Physiology Mcqs

1. The intrinsic factor for vitamins B12 absorption is produced in

the______________?
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Pancreas
D. Duodenum

2. Peristalsis involves coordinated contraction and relaxation______________?

A. Above and below the food bolus
B. Lateral and medial to food bolus
C. Dorsal and ventral to food bolus
D. None of the above
3. Which is not produced enteroendocrinally_____________?
A. Intrinsic factor
B. Secretin
C. Motilin
D. GIP

4. The most important action of Secretin is to_____________?

A. neutralize the acid from the stomach
B. increase secretion of bicarbonates by pancreas
C. decrease gastric secretion
D. Cause contraction of pyloric sphincter

5. Trypsin is an activator of all of the following enzymes

EXCEPT_______________?
A. Chymotrypsinogen
B. Pepsinogen
C. Proelastase
D. Procolipase

6. which of the following secretions has a very high pH________________?

A. Gastric juice
B. Pancreatic juice
C. Bile in gall bladder
D. Saliva

7. Of the following is a reflex mediated by vagus ?

A. Bile flow from liver
B. Pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate
C. Cephalic phase of gastric secretion
D. Mucous secretion from the Brunner’s glands

8. Secretin is secreted by_____________?

A. Duodenum
B. Pancreas
C. Liver
D. Stomach

9. Peristalsis in the gut is due to ______________?

A. Preperistalitic intestinal secretion
B. Mecharical distension
C. Simultaneous action of circular and longitudinal muscles
D. Extrinsic nervous influence

10. The final sugars in intestinal chyme are____________?

A. Glucose & fructose
B. Ribose & mannose
C. Ribose & xylulos
D. Xylulose & fructose

11. Cephalic phase of gastric secretion is mediated by ______________?

A. Neuro hormones
B. Vagus
C. Hormones
D. Gastric

12. Most potent stimulus for secretin is______________?

A. Dilattion of intestine
B. Acid chyme
C. Protein
D. Fat

13. Cholagogues are the substances, which cause______________?

A. Contraction of the gallbladder
B. Increase concentration of bile
C. Increase secretion of bile
D. Favours acidification of bile

14. Small intestinal peristalsis is controlled by _______________?

A. Myentric plexus
B. Meissners plexus
C. Vagus nerve
D. Parasympathetic

15. Maximum secretory glands in stomach are________________?

A. Fundic glands
B. Pyloric glands
C. Gastric glands
D. Brunner’s glands

16. Vagal stimulation following intake of food does not affect secretion
of_______________?
A. Stomach
B. Pancrease
C. Parotid
D. Gall bladder
17. Pepsinogen is activated by ___________________ ?
A. Enterokinase
B. Low pH
C. Trypsin
D. Chymotrypsin

18. Pharyngeal phase of deglutition_____________?

A. Is a reflex mechanism
B. Vocal cords are closed
C. Is a voluntary mechanism
D. A and B

19. Production of bile takes place in____________________?

A. The gall bladder
B. Kupffer cells
C. Hepatic duct
D. Hepatocytes

20. The most important function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach

is_______________?
A. Destruction of bacteria
B. Neutralization of chyme
C. Activation of pepsinogen
D. Stimulation of pancreatic secretion

21. Histamine stimulate the secretion of_______________?

A. Gastrin by stomach
B. Pancreatic enzymes
C. HCL by stomach
D. Amylase by salivary gland

22. Bilirubin is conjugated with which of the following ?

A. Glycine
B. Glutamine
C. Acetyl CoA
D. Glucuronic acid

23. Bile color is due to_____________?

A. Creatinine
B. Bilirubin
C. Globulin
D. 5 mercaptan purine

24. Bile salt repeats its cycle in____________?

A. 4 times a day
B. 2 times in between meals
C. 8 times a day
D. 10 times a day in fasting

25. Stomach accommodates the meal by______________?

A. Deceptive relaxation
B. Receptive relaxation
C. Reactive relaxation
D. None of the above

26. All the following causes the secretion of gastric juice during cephalic
phase EXCEPT______________?
A. Food in the mouth
B. Sight of food
C. Food in the stomach
D. Thought of food

27. Within which parts of a gastric gland are chief cells

located_____________?
A. Fundus
B. Isthmus
C. Neck
D. Gastric pit

28. Gastro – intestinal hormone in the following is_______________?

A. Pepsin
B. Ptyalin
C. Cholecystokinin
D. Trypsin

29. Cephalic phase of gastric secretion can be demonstrated by the following

experiment____________?
A. Heidenhan’s pouch
B. Condition reflex
C. Pavlov’s pouch
D. None of the above

30. Fats absorbed with the help of bile salts are_______________?

A. Free fatty acid
B. Glycerol
C. Higher fattery acids, diglycerides and monoglycereides
D. All of the above

31. Urine urobilinogen is absent in_______________?

A. Obstructive jaundice
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Hemolytic jaundice
D. All of the above

32. Pancreatic juice rich in water and electrolytes but poor in enzymes is
secreted in response to ______________?
A. Pancreatozymine
B. Cholecystokinin
C. Secretin
D. Proteins
33. Maximum absorption of bile occurs at_____________?
A. Jejunum
B. Duodenum
C. Ileum
D. Colon

34. Gastric secretion is stimulated by all the following except_____________?

A. Secretin
B. Gastric distension
C. Gastrin
D. Vagal stimulus

35. Secretin does not cause _______________?

A. Bicarbonate secretion
B. Augments the action of CCK
C. Contraction of pyloric sphincter
D. Gastric secretion increase

36. The only sugar normally absorbed in the intestine against a concentration
gradient is_____________?
A. Xylose
B. Mannose
C. Glucose
D. Galactose

37. Parietal cells of gastric mucosa secrete ______________ ?

A. Hcl
B. Gastrin
C. Mucin
D. All of the above

38. The duodenum secretes a hormone which has following effects

except_______________?
A. Causes copious pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate and poor in enzymes
B. Increases gastric motility
C. Causes gall bladder to contract and sphincter of oddi to relax
D. Leads to meager flow of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes

39. Gastrin is produced by _____________?

A. Pancreas
B. Gastric antral cells
C. Pituitary
D. All

40. All are actions of CCK except_______________?

A. Relax lower esophageal sphincter
B. Increased pancreatic secretion
C. Increased gastric secretion
D. Causes GB contraction

41. Best stimuli for secretion is______________?

A. Protein
B. Acid
C. Fat
D. Bile

42. Nutrients are mainly absorbed in______________?

A. Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Liver
D. Stomach

43. Pancreas produce_____________?

A. Pepsinogen
B. Chymotrypsinogen
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. All of the above

44. Which of the following body secretions is maximum______________?

A. Salivary
B. Gastric
C. Sweat
D. Lacrimal

45. Bile acids are derived from_____________?

A. Bile salts
B. Bile pigments
C. A & B
D. Cholesterol

46. In jaundice, there is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia which is most

likely due to __________?
A. Hepatitis
B. Cirrhosis
C. Obstruction of bile canaliculi
D. Increased break down of red cells

47. Hypothyroidism should be treated with daily administration of which of the

following thyroid hormone preparations ?
A. Thyroid extract
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Thyroxine (T4)
D. Triiodothyronine (T3)

48. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by

_____________?
A. Parathyroid hormone ( PTH)
B. Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
C. Interleukin – 6 ( IL- 6)
D. Calcitonin

49. Insulin facilitates glucose uptake in____________?

A. Kidney tubules
B. Red blood cells
C. Brain
D. Skeletal muscle

50. Not a glycoprotein_______________?

A. FSH
B. LH
C. TSH
D. GH

51. Cortisol______________?
A. Secretion increases following injury
B. Favours protein synthesis
C. Enhances antigen – antibody reactions
D. Tends to lower blood pressure

52. All are seen in Cushing ‘s syndrome except_______________?

A. Truncal obesity
B. Hypertension
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Poor wound healing

53. Which is false regarding insulin______________?

A. Secreted by beta cells
B. Glycopeptide
C. Causes lipogenesis
D. Promotes glycogenesis

54. Human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone ( HCG)______________?

A. Acts on the uterus to maintain integrity of endometrium in early pregnancy
B. Production is greatest in the last three months of pregnancy
C. Can be identified in the urine of pregnant women by immunological technique
D. Is a steroid hormone

55. Regarding myxedema the following are true except______________?

A. Swollen, oedematous look of the face
B. Impotency, amenorrhea
C. B.M.R increased by 30 -45%
D. Dullness, loss of memory

56. The catecholamines secreted by adrenal medulla______________?

A. Increases the blood glucose level by favoring glycogenolysis in blood and
muscle cells
B. Decrease the level o free fatty acids and ketone bodies
C. Increase the splanchnic blood flow
D. Are under the control of parasy

57. In thyrotoxicosis , there is______________?

A. Decrease in calcium excretion
B. Increase in serum proteins which bind throxine
C. Potentiation of catecholamine action
D. Increase in calcium excretion

58. Progesterone production in the ovary is primarily by______________?

A. Stroma
B. Corpora albicans
C. Corpora lutea
D. Mature follicles

59. All the following hormones are secreted by adrenal cortex

except_______________?
A. Estriol
B. Cortisol
C. Corticosterone
D. Aldosterone

60. Contraceptive action of combined pill is mainly due to_______________?

A. Decrease in tubal motility
B. Prevents the fertilization
C. Prevents the implantation of fertilized egg
D. Inhibits ovulation

61. Epinephrine is most closely related in structure to

____________________?
A. Niacin
B. Tyrosine
C. Methionine
D. Glycerol

62. Steroid hormones are believed to enter target cells via_______________?

A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Carrier – mediated endocytosis
C. Cholesterol lined pores in the plasma membrane
D. Simple diffusion

63. Which of the following statements about the action of the somatomedin is
true ?
A. They inhibit protein synthesis
B. They antagonize the effect of insulin
C. They promote growth of bone and cartilage
D. They mediated the local effects of Somatostatin

64. Hormone released during increased stress is_____________?

A. Cortisol
B. Thyroxine
C. Growth hormone
D. Somatostatin

65. Features of hypothyroidism does not include______________?

A. Obseity
B. Hypertension
C. High TSH levels
D. Increased risk of infections

66. The primary site of action of antidiuretic hormone is on

the_______________?
A. Distal tubules and collecting ducts in the kidney
B. Afferent arterioles of the glomeruli
C. Thirst center in the hypothalamus
D. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus

67. The hormone , which stimulates uterus contraction and lets down milk,
is_____________?
A. Progesterone
B. Prolactin
C. Prostaglandin
D. Oxytocin

68. Which hormone does not have corresponding release hormone produced
in pituitary ?
A. TSH
B. Prolactin
C. ACTH
D. FSH

69. Thyroxine causes all the following except______________?

A. Decreased cell metabolism
B. Increased oxygen consumption
C. Increased pulmonary ventilation
D. Increased basal metabolism

70. Which of the following hormones increase the sensitivity of heart to

epinephrine________________?
A. Parathyroid
B. Insulin
C. Thyroid
D. Glucagon

71. Which of the following is called hunger hormone______________?

A. Epinephrine
B. Glucagon
C. Pituitary
D. Thyroxine

72. Posterior pituitary insufficiency leads to______________?

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Dwarfism
D. Cretinism

73. The blood glucose level in diabetes mellitus is decreased by removal of

the______________?
A. Thyroid
B. Parathyroids
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary

74. Adrenaline used for controlling of bleeding during surgery may result
in________________?
A. Syncope
B. Cardiac arrhythmias
C. Drastic fall in blood pressure
D. Precipitation of allergic reaction

75. The primary effect of calcitonin is__________________?

A. Bone deposition
B. Bone resorption
C. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium
D. Decreases intestinal absorption of calcium

76. The decreased phosphate level seen in hyper parathyroidism is due to

________________?
A. Decreased intestinal phosphate absorption
B. Increased calcium excretion
C. Decreased renal phosphate absorption
D. Increased loss of phosphate in urine

77. The hormone whose deficiency causes diabetes insipidus is released from
which nucleus of pituitary ________________?
A. Supraoptic
B. Pre optic
C. Suprachiasmatic
D. Paraventricular

78. Aldosterone production is controlled by _____________?

A. Anterior pituitary gland
B. Posterior pituitary gland
C. Hypothalamus
D. Adrenal gland

79. Hormones, which stimulate spermatogenesis, are______________?

A. Insulin and glucagon
B. Thyroxine and parathormone
C. A.D.H. and Oxytocin
D. Testosterone and F.S. H

80. Which of the following results due to excessive parathormone

secretion_______________?
A. Increased excretion of phosphates
B. Increased serum calcium
C. Decrease excretion of calcium
D. Increase excretion of calcium
81. Bone metabolism is controlled by ____________?
A. Vit – D & Calcium
B. Parathormone
C. Calcitonin
D. All of the above

82. Changes in biological activity occurring daily are referred as _________

rhythm?
A. Circadian
B. Circa triginatan
C. Circa sestin
D. Circannual

83. Iodine is primarily important in the biochemical synthesis

of______________?
A. ACTH
B. Thyroxine
C. Adrenaline
D. Calcitonin

84. Trousseau’s sign and chovstek’s sings are positive in___________?

A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hypoparathyroidism
D. Hyperthyroidism

85. Vasopressin is synthesized in the_____________?

A. Anterior pituitary
B. Hypothalamus
C. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
D. Vasomotor center

86. Aldosterone______________?
A. Increases reabsorption of sodium
B. Increases exceretion of potassium
C. Increases retention of sodium
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

87. A phaeochromocytoma is a tumour of the____________?

A. Adrenal cortex
B. Parathyroids
C. Pituitary
D. None of the above

88. Which of the following is associated with a low concentration of ionized

calcium in the serum ?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Osteogenesis imperfecta
C. Paget’s disease of the bone
D. Tetany
89. Which of the following hormones is released from the posterior pituitary ?
A. ACTH
B. Antidiuretic hormone
C. Growth hormone
D. Luetinizing hormone

90. All of the following are adverse effects of long- term corticosteroids
EXCEPT____________?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Psychosis
C. Peptic ulcers
D. Osteoporosis

91. Which amongst the following is the gold standard for demonstrating
hcG____________?
A. Radio immune assay
B. Latex agglutination
C. Immunofluorescence
D. ELISA

92. Which one of the following is a precursor of both gonadal and

adrenocortical hormones_____________?
A. Progesterone
B. Cortisol
C. Testosterone
D. Corticosterone

93. Inhibit b hormone has effect on_______________?

A. Sertoli cells
B. FSH
C. Seminiferous tubules
D. Spermatogenesis

94. Glucose tolerance test is usually done to assess_____________?

A. Acute Pancreatitis
B. Carcinoma of Head of Pancreas
C. Acinar Function of the Pancreas
D. Endocrine Dysfunction of Pancreas

95. Which of the following hormones act via cAMP ?

A. Insulin
B. Parathormone
C. Vasopressin
D. Adrenalin

96. Insulin increases the activity of___________?

A. HMG. CoA reductase
B. HMG- CoA lyase
C. HMG- CoA synthase
D. Thiolase
97. Hyperthyroidism can be caused by____________?
A. Clonidine
B. Amiodarone
C. Hydralazine
D. Penicillamine

98. Hormones FSH & LH of anterior pituitary gland acts

on___________________?
A. Testis but not ovaries
B. Ovaries but not testis
C. Both Testis and ovaries
D. Adrenal cortex

99. Removal of parathyroid gland produces the following changes

EXCEPT_________________?
A. Decline plasma calcium level
B. Decrease in plasma phosphate level
C. Neuromuscular hyperexcitability
D. hypo calcemic tetany

100. Fertilized ovum usually gets attached to the uterus wall in ____________?
A. 14 days
B. 28 days
C. 8 weeks
D. 1 week

101. Aldosterone secretion is increased when there is a fall in____________?

A. Plasma K+
B. Plasma Na+
C. pH of the plasma
D. Angiotensin II level

102. Hormone responsible for milk ejection______________?

A. Oxytocin
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. Prolactin

103. The most significant immediate result of lowered serum calcium

is_______________?
A. Weakened heart action
B. Decalcification of bones
C. Decalcification of teeth
D. Hyperirritability of nerves and muscles

104. Tetany is characterized by ________________?

A. Hypotonicity of muscles
B. Hypertonicity of muscles
C. Increased serum calcium concentration
D. None of the above
105. The effect which is seen due to decrease in serum calcium concentration
is_______________?
A. Relaxation of muscle
B. Excitability of the muscle
C. Increase the renal absorption
D. Depression of Nervous system

106. Paneth cells secrete which of the following ?

A. Antibacterial substance
B. Lipase
C. Maltase
D. Secretin

107. following are the features of cretinism, except_____________?

A. Pot- belly
B. Idiotic look
C. Normal intelligence
D. Stunted growth

108. All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors

except_____________?
A. Adrenalin
B. Growth Hormone
C. Insulin
D. Thyroxine

109. Osteoclasts are inhibited / modified and regulated by____________?

A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Calcitonin
C. 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferols
D. Tumor necrosis factor

110. Blood coagulation is impaired in___________?

A. Tetany
B. Hyperparathyrodism
C. Rickets
D. None

111. A child is below the third percentile for height. Growth velocity is normal,
but chronologic age is more than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis
is______________?
A. Constitutional delay in growth
B. Genetic short stature
C. Primordial dwarfism
D. Hypopituitarism

112. Noradrenaline is differentiated from adrenaline by increasing___________?

A. Heart rate
B. Cardiac output
C. Peripheral resistance
D. All of the above

113. Following are local hormones except___________?

A. Insulin
B. Heparin
C. Bradykinin
D. Acetylcholine

114. Oxytocin causes all accept_______________?

A. Lactogenesis
B. Milk ejection
C. Contraction of uterine muscle
D. Myoepithelial cell contraction

115. Cortisol levels are maximum during____________?

A. Sleep
B. Early morning
C. Evening
D. Have no change

116. IN the adrenal gland, androgens are produced by the cells in

the____________?
A. Zona glomerulosa
B. Zona reticularis
C. Zona fasciculata
D. Medulla

117. FSH is secreted by_____________?

A. Chromophobes
B. Basophils
C. Acidophiles
D. Theca intern cells

118. Reverse T3 is__________________?

A. Synthetic derivative
B. Isomerisation product of T3 and active
C. Isomerisation product of T3 and inactive
D. Reverse of T3

119. Menopausal hormonal relations are______________?

A. Lh/FSH increase
B. Gonadotropins increase , estrogens decrease
C. Estrogens and gonadotropins decrease
D. Both increase

120. Not true about T3 and T4 is______________?

A. T3 more potent than T4
B. T4 binds to prealbumin
C. Absorption of T4 is more than T3
D. Concentration of T4 is more than T3
121. Ovulation is associated with sudden rise in______________?
A. Prolactin
B. Testosterone
C. L.H
D. Oxytocin

122. There absorption of sodium chloride in kidneys is controlled by the

hormones____________?
A. Adrenaline
B. Aldosterone
C. A.D.H. and vasopressin
D. All of the above

123. The following hormones increase the blood glucose level

except_____________?
A. Thyroxine
B. Parathormone
C. Growth Hormone
D. Epinephrine

124. Glucocorticoids decrease inflammatory reaction by

reducing_______________?
A. Activity of histamine
B. Release of histamine
C. Fibroblastic activity
D. Neutrophils

125. The supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus is believed to control

secretion of which of the following hormones ?
A. Antidiuretic hormone
B. Oxytocin
C. Growth hormone
D. Adreno corticotrophic hormone

126. Acromegaly is a disorder of____________?

A. Excess growth hormone secreting
B. Excess thyroxine secretion
C. Excess ACTH secretion
D. Excess FSH secretion

127. All the following hormones bind to cell surface receptors of the target
tissues EXCEPT_____________?
A. Thyroid stimulating hormone
B. Glucagon
C. Estrogen
D. Epinephrine

128. Which of these following is not an effect of insulin ?

A. Decreased gluconeogenesis
B. Increased glycogenolysis
C. Increased transport of glucose into cells
D. Induction of lipoprotein lipase

129. The hormone having the maximum effect on granulation wound healing
is____________?
A. Thyroxine
B. Cortisone
C. Parathormone
D. Epinephrine

130. Endocrine glands that are not influenced by the pituitary gland include
the____________?
A. Thyroid gland, testes , and adrenal medulla
B. Adrenal medulla, parathyroids, and the islets of langerhans
C. Adrenal cortex, parathyroids and ovaries
D. Pancreas, adrenal medulla and thyroid gland

131. Glucagon is secreted by ____________?

A. Alpha cells of pancreas
B. Beta cells of pancreas
C. Gamma cells of pancreas
D. None of the above

132. The receptors for parathyroid hormone are present in______________?

A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteoclasts
C. Periosteum
D. Cartilage

133. Negative BMR is observed with______________?

A. Pituitary disturbance
B. Thyroid disturbance
C. Parathyroid
D. All of the above

134. Glucocorticoids have all the following actions except_______________?

A. Increase in blood glucose level
B. Increase in protein catabolism
C. Anti – insulin action in peripheral tissues
D. Decrease in glucose uptake by the heart

135. Excess of cortisol causes______________?

A. Conn’s syndrome
B. Cushing ‘s syndrome
C. Acromegaly
D. Diabetes insipidus

136. A diet deficient in calcium will result in_____________?

A. Stimulation of the thyroid gland
B. Increased ability to cross – link fibrin
C. Production of Calcitonin and a low blood calcium level
D. Production of parathyroid hormone and bone resorption

137. Adrenal gland has two parts; cortex and medulla. Which of the following is
correct______________?
A. Cortex is under the control of ACTH
B. Both cortex and medulla are under the control of autonomic nervous system
C. Cortex is exocrine and medulla is endocrine
D. All of the above

138. Enzymes, which play an important role in calcification

are______________?
A. Enolase and Calcitonin
B. Alkaline phosphatase and catalase
C. Alkaline phosphatase and pyrophophatase
D. Pyrophosphatase and carbonic anhydrase

139. Endocrine disorder is the primary cause of______________?

A. Acromegaly
B. Albright’s syndrome
C. Paget’s disease
D. Fibrous dysplasia

140. Low calcium level will cause_____________?

A. Hyper excitability of wrist muscle
B. Weak heart action
C. Tetanus
D. All of the above

141. Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones is primarily under

inhibitory control of hypothalamus ?
A. TSH
B. GRH
C. Somatostatin
D. Prolactin

142. Which of the following hormones exerts the least effect on calcium
metabolism of bone tissue ?
A. Anderogen
B. Estrogen
C. Nor epinephrine
D. Thyroid hormone

143. Which of the following hormones does not affect growth ?

A. Oxytocin
B. Somatotropins
C. Thyroid hormone
D. Estrogen

144. Calcitonin is released by ___________________?

A. Parafollicular cells of thyroid
B. Chief cells of thyroid
C. Granular cells of adrenal gland
D. Stratum fasciculata of adrenal gland

145. Function of ADH is________________?

A. Water reabsorption
B. Water excretion
C. Na+ absorption
D. K+ secretion

146. Which hormone , together with the catecholamines enhances the tone of
vascular smooth muscle and assists in elevating blood pressure ?
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Glucagon
C. Thyroxine
D. Cortisol

147. A child with stunted growth with a stuffed – belly, and short stature with
mental retardation is suffering from the deficiency of which of the
following______________?
A. Thyroxine
B. Growth hormone
C. Rickets
D. Parathyroid

148. Deficiency of cortisol causes_______________?

A. Cushing syndrome
B. Graves’ disease
C. Addison disease
D. Acromegaly

149. Due fear which of the following hormones increases rapidly

_______________?
A. Growth hormones
B. Epinephrine
C. Corticosteroid
D. Thyroid hormone

150. Which hormone is released when serum calcium decreases ?

A. Parathormone
B. Calcitonin
C. Thyroxine
D. Adrenaline

151. In children, hypothyroidism causes_____________?

A. Acromegaly
B. Cretinism
C. Gigantism
D. Myxodedema
152. In conn’s disease, there is an excess of______________?
A. Adrenaline
B. Aldosterone
C. Cortisol
D. Noradrenaline

153. The oxygen tension of the mixed venous blood is______________?

A. 25 mm Hg
B. 40 mm Hg
C. 55 mm Hg
D. 70 mm Hg

154. In Haldane effect CO2 dissociation curve is shifted to_____________?

A. Left
B. Right
C. Does not shift
D. None of the above

155. The most common form of hypoxia is______________?

A. Hypoxic
B. Stagnant
C. Anemic
D. Histotoxic

156. Which of the following does not stimulate alveolar hyperventilation ?

A. Hypoxia
B. Hypercapnia
C. Acidosis
D. Stretching of airways

157. Arterial PO2 is reduced in_____________?

A. Anemia
B. KCN poisoning
C. Pulmonary hypoventilation
D. CO poisoning

158. In which of the following diseases would you expect to find an increase in
thickness of the respiratory membrane ?
A. Emphysema
B. Asthma
C. Pulmonary artery thrombosis
D. Skeletal abnormalities of the chest

159. Muscle of expiration____________?

A. Diaphragm
B. Internal intercostals
C. External intercostals
D. Rcti Abdominis

160. Oxygen dissociation cure is shifted to the right in all

except_____________?
A. Fall in pH
B. Rise in temperature
C. Increase of 2, 3 3 DPG
D. HbF

161. The alveolar ventilation in an individual with tidal volume: 600 ml, dead
space 150 ml and respiratory rate of 15/ minute is_____________?
A. 2.5 lit/Min
B. 4.0 lit /Min
C. 6.75 Lit/Min
D. 9 Lit/Min

162. The intrapleural pressure at the end of deep inspiration is

______________?
A. -4 mm Hg
B. +4 mm Hg
C. -18 mm Hg
D. + mm Hg

163. Hypoxia is characterized by ___________?

A. Low arterial PO2
B. Intense chemoreceptor response
C. Favorable response to 100% oxygen
D. All of the above

164. Alveolar O2 tension is______________?

A. Increased by hyperventilation
B. Decreased by hyperventilation
C. Similar to venous O2 tension
D. Not affected by respiratory depression

165. Surfactant is secreted by_____________?

A. Pnemocyte I
B. Pnemocyte II
C. Goblet cells
D. Pulmonary vessels

166. Vital capacity is decreased, timed vital capacity (FEV 1.0 %) is normal
in______________?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Scoliosis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Acute bronchitis

167. The type of hypoxia present in high attitude is_____________?

A. Anemic Hypoxia
B. Hypoxic Hypoxia
C. Stagnant Hypoxia
D. Histotoxic Hypoxia
168. The volume of gas in the lungs at the end of normal expiration
is____________?
A. Expiratory reserve volume
B. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume
D. Inspiratory reserve volume

169. tidal volume in adult is_____________?

A. 125 ml
B. 500 ml
C. 1500 ml
D. 2200 ml

170. A decrease in the arterial PO2 is seen in______________?

A. Decrease in hemoglobin concentration of arterial blood
B. Paralysis of inspiratory muscles
C. Sluggish blood flow
D. High altitudes

171. Kussmamul’s respiration occurs in response to_______________?

A. Decrease in pH of blood
B. Increase in pH of blood
C. Obstructive pulmonary disease
D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

172. Energy expenditure during normal breathing____________?

A. 25% – 50% of total energy spent
B. 50% -75% of total energy spent
C. 15% – 20% of total energy spent
D. 2% – 3% of total energy spent

173. Normal intrapleural pressure during the start of inspiration is _________

mm of Hg?
A. -2
B. -5
C. 0
D. -7

174. In cases of hypercapnia there is_______________?

A. Increased pH of blood
B. Decreased pH of blood
C. Remains same
D. Increased oxygen concentration in blood

175. Carbon monoxide poisoning causes_______________?

A. Hypoxic hypoxia
B. Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to left
C. Cyanosis
D. Diffusion capacity of lungs decreases

176. An important non- respiratory function of lungs is_____________?

A. Anion balance
B. Sodium balance
C. Potassium balance
D. Ca+2 balance

177. What is true about pneumothorax ?

A. Total chest wall diameter is increased
B. Interpleural pressure becomes more negative
C. The concentration of surfactant is reduced in alveoli
D. Increased lung compliance

178. Inability of exchange of oxygen through lung tissue if known

as____________?
A. Anoxic anoxia
B. Anoxia
C. Histotoxic hypoxia
D. Ischemic hypoxia

179. The approximate amount of air left in the lungs after maximal forced
expiration in a normal woman______________?
A. 0.5 L
B. 2.0 L
C. 1.1 L
D. 1.8 L

180. Carotid body function in an organ work as_______________?

A. Differential pressure of oxygen in arterial blood
B. Differential pressure of oxygen in venous blood
C. Differential pressure of oxygen in in tissue fluids
D. Differential pressure of oxygen in in hemoglobin synthesis

181. The transport of CO is diffusion limited because_______________?

A. Bind avidly with Hb
B. Partial pressure of CO is less
C. CO is less absorbed in water
D. Alveolar membrane is less permeable

182. Oxygen as an emergency drug is contraindicated in______________?

A. Anaphylaxis
B. Asthma
C. Hyperventilation
D. COPD

183. The quantity of water lost in expired air each 24 hrs is about___________?
A. 200 ML
B. 400 ML
C. 600 ML
D. 800 ML

184. Which of the following adaptations will be apt to increase the work
capacity at high altitude_________________?
A. Increased workload, decreasing duration of exercise
B. Increased workload, increasing duration of exercise
C. Decreasing workload, increasing duration of exercise
D. Decreasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise

185. Bronchial circulation is associated with__________________?

A. Air conditioning
B. Drug absorption
C. Gaseous exchange
D. Reserve volume

186. The work of breathing__________________?

A. is inversely related to lung compliance
B. remains constant during exercise
C. is not affected by respiratory
D. decreased in lying posture

187. Shift of the oxygen dissociation curve to right is caused by the following
factors EXCEPT_______________?
A. Increased 2,3 BPG
B. Increased temperature
C. Increased concentration of carbon – di – oxide
D. Increased concentration of oxygen

188. At high altitudes the following changes takes place

except_______________?
A. Increase in respiratory rate
B. Increases in depth of respiration
C. Increase in oxygen carrying capacity of blood
D. Increase in partial pressure of CO2

189. Which of the following statements about pulmonary surfactant is false ?

A. It is secreted by Type II pneumocytes
B. It contains lecithin and sphingomyelin
C. It increases surface tension
D. It prevents collapse of smaller alveoli

190. Increase in partial pressure of CO2 leading to release of oxygen to the

tissues is________________?
A. Haldane effect
B. Bohr effect
C. Breur effect
D. Hamburger effect

191. Ventilation perfusion ratio is maximum in_______________?

A. Base of lung
B. Apex of lung
C. Posterior lobe of lung
D. Middle lobe of lung

192. Vital capacity is a measure of________________?

A. Tidal volume
B. Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory volume
C. Tidal volume plus inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume
D. Expiratory reserve volume plus reserve volume

193. Oxygen affinity decreases in_________________?

A. Hypoxia
B. Hypothermia
C. HbF
D. Increased pH

194. Arterial O2 content is reduced in one of following ______________?

A. Stagnant hypoxia
B. Anemic hypoxia
C. Histotoxic hypoxia
D. Hypoxic or arterial hypoxia

195. Oxygen affinity is increased by all except_________________?

A. Alkalosis
B. Hypoxia
C. Increased HbF
D. Hypothermia

196. Non- respiratory function of the lung is_________________?

A. Dopamine metabolism
B. Adrenaline metabolism
C. Serotonin metabolism
D. PGE2 production

197. Smoking causes_____________?

A. Ciliary motility
B. Cellular hyperplasia
C. Mucous secretion
D. All of the above

198. Limitation of inspiration by vagal lung inflation signals is called

the______________?
A. Autonomic reflex
B. Bainbridge reflex
C. Herring – Breur reflex
D. Dynamic stretch reflex

199. Cyanosis or bluish coloration of skin and mucus membrane depends

upon______________?
A. The relative proportion of reduced and oxygenated hemoglobin
B. The absolute amount of reduced hemoglobin
C. Thickness of the skin
D. Fragility of capillaries

200. During the initial part of inspiration, which of the following does not occur
?
A. Intrapulmonary pressure falls
B. Intra thoracic pressure rises
C. Intra-abdominal pressure rises
D. The partial pressure of O2 in dead space rises

201. What effect does hyperventilation have on the oxygen binding affinity of
hemoglobin ?
A. P50 and oxygen affinity decrease
B. P 50 and oxygen affinity increase
C. P 50 decreases and the oxygen affinity increases
D. P50 increase and the oxygen affinity decreases

202. The best stimulator of respiratory center is____________?

A. Decrease in arterial carbon dioxide level
B. Increase in arterial carbon dioxide level
C. Increase in arterial oxygen level
D. None of the above

203. Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right by all of the following
except_____________?
A. Rise in temperature
B. Rise in carbon dioxide tension
C. Rise in pH
D. Rise in H+ ion

204. Most effective method of assessing breathing is by

measuring____________?
A. Tidal volume
B. Respiratory rate
C. Alveolar ventilation
D. FEV 1

205. The major sign of hypoventilations_____________?

A. Cyanosis
B. Dyspnea
C. Hypercapnia
D. Hypoxia

206. During inspiration when the diaphragm contracts, the intrapleural pressure
becomes_____________?
A. More negative
B. Less negative
C. Positive
D. Equal to the intra alveolar pressure

207. Tubuloglomerular feedback occurs in______________?

A. ADH secretion in collecting duct
B. Constant solute load on distal tubule
C. Macula densa
D. Balance between ascending and descending loop of henle
208. Most of the sodium is reabsorbed in_____________?
A. PCT
B. DCT
C. Loop of henle
D. Vasa recta

209. The renal blood flow in (in ml/mt) is______________?

A. 250
B. 800
C. 1260
D. 1500

210. Ammonia in the kidney tubules is excreted in exchange

for______________?
A. HCO3-
B. Na+
C. CL-
D. PO4-2

211. Inulin clearance closely resembles_____________?

A. G.F.R
B. Renal plasma flow
C. Creatinine clearance
D. P.A.H. clearance
212. Which one of the following is not responsible for concentration of urine in
the kidneys______________?
A. Aldosterone
B. Angiotensin II
C. Vasopressin
D. Epinephrine

213. Two substances that can probably be used to determine filtration fraction
are_______________?
A. Inulin and mannitol
B. Urea and diodrast
C. PAH and Phenol red
D. Inulin and PAH

214. In renal glycosuria, the renal threshold for glucose is_______________?

A. Low
B. High
C. Same
D. Greatly increased

215. Proximal renal tubule is most permeable to _______________?

A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Bicarbonate
D. Ammonia

216. Major portion of glomerular filtrate is absorbed in__________________?

A. Loop of Henle
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. Proximal segment

217. GFR is increased when________________?

A. Plasma oncotic pressure is increased
B. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is decreased
C. Tubular hydrostatic pressure is increased
D. Increased renal blood flow

218. Each kidney contains about ______ nephrons ?

A. One million
B. Two million
C. Four million
D. ½ million

219. The normal adult value of urine output________________?

A. 1.5 l/day
B. 3 l/day
C. 0.5 l/day
D. 2 l/day

220. Amount of glucose absorbed in proximal convoluted

tubule_______________?
A. 100%
B. 0%
C. 60%
D. 50%

221. Formation of a small volume of concentrated urine in dehydration is

associated with____________?
A. More reabsorption in the PCT
B. More concentration in loop of Henle
C. More reabsorption of DCT and collecting ducts
D. All of these

222. The glomerular filtration rate of the human kidney may be determined by
measuring the plasma clearance of______________?
A. PAH
B. Urea
C. Inulin
D. Glucose

223. The kidney secrete all of the following hormones except_____________?

A. Renin
B. Erythropoietin
C. Vasopressin
D. 1,2,5 Dihydroxy cholecalciferol
224. Carbonic anhydrase in the kidney tubular cells is known to be associated
with_____________?
A. Urea
B. Chloride
C. Bicarbonate ion
D. Carbohydrate

225. In osmotic diuresis there is_______________?

A. Increase in renal blood flow
B. Increase in glomerular filtration rate
C. Increase in NaCl concentration in urine
D. Decrease in reabsorption of Na Cl

226. Tubular maximum for glucose is_____________?

A. 180 mg/dl
B. 325 mg/dl
C. 375 mg/dl
D. 375 mg/dl

227. The reabsorption of sodium chloride is increased in proximal convoluted

tubules by hormones secreted from______________?
A. Anterior pituitary
B. Posterior pituitary
C. Adrenal cortex
D. Adrenal medulla

228. The part of nephron” least permeable to water” is______________?

A. Proximal tubule
B. Descending limb of loop of Henle
C. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
D. Collecting tubule

229. In which segment of the nephron does tubular fluid has the highest
osmolarity ?
A. Henle’s loop
B. Distal tubule
C. Proximal tubule
D. Collecting duct

230. Site of ADH action is______________?

A. Proximal tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Vasa recta
D. Collecting tubule

231. Diuresis is caused by______________?

A. Mannitol
B. Glycerol
C. Urea
D. All of the above
232. Macula dense in kidney is located in relation to______________?
A. PCT
B. DCT
C. Afferent arteriole
D. Efferent arteriole

233. Which of the following is important in renal excretion of hydrogen ion ?

A. Combining H+ with Cl- to form Hcl
B. Combining H+ and HCO3- via enzyme carbonic anhydrase
C. Trapping H+ by acetate
D. Trapping H+ by NH3+

234. The renal clearance of _______________?

A. Creatinine indicates glomerular filtration rate
B. Inulin is lower than that of urea
C. Chloride increases after in injection of aldosterone
D. PAH continues to rise as the plasma concentration of PAH increases

235. True about nephron is_____________?

A. Na is absorbed actively in descending loop of Henle
B. 60 to 70% of GFR is absorbed in proximal tubule
C. Absorption of water occurs in ascending loop of Henle
D. The filtrate reaching distal convoluted tubule is hypertonic with respect to
surroundings

236. The hyperosmolarity of the renal medulla is due to increased content

of_____________?
A. K+
B. Na+
C. Glucose
D. NH4+

237. Renin secretion is stimulated by all except_____________?

A. Cardiac failure
B. Low Na+ in proximal tubule
C. Sympathetic stimulation
D. High Na+ in proximal tubule

238. What is the glomerular filtration rate ?

A. 100 ml/min
B. 125 ml/min
C. 150 ml/min
D. 175 ml/min

239. To measure renal plasma clearance compound should

be_________________?
A. <70,000 Mol.wt
B. Bound to plasma protein
C. Secreted by the tubules
D. Completely filtered by glomerulus
240. The renal threshold for glucose is_______________?
A. 180 mg / dl
B. 100 mg/dl
C. 120 mg/dl
D. 80 mg/dl

241. Maximum amount of glucose absorption occurs at_______________?

A. PCT
B. DCT
C. Loop of henle
D. None

242. Functional unit of kidney is______________?

A. Nephron
B. Glomerulus
C. Collecting ducts
D. Loop of Henle

243. Brush border is seen in________________?

A. Bowman’s capsule
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Loop of Henle

244. In the human kidney, a renal papilla project directly into

the_______________?
A. Ureter
B. Major calyx
C. Minor calyx
D. Renal pyramid

245. Renin is released from the kidney in all except________________?

A. Sympathetic stimulation
B. Decrease in the concentration of sodium ions in the proximal tubules
C. Decrease in the concentration of sodium ions in the distal tubules
D. Fall in the BP

246. Test for estimating kidney function is_______________?

A. Serum creatinine
B. Serum phosphatase
C. Inulin test
D. Insulin test

247. A decrease in the urine output is called_____________?

A. Dysuria
B. Nocturia
C. Oliguria
D. Plyuria

248. The end plate potential is characterized by_____________?

A. Propagation
B. All or none law
C. Depolarization
D. Hyper polarization

249. Potassium is maximum in_____________?

A. Cell
B. Plasma
C. Interstitium
D. Bone

250. In excitable cells, repolarization is closely associated with, one of the

following events_______________?
A. Na effux
B. Na influx
C. K efflux
D. K influx

251. All are features of skeletal muscle except______________?

A. Cylindrical
B. Transverse striation
C. Centrally placed nuclei
D. Multiple nuclei

252. Rigor mortis results after death is due to________________?

A. Failure of acetylcholine to diffuse
B. Failure of ATP supply
C. Failure of break down of calcium bridges
D. None of the above

253. The skeletal muscle action potential______________?

A. Is not essential for contraction to occur
B. Has a prolonged plateau phase?
C. Spreads in ward to all parts of the muscle via the t- tubule system
D. Begins with an, in ward movement of K+ ins

254. Electromyography is used for________________?

A. To study muscle activity
B. Determine class II malocclusion
C. Determine the centric relation
D. Determine the centric occlusion

255. Skeletal muscles______________?

A. Contracts when calcium is taken up by sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Contracts when actin and myosin filaments shorten
C. Contraction is initiated by calcium binding to troponin
D. Contraction is initiated by calcium binding to tropomyosin

256. The contractile element in a skeletal muscle is present in______________?

A. Sarcolemma
B. Sarcoplasm
C. Myofibril
D. Endomysium

257. Which is caused by acetylcholine through nicotinic

receptors_____________?
A. Contraction of skeletal muscle
B. Decrease of heart rate
C. Secretion of saliva
D. Contraction of pupils

258. Which one of the following is a regulatory protein of the muscle ?

A. Troponin
B. Myosin
C. Actin
D. Protein- C

259. Skeletal muscles_____________?

A. Contracts when calcium is taken up by sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Contracts when actin and myosin filaments shorten
C. Contraction is initiated by calcium binding to troponin
D. Contraction is initiated by calcium binding to tropomyosin

260. Cardiac muscle contracts due to______________?

A. Extracellular Ca+2
B. Sarcoplasmic ca+2
C. Extracellular Na+
D. Intracellular Na+

261. Small packets of acetylcholine released randomly from the nerve cell
membrane at rest Produces_______________?
A. Inhibitory post synaptic potential
B. Miniature end plate potential
C. Action potential
D. End plate potential

262. Upstroke of action potential would lead to________________?

A. Net current in an outward direction
B. Cell interior becomes more negative
C. Cell interior becomes less negative
D. None of the above

263. The main types of muscle cells are______________?

A. Skeletal and cardiac
B. Smooth and cardiac
C. Smooth and skeletal
D. All of the above

264. Two major types of muscle fibres are found in humans_____________?

A. white and brown
B. White and yellow
C. White and gray
D. White and red

265. The absolute refractory period of an action potential is due to

_______________?
A. Insufficient neurotransmitter
B. Depletion of intracellular Na+
C. Inactivation of Na+ k+ ATPase
D. Voltage inactivation of the Na+ channel

266. Increase in threshold level on applying subthreshold, slowly rising

stimulus is known as ___________?
A. Adaptation
B. Accommodation
C. Refractoriness
D. Electrotonus

267. The number of muscle fibers in a motor unit are least in______________?
A. Laryngeal muscles
B. Pharyngeal muscles
C. Muscles of middle ear
D. Extraocular muscles

268. Succinyl choline acts to block neuromuscular transmission

by_______________?
A. Inhibiting cholinesterase
B. Inhibiting the CNS
C. Depolarizing the motor end plate of skeletal muscle
D. Blocking the release of acetyl choline at the end plate

269. Non true regarding Na/K pump is______________?

A. Pumps Na against a gradient
B. 5 Na+ exchanged for 2K+
C. Increase in intracellular Na
D. Hypocalcemia inhibits the pump

270. A motor unit is made up of______________?

A. A flexor muscle and an extensor muscle
B. A single skeletal muscle and all the motor peurons that supply it
C. A single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
D. All the motor neurons in which response are observed after maximal stimulation of a
single sensory nerve

271. The neuromuscular transmitter released at neuromuscular junction

is_______________?
A. Dopamine
B. Epinephrine
C. Nor epinephrine
D. Acetylcholine

272. In myasthenia gravis_______________?

A. there is lack of acetyl choline
B. Lack of acetyl choline receptors
C. There is isometric contraction
D. Muscles are rigid and tough

273. Tendon (or) ligament is attached to a bone through ____________?

A. Tomes fibers
B. Interstitial fibers
C. Sharpey’s fibers
D. Haversian fibers

274. In an isotonic contraction of the muscle________________?

A. The muscle moves a load through a distance
B. The muscle is not able to move the load
C. The latent period of contraction is shorter than isometric contraction
D. The length of muscle is increased

275. The study of the electrical activity of the muscle is_______________?

A. EEG
B. EMG
C. Venn diagram
D. ECG

276. The following electrodes are used to detect the muscle activity without
pain_________________?
A. Surface electrode
B. Round electrode
C. Hook electrode
D. Needle electrode

277. Contractile element in myofibril is_______________?

A. H band
B. Sarcoplasm
C. Sarcomere
D. A line

278. Calcium ions triggers muscle contraction by binding to

___________________?
A. Actin
B. Myosin
C. Troponin
D. Tropomyosin

279. Which of the following is not a marker of bone

formation_________________?
A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Osteocalcin
C. Procollagen marker
D. Hydroxy proline

280. Regulated bone growth through puberty occurs

through__________________?
A. Endophyseal plates
B. Ectophyeseal plates
C. Epiphyseal plates
D. Chondrophyseal plates

281. the acrosome reaction occurs, when the sperm_____________?

A. Enters the uterine cavity
B. Comes in contact with zone pellucida
C. Penetrates corona radiate
D. Penetrates cell membrane of oocyte

282. Decreased basal metabolic rate is seen in_______________?

A. Obesity
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Feeding
D. Exercise

283. False about blood brain barrier is_______________?

A. There are gaps between tight junctions at the active sites
B. There are no gaps between active sites
C. Less activity in the membrane
D. Fibronectin provides a barrier for diffusion

284. The processing of short-term memory to long term memory is done

in_______________?
A. Prefrontal cortex
B. Hippocampus
C. Neocortex
D. Amygdala

285. Valve of Hasner is present at________________?

A. Stensons duct
B. common bile duct
C. Naso lacrimal duct
D. maxillary Sinus

286. Regarding Golgi tendon organ true is ______________?

A. Senses dynamic length of muscle
B. Involved in reciprocal innervation
C. a- motor neuron stimulation
D. Sense muscle tension

287. _________ is an example for rapidly acting neurotransmitter?

A. Somatostatin
B. Calcitonin
C. Substance P
D. Glycine

288. primary cause of bleeding disorder in liver damage is due

to______________?
A. Decreased level of prothrombin
B. Lack of vitamin K
C. Platelet deficiency
D. Lack of vitamin B

289. Open faced nucleus in a cell signifies______________?

A. That the cell is resting
B. that the cell is active
C. nothing
D. that the cell is in transition phase

290. When a person lies down_______________?

A. There is immediate increase in venous return
B. Heart rate becomes stable at slightly more than normal
C. Cerebral blood flow increase & becomes stable at more than normal
D. Blood flow to the Apex of lung decrease

291. In a DNA molecule adenine always forms a linkage with______________?

A. Guanine
B. Cytosine
C. Thymine
D. Uracil

292. The oral and pharyngeal phases of swallowing take place very rapidly and
last about______________?
A. 3.5 seconds
B. 1-1.5 seconds
C. 6.0 seconds
D. 9.5 seconds

293. The major functional difference between DNA and RNA is_____________?
A. RNA contains ribose
B. DNA carries the information in all organizations
C. DNA is localized in nucleus
D. RNA does not contain thymine

294. Most important function of albumin in body is_______________?

A. Oncotic pressure
B. Drug transport
C. Toxic transport
D. Coagulation
295. In peripheral tissues which of the following contains substance
P______________?
A. Plasma cell
B. Mast cell
C. Nerve terminal
D. Vascular endothelium

296. The male sex hormone testosterone is produced by______________?

A. Sertoli cells
B. Epithelial cells
C. Interstitial cells of Leydig
D. Primitive term cells

297. Which of the following events DO NOT occur in rods in response to

light_______________?
A. Structural changes in rhodopsin
B. Activation of transducin
C. Decreased intracellular cGMP
D. Opening of Na+ channels

298. Gut associated lymphoid tissue ( GALT) is primarily located

in______________?
A. Lamina propria
B. Submucosa
C. Muscularis
D. Serosa

299. To check objective pain response, which is best used

method_______________?
A. Facial pain scale
B. Knee jerk reflex
C. H- Reflex
D. R III Reflex

300. T- lymphocytes play a primary role in_________________?

A. Production of Antibodies
B. production of lymphokines and delayed hypersensitivity
C. Activation of complement system
D. Immediate Hypersensitivity

301. Which among the following is also called” peak less” insulin analog ?
A. Insulin lispro
B. Insulin glargine
C. Insulin aspart
D. Lente insulin

302. Meiotic division of male germ cells commence_______________?

A. During intra – uterine life
B. just before birth
C. by around 6 years after birth
D. by around 16 years

303. The percentage of body water is greater in_______________?

A. Male than in females
B. Children than in adult
C. Obese than in lean individuals
D. old than in young objects

304. During exercise_____________?

A. Cerebral blood flow increases if there is increase in systolic blood pressure
B. Body temperature increases
C. Blood flow to muscle increases after 1½ minute
D. Lymphatic flow from muscle decrease

305. Plasma factor present in both serum & plasma is____________?

A. V
B. VII
C. II
D. Fibrinogen

306. In PHC, which anticoagulant is used to send the blood sample for blood
glucose_____________?
A. EDTA
B. Heparin
C. Potassium oxalate+ sodium fluoride
D. Potassium oxalate

307. Blood cells arise in bone marrow and are subject to______________?
A. Irregular renewal
B. Regular renewal
C. Infrequent renewal
D. None of the above

308. Site of RBC formation in 20 years old healthy male is____________?

A. Flat bones
B. Long bones
C. Liver
D. Yolk sac

309. In human the Hb is_______________?

A. HbH
B. HbA
C. HbM
D. HbS

310. Plasma cells are constituent of_____________________?

A. Nervous tissue
B. Muscular tissue
C. Epithelial tissue
D. Connective tissue

311. The tissue macrophages are derived from the________________?

A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Monocyte
D. All of the above

312. In a blood sample antiserum A and antiserum B and Rh+ ve factor is

added. No agglutination is seen. This is_______________?
A. O group and Rh+ ve
B. O group and Rh- ve
C. AB group and Rh+ ve
D. AB group and Rh – ve

313. AB group has following agglutinins_______________?

A. Anti – A & Anti – B
B. Neither anti A nor anti – B
C. Anti – A
D. Anti – B

314. Citrate is a useful anticoagulant because of its ability to_____________?

A. Buffer basic groups of coagulation factors
B. Bind factor XII
C. Bind vitamin K
D. Chelate calcium

315. ESR depends on_______________?

A. Viscidity
B. Fibrinogen
C. Rouleaux
D. All of the above

316. The normal brown red color of feces results from the presence
of_______________?
A. Heme
B. Stercobilin
C. Biliverdin
D. Bilirubin diglucuronide

317. Which of the following is not a cause of secondary polycythemia ?

A. High Altitude
B. Myeloproliferative changes
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Cerebellar hemangioblastoma

318. Which of the following clotting factor is involved only in extrinsic pathway
?
A. IX
B. X
C. II
D. VII

319. Plasma colloid osmotic pressure is due to________________?

A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Collagen

320. Decreased MCHC is found in_____________?

A. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Vit B12 deficiency

321. True statement regarding hematopoiesis includes______________?

A. Spleen plays a major role in adults (in lymphopoiesis )
B. Committed stem cells differentiates into only one cell type
C. RES plays a role
D. None

322. A reliable screening test for platelet function is_______________?

A. CT
B. PT
C. Thrombin
D. Clot retraction time

323. CO2 is transported in plasma as_____________?

A. Bicarbonate
B. Carbomino compounds
C. Dissolved
D. CO

324. Immune complexes are removed from blood by _____________?

A. B cell
B. Basophil
C. Plasma cell
D. Kupffer cell

325. Thromboxane is produced mainly by _______________?

A. Liver
B. Platelets
C. Damaged tissue
D. Vascular endothelium

326. Increased blood viscosity and slow circulation causes______________?

A. RBC rouleax formation
B. Increased plasma skimming
C. Increased number of RBC in capillaries
D. None

327. Ions participating in clotting mechanism are________________?

A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Calcium
D. Aluminum

328. Christmas factor is_____________?

A. PTA
B. PTC
C. VWA
D. Prothrombin

329. Small lymphocyte is _____________?

A. Bigger than RBC
B. Same as the size of RBC
C. Smaller than RBC
D. None of these

330. The largest fraction of the total body fluid is_______________?

A. Extracellular fluid
B. Intracellular fluid
C. Plasma
D. Whole blood

331. Survival time of platelet is approximately______________?

A. 10 hours
B. 10 days
C. 10 weeks
D. 100 days

332. Serum is blood plasma without_____________?

A. Blood cells
B. Fibrinogen
C. Lymphocytes
D. Plasma colloids

333. Persons having anti- A and anti- B is agglutinins in their serum belong to
which blood group_____________?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O

334. Albumin is_____________?

A. Nucleo protein
B. Chromo protein
C. Phospho protein
D. Simple protein

335. Fluid content of the blood is______________?

A. Plasma
B. Serum
C. Water
D. Tissue fluid

336. The only fixed cell of the connective tissue_______________?

A. Histiocyte
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutrophils
D. Mast cell

337. Which of the following is not involved in blood clotting ?

A. Calcium
B. Prothrombin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Fe+2

338. Immunologically active cells are_____________?

A. Plasma cells
B. MAST cells
C. Eosinophils
D. R.B.C s

339. For heparin which of the following is ?

A. Inhibits conversion of fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin
B. Interferes with action of thrombin
C. Is released by macrophages
D. Is released by mast cells

340. Which of the following vitamins is necessary for maturation of blood

precursor cells________________?
A. Vit- A
B. Thiamine
C. Riboflavin
D. Cyano cobalamine

341. Erythropoietin is produced in the_______________?

A. Bone marrow
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Spleen

342. Hematocrit relates to which of the following______________?

A. Total blood volume
B. Total RBC volume
C. Total WBC vlume
D. Plasma filtrate

343. Serum is______________?

A. Plasma- clotting factors
B. Plasma- fibrin
C. Blood – RBC
D. Blood – all cellular elements

344. Drumstick is found in_______________?

A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Platelets

345. Which of them is not affected by vitamin K deficiency_____________?

A. Factor IX
B. Factor VII
C. Factor II
D. Factor VIII

346. The normal absolute eosinophil count is_____________?

A. 40 to 440 cells/C.mm
B. 500 to 900 cells/C.mm
C. 1200 to1500cells/C.mm
D. 1500 to 2,000cells/C.mm

347. At what temperature blood is stored______________?

A. -4°C
B. 4°C
C. 6°C
D. 8°C

348. Which of the following represents most dangerous

situation_____________?
A. Rh+ ve mother, who is bearing 2nd Rh+ ve child
B. Rh+ ve mother, bearing her 2nd + ve child
C. Rh+ ve mother, bearing her 1st Rh – ve child
D. Rh – ve mover, bearing her 1stRh + ve child

349. Histiocytes are_____________?

A. Scavenger cells
B. Allergic cells
C. Released in immunologic response
D. Leukocytes

350. Which of the following agents in not likely to be found in plasma ?

A. Thrombin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Prothrombin
D. Calcium ion

351. Hemoglobin has______________?

A. Four polypeptide chains, 2α, 1β,1Υ chain
B. Four heme molecules and four polypeptide chains
C. Four heme molecules, 2α and 2β chains
D. One heme and one globin molecule

352. Life cycle of RBC is_______________?

A. 12 days
B. 90 days
C. 120 days
D. One month

353. IN acute infection which of the following is found_______________?

A. Leucopenia
B. Leukocytosis
C. Neutrophilia
D. Neutropenia

354. T- lymphocytes function to______________?

A. Antibody production
B. Complement activation
C. Lymphokine production and delayed hypersensitivity
D. Immediate hypersensitivity

355. The anticoagulant of choice used in the blood bank is_______________?

A. Calcium oxalate
B. Heparin solution
C. Acid citrate dextrose solution
D. Sodium fluoride

356. Normal myeloid / erythroid ratio is______________?

A. 1:1000
B. 1:5000
C. 1:100
D. 1:50

357. Clotting factor common to extrinsic and intrinsic pathway

is_____________?
A. Factor II
B. Factor III
C. Factor V
D. Factor VII

358. Hemostasis depends upon all the following, EXCEPT_______________?

A. Calcium
B. Prothrombin
C. Vitamin B
D. Vitamin K

359. Activation of which one of the following coagulation factors is not

essential for hemostasis________________?
A. XII
B. XI
C. IX
D. X

360. The half-life of plasma Albumin is approximately___________________?

A. 7 days
B. 20 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days

361. Embryonic hemoglobin is composed of________________?

A. Gamma and beta
B. Epsilon and gamma
C. Alpha and beta
D. Gamma and alpha

362. Lymphocytes are located in each of the following tissues or organs

EXCEPT one. The one exception is______________?
A. Brain
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Thymus gland

363. Which of the following causes lysis of clot______________?

A. Fibrin
B. Plasmin
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Coagulase

364. Plasma ceruloplasmin alpha 2 globulins is a______________?

A. alpha 1 globulin
B. alpha 2 globulin
C. beta 1 globulin
D. beta 2 globulin

365. Thrombopoietin is produced by_________________?

A. Monocytes
B. Liver
C. Megakaryocyte
D. Megakaryoblast

366. Bacteria are most commonly ENGULFED by _________________?

A. Neutrophilic leukocytes
B. Large granular lymphocytes
C. Small lymphocytes
D. Killer cells

367. Prothrombin time is useful for_______________?

A. Detection of clot retraction
B. Platelet count
C. In hemophilia
D. For evaluation in a patient taking anticoagulant drugs

368. The conversion of prothrombin to thrombin, the factor participate along

with calcium is______________?
A. Labile factor
B. Stable factor
C. Fibrin
D. Thromboplastin

369. What is the normal PH of human blood_____________?

A. 7.0
B. 7.2
C. 7.35 to 7.4
D. 7.6

370. Which of the following is not useful for coagulation______________?

A. Plasmin
B. Thrombin
C. Calcium
D. Fibrin

371. Mineral essential for Hb synthesis_______________?

A. Copper
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Phosphorus

372. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the
diagnosis of_______________?
A. Anemia
B. Eosinophilia
C. Vitamin deficiency
D. Spherocytosis

373. The best screening test for hemophilia is_____________?

A. BT
B. PT
C. PTT
D. CRT

374. Bleeding time is prolonged in a person who_______________?

A. Has liver disease
B. Takes coumarin derivatives
C. Lacks factor VIII
D. Takes large quantities of aspirin

375. Secondary granules of neutrophils contain______________?

A. Lactoferrin
B. Catalase
C. Myeloperoxidase
D. Nucleosidase

376. Biconcave shape of RBC helps by___________________?

A. Increasing flexibility
B. Increasing surface area
C. Carrying more Hemoglobin
D. Passing easily through smaller capillaries

377. Iron is stored in_______________?

A. RBC
B. Reticule endothelial system
C. Plasma
D. All

378. AB blood group antigen are known as ________ factors?

A. Duffy
B. Landsteiner
C. Rhesus
D. Lutheran

379. Patient with anemia tends to have all, except________________?

A. Compensatory increase in cardiac output
B. Increased incidence of heart murmurs
C. Pallor of mucous membranes
D. A low PO2 in arterial blood

380. The function common to neutrophils, monocytes & macrophages

is______________?
A. Immune response
B. Phagocytosis
C. Liberation of histamine
D. Destruction of old erythrocytes

381. CO2 is carried in the blood________________?

A. In combination with hemoglobin
B. In physical solution in plasma
C. In combination with plasma proteins
D. All of the above

382. Acute bacterial pyogenic infection manifests as_________________?

A. Leukopenia
B. Leukocytosis
C. Neutropenia
D. Lymphopenia

383. The normal A/G ratio in blood is______________?

A. 5:1
B. 2:1
C. 1:2
D. 1:1

384. The biological anticoagulant is________________?

A. EDTA
B. Sodium citrate
C. Hirundine
D. Double oxalate mixture

385. Plasma thromboplastin antecedent is______________?

A. Anti-hemophiliac – A factor
B. Anti-hemophiliac – B factor
C. Anti-hemophiliac – C factor
D. Anti-hemophiliac – F factor

386. The principal site for granulocytic hemopoiesis in the adult human
is________________?
A. The liver
B. The spleen
C. Red bone marrow
D. Yellow bone marrow

387. The universal blood recipient group is_________________?

A. O- Ve
B. O+ Ve
C. AB- Ve
D. AB+ Ve

388. The function of plasma cell______________?

A. CMI
B. Phagocytosis
C. Opsonization
D. Antibody formation

389. Lysis of RBCs are seen in all of the following except__________?

A. Thalassemia
B. Methotrexate therapy
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Sickle cell anemia

390. Infants acquire adult hemoglobin level at_____________?

A. Birth
B. End of 1st year
C. Puberty
D. 4 years

391. The hemoglobin % of a normal newborn is______________?

A. 8
B. 12
C. 10
D. 30

392. Normal prothrombin time is____________?

A. 5-7 sec
B. 10-20 sec
C. 30 sec
D. 1 min

393. Which of the following cell type is not a precursor of

erythrocyte____________?
A. PR erythroblast
B. Norm oblast
C. Reticulocyte
D. Myeloblast

394. Major basic protein is an important constituent of which

leucocyte_____________?
A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Basophil
D. Lymphocyte

395. Universal blood donor ill be a blood group of_______________?

A. Positive
B. Negative
C. AB positive
D. AB negative

396. Normal adult person’s blood contains_____________?

A. 40% neutrophils
B. 30% lymphocytes
C. 20% eosinophils
D. 10% basophils

397. The eosinophil count in the peripheral blood smear is increased

in________________?
A. Allergic conditions
B. Anemia
C. Polycythemia
D. Typhoid fever

398. Intracellular and interstitial body fluids have similar______________?

A. Total osmotic pressure
B. Colloid osmotic pressure
C. Chloride ion concentrations
D. Potassium ion concentrations

399. Which of the following is not a vitamin K dependent procoagulant ?

A. Factor II
B. Factor VII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor XI

400. A patient with A – ve blood group can receive blood

from_______________?
A. Positive donor
B. B negative donor
C. AB positive donor
D. A negative donor

401. Delay in blood coagulation results from________________?

A. Human thrombin
B. Heparin
C. Ferric chloride
D. Vit- K

402. Hemoglobin is the major buffer in blood, bicarbonate ions diffuse out of
erythrocyte into plasma in exchange of_______________?
A. Potassium
B. Phosphate
C. Carbonic acid
D. Chloride ion

403. The function of vitamin K is______________?

A. Thrombin formation
B. Prothrombin formation
C. Fibrin formation
D. Thromboplastin formation

404. The most common problem with blood trans fusion_______________?

A. Hemolytic reaction
B. Remission of disease
C. Hypokalemia
D. Metabolic acidosis

405. Histamine is present on surface of_______________?

A. Lymphocytes
B. Mast cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Erythrocytes

406. To preserve blood for transfusion later______________?

A. Dilute with equal volume of 0.9% saline
B. Add solution of sodium citrate
C. Add solution of calcium chloride
D. Add fibrinogen

407. Megaloblasts are precursors of_____________?

A. Megakaryocytes
B. Norm oblasts
C. Myelocytes
D. Macrocytes

408. Which of the following is one for a patient on coumarin (warfarin)

therapy_______________?
A. Partial thromboplastin time ( PTT)
B. Prothrombin time (PT)
C. Bleeding time (BT)
D. Capillary fragility test (CFT)

409. Which of the following coagulation factors is deficient in classical

hemophilia ?
A. VIII
B. IX
C. X
D. XII

410. Which of the following is not true about axonotmesis ?

A. Impairment of both sensory and motor function
B. Wallerian degeneration
C. Intact neural sheath is not present
D. Reversible loss, which will be regenerated i 6-8 wks

411. Broca’s area is concerned with______________?

A. Word formation
B. Comprehends language not speaking
C. Present in posterior part of temporal lobe
D. Is the confluence of somatic , auditory and visceral areas

412. DOPA and 5 – Hydroxytryptophan are clinically important

because______________?
A. They cross Blood Brain Barriers
B. They are acidic precursors of Brain amines
C. They act as neuromodulators
D. They are metabolites of various neurogentic amines .

413. The pathway of pain from teeth and temperature is carried by

______________?
A. Corticospinal tract
B. Corticocerebral tract
C. Lateral spinothalamic tract
D. Ventral spinothalamic tract
414. Which of the following acts as a neurotransmitter inhibitor
_______________?
A. Glutamate
B. GABA
C. Aspartic acid
D. Lysin

415. Blood supply to the brain during moderate exercise________________?

A. decreases
B. Remains constant
C. Increases
D. Increases then decreases

416. Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by ________________?

A. Vagus nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

417. Following are extrapyramidal tracts except______________?

A. Reticulospinal
B. Corticospinal
C. Rubrospinal
D. Vestibulospinal

418. The cell junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules between

two cells are called________________?
A. Gap junctions
B. Tight junctions
C. Anchoring junctions
D. Focal junctions

419. Sweat glands are supplied by only_______________?

A. Parasympathetic nerves
B. Sympathetic nerves
C. Sensory nerves
D. Motor nerves

420. Tissues with least regenerative potential is________________?

A. Nerve
B. Skin
C. Cardiac muscle
D. None of the above

421. Red colour blindness is called________________?

A. Deuteranopia
B. Protanopia
C. Protanomaly
D. Deuteranomaly
422. Pain producing substance is________________?
A. Serotonin
B. Substance P
C. Histamine
D. Acetyl choline

423. Phagocytosis in the CNS is done by _______________?

A. Astrocytes
B. Schwann cells
C. Microglia
D. Oligocytes

424. Function of GABA on CNS is_______________?

A. Neuronal inhibition
B. Neuronal activation
C. Glial cell inhibition
D. Glial cell activation

425. Hyper kinetic syndromes such as chorea and athetosis are usually
associated with pathological changes in_______________?
A. Motor areas of cerebral cortex
B. Anterior hypothalamus
C. Pathways for recurrent collateral inhibition in the spinal cord
D. Basal ganglia complex

426. In cerebellar disease, all the statements are correct

except______________?
A. The romberg’s sign is positive
B. There is adiodokokinesia
C. There is pendular knee jerk
D. There is involuntary termor

427. Which sensation is not lost on the side of lesion in brown sequard
syndrome ?
A. Touch
B. Vibration sense
C. Muscle sense
D. Temperature

428. First change to occur after nerve cut is_______________?

A. Schwan cell mitosis
B. Axonal sprouting
C. Myelin sheath degeneration
D. Nuclear disintegration

429. which receptor is responsible for monitoring the rate of muscle stretch ?
A. Nuclear bag intrafusal fibers
B. Nuclear chain
C. Golgi tendon organ
D. Pacinium corpuscles

430. Body temperature is maintained by ______________?

A. Postural position
B. Covering of the body
C. Peripheral vasoconstriction
D. all of the above

431. Chromatolysis is______________?

A. Disintegrating of Nucleus
B. Disintegration of golgi apparatus
C. Disappearance of nissel granules
D. Decrease in cell size

432. In CNS, the myelination is carried out by _____________?

A. Schwann cells
B. Astrocytes
C. Oligodendrocytes
D. Microglia

433. Breathing ceases upon destruction of the___________________________?

A. Cerebrum
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebellum

434. Voluntary movement of eye ball is controlled by______________?

A. Superior colliculus
B. Frontal eye field
C. Cerebellum
D. Visual cortex area

435. Receptors for olfactory sensation are present in ______________?

A. Lateral walls
B. Nasal septum
C. Lateral wall and nasal septum above superior concha
D. None of the above

436. Centre of activity of autonomic nervous system is_________________?

A. Midbrain
B. Cerebrum
C. Hypothalamus
D. Pons

437. Group B fibers are present in_____________?

A. Intrafusal fibers of the muscle spindle
B. Golgi tendon apparatus
C. Autoonomic preganglionic fibers
D. Spinothalamic tracts
438. The temperature of body is controlled by_______________?
A. Medulla
B. Precentral gyrus
C. Diencephalon
D. Hypothalamus

439. Middle ear deafness can be tested by_____________?

A. Babinsky test
B. Chvostek test
C. Finger – nose test
D. Weber’s test

440. Cell bodies of the neurons which carry taste sensation from the anterior
2/3rd of the tongue are located in________________?
A. Trigeminal nerve ganglion
B. Geniculate ganglion
C. Otic ganglion
D. Superior cervical ganglion

441. Hunger centre of brain is________________?

A. Hypothalamus
B. Stria nigra
C. Frontal lobe
D. Temporal lobe

442. Pain is conducted by_______________?

A. A-alpha fibers
B. A-beta fibers
C. A-gamma fibers
D. A-delta fibers

443. Following are the changes during accommodation

except_______________?
A. Constriction of pupil
B. Dilatation of pupil
C. Convergence of eye ball
D. Increase in the anterior curvature of lens

444. Stimulating mechanoreceptors or nociceptors in mouth triggers

the_______________?
A. Jaw opening reflex
B. Jaw clenching reflex
C. Jaw gnashing reflex
D. None of the above

445. In nerve , the magnitude of the action potential overshoot is normally a

function of the______________?
A. Magnitude of the stimulus
B. Intracellular potassium concentration
C. extracellular sodium concentration
D. resting membrane potential

446. Axon hillock is part of the soma of neuron which________________?

A. Has dense Nissl grandules
B. Has no Nissl granules
C. Is at commencement of dendrites
D. Is round in shape

447. Blood brain barriers is absent in all of the following areas

except__________________?
A. Subfornical region
B. Habenuclear trigone
C. Area posterma
D. Neurohypophysis

448. Epicrritic perception of pain occurs at the level of______________?

A. Thalamus
B. Area 3,1,2
C. Areas 5,7
D. Pulvinar

449. Intention tremor is a feature of _______________?

A. Loss of function of Thalamus
B. Loss of function of Hypothalamus
C. Loss of function of cerebellum
D. Loss of function of Basal ganglia

450. The most outer covering of nerve fibres is called as____________?

A. Neurolemma
B. Perineurium
C. Axolemma
D. Myelin sheath

451. Delta waves of Electroencephalogram have frequency of ______________?

A. More than 14 cycles per second
B. Between 8 and 13 cycles per second
C. Less than 3.5 cycles per second
D. Between 4 and 7 cycles per second

452. Sensory receptors for pain are_______________?

A. Pacinian corpuscles
B. End organs of Ruffini
C. End bulbs of Krause
D. Free nerve endings

453. The first physiological response to high environmental temperature

is_______________?
A. Sweating
B. Vasodilatation
C. Decrease heat production
D. Non- shivering thermogenesis

454. function of Merkel’s cells is_______________?

A. Tactile sensation
B. Melanophage
C. Chemoreceptor
D. Proprioception

455. Copious flow of watery saliva is secreted in response to _____________?

A. Parasympathetic stimulation
B. Sympathetic stimulation
C. CNS stimulation
D. sensory stimulation

456. Intensity of sound is measured in________________?

A. Diopters
B. Daltons
C. Decibels
D. Pounds

457. Pacinian corpuscles are major receptor for______________?

A. Pressure
B. Pain
C. Touch
D. Temperature

458. Resting membrane potential of nerve fiber is_______________?

A. -70 mv
B. -90 mv
C. -55 mv
D. + 35 mv

459. Sympathetic stimulation causes ______________?

A. Arteriolar constriction
B. Ciliary muscle contraction
C. Sweat secretion
D. All of the above

460. Gag reflex is mediated by _______ cranial nerve ?

A. VII
B. IX
C. X
D. XII

461. Satiety center in hypothalamus is regulated by ________________?

A. Gastric dilatation
B. Blood glucose levels
C. Blood insulin levels
D. All of the above

462. Swallowing center is situated in_______________?

A. MIdbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Cerebellum

463. Wallenberg degeneration is seen in______________?

A. Proximal cut end of nerve with cell body
B. Distal cut end of nerve without cell body
C. Both the free ends of the cut nerve
D. All are true

464. First change to occur in the distal segment of cut________________?

A. Myelin degeneration
B. Axonal degeneration
C. Mitosis of schwann cell
D. Sprouting

465. Neurotransmitter in nigrostrial pathway is_______________?

A. Dopamine
B. GABA
C. Acetyl choline
D. Nor epinephrine

466. The term ‘myopia’ refers to ______________?

A. Near sightedness
B. Far sightedness
C. Constriction of the pupil
D. Dilation of the pupil

467. Aphasia is most likely associated with a lesion in_______________?

A. Broca’s area
B. Sensory area
C. Primary motor area
D. Visual area

468. Abdominal visceral pain is transmitted by ________________?

A. fibers
B. fibers
C. Parasympathetic fibers
D. Sympathetic fibers

469. The Sensory receptors serving the stretch reflex are classified
as___________?
A. Proprioceptors
B. Nociceptors
C. Exteroceptors
D. Chemo receptors

470. Unmyelinated fibres differ from myelinated fibers in that they

______________?
A. Have increased excitability
B. Have to nodes of Ranvier
C. Have no power of regeneration
D. Have no association of Schwann cells

471. Tremors are seen in disorder of_________________?

A. Basal ganglia
B. Pain pathway
C. Pyramidal tract
D. Parathyroid gland

472. Which of the following is not true for myelinated nerve

fibers______________?
A. Impulse through myelinated fibers is slower than non- myelinated fibers
B. Membrane currents are generated at nodes of Ranvier
C. Saltatory conduction of impulses is seen
D. Local anesthesia is effective only when the nerve is not covered by myelin sheath

473. Lesions within the basal ganglia produce the following signs
except_______________?
A. Hypotonia
B. Tremor
C. Hemiballismus
D. Athetosis

474. Sensations of pain from teeth and temperature are carried

by_______________?
A. Corticospinal tract
B. Corticobulbar tract
C. Lateral spinothalamic tract
D. Ventral spinothalamic tract

475. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers are_______________?

A. Somatic only
B. Parasympathetic
C. Sympathetic
D. Cholinergic

476. Respiratory center is situated in_______________?

A. Medulla oblongata
B. Spinal cord
C. Midbrain
D. Hypothalamus
477. Pain sensation from the lateral extremities is transmitted
by________________?
A. Spino thalmamic tract
B. Dorsal column
C. Corticospinal tract
D. Spinocerebellar tract

478. Pain is conducted by________________?

A. A-alpha fibers
B. A-beta fibers
C. A-gamma fibers
D. A-delta fibers

479. Stimulation of baroreceptors results in_______________?

A. Increase in heart rate
B. Decreased vagal discharge
C. Increased sympathetic discharge
D. Decrease in blood pressure

480. 2nd heart sound is characterized by all except______________?

A. Due to closure of semilunar valves
B. Is occasionally split
C. Has longer duration than 1st heart sound
D. Marks the onset of diastole

481. Heart muscle, true are all except_______________?

A. Act as syncytium
B. Has multiple nuclei
C. Has gap junctions
D. Has branching

482. Isovolumetric relaxation ends immediately after________________?

A. AV Valve closes
B. When ventricular pressure falls below aortic pressure
C. When ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure
D. None of the above

483. Ventricular muscle receives impulses directly from the_______________?

A. Purkinje system
B. Bundle of HIS
C. Right and left bundle branches
D. AV node

484. Distribution of blood flow is mainly regulated by the________________?

A. Arteries
B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries
D. Venules

485. Effect on force of contraction of heart is_____________?

A. Chronotropic effect
B. Dromotropic effect
C. Bathmotropic
D. Ionotropic effect

486. Cardiac output is maximum to _________________?

A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Kidney
D. Heart

487. Absolute period when whole heart is in diastole is______________?

A. 0.7 seconds
B. 0.3 seconds
C. 0.7 seconds
D. 0.4 seconds

488. Cardiac cycle duration in man is_______________?

A. 0.4 seconds
B. 0.8 seconds
C. 1.2 seconds
D. 1.6 seconds

489. Coronary blood flow is usually predominantly controlled

by_____________?
A. Auto regulation
B. Hormones
C. Parasympathetic impulses
D. Sympathetic impulse

490. Fastest conducting tissue in human heart _________________?

A. AV node
B. SA node
C. Bundle of His
D. Purkinje fibers

491. Closure of aortic valve occurs before the following

event_______________?
A. Isovolumetric contraction
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Pre-diastole
D. Pre-systole

492. Cardiac index is related to ______________?

A. cardiac output and body weight
B. Cardiac output and body surface area
C. Cardiac output and work of the heart
D. Stroke volume and pulse rate

493. Stimulation of barorceptor leads to ________________?

A. Increased blood pressure, increased heart rate
B. Decreased B.P , decreased heart rate
C. Increased B.P, decreased heart rate
D. Decreased B.P, increased heart rate

494. Consider the following statements________________?

A. Starling’s law of heart states that increase in force of contraction is directly related to
cardiac ouput
B. Staling’s law of heart states that the force of ventricular contraction is directly related
to the end diastolic volume
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

495. Minimum blood pressure is in_____________?

A. Aorta
B. Arteries
C. Capillaries
D. Venules

496. The largest function of the total peripheral resistance is due to

_________________?
A. Venules
B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries
D. Precapillary sphincters

497. Cardiac output is a measure of______________?

A. Peripheral resistance X tissue fluid
B. Peripheral resistance X cardiac rate
C. Blood pressure X cardiac rate
D. Heart rate X blood volume

498. The ventricular repolarization in ECG is best seen in_______________?

A. “P” wave
B. “Q” wave
C. “R” wave
D. “T” wave

499. Parasympathetic stimulation of heart causes______________?

A. SA node decreases firing
B. Increased AV node excitability
C. Decreased ventricular contraction
D. Tachycardia

500. The dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure curve is caused

by_________________?
A. Closure of the pulmonary valve
B. Rapid filling of the left ventricle
C. Closure of the aortic valve
D. Contraction of the atria