Practice Tests

PRACTICE TEST 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. dishes B. successes C. matches D. cigarettes
2. A. tomorrow B. worried C. sorry D. rocking
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. admit B. dissolve C. require D. swallow
4. A. manufacture B. independent C. minority D. optimistic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
5. Some (A) people disapprove of (B) keep animals in zoos (C) as they think it is (D) cruel.
6. In 1985, Campbell (A) has set off (B) from New York (C) and walked (D) across the United
States.
7. Kangaroos use (A) its long and (B) powerful tails (C) to balance themselves when (D) sitting
upright or jumping.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
8. Global warming is a problem that _____ for a long time.
A. has existed B. is existing C. can exist D. exists
9. What should you consider before _____ for an exercise class?
A. sign up B. to sign up C. signing up D. will sign up
10. The weather is _____ nice that the children want to stay outside all day.
A. so B. too C. very D. enough
11. It _____ last night because the ground is really wet.
A. might have rained B. can have rained C. should have rained D. must have rained
12. When we get to the park, there will be several places _____ we can have lunch.
A. which B. where C. what D. when
13. John _____ to walk home if Sara hadn’t driven by.
A. would have B. had C. had had D. would have had
14. Tourists can always _____ some really good bargains in the local market.
A. pick up B. turn up C. bring about D. come about
15. Laura is very _____ person and is always kind to her friends.
A. thought B. thoughtful C. thoughtless D. thinking
16. The trip to France which had been arranged weeks before was _____ at the last minute.
A. taken over B. called off C. pulled down D. set about
17. It is important that the vegetables _____ carefully before being consumed.
A. should wash B. should be washed C. must be washed D. must wash
18. Julia is said to be a responsible housewife who helps her husband _____ the household.
A. work B. run C. do D. make
19. It was such a small car that it could only _____ two people.
A. include B. have C. contain D. hold
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.

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20. Christ is a university student. He comes to visit his professor, Mr. Brown during his office
hours.
- Christ: “Excuse me. I don’t want to interrupt you but…” – Mr. Brown: “_____”
A. What can I do for you? B. Certainly, how dare you!
C. I quite agree. D. I have no idea.
21. Wendy and Mark are university students. They are both living on campus.
- Wendy: “How often did you write home?” - Mark: “_____”
A. I didn’t come home yesterday. B. I used to write home once a week.
C. My hometown is a coastal province. D. Oh, I miss my hometown so much.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
22. He was admitted to hospital in critical condition, but is now off the danger list.
A. important B. serious C. healthy D. curable
23. The Ministry of Education and Training worked in close collaboration with teachers on the new
curriculum.
A. together with B. online with C. separately from D. in the place of
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
24. The ring wasn’t worth very much but it had great sentimental value.
A. unworthy B. priceless C. precious D. valueless
25. This puzzle is a piece of cake; I can do it with my eyes closed.
A. very difficult B. easy enough C. rather boring D. quite understandable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
26. John is so exhausted that he won’t be able to go out tonight.
A. Although John is exhausted, he will be able to go out tonight.
B. John is too exhausted to go out tonight.
C. Because John won’t be able to go out tonight, he is exhausted.
D. John won’t be able to go out tonight unless he is so exhausted.
27. Although the new teacher is inexperienced, he is really enthusiastic.
A. The new teacher does not have enough experience to be enthusiastic.
B. The new teacher is really enthusiastic due to the fact that he is inexperienced.
C. Despite being an experienced teacher, he lacks enthusiasm.
D. No matter how inexperienced the new teacher may be, he is really enthusiastic.
28. Right after the police had arrived at the scene, the situation was settled.
A. The police did not arrive at the scene until the situation had been settled.
B. If the police had arrived at the scene, the situation would have been settled.
C. The police had no sooner arrived at the scene than the situation was settled.
D. The situation had been settled just before the police arrived at the scene.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
the following questions.
29. The traffic was terrible. We arrived at the concert late.
A. The terrible traffic prevented us from arriving at the concert on time.
B. Because of the terrible traffic, we got to the concert in the nick of time.
C. The concert began late because the traffic was terrible.

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D. If the traffic hadn’t been terrible, we would have gone to the concert.
30. I don’t have enough money. I can’t buy that house.
A. I don’t have enough money because I can’t buy that house.
B. Although I have sufficient amount of money, I can’t buy that house.
C. If I had enough money, I could afford that house.
D. I will buy that house if I lack money.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Classrooms have changed considerably in the last hundred years. In the early 1900s, the (31)
_____ class in England was twice as big as the average in the 1960s – sixty pupils per class
compared with thirty. Nowadays, the average class size in a secondary school is twenty-three, (32)
_____ is still higher than in many other countries. A hundred years (33) _____, teachers were
stricter than today. Punishment was also more severe: pupils were often hit for bad behavior – a
practice not allowed in schools today. The curriculum in the past was also (34) _____ extensive and
concentrated on the three Rs – Reading, Writing and Arithmetic – whereas today’s curriculum
includes everything from business studies to philosophy. Some people think that the teaching
methods used in schools today are not as (35) _____ as those used in the past but, given the wide
range of interactive tools available today, the 21st century is definitely the most interesting time to
be in the classroom for teachers and pupils alike.
31. A. normal B. ordinary C. average D. common
32. A. which B. that C. what D. who
33. A. then B. ago C. early D. back
34. A. more B. less C. fewer D. most
35. A. efficient B. productive C. effective D. profitable
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Almost everybody has had acne. Acne, also known as pimples or zits, is a normal part of
growing up. When kids reach puberty, their bodies experience many changes. As the levels of
hormones in teenagers’ bodies change, teenagers frequently develop pimples. Additionally, many
people continue to have pimples after puberty. What can a teenager or an adult do to cure pimples?
Unfortunately, many cures people think will work on pimples are really just myth.
Many people believe that popping pimples is the best way to get rid of them. Popping a pimple
will actually push the germs further under the skin, which can cause more redness and pain, or even
turn into an infection. For that reason, dermatologists normally encourage people not to pop their
pimples.
Also, do you think that washing your face frequently will help get rid of pimples? Of course,
washing your face is a good idea, but washing your face too much could irritate the skin more,
making the pimples even worse.
Another wisely believed myth is that not wearing makeup can help reduce a person’s chance of
developing pimples. In fact, some kinds of makeup or face creams actually have special medicine in
them to fight pimples. As a result, not all of them are bad for you.
Along with makeup, people claim that eating fatty foods or chocolate can cause acne. The truth
is that eating a candy bar or a piece of pizza will not cause pimples. Even so, both teenagers and
adults should still try to eat foods that are good for their bodies and their skin.

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Another myth is that stress can cause acne. Stress comes in many forms, like a big exam at
school or problems with friends. Whilst it is true that stress can cause a person’s skin to create extra
oil, this extra oil does not necessarily cause more pimples.
36. What is the main idea of this reading?
A. In the past, people thought pimples showed a serious disease.
B. People do many things to cure pimples which don’t actually work.
C. Pimples are not a problem for most people.
D. Teenagers are not the only people with pimples.
37. According to the passage, who can get pimples?
A. teenagers and babies B. adults C. babies D. teenagers and adults
38. The word “dermatologists” refers to doctors specializing in _____.
A. skin B. puberty C. infection D. germs
39. Why is it not a good idea to pop pimples to get rid of them?
A. It is not as good as washing one’s face. B. It may lead to skin irritation or even infection.
C. It is of no use when people reach puberty. D. It will increase the level of hormones.
40. Which is true about wearing makeup?
A. Some right kinds of products may help fight pimples.
B. Makeup cream will increase the amount of oil skin.
C. Not wearing makeup helps prevent pimples.
D. Wearing cream is not as good as taking medicine.
41. The word “myth” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. untruths B. legends C. rumors D. tales
42. What is NOT true about stress?
A. It can come in many forms. B. It increases the level of oil on skin.
C. It does not directly cause pimples. D. It makes school exams more difficult.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 43 to 50.
ROLE MODELS
When one hears the expression “role models”, one’s mind naturally jumps to celebrities,
especially as far as young people are concerned. Therefore, it would be more than natural to assume
that teenagers, heavily influenced by the media, are dazzled by well-known Hollywood stars,
famous musicians and internationally renowned athletes. However, nothing could be further from
the truth.
In reality, according to a recent study, over 75% of teens who filled out an online questionnaire
claimed that the role model for whom they had the greatest respect was not a famous personality,
but a family member. It seems that the qualities that make a good role model are more complex than
researchers first assumed. For example, Nancy L, a teenage girl from Wisconsin, described her role
model as a woman who had a clear sense of what was important to her, making the effort to create
things that would make a real difference in the world. The woman she was referring to was her
favourite aunt, who was a painter and sculptor.
Role models come into young people’s lives in various ways. They are family members,
educators, peers and ordinary people encountered in their daily lives. Students emphasized that
being a role model is not confined to those with international fame or unbelievable wealth. Instead,
they said the greatest attribute of a role model is the ability to inspire others. Teachers were often
mentioned as examples in this case, ones that are dedicated to encouraging students, helping them
push their limits and strengthen their characters.

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Another quality high on the list was the ability to overcome obstacles. In addition to parents,
peers often made up a large percentage of such role models. Young people are at a point in their
lives when they are developing the skills of initiative and capability, so it is only natural that they
admire people who show them that success in the face of difficulty is possible.
A final and perhaps unexpected character trait that the youth of today admire is a clear set of
values. Children admire people whose actions are consistent with their beliefs; on other words, who
practise what they preach. Role models help them to understand the significance of honesty,
motivation and the desire to do general good. For example, local politicians who clearly struggle to
improve living conditions in their cities are high on their lists of role models.
Perhaps what should be understood from what young people consider important in a role model
is that each and every person around them affects them to a certain extent, perhaps much more than
most parents think. This makes it critical for adults to be aware of their influence on the young and
set the best examples possible.
43. Which of the following is closest in meaning to “dazzled”?
A. impressed B. disappointed C. confused D. frightened
44. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be assumed as teens’ role models?
A. a handsome actor B. a talented footballer C. a hot pop star D. a brilliant scientist
45. What does the passage tell us about Nancy L’s role model?
A. She was not related to her. B. She was famous for her talent.
C. She was a mysterious person. D. She had strong priorities.
46. Which of the following is closest in meaning to “confined to”?
A. assisted by B. restricted to C. similar to D. influenced by
47. According to the passage, what quality makes teachers good role models?
A. their ambition to success B. their wide knowledge
C. their ability as academic educators D. their possible effect on students
48. The ability to overcome obstacles is important to young people because _____.
A. teens must have it to teach their peers B. it is not something that one can easily find
C. obstacles make life more difficult D. it is relevant to the stage of life they are in
49. According to paragraph 5, children really look up to those who _____.
A. are as active as possible B. do what they say they will do
C. pay attention to the needs of the young D. are religious in their life
50. The passage suggests that adults should _____.
A. try to avoid imposing their influence on younger people
B. realize that they have a strong effect on young people
C. be careful of the role models their children may have
D. encourage children to reject celebrities as role models

PRACTICE TEST 2

Questions 1-2
1. A. wicked B. shocked C. ragged D. legged
2. A. capture B. venture C. departure D. mature
Questions 3-4
3. A. protect B. prolong C. process D. provide
4. A. loyalty B. confidence C. thoughtfulness D. expression

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Questions 5-7
5. (A) If carefully (B) doing, the experiment (C) will be (D) successful.
6. A (A) female kangaroo (B) carries (C) their young in a pocket (D) commonly called a pouch.
7. The United States, (A) dislike many other countries, (B) receives a large number of (C)
immigrants yearly from all (D) over the world.
Questions 8-19
8. _____ in all parts of the state, pines are the most common trees in Georgia.
A. Found B. Finding C. To find D. Are found
9. We’re having the new computer _____ next week.
A. delivered B. to delivering C. deliver D. being delivered
10. It is true that _____ drinking is bad for people’s health.
A. sufficient B. little C. enough D. excessive
11. This company is very _____ about who it employs.
A. selective B. selection C. selectively D. selected
12. _____ at the cafeteria before, Tina didn’t want to eat there again.
A. Having eaten B. To eat C. Eaten D. Eating
13. Children have the ability to pick _____ languages very quickly.
A. out B. on C. up D. at
14. _____ travelling is educational, it can also be stressful and expensive.
A. Since B. Providing C. Whilst D. Even
15. After hours of travelling, the hikers reached their final _____ tired and hungry.
A. goal B. purpose C. destination D. target
16. If Mr. Dewey _____ present at the conference, he would have offered any possible assistance to
the people there.
A. were B. had been C. should be D. was
17. You don’t have to be in such a hurry; I’d rather you _____ on business first.
A. must go B. will go C. have gone D. went
18. In Japan, there is a lot of emphasis _____ politeness.
A. on B. about C. with D. in
19. She always gets dressed at the _____ minute, so she’s usually late.
A. latest B. final C. end D. last
Questions 20-21
20. John and David are working at an advertising company. They are talking about the office
renovation project which is supposed to have been carried out recently.
- John: “Why are the renovations being delayed?” – David: “_____”
A. Yes, but it should be changed. B. We must get a permit first.
C. It was delayed over two hours. D. The building really needs renovating.
21. Wendy and Mark are university students. They are talking about the result of the chemistry test.
- Wendy: “I was worried about the chemistry result, but Mr. Brown gave me an A.” - Mark:
“_____”
A. Don’t worry about it. B. Congratulations! That’s great.
C. Mr. Brown is so mean. D. Good luck to you!
Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
22. Vietnamese farmers are mostly living a simple and thrifty life as it is today.

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A. miserable B. economical C. luxurious D. sensible
23. Without question, people’s lives in remote areas have improved dramatically in the past two
decades.
A. Questioningly B. Undoubtedly C. Naturally D. Obviously
Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
24. Research suggests that children are more resilient than adults when it comes to getting over an
illness.
A. making a quick recovery B. becoming healthy again
C. making a slow recovery D. becoming much stronger
25. I hate flying and nothing could induce me to get on an aeroplane.
A. encourage B. force C. prevent D. persuade
Questions 26-30
26. It is said that the tulip originated from Constantinople.
A. People said that Constantinople was the first person to grow the tulip.
B. The tulip is said to have originated from Constantinople.
C. It is said that the tulip is only available in Constantinople.
D. The tulip is said to have been the symbol of Constantinople.
27. I think we should wash these apples carefully to avoid food poisoning.
A. In order to avoid food poisoning, it is a good idea to wash these apples carefully.
B. If we wash these apples carefully, they will become poisonous.
C. The apples are inedible although we have washed them carefully.
D. We should avoid food poisoning when washing these apples.
28. “I don’t think John will come this time,” said Mary.
A. Mary wondered if John would come this time.
B. Mary believed that John would come that time.
C. Mary doubted whether John would come that time.
D. Mary suggested that John would come that time.
29. My essay didn’t get a high score. I forgot to check the spellings.
A. If my essay had got a high score, I wouldn’t have forgot to check the spellings.
B. Although I forgot to check the spellings, my essay got a high score.
C. Had I remembered to check the spellings, my essay would have got a higher score.
D. I forgot to check the spellings because my essay didn’t get a high score.
30. The box was heavy. John could not lift it.
A. The box was such heavy that John could not lift it.
B. The box was too heavy for John could not lift it.
C. The box was so heavy that John could not lift.
D. The box was too heavy for John to lift.
Questions 31-35
A TALENT FOR LYING
Although we are all natural born liars, most of us seem to (31) _____ it for granted that lying is
bad. However, psychologists argue that lying is just as important as any other social skill we
possess.
We learn the art of deception very (32) _____ in life; by the age of five, we have not only
become quite efficient at lying, but we have also learnt how to read people’s reactions and act
accordingly.

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For example, if someone is (33) _____ direct eye contact with us, this makes us think that we’re
being lied to, so we might lie, too. A person’s smile is also a giveaway. A genuine smile makes the
skin near the eyes crease whereas a “put-on” smile doesn’t have the same (34) _____ on the facial
features as a real one.
Even though both women and men know how to watch out for clues that somebody is lying, it is
a fact that women are far more skillful liars than men. (35) _____ this, women are also more
affected by other people’s feelings, so they have more sympathy for them. As a result, women tend
to be more willing to have an honest conversation.
31. A. take B. learn C. accept D. believe
32. A. soon B. early C. late D. recently
33. A. preventing B. avoiding C. terminating D. reducing
34. A. impact B. effect C. result D. consequence
35. A. Because of B. Despite C. Regardless D. Due to
Questions 36-42
WHERE HAVE ALL THE CUCKOOS GONE?
For me, the song of the cuckoo has always heralded the beginning of spring. It’s usually first
heard in April, when the cuckoos arrive back on our shores for a few months after spending the
winter in warmer climes. Recently, however, the cuckoos have fallen strangely silent. Since 2007,
these shy birds with their distinctive call have all but disappeared from the countryside where I live.
According to the Royal Society for the Protection of Birds (RSPB), the cuckoo population has
been falling steadily since the 1960s. In the last fifteen years, their numbers have dropped by 37%
putting them on the ‘red list’ of Britain’s most endangered birds. They are only one of a number of
migratory birds, including the swallow and the nightingale, which are rapidly declining.
At the moment, ornithologists aren’t sure why these species are disappearing. One theory is that
the worsening droughts in Africa are making it more difficult for them to find food there during the
winter. Due to the fact that the Sahara Desert is expanding, these birds also have to make a longer
journey than they used to in order to return to their summer breeding grounds.
In addition, their food sources are becoming scarcer. Cuckoos feed on particular kinds of
caterpillars, such as those of the garden tiger moth, which are poisonous and inedible to other birds.
These insects have been disappearing in the last five years, possibly because of pesticide use.
The cuckoos’ well-known habit of laying eggs in the nests of other species and leaving the chick
to be raised by the host may also be part of the problem. The species chosen by the cuckoo for the
job vary, but 80% of them are meadow pipits, reed warblers and dunnocks. Since these birds are
also facing a decline in numbers, it may be that cuckoos can no longer find the right parents to bring
up their young.
The RSPB is working hard to ensure the survival of British birds and hopefully the mystery of
the disappearing cuckoo will soon be solved. A huge project is underway to monitor cuckoos and
several other migratory species in their winder habitat. At the same time, the British Trust for
Ornithology is carrying out a survey which aims to estimate the populations of all the birds living in
Britain. Once we know what has happened to our cuckoos, maybe we can do something to help
them thrive again.
36. Cuckoos are normally found in Britain _____.
A. in winter B. in spring and summer
C. in the month of April only D. all year round
37. The number of cuckoos in Britain _____.

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A. decreased suddenly in the 1960s B. has decreased more rapidly in recent years
C. has gone down gradually in the last few years
D. is smaller than that of swallow and nightingales
38. Which of the following problems do cuckoos face?
A. Winters in Africa are colder now. B. Food is hard to find in the Sahara Desert.
C. They have to travel further than they used to.
D. The places where they breed are getting hotter.
39. The insects eaten by cuckoos _____.
A. sometimes poison them B. are usually moths and caterpillars
C. are eaten by other birds too D. were more common five years ago
40. The word “inedible” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. not harmful to consume B. not easy to control
C. not safe to consume D. not small to chew
41. The cuckoo usually lays its eggs in _____.
A. its own nest B. any nest that it can find
C. nests made by certain kinds of birds D. nests made by one kind of bird only
42. The word “thrive” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. develop B. strengthen C. appear D. migrate
Questions 43-50
FLASH MOBS – A NEW KIND OF EVENT
In 2003, an unusual large number of customers arrived without warning in the carpet department
of Marcy’s Department Store in New York. The assistants couldn’t see why all of them were so
interested in buying exactly the same carpet. In 2006, 4,000 people arrived with MP3 players and
headsets at a London railway station and started dancing at a set time. As no music could be heard,
this looked very strange. Police were even called to make sure that trains continued to run on time,
but when they arrived, the dancers had gone. In March 2013, more than 2,000 people gathered in
Seoul, South Korea, complete with musical instruments, and started to dance. Many were students
from Sungsin Girls’ High School – they joined other Earth Hour supporters and collected a
staggering 150,000 signatures from local citizens in support of the campaign. In Korea, an
estimated 12 million people participated in Earth Hour 2013. These are three examples of ‘flash
mob’ events, when a crowd of people suddenly come together in a public place, perform an unusual
action, and disappear as quickly as they appear. They are organized using electronic media as
mobile phones or the Internet.
To their fans, flash mobs are simply a chance to have some lighthearted, if rather silly, fun.
However, when just under 2,000 people got together in San Francisco for an enormous pillow fight,
it ended up costing thousands of dollars. Unfortunately, a heavy rainstorm meant that the city was
left covered with wet feathers, which caused streets, shops, and a restaurant to be flooded, and
ruined the local fountain. It took several days to put the damage right. Norman Dito, head of the
city’s Recreation and Park Department said, “In future, organizers of such events should apply for
permission beforehand and pay the standard fee to cover security, insurance, and cleaning up
afterward. Sadly, I think this is unlikely to happen since nobody knows who the organizers are, or
when or where a flash mob will take place next.”
Crimes associated with flash mobs are rare, but occasionally make international headlines.
Sometimes referred to as ‘flash robs’ by the media, these start with the intent to destroy, or lead to
the destruction of private property or violence. Professor of Psychology Mark Leary explains that as
social media adds the ability to recruit a large number of people, individuals who would not rob a

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store on their own feel freer to misbehave without being identified. In Germany, the authorities in
some cities have taken things even further by strictly enforcing an already-existing law that states a
special permit must be obtained to use a public space for any event.
43. The shop assistants in Marcy’s didn’t understand _____.
A. how the shoppers had got there B. where the shoppers had come from
C. which items the shoppers wanted to buy
D. why the shoppers were interested in the same product
44. The police were called to the London railway station to _____.
A. arrest the dancers B. prevent the trains departing late
C. make sure no one was injured D. prevent people watching the event
45. What does the writer say about the pillow fight in San Francisco?
A. Because of the fight, the city had to spend lots of money.
B. People helped to clean the streets after the fight.
C. The fight was filmed and put on the Internet.
D. Some shops closed before the fight started.
46. What does Mark Leary say about people who take part in ‘flash robs’?
A. They feel safe because they are with many other people.
B. They are usually not well-behaved members of society.
C. They are afraid that someone might recognize them.
D. They have often taken part in flash mobs.
47. What is the writer’s aim in this text?
A. To give advice on how to arrange flash mobs
B. To warn people against going to flash mobs
C. To complain about a recent flash mob D. To explain what flash mobs involve
48. The word ‘staggering’ is closest in meaning to _____.
A. unexpected B. strange C. illegal D. usual
49. The word ‘recruit’ is closest in meaning to _____.
A. employ B. gather C. cover D. excite
50. All of the following are true about flash mobs EXCEPT _____.
A. the events often take place at public places B. the participants perform unusual actions
C. the events involve large numbers of participants
D. the events are held mostly to collect signatures

PRACTICE TEST 3

Questions 1-2
1. A. husband B. headaches C. basic D. housewife
2. A. question B. suggestion C. digestion D. combination
Questions 3-4
3. A. inbox B. inbuilt C. indeed D. inboard
4. A. innovate B. implement C. maximise D. consider
Questions 5-7
5. They received (A) such (B) a good advice from their teachers that they (C) all studied very (D)
well.

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6. You should not (A) use that knife (B) for cutting bread; it is used to (C) cutting (D) raw meat.
7. (A) In spite of (B) rain heavily, she (C) still got to school (D) on time.
Questions 8-19
8. The house was more expensive _____ we could afford.
A. as B. from C. than D. that
9. The radio doesn’t work well; it needs _____.
A. fixing B. being fixed C. to fix D. fixed
10. The first textbook written for teaching English as a foreign language came _____ in the 16th
century.
A. in B. on C. out D. to
11. Please don’t tell me what happens in the end because I _____ the book yet.
A. haven’t read B. don’t read C. am not reading D. haven’t been reading
12. _____ training, athletes must learn to think positively in order to win.
A. In addition to B. As well C. Despite D. Although
13. The Smiths are praised _____ the way they bring up their children.
A. from B. by C. at D. for
14. The principal would rather teachers _____ on the school grounds.
A. not to smoke B. are not smoking C. not be smoking D. didn’t smoke
15. Customers will save money if they buy the large, _____ size of that shampoo.
A. economical B. economy C. economized D. economic
16. You looked exhausted. It will _____ you good to take a vacation.
A. make B. do C. have D. be
17. It is not doing the things we like, but liking the things we have to do _____ makes life happy.
A. that B. which C. what D. who
18. An orphan, Bob, was born in New York, but he has been _____ up by a couple in San
Francisco.
A. raised B. grown C. brought D. come
19. The assistant director recommended that Kenichi _____ to the New York office.
A. be transferred B. transferring C. is transferred D. to transfer
Questions 20-21
20. Ted and Cody are cousins. They are talking to each other about Ted’s gym practice.
- Cody: “You’re going to the gym again, aren’t you?” – Ted: “_____”
A. Yes, since last Tuesday already. B. We met at the gym a long time ago.
C. The fitness room closes at nine. D. No, I don’t know where it is.
21. Mrs. Brown, a housewife, is at the grocery store.
- Shopkeeper: “What can I do for you, Madam?” – Mrs. Brown: “_____”
A. I would like a kilo of apples, please. B. You can go your own way.
C. I can’t do anything for you. D. Excuse me. I’m busy.
Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
22. I’d like to take this opportunity to extend my heart-felt gratitude to the host.
A. increase B. prolong C. intensify D. express
23. Personality in Americans is further complicated by successive waves of immigration from
various countries.
A. uninterrupted B. overwhelming C. successful D. forceful
Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).

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24. Many men say that they are willing to share the burden of domestic duties like washing and
cooking, but I doubt that they mean it.
A. ease B. difficulty C. weight D. danger
25. There are one or two similarities between my country and the UK, but on the whole, they are so
disparate that it is difficult to find any common ground.
A. different B. identical C. distinct D. dissimilar
Questions 26-30
26. The last time they caught sight of a UFO was 10 months ago.
A. They have been catching sight of a UFO for 10 months.
B. It was not until 10 month ago that they finally caught sight of a UFO.
C. A UFO has not been seen for 10 months.
D. A UFO has been seen during the last 10 months.
27. Researchers have tried very hard to find a cure for AIDS.
A. Enormous efforts have been made by researchers to find a cure for AIDS.
B. Researchers have succeeded in finding a cure for AIDS.
C. Researchers have failed to find a cure for AIDS.
D. A cure for AIDS will be found by the researchers.
28. Without water, no living creatures could live on this planet.
A. Because there is no water on Earth, no living creatures can live on this planet.
B. If there were no water, no living creatures could live on this planet.
C. Living creatures can exist on this planet despite the lack of water.
D. Water prevented living creatures from surviving on this planet.
29. Mr. Brown is a professor. He graduated from Harvard University.
A. Mr. Brown is a professor at Harvard University.
B. Mr. Brown quit Harvard University to become a professor.
C. Mr. Brown graduated from Harvard University because he was a professor.
D. Mr. Brown, who graduated from Harvard University, is a professor.
30. There was a heavy rain yesterday. They had to stay at home all day long.
A. The heavy rain prevented them from going out yesterday.
B. Had it not been for the heavy rain, they could have stayed at home yesterday.
C. They could not go out yesterday despite of the heavy rain.
D. They could go out yesterday because of the heavy rain.
Questions 31-35
FILMING DANGEROUS ANIMALS
Wildlife documentaries are extremely popular today and audiences expect brilliant filming of
(31) _____ creature. The film-makers often find themselves in dangerous situations, trying to get
that once-in-a-lifetime shot: stuck up a tree all night whilst an elephant attacks the tree, face-to-face
with an angry great white shark or bitten by venomous snakes. Cameras which are controlled from a
(32) _____ have taken away a lot of the dangerous and routine filming processes but, the film-
maker is still key to a successful documentary.
To (33) _____ the risks involved, the film-maker must have a good understanding of the
subject’s behavior as well as the place where it lives although this will not completely cut out the
danger. However, (34) _____ as we know about wild animals, each one is an individual and, as
such, there will always be the one creature that does not react according to the general rule.
Perhaps the audience’s (35) _____ of danger is a part of the fascination of watching wildlife
documentaries. The presenter who gets bitten holding a dangerous snake whilst talking to camera

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makes for exciting viewing. Wildlife film-makers have a passion for their subject, which they want
to share.
31. A. all B. most of C. every D. each of
32. A. period B. vision C. distance D. length
33. A. end B. eliminate C. take D. minimise
34. A. many B. much C. little D. few
35. A. expecting B. prediction C. waiting D. anticipation
Questions 36-42
To toot, to cut the cheese, or to fart are all funny ways to talk about something that everyone
does: passing gas! A normal person passes about half a litre a day, which equals about 14 farts per
day. Lots of people are embarrassed by passing gas, but there is no need to feel this way. The first
step is to admit that everyone does it. After you face up to this fact, then you can really enjoy
learning some interesting facts about your gas.
There are several sources of gas. Gas in our testiness has to do with the air we swallow and the
gas molecules in our blood. In addition, gas is also produced from chemical reactions and bacteria
living in our intestines. Nervous people usually have more gas for two reasons. They swallow more
air when they get nervous, and food usually goes through their digestive systems faster, which
means that the oxygen in the food cannot be absorbed quickly enough. Therefore, the oxygen
naturally found in the food goes into the intestines and becomes gas.
Another interesting fact is that a person’s diet affects the stinkiness of his or her gas. Foods with
a lot of sulphur in them – such as eggs, meat, and cauliflower – cause stinky gas. On the other hand,
beans cause a lot of gas, but this gas isn’t usually stinky because beans aren’t high in sulphur.
However, they do contain a lot of sugars that bacteria in the intestines love. The bacteria eat the
sugars and produce gas.
Finally people wonder, “Where does gas go when you hold it in? Is this held gas harmful?” Well,
this gas will not poison you, but you may get a bad stomachache from the pressure. The gas that
you hold in is neither released nor absorbed. It moves back up into the intestines and sooner or later
comes out. It is not lost, just delayed.
Now that you know some facts about gas, be proud of yourself and say, “Yes, I cut the cheese!”
36. What is the main idea of this reading?
A. Danger of gas B. Jokes about passing gas
C. Myths about gas in our bodies D. Things to know about our gas
37. What does the word “it” refer to?
A. feeling B. embarrassing C. admitting D. farting
38. According to the passage, nervous people _____.
A. eat more food B. produce more gas C. take in less gas D. digest more food slowly
39. Why does gas from our bodies smell bad?
A. The air is bad. B. It contains sulphur. C. It is from bacteria. D. Food is digested quickly.
40. What does the word “diet” probably mean?
A. a part of the digestive system B. a programme for losing weight
C. special foods to improve health D. the food a person eats
41. According to the text, what would happen if you tried to hold the gas in?
A. The gas would poison your stomach. B. The gas will be absorbed by the intestine.
C. The gas will be released eventually. D. The gas will be lost in the intestine.
42. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

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A. Nervous people pass stinkier gas than calm people.
B. Beans help people pass less gas than other types of food.
C. People should be proud if they fart more than others.
D. Passing much gas doesn’t mean having smelly farts.
Questions 43-50
Acid rain is rain that has unusual high levels of acid in it, and is a result of air pollution. When
fossil fuels are burned, they release chemicals containing sulphur and nitrogen into the air. Once in
the air, these chemicals combine with water vapor to form sulphuric and nitric acids, which then
return to Earth when it rains. Since it is the result of burning fossil fuels, acid rain presents the
greatest problems in industrial nations that rely heavily on coal as a source of energy. More
advanced nations, such as the United States and many parts of Western Europe, have developed
technology that reduces the amount of sulphur and nitrogen released from their power plants. They
are therefore at least partially able to control their acid rain problems.
Acid rain has the greatest effect on aquatic life. Acid rain increases the acidity of lakes, rivers,
and streams. If the acidity of the water increases too much, it simply kills the fish in the water. But
even at lower levels, acid rain has a number of negative effects on fish. Increased levels of acidity
can prevent the growth of the water plants on which smaller fish feed. This interrupts the food chain
and can have serious consequences since a decrease in the population of small fish will trigger a
decrease in the population of larger fish that eat them. Acid rain also allows mineral in the bed of
the lake or river to dissolve and enter the water. Many of these minerals are harmful to fish, not to
mention humans who may eat the fish.
On land, acid rain causes damage to trees and other plants. Most leaves have a thin, waxy
covering on them that protects them from insects, infection, and other possible dangers. Acid rain
can strip away this covering, leaving the leaf unprotected. As the leaves of a plant become
damaged, this reduces that plant’s ability to take in energy from the sun. In addition, acid rain
causes the roots of plants to grow more slowly, and this reduces the plant’s ability to take nutrients
from the ground. Finally, acid rain can kill the small germs that live in the soil. These are important
to plants because they renew the nutrients in the soil and keep it productive. Soil in which all of
these germs have died will become unstable for plants in just a few years. Therefore, acid rain has a
basic effect of starving plants on their essential sources of energy and nutrition.
Acid rain also has negative effects on city environments. Acid rain, being a corrosive substance,
can eat away the materials used to construct buildings, bridges, and roads, weakening their
structures and requiring more frequent repairs. More importantly, acid rain can seriously damage
historic buildings. Most modern buildings are built with acid rain in mind. So they are built with
materials more resistant to acid rain or painted with a protective coating. Historic buildings,
however, were usually built before such protective technology was available, and so they are
especially vulnerable to acid rain.
43. What can be inferred from paragraph 1 about coal?
A. It is the primary source of pollution on Earth.
B. It contains both sulphur and nitrogen. C. It plays a little role in the creation of acid rain.
D. It is only used as a fuel source in developing countries.
44. According to paragraph 1, advanced nations are less susceptible to acid rain because _____.
A. they consume less energy B. they have stronger environment laws
C. they have the technology for cleaner energy production
D. they have the technology to separate the acid from the rain
45. The word “aquatic” is closest in meaning to _____.

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 Practice Tests
A. marine B. environmental C. local D. fragile
46. According to paragraph 2, how does acid rain harm fish?
A. It removes the oxygen from the water. B. It disrupts the food supply for fish species.
C. It removes important minerals from the water.
D. It damages fish eggs, making reproduction impossible.
47. The word “trigger” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. indicate B. initiate C. follow D. hinder
48. According to paragraph 3, acid rain harms plant species in all of the following ways EXCEPT
_____.
A. it destroys their fruit and flowers B. it interferes with the process of photosynthesis
C. it damages the soil they grow in D. it hinders the growth of their root systems
49. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is true about the destructiveness of acid rain?
A. Acid rain is a corrosive substance when it comes in contact with construction materials, so it can
weaken structures that are under repair.
B. Acid rain is a corrosive substance that will eat away and weaken many man-made structures,
meaning they must be repaired more often.
C. Buildings, roads, and bridges all require frequent repairs if there is acid rain during their
construction.
D. Weakened structures that already need repairs are further damaged by the corrosive effects of
acid rain.
50. Which of the following could serve as the best title for this passage?
A. Acid rain: Causes & Effects B. Acid rain: Facts & Figures
C. Acid rain: Problems & Solutions D. Acid rain: Advantages & disadvantages

PRACTICE TEST 4

Questions 1-2
1. A. deny B. comply C. happy D. spy
2. A. contain B. control C. consist D. conquer
Questions 3-4
3. A. persuasive B. creative C. attractive D. narrative
4. A. midterm B. lesson C. lecture D. mischief
Questions 5-7
5. Man is (A) superior (B) than animals and he uses (C) language to (D) convey his thoughts.
6. It was (A) such interesting (B) a book that both my son and my daughter (C) couldn’t put it (D)
down.
7. In (A) western countries, teenagers (B) exposed to (C) more drug education, but drug use is still
(D) on the rise.
Questions 8-19
8. Paul wishes that he _____ business instead of history when he was in university.
A. had studied B. would study C. studies D. studied
9. In recent years, much more emphasis has been put _____ developing the students’ productive
skills in English.
A. over B. onto C. in D. on

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10. _____ in the United States, St. Louis has now become the 24th largest city.
A. The fourth biggest city it was B. Once the fourth biggest city
C. Being the fourth biggest city D. It was once the fourth biggest city
11. _____ her supervisor’s approval, she shouldn’t begin the project.
A. Unless Susan doesn’t get B. If Susan won’t get
C. Were Susan to get D. Unless Susan gets
12. People appreciate _____ with him because he has a good sense of humor.
A. to work B. to have worked C. working D. having worked
13. Living in the central Australian desert has its problems, _____ obtaining water is not the least.
A. for which B. to which C. of which D. in which
14. They are going to have the serviceman _____ an electric fan in the office tomorrow.
A. install B. to install C. to be installed D. installed
15. The car _____ halfway for no reason; the driver had to call the maintenance service.
A. broke off B. broke down C. broke up D. broke out
16. A _____ to this problem is expected to be found before long.
A. result B. response C. solution D. reply
17. Does the company cover all your travel _____ when you’re abroad?
A. prices B. expenses C. amounts D. rates
18. The last half of the nineteenth century _____ a steady improvement in the means of travel.
A. has witnessed B. was witnessed C. witnessed D. is witnessed
19. Frequently single-parent children _____ some of the functions that the absent adult in the house
would have served.
A. take off B. take after C. take in D. take on
Questions 20-21
20. Jane is a high school laboratory staff. She is asking Tony, a student, about his visit to the lab.
- Jane: “When did you last visit our laboratory?” – Tony: “_____”
A. It lasts about a week. B. No, I didn’t go to the laboratory.
C. Yesterday, with my teacher. D. The laboratory is on the third floor.
21. Wendy and Mark are preparing to go to the school concert.
- Wendy: “Hurry up! We don’t have much time left.” - Mark: “____! We still have 15 minutes.”
A. That’s too bad B. You are right C. Take it easy D. It takes time
Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
22. Supporters of euthanasia maintain that it is a humane act aimed at preventing a patient from
further suffering.
A. making peace B. causing little suffering
C. handling with care D. treating with cruelty
23. The board members deliberated for four hours before arriving at a solution acceptable to
everyone.
A. agreed B. discussed C. experimented D. appointed
Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
24. Research was going well, but there was a risk that cuts in funding would jeopardise the entire
project.
A. harm B. endanger C. benefit D. destroy
25. Despite similar habitats, different ape species show striking differences in behaviors and ways
of life.

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A. significant B. remarkable C. unnoticeable D. considerable
Questions 26-30
26. “I didn’t take your computer,” he said to me.
A. He doubted whether he had taken my computer.
B. He suggested that he had taken my computer.
C. He denied taking my computer. D. He warned me not to take my computer.
27. How long have you been living in your new house?
A. How long is it since you bought your new house?
B. How long is it since you started to live in your new house?
C. How long did it take to move into your new house?
D. How long did it take to buy your new house?
28. George doesn’t usually forget his appointment.
A. It is not like George to forget his appointment.
B. It is typical of George to forget his appointment.
C. It is not usual for George to remember his appointment.
D. It is surprising that George remembers his appointment.
29. She tried very hard for the test. She failed it.
A. If she had tried hard for the test, she wouldn’t have failed it.
B. She failed the test because she didn’t try hard for it.
C. No matter how hard she tried, she failed the test.
D. Although she did not try very hard, she still passed the test.
30. I was absent from class yesterday. I was under the weather.
A. Because I was absent from class yesterday, I was under the weather.
B. In spite of being under the weather, I did come to class yesterday.
C. Because of my sickness, I was absent from class yesterday.
D. If I hadn’t been sick, I would have stayed at home yesterday.
Questions 31-35
A new experiment vaccine has shown promising results in the fight (31) _____ lung cancer. In a
small Texas-based study, a vaccine developed by scientists at Baylor University Medical Centre in
Dallas, USA cured lung cancer in some patients and (32) _____ the progress of the disease in
others.
Researchers have reported encouraging findings from this small study. Forty-three patients
suffering from lung cancer were involved in these trials. Ten of these patients were in the early
stages and thirty-three in the advanced stages of the disease. They were injected with the vaccine
(33) _____ two weeks for three months, and were carefully monitored for three years. In three of
the patients in the advanced stages of cancer, the disease disappeared and in (34) _____, it did not
spread for five to twenty-four months. However, no great difference was seen in the patients in the
early stages of the illness.
This new vaccine uses the patient’s own immune system. It is made specifically for each patient
and is injected into the arm or leg. It stimulates the body’s immune system, (35) _____ then
recognizes that the cancer cells are harmful, and attacks and destroys them.
The vaccine could be effective against other forms of cancer. It offers great hope for the
treatment of cancer in general although further studies are needed before such treatment can be
widely used.
31. A. for B. against C. with D. to

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 Practice Tests
32. A. sped B. slowed C. turned D. put
33. A. every B. each C. all D. almost
34. A. the other B. others C. other D. the others
35. A. who B. which C. that D. whose
Questions 36-42
We spend about 4 years, or 20 percent of the sleep time of our lives, dreaming. There are many
ideas about why we dream and what dreams do to us.
Some researchers feel that everyone needs to dream. An experiment was conducted with 2
groups of people. With the first group, each time a sleeping person appeared to begin dreaming, the
researchers would wake him up. After a few days, that person became uneasy and upset.
With the second group of people, interruptions were made during non-dreaming sleep, and these
people did not seem to change. When the first group was allowed to sleep uninterrupted, they
seemed to have more dreams than the second group. It was as if the first group were catching up on
lost dreams.
It has been found that people who go without sleep for days have hallucinations and even show
signs of mental illness. They believe this is because they can’t have their usual number of dreams.
Sigmund Freud said dreams protect us from our inner conflicts.
Many people in the Western world think of dreams as interesting but of no value. Others think
that they come from the unconscious mind. Whatever their real worth, the fact remains that
everybody dreams.
36. According to the text, people spend _____.
A. 4 years of their lifetime sleeping B. 20 percent of their lifetime sleeping
C. 20 percent of their lifetime dreaming D. 20 percent of their lifetime sleep dreaming
37. It is stated in the text that _____.
A. some researchers think that we don’t need to dream
B. an experiment was held with some researchers
C. people who go without sleep for days become mentally ill
D. people who go without sleep for days see mirages
38. The word “protect” means _____.
A. detect B. defend C. define D. decline
39. Which of the following is true according to paragraph 3?
A. Dreams can arouse inner conflicts. B. People can go without sleep for many days.
C. People should have their usual number of dreams.
D. People have hallucinations because of bad dreams.
40. As proven by the experiment, people felt irritated when _____.
A. they were being examined B. they began dreaming
C. their sleep was interrupted D. their dream was interrupted
41. According to Freud, what is true about dreams?
A. They can cause hallucinations. B. They help people overcome inner conflicts.
C. They are the result of inner conflicts. D. They arouse a lot of conflicts.
42. The word “unconscious” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. instinctive B. rational C. sensible D. reasonable
Questions 43-50
The Statue of Liberty is the famous statue that stands on Liberty Island in New York Habour. At
a height of 151 feet, it is extremely tall. The statue was a gift to the United States from the people of

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 Practice Tests
France, and over the years, it has become a symbol of freedom. Many people think an American
designed it, but it was in fact created by a French artist, Frédéric Bartholdi.
The designer tried many designs and models, including children and animals, before he chose a
female figure, wearing a gown and a cloak, holding a torch high above her head. The statue’s body
looks like a Greek goddess. In the early drawings, the statue’s face was going to look like the
president’s wife, but Bartholdi decided to copy the face of Charlotte Beysser, Bartholdi’s mother.
Bartholdi decided to make the skin from copper sheets. This was a good choice because the
workmen were able to lift and work with the sheets with no difficulty. He considered other cheaper
metals but thought they might be too hard to work with because of their weight.
On October 28th 1886, the President of the United States opened the Statue of Liberty in a
ceremony in front of a huge, excited crowd. The President gave a long speech, and Bartholdi was
asked to give one too but he refused because he was a shy man. A fireworks display was delayed
until November 1st because of poor weather, but the parade went ahead as planned.
Members of the general public were not allowed on the island during the ceremony, just officials
and important people. The only females at the ceremony were the President’s wife and the
designer’s granddaughter, who was only ten.
After the ceremony, they lit the statue’s torch, but the light was very faint and no one could see it
from far away. Despite this disappointment, the enormous pale statue quickly became a landmark.
Many immigrants who sailed into New York Habour believed that the statue was a welcoming sight
and it became a popular tourist attraction.
In 1982, engineers looked at the statue and saw that it needed repairs and money spent on it. The
first examination showed that the right arm wasn’t attached to the body properly. When strong
winds blew, the arm was rubbing against the side of the statue, creating a hole. They also replaced
about 2 percent of the copper on the outside of the statue because they could see an orange-colored
stain – they thought this was caused by the rain. Although they noticed this “orange problem” as
early as 1936, the workers doing early repair work just covered it in layers of paint. That did not
solve the problem though.
The statue was closed to the public so they could make repairs. It took many years because it was
in worse condition that people first thought. Getting materials to and from the site was not too
difficult due to modern engineering knowledge, but the whole exterior had to be cleaned with strong
dangerous cleaners. Because of this, the repairers had to wear special clothing and gloves.
The statue closed again in October 2011 so they could install new lifts and staircases, and
improve the facilities, like bathrooms. When it opened again, visitors had to pay for the ferry
service to get to the island, as private boats were no longer allowed to stop there. The money will
help pay for future work on the statue and Liberty Island.
43. Who designed the Statue of Liberty?
A. an American B. a Frenchman C. American and French designers
D. a French designer living in New York
44. The designer made the statue using copper because _____.
A. it was heavy B. it was the color of skin
C. it was easy to work with D. it was cheaper than other metals
45. When they finished the statue, they celebrated with _____.
A. a parade B. fireworks C. special music D. a speech by the designer
46. Who weren’t allowed on the island during the celebrations?
A. women B. old people C. children D. ordinary people
47. In 1982, engineers discovered _____.

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 Practice Tests
A. there were holes everywhere B. early repairers covered problems with paint
C. the statue’s arm was nearly falling off D. they had to replace most of the copper
48. It took a long time to repair the statue because _____.
A. there was bad weather B. it was difficult to get there every day
C. they needed to make special equipment to fix it
D. they had to use dangerous materials to clean the outside
49. When the statue opened again, _____.
A. there was no entrance fee B. the bathrooms were nicer
C. you could sail your boat right up to the island
D. people weren’t allowed to use the stairs any more
50. The main purpose of this article is _____.
A. explain how statues are made B. criticize the way the statue was built
C. advertise the Statue of Liberty D. give facts about the Statue of Liberty

PRACTICE TEST 5

Questions 1-2
1. A. preparation B. weather C. experience D. festival
2. A. laugh B. highlands C. light D. although
Questions 3-4
3. A. counterpart B. excellence C. replacement D. argument
4. A. countryside B. specialty C. scenery D. appearance
Questions 5-7
5. But for the (A) detailed guidance on the manual, (B) it is impossible for the (C) workers to
operate (D) the machine.
6. No sooner (A) had John handed in the answer sheet (B) when he (C) realised that he (D) had
missed one question.
7. It is (A) common knowledge that smoking and (B) drinking heavily can be (C) harmfully
detrimental to (D) one’s health.
Questions 8-19
8. It is recommended that the project _____ until all the preparations have been done.
A. is not started B. won’t be started C. not be started D. must not be started
9. _____ quite recently, most mothers in Britain did not take paid work outside the home.
A. Before B. Until C. From D. Since
10. In some countries, _____ is called ‘equality’ amongst males and females does not really exist.
A. which B. what C. that D. one
11. When a fire _____ at the National Exhibition in London, at least ten priceless paintings were
completely destroyed.
A. broke off B. broke out C. broke down D. broke up
12. When there are small children around, it is necessary to put bottles of pills out of _____.
A. reach B. hand C. hold D. place
13. Free medical treatment in this country covers sickness of mind as well as _____ sicknesses.
A. normal B. regular C. average D. ordinary

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14. A completely new situation will _____ when the examination system comes into existence.
A. arise B. rise C. raise D. arouse
15. I don’t mind _____ the decision as long as it is not too late.
A. you to delay making B. your delaying making
C. your delaying to make D. you delay to make
16. Rhino horns are believed to be able to cure human beings _____ many diseases.
A. of B. for C. to D. ø
17. Even if I had known her address, I _____ time to write to her.
A. cannot have had B. won’t have had C. must not have had D. might not have had
18. Teachers and parents are claimed to be those who have the greatest influence _____ children.
A. in B. on C. for D. to
19. _____ you are familiar with the author’s ideas, try reading all the sections as quickly as you
possibly can.
A. As long as B. Ever since C. So that D. Now that
Questions 20-21
20. Jane and Tony are high school students. They are talking about Eva, their childhood friend.
- Jane: “Have you heard about Eva? She’s going to get married with Todd.” – Tony: “_____”
A. Congratulations! B. Glad to hear that! C. Good luck to you! D. I was hard of hearing.
21. Wendy is a high school student. He is asking Mr. Pike, his teacher about the scholarship for
excellent students of the school.
- Wendy: “How many people applied for the scholarship?” – Mr. Pike: “____”
A. I’ll apply for the scholarship. B. At least 20 candidates
C. To submit the application D. The applicants will not come.
Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
22. When you address a meeting, it is important to speak clearly, confidently and at a good pace.
A. mention the house address B. solve the problem
C. make a formal speech D. talk to a person in private
23. I don’t consider myself particularly industrious, but when I’m given a job, I make sure it gets
done.
A. working very hard B. being positive C. relating to industry D. being negative
Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
24. Alaska is still the most sparsely populated state, and had just 0.4 person per sq. km of land in
1998.
A. scarcely B. dramatically C. thinly D. densely
25. Fashion change includes both short-term fluctuations in style and long-term trends.
A. interests B. differences C. tastes D. stabilities
Questions 26-30
26. Your essay would have been excellent, but you did not check the spellings.
A. Because you did not check the spellings, your essay was excellent.
B. Despite not check the spellings, your essay was excellent.
C. Had you checked the spellings, your essay would have been excellent.
D. Unless you check the spellings, your essay will be excellent.
27. He doesn’t find it hard to work the night shift now.
A. He used to work during the day. B. He doesn’t have to work hard at night now.
C. He prefers working the night shift to the day one.

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D. He has got used to working the night shift now.
28. It rained so much that the roads were flooded.
A. The rain prevented the roads from being flooded.
B. It rained so much due to the fact that the roads were flooded.
C. If it doesn’t rain so much, the roads will not be flooded.
D. There was such a lot of rain that the roads were flooded.
29. No one in my class likes John. But Vanessa does.
A. Vanessa is one of the classmates who likes John.
B. Nobody in my class likes John, including Vanessa.
C. Everyone in my class likes John, except Vanessa.
D. Vanessa is the only one who likes John in my class.
30. The police have been investigating for 3 days. They haven’t found out anything yet.
A. After 3 days of investigation, the police did come up with a clue.
B. The police stopped investigating after 3 days because they have found out nothing.
C. Despite having found out nothing, the police decided to keep on investigating on the 4th day.
D. The police have yet to find out anything after 3 days of investigation.
Questions 31-35
Many students in the UK (31) _____ doing a gap year before going to university. Critics
question whether it is just a long glorified holiday or if it’s really worth doing. Does it actually help
students in their careers? Some educational establishments do encourage students to take a gap year
and recommend that students (32) _____ advantage of the opportunities available. However, most
of them would prefer it if the students did some kind of voluntary work instead of just having a
holiday. There are numerous organizations which organize these (33) _____ for students and it’s a
good idea to check them out online. One of the main advantages is that it’s a great way to get to
know more about different cultures and, for many, it is also a painless way to learn (34) _____
language by speaking to local people. Volunteers who stay in local homes say that they get the
chance to experience local culture and customs and, in particular, to try a variety of food which they
wouldn’t otherwise have tried.
When I was 18 years old, I had set my (35) _____ on going to work in Africa for a year, but
unfortunately my parents wouldn’t let me go and instead that I went to university immediately. I’m
49 years old and still haven’t had my gap year! Maybe one day I’ll get about to doing it.
31. A. think B. believe C. regard D. consider
32. A. get B. have C. take D. make
33. A. travels B. journeys C. trips D. voyages
34. A. the other B. others C. other D. another
35. A. mind B. head C. thoughts D. plans
Questions 36-42
These days it is easy for most of us to get a hold for the latest books or magazines. We can go to
bookstores, order them through the Internet, or borrow them from the local library. Now imagine
having to walk miles and miles through a hot sandy desert just to borrow a book. This is the reality
for people living in the villages of the Carissa region of Kenya in East Africa.
In 1996, librarian Wycliffe Oluoch used to spend each day waiting for people to come to borrow
some of the 24,000 books in his library in Carissa. The library had no shortage of books, but people
weren’t coming to read them. It was too much effort to walk through the desert just to borrow
books. Oluoch racked his brain for ways to entice people into the library. After a lot of thought, he

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hit upon an idea. If people wouldn’t come to the library, then he would have to take the library to
them. Oluoch strapped boxes of books onto the backs of camels, and created the Mobile Camel
Library.
Starting with three camels in 1996, but more recently expanding the service to six camels, the
Mobile Camel Library serves over one million people. Twice a month, the camel library can be seen
carrying books all around the Carissa region. These hard-working animals need little water and can
carry up to 500 pounds of books across the sands. A librarian, a library assistant, a herdsman, and a
lookout all travel with the camels. The lookout helps protect the books from thieves.
The children of Carissa love the camel library and appreciate Oluoch’s effort. 11-year-old
Mohamud Mohamed reads his library books carefully and always returns them on time. He knows
the Carissa library punishes people for losing books, just like any other library. However, the
punishment is very stiff compared to that of other libraries. If a village loses a book, the camel
library stops visiting.
36. What is the main idea of this reading?
A. Wycliffe Oluoch is a smart man. B. A mobile camel library was invented.
C. Lookouts are necessary because of thieves. D. Camels can carry up to 500 pounds.
37. Which of the following do NOT travel with the Mobile Camel Library?
A. people who work in the library B. people who take care of the camels
C. people who guard the books D. people who borrow the books
38. What makes camels good animals to carry books in the desert?
A. They travel well together. B. The children love the camels.
C. The camels carry books twice a month. D. They are strong and don’t need much water.
39. The phrase “racked his brain” probably means _____.
A. thought very hard B. was disappointed C. had a headache D. was thoughtful
40. What does the word “that” refer to?
A. village B. punishment C. book D. service
41. Which of the following is true?
A. In 1996, there were 3 camels to help run the library.
B. 24,000 books are not enough for people in Carissa to read.
C. In 1996, the library could serve only about one million people.
D. Oluoch earns a lot of money with his service.
42. Which of the following is true about Mohamud Mohamed?
A. He often loses books of the library. B. He does not live in Carissa.
C. He never returns the books late. D. The library does not drop by his village.
Questions 43-50
BLACK HOLES
When stars larger than our sun die, they go out with a bang. These stars die in a supernova, a
huge explosion which is more powerful than any other event in the universe. If the sun (over one
million km wide) exploded in a supernova, the incredible power of the explosion would crush the
sun to a size of only 3 km! At this point, something very important would happen. As objects get
closer, the power of gravity increases. In a supernova, the atoms of the star get pushed so closely
together, and their gravity becomes so strong that nothing can escape them, not even light. At this
point, the star has become a black hole.
A black hole is an object with credibly strong gravity. It basically acts like a giant drain in space,
sucking up anything that happens to be near it. Scientists suspected the existence of black holes for
a long time. But since not even light can escape them, they are basically invisible, and their

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existence is very hard to prove. Scientists have proven their existence in two ways. Sometimes
scientists will find a star that has a very strange movement. It will appear to be orbiting another
object, but that object can’t be seen. In this case, scientists can guess that the invisible object is a
black hole.
The other way in which scientists can prove the existence of black holes is a bit more
complicated. As the matter gets sucked into a black hole, it starts to spin in a circle, just as water
does when it goes down the drain in your bathroom. As the matter gets closer and closer to the
black hole, it spins faster and faster, and begins to heat up as a result. Thus, when scientists find
spinning circles of extremely hot matter, they can again guess that a black hole is at the centre of
this.
Whilst black holes suck in and destroy anything that gets too close to them, they play a very
important role in the universe. Scientists believe that giant black holes are at the centre of every
galaxy in the universe. Each galaxy is held together by the intense gravity of the giant black hole at
its centre. Without these black holes, galaxies would not form, and life as we know it would not
exist.
43. According to paragraph 1, the term “supernova” can best be explained as _____.
A. the act of crushing a star to a very small size
B. a star that is several times larger than our sun
C. a huge explosion at the end of a star’s life D. an object whose gravity is incredibly strong
44. According to paragraph 1, in order to form a black hole, the atoms in a star must _____.
A. reach extremely high temperatures B. spin in a circular motion
C. be unable to put out light D. be packed extremely close together
45. According to the passage, some stars can help scientists infer the existence of black holes
because _____.
A. they explode in supernovas B. they emit no light
C. they have extremely strong gravity D. they appear to be orbiting an unseen object
46. The author mentions the “drain in your bathroom” in order to _____.
A. compare the speeds of objects entering a black hole
B. illustrate the motion of matter entering a black hole
C. suggest that there are many similarities between drains and black holes
D. show that black holes such up much of the water in the universe
47. According to the passage, all of the following happen to matter entering a black hole EXCEPT
_____.
A. it moves in a circular motion B. it is heated to high temperatures
C. it moves at a high speed D. it emits all of its light
48. The word “intense” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. very quick B. so strong C. very big D. so dark
49. Which of the following is true according to paragraph 4?
A. Thanks to black holes, the galaxies would not be formed.
B. Scientists believe that black holes must be kept at the centre of each galaxy.
C. The universe plays an important role in the existence of black holes.
D. Were it not for black holes, life would not exist.
50. All of the following aspects of black holes are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT _____.
A. their formation B. their characteristics C. their importance D. their future

PRACTICE TEST 6

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Questions 1-2
1. A. earthquake B. path C. southern D. thunderstorm
2. A. organized B. established C. finished D. passed
Questions 3-4
3. A. interface B. summary C. semester D. lecturer
4. A. psychological B. characteristic C. unbelievable D. economical
Questions 5-7
5. It was (A) shortly after microscopes (B) were introduced at the beginning of (C) seventeenth
century that microorganisms were actually (D) sighted.
6. He (A) bought a lot of books, (B) none of (C) them he (D) has ever read.
7. (A) Tropical forests exist (B) close to the equator, (C) which both high temperatures and (D)
abundant rainfall occur year-round.
Questions 8-19
8. Niagara Falls is a great tourist _____ drawing millions of visitors every year.
A. attention B. attraction C. appointment D. arrangement
9. _____ with the picture, Mary tore it to pieces.
A. Dissatisfying completely B. Completely dissatisfying
C. To dissatisfy completely D. Completely dissatisfied
10. Building that railway was very difficult and involved _____ ten tunnels.
A. dig B. to have dug C. having dug D. digging
11. It was proposed that the matter of boosting employees’ morale _____ discussed at the next
meeting.
A. will be B. has C. be D. would be
12. The hopes, goals, fears and desires _____ widely between men and women, and between the
rich and the poor.
A. alter B. shift C. transfer D. vary
13. Some diseases are _____ by certain water animals.
A. transplanted B. transformed C. transported D. transmitted
14. Between 1974 and 1997, the number of overseas visitors to Someland expanded _____ 27%.
A. by B. for C. of D. in
15. He is _____ about his chances of winning a gold medal in the Olympics next year.
A. optimistic B. optional C. outstanding D. obvious
16. Sometimes I do wish I _____ in a different time and a different place.
A. be living B. were living C. would be lived D. would have lived
17. Statistics shows that the worldwide use of the Internet is on the _____.
A. step B. climb C. move D. increase
18. On no _____ should the windows be left open after midnight.
A. circumstances B. reasons C. way D. account
19. With the development in science and technology, man can make various flowers _____ before
their time.
A. be bloomed B. blooming C. bloom D. bloomed
Questions 20-21
20. A doctor is asking his patient about his condition.

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- Doctor: “How is your backache? Is it still bothering you?”
– Patient: “_____. Now I can’t move.”
A. That’s fine B. That’s all right C. I’m afraid so D. I’m sorry to hear that
21. A customer is in a fashion store, looking around.
- Salesgirl: “Can I help you? We’ve got some new shirts here.” – Customer: “Ok, thanks. ____”
A. Mind your own business. B. We are just looking.
C. Take care of yourself. D. We will need you later.
Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
22. Sand is to be found in abundance on most beaches and can be a variety of colors depending on
what it is derived from.
A. in small dunes B. in large amounts C. in high quality D. in low volume
23. The interviewee alluded to her work experience when she said, “I’ve been very busy the past
few years.”
A. spoke indirectly about B. avoided speaking about
C. thought too much of D. took excessive care of
Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
24. Names are words that signify special and tangible things, either living, as in the case of a person
or an animal, or inanimate, as in the case of a place or a concept.
A. realistic B. unique C. concrete D. abstract
25. The sky is bright because molecules and particles in the air scatter sunlight.
A. distribute B. spread C. gather D. conceal
Questions 26-30
26. She went out after finishing the housework.
A. Not until she had finished the housework did she go out.
B. Not until she had gone out did she finish the housework.
C. She went out until she finished the housework.
D. She didn’t go out because she hadn’t finished the housework.
27. “He won’t pass the test,” said Mary.
A. Mary warned him not to pass the test. B. Mary ordered him to pass the test.
C. Mary doubted if he would pass the test. D. Mary suggested that he would pass the test.
28. He must have known your address; otherwise, he couldn’t have followed you home.
A. He couldn’t have followed you home because he doesn’t know your address.
B. If he hadn’t known your address, he couldn’t have followed you home.
C. He couldn’t follow you home, which is why he must have known your address.
D. Although he knows your address, he couldn’t follow you home.
29. The coffee was too hot. We could hardly drink it.
A. Although the coffee was too hot, we could drink it.
B. Because of the hot coffee, we could drink it.
C. The coffee was not hot enough for us to drink.
D. The coffee was too hot for us to drink.
30. He neglected my advice. That’s why he lost the game.
A. He lost the game because he listened to my advice.
B. Had it not been for my advice, he would have lost the game.
C. Though he listened to my advice, he still lost the game.
D. Had he listened to my advice, he wouldn’t have lost the game.

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Questions 31-35
There is no doubt that money, in the form we know it today, is what keeps modern economic life
functioning. Yet, throughout history, money, in whatever form, has provided people (31) _____ the
ability to buy and sell goods.
Thousands of years ago, civilization had to rely on the barter system as a way of exchanging
goods. Within this system, a person had to exchange one thing for another. This meant that the two
parties involved had to (32) _____ an agreement as to what they thought their products were worth.
Items such as wheat, tobacco and livestock have all been used as money at one time or another. It
was not until much later that humans (33) _____ up with the idea of money in the form of metal
coins. So why did the barter system come to an end? The answer is simple. Coins were much easier
to (34) _____ and carry around. Since then, the use of coins has become widespread. It has made
commerce simpler and has given countries an opportunity of development by conducting business
with other countries further afield, which they have never done business with before.
In recent years, paper money has become more common all over the world as it is easier to use.
It will not be long, (35) _____, before plastic cards take over completely, replacing coins and paper
money.
31. A. with B. for C. by D. to
32. A. win B. arrive C. achieve D. reach
33. A. put B. went C. made D. came
34. A. handle B. hold C. grab D. control
35. A. therefore B. moreover C. hence D. however
Questions 36-42
THE TAPESTRY WEAVER
According to Greek mythology, Athena, who was jealous of Arachne’s weaving skills,
transformed her into a spider. Thus, the spider takes its scientific name Arachnida, the “tapestry
weaver.” The spider is a predator that helps control the harmful insect population. Once capturing
their prey, spiders inject poison into the victim via their bite. On rare occasions, some spiders feast
on fish or mice by spraying them with their digestive juices. Spiders have various silk glands where
silk is made. Depending upon each gland, the silk has different characteristics. Some of these glands
spray liquid protein silk that changes to a dry silk thread once exposed to the outside air. Other
glands shoot a sticky silk that never dries. Using the silk, the spider spins its web. The spinnerets –
fingerlike appendages located in the back of the abdomen – have spinning tubes through which
liquid silk is deposited from silk glands. Being flexible, spinnerets can be pulled or extended in
every direction.
The uses of the silk are diversified; it may be used to make a nest, to wrap the prey, to protect the
eggs in an egg sac, or to line a burrow. Spiders also make draglines through which they can either
climb up or, in case of danger, swing down the web. The spider’s biggest enemy is the wasp, not to
mention frogs, birds, and other insect-eating animals. Spiders can be classified into two groups:
hunting spiders and web-spinning spiders. Having excellent vision, hunting spiders usually can spot
and chase their victims. Water spiders, wolf spiders, tarantulas, and jumping spiders are examples
of hunting spiders, whilst orb weavers, sheet-web weavers, and other weavers are classified as web-
spinning spiders. Unable to see well, this group of spiders traps the catch in its web.
36. What is the main idea of this reading?
A. The importance of silk producing glands B. The structure and function of spinnerets
C. The general characteristics of spiders

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D. The distinguishing features of two groups of spiders
37. The author gives a definition for all of the following words EXCEPT _____.
A. Arachnida B. silk glands C. spinnerets D. draglines
38. It can be inferred that the spider discharges its poison through its _____.
A. abdomen B. fangs C. spinnerets D. legs
39. This passage suggests that because of the digestive juices spiders can _____.
A. prey on much bigger animals B. intimidate an approaching enemy
C. position their spinnerets accurately D. attract the insect eating animals towards the web
40. The word “diversified” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. unconventional B. restricted C. multi-faceted D. unique
41. According to the passage, the hunting spiders have _____.
A. a strong sense of smell B. poor hearing
C. sensitive taste buds D. great eyesight
42. The word “chase” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. defeat B. agonise C. hunt D. spy
Questions 43-50
BRIDE PRICE
The custom of paying a bride price before marriage is still a well-established part of many
African cultures. In paying a bride price, the family of the groom must provide payment to the
family of the bride before the marriage is allowed. The bride price can vary greatly from culture to
culture in Africa. In the Zulu and Swazi tribes of southern Africa, the bride price often takes the
form of cattle. In western Africa, kola nuts, blankets, shells, and other goods are often used for the
payment of the bride price. The actual payment of money sometimes take place, but the payment of
goods is more frequent. The amount paid in a bride price can also vary. In modern times, the bride
price is occasionally quite small and its value is mainly symbolic. However, the bride price can still
be quite high, especially amongst prominent or highly traditional families.
There are a number of justifications used to explain the payment of bride price. The first is that
the bride price represents an acknowledgement of the expense the bride’s family has gone to in
order to raise her and bring her up as a suitable bride for the groom. It also represents payments for
the loss of a family member since the bride will officially become a member of her husband’s
family and will leave her own. On a deeper level, the bride price represents payment for the fact that
the bride will bring children into the family of the groom, thereby increasing the wealth of the
family. This concept is reinforced by the fact that the bride price must often be returned if the bride
fails to bear children.
The payment of bride price has quite a number of effects on African society. First, the payment
of bride price acts to increase the stability of African family structures. Sons are dependent on their
fathers and older relatives to help them pay the bride price of their wives, and this generally leads to
greater levels of obedience and respect. The negotiations between the two families concerning the
bride price allow the parents and other family members to meet and get to know one another before
the marriage. Finally, since the bride price must often be repaid in case of a divorce, the bride’s
family often works to make sure that any marital problems are solved quickly. Bride prices also
work as a system of wealth distribution in African cultures. Wealthier families can afford to support
the marriage of their sons, and thus their wealth is transferred to other families.
Not all of the effects of bride price are so positive, however. One major disadvantage to the
system of bride price is that women are often married to men much older than themselves. In many
African cultures, the typical age for marriage amongst women is still quite young, lower than in

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many causes. Yet few men at this age would have the ability to raise the bride price to marry. Thus
there is sometimes a significant age gap between husbands and wives. This cuts short the education
of many young women. In addition, the husband, being far older, may die whilst the wife is still
relatively young, leaving her with the burden of raising the children alone.
43. Based on the information in paragraph 1, the term “bride price” can best be explained as _____.
A. the costs associated with a traditional African wedding
B. the payment of money to a newly married couple
C. a purely symbolic wedding practice
D. money paid to a woman’s family for permission to marry
44. Why does the author mention the payment of money?
A. to illustrate how the practice of bride price has changed over time
B. to demonstrate how expensive a bride price can be sometimes
C. to stress that the use of goods in the payment of bride price is most common
D. to demonstrate the differences in how rich and poor families pay the bride price
45. The word “prominent” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. conservative B. important C. religious D. educated
46. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that African families _____.
A. place great importance on childbirth B. never see their daughters after marriage
C. place more value on men than women D. pay the bride price on the day of the wedding
47. Which of the following is stated in paragraph 3?
A. Obedient and respectful sons can rely on their fathers and elders to help them pay the bride price
of their wives.
B. Sons are dependent on their fathers and elders, and this makes them more obedient and respectful.
C. Young men must obey their fathers and elders because they need their help to pay the bride price of
their wives.
D. Sons respect the fact that their fathers and elders will help them pay the bride price of their wives.
48. The author uses the word “marital” to indicate that the problems are related to _____.
A. money B. marriage C. pregnancy D. laws
49. According to paragraph 3, the initial negotiations over the bride price help ensure the stability of
the family because _____.
A. they make the distribution of wealth more equal
B. they lessen the chances for divorce
C. they provide an opportunity for the families to meet each other
D. they ensure that the groom’s family has the money to pay the bride price
50. According to paragraph 4, why are women often married to older men?
A. The legal age for marriage is lower for women than for men.
B. Families are eager to gain the bride price from their daughter’s marriage.
C. Women live longer than men on average. D. Young men lack the financial ability to marry.

PRACTICE TEST 7

Questions 1-2
1. A. angel B. angle C. anticipate D. antique
2. A. entice B. apprentice C. practice D. indices
Questions 3-4

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 Practice Tests
3. A. triangle B. industry C. prestigious D. flexible
4. A. innovative B. necessary C. comfortable D. ridiculous
Questions 5-7
5. Many products (A) that used to (B) manufacture in the US are (C) now made (D) overseas.
6. (A) Americans own 112 million pet cats and dogs, and (B) most consider the animals (C) being
members of (D) the family.
7. A (A) thirty-year-old woman (B) had divorced her husband after he demanded that she (C) clean
the house (D) every day.
Questions 8-19
8. The spokesperson, who did not talk much about the previous evening’s dinner, actually _____
that they had all had too much to eat and drink.
A. inferred B. implied C. presented D. required
9. They were _____ of my liberal views and refused to listen.
A. tolerated B. tolerable C. intolerable D. intolerant
10. _____ jogging, swimming is one of the best forms of exercises.
A. In addition B. Beside C. Along with D. Also
11. That lady is looking for a babysitter with experience _____ taking care of toddlers.
A. for B. with C. about D. in
12. Hardly _____ believe it when I read the email she sent me.
A. I could B. I couldn’t C. could I D. couldn’t I
13. This watch is not genuine Rolex. It is _____.
A. corruption B. counterfeit C. copycat D. fraud
14. It seems that there was some _____ about what the professor actually said.
A. confusion B. confusedly C. confusing D. confused
15. It was several years ago, but I can still remember the moment as if it _____ yesterday.
A. is B. has been C. were D. had been
16. Petroleum _____ one of the most important energy resources over the past fifty years.
A. has become B. will become C. became D. becomes
17. When you travel by plane, you can choose to sit by the window or near the _____.
A. corridor B. passage C. aisle D. outside
18. I was the last person _____ the house this morning.
A. left B. leaving C. that leaves D. to leave
19. They always try to be on good _____ with their next-door neighbors.
A. terms B. relations C. friendship D. condition
Questions 20-21
20. Ron happens to meet Neville at the Dining Hall of Gonville & Caius College, Cambridge
University.
- Ron: “I haven’t seen you for ages. How are you doing?” – Neville: “_____”
A. Well, I’m working as an engineer now. B. Never better! How are you?
C. A little bit off the weather. D. Every cloud has a silver lining.
21. Whilst Nick is strolling about Calton Hill in Edinburgh, Scotland, he meets Mr. Duncan.
- Nick: “_____, Mr. Duncan!” – Mr. Duncan: “Me, too, little young man!”
A. All the better for seeing you B. As if C. Easy day D. Fancy meeting you here
Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).

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22. The first half of the game was pretty dull, and I nearly fell asleep in the middle of it.
A. boring B. unpredictable C. enjoyable D. thrilling
23. After finishing the race, the winning cyclist will proceed to the photo shoot.
A. give B. return C. jump D. continue
Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
24. The drinking water has become contaminated with lead.
A. polluted B. purified C. cooled D. heated
25. The decision was made more in sorrow than in anger.
A. sympathy B. hopelessness C. happiness D. empathy
Questions 26-30
26. “You’d better ask your mother for help, Mary,” Andy said.
A. Andy demanded Mary to ask his mother for help.
B. Andy denied of asking Mary’s mother for help.
C. Andy suggested that Mary should ask his mother for help.
D. Andy suggested that Mary ask her mother for help.
27. I only recognized him when he started to talk to me.
A. Although he started to talk to me, I couldn’t recognize him.
B. He started to talk to me because I recognized him.
C. Not until he started to talk to me did I recognize him.
D. Had I not recognized him, he would have talked to me.
28. The detective started investigating the crime scene a week ago.
A. The detective has been investigating the crime scene for a week.
B. The detective stopped investigating the crime scene after one week.
C. The detective had investigated the crime scene until last week.
D. It has been one week since the detective stopped investigating the crime scene.
29. Gerrard is very intelligent. He always gets perfect scores in Math.
A. Gerrard is such intelligent to get perfect scores in Math.
B. If Gerrard were more intelligent, he could get perfect scores in Math.
C. Gerrard is so intelligent that he always gets perfect scores in Math.
D. Thanks to his perfect scores in Math, Gerrard is very intelligent.
30. You are not trying very hard now. You will not pass the exam.
A. Unless you don’t try very hard, you will not pass the exam.
B. Unless you try very harder, you will not pass the exam.
C. If you try harder, you will not pass the exam.
D. If you don’t try very hard, you will pass the exam.
Questions 31-35
CAUGHT RED-HANDED
Earlier this month, the police in St. Judy in north-west England found a stolen car with a camera
in it. When the film was developed, Detective Inspector Anderson found herself (31) _____ at
pictures of the thieves. ‘I couldn’t believe it,’ she said, but as a result of the discovery, the thieves
were quickly arrested.
The extraordinary story had begun the previous day when out-of-work engineer, Bill Madison,
met Sandy Jason. Madison wanted to (32) _____ a good impression on her, so he stole a brand new
Ford Mondeo to take her out on a date. Since (33) _____ of them had much money, they decided to
spend the evening driving around town.

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 Practice Tests
Whilst Ms. Jason was looking through the glove compartment of the car, she found a camera and
used it to take the pictures of her boyfriend (34) _____ action. The pictures included one of him
happily driving the wrong way down a one-way street. Later in the evening, they ran out of petrol
and left it in a no-parking zone near a police station. Because of their hurry to leave the (35) _____
of the crime, they completely forgot about the camera. Madison was found guilty of theft, but the
judge decided that Ms. Jason was innocent.
31. A. was looking B. looking C. look D. to look
32. A. make B. have C. get D. do
33. A. all B. both C. none D. neither
34. A. in B. of C. on D. for
35. A. area B. scene C. space D. zone
Questions 36-42
THE EFFECTS OF STRESS
There is a famous expression in English. “Stop the world, I want to get off!” This expression
refers to a feeling of panic, or stress, that makes a person want to stop whatever they are doing, try
to relax, and become calm again. “Stress” means pressure or tension. It is one of the most common
causes of health problems in modern life. Too much stress results in physical, emotional, and
mental health problems.
Stress can affect the heart. It can increase the pulse rate, make the heart miss beats, and can cause
high blood pressure. Stress can affect the respiratory system. It can lead to asthma. It can cause a
person to breathe too fast, resulting in a loss of important carbon dioxide. Stress can affect the
stomach. It can cause stomach aches and problems digesting food. These are only a few examples
of the wide range of illness and symptoms resulting from stress.
Emotions are also easily affected by stress. People suffering from stress often feel anxious. They
may have panic attacks. They may feel tired all the time. When people are under stress, they often
overreact to little problems. For example, a normally gently parent under a lot of stress at work may
yell at a child for dropping a glass of juice. Stress can make people angry, moody, or nervous.
Long-term stress can lead to a variety of serious mental illnesses. Depression, an extreme feeling
of sadness and hopelessness, can be the result of continued and increasing stress. Alcoholism and
other addictions often develop as a result of overuse of alcohol or drugs to try to relieve stress.
Eating disorders, such as anorexia, are sometimes caused by stress and are often made worse by
stress. If stress is allowed to continue, then one’s mental health is put at risk.
It is obvious that stress is a serious problem. It attacks the body. It affects the emotions.
Untreated, it may eventually result in mental illness. Stress has a great influence on the health and
well-being of our bodies, our feelings, and our minds. Then, try to reduce stress: stop the world and
rest for a while.
36. Which of the following is NOT a common problem caused by stress?
A. physical problems B. anecdotal problems C. mental problems D. emotional problems
37. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Stress can make people feel nervous. B. People can cause panic attacks.
C. Stress can make people feel elated. D. Stress can make people feel angry.
38. According to the passage, which of the following can result from long-term stress?
A. bliss B. disillusion C. depression D. whimsy
39. Symptoms of emotional stress include feeling _____.
A. joyous B. hungry C. thirsty D. tired

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40. In which space does the following sentence best fit? “There are numerous physical effects of
stress.”
A. at the beginning of paragraph 2 B. at the beginning of paragraph 3
C. at the beginning of paragraph 4 D. at the beginning of paragraph 5
41. The word “yell” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. shout B. punish C. scold D. frown
42. Which of the following is the most suitable title of the passage?
A. The Causes of Stress B. The Effects of Stress
C. Types of Stress D. Ways to Relieve Stress
Questions 43-50
WEIGHT PROBLEMS
It was once believed that being overweight was healthy, but nowadays few people subscribe to
this viewpoint. Whilst many people are fighting the battle to reduce weight, studies are being
conducted concerning the appetite and how it is controlled by both emotional and biochemical
factors. Some of the conclusions of these studies may give insights into how to deal with weight
problems. For example, when several hundred people were asked about their eating habits in times
of stress, 44 percent said they reacted to stressful situations by eating. Further investigations with
both humans and animals indicated that it is not food which relieves tension but rather the act of
chewing.
A test in which subjects were blindfolded showed that obese people have a keener sense of taste
and crave more flavorful food than non-obese people. When deprived of the variety and intensity of
tastes, obese people are not satisfied and consequently eat more to fulfill this need. Blood samples
taken from people after they were shown a picture of food revealed that overweight people reacted
with an increase in blood insulin, a chemical associated with appetite. This did not happen to
average weight people.
In another experiment, results showed that certain people have a specific, biologically induced
hunger for carbohydrates. Eating carbohydrates raises the level of serotonin, a neurotransmitter in
the brain. Enough serotonin produces a sense of satiation, and hunger for carbohydrates subsides.
Exercise has been recommended as an important part of a weight loss programme. However, it
has been found that mild exercise, such as using the stairs instead of the elevator, is better in the
long run than taking on a strenuous programme, such as jogging, which many people find difficult
to continue over long periods of time and which also increases appetite.
43. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. weight B. appetite C. emotional factor D. the battle
44. The word “crave” in paragraph 2 can best be replaced with _____.
A. devour B. absorb C. season D. desire
45. It can be inferred from the passage that _____.
A. thin people don’t enjoy food B. deprivation of food makes people fat
C. overweight people have an abnormal sense of taste
D. a variety of foods and strong flavours satisfies heavy people
46. According to the passage, insulin _____.
A. can be used to lessen the appetite B. causes a chemical reaction when food is seen
C. levels don’t change in average-weight people who see food
D. increases in the bloodstream when people eat large amounts of food
47. In order to lose weight, it would be a good idea for heavy people to _____.
A. jog 3 miles daily and chew on carrot sticks

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 Practice Tests
B. walk up stairs and look at pictures of food
C. eat plenty of chewy carbohydrates D. avoid stressful situations and eat spicy foods
48. Which of the following exercises might be best for an overweight person to engage in daily?
A. an evening walk B. a long swim
C. cross-country skiing D. 10-mile bicycle rides
49. It can be inferred from the passage that _____.
A. overweight people are tense B. thin people don’t eat when under stress
C. 56 percent of the population isn’t overweight
D. weight watchers should chew on something inedible when tense
50. Why does the writer mention using the stairs in the last paragraph?
A. to give an example of a strenuous programme for weight watchers
B. to illustrate why weight watchers fall to continue some activities over long periods
C. to give an example of mild exercises as part of a weight loss programme
D. to warn weight watchers of activities they should not perform in the long run

PRACTICE TEST 8

Questions 1-2
1. A. canal B. dismal C. herbal D. rental
2. A. television B. decision C. tension D. confusion
Questions 3-4
3. A. offer B. confer C. refer D. infer
4. A. humorous B. courageous C. poisonous D. luminous
Questions 5-7
5. (A) Psychologists estimate that (B) up to sixty (C) percentage of human (D) communication is
non-verbal.
6. Cloning is a process (A) that uses a cell (B) from an animal (C) in order to produce (D) exact
copy.
7. (A) According to the new policy, students will (B) not longer be able to (C) use personal devices
(D) during school hours.
Questions 8-19
8. Public museums and art galleries are places _____ collect and safeguard historical or artistic
works and objects.
A. they B. that C. in that D. where
9. _____ science has been developing at a high speed, people still have a high opinion of artists
such as musicians, painters, and writers.
A. If B. Since C. Although D. When
10. Viewers who are often exposed _____ violence in films and television are more likely to imitate
the violence solutions when they are in difficulty.
A. in B. at C. with D. to
11. William had to drop _____ school as his father could no longer afford his school fees.
A. down B. away from C. out of D. into
12. With the help of a friend, he spent many weeks _____ a small model of the same object.
A. constructed B. constructing C. to construct D. construct

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13. Some types of building materials are _____ more expensive than others.
A. very B. too C. much D. so
14. It is impossible to _____ any research without the Internet.
A. make B. do C. get D. let
15. The town’s _____ features are its beautiful sceneries and ancient marketplace.
A. most B. main C. considerable D. enormous
16. Nowadays many kids are _____ to computer games.
A. addicted B. keen C. interested D. obsessed
17. The children have been _____ their parents to buy them new toys.
A. petering out B. questioning C. petitioning D. pestering
18. Nam had some cuts in his leg because he had been _____ a lot during the match.
A. dropping off B. dropping down C. falling over D. falling through
19. Do you prefer to _____ cash from the bank or from a cash machine?
A. withdraw B. deposit C. pay D. loan
Questions 20-21
20. Peter and Jason are in the chemistry laboratory at Exeter University.
- Peter: “Are you ready to add these catalysts to the compound?”
- Jason: “Yeah._____ if there’s an explosion!”
A. Seeing is believing B. Heaven forbid C. Sharing is caring D. God save the Queen
21. Fanny and Gaby are in an advanced painting class at Roehampton University.
- Fanny: “Have you seen Josh’s painting? It’s astoundingly brilliant!” – Gaby: “Well, _____!”
A. he can paint till the cows come home B. no one is infallible
C. it’s nigh on impossible D. no one comes close to him as a painter
Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
22. It is evident that governments should impose strict controls on the content of films shown on
TV.
A. unavoidable B. predictable C. certain D. obvious
23. People’s livelihood has been substantially improved.
A. adequately B. increasingly C. considerably D. basically
Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
24. A loss of social values means our society is deteriorating.
A. changing B. improving C. expanding D. existing
25. Many reptiles find shelter in holes or spend the winter being dormant, having all their physical
functions slowed down for some time.
A. warm B. diligent C. active D. bored
Questions 26-30
26. The rapid urbanization of developing countries are causing serious social problems.
A. Serious social problems result in the rapid urbanization of developing countries.
B. The rapid urbanization of developing countries stems from serious social problems.
C. Serious social problems lead to the rapid urbanization of developing countries.
D. Serious social problems are being caused by the rapid urbanization of developing countries.
27. Even though he has applied for hundreds of jobs, he is still out of work.
A. He is still out of work because he has applied for hundreds of jobs.
B. He shouldn’t have applied for hundreds of jobs because he is out of work.
C. Despite having applied for hundreds of jobs, he is still out of work.

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D. Despite applying for hundreds of jobs, he is employed.
28. I was silly to say that.
A. I should not have said that. B. I wish I had said something sillier than that.
C. I didn’t say anything. D. I said nothing because I was silly.
29. I have four brothers. They are not teachers.
A. I have four brothers, both of whom are teachers.
B. I have four brothers, all of whom are teachers.
C. I have four brothers, one of whom is a teacher.
D. I have four brothers, none of whom is a teacher.
30. The mansion was built in the 1970s. The owners have just sold it for 500,000 dollars.
A. The mansion where the owners just sold for 500,000 dollars was built in the 1970s.
B. The mansion which the owners have just bought for 500,000 dollars was built in the 1970s.
C. The mansion which the owners have just sold for half a million dollars was built in the 1970s.
D. It was not until the 1970s that the mansion was sold for 500,000 dollars by its owners.
Questions 31-35
ARE OLD BUILDINGS OLD HAT?
In the contemporary age, there is constant debate over preserving history versus making
progress. In (31) _____ of the old buildings, many people assert that they should be better protected
whilst some others claim that they should be knocked down to make way for new ones.
It is widely acknowledged that many old buildings are (32) _____ protection today because they
are culturally valuable to a nation. (33) _____ a native language, many historical buildings form a
cultural identity and keep a unique record of a country, so they possess significant value to research
into the past and play an important function in the education of future generations.
Nevertheless, we are not (34) _____ equal treatment for all old buildings, and some of them do
need to be torn down, partly because of safety concerns, and partly because they need to be replaced
to meet the need of social development, such as to raise the utilization (35) _____ of land.
31. A. terms B. place C. consideration D. need
32. A. in B. with C. of D. under
33. A. As B. Like C. For D. With
34. A. advocating B. aiming C. justifying D. emphasising
35. A. rate B. standard C. layer D. pace
Questions 36-42
The increase in international business and in foreign investment has created a need for executives
with knowledge of foreign languages and skills in cross-cultural communication. Americans,
however, have not been well trained in either area and, consequently, have not enjoyed the same
level of success in negotiation in an international arena as have their foreign counterparts.
Negotiating is the process of communicating back and forth for the purpose of reaching an
agreement. It involves persuasion and compromise, but in order to participate in either one, the
negotiators must understand the ways in which people are persuaded and how compromise is
reached within the culture of the negotiation.
In many international business negotiations abroad, Americans are perceived as wealthy and
impersonal. It often appears to the foreign negotiations that the American represents a large
multimillion-dollar corporation that can afford to pay the price without bargaining further. The
American negotiator’s role becomes that of an impersonal purveyor of information and cash, an
image that succeeds only in undermining the negotiation.

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In studies of American negotiators abroad, several traits have been identified that may serve to
confirm this stereotypical perception whilst subverting the negotiator’s position. Two traits in
particular that cause cross-cultural misunderstandings are directness and impatience on the part of
the American negotiators. Furthermore, American negotiators often insist on realizing short-term
goals. Foreign negotiators, on the other hand, may value the relationship established between
negotiators and may be willing to invest time in it for long-term benefits. In order to solidify the
relationship, they may opt for indirect interactions without regard for the time involved in getting to
know the other negotiator.
Clearly, perceptions and differences in values affect the outcomes of negotiations and the success
of negotiators. For Americans to play a more effective role in international business negotiations,
they must put forth more effort to improve cross-cultural understanding.
36. What is the author’s main point?
A. Negotiation is the process of reaching an agreement.
B. Foreign languages are important for international business.
C. Foreign perceptions of American negotiators are based on stereotypes.
D. American negotiators need to learn more about other cultures.
37. According to the author, what is the purpose of negotiation?
A. To undermine the other negotiator’s training B. To communicate back and forth
C. To understand the culture of the negotiators D. To reach an agreement
38. The word “undermining” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. making known B. making clear C. making brief D. making weak
39. In which paragraph does the author indicate the two criteria necessary for negotiation?
A. paragraph 2 B. paragraph 3 C. paragraph 4 D. paragraph 5
40. According to the passage, how can American businesspersons improve their negotiation skills?
A. by living in a foreign culture B. by getting to know the negotiators
C. by compromising more often D. by explaining the goals more clearly
41. What does the author mean by the statement “Americans, however, have not been well trained
in either area and, consequently, have not enjoyed the same level of success in negotiation in an
international arena as have their foreign counterparts.”?
A. Training is not available for Americans who must interact in international negotiations.
B. Foreign businesspersons negotiate less effectively than Americans because of their training.
C. Because their training is not as good, Americans are less successful as negotiators than their
international counterparts.
D. Foreign business partners do not like to negotiate with Americans, who are not well trained.
42. The American negotiator is described as all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A. perceived by foreign negotiators as wealthy B. known for direct interactions
C. willing to invest time in relationships D. interested in short-term goals
Questions 43-50
Floods are second only to fire as the most common of all natural disasters. They occur almost
everywhere in the world, resulting in widespread damage and even death. Consequently, scientists
have long tried to perfect their ability to predict floods. So far, the best that scientists can do is to
recognize the potential for flooding in certain conditions. There are a number of conditions, from
deep snow on the ground to human error, that cause flooding.
When deep snow melts, it creates a large amount of water. Although deep snow alone rarely
causes floods, when it occurs together with heavy rain and sudden warmer weather, it can lead to
serious flooding. If there is a fast snow melt on top of frozen or very wet ground, flooding is more

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 Practice Tests
likely to occur than when the ground is not frozen. Frozen ground or ground that is very wet and
already saturated with water cannot absorb the additional water created by the melting snow.
Melting snow also contributes to high water levels in rivers and streams. Whenever rivers are
already at their full capacity of water, heavy rains will result in the rivers overflowing and flooding
the surrounding land.
Rivers that are covered in ice can also lead to flooding. When ice begins to melt, the surface of
the ice cracks and breaks into large pieces. These pieces of ice move and float down the river. They
can form a dam in the river, causing the water behind the dam to rise and flood the land upstream. If
the dam breaks suddenly, then the large amount of water held behind the dam can flood the areas
downstream too.
When a large human-made dam breaks or fails to hold the water collected behind it, the results
can be devastating. Dams contain such huge amounts of water behind them that when sudden
breaks occur, the destructive force of the water is like a great tidal wave. Unleashed dam waters can
travel tens of kilometres, cover the ground in metres of mud and debris, and drown and crush
everything and creature in their path.
Although scientists cannot always predict exactly when floods will occur, they do know a great
deal about when floods are likely, or probably, going to occur. Deep snow, ice-covered rivers, and
weak dams are all strong conditions for potential flooding. Hopefully, this knowledge of why floods
happen can help us reduce the damage they cause.
43. Which of the following would be the title for the passage?
A. The Causes of Floods B. Different Kinds of Floods
C. Natural Disasters D. How to Prevent Floods
44. According to the passage, what is the most common natural disaster?
A. flood B. fire C. wind damage D. rain
45. How does melting snow lead to flood-related problems?
A. It makes the rivers run too fast. B. It makes the water too cold.
C. It makes the level of the water rise. D. It causes pieces of ice to block the river.
46. Which of the following best describes how a frozen river can cause a flood?
A. The ice in the river melts too quickly and causes a flood.
B. The ice in the river cracks causing the water to overflow.
C. The ice in the river cracks into pieces that eventually create a dam causing the water to overflow.
D. The water behind the ice dam collects and when the dam breaks, it causes flooding upstream.
47. Why does the writer mention “tidal wave” in paragraph 4?
A. To describe the speed at which the water travels when a dam is broken
B. To give an example of the consequences of a broken man-made dam
C. To emphasize the devastation a broken man-made dam can bring about
D. To provide further information about natural disasters
48. How far can dam water travel when it is unleashed from a broken dam?
A. less than 10 kilometres B. tens of kilometres
C. thousands of kilometres D. tens of thousands of kilometres downstream
49. What kinds of problems can floods cause?
A. death B. widespread damage
C. destruction of plants and animals D. all of the above
50. In which place does the following sentence best fits? “Broken ice dams are not the only dam
problems that can cause flooding.”
A. at the beginning of paragraph 2 B. at the beginning of paragraph 3

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C. at the beginning of paragraph 4 D. at the beginning of paragraph 5

PRACTICE TEST 9

Questions 1-2
1. A. image B. package C. bandage D. enrage
2. A. cough B. roughly C. tough D. enough
Questions 3-4
3. A. comment B. placement C. relent D. latent
4. A. surface B. furnace C. practice D. entice
Questions 5-7
5. Probably the (A) most reason why customers may leave (B) is that they (C) are lured away by
your (D) competition.
6. Personal space is the (A) concept of how close (B) other person can get to you before you start
(C) to feel (D) comfortable.
7. One of the (A) interestingly similarities between many world religions (B) is the startling (C)
likeness of (D) their myths.
Questions 8-19
8. Harp seals are marine mammals _____ to the Suborder Pinnipedia, which is related to fin-footed
animals like sea lions.
A. are belonged B. belonged C. belonging D. belong
9. It was an eventful year. There _____ many breakthroughs in the medicine industry.
A. are B. have been C. had been D. will be
10. _____ a special buffet, you will be able to enjoy various performances by the Kirov Ballet.
A. As well as B. In addition C. Beside D. Also
11. If you _____ your capital to this project, you won’t have that capital available to put in another
one.
A. put B. invest C. commit D. deposit
12. Hiring people to take care of the work around the house is _____ to doing it by oneself as it is
more convenient.
A. advisable B. preferable C. suitable D. enviable
13. Whilst pets are often associated _____ family-type households, they are also important to
households without children.
A. with B. in C. for D. by
14. What are the underlying mechanisms _____ fermentation processes help to reduce
contamination?
A. which B. that C. by which D. in which
15. In the future, _____ everything we buy may contain a small chip which will allow us to interact
with it.
A. most B. most of C. almost D. the most
16. It isn’t _____ eating too much fatty stuff that makes people fat.
A. because B. due to C. just D. that
17. Those policymakers _____ enormous demands on their aid budgets when they tried to deal with
the many economic challenges of the country.

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A. faced B. faced with C. were faced D. facing
18. As a civil engineering charity, we work in _____ with local authorities and landowners.
A. partner B. partition C. partnership D. part
19. Safe cycling networks already exist in many parts of Europe, _____ Denmark, Germany,
Switzerland, and the Netherlands.
A. include B. included C. to include D. including
Questions 20-21
20. Peter and Jason are playing football.
- Peter: “Jason, get your head in the match or we will lose!” - Jason: “_____!”
A. Pardon B. It’s no secret C. Ever so sorry D. As luck would have it
21. Tim is sitting in the living room when Janet approaches him.
- Janet: “Jerry and I have just broken up!” – Tim: “_____”
A. Do you need a shoulder to cry on? B. Oh you miser!
C. Happy ending! D. Every so often!
Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
22. Emissions from the factory are widely suspected of having a detrimental effect on health.
A. adverse B. incremental C. unpredictable D. enormous
23. Technological changes have rendered many traditional skills obsolete.
A. undeveloped B. impractical C. unappreciated D. outdated
Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
24. She is an old hand at dealing with such issues.
A. inexperienced in B. reserved about C. uninterested in D. relaxed about
25. Today the team is facing one of its toughest opponents.
A. trainers B. supporters C. competitors D. sponsors
Questions 26-30
26. Jane left the office as soon as she could because she wanted to be sure of catching the train.
A. Jane left the office as soon as she could in order not to catch the train.
B. Jane left the office as soon as she could so as to miss the train.
C. Jane left the office as soon as she could in order to miss the train.
D. Jane left the office as soon as she could so as not to miss the train.
27. I wished I hadn’t said such a thing to her.
A. I forgot to say something to her. B. If only I had said such a thing to her.
C. I regretted having said such a thing to her. D. I remembered that I had said something to her.
28. This new order means that we will have to work overtime.
A. Despite this new order, we will not have to work overtime.
B. Because of this new order, we will have to work overtime.
C. We will have to work overtime in case there is a new order.
D. Unless we have to work overtime, there is no new order.
29. Alex bought a laptop. He bought a smartphone as well.
A. Alex bought a laptop in order to buy a smartphone.
B. Thanks to his laptop, Alex could buy a smartphone.
C. Alex bought a laptop because he wanted to buy a smartphone.
D. Alex bought not only a laptop but also a smartphone.
30. Beckham was injured in a match yesterday. He will be out for one week.
A. Having injured Beckham in a match yesterday, he will be out for one week.

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B. Having been injured in a match yesterday, Beckham will be out for one week.
C. If Beckham had not been out for one week, he wouldn’t have been injured.
D. It has been one week since Beckham was injured in a match.
Questions 31-35
DITCHING BUTTER FOR VEGETABLE OIL?
We have long been told butter is full of ‘bad’ saturated fat and that we should eat sunflower and
vegetable oil spreads – which are linked to a lower risk of heart attacks – instead. Many scientists
still (31) _____ the advice, but there has been growing debate amongst experts.
Britons were advised in 1983 to reduce their fat intake to 30 percent of total energy and to cut
their consumption of butter, full-fat milk and other foods high (32) _____ saturated fat to 10
percent. Meanwhile the ‘good’ polyunsaturated fat in vegetable or sunflower oils – omega-6 fat –
has long been linked to a lower heart disease risk.
However, several major studies have found that people who eat lots of saturated fat are no more
(33) _____ to die earlier than others and a growing number of scientists want the guidelines
changed. Fresh research has (34) _____ further doubt on the guidelines. Scientists from the US’s
National Institutes of Health found those who ate more of the ‘healthy’ fats in vegetable oils saw
their cholesterol fall, but this improvement in cholesterol did not translate (35) _____ a drop in
heart disease or risk of death compared to those who ate butter. Meanwhile, a study by British
Medical Journal found that those with the greatest reduction in their cholesterol levels appeared to
have a higher risk of death.
31. A. approve B. defend C. oppose D. propose
32. A. in B. with C. of D. about
33. A. able B. possible C. certain D. likely
34. A. described B. illustrated C. cast D. placed
35. A. without B. into C. with D. out of
Questions 36-42
COGNITIVE BENEFITS OF LEARNING A LANGUAGE
Should foreign language instruction start earlier in the US?
Foreign language instruction should begin as soon as possible, for children who learn a foreign
language beginning in early childhood demonstrate certain cognitive advantages over those who do
not. Studies conducted in Canada with young children show that those who are bilingual develop
the concept of ‘object permanence’ at an early age. Bilingual students learn sooner that an object
remains the same even though the object has a different name in another language. For example, a
foot remains a foot and performs the function of a foot whether it is labeled a foot in English or un
pied in French.
Additionally, foreign language learning is much more a cognitive problem solving activity than a
linguistic activity, overall. Studies have shown repeatedly that foreign language learning increases
critical thinking skills, creativity, and flexibility of mind in young children. Students who are
learning a foreign language out-score their non-foreign language learning peers in the verbal and,
surprisingly to some, the math sections of standardized tests.
The notion of “earlier is better” in language learning seems to be upheld by the fact that longer
sequences of foreign language instruction seem to lead to better academic achievement, overall.
Because second language instruction provides young children with better cognitive flexibility and
creative thinking skills, it can offer gifted students the intellectual and developmental challenges
they need and desire.

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 Practice Tests
How can parents who do not have a language option in their school obtain foreign language
instruction for their children?
For home-school and pre-school parents, more resources are becoming available. Publishers and
media developers are capitalizing on the renewed interest in language instruction and are
developing programmes for children based on language learning. Also, the web offers many free
language learning opportunities.
In addition, many elementary level programmes have been implemented based on parent
demand. Parents should advocate language programmes in their local communities. They can find
and share resources and hold informational meetings with other parents, school administrators, and
school board members. School boards represent parents, and school board members are willing to
listen to well-informed parents who have done their research and who are able to present the
benefits of foreign language learning effectively.
36. Why does the writer mention the word “un pied” in paragraph 1?
A. To emphasize the importance of bilingualism
B. To compare the description of one subject in two languages
C. To illustrate a previously mentioned term
D. To explain how bilingualism children manage to learn two languages at the same time
37. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT affected by foreign language learning?
A. cognitive skill B. flexibility C. mathematical skill D. sociability
38. Which of the following does the writer most probably agree with?
A. Some individuals are naturally talented when it comes to second language acquisition.
B. Students who are good at math typically have better linguistic ability than those who are not.
C. The choice of which foreign language to study should be left to the students themselves.
D. Learning a foreign language in early childhood may have a positive impact on children’s
development of cognitive skills.
39. In which place does the following sentence best fit? “Even with a tight school budget, the slow
and steady insistence of parents can help to get foreign language classes instituted.”
A. at the beginning of paragraph 4 B. at the end of paragraph 4
C. at the beginning of paragraph 5 D. at the end of paragraph 5
40. What is the phrase “capitalizing on” in paragraph 4 closest in meaning to _____.
A. taking advantage of B. making investment in
C. making improvement on D. putting emphasis on
41. According to the passage, parents are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A. support language programmes in the community
B. develop language programmes for children
C. hold meetings with school administrators
D. share language learning resources with other parents
42. Which of the following does the writer most probably agree with?
A. The benefits of foreign language learning largely depend on students’ age.
B. Though early foreign language instruction offers several benefits, it is still open to doubt whether
schools include language options in their curriculum.
C. Early foreign language instruction provides gifted students with unnecessary development and
intellectual challenges.
D. Parents should take an active role in promoting foreign language instruction in the community.
Questions 43-50

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 Practice Tests
Rivalry among businesses and service industries is called competition. This feature of a market
economy encourages businesses to improve their goods and services, keep their process affordable,
and offer new products to attract more buyers.
There are four basic types of competition in business that form a continuum from pure
competition through monopolistic competition and oligopoly to monopoly. At one end of the
continuum, pure competition results when every company has a similar product. Companies that
deal in commodities such as wheat or corn are often involved on pure competition. In pure
competition, it is often the ease and efficiency of distribution that influences purchases.
In contrast, in monopolistic competition, several companies may compete for the sale of items
that may be substituted. The classic example of monopolistic competition is coffee and tea. If the
price of one is perceived as too high, consumers may begin to purchase the other. Coupons and
other discounts are often used as part of a marketing strategy to influence sales.
Oligopoly occurs when a few companies dominate the sales of a product or service. For example,
only five airline carriers control more than 70 percent of all ticket sales in the US. In oligopoly,
serious competition is not considered desirable because it would result in reduced revenue for every
company in the group. Although price wars do occur, in which all companies offer substantial
savings to customers, a somewhat similar tendency to raise prices simultaneously is also usual.
Finally, monopoly occurs when only one firm sells the product. Some monopolies have been
tolerated for producers of goods and services that have been considered basic or essential, including
electricity and water. In these cases, it is government control, rather than competition, that protects
and influences sales.
43. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. The Commodity Market B. The Competition Continuum
C. The Best Type of Competition D. Monopolies
44. An example of a product in monopolistic competition is _____.
A. corn B. airline tickets C. electricity D. coffee
45. The word “tolerated” in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by _____.
A. permitted B. reserved C. criticized D. devised
46. Where is the passage does the author explain pure competition?
A. paragraph 2 B. paragraph 3 C. paragraph 4 D. paragraph 5
47. What does the writer mean by the statement “Although price wars do occur, in which all
companies offer substantial savings to customers, a somewhat similar tendency to raise prices
simultaneously is also usual.”?
A. Customers may lose money when companies have price wars.
B. It is common for companies to compete for customers by lowering prices.
C. It is not unusual for all companies to increase prices at the same time.
D. Prices are lower during price wars, but they are usually higher afterwards.
48. Which type of competition is subject to the greatest government control?
A. monopolistic competition B. monopolies C. oligopolies D. pure competition
49. The author mentions all of the following as characteristics of monopoly EXCEPT _____.
A. only one firm B. government control
C. basic or essential services D. the use of coupons or other discounts
50. It can be inferred that this passage was first printed in _____.
A. a business textbook B. a government document
C. an airline brochure D. a newspaper

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 Practice Tests
PRACTICE TEST 10

Questions 1-2
1. A. sacred B. informed C. warned D. tanned
2. A. image B. stagecoach C. enrage D. engage
Questions 3-4
3. A. necessary B. photography C. geometry D. heredity
4. A. stadium B. industry C. museum D. federal
Questions 5-7
5. The theory (A) isn’t sounding persuasive (B) anymore because it (C) had been opposed by many
(D) scholars.
6. I wish (A) having an excellent birthday, but I (B) was not able to do (C) so because an exam (D)
fell on that that day.
7. (A) Because I can’t (B) spare a moment right now, I’ll (C) have one of my (D) co-workers to
work on it.
Questions 8-19
8. Televisions, music, and video games are all things that are fun and sometimes _____ for kids.
A. educate B. education C. educational D. educated
9. I am _____ for the London Marathon.
A. learning B. training C. teaching D. trying
10. Nobody believed that he told the truth, _____?
A. did they B. didn’t they C. did he D. didn’t he
11. John was absent. He _____ sick.
A. will be B. should have been C. might have been D. doesn’t have to be
12. _____ interesting was the TV programme that he had been watching it for hours.
A. Very B. How C. So D. Such
13. _____ his mother’s warning of the cold weather, the boy went out without his coat on.
A. Although B. Though C. In spite D. Despite
14. Everybody in the room at the time could hear the young boy _____.
A. is screaming B. was screaming C. screamed D. scream
15. Could you help me find the man _____ I gave the book yesterday?
A. who B. whose C. from whom D. to whom
16. I wish you _____ complaining.
A. stop B. will stop C. would stop D. to stop
17. As a teacher, you should make sure that learners understand the rules, either before they start the
game, _____ as they are working in groups.
A. or B. and C. as well D. as much
18. If Peter hadn’t drunk so much yesterday, he _____ so tired now.
A. won’t be B. wouldn’t be C. weren’t D. wouldn’t have been
19. A child that _____ for a week in the mountains was finally found.
A. was lost B. had been lost C. had lost D. lost
Questions 20-21
20. Peter and Jason are at a bubble tea shop near the Trumpington Park & Ride, Cambridge.

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 Practice Tests
- Peter: “I’ve been disheartened with my first assignment being scored only 48/100.”
- Jason: “_____!”
A. I have no idea B. Try harder next time
C. Congratulations D. There are more fish in the sea
21. Tim is at a Sainsbury’s store on Richmond Street in London.
- Tim: “Excuse me, where could I find the Rich Tea Biscuits?” – The store attendant: “_____”
A. Sorry, it’s in stock at the moment. B. How would you like to pay?
C. It’s been discontinued, I’m afraid. D. You can manage yourself, thank you!
Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
22. Public attitudes towards marriage have shifted over the past fifty years.
A. changed B. improved C. expanded D. emerged
23. The law says that children from ten upwards can understand the consequences of their actions.
A. causes B. outcomes C. factors D. elements
Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
24. John was reluctant to admit that he had made a mistake.
A. friendly B. willing C. truthful D. kind
25. Embracing new technologies will help the country to develop more quickly.
A. disobeying B. contradicting C. obscuring D. rejecting
Questions 26-30
26. Why don’t you learn to play a new musical instrument?
A. I suggest that you should not learn to play a new musical instrument.
B. I advise you not to learn to play a new musical instrument.
C. If I were you, I would not learn to play a new musical instrument.
D. If I were you, I would learn to play a new musical instrument.
27. The room is too small for us to play music in.
A. The room is so small that we can play music in.
B. The room is not small enough for us to play music in.
C. The room is not large enough for us to play music in.
D. We could play music if the room were smaller.
28. I bought a dozen eggs though we had plenty in the fridge.
A. Because we had plenty of eggs in the fridge, I bought a dozen ones.
B. I should have bought more eggs since we we had plenty in the fridge.
C. I needn’t have bought a dozen eggs as we had plenty in the fridge.
D. If I hadn’t bought a dozen eggs, we wouldn’t have had plenty in the fridge.
29. Smoking is a harmful habit. You should give it up.
A. If you give up smoking, it is a harmful habit.
B. Smoking is not a good habit, which is why you should give it up.
C. Unless smoking is a harmful habit, you should give it up.
D. You should give up smoking because it is a harmful habit.
30. Dean is not going to lend me his book. He has yet to finish reading it.
A. Not having finished reading the book, Dean is going to lend it to me.
B. Even though Dean has finished reading the book, he is not going to lend it to me.
C. Having finished reading the book, Dean is going to let me borrow it.
D. Dean is not going to lend me his book until he has finished reading it.
Questions 31-35

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 Practice Tests
GLOBAL WARMING
Global warming is the current increase in temperature of the Earth’s surface (both land and
water) as well as its atmosphere. Average temperatures around the world have risen by 0.75˚C
(1.4˚F) over the last 100 years. About two-thirds of this increase has occurred (31) _____ 1975. In
the past, when the Earth experienced increases in temperature, it was the result of natural causes
(32) _____ today it is being caused by the accumulation of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
produced by human activities.
The natural greenhouse effect (33) _____ the Earth’s temperature at a safe level making it
possible for humans and many other life forms to exist. However, since the Industrial Revolution
human activities have significantly enhanced the greenhouse effect (34) _____ the Earth’s average
temperature to rise by almost 1˚C. This is creating the global warming which we see today. To put
this increase (35) _____ perspective, it is important to understand that during the last ice age, a
period of massive climate change, the average temperature change around the globe was only about
5˚C.
31. A. in B. from C. for D. since
32. A. because B. so C. but D. if
33. A. maintains B. remains C. sustains D. detains
34. A. cause B. caused C. have caused D. causing
35. A. on B. into C. from D. to
Questions 36-42
E-RETAIL ROCKETING
We all know that retail is the sale of products direct to customers in small quantities but do you
know what e-retail is? It’s the online market where people go shopping. The market-analyst
company, Verdict, has conducted research that shows that e-retail was the fastest growing retail
sector in 2004. One in four shoppers is heading for the net instead of the High Street. And as a
nation, the British are becoming more comfortable with computers – 60% of households now have
one and most of them are connected to the Net. In research carried out across Europe on the use of
the media, the Internet came second only to TV, and well ahead of papers, magazines and the radio.
More than anything, it is digital entertainment that is driving Internet usage at present. Digital
music players and cameras have become the latest must-have accessories and more and more people
are downloading possible because of the introduction of superfast broadband connections.
Another key reason for the increase in online shopping is that people are changing their shopping
habits. Shopping online gives the customer more choice and is more convenient too as everything is
delivered to your door. Finally, customer confidence is up; people feel safer now about paying by
credit online.
The most popular goods for home delivery are books, music, and videos. After that come
electrical goods such as TVs and CD players. Electrical goods are closely followed by clothing. The
Interactive Media in Retail Group (IMRG) predicts that by April 2010, almost 20% of retail sales
will come from online shopping. It raises an interesting question about the future of High Street
shopping in the next 20 years. For the moment, however, the retail sector is still king, but watch out
– e-retail is big and getting bigger every day!
36. _____ of shoppers prefer to shop on the Internet instead of on the High Street.
A. 25% B. 33% C. 50% D. 60%
37. Three in _____ of British households have a computer.
A. four B. five C. six D. seven

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 Practice Tests
38. One of the main reasons people feel confident about buying online is because _____.
A. they know how to use computers B. they believe their credit card details are safe
C. they believe they have a wider range of choices online
D. they know they will get better prices than in the High Street
39. It is predicted that by April 2010, e-retail shopping will be _____ of the retail market.
A. 20% B. 35% C. 60% D. 70%
40. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Without broadband, this new growth of e-retail would not have been possible.
B. High Street shopping is growing more than any other part of the retail business.
C. According to a European survey, TV is still the most popular media set.
D. One of the reasons why online shopping is growing so fast is because people are downloading
music.
41. What does the word “it” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. IMRG B. the prediction C. e-retail D. the retail sector
42. The word “heading” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. standing first B. controlling C. going D. blowing
Questions 43-50
A LONG AND HEALTHY LIFE
How long will a baby born today live? 100 years? 120 years? Scientists are studying genes that
could mean long life for us all.
There are already many, many people who have passed the landmark age of 100. In fact, there
are now so many healthy, elderly people that there’s a new term for them: the wellderly. These are
people over the age of 80 who have no diseases such as high blood pressure, heart disease or
diabetes and have never taken medicines for these conditions.
There have been many scientific studies of communities where a healthy old age is typical.
These include places like Calabria in southern Italy and the island of Okinawa in Japan. The small
village of Molochio in Calabria has about 2,000 inhabitants. And of these, there are at least eight
centenarians. When researchers ask people like this the secret of their long life, the answer is almost
always to do with diet and is almost always the same. ‘I eat a lot of fruit and vegetables.’ ‘A little
bit, but of everything.’ ‘No smoking, no drinking.’
Whilst in the past scientists have looked at things such as diet and lifestyle for an explanation of
long life, these days they are investigating genetics. One such researcher is Eric Topol, who says,
‘There must be genes that explain why these individuals are protected from the aging process.’
The new research into long life looks at groups of people who have a genetic connection. For
example, one group of interest lives in Ecuador. In one area of the country, there are a number of
people with the same genetic condition. It’s called Laron syndrome. The condition means that they
don’t grow to more than about one metre, but it also seems to give them protection against cancer
and diabetes. As a result, they live longer than other people in their families. Meanwhile, on the
Hawaiian island of Oahu, there’s another group of long-lived men, Japanese-Americans. They have
a similar gene to the Laron syndrome group.
Back in Calabria, scientists are trying to work out exactly how much of the longevity is due to
genetics and how much to environment. By checking public records going back to the 19th century,
researchers have reconstructed the family trees of 202 nonagenarians and centenarians. They
concluded that there were genetic factors involved. And they seemed to benefit the men more than
the women – a surprising result because generally in Europe, there are five times more women
centenarians than men.

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 Practice Tests
So what really makes people live longer? It seems likely that it is an interaction of genes, the
environment and probably a third factor – luck.
43. What two factors for long life do scientists usually investigate?
A. people’s working and living habits B. genetic factors and environmental factors
C. where people live and what their lifestyles are
D. people’s diet and activity when they were young
44. Diabetes, heart disease, and high blood pressure _____.
A. are common illnesses in elderly people
B. teach scientists a lot about old age and long life
C. are never found among a group of people in Ecuador
D. affect people in some areas more than those in others
45. According to the article, _____.
A. scientists are investigating people who are 120 years old
B. scientists advances mean we will all live to at least 100 years old
C. scientists have found genes that might influence how long we live
D. scientists haven’t discovered why people in some areas typically live longer than others
46. The word “landmark” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. important stage B. hallmark C. benchmark D. major breakthrough
47. According to the article, _____.
A. people who live in small villages have healthier lifestyles
B. in parts of Italy and Japan, most people live to be a hundred
C. men generally outlive women in most parts of the world
D. some communities in Italy and Japan have been studied by scientists
48. Healthy elderly people _____.
A. often say that their diet is the most important thing
B. don’t usually know what the secret to long life is
C. give many different reasons for their old age
D. used to pursue at least one type of physical activity when they were young
49. The word “nonagenarians” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. people under 100 years old B. people over 100 years old
C. people from 50 to 59 years old D. people from 90 to 99 years old
50. Laron syndrome is interesting to scientists because _____.
A. what causes it is still a mystery B. it might help people with growth problems
C. there are different versions of the syndrome
D. it shows that there is a genetic reason for old age

PRACTICE TEST 11

Questions 1-2
1. A. bats B. days C. dates D. speaks
2. A. sugar B. supportive C. sacrifice D. secure
Questions 3-4
3. A. confide B. gather C. maintain D. reject
4. A. leftover B. counterpart C. supporter D. maximum
Questions 5-7

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 Practice Tests
5. My dad (A) is always willing (B) to give (C) his hands with cleaning (D) the house.
6. In particular (A) cultures, formal (B) rules are normally bent to fit (C) the needs of each situation
or the (D) important of a person.
7. It is (A) difficult to write rules (B) that tell exactly (C) when we should apologize, (D) and it is
not difficult to learn how to do it.
Questions 8-19
8. The world’s first computer _____ by the University of Pennsylvania in 1946.
A. is built B. has built C. was built D. were built
9. Whatever we expect from _____ future, it is noted that progress has never moved in straight
lines.
A. a B. an C. the D. some
10. The more challenging the exercises are, _____ we feel.
A. the less bored B. the least bored C. the less boring D. the least boring
11. The teacher gave the students instructions on _____ for the final exams.
A. how to get preparation B. how they get to prepare
C. how they got to prepare D. how to get prepared
12. We would have sent him a Christmas card if we _____ his address last year.
A. know B. knew C. have known D. had known
13. In England, state school system is free for all students and paid _____ by the state.
A. for B. of C. by D. to
14. While talking with others, if one’s posture is straight but relaxed, he or she is expressing
confidence and _____.
A. friendly B. friendship C. friendlier D. friendliness
15. _____ species must be saved in order to maintain the balance in the ecosystem.
A. Threatened B. Extinct C. Dead D. Risky
16. In order to _____ others’ attention, we can use either verbal or non-verbal forms of
communication.
A. give B. focus C. pay D. draw
17. When communicating in English, it is necessary to prepare a person for our _____.
A. depart B. department C. departing D. departure
18. “_____ tears, I ran back to my room, thinking I would never feel at home at college.”
A. Fighting with B. Fighting back C. Fighting for D. Fighting out
19. When my roommate got sick, she _____ my typing and having a light on while she was trying
to sleep.
A. blamed B. blamed on C. blamed for D. blamed over
Indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
20. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their friend Bob’s new hairstyle.
- Diana: “Bob looks so impressive with his new hairstyle, Anne.” - Anne: “_____”
A. Fine. I guess. B. Yes, he looks so different.
C. Thank you so much. D. You can’t believe it!
21. Mary is talking to her professor in his office.
- Professor: “Congratulations on your award.” - Mary: “_____”
A. I like it that you understand. B. I do appreciate your supervision.
C. I can’t agree more with yours. D. I feel so sorry for you professor.

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 Practice Tests
Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
22. English language proficiency requirements for undergraduate courses are considerably
demanding.
A. understanding B. applicability C. fitness D. competence
23. Mobile libraries bring books to children in many small communities. These libraries travel from
towns to towns in cars, vans, or trucks.
A. Staying in one place B. Being bent easily and quickly
C. Moving from place to place D. Changing shape or expression easily and frequently
Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
24. A lot of people think that Angelina Jolie is really hot.
A. beautiful B. cool C. unattractive D. memorable
25. I’m at a loss to how you are going to pass your subjects without studying. All you do is to play
video games all day.
A. try to understand B. lose the game C. feel like a stranger D. know a lot
Questions 26-30
26. It is likely that the principal will attend the teacher-parent meeting.
A. The principal will not attend the teacher-parent meeting.
B. The principal may attend the teacher-parent meeting.
C. The principal must attend the teacher-parent meeting.
D. The principal can’t attend the teacher-parent meeting.
27. “You are the only child in your family, aren’t you?” she asked me.
A. She asked me whether I was the only child in my family.
B. She did not know that I am the only child in my family.
C. She wanted to know why I did not have brothers or sisters.
D. She taught me the lesson of being the only child in the family.
28. First impression on university life varies from student to student.
A. Each student has his/her own first impression on university life.
B. No two students share the same experience at the university.
C. Students hold different viewpoints on university life.
D. University life makes the students vary in impression.
29. Ben made all attempts to carry out the project. Finally, he completed it with satisfactory result.
A. But for his attempts, the project could not have been completed with satisfactory result.
B. If he had not attempted to carry out the project, it wouldn’t have been completed.
C. His attempts made the project finally a complete and satisfactory success.
D. He did not make any attempt because he knew that the project could never be completed.
30. We should quickly find the solution to the problem. Otherwise, its impact on those concerned
will increase.
A. If we can solve this problem soon, we’ll lower the impact on all of our concerns.
B. By the time we solve this problem, the impact on those concerned will have been lowered.
C. If all those concerned lower their impact, the problem will be better solved.
D. The sooner we find the solution to the problem, the lower the impact it has on those concerned.
Questions 31-35
There are often campaigns to save species that are endangered such as wolves and buffalo in the
US, and red squirrels and hedgehogs in Britain. In rural areas, people generally have much less
romantic ideas (31) _____ animals. In Britain, hunting foxes with dogs arouses hostile feelings,

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 Practice Tests
especially among people living in towns, but the law to ban it, (32) _____ came into effect in 2005,
is seen by many people living in the country as an attack on their way of life.
In Britain and the US, many people are concerned about animal (33) _____, especially the use of
animals in scientific research and public pressure has forced many cosmetics manufacturers to stop
(34) _____ products on animals. Several groups, including the Animal Liberation Front and PETA,
strongly oppose the use of (35) _____ animals in experiments and animal rights activists organize
protests at laboratories where animals are used. Sometimes people who work or invest in companies
that own the laboratories are threatened.
(Source: Oxford Guide to British and American Culture, 2nd Ed.)
31. A. about B. with C. in D. on
32. A. who B. which C. this D. that
33. A. behavior B. population C. lifecycle D. rights
34. A. marketing B. testing C. launching D. developing
35. A. alive B. lively C. live D. lived
Questions 36-42
Naming customs are different around the world. In most cultures, however, people have at least
two names: a family name and a given name. Your given name is the name you receive when you
are born. Your family name is the name you share with other people in your family. In the United
States, the family name is often called the last name, and the given name is often called the first
name. However, the order of the two names is not the same everywhere. For example, in many
Asian countries, the family name is first and the given name is second. When two people from
different cultures meet, sometimes they use the incorrect name. This can cause embarrassment.
Family names can show something about a family’s early history. The origin of many English
family names is a place, like London, or a job, such as Farmer or Shoemaker. A long time ago,
these families probably worked as farmers or shoemakers. Swedish and Danish family names often
mean son of ___. For example, Johansson means son of Johan. In South Korea, there are only about
250 family names. These names go back hundreds of years to very old clans. About half of all
Koreans have one of the three most common family names - Kim, Park, or Lee.
There is generally no choice about a family name, but there is much more choice about given
names. Parents choose their child’s name for many different reasons. They may select a name that
sounds beautiful or means something special. These names may have meanings like peaceful or
happiness. In some cultures, there may be a connection between children’s names and when or how
they were born. For example, a Yoruba child in Nigeria might have a name like Sunday or Born on
a Sunny Day. In some countries, parents may pay money to a professional baby namer to help them
find a good name. They want to find a name that will be lucky for their child.
(Source: Jessica William, Making Connection1,2nd Ed., Cambridge. 2014)
36. It is stated in the first paragraph that when two people from different cultures meet, _____.
A. they very often misaddress each other B. they may misuse each other’s names
C. they will misunderstand each other D. they do not know how to say their names
37. According to the passage, what can be learnt from a person’s family name?
A. his age B. his name C. his family’s history D. his parents’ birthplace
38. What does the word “clans” in the passage mostly mean?
A. large groups of families B. upper class families
C. lower class families D. a number of royal families
39. The word “they” in the passage refers to _____.
A. names B. children C. meanings D. parents

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 Practice Tests
40. What is NOT mentioned as a reason for parents to choose names for their child?
A. a name that shows how a child is born B. a name that will be lucky for their child
C. a name that means something special D. a name that brings strength to their child
41. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
A. Naming is a universal culture. B. People can choose their own names.
C. People can change their lives by changing names.
D. Names are selected in accordance with local customs.
42. What can be the best title of the reading passage?
A. Naming Customs B. Beautiful Names C. Naming for Fun D. Naming for a Reason
Questions 43-50
Government officials at national borders look very carefully at passports and visas. They want to
be sure that the people who are entering the country are not dangerous. They use technology to help
them decide who may enter the country. For example, when travelers enter the country, officials at
the border check their computers for important information about these travelers. They can check if
travelers have been in the country before and if they have done anything wrong. Officials also
examine the traveler’s documents to see if they are real. Some people try to cross the border without
permission. They use fake passports or visas. Officials at the border can use computer technology to
check whether these documents are real or fake.
Technology has been helpful in other ways, too. In the second half of the twentieth century,
passports were the major form of identification for travelers. Now there are new forms of
identification that use technology. One example is a machine that can read fingerprints. When
travelers enter the country, they put their fingers on a machine that scans them. In other words, the
machine takes a picture of the fingerprints and saves the picture in a computer. It can also send the
picture to government officials who are far from the border. Those officials can compare the picture
to fingerprints of many other people. If the traveler’s fingerprints are the same as fingerprints of a
dangerous person, the traveler may not enter the country. This technology is now in use at many
airports all over the world.
One person’s fingerprints are different from another person’s fingerprints. Therefore, many
countries use fingerprints as a good form of identification. However, it is possible to trick the
machines that scan them. In 2008, a woman at a Japanese airport put tape on her fingers. The tape
had another person’s fingerprints on it, so she was able to enter Japan without permission.
As a result of these problems, some airports are using another part of the body for identification -
the iris. The iris is the colored part of the eye. New machines can scan travelers’ irises and save the
pictures. Several airports are already using this technology, including airports in London and Qatar.
Irises work better than fingerprints for identification. The iris has hundreds of very small lines in it.
These lines are unique. In other words, everyone’s iris is different. Even twins have different irises.
These new forms of technology have another advantage. They are fast. This makes lines at airports
and borders shorter and helps travelers more quickly.
(Source: Jessica William, Making Connection 1,2nd Ed., Cambridge, 2014)
43. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is NOT important information about
travelers?
A. whether they have been in a country B. whether they have done anything wrong
C. whether they have used fake documents D. whether they have used computers
44. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that _____.
A. dangerous people may try to cross borders with fake passports or visas
B. dangerous people are deterred from entering a country

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 Practice Tests
C. those who have been in a country are not entitled to another entry
D. those who use fake passports or visas are not allowed to enter a country
45. The word “It” in the passage refers to _____.
A. computer B. machine C. picture D. technology
46. What does the word “trick” in the passage mostly mean?
A. make use of B. be of great advantage
C. run away with D. obtain by deception
47. Which of the following is true according to the reading passage?
A. Passports and visas have always been the most common forms of identification.
B. Fingerprint scanners can never make mistakes, hence being used everywhere.
C. The iris has been used as a form of identification at the world’s busiest airports.
D. Everyone has their own fingerprints and iris to identify themselves to others.
48. Which of the following best gives the main idea of the reading passage?
A. Paper documents are no longer important as forms of identification.
B. Everyone must produce correct documents when crossing a national border.
C. The way that officials check travelers at the borders has been changing.
D. In the future, no form of identification is required as national borders disappear.
49. This passage is most probably taken from _____.
A. a travel guidebook B. a professional journal
C. a modern passport D. a custom official’s diary
50. Which of the following best describes the reading passage?
A. argumentative B. imaginative C. entertaining D. informative

PRACTICE TEST 12

Questions 1-2
1. A. hummock B. struggle C. industry D. subsidy
2. A. thesis B. ethane C. author D. feather
Questions 3-4
3. A. government B. prohibit C. applicant D. habitat
4. A. sympathetic B. participant C. curriculum D. discriminate
Questions 5-7
5. He (A) can’t hardly remember the accident (B) because he (C) was only (D) a four-year-old boy
when it occurred.
6. My uncle (A) is in Nha Trang (B) on vacation, but I wish (C) he is here so that he (D) could help
me repair my bicycle.
7. (A) A child needs to learn (B) how to get along with (C) another people and (D) how to spend his
or her time wisely.
Questions 8-19
8. Daniel doesn’t do well in school _____ his inability to concentrate on any one thing for longer
than a minute or two.
A. as B. due to C. because D. in case
9. Even though she was much younger than the other children, Laura demanded _____ in the game
they were playing.

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A. including B. being included C. to include D. to be included
10. Many people lost their homes in the earthquake. The government needs to establish more
shelters to care for those _____ have homes.
A. who doesn’t B. who don’t C. which doesn’t D. which don’t
11. You _____ be rich to be a success. Some of the most successful people I know haven’t got a
penny to their name.
A. don’t have to B. can’t C. shouldn’t D. mustn’t
12. I know you feel bad now, Tommy, but try to put it out of your mind. By the time you’re an
adult, you _____ all about it.
A. forget B. will have forgotten C. will be forgetting D. are forgetting
13. The equator is an _____ line that divides the earth into two.
A. imaginary B. imaginative C. imaginable D. imagination
14. The government is going to _____ the old building and build a new one.
A. extinguish B. dissolve C. demolish D. excavate
15. The boy did a good _____ by helping the blind man cross the road.
A. show B. deed C. display D. feat
16. The principal wants to see you in his office _____ as he has something urgent to discuss with
you.
A. quickly B. suddenly C. abruptly D. immediately
17. The guest speaker gave a _____ speech just before the seminar began.
A. swift B. limited C. brief D. prompt
18. I had to _____ my trip because something urgent had come up.
A. blow up B. pull in C. leave out D. call off
19. The students were told that the date for the next test had been _____.
A. brought forward B. brought over C. brought up D. brought off
Questions 20-21
20. - Quang: “What are you going to major in?” - Vinh: “_____”
A. I’m going to take my final exam at the end of July.
B. My parents want me to become a doctor or a pharmacist.
C. My favourite subjects are maths, physics and English.
D. I haven’t decided, but I’m learning towards biology.
21. - Waiter: “Hello, I’ll be your waiter today. Can I start you off with something to drink?” - Linh:
“_____”
A. I’d like spaghetti or pasta. B. Yes. I’ll have iced tea, please.
C. Maybe I should get some ice-cream. D. Can I pay by credit card, please?
Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
22. His precise explanation of the report pleased the board of directors.
A. timely B. exact C. prompt D. ready
23. Bullying can hurt people in many different ways, emotionally and physically. Therefore, all the
students in my class keep away from the bully.
A. notice B. defend C. annoy D. avoid
Indicate the word(S) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
24. Cholera is rare in less developed countries due to poor water and sanitation conditions. It is
estimated that 11 million cholera cases occur every year among children under 5 years of age.
A. common B. ordinary C. general D. normal

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25. We waited for our grandmother at the departure hall of the airport for 5 hours as her flight was
delayed.
A. release B. appearance C. arrival D. transfer
Questions 26-28
26. I have been repairing the bicycle for half an hour.
A. The bicycle will have been repaired for half an hour.
B. Half an hour has needed for repairing the bicycle.
C. For half an hour the bicycle is being repaired by me.
D. The bicycle has been repaired for half an hour.
27. As soon as I arrived home, someone knocked at the door.
A. I had to arrive home as someone knocked at the door.
B. Had someone knocked at the door, I would have arrived home.
C. No sooner had I arrived home than someone knocked at the door.
D. I hardly knew someone knocked at the door as I just arrived home.
28. It’s not a good idea to borrow a lot of money from a bank.
A. It’s better to avoid borrowing a lot of money from a bank.
B. It’s a good time now to borrow a lot of money from a bank.
C. It doesn’t matter when borrowing a lot of money from a bank.
D. It sounds nice to try to borrow a lot of money from a bank.
Indicate the sentence that is DIFFERENT in meaning to each of the following questions.
29. I shouldn’t bother to clean the windows today as it’s going to rain.
A. It is not worth cleaning the windows today as it’s going to rain.
B. There is no point in cleaning the windows today as it’s going to rain.
C. It is no good cleaning the windows today as it’s going to rain.
D. There is no trouble in cleaning the windows today as it’s going to rain.
30. I think Julia is so young that she can’t look after her sister.
A. I think Julia is not old enough to look after her sister.
B. I think Julia is too old to take care of her sister.
C. I think Julia is such a young girl that she can’t look after her sister.
D. I think Julia is too young to take care of her sister.
Questions 31-35
The Internet is a great place to look up information. The same information maybe found in
libraries, but the Internet makes the information (31) _____ 24 hours a day. Furthermore,
information on the Internet may be more up-to-date, and some would never be found in a library.
The Internet is not a replacement for libraries, (32) _____ it is an extremely valuable supplement.
When you are (33) _____ to the Internet, you are ready to start searching. The basic step for
finding what you are looking for in a fast and easy way is: Find a search engine. A search engine is
a useful (34) _____ for looking up information on the Internet. Basically, it is an Internet site that
will do the searching on the Internet for you. There are many different search engines and web sites
for you to use. They are divided up (35) _____ several different categories for your convenience.
This will allow you to select a site that will be better for searching different topics.
(Source: www. eslprintables. com)
31. A. capable B. available C. manageable D. observable
32. A. so B. and C. though D. but
33. A. facilitated B. connected C. attached D. purchased

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34. A. room B. machine C. tool D. pilot
35. A. into B. for C. between D. with
Questions 36-42
Curling is an event in the Winter Olympics that is played on an ice rink. This event requires a
high level of skill and dexterity. The equipment includes stones with handles and brushes to sweep
the ice.
Two teams of four compete to get a stone as close as possible to the centre of a series of
concentric circles. Hitting the target is more complicated than it seems. The two teams alternate to
throw their stones. It is possible to remove a stone from a play area by hitting it with another stone
or to use a stone to protect another stone. To assist in the progress of the stone across the ice, the
other players will use their brushes to sweep the path in front of the stone so as to influence the
direction and distance it can travel.
In sixteenth century Scotland, stones were taken from the bottom of ponds. In North America,
the metal-rimmed hubcaps of carriages with handles attached were used. In eighteenth century
Canada, there were iron “stones” that weighed more than thirty kilograms. The game would have
required more strength in the past than today.
Curling was first introduced as a break from the drudgery of work and a way of alleviating the
monotony of the long winters. Curling is catching on today. There is an increase in the number of
countries taking part in the Winter Olympics for this event. Ever since the beginning, this game has
been enjoyed by both the young and old.
(Source: Comprehension Fast Forward 5 - J. Lee - SAP)
36. Curling is not for those who _____.
A. like winter sports B. like to play team sports
C. are not good with their hands D. have never been to the Winter Olympics
37. What does “the target” in the passage refer to?
A. the concentric circles B. the centre of the circles
C. a stone that is blocking the player’s path
D. a stone that is used to guard another stone
38. Which of the following was never used in curling?
A. wheels B. stones C. iron stones D. hubcaps
39. How has curling changed over the years?
A. It is not played in winter now.
B. Players today do not have to be as strong as before.
C. It is a game enjoyed by those of different ages.
D. More than one country is playing the game now.
40. What does the writer tell the readers in this passage?
A. The strategies to use to win a game B. The different sports in the Winter Olympics
C. The importance of curling in the world today D. How curling began.
41. The word “influence” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. follow B. affect C. attract D. remain
42. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Players need stones with handles and brushes to play curling.
B. Players are not allowed to touch the stone to influence its direction.
C. The two teams throw their stones at the same time when playing curling.
D. There are more and more countries participating in curling in Winter Olympics.
Questions 43-50

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 Practice Tests
Bees are flying insects that feed on nectar and pollen. They are usually yellow and black and
covered in fuzzy hair that makes collecting pollen easier. A bee’s body is similar to that of other
insects - for instance, an ant - with three major sections: the head, the middle section called the
thorax, and the last section called the abdomen. The head of a bee has five eyes for seeing and two
antennae for touching and smelling. Two sets of wings and three sets of legs can be found on a
bee’s thorax. Many types of bees have stingers. The bee stinger is the most feared part of a bee, and
for good reason. Filled with poison, the stinger is a bee’s protection from danger. The stingers are
around 12 millimeters long. There are over 20,000 known bee species in the world. The best known
is probably the honeybee.
Honeybees live in beehives, which have a distinct order that helps things run smoothly. At the
bottom of the totem pole are the workers. Workers are young female bees. Some of their main
duties include going out to find food (nectar and pollen), building the hive, and keeping it clean.
Honeybees will travel up to eight miles if necessary to find nectar and pollen to bring back to the
hive. Worker bees are actually the only bees that ever do any stinging. When this does happen, it is
usually because they are trying to protect their hive from harm. A bee rarely stings when it is away
from the hive, but it might sting if it senses danger. The lifespan of a worker bee is anywhere from 4
to 9 months.
The queen honeybee is the biggest bee in the hive. There is usually only one per hive, and her
job is to grow the family by laying eggs that will become the next generation of honeybees. She
lays over a thousand eggs per day and can live anywhere from 3 to 5 years. When the time comes
for a new queen to take over, some larvae are placed in special chambers to grow queen bees. These
larvae are fattened up with royal jelly, a nutritious substance that worker bees secrete. It usually
takes about two weeks for a female larva to grow into a queen bee. The first female bee to become a
queen bee kills the other potential queen bees.
(Source: http://www.readworks.org/passages)
43. What is a bee?
A. an insect that lives near water and eats fish
B. a red-and-black insect that lives under the ground
C. a flying insect that collects nectar and pollen
D. a crawling insect with two sets of legs and no wings
44. What does this passage describe?
A. wings, legs, mouths, and trees B. totem poles and winter weather
C. poison and measurement D. different honeybees in a beehive
45. The word “that” in the passage refers to _____.
A. the hair B. the head C. the body D. the thorax
46. Different bees in a hive have different duties. What evidence from the passage supports this
statement?
A. Worker bees gather food; the queen bee lays eggs.
B. Bee stingers are about 12 millimeters long.
C. Bees have two sets of wings and three sets of legs.
D. The honeybee is probably the best known bee species.
47. Which of the following does NOT describe a bee?
A. two antennae B. five eyes C. three sets of legs D. two wings
48. What is this passage mainly about?
A. honeybees B. the bodies of bees
C. different types of insects D. the antennae and wings of bees

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 Practice Tests
49. What does the word “species” in the passage mean?
A. colors or shades B. orders or levels C. kinds or types D. duties or jobs
50. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The abdomen is one of the three sections of a bee’s body.
B. The main duty of worker bees is to protect their hive from harm.
C. The lifespan of the queen honeybee is from three to five years.
D. The royal jelly is a nutritious substance produced by worker bees.

PRACTICE TEST 13

Questions 1-2
1. A. handle B. islander C. volcanic D. stagnant
2. A. challenge B. chief C. chart D. chorus
Questions 3-4
3. A. pressure B. crossbar C. decline D. product
4. A. complement B. policeman C. substantial D. interpret
Questions 5-7
5. Antarctic (A) blue whales can be (B) 100 foot long and weigh (C) more than any dinosaur that
(D) ever lived.
6. (A) By the time Michael arrived (B) to help, we (C) have already finished (D) moving
everything.
7. Psychologists (A) are trained to encourage (B) their patients (C) to talk for the things that (D) are
causing them difficulty.
Questions 8-19
8. If the world’s tropical forests continue to disappear at their present rate, many animal species
_____ extinct.
A. became B. would have become C. will become D. would become
9. The mechanic says that he expects _____ the brakes on the car before we pick it up.
A. fixing B. being fixed C. to have fixed D. to have been fixed
10. Knowing several _____ helpful if you work for an international corporation.
A. languages are B. languages is C. language is D. language are
11. A newborn baby can neither walk nor crawl. A newborn antelope, _____, can run within
minutes of birth.
A. however B. nevertheless C. otherwise D. even though
12. It was not until David stopped smoking _____ healthy again.
A. did he feel B. that he started to feel C. then he felt D. did he start to feel
13. With no _____ for his own safety, he jumped into the river to save the girl from drowning.
A. thinking B. thoughtless C. thoughtfulness D. thought
14. Many restaurants do not _____ their customers to bring pets into the premises.
A. require B. discourage C. permit D. insist
15. Peter remained as _____ as a mouse throughout the whole lesson.
A. quiet B. idle C. frightened D. attentive
16. The city centre is quite a _____ away from my house. It takes me nearly an hour to drive there.
A. journey B. space C. length D. distance

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 Practice Tests
17. The bear ran away when it was _____ by the bees.
A. bitten B. stung C. pierced D. struck
18. Tom had to _____ three forms and pay a fine before they allowed him to take his car back.
A. give out B. turn up C. fill out D. put in
19. The principal has _____ an urgent meeting with the teachers.
A. called for B. picked out C. turned on D. made up
Questions 20-21
20. - Linh: “What have you been doing recently?” - Phuong: “_____”
A. Very tired after the exam B. Mostly studying
C. Really exciting D. Keen on soccer and tennis
21. - Mary: “How is your project going, Nhung?” – Nhung: “_____”
A. I’m working with John and Sally. B. What? Is it going to finish soon?
C. Great! Couldn’t be better. D. Do you really want to go?
Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
22. They searched the village but it was without any inhabitants. Everything was very quiet.
A. deserted B. remote C. barren D. isolated
23. A recent survey reveals that the population density in the metropolis is decreasing.
A. proves B. displays C. imparts D. discloses
Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
24. Using more natural resources without degrading the planet any further is this century’s biggest
challenge.
A. improving B. generating C. destroying D. preventing
25. That house is occupied for three years now. It must be haunted since no one is renting or buying
it.
A. cleaned B. vacant C. taken D. absent
Questions 26-30
26. I will only work extra hours if I get paid at a higher rate.
A. I will not work extra hours even if I get paid at a higher rate.
B. Unless I get paid at a higher rate, I won’t work extra hours.
C. Working extra hours means I won’t get paid at a higher rate.
D. I get paid at a higher rate because I will work extra hours.
27. Mr. Kha remembered to take everything except his front door key.
A. The only thing which Mr. Kha forgot was his front door key.
B. Mr. Kha remembered to take everything including his front door key.
C. The only thing that Mr. Kha remembered was his front door key.
D. Except his front door key, Mr. Kha forgot everything.
28. Mrs. Gibson expressed her thanks for all the help she’d received.
A. Mrs. Gibson stated that she was happy for all the help she’d received.
B. Mrs. Gibson expressed she was surprised at all the help she’d received.
C. Mrs. Gibson reported she was amused at all the help she’d received.
D. Mrs. Gibson said that she was grateful for all the help she’d received.
29. They finished one project. They started working on the next.
A. Had they finished one project, they would have started working on the next.
B. Only if they had finished one project did they start working on the next.
C. Hardly had they finished one project when they started working on the next.

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D. Not until did they start working on the next project then they finished one.
30. The proposal seemed like a good idea. The manager refused it.
A. The manager refused the proposal though it seemed like a good idea.
B. Since the proposal seemed like a good idea, the manager refused it.
C. The manager didn’t like to proposal because it didn’t seem a good idea.
D. The proposal didn’t seem like a good idea, so the manager didn’t accept it.
Questions 31-35
The eye is a delicate sense organ. Even the areas around our eyes get bruised easily. (31) _____
our eyes are sensitive organs, we should take extra care of them. Any type of injury to the eye can
become serious and should be (32) _____ without delay. Even if there appears to be no obvious
damage to the area, it is wise to have any eye injury evaluated by an ophthalmologist.
Eye injuries can be the (33) _____ of a laceration, a chemical burn, an embedded object in the
eye or a blow to the eye. Even a small foreign particle such as soap solution in the eye, if it is not
removed properly, can damage the eye.
Common signs and symptoms of a possible eye injury (34) _____ a visible bruise or cut, a pain
in or around the eye and sensitivity to light. The inability to keep the eye open, blurred or impaired
(35) _____, constant tearing, rapid blinking and headache are also telltale signs of an injured eye.
(Source: Cloze Fast Forward 4 - Isabelle Lim - SAP)
31. A. While B. Although C. Because D. Unless
32. A. treated B. learned C. closed D. looked
33. A. pressure B. answer C. target D. result
34. A. include B. consist C. relate D. discover
35. A. observation B. awareness C. disease D. vision
Questions 36-42
Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart was born in 1756 in Austria. He would become one of the most
talented composers to ever live. He started to write and play music before he was even eight years
old!
As a three-year-old, Mozart already loved music. He would listen to his father teach his older
sister. She was learning to play the piano. Mozart looked up to his sister, and he copied her playing.
Mozart’s father noticed Mozart’s talent in music. He began to teach his son. Mozart was a fast
learner. Before he was even five years old, Mozart could play full songs.
Before long, Mozart wrote his own musical composition at the age of five. He knew how to read
and write music before he could read or write words! His first piece was very short.
Soon, Mozart’s father and the family toured all the major musical centers in Western Europe.
Mozart played music in the cities. He played for nobles and royalty. Many times he played music
with his sister. During the tour, Mozart met some musicians and learned from them. One of the
musicians was Johann Christian Bach, the youngest son of Johann Sebastian Bach.
When he was eight years old, Mozart started writing music for the full orchestra. Before long, he
finished writing his first symphony.
Mozart died on December 5, 1791. He was only 35 years old, but he composed more than 600
musical pieces. More than 200 years later, Mozart is still known as one of the greatest composers
ever.
(Source: http://www.readworks.org/passages)
36. When did Mozart start to write and play music?
A. before he was five years old B. before he was eight years old
C. when he was 10 years old D. when he was 35 years old

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37. The passage describes the early years of Mozart’s life. Which of the following events happened
first?
A. Mozart wrote his first own musical composition.
B. Mozart started writing music for the full orchestra.
C. Mozart toured all the major musical centers in Western Europe.
D. Mozart listened to his father teach his sister how to play music.
38. Mozart was a very gifted child. What evidence from the passage supports this conclusion?
A. Before he was even five years old, Mozart could play full songs.
B. While touring different cities throughout Europe, Mozart played for nobles and royalty.
C. Mozart was only 35 years old when he died.
D. Mozart is still known as one of the greatest composers ever.
39. Who taught Mozart how to play music?
A. Johann Christian Bach B. Johann Sebastian Bach
C. his father D. his sister
40. The word “composed” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. played B. taught C. purchased D. wrote
41. Where would this passage most likely be found?
A. in a novel about Mozart B. in a book of poetry about classical music
C. in a book of biographies of classical musicians D. in a newspaper article from 1791
42. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Mozart composed more than 600 musical pieces during his life.
B. Mozart was a very talented child and grew up to become one of the greatest composers.
C. Mozart’s father and the family toured all the major musical centers in Western Europe.
D. Mozart’s father taught both Mozart and his sister how to play music.
Questions 43-50
Early on the morning of 31 May 1928, at Oakland airfield near San Francisco, the four men
squeezed into the cramped cabin of Southern Cross. They waved goodbye to the crowd, took off
and headed westwards over the sea.
Today an air journey of 12,000 kilometres attracts very little attention. But in 1928, the first
flight across the Pacific was fraught with as much danger and risk as the first flight to the Moon 40
years later.
Instruments for navigation and communication were often unreliable, the range of aircraft was
severely limited and conditions for the crew were very uncomfortable. The crew of Southern Cross
could not even speak to each other because of the noise from the engines. They had to communicate
with scribbled notes! Morse code and a short and long wave radio transmitter were their only links
with the rest of the world. It took 27 hours for them to reach their first stop at Hawaii.
After refueling and a short rest, they were airborne again, heading for Fiji, on the longest and
most dangerous section of the flight. Fiji was 5,000 kilometres away and Southern Cross carried
fuel for no more than 5,760 kilometres! There was little margin for navigating errors. For most of
the distance there were no weather forecasts available. No one had flown across the Pacific south of
Honolulu before. It took them 33 hours, much of the time through terrible weather.
Ulm and Smithy took turns at the controls but Smithy did most of the flying and Ulm kept the
log. By the time they landed in Fiji - on a makeshift airfield - they were exhausted. They needed
two days’ rest before beginning the last section of their flight. It was to prove the most difficult of
all. Wild storms battered and tore at the Southern Cross. Most of the time poor visibility forced

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them to fly purely by instruments. There was no other way of knowing whether the aircraft was
flying straight and level, climbing, or diving into the sea. And one of the compasses failed.
After 23 hours of anxious flying, they were relieved to recognize the Australian coast south of
Ballina. Smithy turned north and landed at Brisbane’s Eagle Farm airport to the cheers of 25,000
people.
(Source: Department of Education, Northern Territory Government, Australia)
43. Why is Southern Cross written in italics in the passage?
A. It is the name of an air journey. B. It is the name of a plane.
C. It is the name of a navigator. D. It is the name of a night.
44. “Today, an air journey of 12,000 kilometres attracts very little attention.” What does this
statement suggest about air journeys in the 1920s?
A. Air travel was not very interesting. B. The media did not usually take much notice.
C. Long distance flights were unusual. D. The crew could not contact the media.
45. How long was the flight from Hawaii to Fiji?
A. 40 hours B. 33 hours C. 27 hours D. 23 hours
46. “… Southern Cross carried fuel for no more than 5,760 kilometres!” This means that _____.
A. they would run out of fuel if they strayed off course
B. they could not reach the destination with such fuel
C. the distance was too long and they needed refueling
D. they would have enough fuel for return when reaching Fiji
47. Why did the pilots have to rely on their instruments after leaving Fiji?
A. They had no weather forecasts. B. Their cabin was cramped and uncomfortable.
C. Their communication equipment was not reliable.
D. They could not see because of poor weather.
48. What happened during the flight to show that navigation and communication equipment was
‘unreliable’ in the 1920s?
A. One of the compasses stopped working. B. The engines of the airplane were noisy.
C. They could only connect with the world by the radio.
D. The aircraft needed refueling before heading for Fiji.
49. The word “margin” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. fuel B. effort C. limit D. communication
50. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The crew met a lot of difficulties during their first flight across the Pacific.
B. The weather was not good when they flew from Hawaii to Fiji.
C. They stopped twice to take on fuel during their night across the Pacific.
D. They landed on a makeshift airfield on the Australian south coast.

PRACTICE TEST 14

Questions 1-2
1. A. leader B defeat C. measure D. creature
2. A. clothes B. exchanges C. shares D. behaves
Questions 3-4
3. A. discipline B. counterpart C. signature D. supportive
4. A. diversity B. academic C. effectiveness D. communicate

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Questions 5-7
5. (A) Many environmentalists fear that (B) the earth will (C) run out essential natural resources (D)
before the middle of this century.
6. We (A) are studying for the maths test (B) since August and we (C) still have a lot (D) to revise.
7. Human infants (A) are not usually (B) able to walk by (C) selves until they (D) reach eleven or
twelve months of age.
Questions 8-19
8. You’ve heard they aren’t coming to the party, _____?
A. are they B. haven’t you C. aren’t they D. have you
9. You _____. You’ve made your point clearly enough already.
A. needn’t continue B. mustn’t continue C. don’t have continue D. won’t continue
10. Fortunately, the school’s new air-conditioning system _____ when the first heat wave of the
summer arrived.
A. had installed B. was being installed C. had been installed D. had been installing
11. Thomas Raven is a physicist _____ on time and space has been translated into dozens of
languages.
A. who’s book B. the book of whom C. of who the book D. whose book
12. Trung accidentally broke the _____ by stepping on it. He apologized to them for his
carelessness.
A. child’s toy B. child’s toys C. children’s toy D. children’s toys
13. The couple decided to _____ a baby from the orphanage though they had two children of their
own.
A. nurture B. foster C. feed D. adopt
14. The photographer took a picture of the deer the moment it came into _____.
A. place B. sight C. light D. scene
15. The first week of classes at university is a little _____ because so many students get lost, change
classes or go to the wrong place.
A. chaotic B. disarranged C. notorious D. uncontrolled
16. Tom went to the dentist’s to have his decayed tooth _____ as he couldn’t stand the toothache.
A. extorted B. destroyed C. relieved D. extracted
17. The program is expected to increase the _____ and productivity of the local car-producing
industry.
A. competitive B. competition C. competitiveness D. competitor
18. They have _____ a large sum of money for their daughter’s overseas university education.
A. set aside B. wiped out C. sent back D. left behind
19. The teacher reminded all of us to _____ our homework the following day.
A. keep up B. hand in C. give over D. turn on
Questions 20-21
20. - Mark: “Can you give me a hand?” - John: “_____”
A. Sorry. My hands are dirty. B Why? I’m busy now.
C. I’d like a cup of tea. D. I’d be glad to.
21. - Trang: “What is the public transportation like near your apartment?” - Laura: “_____”
A. There’s a bus stop within walking distance.
B. I cycle to school with my friends every day.

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C. I like the public transportation very much.
D. We go by bus on Monday and by tram on Friday.
Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
22. He went through much hardship before he became a successful businessman.
A. created B. met C. accepted D. endured
23. She looks very familiar to me. I’m quite definite I’ve seen her before.
A. fortunate B. doubtful C. certain D. relieved
Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
24. One by one the old buildings in the city have been constructed and replaced with new tower
blocks.
A. repaired B. demolished C. improved D. dissolved
25. If you’re reluctant to make healthy food choices, your weight will continue to increase.
A. fortunate B. sorry C. happy D. willing
Questions 26-28
26. If they had arrived a moment later, they would have missed the start of the film.
A. They arrived just in time for the start of the film.
B. They missed the start of the film because they arrived late.
C. They didn’t arrive early enough for the start of the film.
D. They wouldn’t have missed the start of the film if they had arrived earlier.
27. Thanh suggested going to the park the following Sunday.
A. “Why don’t you go to the park next Sunday?” Thanh said.
B. “Shall I go to the park next Sunday?” Thanh said.
C. “Let us go to the park next Sunday?” Thanh said.
D. “How about going to the park next Sunday?” Thanh said.
28. The firemen had to break the door down.
A. The firemen shouldn’t have broken the door down.
B. It was necessary for the firemen to break the door down.
C. Breaking the door down required the help of the firemen.
D. It was against the law that the firemen broke the door down.
Indicate the sentence that is DIFFERENT in meaning to each of the following questions.
29. Kevin put up a fence so that people didn’t walk on his garden.
A. In order to stop people from walking on his garden, Kevin put up a fence.
B. Kevin put up a fence because he didn’t want people to walk on his garden.
C. So as to encourage people to walk on his garden, Kevin put up a fence.
D. Kelvin put up a fence to prevent people from walking on his garden.
30. Emily couldn’t move the table even though she tried hard.
A. Emily couldn’t move the table as she didn’t try hard.
B. Emily tried hard, but she couldn’t move the table.
C. Try as hard as she might, Emily couldn’t move the table.
D. Emily couldn’t move the table despite her effort.
Questions 31-35
In June 1976, an airliner was making a flight from France. After making a (31) _____ in Greece,
it took off again with over two hundred passengers. Unfortunately, a few of them were terrorists.

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As soon as they were in the air, the terrorists hijacked the aircraft. Threatening the (32) _____
and passengers with guns, they forced the pilot to change the course.
The airline landed in an airport in Uganda and the passengers were (33) _____ hostage in one of
the airport buildings. The terrorists demanded the release of their fellow terrorists from prison and
(34) _____ to kill the hostages if their demands were not met.
A rescue operation was launched. Specially trained commandos were flown in. They took the
terrorists completely by (35) _____ and overpowered them easily. They released the hostages,
escorted them to the aircraft and flew them back to safety.
(Source: Jazz up Vocabulary 6 - Marilyn Tan - SAP)
31. A. stopover B. break C. recess D. turn
32. A. band B. team C. gang D. crew
33. A. made B. held C. turned D. changed
34. A. considered B. decided C. threatened D. mentioned
35. A. surprise B. alarm C. shock D. fright
Questions 36-42
CARNIVOROUS PLANTS
Carnivorous plants are meat-eaters. They grow in boggy places where the soil is not very good
and the minerals they need in order to grow well are in short supply. The plants use their leaves to
catch and kill insects which give them more of the necessary minerals. They have invented some
amazing ways to spice up their diets!
Pitcher Plants
The pitcher plant’s leaves take the shape of deep containers where pools of water collect. Insects
are attracted to the plant by its bright colouring, strong smell, or by nectar secreted around the rim
of the pitcher. But they often lose their footing on the slippery rim of the pitcher and fall into the
water and drown. They gradually dissolve into a kind of insect broth which the plant digests.
Sundews
Sundews have bright red leaves covered with hairs which produce a sweet sticky liquid. When
an insect lands, its feet get stuck to some of the hairs on the leaf. The nearby hairs bend toward the
insect, surround it and suffocate it so that it can be digested.
Butterworts
The glistening, golden leaves of the butterwort are a deadly glue trap. They produce a sticky
substance which traps the insects when they land. But no matter how hard they struggle, the leaf
edges curl inwards and the butterwort begins its lunch!
Venus Flytraps
The leaves of the Venus flytrap have a hinge right down the central vein and long sharp teeth
along the edges. They have special hairs that are sensitive to the slightest pressure. When an insect
lands on a leaf and touches at least two of these hairs – SNAP! The leaf closes on the insect in less
than a second. When it has captured something, the trap stays closed for about a week, while the
plant slowly digests its victim with its digestive juices. When it opens again, nothing is left of the
unlucky insect but its skeleton.
(Source: https.//education.nt.gov.au/literacy-practice-test)
36. The author's main purpose for writing this passage was to _____.
A. help people to identify carnivorous plants
B. explain how carnivorous plants catch their prey
C. describe the dangers of carnivorous plants
D. explain how the Venus flytrap catches its prey

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37. Carnivorous plants spice up their diets to make them more _____.
A. interesting B. exciting C. nutritious D. amazing
38. The pitcher plant uses its lid to _____.
A. stop insects from escaping B. keep it from overflowing with water
C. keep insects out D. hide the smell of the rotting insects
39. The pitcher plant is named after a container called a pitcher because its leaves _____.
A. catch insects B. have lids C. collect water D. secrete nectar
40. The butterwort and sundew both have leaves which are _____.
A. colourful and produce a sticky liquid B. red and have sticky hairs to catch their prey
C. golden and produce a sticky liquid D. colourful and curl up over their prey
41. Which plant has leaves which are jointed to allow them to fold up?
A. Pitcher plant B. Sundew C. Butterwort D. Venus flytrap
42. Which of the following is NOT true according to the information from the passage?
A. Sundews and butterworts move their leaves in order to trap insects.
B. The Venus flytrap digests its trapped insects with its digestive juices.
C. The insects caught by the pitcher plant break down in the liquid.
D. Carnivorous plants usually grow in places where the soil is poor.
Questions 43-50
The Mayan civilization was the oldest of the three largest civilizations in South and Central
America. The empire lasted from about 300 A.D. to 900 A.D.
While Europeans were in the midst of the Dark Ages, Mayans never stopped learning. They tried
out new farming methods. They rotated their crops so the soil would last longer. They only farmed
crops on the same field once every three years or so. Turkeys and ducks were tamed and kept on
Mayan farms. That way, Mayans wouldn’t have to worry about hunting or trapping food.
The Mayans also learned to make paper out of the bark of the fig tree. They had an advanced
writing system. In their system, word-pictures stood for different syllables and ideas. Mayan writing
did much more than just record dates and information. The writing told stories about life. The
Mayans were also good mathematicians. They came up with the principle of “0” as a number. They
also studied the stars and had very advanced calendars. The Mayan farming calendar was based on
the movement of the sun and the stars. It had 365 days just like ours!
The Mayan civilization was very organized. Each city had a king and everyone had his position,
from stonecutter to nobleman. You were born into your position in life. If your father was a
stonecutter, you would cut stone, too. Nobles lived in beautiful houses. Their architecture was
splendid. White limestone covered the walls and the floors. The inside walls were painted with
murals.
Most Mayans were peasant farmers. They farmed corn and beans. They also grew cacao, the
basis of chocolate. The first hot chocolate actually came from the Mayans! They made their hot
chocolate by mixing water, cacao (same as cocoa), and chili peppers. In the Mayan empire,
chocolate wasn’t just a food or drink. Cacao beans were used as currency, or money. People would
trade their goods for cacao beans!
No one knows exactly why the Mayan civilization came to an end. By the time Europeans
arrived in the New World, the civilization had already crumbled. Whatever happened, the Mayan
empire was long past its peak by the time Europeans arrived. In its height, the empire was active
and full of the spirit of learning that many countries in Europe experienced hundreds of years later.
(Source: http.//www.readworks.org/passages)
43. The Mayans discovered or invented all of the following EXCEPT _____.

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A. chocolate B. rotating crops C. the wheel D. the use of the number “0”
44. This passage mostly describes the Mayans in terms of _____.
A. their arts and festivals B. why their civilization ended
C. how they assigned jobs D. what they did and accomplished
45. Which of these Mayan accomplishments probably had the biggest impact on building their
civilization?
A. farming and raising animals B. making chocolate
C. writing with word-pictures D. painting murals
46. The word “splendid” in the passage means _____.
A. terrible ugly B. simple, basic C. expensive, costly D. wonderful, magnificent
47. The main idea of this passage is _____.
A. the Mayans lived exactly like Europeans did at the time
B. the Mayans were an advanced civilization for their time
C. the Mayans were unaware of modern science and technology
D. the Mayans disappeared and left no history behind
48. What did the Mayans use as a guide while creating their complex calendars?
A. the limestone covered the walls and the floors B. the farming methods
C. the com, beans and cacao D. the movement of the sun and the stars
49. Which of the following information means Mayan civilization was ‘very organized’?
A. Most Mayans were peasant farmers. B. They invented the first hot chocolate.
C. Everyone was assigned his job. D. The empire was full of the spirit of learning.
50. Which of the following statement is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The Mayans used word-pictures only to record dates.
B. The Mayans raised ducks and turkeys for food.
C. Cacao beans were used as currency in the Mayan empire.
D. The disappearance of Mayan civilization is still a secret.

PRACTICE TEST 15

Questions 1-2
1. A. strategy B. gender C. invest D. effective
2. A. devotion B. information C. hesitation D. suggestion
Questions 3-4
3. A. solar B. cycle C. approach D. costly
4. A. diversity B. biography C. curriculum D. intervention
Questions 5-7
5. The Red River, (A) so named (B) because of the red-colored sediment it carries, (C) it is one of
the main (D) branches of the Mississippi.
6. A number (A) of large insurance companies (B) has their (C)headquarters in (D) the capital city.
7. (A) A lot of athletic and (B) non-athletic extracurricular activities are (C) available in Vietnamese
high-schools, (D) either public and private.
Questions 8-19
8. Look! The yard is wet. It _____ last night.
A. had to rain B. ought to rain C. must have rained D. should have rained

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9. In the early 1900’s, Albert Einstein showed, under special circumstances, _____ matter and
energy can be converted into one another.
A. in which B. that C. what D. there are
10. The more you study during the semester, _____ the week before exams.
A. the less you have to study B. you have to study the less
C. the least you have to study D. the study less you have
11. My mother _____ strawberries for years but she has never had such a good crop before.
A. is growing B. has been growing C. grew D. had grown
12. All her hard work paid _____ in the end and she’s now very successful.
A. up B. out C. off D. back
13. The national _____ of the Philippines is Christianity.
A. culture B. nationality C. religion D. tradition
14. The driver _____ his greatest ambition by winning the Grand Prix.
A. obtained B. confirmed C. realized D. completed
15. The construction of the new road is _____ winning the support of local residents.
A. thanks to B. prior to C. dependent on D. responsible to
16. Experiments related to the sense of smell are more easily _____ than those related to perception
of color.
A. carried on B. dealt with C. put up D. set up
17. Language, culture and personality may be considered independently of each other in thought,
but they are _____ in fact.
A. separating B. separated C. separable D. inseparable
18. Insolence often leads to an unhappy situation, especially in the classroom, because it _____
trust.
A. bursts into B. breaks down C. gives away D. calls off
19. Anne was taken _____ when the doorbell rang, as she wasn’t expecting anyone.
A. by chance B. by accident C. by mistake D. by surprise
Questions 20-21
20. - “Hi, Mark. Sorry I’m a bit late. You haven’t been here long, have you?” - “_____”
A. That’s news to me. B. Since 7 o’clock, actually
C. I’m on the way now. D. I’ll be there in an hour.
21. - Interviewer: “_____” - - Interviewee: “Thank you.”
A. Sit yourself, OK? B. Be seated, please.
C. Seat down, will you? D. Please take a sit.
Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
21. It turns out that some fossils can be extracted from these sediments by putting the rocks in an
acid bath.
A. removed B. resulted C. differed D. produced
23. I knew exactly what he wanted me to do: he didn’t need to spell it out for me.
A. tell me how to write it down B. help me to do
C. explain it any further D. plan my life for me
Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
24. I don’t know why you get so upset about something that is utterly trivial. Don’t make a
mountain out of a molehill.
A. terrible B. significant C. strange D. successful

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 Practice Tests
25. The reporter insisted that the letter he used was authentic. He said that he had shown it to many
experts before he used it in his story.
A. genuine or real B. unreliable or fake C. full of facts D. very long-established
Questions 26-30
26. Tom should have known better than to ask Dick to help him.
A. It was wise of Tom to ask Dick to help him.
B. Tom asked Dick to help him because he was better than anyone else.
C. Tom should have asked Dick to help him.
D. Tom asked Dick to help him, but it was foolish of him to do so.
27. For a cold, doctors often recommend that you rest and drink lots of fluids.
A. The doctors recommend that you have cold soft drinks.
B. Doctors would rather give advice about colds than about fluids.
C. Rest and liquids are frequently advised for treatment of colds.
D. You were told to come in out of the cold and rest.
28. “You shouldn’t sit up until you feel better,” the doctor said to me.
A. The doctor ordered me to sit up if I wanted to feel better.
B. The doctor advised me not to sit up until I felt better.
C. The doctor told me that if I wanted to feel better, I should sit up.
D. The doctor suggested I should sit up until I felt better.
29. I didn’t know that you were at home. I didn’t drop in.
A. I didn’t know you were at home although I didn’t drop in.
B. Not knowing that you were at home, I didn’t drop in.
C. If I knew that you were at home, I would drop in.
D. Not knowing that you were at home, but I still dropped in.
30. We spray pesticides and fertilizers on our crops. Some pesticides and fertilizers are found
dangerous.
A. We spray pesticides and fertilizers, which are found dangerous, on our crops.
B. The pesticides and fertilizers we spray on our crops are to be found dangerous.
C. We spray pesticides and fertilizers on our crops, which is found dangerous.
D. Some of the pesticides and fertilizers we spray on our crops are found dangerous.
Questions 31-35
The capacity humans have to transfer concepts, ideas and notions through speech and writing is
unrivaled in known species. Unlike the call systems of other primates that are closed, human
language is (31) _____ open and gains variety in different situations. The human language has the
quality of displacement, using words to represent things and happenings (32) _____ are not
presently or locally occurring, but elsewhere or at a different time. In this way, data networks are
important to the continuing (33) _____ of language. The faculty of speech is a defining feature of
humanity, possibly predating phylogenetic separation of the modern population. Language is central
to the communication between humans, as well as being central to the sense of identity that (34)
_____ nations, cultures and ethnic groups. The invention of writing systems at least 5,000 years ago
allowed the preservation of language on material objects, and was a (35) _____ step in cultural
evolution. The science of linguistics describes the structure of language and the relationship
between languages. There are approximately 6,000 different languages currently in use, including
sign languages, and many thousands more that are considered extinct.
(Source: Human - Google Friend Connect)
31. A. very much B. little more C. more than D. far more

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 Practice Tests
32. A. that B. what C. when D. where
33. A. progress B. achievement C. development D. advance
34. A. links B. unites C. connects D. liberates
35. A. major B. main C. central D. leading
Questions 36-42
On average, American kids aged 3 to 12 spent 29 hours a week in school, eight hours more than
they did in 1981. They also did more household work and participated in more of such organized
activities as soccer and ballet. Involvement in sports, in particular, rose almost 50% from 1981 to
1997: boys now spend an average of four hours a week playing sports; girls log half that time. All in
all, however, children’s leisure time dropped from 40% of the day in 1981 to 25%.
“Children are affected by the same time crunch that affects their parents,” says Sandra Hofferth,
who headed the recent study of children’s timetable. A chief reason, she says, is that more mothers
are working outside the home. (Nevertheless, children in both double-income and “male
breadwinner” households spent comparable amounts of time interacting with their parents, 19 hours
and 22 hours respectively. In contrast, children spent only 9 hours with their single mother.)
All work and no play could make for some very messed-up kids. “Play is the most powerful way
a child explores the world and learns about himself,” says T. Berry Brazelton, professor at Harvard
Medical School. Unstructured play encourages independent thinking and allows the young to
negotiate their relationships with their peers, but kids aged 3 to 12 spend only 12 hours a week
engaging in it.
The children sampled spent a quarter of their rapidly decreasing “free time” watching television.
But that, believe it or not, was one of the findings parents might regard as good news. If they are
spending less time in front of the TV set, however, kids aren’t replacing it with reading. Despite
efforts to get kids more interested in books, the children spent just over an hour a week reading. Let’s
face it, who’s got the time?
(Source: gzyy.cooco.net.cn/testdetail/171581)
36. The author is concerned about the fact that American kids are _____.
A. involved less and less in household work B. spending more and more time watching TV
C. engaged in more and more organized activities
D. increasingly cared for by their working mothers
37. What does Sandra Hofferth mean by mentioning “the same time crunch”?
A. Children have little time to play with their parents.
B. Both parents and children suffer from lack of leisure time.
C. Both parents and children have trouble managing their time.
D. Children are not taken good care of by their working parents.
38. According to the author, the reason given by Sandra Hofferth for the time crunch is _____.
A. quite convincing B. partially true C. rather confusing D. totally groundless
39. According to the author, a child develops better if he/she _____.
A. has plenty of time reading and studying B. is free to interact with his/her working parents
C. is left to play with his/her peers in his/her own way
D. has more time taking part in school activities
40. The word “Unstructured” in the passage probably means _____.
A. Invaluable B. Impractical C. Not costly D. Not organized
41. The word “they” in the passage refers to _____.
A. parents B. kids C. efforts D. books
42. We can infer from the passage that _____.

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 Practice Tests
A. most parents believe reading to be of benefit to children
B. efforts to get kids interested in reading have been fruitful
C. most children will turn to reading with TV sets switched off
D. organized activities improve children's intelligence
Questions 43-50
The principal difference between urban growth in Europe and in the North American colonies was
the slow evolution of cities in the former and their rapid growth in the latter. In Europe they grew over
a period of centuries from town economics to their present urban structure. In North America, they
started as wilderness communities and developed to mature urbanism in little more than a century.
In the early colonial days in North America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic Coastline,
mostly in what are now New England and the Middle Atlantic states in the United States and in the
lower Saint Lawrence valley in Canada. This was natural because these areas were nearest to
England and France, particularly England, from which most capital goods (assets such as
equipment) and many consumer goods were imported. Merchandizing establishments were,
accordingly, advantageously located in port cities from which goods could be readily distributed to
interior settlement. Here, too, were the favoured locations for processing raw materials prior to
export. Boston, Philadelphia, New York, Montreal, and other cities flourished, and as the colonies
grew, these cities increased in importance.
This was less true in the colonial South, where life centered around large farms, known a
plantations, rather than around towns, as was the case in the areas further north along the Atlantic
coastline. The local isolation and the economic self-sufficiency of the plantations were antagonistic
to the development of the towns. The plantations maintained their independence because they were
located on navigable streams and each had a wharf accessible to the small shipping of that day. In
fact, one of the strongest factors in the selection of plantation land was the desire to have it in front
on a water highway.
When the United States became an independent nation in 1776, it did not have a single city as
large as 50,000 habitants, but by 1820 it had a city of more than 100,000 people, and by 1880 it had
a recorded city of over one million. It was not until after 1823, after the mechanization of the
spinning and weaving industries, that cities started drawing young people from farms. Such
migration was particularly rapid following the Civil War (1861-1865).
(Source: TOEFL Reading)
43. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Factors that slowed the growth of cities in Europe
B. The evolution of cities in North America
C. Trade between North American and European cities
D. The effects of the United States’ independence on urban growth in New England.
44. The word “accordingly” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. as usual B. in contrast C. to some degree D. for that reason
45. According to the passage, early colonial cities were established along the Atlantic coastline of
North America due to _____.
A. an abundance of natural resources B. financial support from colonial government
C. proximity to parts of Europe D. a favourable climate
46. Which of the following did the Atlantic coastline cities prepare for shipment to Europe during
colonial times?
A. manufacturing equipment B. capital goods
C. consumer goods D. raw materials

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47. According to the passage, all of the following aspects of the plantation system influenced the
growth of southern cities EXCEPT the _____.
A. location of the plantations B. access of plantation owners to shipping
C. relationships between plantation residents and city residents
D. economic self-sufficiency of the plantations
48. It can be inferred from the passage that, in comparison with northern cities, most southern cities
were _____.
A. more prosperous B. smaller C. less self-sufficient D. stronger
49. The word “recorded” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. imagined B. discovered C. documented D. planned
50. The passage mentions the period following the Civil War (in the last sentence) because it was a
time of _____.
A. significant obstacles to industrial growth
B. decreased dependence on foreign trade
C. increased numbers of people leaving employment on farms
D. increased migration from northern states to southern states

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