. यण सं ध
2. द घ सं ध
3. अया द सं ध
4. वसग सं ध
Q.9 श द-यु म के सही अथ-भेद का चयन क जए।
‘मानक-मा नक’
Ans 1. लाल रंग का र न- तर
2. मू य- मुरली
3. क मत- मूख
4. तर- लाल रंग का र न
Q.10 मुहावरा ‘ल पीकर रह जाना’ का अथ है:

Ans 1. बबाद करना
2. ढवाद होना
3. गु सा बदाशत करना
4. होश-हवास न होना
Q.11 वा य कार का चयन क जए।
‘अ का गा रही थी।’
Ans 1. आस न भ व यत
2. सामा य वतमान
3. अपूण भूत
4. सामा य भूत
Q.12 कस च ह का योग आवेदन-प या ाथना प म ‘ वषय’ एवं ‘ ारा’ के बाद होता है?
Ans 1. लाघव च ह
2. नवाचक च ह
3. ववरण च ह
4. अवतरण च ह
Q.13 वदे शज श द का चयन क जए।

Ans 1. ठु मरी
2. क पनी
3. काया
4. औजार
Q.14 ‘इ त ी’ का वलोम श द है:

Ans 1. अ त
2. व दना
3. उधर
4. ी गणेश
Q.15 न न ल खत म से पु लंग श द का चयन क जए।

Ans 1. दाल
2. रसा
3. अदरक
4. मच
Comprehension:
दए गए ग ांश का यानपूवक अ ययन कर न का उ तर द जए।
हमारा दे श कृ ष धान दे श है। यहाँ क अ सी तशत जनसं या केवल गाँव म नवास करती है। इतनी बड़ी जनसं या
का भाग श ा और ान के े म ब त पछड़ा आ है। इस पछड़ेपन के कारण एक नह अनेक ह। ये एक समान नह ह,
अ पतु व वध है। कह तो भू म अ ो पादक यो य नह है और कह ऊबड़ खाबड़ एवं ब त कठोर है।
इस कार ामीण क दशा और क पूण थ त को यान म रखकर ही ‘जवाहर रोजगार योजना’ को अ ैल 1989 को
त कालीन युवा धानमं ी ी राजीव गाँधी ने लोक सभा और रा य सभा दोन सदन म इसे लागू करने के लए घो षत कर
दया था।
ी गाँधी का यही मु य वचार रहा क इस योजना का लाभ उन ामीण को ा त होगा, जो हर कार से शो षत, पी ़डत,
सताए गए द न खी और अभाव त जीवन जीने के लए मजबूर कए जा रहे ह। ी गाँधी ने इस योजना को लागू करने के
स दभ म यह घोषणा क थी ‘इस योजना को सफलतापूवक काया वत करने के लए 2100 करोड़ पये क धनरा श द
जायेगी। येक गाँव का पंचायत तक प ँचना ही मु य ल य है। भारत के ामवा सय के सम त अभाव को र करना इस
योजना का सव धान ल य और यास होगा। नधनता और महामारी को र करने का मह वपूण यास यह योजना करेगी।
इस योजना के अ तगत रोजगार क ा त के भाग का 30 तशत केवल म हला के लए आर त होगा। इस योजना
के अ तगत यह भी एक ावधान है क येक नधन ामीण प रवार के एक सद य को उसके नवास थान के नकट एक
वष म 50 से 100 दन तक रोजगार दया जायेगा। अपने गाँव म इस योजना को काया वत करने के लए तीन से चार
हजार य वाली येक पंचायत को तवष अ सी हजार से एक लाख पये क धनरा श मलेगी बशत क उसका
गाँव र थत एक पछड़े ए े म हो।इस योजना क अपे त धनरा ध का अ सी तशत के सरकार तथा 20
तशत रा य सरकार वहन करगी।
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 उपयु त ग ांश का उ चत शीषक है:
Ans 1. म हला को आर ण
2. जवाहर रोजगार योजना
3. कृ ष दे श क धानता
4. धानमं ी रोजगार योजना
Comprehension:
दया था।
SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 ‘जवाहर रोजगार योजना’ के संदभ म कौन-सा कथन गलत है?
Ans 1. भारत के ामवा सय के सम त अभाव को र करना इस योजना का सव धान ल य और यास होगा।
2. येक नधन ामीण प रवार के एक सद य को उसके नवास थान के नकट तीन वष म 50 से 100 दन
तक रोजगार दया जायेगा।
3. इस योजना के अ तगत रोजगार क ा त के भाग का 30 तशत केवल म हला के लए आर त होगा।
4. भारत क अ सी तशत जनसं या केवल गाँव म नवास करती है।
Comprehension:
दया था।
SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 धानमं ी ी राजीव गाँधी ने ‘जवाहर रोजगार योजना’ को सफलतापूवक काया वत करने के लए कतने
करोड़ पये क धनरा श दे ने का ावधान कया था?
Ans 1. 1100 करोड़ पये
2. 2200 करोड़ पये
Comprehension:
दया था।
SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 उपरो त ग ांश के अनुसार ‘जवाहर रोजगार योजना’ क अपे त धनरा ध का कतना तशत रा य सरकार
वहन करगी।
Ans 1. पचास तशत
2. बीस तशत
3. स तर तशत
4. अ सी तशत
Comprehension:
दया था।
SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 उपरो त ग ांश के अनुसार ‘जवाहर रोजगार योजना’ को कस वष म त कालीन युवा धानमं ी ी राजीव गाँधी
ने घो षत कया था?
Ans 1. अ ैल 1989
2. अ ैल 1998
3. जूलाई 1989
4. मई 1989
Section : Discipline1
Q.1 In angular measurement of the Centesimal system 2, circumference is equal to _____.

Ans 1. 800 g
2. 200 g
3. 600 g
4. 400 g
Q.2 One mile is equal to how many Gunter's chains?

Ans 1. 20
2. 80
3. 40
4. 60
Q.3 According to the theory of probability, small errors tend to be more frequent than the large
ones. This means they are more ________.
Ans 1. negative
2. probable
3. improbable
4. positive
Q.4 Which of the following chains is mainly used for measuring fields in cadastral survey?
Ans 1. Engineer's chain
2. Revenue chain
3. Surveyor's chain
4. Gunter's chain
Q.5 In chaining on uneven or sloping ground, direct method is also called method of _______.
Ans 1. stepping
2. stripping
3. chaining
4. sliding
Q.6 The more experienced of the chainmen remains at the zero end or rear end of the chain and
is called the _____.
Ans 1. fixer
2. follower
3. leader
4. handler
Q.7 According to the code of signals for ranging, both arms extended forward horizontally and
the hands depressed briskly indicates ______.
Ans 1. correct
2. plumb the rod upwards
3. incorrect
4. fix the rod
Q.8 One sq.metre is equal to ______ sq.inches.

Ans 1. 1550
2. 1000
3. 1750
4. 1250
Q.9 If the whole circle bearing is between 0° and 90°, (reduced bearing) RB = WCB – 180°, then
the quadrant will be:
Ans 1. NE
2. SW
3. NW
4. SE
Q.10 In chaining on uneven ground, if h is the difference in level and l is the length of the slope,
then horizontal distance D can found by ______.
Ans 1. D = h2 + l2
2. D = √(l2 - h2)
3. D = l2 - h2
4. D = √(h2 - l2)
Q.11 According to British units one mile is equal to ________ furlongs.

Ans 1. 8
2. 6
3. 4
4. 2
Q.12 The earth’s polar axis is shorter than the equatorial axis by __________.
Ans 1. 55.20 km
2. 45.20 km
3. 42.95 km
4. 52.95 km
Q.13 Cumulative errors are also called ______.

Ans 1. systematic errors
2. mistakes
3. accidental errors
4. compensating errors
Q.14 According to metric units 10 decimetres is equal to ______.

Ans 1. 0.1 m
2. 1 m
3. 100 m
4. 10 m
Q.15 Which of the following is NOT a type of meridian?

Ans 1. Angular meridian
2. Arbitrary meridian
3. True meridian
4. Magnetic meridian
Q.16 If L is the measured length of the line, c is correction per tape length, l is the designated
length of the tape, then correction for absolute length Ca of the tape is calculated by ______.
Ans 1. Ca = (c + l)/L
2. Ca = (L - c)/l
3. Ca = (c * L)/l
4. Ca = (c - l)/L
Q.17 An error in which the maximum allowable limit that a measurement may vary from the true
value is called ______.
Ans 1. permissible error
2. cumulative error
3. maximum error
4. mistake
Q.18 According to the code of signals for ranging, left arm extended signal indicates ______.
Ans 1. continue to move to the left
2. plumb the rod to the left
3. move slowly to the left
4. move considerably to the left
Q.19 Which of the following is NOT a type of scale?

Ans 1. Vernier scale
2. Plain scale
3. Scale of chords
4. Scale of chains
Q.20 According to the Standard of Weights and Measurements Act (India), 1956 the unit of
measurement of distance is ______ and _______.
Ans 1. metres and centimetres
2. centimetres and millimetres
3. miles and kilometres
4. kilometres and metres
Q.1 The probable error of a single observation is calculated from the equation ______.
Ans 1. Es = ± 0.729 √∑r2 /n-1
2. Es = ± 0.6745 √∑v2 /n-1
3. Es = ± 0.6745 √∑v2 /r-1
4. Es = ± 0.943 √∑v2 /n-1
Q.2 Axial force in a member is considered positive when it produces ____ in a member.
Ans 1. strain
2. tension
3. pressure
4. stress
Q.3 If the Reynold number is less than 2000 in a pipe, the flow is a ______.
Ans 1. compressed flow
2. laminar flow
3. turbulent flow
4. mechanical flow
Q.4 In errors due to incorrect chain, correction to area is done by using the formula ______.
Ans 1. A' = (1 + 4e)A
2. A = (1 + 2e)A'
3. A = (1 - 2e)A'
4. A = (2e - 1)A'
Q.5 The ratio of the load causing collapse to the working load is called ______.
Ans 1. collapsing factor
2. shape factor
3. moment factor
4. load factor
Q.6 Vernier theodolites use verniers which have a least count of ______ to _____.
Ans 1. 20" to 30"
2. 40" to 50"
3. 30" to 40"
4. 10" to 20"
Q.7 Which of the following instruments is used for the measurement of a slope?
Ans 1. Pantograph
2. Foot-rule clinometre
3. Fennel's clinometre
4. Ceylon ghat tracer
Q.8 The shape factor for circular section is ______.

Ans 1. 1.2
2. 1.7
3. 1.8
4. 1.5
Q.9 What is used to empty a channel when it is NOT provided with any sluice?
Ans 1. Syphon
2. Manometer
3. Notches
4. Hydraulic jacks
Q.10 Electro-magnetic distance measurement ranges up to ________.

Ans 1. 25 km
2. 100 km
3. 50 km
4. 10 km
Q.11 Particle Detention time in detention tank is the ratio of

Ans 1. Volume by flow rate
2. Density by flow rate
3. Flow rate by Density
4. Volume by Density
Q.12 The erroneous length of a chain or tape is ______.

Ans 1. compensating -
2. cumulative -
3. cumulative + or -
4. compensating +
Q.13 In Self cleansing velocity

Ans 1. Solid particles get settled at the bottom
2. Solid particles will float on surface
3. Solid along with water move at very high speed
4. Solid particles will remain in suspension
Q.14 Eloctro-magnetic distance measurement enables accuracies up to _________.

Ans 1. 1 in 105
2. 1 in 205
3. 1 in 305
4. 1 in 405
Q.15 The unit of stress is ______.

Ans 1. m/s2
2. N/m
3. m/s
4. N/m2
Q.16 1Newton (N) is equal to ______.

Ans 1. 10 kg m/s2
2. 0.1 kg m/s2
3. 1 kg m/s2
4. 100 kg m/s2
Q.17 5 day BOD is taken at a temperature of

Ans 1. 0 °C
2. 15 °C
3. 20 °C
4. 10 °C
Q.18 While making Invar Tape what is the percentage of nickel used?
Ans 1. 54 percent
2. 18 percent
3. 72 percent
4. 36 percent
Q.19 The product of pressure intensity and cross sectional area of a flowing fluid is called ______.
Ans 1. gravity force
2. elastic force
3. pressure force
4. viscous force
Q.20 Which gas is the basic cause of Crown Corrosion

Ans 1. CO2
2. CH4
3. H2S
4. NH3
Q.1 Which force can be counteracted by providing super elevation of roads?

Ans 1. Gravitational force
2. Frictional force
3. Centripetal force
4. Centrifugal force
Q.2 The process of reaction of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere with alkalis in the cement
paste is called ______.
Ans 1. carbonation
2. oxygenation
3. deoxygenation
4. decarbonation
Q.3 The strength of material below which NOT more than 5 percent of the test results are
expected to fail is called ______.
Ans 1. mean target strength
2. nominal strength
3. characteristic strength
4. compressive strength
Q.4 In a liquid, when Mach number is greater than 1, there is no effect of disturbance in the
region outside the Mach zone. This region outside the Mach zone is called ______.
Ans 1. zone of reaction
2. zone of resilience
3. zone of action
4. zone of silence
Q.5 Due to which effect does concrete tend to expand laterally and longitudinal cracks become
visible when the lateral strain exceeds the limiting tensile strain of concrete?
Ans 1. Thermal effect
2. Magnus effect
3. Darcy’s effect
4. Poisson effect
Q.6 When will cracking of concrete occur?

Ans 1. When the shear strength of concrete is exceeded
2. When the tensile strength of concrete is exceeded
3. When the tensile strength of concrete is reduced
4. When the shear strength of concrete is reduced
Q.7 At what velocity of the fluid is the weight of the body equal to the drag force plus the
buoyant force?
Ans 1. Constant velocity
2. Terminal velocity
3. Initial velocity
4. Tangential velocity
Q.8 From the following, a typical cross section of which class highways has a carriage width of
3 m?
Ans 1. Typical 2 lane state highways
2. Urban arterial streets
3. Typical village roads
4. Urban residential streets
Q.9 What is back water curve?

Ans 1. It is the profile of the rising water on the upstream side of the obstruction
2. It is the profile of the falling water on the upstream side of the obstruction
3. It is the profile of the falling water on the downstream side of the obstruction
4. It is the profile of the rising water on the downstream side of the obstruction
Q.10 Which of these is NOT a function of curbs?

Ans 1. To provide space for walking
2. To delineate pavement edge
3. To control drainage
4. To present a more finished appearance
Q.11 Which vehicle survey is carried out with the help of the police?
Ans 1. Home interview survey
2. Registration number plate survey
3. Postcard questionnaire survey
4. Roadside interview survey
Q.12 The phenomenon of the lift force produced by a rotating cylinder in a uniform flow is known
as ______.
Ans 1. Reynolds effect
2. Magnus effect
3. Fluid effect
4. Dielectric effect
Q.13 Which method assumes that the structural material behaves in a linearly elastic manner?
Ans 1. None of the given options
2. Ultimate load method
3. Limit state method

4. Working stress method
Q.14 Which of these is INCORRECT in case of channelised intersection of roads?

Ans 1. Separates conflicts
2. Very cheap to construct
3. Controls speed
4. Protects pedestrians
Q.15 The ultimate moment capacity of the slab should NOT be exceeded at any point on the slab.
This condition is known as ______.
Ans 1. mechanism condition
2. longitudinal condition
3. yield condition
4. equilibrium condition
Q.16 What is the width of arterial roads in case of Bombay Plan?

Ans 1. Four lane width
2. Single lane width
3. Three lane width
4. Double lane width
Q.17 The cylinder strength is found to be invariably _______ the cube strength for the same quality
of concrete.
Ans 1. higher than
2. same as
3. zero
4. lower than
Q.18 The code book used for the storage of liquids for concrete structures is ______.
Ans 1. IS 456 : 2000
2. IS 13920 : 1993
3. IS 1893 : 2002
4. IS 3370 : 1965
Q.19 What is the intermediate width followed in India for less important roads with two lanes?
Ans 1. 5.0 m
2. 6.0 m
3. 4.5 m
4. 5.5 m
Q.20 If the Mach number is equal to 1, the flow is said to be ______.

Ans 1. super-sonic flow
2. real flow
3. sonic flow
4. sub-sonic flow
Q.1 Which of the following is an igneous rock?

Ans 1. Limestone
2. Granite
3. Quartzite
4. Kankar
Q.2 Which type of soil particle structures is exhibited in gravel when it is deposited due to
gravitational forces?
Ans 1. Single grained structure
2. Flocculated structure
3. Dispersed structure
4. Honey comb structure
Q.3 To what diameter of rolls is soil rolled in order to determine its plastic limit?
Ans 1. 3 mm
2. 2 mm
3. 4 mm
4. 5 mm
Q.4 Which soil type has specific gravity in the range 2.68 - 2.80?
Ans 1. Gravel
2. Organic soil
3. Inorganic clays
4. Silty sand
Q.5 In cement concrete, a substitution of cement with 30 percent fly ash may result in reduction
of heat of hydration by ______.
Ans 1. 50 - 60 percent
2. 30 - 45 percent
3. 40 - 55 percent
4. 25 - 35 percent
Q.6 Which of this is also called as water plasticity ratio?

Ans 1. Plasticity index
2. Liquidity index
3. Flow index
4. Consistency index
Q.7 What is the minimum height of the bottom of a pavement followed while drawing the
longitudinal profile of embankment in order to find its height?
Ans 1. 0.7 m
2. 0.5 m
3. 0.4 m
4. 0.6 m
Q.8 Which of these is an index property of soil?

Ans 1. Compressibility
2. Permeability
3. Relative density
4. Shear strength
Q.9 The Flakiness index and Elongation index test is NOT applicable to aggregate sizes smaller
than ________.
Ans 1. 10 mm
2. 12 mm
3. 4.75 mm
4. 6.3 mm
Q.10 Soil deposited by winds are termed as _________.

Ans 1. aerial soil
2. areola soil
3. wind soil
4. Aeolian soil
Q.11 What is the diameter of the hole in the cap used for pycnometer method of determining
water content of soil?
Ans 1. 5 mm
2. 6 mm
3. 3 mm
4. 4 mm
Q.12 In which of these chemical decomposition methods of formation of soil does water get
dissociated into H+ and OH- ions?
Ans 1. Hydrolysis
2. Solution
3. Oxidation
4. Hydration
Q.13 In which of these soil deposits does alternate layers of sand, silt and clay exist?
Ans 1. Alluvial soil
2. Marine deposits
3. Black cotton soil
4. Laterite soil
Q.14 Which soil type has sensitivity less than 1?

Ans 1. Sensitive soil
2. Insensitive soil
3. Extra sensitive soil
4. Little sensitive soil
Q.15 What is the other name for a roundabout intersection of roads?

Ans 1. T-intersection
2. Scissors intersection
3. Y-intersection
4. Rotary intersection
Q.16 Which of these does NOT affect the suction capacity of soil?
Ans 1. Pressure of water
2. Dissolved salts
3. Angle of contact
4. Temperature
Q.17 Which of the following shaped particles of aggregates have the highest shear strength?
Ans 1. Rounded
2. Sub angular
3. Well rounded
4. Angular
Q.18 In which type of soils are soil particles cemented by calcium carbonate?
Ans 1. Caliche
2. Fills
3. Bentonite
4. Black cotton soil
Q.19 Which of these is NOT INCORRECT in case of particle size distribution curve of soil mass?
Ans 1. It helps to determine soil susceptibility to frost action
2. It is used in classification of coarse grained soils
3. It doesn’t tell anything about soil compressibility
4. It is used in soil stabilisation
Q.20 Which is the most commonly used method of construction of flow net?
Ans 1. Plastic models
2. Graphical method
3. Soil models
4. Solution of Laplace’s equation
Q.1 A joint provided in the length of a column is called ______.

Ans 1. lacing
2. lug angle
3. splice
4. batten
Q.2 Process of taking levels on each side of a main line at right angles to that line is called as
______.
Ans 1. differential levelling
2. profile levelling
3. reciprocal levelling
4. cross-section levelling
Q.3 Elongated aggregates are those whose length is ______.

Ans 1. 1.6 times its mean dimension
2. 0.4 times its mean dimension
Q.4 In a staircase, a large baluster or post used to anchor the handrail is known as ______.
Ans 1. wall string
2. nosing
3. finial
4. newel
Q.5 The amount of irrigation water required in order to meet the evapotranspiration needs of the
crop during its full growth is called ______.
Ans 1. consumptive use
2. net irrigation requirement
3. effective rainfall
4. consumptive irrigation requirement
Q.6 Why is soda used during the manufacture of glass?

Ans 1. To modify hardness of glass
2. To increase its resistance to fire
3. To accelerate the fusion of glass
4. To impart colour and shine
Q.7 As per IS: 3495 (part I), what is the loading rate used to find the compressive strength of
bricks?
Ans 1. 45 N/m2 per minute
2. 32 N/m2 per minute
Q.8 The process of taking levels on each side of a main line at right angles to that line is called
______.
Ans 1. reciprocal levelling
2. cross-section levelling
3. profile levelling
4. differential levelling
Q.9 Schmidi’s Rebound Hammer technique is used to measure ______.

Ans 1. shrinkage limit
2. surface hardness
3. tensile Strength
4. compressive strength
Q.10 Briquette Mould is used for which of the following tests of bitumen?
Ans 1. Flash and Fire point test
2. Adhesion test
3. Distillation test
4. Ductility test
Q.11 Which apparatus is used to find the softening point of bitumen?

Ans 1. Briquette Mould
2. Penetrometer
3. Ring and Ball apparatus
4. Furol viscometer
Q.12 A hydraulic jump is said to be a Steady Jump if its Froude number is ______.
Ans 1. between 1 to 1.7
2. between 2.5 to 4.5
3. less than 1
4. between 4.5 to 9
Q.13 Which of the following effects of Fly Ash on cement concrete is INCORRECT?
Ans 1. Reduces the permeability of concrete
2. Reduces the amount of air entraining agents
3. Slightly improves the resistance to sulphate attack
4. Increases the heat of hydration of concrete
Q.14 If p is the standard consistency of cement, the amount of water used to find the initial
setting time of cement is ______.
Ans 1. 0.85 p
2. 0.70 p
3. 0.75 p
4. 0.80 p
Q.15 Le-Chatelier apparatus is used to find the ______.

Ans 1. permeability of cement
2. consistency of cement
3. setting time of cement
4. soundness of cement
Q.16 What is the top diameter and bottom diameter of the frustum of the cone used for slump
test to find the consistency of concrete?
Ans 1. 10 cm – 15 cm
2. 15 cm – 20 cm
3. 20 cm – 30 cm
4. 10 cm – 20 cm
Q.17 If S is the strength of concrete and x is the gel/space ratio, then according to Power’s and
Brownyard the relation between strength and gel/space ratio is ______.
Ans 1. S = 140/x3
2. S = 140 x3
3. S = 240 x3
4. S = 240/x3
Q.18 Glass is an example of ______.

Ans 1. ferrous material
2. polymeric material
3. anhydride
4. ceramic material
Q.19 The time period that elapses from the instant of its sowing to the instant of its harvesting is
called ______.
Ans 1. rotation period
2. growth period
3. base period
4. crop period
Q.20 The distance between the centre of two consecutive rivets measured along a row of rivets is
known as ______.
Ans 1. edge distance
2. gauge
3. pitch
4. eccentricity

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Participant ID 12360505814

Participant Name Vinay Saini

Section : Mental Ability

3. Hockey : Short corner

4. Shooting : Back stroke

FHE, KMJ, PRO, UWT,?

Q.10 Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Muslims : Quran :: Jews : ?

4. Guru granth sahib

Q.11 Find the wrong term in the series?

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Either conclusion I or II follows

4. Only conclusion I follow

Q.19 Choose the odd one from the given alternatives.

3. Television affects the academic progress of your children

4. Children watching TV should be controlled by the parents

Section : General Awareness

Q.2 ‘Burrakatha’ is regional music of which of the following Indian States?

Q.3 Which article of Indian constitution is about Prohibition of employment of children in

Q.4 When was Namami Gange Programme approved?

Q.5 Who was appointed as the Subhedar of Awadh in 1722?

Q.6 Bhaichung Bhutia is associated with which of the following sport?

Q.8 Which national movement is also known as Vandematram Movement?

3. Home Rule Movement

Q.9 Ashoka was ruler of which of the following dynasty?

2. Shri Nanaji Deshmukh

3. Dr. Bhupen Hazarika

4. Shri Anilkumar Manibhai Naik

Q.13 Which of the following is a type of protecting tissue in an animal body?

2. Inclusion of Sindhi as an Oﬃcial Language

3. Formation of State of Nagaland, with special protection under Article 371A

4. Inclusion of Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali as Oﬃcial Languages

Q.15 Yamini Krishnamurthy is associated with which of the following ﬁelds?

Q.16 Who is the present Chief Minister of Goa?

Q.17 Where is the RBI museum situated in India?

Q.18 Bachendri Pal received which of the following Award in 2019?

Q.20 Which water highway is present between Sadiya and Dhubri?

Section : Arithmetic Ability

Demand and Production of Cars in different Companies in a year

Q.8 If (p + q) : (q + r) : (r + p) = 5 : 6 : 7 and p + q + r = 18, ﬁnd the value of p : q : r.

Q.12 Simplify the following expression.

Q.14 38514 is completely divisible by which of the following?

Section : General English

One who specialises in the treatment of babies and children.

Q.4 Find the correctly spelt word.

3. hard to get work.

4. hard to getting to work.

2. holding an important job title

3. to shirk work & responsibility

3. was strongly desiring

Q.9 Select the antonym of the given word.

Q.10 Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences.

a. Leadership is primarily about being people-centric.

Their nurses fed them

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to ﬁll in the blank.

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to ﬁll in the blank.

P. But, this couldn’t be farther from the truth in today’s time.

Prof. S K Chhabra, heading the department of cardiorespiratory physiology at the Vallabhbhai