DAV SCHOOL, PALLIKARANAI

REVISION I EXAMINATION
BIOLOGY (044)
Class: XII Time: 3 Hrs.
Date: 04 /12/24 Max. Marks:70
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SECTION A

1. Ans: d) D- C peptide
2. Ans: a) random and directionless
3. Ans. (b) Yes, as the genetic code is degenerate
4. Ans: (d) Sperms that have an O chromosome will give rise to a male cricket.
5. Ans: (c) disruptive
6. Ans: (d) AIDS
7. Ans: (b) 50%
8. Ans: (c) distillation
9. Ans: (b) It is the first enzyme isolated from strain S2 of the bacterium.
10. Ans: (c) only P and R
11. Ans: (c) Golden rice is a transgenic rice having gene for β-carotene.
12. Ans: d) IV and VI
13. Ans: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
14. Ans: (d) A is false, but R is true
15. Ans: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
16. Ans: (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
SECTION B
17. Ans: (a)
Genotypic ratio: 1:1 ratio of carriers: affected (½)
Phenotypic ratio: 50% will not show major symptoms while 50% will show the symptoms. (½)
(b) Thalassemia is a quantitative problem of synthesizing too few globin molecules
Sickle- cell anaemia is a qualitative problem of synthesizing an incorrectly functioning
globin. (1)

18. a) Smack is obtained from the latex of Papaver somniferum. (1)

Drug’s affects
● It binds to specific opioid receptors present in our central nervous system and
gastro-intestinal tract.
● It is a depressant that slows down the body functions. ( ½ + ½ )
Or
b) Types of Antibody – IgA, IgM, IgE, IgG (1mark awarded when all 4 types are stated)
IgA – Lactating Mother to protect their infant(½ Mark)
Ig E – To protect from allergen(½ Mark)

19. a) (i) RNA polymerase-III is responsible for the transcription of tRNA, 5SrRNA and
snRNAs (small nuclear RNAs). (1)
(ii) In capping process, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to ‘5’ end of hnRNA. ( ½ )
In tailing process, 200-300 adenylate residues are added at 3 ′ end of hnRNA.( ½ )
Or
b)

( ½ x 4 = 2)
20. a) (i) Statin – Monascus purpureus
(ii) Citric acid – Aspergillus niger
(iii) Cyclosporin A – Trichoderma polysporum
(iv) Butyric acid – Clostridium butylicum
or
b) A-Sludge tank B-Gas holder C-Dung water
Methanogens like Methanobacterium produce large amount of methane, CO 2 and H2.

21. Ans: microinjection / disarmed pathogen vectors / treatment of host cell by bivalent
cation such as calcium /biolistic or gene gun method ( ½ X 4 = 2 marks)
SECTION C
22. Ans: i) Convergent evolution has resulted in the development of structures like wings of
butterfly and birds. Such structures are called analogous organs. ½ + ½
ii) For the population to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the expected frequency of the
heterozygous genotype (Aa) has to be 2pq = 2(0.7x0.3) = 0.42 [½]
Since the frequency of the heterozygous genotype (Aa) is 0.49, it deviates from the Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium/the population is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. (½ )
Factors that affect genetic equilibrium:
Gene migration / Genetic drift / Mutation / recombination /Natural selection
(any two 2 x ½ = 1)

23. (i)Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty (1/2)

(ii)They purified biochemicals (proteins, RNA and DNA, etc) from heat-killed S-cells and
discovered that DNA alone from S-bacteria caused R-bacteria to be transformed.(1/2)
(iii)They also discovered that protease (protein digesting enzyme) and RNAases (RNA-digesting
enzymes) did not affect transformation.(1)
(iv)Digestion with DNAse did inhibit transformation, indicating that DNA caused transformation.
They concluded that DNA is the hereditary material. (1)

24. (i)To reduce the BOD of primary effluent during sewage treatment, it is passed into large
aeration tanks with constant mechanical agitation and air supply. This allows vigorous growth
of aerobic microbes into floes which consume major part of organic matter in the effluent.
Hence, BOD of effluent is reduced.(2)
(ii) Anaerobic bacteria would not use the oxygen in the wastewater, thus the BOD would not
reduce.( ½ )
(iii) Anaerobic conditions need to be maintained as biogas-producing bacteria are strict
anaerobes. ( ½ )

25. Ans: i) The DNA fragments resolve according to their size through sieving effect provided
by the agarose gel. Hence, the smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves. (1 mark)
ii) The given agarose gel electrophoresis shows migration of undigested DNA fragments in lane
1 and digested set of DNA fragments in lane 2 to 4. (1 mark )
iii) The separated DNA fragments can be visualized only after staining the DNA with a
compound known as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation. (1 mark)

26.

(Correct polarity, label- coding strand, template strand , promoter, terminator)

2 ½ + ½ =3 marks
27. Ans: i) Using Agrobacterium vectors ( ½ )
ii) Infection by viruses having RNA genomes or mobile genetic elements (transposons) (1)
iii) The introductions of DNA was that it produced both sense and antisense RNA in the host
cells. ( ½ )
 Being complimentary, one RNA strand of the newly introduced ds RNA will bind to already
existing mRNA of the host cell which will ( ½ )
result in silencing of this mRNA of for translational purpose, RNA interference. Parasite will not
be able to survive in the transgenic host. ( ½ )

28. Ans: i) Bt toxin gene can be isolated from bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis and using rDNA
techniques it is introduced in the genome of the conventional variety. The gene would express
an insecticidal protein. This would provide the plant resistance to the corn borer, without the
need of insecticide. Spray of insecticide will not be needed. (1)

ii) cryIAb – It is a Bt toxin gene isolated from Bacillus thruingiensis which codes for toxic
insecticidal protein. The activated toxin due to alkaline pH of the gut solubilizes the crystals. The
active toxin binds to the surface of mid -gut epithelial cells and creates pores that cause
swelling and lysis and eventually cause death of the insect. (1)

iii) This toxic insecticidal protein exists as an inactive protoxin form in the bacterium but once
an insect ingests the inactive toxin, it is converted into an active form of toxin due to alkaline
pH of the gut which solubilizes the crystals. (1)

SECTION D
29. Ans: (a) - parent with purple kernel – Pp and - parent with yellow kernel – pp ( 1)
b)
P p
P PP Pp
purpl purple
e
p Pp Pp
purpl yellow
e

- 1 mark for drawing the correct Punnett square. (Gamete, genotype, phenotype )
- genotypic ratio: 1:2:1 / 1PP:2Pp:1pp ( ½ )
- phenotypic ratio: 3:1 / 3 plants with purple kernel: 1 plant with yellow kernel ( ½ )

(c) - test cross with a plant having yellow kernels/homozygous recessive ( ½ )

- The percentage of dominant and recessive phenotypes in the progeny of a test cross can
help identify the unknown genotype of the parent/ If the phenotypic ratio is 1:1, then the
unknown genotype will be heterozygous. If all the progenies are dominant, then the unknown
genotype is homozygous dominant ( ½ )
Or
d) test cross ( ½ )
test cross ratio is 1:1 and that of incomplete ratio is 1:2:1 ( ½ )

30. Ans. (a) - active immunity ( ½ )

Since he used matter from lesions, it is likely to be the antigen ( ½ )
which was then inoculated into the boy for protection against cowpox and building a memory
response against smallpox.( 1)
(b) - Vaccination can provide active immunity if antigenic proteins of a pathogen or the
inactivated/weakened pathogen (vaccine) are introduced into the body. ( ½ )
- For example, the COVID-19 vaccine or polio vaccine contains an antigen that when injected
in the body initiates an antibody response. ( ½ )

- Vaccination can also provide passive immunity if pre-formed antibodies or antitoxins are
injected into an individual. ( ½ )
- For example, in case of snake bites, patients are injected with antibodies against the snake
venom. ( ½ ) [Accept any other valid examples]
Or
(c) - passive immunization
 - Passive immunization involves injecting an individual with pre-formed antibodies rather than
the antigen itself which is responsible for the generation of a memory response.

SECTION E

31. Ans: a)
i) • Physical barriers- skin, mucus, digestive tract.
• Physiological barriers- sweat, saliva, tears, and acid secreted in the stomach.
• Cellular barriers- leukocytes, monocytes, natural killer cells, and macrophages.
• Cytokine barriers- interferons. (2)

ii) Benign tumors and malignant tumors

Benign tumors- remain confined to their original location and do not spread to other parts of
the body and cause little damage.
Malignant tumor cells grow very rapidly, invading and damaging the surrounding normal
tissues of other organs.

Malignant tumors are lethal as cancer cells /neoplastic cells go for uncontrolled growth, move
from the tumor to new sites through the blood to form secondary tumors. This invasion of
cancer cells from one part to other parts by the body fluids is called metastasis. They will
make the neighbouring cells to starve and damage them. (3)
OR
Ans:b) i) Organic farming is a holistic approach that seeks to develop an understanding of the
webs of interaction among the myriads of organisms that form the flora and fauna of the field.
● An organic farmer works to create a system, where the insects are not eradicated, but kept at
manageable level by a complex system of checks and balance within a living and vibrant
ecosystem.

● Organic farming states that the eradication of pests is not only possible, but also undesirable,
because many beneficial predatory and parasitic insects cannot survive without them.

● This use of biocontrol methods reduces the use of chemical pesticides and thereby pollution.

ii) Baculoviruses belong to the genus-Nucleopolyhedrovirus.( ½ )

Their role
● Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods. These viruses are
excellent for species-specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal applications.
They do not show negative impacts on plants, mammals, bird, fish or even non-target insects.
Therefore, they play an important role as biocontrol agent.(1 ½)

32. Answer: a)
(i) The recombinant colonies can be differentiated from non-recombinant colonies by their
inability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.

The recombinants do not produce any colour, while the non-recombinants produce a blue
colour with chromogenic substrate in the medium. It occurs because of the presence of α-
galactosidase in former and its absence in latter cells.

The enzyme α-galactosidase becomes inactivated on insertion of recombinant DNA, within the
coding sequence of enzyme. Thus, the method is called insertional inactivation.(3 x 1 = 3)

ii) diagram with correct labelling (½ x4=2)

OR
b) i) Crops become more tolerant to abiotic stresses like cold, drought, salt and heat.
● Dependence on chemical pesticides has reduced, i.e. pest-resistant crops.
● Helped to reduce post-harvest losses.
● Efficiency of mineral usage increased in plants, preventing early exhaustion of fertility of soil.
● Enhanced nutritional value of food, e.g. vitamin-A enriched rice. ( any 4 ½ x 4 = 2 marks)

(ii) The transgenic animals have been proved beneficial in the production of biological
products like human protein a-1 antitrypsin (by coding genes for that protein only), for the
treatment of emphysema and production of protein enriched milk (2.4 gms per litre)by
transgenic cow, i.e. Rosie. This milk contain the human alpha lactalbumin and was more
nutritionally balanced for human babies than natural cow’s milk.(3)

33. a)

Ans: i) sequence same as the coding strand except thymine is replaced by Uracil.
Polypeptide chain - methionine- leucine -glycine –phenylalanine (1)

ii) because introns are spliced off during the processing of hnRNA. (1)

iii) From bacteria to human a genetic code will code for same amino acid e.g. UUU will code
for Phenylalanine in all organisms. Some exceptions to this rule have been found in
mitochondrial codons and in some protozoans. (1)

iv) Glycine has two codons because the genetic code is degenerate, that means a single
amino acid can be coded by more than one codon. (1)

v) Presence of 2’ – OH groups at every nucleotide and Uracil instead of thymine makes RNA
less stable. (1)

Or

b) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase established that DNA is transferred from viruses that
infect bacteria.
They grew some viruses (bacteriophages) on a medium that contained radioactive phosphorus
and some others on medium containing radioactive sulphur.

Radioactive phages were allowed to attach to E.coli bacteria. As the infection proceeded, viral
coats were removed from the bacteria by agitating them in a blender. The virus particles were
separated from the bacteria by spinning them in centrifuge.

Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA, but not
radioactive protein because DNA contains phosphorus, but protein does not.

In the same way, viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained radioactive protein, but not
radioactive DNA because DNA does not contain sulphur.

Bacteria which were infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA were radioactive,
indicating that DNA was the material that passed from the virus to the bacteria. Bacteria that
were infected with viruses that had radioactive proteins were not radioactive. This indicated
that the proteins did not enter the bacteria from viruses. It proved that DNA is the genetic
material that is passed from virus to bacteria.