ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 10

ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT Môn: TIẾNG ANH

Năm học 2022 – 2023
( Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút)

SECTION A: LISTENING (20 points)

Part 1: You will hear a radio interview with a man who works on an international
Camp. For questions 1- 5, choose the answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to
what you hear. (10 pts.)
1. If you want to apply for the Camp, you must _____.
A. be a student
B. be at least 24 years old
C. speak more than one language
D. shows how you behave in a civilised society.
2. In a Camp tent, you can expect to __________
A. mix with other nationalities
B. share with five other people
C. know the other people
D. approve of it in principle.
3. The Camp want people who are _____
A. good at cooking
B. good organizers
C. able to mix well
D. good at performing their tricks
4. As a Camp member, you should ___________
A. be a good singer
B. join in performances
C. be good at acting
D. have the ability to concentrate
5. The Camp fees must be paid ________
A. in dollars
B. by cheque
C. before the Camp starts
D. right at the Camp

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. A man needs to buy a part for his car. He calls a company to order the part.
Listen and complete the details in the order form. (10 pts.)

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Forename: (1) _____________________

Surname: (2) ______________________

Postcode: NU89RS Park Hill Road, Nutley

Postal address: (3) ______________________

Part Required: (4) ____________ Light

Make: (5) ______________________

Model: Spirit

Year: (6) ______________________

Cost Including Tax and Postage: £ (7) ________

Card Number: (8) ______________________

Expiry Date: (9) ______________________- 19

Security Code: (10) ______________________

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION B: PHONETICS (10 points)

Part I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
rest. (5 points)
1. A. weekends B. activities C. games D. parents
2. A. stronger B. singer C. finger D. longer
3. A. bathing B. method C. bathroom D. width
4. A. beloved B. naked C. ploughed D. wicked
5. A. generation B. grateful C. educate D. grandparents

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 2. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. (5
points)
1. A. representative B. satisfactory C. documentary D. deforestation
2. A. maintain B. infamous C. determine D. develop
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3. A. channel B. comedy C. cartoon D. common
4. A. promise B. decide C. enjoy D. return
5. A. oceanic B. argument C. temperature D. valuable
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (70 points)

Part I. Choose the best answer which best completes each sentence. (20 points)
1. The new school complex cost _____ the city council had budgeted for.
A. just twice as much as B. twice more by far than
C. twice much more than D. almost twice as much as
2. Mr. Smith is a _________man because he is willing to give others food and money.
A. selfish B. helpful C. generous D. patient
3. There are a lot of crooked people in big cities. If you don’t want to be cheated, you’ll need
to keep your _____ about you.
A. mind B. wits C. head D. brain
4. . Our class finished the final test yesterday, ___________we decided to hangout with
friends for the whole evening.
A. and B. so C. because D. but
5. He said that the plane had already left and that I_________ arrived an hour earlier.
A. must have B. had to C. should have D. was supposed to
6. Mrs. Collin has _________________ that she is unable to get a job.
A. such small education B. so little education
C. a such little education D. a so small education
7. ____________his advice, I would never have got a job.
A. Except B. But for C. Apart from D. As for
8. ________ the phone rang later that night did Ann remember the appointment.
A. No sooner B. Only C. Not until D. Just before
9. Like his mother, Viet is a ____ child who can talk openly to anyone.
A. social B. sociable C. generous D. critical
10. After marriage, Mrs. Hoa always keeps good ____ with her mother-in-law.
A. association B. relation C. friendship D. relationship
11. I myself always feel ___________before important exams and I have to listen to music to
reduce stress.
A. embarrassed B. tired C. bored D. nervous
12. The little boy took an instant liking to his babysitter .
A. upon their first meeting B. before he first met her
C. prior to their first meeting D. as soon as he meets her
13. “How was the game show last night?” - “____”
A. It showed at 8 o'clock.
B. Just talking about it.
C. I think it wasn't a good game.
D. Great. I gained more knowledge about biology.
14. Such _____ that ______ whenever it was on.

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 A. the popularity of the film was/ the streets were deserted
B. was the popularity of the film/ the streets were deserted
C. the popularity of the film was/ were the streets deserted
D. was the popularity of the film/ were the streets deserted
15. Do you know that Amy does aerobics three times a week to keep a good body
_________?
A. form B. shape C. health D. style
16: Joseph would never forget by his boss through no fault of his own.
A. criticizing B. being criticized C. to criticize D. to be criticized
Mark the letter to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s).
17. It is important to create a daily routine so as to improve your work-life balance today.
A. a situation in which two or more things are not treated the same
B. a state that things are of equal weight or force
C. a state that things are of importance
D. a situation that things change frequently in amount
18. My calculator has stopped working. I’m trying to repair it.
A. improve B. adjust C. replace D. damage

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning

19. Parents are recommended to collaborate with teachers in educating children.
A. part B. cooperate C. separate D. disagree
20. Humans will enjoy longer life expectancy when they are more conscious of what they eat
and do.
A. aware of B. capable of C. responsible for D. suitable for
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part II. Give the correct word form in each gap to complete the following passage. (20 points)
1. I hate hot weather because it usually makes me feel _________________ (COMFORT)
2. Jim cannot ever imagine living without music in his life. For him, music is not only
an __________________ but also a therapy. (INSPIRE)
3. Wolfgang Mozart, a gifted Austrian composer and pianist, has been considered one of the
most__________________________ figures in shaping classical music with his many
masterpieces of operas, concertos, symphonies and sonatas. (INFLUENCE)
4. The iPad, which is much more__________________than the laptop, has the same multi-
touch interface as the iPod touch. ( PORT)
5. The little boy is very ____________, so his bedroom is always really messy. (TIDY)
6. Thanks to eating healthy food, living in clean environment, Japanese people enjoy the
highest life _______________in the world. (EXPECT)
7. People must have ____ ______for the air pollution. (RESPONSIBLE)
8. I worry about the _______ effect that violent films may have on children. (DESTRUCT)
9. Doing crossword puzzles is one of the most ________ jobs for my son. (CHALLENGE)

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10.Young people nowadays can maintain contact with their friends by using a ________
networking site. (SOCIETY)

Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Part III. Read the following mistake. Identify the mistakes and write their correct forms.
(10 points)

Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. Achievement tests are
designed to measure acquiring skills and knowledge, particularly those that have been
explicitness taught. The proficiency exams required by few states for high school
graduation are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and measure a person’s
ability to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, vocation aptitude tests can help
you decide whether you would do better like a mechanic or musician. However, all mental
tests are in some sense achievement tests because they assumption some sort of past
learning or experience with certainly objects, words, or situations. The difference between
achievement and aptitude tests is the degree and intention use.
Your answers:
0. Traditional→ Traditionally

Your Answer:

Mistake Correction Mistake Correction

1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Part IV. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10 points)
1. The ship was bound ……………..Japan when it ran into typhoon.
2. I turned ……………..at the meeting but the others didn’t come.
3. Inside your passport, you should write the name of your next……………..kin.
4. We walked out of the room ……………..tiptoe, so as not to disturb the sleeping baby.
5. I hate people who give………………the end of a film that you haven’t seen.
6. Everyone approved of the scheme but when we asked for volunteers they all hung
…………………
7. Queen Victoria reigned ……………..Britain and Ireland for over sixty years.
8. His business is growing so fast that he must take …………………more workers.
9. Her uncle was given the award ………………recognition of his services to the factory.
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10. John has grown …………………his habit of playing truant.

Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Part V. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (10 points)
1. Had we known your new address, we (come)..................to see you.
2. By the time you come here again, this palace (build)…………..
3. His personal problems seem (distract)……………. him from his work lately.
4. I don’t know why you .................................. (always - make) noise in class, Tom.
5. It was urgent that she (leave)................................at once.
6. (Bite)………………..twice, the postman refused to deliver our letters unless we
chained our dog up.
7. No sooner the announcement .............. (make) than everyone started complaining.
8. More than twenty miners are reported (kill) ……………………. in the accident.
9. Mr. Johnson is a devoted doctor. He doesn’t mind (call) ……………. when he is having
meals.
10.In the past few decades, people ( destroy) …………….. thousands of hectas of forest.

Your answers:

1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (50 POINTS)

Part I. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage. (20
points)
Every night, almost one billion people go to bed hungry. How can we feed all these (1) ____
people? Farmers all over the world have to content with weather, insects, and natural
disasters, which are capable of (2) ____ crops and ruining years of hard work. And the
population is set to rise to nine billion by 2050. Here are four possible solutions.
GM crops
Proponents of genetically modified crops (GM crops) claim that they will hugely (3) ____
food production. Scientists have developed drought-resistant and disease-resistant crops, more
productive crops, and crops with increased vitamins. Anti-GM protesters worry (4) ____
health risks and damage to other plants that grow near the GM crops.
Vertical farming
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Another answer could be to grow food in buildings. (5) ____ of vertical farming are
suggesting we construct multistory, climate-controlled farm buildings in the heart of our
cities. One indoor hectare of land would be (6) ____ to above five hectares outdoors, so we
could grow year-round crops that would easily feed whole cities. Opponents point to the cost,
the increased energy used and the effect on farmers.
Eat less meat. Others say the solution lies not in new technologies, but in eating less meat. It
takes about seven kilos of corn to produce one kilo of beef. That quality of corn will keep
more people (7) ____ than that quality of beef. But this is a message the world doesn't want to
hear. Meat consumption is rising steeply.
Increase aid
Rich countries have far more food than they need and waste vast amount of it - 6.7 million
tons a year in the UK (8) ____. We can afford to send surplus food to people (9) ____ need it.
We could also simply give more money to developing countries, (10) ____ they can buy food.
Critics say that this makes people dependent on rich countries and is only a short-term
solution.
1. A. undernourished B. unhealthy C. unbelievable D. undeniable
2. A. wasting B. destroying C. killing D. harvesting
3. A. strengthen B. rise C. increase D. enlarge
4. A. about B. to C. with D. on
5. A. Promoters B. Advocates C. Champion D. Spokesmen
6. A. same B. parallel C. alike D. equivalent
7. A. alive B. lively C. vital D. active
8. A. lonesome B. lone C. lonely D. alone
9. A. whom B. which C. who D. what
10. A. because B. but C. so D. since

Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part II. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (20 points)
UNESCO world heritage sites
The amazing man-made structures and natural landscapes that comprise the list of
UNESCO World Heritage Sites are awe-inspiring, and now there are more of them than
ever. This year, the World Heritage Committee added 26 inscriptions to the list, bringing
more sites of cultural, natural, and historical importance under the protection of the United
Nations. While all of these sites are significant, we've highlighted three of the best that are
easily accessible and worth a visit on your next vacation.
Pergamon and its Multi-Layered Cultural Landscape, Bergama, Turkey
Dating back as far as the fourth century B.C. (and perhaps farther), the city of
Pergamon has a long history of changing hands, ruled at various points by the Greeks, the
Persians, and the Romans. Pergamon was an important cultural center during the Hellenistic
Attalid Dynasty and was the capital of the empire from 281-133 B.C. The Library of
Pergamon (whose ruins can still be seen today) was one of the greatest libraries in the
world, said to have had almost 200,000 volumes according to Plutarch. Though the Great
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Altar of Pergamon is now housed in a museum in Berlin, many of the ruins can still be seen
today in their original location. Temples, theaters, gymnasiums, and other ancient buildings
remain on the acropolis that stands above the modern town of Bergama.
Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex, Ninh Binh, Vietnam
Listed as both a natural and a cultural property, the Trang An Scenic Landscape
Complex is located on the southern edge of the Red River delta southeast of Hanoi. The
geography of this area is truly stunning, with limestone karsts rising almost vertically out of
the water, and an extensive cave system dominates the area, comprised of both inactive and
active “living” caves. Though now flooded most of the year, these caves were once
inhabited by humans during prehistoric times, and excavations in the area have revealed
evidence of human presence dating back as far as 20,000 B.C. Additionally, hundreds of
pagodas, temples, and shrines in the area detail Trang An's storied history, most notably the
Vu Lam Palace, built during the 13th and 14th centuries to defend against the Chinese
invasion.
Vineyard Landscape of Piedmont: Langhe-Roero and Monferrato, Piedmont, Italy
Located in northern Italy near the French border, the vineyard landscape of Piedmont
not only produces world-class wines, but is also the seat of important Italian history. In
addition to five distinct wine growing regions, the Castle of Cavour, dating back to the 13th
century, has also been included under the UNESCO listing. The development of important
winegrowing processes and the presence of vine pollen from the fifth century B.C. have
made this part of Italian wine country particularly significant. Monferrato was a key holding
of the Holy Roman Empire during the 16th century before it came under the control of the
Duchy of Savoy in the early 18th century. In addition to its internationally renowned wines,
the Langhe region is also known for its white truffles.
(Text adapted from https://www.fodors.com/news/photos/10-best-new-unesco-world-
heritage-sites)
Question 1. According to the passage, how many sites were added to the list of UNESCO
World Heritage Sites this year?
A. 3 B. 13 C. 14 D. 26
Question 2. The word ‘significant’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to which of the
following?
A. abundant B. elegant C. magnificent D. important
Question 3. Which site is now flooded most of the year?
A. Pergamon and its multi-layered cultural landscape
B. Trang An scenic landscape complex
C. Vineyard landscape of Piedmont
D. None of them
Question 4. The specific location of is mentioned in the passage?
A. Pergamon and its multi-layered cultural landscape
B. Trang An scenic landscape complex
C. Vineyard landscape of Piedmont
D. Both B and C
Question 5. According to the first paragraph, which is NOT mentioned as importance of sites
under the protection of the United Nations?
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 A. Cultural B. Natural C. Architectural D. Historical
Question 6. Which site has one of the greatest library in the world?
A.Pergamon and its multi-layered cultural landscape
B. Trang An scenic landscape complex
C.Vineyard landscape of Piedmont
D. None of them
Question 7. The word ‘ruled’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. controlled B. assisted C. inhabited D. divided
Question 8. What is Trang An famous for?
A. Ruins left after the Chinese invasion
B. An extensive cave system
C. Hundreds of temples, pagodas, and gymnasiums
D. A long history of changing hands during the 13th & 14th centuries
Question 9. Since when have the winegrowing processes in Piedmont developed?
A. The 5th century B. The 13th century
C. The 16th century D. The 18th century
Question 10. The word ‘renowned’ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to which of the
following?
A. controlled B. infamous C. inhabited D. famous
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part III. Read the following article and fill in each blank with ONE word. (10 points)

A recent study shows that an unequal share of household chores is still the norm in many
households, (1) ____ the fact that many more women now have jobs. In a survey of 1,256
people (2) ____ between 18 and 65, men said they contributed an average of 37 per cent of
the total housework, while the women (3) ____ their share to be nearly double that, at 70 per
cent. This ratio was not affected by (4) ____ the woman was working or not.
When they were asked what they thought was a fair division of labour, women with jobs felt
that housework should (5) ____ shared equally between male and female partners. Women
who did not work outside the home were satisfied to perform 80 per cent - the majority of
housework - if their husbands did the (6) ____. Research has shown that if levels increase
beyond these percentages, women become unhappy and anxious, and feel they are (7) ____.
After marriage, a woman is reported to increase her household workload (8) ____ 14 hours
per week, but for men the amount is just 90 minutes. So the division of labour becomes
unbalanced, as the man’s share increases much less than the woman’s. It is the inequality and
(9) ____ of respect, not the actual number of hours. which leads to anxiety and depression.
The research even (10) ____ housework as thankless and unfulfilling.

Your answers:
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1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

SECTION E: WRITING (50 points)

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. (10 points)
1. Without your advice, I would never have made a good investment.
If it hadn’t ...........................................................................................................................
2. I had only just put the phone down when the boss rang back.
 Hardly ……………………………………………………………………………………
3. “I never used bad language,” she said.
 She denied ………………………………………………………………………………
4. Keeping calm is the secret of passing your driving test
 As long as......................................................................................................
5. You should not lock this door for any reason when the building is open to the public.
 Under no…………………………………………………………………………

Part 2: Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the given
one. Using the given word in brackets. Do not change the word. (10 points)
1. You can use my bike until next Friday if you keep it clean
(CONDITION)
 ..............................................................................................................................................
2. Graham spends all his time doing research. (DEVOTED)
 ………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. The train is 5 minutes late in leaving. (DUE)
 …………………………………………………………………………………………
4. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (LIKELIHOOD)
 ………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately. (SO)
 ……………………………………………………………………….…………………

Part 3: (30 points)

Social network (Facebook, Twitter, YouTube…) dominates many people’s life, especially
students. It can have negative effects on their study and physical development.
Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Write a paragraph of 180- 200 words to
express your opinion.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

Tổng số điểm toàn bài là 200; kết quả làm bài thi của thí sinh được quy về thang điểm
20.
Nguyên tắc làm tròn điểm
Điểm lẻ 0,0 - 0,12 0,13 - 0,37 0,38 -0,62 0,63 -0,87 0,88 – 1,0
Điểm làm 0,00 0,25 0,5 0,75 1,0
tròn

SECTION A: LISTENING (20 points)

Part 1: You will hear a radio interview with a man who works on an international
Camp. For questions 1- 5, choose the answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to
what you hear. (10 pts.)
(5x2=10 points)
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C

Part 2. A man needs to buy a part for his car. He calls a company to order the part.
Listen and complete the details in the order form. (10 pts.)
(10x1=10 points)
1. Allan 2. Browne 3. 27 4. inside 5. Ford

6. 2009 7. 35.76 8. 8463967382740699 9. 06 10. 992

SECTION B – PHONETICS (10 points)

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Part 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
rest. (5 points)
(5x1=5 points)
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D

Part 2: Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. (5
points)
(5x1=5 points)
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A

SECTION C – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (70 points)

Part I. Choose the best answer to finish each of the following questions by choosing the
letter A, B, C, or D. Write your answer on the numbered blanks given below. (20 points)
(20x1=20 points)
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. B 10.D
11.D 12.A 13.D 14.B 15.B 16.B 17.A 18.D 19.B 20.A

Part II. Give the correct form of the words to finish the sentences bellow. Write your
answer on the numbered blanks given below. (20 points)
(10x2=20 points)
1. uncomfortable 6. expectancy
2. inspiration 7. responsibility
3. influential 8. destructive
4. portable 9. challenging
5. untidy 10. social
Part III. Read the following mistake. Identify the mistakes and write their correct forms.
(10 points)
(10x1=10 points)
Mistakes Correction Mistakes Correction
1. acquiring acquired 6. vocation vocational
2. explicitness explicitly 7. like as
3. few a few 8. assumption assume
4. and to 9. certainly certain
5 but to 10. intention intended

Part IV. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10 points)
(10x1=10 points)

1. for 6. back
2. up 7. over
3. of 8. on
4. on 9. in
5. away 10. out of
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Part V. Complete each of the sentences with one of the phrasal verbs given below. Make
any changes if necessary. (10 points)
(10x1=10 points)

1. would have come 6. having been bitten

2. will have been built 7. had ……been made
3. to distract 8. to have been killed
4. are always making 9. being called
5. leave 10. have destroyed

SECTION D – READING COMPREHENSION (50 points)

Part I. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage. (20
points)
(10x2=20 points)

1. A 2.B 3.C 4.A 5.B 6.D 7.A 8.D 9.C 10.C

Part II. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (20 points)
(10x2=20 points)

1.D 2.D 3.B 4.D 5.C 6.D 7.A 8.B 9.A 10.D

Part III. Read the following article and fill in each blank with ONE word. (10 points)
(10x1=10 points)

1. despite 6. remainder
2. aged 7. unimportant
3. estimated 8. by
4. whether 9. loss
5. be 10. describes

SECTION E. WRITING (50 points)

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. (10 points)
(5x2=10 points)

1. If it hadn’t been for your advice, I would never have made a good investment.
2. Hardly had I put the phone down when the boss rang back.
3. She denied ever having used bad language.
4. As long as you keep calm, you will pass your driving test.
5. Under no circumstance should you lock this door.

Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the given
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one. Using the given word at the end of the sentence. Do not change the word. (10 points)
(5x2=10 points)

1. On condition that you keep it clean, you can use my bike until next Friday.
2. Graham has devoted all his time to doing research.
3. The train was due to leave 5 minutes ago.
4. There is little likelihood that the PM will call an early election.
5. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately.

Part III. Writing a paragraph (30 points)

Social network (Facebook, Twitter, YouTube…) dominates many people’s life, especially
students. It can have negative effects on their study and physical development.
Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Write a paragraph of 180- 200 words to
express your opinion.
Tổng
Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao
30 điểm
(3 đ) ( 6 đ) (9 đ) (12 đ)
Trả lời ở mức tối Trả lời được cơ Trả lời khá đầy Trả lời đầy đủ yêu
thiếu yêu cầu bản yêu cầu của đủ yêu cầu của cầu của bài. Bài
của bài. Bài viết bài. Bài viết có bài. Bài viết có viết có câu chủ đề.
có câu chủ đề và câu chủ đề. Các câu chủ đề. Các Các thành phần cơ
các thành phần thành phần cơ bản thành phần cơ bản được phát
Nội dung cơ bản. đều được phát bản được phát triển kỹ, logic, cân
(12 đ ) triển, đôi khi có triển tương đối xứng.
chỗ phát triển kỹ, logic và cân
chưa cân xứng. xứng.
Viết được một Viết được cơ bản Viết đủ ý chính, Đủ ý, các ý thống
số ý chính đủ ý chính. Có các ý có liên nhất, có liên quan
nhưng có chỗ một vài ý không quan đến chủ đề. chặt chẽ.
diễn đạt không liên quan, gây khó
rõ, bị lặp ý, hiểu cho người
không liên quan, đọc.
gây khó hiểu
cho người đọc.
Có đôi chỗ dẫn Dẫn chứng phù Dẫn chứng hay và
chứng còn chưa hợp, khá thuyết thuyết phục.
phù hợp. phục.
(1 đ) (2 đ) (4 đ) (6 đ)
Thông tin bị lặp Thông tin còn bị Thông tin ít khi bị Thông tin không
Tổ chức và ảnh hưởng lặp. lặp. bị lặp.
thông tin đến diễn đạt.
và tính Sắp xếp ý thiếu Sắp xếp các ý có Sắp xếp ý logic, Sắp xếp ý logic,
liên kết logic, thiếu tính logic, có tính liên mạch lạc, dễ đọc, mạch lạc cao. Bài
(6 đ) liên kết. kết, mặc dù tính dễ hiểu. viết có tổng thể

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 mạch lạc giữa các hài hòa, trôi chảy,
câu còn thấp hoặc uyển chuyển, tự
máy móc. nhiên.
Ít sử dụng hoặc Sử dụng các Sử dụng khá đa Sử dụng đa dạng
sử dụng lặp các phương tiện kết dạng và chính xác và chính xác các
phương tiện kết nối tuy còn đơn các phương tiên phương tiện kết
nối, hoặc sử giản nhưng đúng kết nối. nối.
dụng các nghĩa.
phương tiện kết
nối chưa chính
xác.
(1 đ) (2 đ) (4 đ) (6 đ)
Từ vựng liên Từ vựng tạm đủ để Từ vựng đa dạng Từ vựng phong
quan đến chủ đề diễn đạt thông tin có liên quan đến phú liên quan đến
hạn chế, lặp, liên quan đến chủ chủ đề. Đôi chỗ chủ đề, diễn đạt tự
hoặc không phù đề. Một số chỗ còn mắc lỗi dùng nhiên. Dùng từ
Từ vựng hợp. dùng từ chưa phù từ chưa phù hợp phù hợp, chính
(6 đ) hợp hoặc viết sai hoặc sai dạng từ. xác.
dạng từ.
Dạng từ, chính Còn mắc một số Có sử dụng từ Sử dụng đa dạng
tả còn viết sai, lỗi sai về dạng từ đồngnghĩa, trái các từ đồng
gây hiểu lầm và chính tả gây nghĩa, kết hợp nghĩa, trái nghĩa,
hoặc khó chịu khó khăn cho từ, thành ngữ... kết hợp từ, thành
cho người đọc. người đọc. ngữ…
Ít lỗi sai về chính Rất ít lỗi về dạng
tả. từ, và chính tả.
(1 đ) (2 đ) (4 đ) (6. đ)
Sử dụng cấu trúc Sử dụng các cấu Sử dụng đa dạng Sử dụng đa dạng,
Ngữ pháp câu đơn giản. trúc câu khác cấu trúc câu. linh hoạt cấu trúc
(6 đ) nhau. câu.
Mắc nhiều lỗi Có khá nhiều lỗi Thi thoảng còn Còn một vài lỗi
sai về ngữ pháp sai về ngữ pháp và mắc lỗi về ngữ nhỏ về ngữ pháp
và chấm câu, chấm câu, đôi chỗ pháp và chấm và chấm cấu,
gây khó hiểu gây khó hiểu cho câu, nhưng người đọc vẫn
cho người đọc. người đọc. người đọc vẫn có thấy dễ hiểu.
thể hiểu.

Chú ý: Tổng số điểm toàn bài là 200; kết quả làm bài thi của thí sinh được quy về thang
điểm 20.

-------------------THE END------------------

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