NAME

NAME Institute
In front of Singhdurbar, Putalisadak
Tel: - 01- 5331144

MECEE BL
Model Entrance Exam 2081
Model: XIV
(Day Shift)

(Set-B)
Date: 2081/03/29

Hints and Solution

NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)

Zoology
1. d. Paramecium is a single-celled protist that is classified as a filter feeder. It uses hair-
like structures called cilia to create water currents that draw food particles, such as
bacteria and algae, into its oral groove. From there, food particles are enclosed
within food vacuoles and digested.
2. d. All the options listed—Sycon, Leucosolenia, and Spongilla—are members of the
phylum Porifera (sponges). Porifera is a diverse phylum of aquatic animals
characterized by their porous bodies with specialized cells called choanocytes that
create water currents to filter food particles.
3. a. Hydra reproduces asexually by budding, which involves the outgrowth of a new
individual from the body wall of the parent organism. This process allows Hydra to
rapidly increase its population under favorable environmental conditions.
4. d. Diphyllobothrium – Fish tapeworm, platyhelminths.
5. a. Leech: The body of a leech is metamerically divided into 34 segments.
• Earthworm: Each body segment of an Earthworm is called a Proglottid, and it
has multiple segments.
• Tapeworm: Tapeworms exhibit pseudometamerism, meaning their body
segments are external and every segment is independent of others.
• Slug: Slugs do not have a definite number of body segments.
6. a. Arachnida is the correct class that includes spiders and scorpions, along with other
arachnids like ticks, mites, harvestmen, and pseudoscorpions. These organisms are
characterized by having eight legs (octopods) and typically having two main body
segments: the cephalothorax (fused head and thorax) and the abdomen.
7. c. Mollusks, such as snails, clams, and octopuses, exhibit a variety of respiratory
structures depending on the species and habitat. Many mollusks have gills for
aquatic respiration, which are specialized structures for exchanging gases (oxygen
and carbon dioxide) with water. Some mollusks, like terrestrial snails and slugs,
have evolved a pulmonary sac or lung-like structure for breathing air.
8. c. Starfish (or sea stars) are an example of animals that exhibit a transformation from
bilateral symmetry in their larval stages to radial symmetry in their adult forms.
9. d. Sharks are viviparous, meaning they give birth to live young. They are a type of fish
belonging to the class Chondrichthyes (cartilaginous fish), and many species of
sharks exhibit viviparity where the embryos develop inside the mother's body and
receive nourishment directly from her via a placenta-like structure.
10. b. Mammals have hairy skin for insulation and protection, give birth to live young
(viviparity), and possess mammary glands that produce milk to nourish offspring,
defining their unique reproductive and feeding characteristics.
11. d. Alexander Oparin, a Russian biochemist, and J.B.S. Haldane, a British scientist,
independently proposed theories suggesting that life on Earth could have originated
from non-living matter under conditions present on early Earth. Oparin's work in
the 1920s and Haldane's in the 1920s and 1930s laid the foundation for the concept
that simple organic molecules could have formed in the early Earth's atmosphere
and oceans, eventually leading to the development of more complex organic
molecules and life itself.
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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)
12. b. primates are distinguished by their relatively large brains compared to other
mammals of similar body size. This enlargement of the brain is significant because
it correlates with higher cognitive abilities, complex social behaviors, and
adaptability to various environments.
13. b. mnemotaxis: Orientation of animals depend upon some complex stimv); Eg:
Hunting wasp.
14. d. Animals can communicate using visual signals (such as body language, coloration,
and facial expressions), acoustic signals (such as vocalizations and sounds), and
chemical signals (such as pheromones and scent marking).
15. d. The common Indian frog is called the Bullfrog because:
• Large sized: Bullfrogs are known for their relatively large size compared to many
other frog species.
• Croaks loudly: Bullfrogs produce deep and resonant calls, often characterized as
loud croaking, especially during the breeding season.
16. c. Frogs have a specialized tongue that is attached to the front of their mouth and can
be rapidly extended to catch prey. When a frog spots a suitable prey item, it rapidly
extends its sticky tongue to capture it and then retracts the tongue back into the
mouth. This mechanism is crucial for the feeding behavior of frogs, allowing them
to catch insects, small vertebrates, and other prey items.
17. c. In frogs, the renal portal system is a unique feature where blood from the hind limbs
and pelvic region is first directed through the kidneys before it reaches the heart.
This system allows for additional filtration and regulation of substances before the
blood returns to circulation.
18. d. Quartan malaria is caused by Plasmodium malariae, one of the species of malaria
parasites that infect humans. It is known for its distinctive 72-hour cycle of fever
spikes, which distinguishes it from other types of malaria caused by Plasmodium
falciparum (48-hour cycle), Plasmodium vivax (48-hour cycle), and Plasmodium
ovale (48-hour cycle)
19. b. DDT was widely used in the mid-20th century for malaria control due to its
effectiveness in killing mosquitoes that transmit the disease. It was instrumental in
reducing malaria transmission in many parts of the world, especially during the
Global Malaria Eradication Campaign initiated by the World Health Organization
(WHO) in the 1950s and 1960s.
20. d.
21. b.
22. d. Earthworms exhibit metamerism, which means their body is divided into repeated
segments that are similar in structure along the length of the body. Each segment
typically contains similar sets of organs and structures, contributing to their
characteristic segmented appearance.
23. c. The ankle joint is a type of hinge joint. Hinge joints allow movement primarily in
one plane, like a door hinge, enabling flexion and extension movements. In the case
of the ankle joint, it primarily allows for dorsiflexion (bringing the foot towards the
shin) and plantarflexion (pointing the foot downward).

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)
24. b. Parathyroid glands are typically absent in fishes. These glands are small endocrine
glands located near or within the thyroid gland in mammals and some other
vertebrates. They play a crucial role in calcium and phosphate balance in the body.
25. c. Prolactin is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland, and its primary function is
to stimulate milk production (lactation) in the mammary glands of mammals,
including humans. It plays a crucial role in the development and maintenance of
mammary gland function during lactation.
26. c. Simple epithelium is a type of epithelial tissue where the cells are arranged in a
single layer and are tightly packed together. They are held together by junctional
complexes such as tight junctions and desmosomes, which cement the cells to one
another. This arrangement allows for selective permeability and protective functions
in various organs and tissues.
27. b. Glisson's capsule is a thin layer of connective tissue that surrounds the liver. It
provides structural support to the liver and contains blood vessels, lymphatics, and
nerves that supply the liver tissue. This capsule helps to maintain the shape and
integrity of the liver.
28. b. Sarcolemma is the specialized cell membrane that surrounds muscle fibers (muscle
cells). It plays a crucial role in maintaining the structural integrity of muscle fibers
and is involved in muscle contraction and signal transduction processes.
29. c. The largest number of cell bodies (neurons) in our body are found in the brain. The
brain contains billions of neurons organized into various regions responsible for
different functions such as cognition, sensory processing, motor control, and more.
30. d. Crypts of Lieberkühn, also known as intestinal glands, are found in the lining of the
small intestine (jejunum and ileum). These glands secrete intestinal juice, which
contains enzymes (such as peptidases, sucrase, maltase, lactase) and mucus. This
secretion helps in the digestion and absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.
31. a. Cud-chewing animals are known as ruminants. These animals have a specialized
stomach consisting of four compartments: the rumen, reticulum, omasum, and
abomasum. They regurgitate partially digested food (cud) from the rumen and chew
it again to further break down plant material through fermentation by symbiotic
bacteria.
32. b. At high altitudes, where the oxygen concentration is lower, the body responds by
increasing the number of red blood cells (RBCs). This adaptation helps to enhance
the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. The increased RBC count is a
physiological response to maintain adequate oxygen delivery to tissues despite
reduced oxygen availability.
33. b. During fetal development in mammals, the pulmonary trunk (not pulmonary aorta)
communicates with the systemic circulation through a vessel called the ductus
arteriosus. This vessel allows blood to bypass the lungs because they are non-
functional in the fetus. After birth, when the lungs become functional, the ductus
arteriosus typically closes and eventually forms a fibrous cord known as the
ligamentum arteriosum in the adult.
34. b. The cerebellum is responsible for balance and muscular coordination. It receives
sensory input from the vestibular system (responsible for balance) and

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)
proprioceptive input from muscles and joints. The cerebellum integrates this
information to coordinate smooth and precise movements, posture, and balance.
35. c. Pain is detected by receptors known as nociceptors or algesireceptors. These
specialized receptors respond to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to
the central nervous system, where the sensation of pain is processed.
36. b. The prostate gland is located at the base of the urinary bladder in males. It surrounds
the urethra just below the bladder and plays a role in the production of semen. The
seminal vesicles are located behind the bladder and contribute seminal fluid to
semen, but they are not at the base of the urinary bladder.
37. d. Even if a frog's tadpole does not metamorphose and retains its larval characteristics,
it cannot be grouped under fishes primarily because it does not possess scales. Scales
are a characteristic feature of fish that provide protection and reduce friction while
swimming.
38. c. The Widal test is a serological test used for detecting antibodies against Salmonella
typhi, the bacterium that causes typhoid fever. It helps in diagnosing typhoid fever
by detecting specific antibodies (e.g., anti-O and anti-H antibodies) produced in
response to Salmonella typhi infection.
39. a. The incubation period refers to the time interval between the initial entry of a
pathogen into the body and the onset of the first symptoms of disease. During this
period, the pathogen begins to multiply and spread within the host, but symptoms
may not yet be apparent. The duration of the incubation period varies depending on
the specific pathogen and the individual's immune response.
40. c. In humans, the kidneys are positioned asymmetrically due to the presence of the
liver on the right side. Specifically:
• The left kidney is typically located slightly higher than the right kidney.
• The left kidney is positioned between the 11th and 12th ribs, while the right
kidney is lower due to the large size of the liver.

Botany
41. c. Chloroplasts are larger than Golgi bodies, chromosomes, and mitochondria.
While the central vacuole is indeed the largest organelle in plant cells overall, it
is not listed as an option here. Therefore, chloroplasts are the correct choice among
the provided options.
42. a. The cytoskeleton is made up of three main types of protein filaments:
Microfilaments (Actin Filaments):
Composed of actin protein.
Microtubules:
Composed of tubulin protein.
Intermediate Filaments:
Composed of various proteins, including keratins, vimentin, and lamin.
43. a. They do have cytoplasm and a cell membrane, and they perform anaerobic
respiration rather than aerobic respiration due to the absence of mitochondria.
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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)
44. a. Cells in the G₀ phase of the cell cycle are in a state of quiescence or dormancy. This
phase is a resting stage where cells have exited the active cell cycle and are not
actively preparing to divide.
45. d. Homologous chromosomes begin to separate slightly but remain connected at
chiasmata.
46. c. A meiocyte is a cell that undergoes meiosis to produce gametes. Androcytes and
zoospores do not typically refer to cells undergoing meiosis, and a zygote is a
fertilized egg cell that will undergo mitotic divisions, not meiosis.
47. c. Gregor Mendel studied 7 pairs of contrasting characters (traits) in his experiments
with pea plants. These pairs of traits included:
Seed shape (round vs. wrinkled)
Seed color (yellow vs. green)
Pod shape (inflated vs. constricted)
Pod color (green vs. yellow)
Flower position (axial vs. terminal)
Flower color (purple vs. white)
Plant height (tall vs. short)
48. d. A heterozygous individual is crossed with a homozygous recessive parent, which is a
classic example of a test cross. The test cross is used to determine whether the
heterozygous individual is carrying a recessive allele that can be expressed if it inherits
two copies of the allele, or if it is carrying a dominant allele that masks the effect of the
recessive allele.
49. d. Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic disorder in which a male is born with an extra X
chromosome, resulting in a karyotype of 47, XXY. This condition is also known as XXY
syndrome. The extra X chromosome can affect various aspects of development,
including physical, cognitive, and reproductive characteristics.
50. d. Fructose is an example of monosaccharide with the molecular formula of C6H12O6,
it contains hydroxyl group and ketone group. Thus, it has a ketone group with six
carbon atoms.it was known that fructose contains five hydroxyl groups and one
ketone group. Ketone is a carbonyl group.Thus, fructose is an example of
ketohexose.
51. b. Zymase is an enzyme complex that catalyzes the fermentation of sugar into ethanol and
carbon dioxide. It occurs naturally in yeasts and is responsible for the anaerobic
transformation of fructose and glucose (sugars) into ethanol and carbon dioxide.
52. c. Arginase is an enzyme involved in the urea cycle that helps in the conversion of L-
arginine to L-ornithine and urea. It is most commonly found in the liver cells
(hepatocytes). So, the correct answer is 'liver'.
53. a. The periderm is the outer tissue of potato tubers, which protects the tuber during
harvest and storage from pathogen attacks, dehydration, and wounding. It is
secondary in nature and replaces the epidermis early in the growth of the tuber.
54. c. Velamen is a specialized tissue found in the aerial roots of epiphytic orchids. It acts
as a protective layer and absorbs moisture from the atmosphere. This adaptation

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)
helps orchids survive in their natural habitats where they often grow on trees or
rocks rather than in soil.
55. a. Grafting typically requires the cambium layer of the plants involved to be aligned
and able to connect vascular tissues for successful union and nutrient transport.
Monocots lack a vascular cambium, which is a layer of meristematic cells responsible
for secondary growth in dicotyledonous plants. Without a vascular cambium,
monocots cannot form the necessary vascular connections to support grafting.
56. b. Sugar is a carbohydrate with no soluble ions. While sodium chloride consists of
Na+ and Cl− ions. Ionisable molecules possess higher OP and hence, water
molecules move from a hypotonic solution (more water, less solute concentration,
in this case, the cell) to a hypertonic solution (less water, more solute concentration,
in this case, concentrated solution of sodium chloride) across a semi permeable
membrane. As a result, the volume will decrease. Hence, when the cell is placed in
a concentrated solution of sodium chloride, there will be decrease in the volume of
the cell.
57. c. In photosynthesis, specifically during the light-dependent reactions that occur in the
thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts, manganese (Mn) and chloride ions (Cl-) play
crucial roles in the oxygen-evolving complex (OEC). The OEC is part of photosystem
II (PSII) and is responsible for catalyzing the oxidation of water molecules to release
oxygen, protons, and electrons in the presence of light.
58. b. R.Q. stands for Respiratory Quotient, which is the ratio of the volume of carbon
dioxide (CO2) produced to the volume of oxygen (O2) consumed during cellular
respiration.
59. c. Ethylene is a plant hormone that plays a key role in the ripening of fruits. It is
involved in various physiological processes in plants, including fruit ripening, leaf
senescence, and responses to stress. Ethylene promotes the ripening process by
triggering changes in gene expression that lead to fruit softening, color changes, and
flavor development.
60. b. Osmosis is the process by which solvent molecules (typically water) move across a
semi-permeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of
higher solute concentration. This movement occurs to equalize the concentration of
solute on both sides of the membrane, but it is the solvent (usually water) that
moves, not the solute. Therefore, the correct answer is option b, Solvent only.
61. c. Grass stems have specialized regions called intercalary meristems located at the base
of each node. These intercalary meristems contribute to the elongation of the grass
stem by adding cells to the internodes (the regions between nodes). This allows the
grass to grow rapidly and continuously, making it well-adapted to grazing and
mowing.
62. c. Pedology is the branch of soil science that deals with the study of soils in their
natural environment. It focuses on the formation, characteristics, classification, and
distribution of soils as well as their interactions with the surrounding environment,
plants, and organisms. Therefore, the correct answer is option c, Soil.
63. b. A bacteriophage is a type of virus that infects bacteria. It attaches to the surface of
bacterial cells and injects its genetic material (DNA or RNA) into the bacterium. The
viral genetic material then hijacks the bacterial cell's machinery to replicate and

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)
produce more bacteriophages, eventually causing the bacterial cell to lyse (burst
open) and release new viral particles.
64. c. Agar-agar is a gelatinous substance derived from red algae, particularly species of
Gelidium and Gracilaria. It is widely used in microbiology for culture media, in food
as a vegetarian alternative to gelatin, and in various other applications due to its
gelling properties.
65. d. Amanita species include some of the most toxic mushrooms known, such as the
death cap (Amanita phalloides) and destroying angels (Amanita virosa and related
species). These mushrooms contain deadly toxins that can cause severe illness and
even death if ingested.
66. a. Funaria, commonly known as the common or garden moss, is a genus of mosses
where the protonema stage occurs. Protonema is the initial stage in the development
of the moss gametophyte, arising from the germination of a moss spore. It consists
of a branching filamentous structure that eventually develops into the leafy
gametophyte structure characteristic of mosses.
67. d. Pteridophytes are vascular plants that reproduce via spores rather than seeds. They
include ferns, horsetails, and clubmosses. These plants have specialized tissues for
conducting water and nutrients (xylem and phloem), which distinguishes them from
bryophytes (such as mosses and liverworts) that lack true vascular tissue.
Pteridophytes reproduce by spores that are typically produced on the underside of
fronds or specialized structures.
68. a. Ovule or megasporangia of pinus is anatropous and unitegmic. @P-AN. Anatropous
refers to a type of plant ovule where the micropyle is bent down towards the funiculus,
which is the stalk that connects the ovule to the placenta. This means that the
micropyle, the opening at the top of the ovule, is facing downwards.Unitegmic, on the
other hand, refers to a type of ovule where the integuments (the outer and inner layers
of the ovule) fuse together to form a single layer. This is in contrast to bitegmic ovules,
where the integuments remain separate.
69. c. Radish (Raphanus sativus) flowers have a cruciform corolla, meaning the petals are
arranged in the shape of a cross. This arrangement is characteristic of plants in the
Brassicaceae family, which includes radishes, mustards, cabbages, and many other
plants. Therefore, the correct answer is option c, Radish.
70. b. In a ripe mango, the mesocarp is the fleshy, juicy part that surrounds the seed
(endocarp). The epicarp (skin) and endocarp (hard, inner layer around the seed) are
not typically eaten, while the mesocarp is the part that is sweet, flavorful, and
consumed as the edible fruit. Therefore, the correct answer is option b, Mesocarp.
71. c. Perisperm refers to the persistent, nutritive tissue that remains after the
development of the seed from the ovule. It is derived from the nucellus and is rich
in stored nutrients, serving as a food reserve for the developing embryo within the
seed. Once the seed matures, the perisperm often persists alongside or within the
endosperm, providing nutrients for germination and early seedling growth.
72. c. Porogamy refers specifically to the entry of the pollen tube through an opening, such
as the micropyle, on the surface of the ovule or embryo sac in angiosperms. This
process allows the pollen tube to deliver sperm cells to the embryo sac for
fertilization. Therefore, the correct answer is option c, Porogamy.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)
73. a. The germ pore is a specific region on the pollen grain where the exine (the outer
layer of the pollen grain) is thinner or absent. This area allows the pollen tube to
emerge during fertilization. Therefore, the correct answer is option a, Absent.
74. c. Meristem culture involves the propagation of plants from meristematic tissues, such
as shoot apical meristems or axillary buds, which are typically free from pathogens.
By using meristem culture techniques, it is possible to regenerate plants that are free
from viruses, bacteria, and other pathogens that might have infected the parent
plant. This method is commonly used in agriculture and horticulture to produce
disease-free plants that can be used for propagation and cultivation. Therefore, the
correct answer is option c, Meristem culture.
75. c. Cryopreservation involves the preservation of cells, tissues, or organs at very low
temperatures, typically in liquid nitrogen at around -196°C (-320.8°F). At this
temperature, biological activity is effectively halted, allowing cells to be stored for
long periods without significant deterioration. Therefore, the correct answer is
option c, -196°C.
76. b. Energy pyramid: Shape is upright; energy decreases up trophic levels due to
inefficiencies; producers convert sunlight to chemical energy.
77. c. Biogeochemical cycling refers to the cycling of chemical elements and compounds
between living organisms, geological processes, and the atmosphere or
hydrosphere. This process involves the movement of elements such as carbon,
nitrogen, phosphorus, and others through biotic (living organisms) and abiotic (non-
living environment) components of ecosystems. Therefore, the correct answer is
option c, Biogeochemical cycling.
78. b. Greenhouse effect: Gases trap heat from Earth's surface, warming the atmosphere.
Vital for life's temperature balance, but human activities escalate it, causing global
warming and climate change.
79. b. Secondary productivity refers to the rate at which consumers (organisms that feed
on producers or other consumers) convert organic matter into new biomass. It
represents the energy assimilated by consumers through feeding and growth.
Therefore, the correct answer is option b, Consumer.
80. a. Deforestation, which involves the clearing of forests for agriculture, logging,
urbanization, and other human activities, is a primary driver of species extinction in
tropical forests. It leads to habitat loss and fragmentation, disrupting ecosystems and
reducing biodiversity. This loss of habitat directly threatens many species that
depend on intact forest habitats for survival. Therefore, the correct answer is option
a, Deforestation.
Chemistry
81. c. The salt which is used in salt bridge should have approximately equal ionic mobility
of cation and anion.
82. c. Ionization energy and electron affinity generally increase in a period.
5 1
83. d. P(Y) + 2 O2 → 2 P2O5; H = −9.91kJ;

5 1
P(R) + 2 O2 → 2 P2O5; H = −8.78 kJ

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)
Subtract (ii) from (i)
P(Y) → P(R) ; H = −9.91 + 8.78=−1.13 kJ.
84. c. Graham’s law is valid at low pressure.
Ze2
85. c. Kinetic energy = r
n

86. b. Maximum number of electrons in given orbit = 2n2

87. d. Na+ [O – H]¯ contains both covalent and ionic bond.
88. d. ClF3 has sp3d-hybridisation with two lone pair of electrons on Cl.
89. d. IP increases along the period.
90. a.

5.85/58.5
91. d. M.F. = 5.85 90 = 0.0196
58.5 + 18
92. a. Oxidation number of carbon in HNC ⇒+1 – 3 + x = 0 x = +2
93. b. It is secondary reference electrode.
0.693 0.693
94. a. t½ = K  k = 20 ;

2.303 a a–x
Also, t = 40 = K log a – x ; find a
95. b. G = 0 at equilibrium
1 1.3
96. a. [H+] = C = 10 × 100 = 1.3 × 10–3,

Thus, pH = – log 1.3 × 10–3, i.e. between 2 and 3.

– H+
97. c. OH¯ → O2–
98. b. At constant temperature,U = 0
99. a. Both white and red phosphorus are not soluble in CS2 only white P is soluble.
100. b. In case of nitrogen being second period element, d-orbitals are not available.
101. d. P2O5 have great affinity for water. The final product is orthophosphoric acid.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)

102. c.

103. d. Na2O (basic., SO2 and B2O3 (acidic. and ZnO is amphoteric oxide.
104. a. 4KO2+2CO2→2K2CO3+3O2
105. b. Silver is recovered from the alloy (lead–silver alloy) by cupellation.
106. c. Leblanc method is used for the manufacture of Na 2CO3.
107. d. Cl2 will react with CaO, NaOH and KOH. It will not react with conc. H2SO4 hence can be
dried over it.
108. d. Reactivity follows the order: F > Cl > Br > I
109. b. Xe is also known as stranger gas.
110. b. Cu2+  Ar3d9 ; Ti4+  Ar3d0 ; Co2+  Ar3d7 ; Fe2+  Ar3d6
1,3,4 are coloured ions since they contain certain number of unpaired electrons.
111. c. If nonmetal is added to the interstitial site the metal becomes less malleable due to formation
of covalent bond between metal and non-metal
112. b. Transition metal in lower oxidation state will exist as cation which are Lewis acids.
113. b.

114. d. It is a nucleophilic substitution reaction as here stronger nucleophile OH– is replacing weaker
nucleophile X–.
115. d.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)

116. d. Ethyl alcohol on oxidation gives acetaldehyde.

117. b. Dehydration of CH3OH gives carbene (methylene), an unstable intermediate.

118. c. Metamerism is found in molecules having polyvalent functional group.

119. a. Inductive effect involves displacement of  - electrons.
120. d. CHF2COOH is highly acidic as –I group increases acidic strength.
X
121. a. CH2=CH2 ⎯⎯→ CH2X – CH2X;
2
AVic– dihalide.
122. b. RX + Mg ⎯Ether
⎯ ⎯→ RMgX
123. c. CH3CN ⎯Na/C
⎯⎯⎯ 2H5OH
⎯⎯→ CH3 CH2 NH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CH3 CH2 OH ⎯⎯→ CH3COOH
HNO 2 [O]

124. c. C6H5CHO ⎯Cl

⎯→ 2
C6H5COCl + HCl
125. c. Detergents contain sodium alkyl sulphate. These contain –SO4 group.
𝐻2 /𝑃𝑑
126. c. Butene – 1 → Butane

127. b. NaBH4, LiAlH4 has no action on C = C.

[H]
CH3CH = CHCHO → CH3CH = CH CH2OH
LiAlH4 or NaBH4
128. b. Formyl chloride is unstable at room temperature.
HOH
129. a. RCH2NO2→ RCOOH + NH2OH
130. b. The primary purpose of adding aggregates is to enhance the compressive strength
and durability of concrete.

Physics
131. d) 𝑎⃗ ⊥ 𝑏⃗⃗ 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑎⃗ . 𝑏⃗⃗ = 𝑎𝑏 𝑐𝑜𝑠90º = 0.
132. a) [torque] = [force × ⊥ distance] = [MLT–2 × L] = [ML2T–2]
133. d) F = mnv = 40 × 10–3 × n × 1200
144 = 40 × 10–3 × n × 1200
n=3

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)
Physics
131. d.

132. c. ( )
vA = vj and vB = v −i = −vi   v = vB − vA = −vi − vj  v = ( −v ) − ( −v )
2 2
= 2v

total length 50 + 50 100

133. b. Time = = = =4
relative velocity 10 + 15 25
134. a. since total displacement is zero, hence average velocity is also zero.
135. c.
u 2 sin 2 4u 2 sin 2 
R = 4H  =  tan  = 1 = 45o
g 2g

v2 150 2
136. a. Banking angle tan  =  tan 45o =  r = 22.5 km
r r
137. a. Rate of ejecting gasses dm/dt = 0.05 kg/s, Velocity of ejecting gasses v= 400 m/s.
dm
Thus, accelerating force F = v ⟹ F = 0.05 × 400 = 20 N
dt
dm F 5
138. a. F=v = 5  1 = 5 N  a = = = 2.5 m/s 2
dt a 2
139. a. Because due to increase in temperature inter molecular force decreases
140. b. Liquid of high viscosity and low density flowing through a pipe of small radius
141. b. Mercury thermometers can measure a temperature up to 500 C as these
thermometers are mixed with nitrogen gas at high pressure. This causes an
increment in the boiling point of mercury. The gas being filled should be relatively
inert and not react chemically with mercury at high temperatures.
V − Vo 
142. b. =   0  24 =   40   = 6  10−5 o C−1   = = 2  10−5 o C−1
Vo 3
143. c. Heat required in the given process = Q1 + Q2 + Q3 = 1 × 80 +1 × 1 × (100−0) + 1 ×
536 = 716 cal
C2rms T2 90 + 273 363 C
144. a. = = = = 1.21 = 1.1 , so   100% = (1.1 − 1)  100% = 10%
C2rms T1 27 + 273 300 C
145. a. During the free expansion of a perfect gas no, work is done and also no heat is
supplied from outside. Therefore, no change in internal energy. Hence, the
temperature remains constant.
V  PV
146. c. dW = P ( V2 − V1 ) = P  − V  = −
 2  2

12
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)
147. d. As the image formed by a convex mirror is always virtual and
v 1 u 1 1 1 1 n (1 − n )
erect, so = −  v = −  = + = − =  u = n −1
u n n −f u v u u u
= (n-1)f
R.D. 4 21 − x
148. c. =  =  x = 12 cm
A.D. 3 x
149. b.
sin 45o 1
=  sin r =
sin r 2

1 1 1 1 1 3
sin i1 =  sin ( 90 − r ) =  cos r =  1 − 2 = 2  =
   2  2
150. b. L = 20cm
151. c. For brightness, path difference = nλ = 2λ So second is bright.
nD 1 5000 10−10 1
152. a. xn =  5 10−3 =  d = 10−4 m = 0.1 mm
d d
153. d. 2d = v  t  2d = 340 1  d = 170 m
154. a. Maximum particle velocity executing SHM is v(max) = a = 10  3 = 30
1 1 1 1 1
155. c. f   l = l1 + l2 + l3  = + +
l f f1 f 2 f3
Qenclosed 100Q
156. b. = =
o o
157. c.
Q Q
158. b. Vinside = for r  R and Voutside = for r  R i.e. potential inside the hollow
4o R 4o r
1
spherical shell is constant and outside varies according to Voutside 
r
159. c.

13
NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)

l 1 R A 3
R=  R   1 = 2 =  R1 = 3  10 = 30
A A R2 A1 1
Req = R1 + R2 = 30 + 10 = 40
160. d. Let A be the area of cross-section of wire. Therefore,
number of electrons per unit volume of copper wire is,
2  1021 2 1022
n= = so,
A  (100  10−3 ) A

2  1022
 I = nAevd =  A  (1.6  10−19 )  ( 0.25  10−3 ) = 0.8 A
A
 dE 
161. a. At neutral temperature   = slope = 0
 dT 
P R 4 11 44
162. c. = S'= =  and
Q S' 9 9
1 1 1 1 9 1 132
= +  = − r= = 26.4
S' r 6 r 44 6 5
o I o q o qf
163. a. B= = =
2 R 2 RT 2R

164. c. Force F2 and F4 will be equal and opposite. F1  F3 since magnetic field on the nearer
vertical side is more than that on the farther vertical side. ∴ the loop will move towards the
wire.
dA d (r 2 ) dr 2 10−3
165. d. e = −B = −B = − B2r = 2 0.04  0.02  = 3.210−6 V = 3.2 V
dt dt dt 1
166. d. V = 120 sin (100t) cos (100t) = 60 [2 sin (100t) cos (100t)] = 60 sin (200 t)
Vo = 60 V and  = 2f = 200  f =100 Hz
167. d. From the characteristic of B-H curve.
h 6.6 10−34 P 1.5 10−27
168. a. P= = −10
= 1.5 10−27 kgm / s and  m = = = 5 10−36 kg
 4400 10 c 3 108

2 2
h 1 E2  1   10−10 
169. b. =   =  =  = 4  E2 = 4 E1 hence energy
2mE E E1   2   0.5 10−10 
added E2 − E1 = 3E1
170. b.
1 2 e
171. a. mv = eV  v = 2 V = 6  105 V m/s = 6  105 1000 = 1.9  106 m/s
2 m
172. b. 7N
14 + 2He4 → 8O17 + 1H1
t / T1/2 2/1 4/1
1 1 1 1
173. b. N = N0   , first N1 = 8  1010   = 4  1010 , second N 2 = 8  1010   =  1010 ,
2
  2 2 2
so N1 − N 2 = 1.5  10 10

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Modal Entrance Exam Model – XIV (2081-03-29)
174. b. At 0K semiconductor behaves as insulator so it's resistance is infinite.
175. b.
176. c.
177. c. The correct option is X = 1, Y = 0
178. c.
179. d.
180. c.

MAT
181. d. POETRY⟹P→(QO) and OETRY→NDSQX, similarly, MORE⟹M→(NL) and ORE→NQD
182. b.
183. a.
184. c. Giga, Mega, Kilo, Hecta, Centi
185. b. Sudeep’s position from right=28+6=34 and Vinod’s position from right = 34-11=23 then
position of Vinod from left =40-23+1=18
186. a.
Reshav Prem Madhu
Geeta Bittu
Usha Suma Gopi
187. b. make the difference between ratios are equal then saving=6x-5x=4000, Income = 6x=
6×4000
188. b. 5×27-4×25=35
𝐶𝑃 4 1
189. a. 1000 g of CP=800 g of SP⟹ = then gain= × 100%
𝑆𝑃 5 4
60×60 (60−𝑥)×30
190. b. 3 = 1
4 4

191. c. Wednesday+1+1+1+1+2+1+1 according to odd days in coming next years =2002

192. b. Nothing mentioned about the professional nature of job.
193. a. HCF(1001,910)=91
194. a.
195. d.
196. d. 6+6+21+2
197. d.
198. d. Opposite segments are a mirror-image of each other
199. b. Black dot circle follows white circles in CW order.
200. b.
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