Bio 12 Exam

Chapter 1
___ 1. Isotopes are atoms that differ in the number of

a. electrons
b. neutrons
c. bonds
d. orbitals
e. protons
____ 2. Covalent bonds

a. are found in salts.
b. form with metals.
c. create cations.
d. are found within a molecule.
e. capture electrons.
____ 3. Water is a polar covalent molecule. This means that

a. electrons are shared unequally.
b. hydrogen is partially charged.
c. oxygen is more electronegative.
d. electrons are less attracted to the hydrogen nucleus.
e. All of the above.
____ 4. Intermolecular forces include

a. covalent bonds.
b. ionic bonds.
c. hydrogen bonds.
d. polar covalent bonds.
e. valence electrons.
____ 5. Hydrogen bonding describes

a. attraction between polar molecules.
b. shared electrons in a molecule, like water.
c. a strong bond within a molecule.
d. the formation of acids.
e. all of the above.
____ 6. A hydrophobic molecule

a. forms hydrogen bonds.
b. combines with water easily.
c. dissolves into ions with water.
d. is non-polar
e. is polar.
____ 7. When mixed with water, hydrophobic molecules will

a. dissolve.
b. clump together.
c. form a precipitate.
d. dissociate.
e. not enough information provided.
____ 8. An anion
a. is a hydrophobic ion.
b. has gained one or more electrons.
c. has lost one or more electrons.
d. is a polar ion.
e. is a non-polar ion.
____ 9. Hydrophilic molecules have a tendency to

a. form aqueous solutions.
b. dissolve in water.
c. form hydrogen bonds with water.
d. be polar.
____ 10. If an atom loses an electron it is called

a. a radical.
b. an anion.
c. a cation
d. a compound.
e. a product.
____ 11. When placed in water, non-polar molecules will

a. dissolve.
b. clump together
c. dissociate into ions.
d. form many small droplets surrounded by water.
e. form a suspension.
____ 12. Which of these molecules is a hydrocarbon?

a. CO2
b. H2O
c. CCl4
d. C6H12O6
e. CH4
____ 13. A functional group is

a. a complex molecule made of repeating units.
b. a nonpolar segment.
c. many monomers linked together.
d. a cluster of atoms that behave in a certain way.
____ 14. Most functional groups contains

a. C.
b. O.
c. S.
d. Mg.
e. N.
____ 15. A common characteristic of all functional groups is

a. size.
b. location.
c. polarity.
d. negative charge.
____ 16. How is a structural formula different from a molecular formula and a structural formula?
A structural formula shows
a. the number of atoms.
b. the elements involved.
c. how the atoms bond.
d. polarity.
____ 17. Space-filling models show which characteristic colour for oxygen?
a. red
b. black
c. white
d. blue
e. green
____ 18. Which of these functional groups is polar, negatively charged?

a. hydroxyl
b. carbonyl
c. carboxyl
d. amino
e. phosphate
____ 19. Which of these functional groups is polar, acidic?

a. hydroxyl
b. carbonyl
c. carboxyl
d. amino
e. phosphate
____ 20. Which of these functional groups is polar, basic?

a. hydroxyl
b. carbonyl
c. carboxyl
d. amino
e. phosphate
____ 21. The monomer for starch is a

a. monosaccharaide.
b. nucleotide.
c. amino acid.
d. fatty acid.
e. triglyceride.
____ 22. The monomer for a nucleic acid is a

a. monosaccharaide.
b. nucleotide.
c. amino acid.
d. fatty acid.
e. triglyceride.
____ 23. The monomer for a protein is a

a. monosaccharaide.
b. nucleotide.
c. amino acid.
d. fatty acid.
e. triglyceride.
____ 24. Which of the following is a macromolecule?

a. glucose
b. sucrose
c. cellulose
d. fructose
e. lactose
____ 25. Which of the following is a monomer?

a. maltose
b. sucrose
c. cellulose
d. fructose
e. lactose
____ 26. Which of the following is commonly called blood sugar?

a. fructose
b. galactose
c. sucrose
d. lactose
e. glucose
____ 27. Which of the following is an isomer of glucose?

a. fructose
b. sucrose
c. cellulose
d. lactose
e. maltose
____ 28. Which of these molecules is a disaccharide?

a. glucose
b. fructose
c. galactose
d. sucrose
e. cellulose
____ 29. A disaccharide is formed by a covalent bond called a

a. triglyceride.
b. sulfhydrylic linkage.
c. glycosideic linkage.
d. hydrogenation bond.
e. peptide bond.
____ 30. Two isomers vary by

a. the atomic mass of a key element.
b. chemical formula.
c. structural formula.
d. radioactive isotopes.
____ 31. Carbohydrates are molecules that contain

a. carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
b. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen.
c. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and phosphorus.
d. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur and phosphorus.
e. all of these are possible.
____ 32. Glucose and galactose bond to form

a. sucrose.
b. maltose.
c. lactose.
d. fructose.
e. cellulose.
____ 33. Which of these carbohydrate polymers is highly branched?

a. maltose
b. cellulose
c. glycogen
d. starch
e. triglyceride
____ 34. Animal starch, glycogen, is highly branched so that

a. it is more quickly broken into monomers.
b. it is more loosely packed.
c. it forms strong structures in the liver.
d. it is not green.
____ 35. Which of the following molecules is non-linear?

a. starch
b. polypeptide
c. glycogen
d. cellulose
e. all of the above
____ 36. How is cellulose different from starch? Cellulose

a. is found inside cell organelles.
b. provides food for a growing plant.
c. stores food energy for later.
d. provides structural support to cell walls.

e. can be digested by humans.
____ 37. Lipids and carbohydrates are both macromolecules. Lipids are different from
carbohydrates because they
a. have many non-polar bonds.
b. consist of hydrogen, carbon, oxygen and nitrogen.
c. form cellular structures.
d. consist of hydrogen, carbon and oxygen.
e. dissolve easily in water.
____ 38. What feature of lipids makes them good sources of energy?
a. They do not dissolve easily in water.
b. They are easy to access by metabolic processes.
c. They are rich in C-H bonds.
d. They are large.
e. They accumulate into specialized organelles.
____ 39. Lipids have fewer oxygen atoms than carbohydrates. This means that lipids are
a. ionic.
b. polar.
c. highly charged.
d. hydrophobic.
e. hydrophilic.
____ 40. Compared to the energy in carbohydrates, the energy in lipids is

a. less accessible.
b. more accessible.
c. stored in H-O bonds.
d. yield less than half.
e. none of the above
____ 41. Which of these functions is NOT related to lipids? Lipids can
a. form a protective cushion around major organs.
b. dissolve easily in water.
c. form much of a cell membrane.
d. insulate against heat.
e. provide water-repelling coatings.
____ 42. The fatty acids of a saturated fat have

a. many double bonds.
b. a lower number of hydrogen atoms.
c. greater flexibility or fluidity.
d. no double bonds.
e. fewer carbon atoms.
____ 43. A triglyceride has three fatty acids connected to one

a. glucose.
b. glycogen.
c. glucagon
d. glycerol.
e. none of these.
____ 44. The triglyceride is formed by

a. a peptide bond.
b. an ester linkage.
c. a glycosidic linkage.
d. a sulfhydryl bond.
e. a diester bond.
____ 45. At room temperature, polyunsaturated lipids would form

a. oil.
b. wax.
c. solid.
d. all of these.
e. none of these.
____ 46. Hydrogenation involves

a. removing hydrogen atoms.
b. changing trans bonds to cis bonds.
c. adding hydrogen atoms.
d. making double bonds.
e. adding fatty acids to glycerol.
____ 47. What aspect of hydrogenation is most dangerous to human health?

a. unsaturated carbons.
b. production of cis fats.
c. formation of double bonds.
d. production of trans fats.
e. none of these.
____ 48. How many cis double bonds can be found in a saturated triglyceride?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. at least 4
____ 49. How is a phospholipid different from a triglyceride? A phosphate group

a. is added between glycerol and the three fatty acids.
b. replaces all of the fatty acids.
c. makes the molecule non-polar.
d. replaces glycerol.
e. takes the place of one fatty acid.
____ 50. Which of these statements is true for a phospholipid but not a triglyceride?
a. The molecule is non-polar.
b. Fatty acids are bonded to a glycerol.
c. The molecule is polar and non-polar.
d. Fatty acids are polyunsaturated.
e. All of these.
____ 51. The lipid bilayer is formed so that

a. phosphate groups avoid water.
b. fatty acids are saturated.
c. water dissolves the phospholipids.
d. phosphates form long chains.
e. fatty acids avoid water.
____ 52. Which of these hormones is also a lipid?

a. insulin
b. glucagon
c. testosterone
d. All of these are lipids.
e. None of these are lipids.
____ 53. A steroid

a. can reduce inflammation.
b. is composed of four attached carbon-based rings.
c. includes cholesterol.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 54. Select the type of lipid that acts to repel water from leaves or duck feathers.
a. steroid
b. phospholipid
c. cholesterol
d. wax
e. polyunsaturated
____ 55. Proteins have many functions. Which function is NOT related to protein?
a. Transporting substances in the body.
b. Regulating cellular processes.
c. Insulating against heat loss.
d. Catalyzing chemical reactions.
e. Providing structural support.
____ 56. Protein monomers have two key functional groups:

a. amine group and hydroxyl group.
b. amine group and carbonyl group.
c. carbonyl group and hydroxyl group.
d. amine group and carboxyl group.
e. carbonyl group and carboxyl group.
____ 57. What part of amino acid is unique to each type?

a. the R group
b. amine functional group
c. carboxyl functional group
d. carbonyl functional group
e. the central atom
____ 58. The R group is NOT responsible for an amino acid’s

a. polarity.
b. relative size.
c. peptide bond
d. relative charge.
e. primary structure.
____ 59. Which of these amino acids is non-polar?

a. serine
b. lysine
c. asparagine
d. valine
e. glutamine
____ 60. A dipeptide is

a. an amino acid with an amine R group.
b. an amino acid combined with a carbohydrate.
c. three amino acids formed by two peptide bonds.
d. two amino acids combined to glycerol.
e. two amino acids combined together.
____ 61. Protein structure can be organized into how many levels?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
e. five
____ 62. The primary structure of a protein describes

a. the R groups involved.
b. the linear sequence of amino acids.
c. the polarity of amino acids.
d. the hydrogen bonding between amino acids.
e. complex folding.
____ 63. The secondary structure of a protein describes


e. complex folding.
____ 64. The tertiary structure of a protein describes

e. complex folding.
____ 65. Protein folding is affected by

a. molecular chaperones.
b. hydrogen bonding between R groups.
c. the hydrophobic effect.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 66. Quaternary structure describes

a. the formation of protein sheets.
b. the formation of helical shapes.
c. the combination of two different folded chains.
d. extensive branching.
e. a form of denaturing into a linear string of amino acids.
____ 67. Denaturation of a protein

a. is the result of extreme heat.
b. is the result of exposure to certain chemicals.
c. results in a process of unfolding.
d. results in inability to perform its function.
____ 68. Nucleic acids are responsible for

a. organizing the structure of the nuclear membrane.
b. coding the amino acid sequence of proteins.
c. forming fibres that hold the cell together.
d. storing energy for a cell.
e. rapid energy release in a cell.
____ 69. Nucleic acids are polymers made of

a. monosaccharides.
b. glycerides.
c. amino acids.
d. nucleotides.
e. None of the above.
____ 70. A nucleotide consists of a nitrogenous base and

a. a phosphate group and a fatty acid.
b. a fatty acid and a sugar.
c. an amino acid and a sugar.
d. a phosphate group and a sugar.
e. an amino acid and a phosphate group.
____ 71. Nucleotides consist of a phosphate group, a nitrogenous base and a

a. four carbon sugar.
b. five carbon sugar.
c. six carbon sugar.
d. disaccharide.
e. polysaccharide.
____ 72. DNA codes for proteins with the assistance of

a. glyceride helpers.
b. different RNA molecules.
c. molecular chaperones.
d. phospholipids.
e. the hydrogenation process.
____ 73. Which of these nitrogenous bases does NOT form part of a DNA molecule?
a. adenine
b. cytosine
c. guanine
d. thymine
e. uracil
____ 74. The nucleotides in one strand of DNA are connected to each other by
a. a peptide bond.
b. an ester linkage.
c. a phosphodiester bond.
d. a glycosidic linkage.
e. a hydrogen bond.
____ 75. How do the bases of opposite DNA strands connect?

a. A-C; G-T
b. C-G; T-U
c. A-C; G-U
d. A-T: C-G
e. C-U; G-T
____ 76. RNA is different from DNA. RNA

a. is usually a single strand.
b. has a ribose-phosphate backbone.
c. does not have thymine as a nitrogenous base.
d. is not helical.
____ 77. An acid

a. increases the concentration of H+ ions in water.
b. loses electrons in water.
c. transfers electrons to water molecules.
d. maintains optimum pH ranges.
e. raises the pH level of an aqueous solution.
____ 78. A base

a. produces OH- ions from an aqueous solution.
b. minimizes changes in pH in a solution.
c. is negatively charged.
d. gains electrons from an aqueous solution.
e. transfers protons between water molecules.
____ 79. A neutral solution has a pH of

a. 2
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
e. 8
____ 80. Carbon dioxide dissolved in water produces

a. carboxylation.
b. carboxyl.
c. carbonyl ions.
d. carbonic acid.
e. carbonoic acid.
____ 81. A neutralization reaction produces

a. salt.
b. water.
c. pH 7.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 82. Oxidation reduction reactions involve

a. the transfer of H+ ions.
b. the transfer of electrons.
c. the transfer of protons.
d. the movement of charge on a large ion.
____ 83. Combustion is best described as

a. an oxidation reaction.
b. a hydrolysis reaction.
c. a redox reaction.
d. a neutralization reaction.
e. a condensation reaction.
____ 84. Condensation reactions involve

a. production of salt and water.
b. synthesis of bonds.
c. the breaking of water.
d. decomposition of a large molecule.
e. evaporation of water in an aqueous solution.
____ 85. A large polymer is broken down into monomers by the process of
a. neutralization.
b. dissociation.
c. oxidation-reduction.
d. condensation.
e. hydrolysis.
____ 86. Condensation reactions involve producing and removing water

a. by evaporation.
b. through neutralization of acids and bases.
c. by combustion.
d. from a molecule.
e. from two different functional groups.
____ 87. Activation energy is the energy

a. move molecules together.
b. lost to the environment.
c. required to start a reaction.
d. released by a reaction.
e. available to do work.
____ 88. A catalyst acts to

a. increase the rate of a reaction.
b. stop a reaction.
c. increase the activation energy.
d. decrease temperature.
e. increase temperature.
____ 89. Catalysts interact with a substrate at

a. the active site.
b. the allosteric site.
c. P site.
d. A site.
e. the reaction centre.
____ 90. A catalyst lowers the activation energy by

a. reducing the overall temperature.
b. destabilizing bonds in the substrate.
c. changing the order of amino acids.

d. adding energy to the substrate.
____ 91. Which of these examples is not a monomer?

a. monosaccharide
b. nucleic acid
c. amino acid
d. triglyceride
e. All of these are monomers
____ 92. A substrate is the

a. enzyme.
b. reactant.
c. product.
d. inhibitor.
e. isomer.
____ 93. Some biochemical reactions require a cofactor such as a

a. vitamin.
b. buffer.
c. organic ions.
d. metal ion.
e. carbohydrate.
____ 94. Metabolic reactions rely on catalysts made of

a. carbohydrate.
b. lipid.
c. protein.
d. nucleic acid.
e. buffer.
____ 95. Which of these factors does NOT affect the nature of a catalyst?
a. extreme temperature
b. high level of H+ ions
c. metal ions
d. concentration
e. high level of OH- ions
____ 96. Competitive inhibitors

a. act like the active site and take substrates away from the enzyme.
b. change the shape of the enxyme by binding at the allosteric site.
c. combine with substrate molecules.
d. combines with the active site of the enzyme.
____ 97. Feedback inhibition involves

a. competitive inhibitors.
b. noncompetitive inhibitors.
c. cofactors.
d. high concentrations of substrate.
e. low concentrations of enzyme.
____ 98. The cell membrane is made of mostly

a. jelly like cytosol.
b. phospholipids.
c. integral proteins.
d. cellulose.
e. chitin.
____ 99. In non-dividing cells, the DNA is found as

a. unfolded chromatin.
b. circling the inside of the nuclear membrane as a chromosphere.
c. circular plastids.
d. tightly folded chromosomes.
e. replicated chromatids.
Chapter 2
____ 1. Which description applies to the nucleoplasm?

a. a network of protein fibres
b. groups of proteins that make openings
c. two phospholipid bilayers
d. a thick fluid
e. space between two phospholipid layers
____ 2. Which description applies to the lumen?

d. a thick fluid
____ 3. Which description applies to the nuclear matrix?

d. a thick fluid
____ 4. Which description applies to the nuclear pore complexes?

d. a thick fluid
____ 5. Which description applies to the nuclear envelope?

d. a thick fluid
___ 6. Which statement does NOT apply to the endoplasmic reticulum?

a. are bound by a bilayer membrane
b. can be studded with ribosomes
c. can be ribsosome free
d. synthesize proteins or lipids
e. connect to the nuclear envelope
____ 7. The endomembrane system is responsible for

a. synthesize molecules
b. transport cell products
c. secrete materials formed
d. digestion of matter
e. all of the above
____ 8. The Golgi apparatus is responsible for

a. bringing substances into the cell.
b. fusing with the plasma membrane.
c. synthesizing lipids.
d. modification of lipids and proteins.
e. synthesizing proteins.
____ 9. The secretory vesicle is responsible for

____ 10. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for

____ 11. The incoming vesicle is responsible for

____ 12. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for

____ 13. Which statement applies to the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

a. some membrane pinches off the trans side for transport
b. vesicles attach at the cis side of the membrane
c. carbohydrate chains are added to proteins.
d. polypeptides are produced and extruded into the lumen.
____ 14. The cis face of the Golgi body is

a. the exit face.
b. the entry face.
c. the location for ribosomes.
d. a place for carbohydrate production.
e. the location for glycoproteins.
____ 15. The lysosome

a. is a vesicle for food.
b. contains oxidase enzymes.
c. adds carbohydrate chains to proteins.
d. has ribosomes for making proteins.
e. has a pH of about 5.
____ 16. The peroxisome

____ 17. The Golgi apparatus

____ 18. The rough endoplasmic reticulum

____ 19. The cell membrane pinches off a piece that

____ 20. Plant cells have a central vacuole, while animal cells store matter in
a. smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
b. nucleosomes.
c. centrosomes.
d. many small vesicles.
e. lysosomes.
____ 21. The plant vacuole

a. is a large vesicle.
b. stores water.
c. contains enzymes.
d. determines the internal pressure of the cell.
e. All of these.
____ 22. The enzymes in the peroxisome do many tasks. Which of these statements does NOT
apply to peroxisome enzymes.They
a. hydrolyze molecules into smaller parts.
b. break molecules through redox reactions.
c. break down toxic substances into safer molecules.
d. can synthesize molecules like cholesterol.
e. can produce hydrogen peroxide as an intermediate product.
____ 23. The chloroplast is responsible for photosynthesis. Which of these terms does NOT apply
to the chloroplast structure?
a. stroma
b. matrix
c. thylakoid
d. grana
e. inner membrane
____ 24. The mitochondrion is involved in breaking down energy rich molecules. Which term does
NOT apply to the mitochondrion?
a. matrix
b. cristae
c. DNA
d. stroma
e. inner membrane
____ 25. Which structure is unique to the chloroplast?
a. inner membrane
b. outer membrane
c. thylakoid
d. DNA
e. fluid filled space
____ 26. Which structure is unique to the mitochondrion?

a. inner membrane
b. outer membrane
c. cristae
d. DNA
e. fluid filled space
____ 27. The cell wall is found with

a. plant cells.
b. fungi cells.
c. many protist cells.
d. All of the above.
____ 28. The cytoskeleton consists of many parts, but NOT

a. intermediate filaments.
b. microtubules.
c. polysaccharides.
d. a network of protein fibres.
e. microfilaments.
____ 29. This part of the cytoskeleton forms spindle fibres

b. microtubules.
c. polysaccharides.
e. microfilaments.
____ 30. This part of the cytoskeleton is responsible for muscle contraction
b. microtubules.
c. polysaccharides.
e. microfilaments.
____ 31. This part of the cytoskeleton is responsible for maintaining cell shape
b. microtubules.
c. polysaccharides.
e. microfilaments.
____ 32. This part of the cytoskeleton is responsible for creating the internal scaffold of the
nucleus
b. microtubules.
c. polysaccharides.
e. microfilaments.
____ 33. The cell membrane consists of

a. phospholipids.
b. glycoproteins.
c. glycolipids.
d. carbohydrate chains.
____ 34. The role of the phospholipid is to

a. create a barrier.
b. allow ions into the cell.
c. maintain fluidity at low temperatures.
d. recognize a cell as safe.
____ 35. The role of the carbohydrate chain is to

____ 36. The role of the integral protein is to

____ 37. The role of cholesterol is to

____ 38. Proteins have many functions in the cell membrane. Which function is NOT related to a
protein?
a. transport
b. membrane fluidity
c. reaction catalyst
d. signal reception
e. transduction
____ 39. Active transport is associated with

a. the phospholipid bilayer.
b. integral proteins
c. glycoproteins.
d. carbohydrate chains.
e. cholesterol.
____ 40. Passive transport relies on a gradient of

a. concentration.
b. energy.
c. polarity.
d. charge.
____ 41. The hydrophobic interior of the cell membrane is created by

a. periperal proteins.
b. phospholipid heads.
c. integral proteins.
d. glycoproteins.
e. phospholipid tails.
____ 42. The hydrophobic interior of the lipid bilayer is largely responsible for controlling the
movement of
a. small non-polar molecules.
b. sodium ions.
c. carbon dioxide.
d. oxygen.
e. water.
____ 43. Factors that affect the rate of diffusion include all of these but NOT molecule
a. size.
b. polarity.
c. charge
d. isomer.
e. concentration.
____ 44. Osmosis describes the movement of water across

a. a permeable membrane.
b. an impermeable membrane.
c. a semi-permeable membrane.
d. a living membrane.
e. a salt gradient.
____ 45. Osmosis, the diffusion of water is distinct from the diffusion of oxygen because
a. water is a solvent.
b. water is non-polar.
c. water is a large molecule.
d. oxygen is a dissolved gas.
e. oxygen is highly polar.
____ 46. Diffusion stops when

a. all of the material enters the cell.
b. the concentration gradient is largest.
c. there are equal amounts on both sides of the membrane.
d. all the cell’s energy is used up.
____ 47. A hypertonic solution outside a cell allows

a. net water loss to the cell.
b. net water gain to the cell.
c. water to leave and enter at the same rate.
d. the membrane to expand and break.
e. the loss of ions from the cell.
____ 48. A hypotonic solution outside a cell allows

d. the membrane to shrink and break.
____ 49. An isotonic solution outside a cell allows

d. the membrane to shrink and break.
____ 50. Animal cells are most likely to experience damage from
a. an aqueous solution.
b. an isotonic solution.
c. a hypotonic solution.
d. a hypertonic solution.
e. None of these.
____ 51. Plant cells are most likely to experience damage from
a. an aqueous solution.
c. a hypotonic solution.
d. a hypertonic solution.
e. None of these.
____ 52. Facilitated diffusion is different from normal diffusion because

a. there is no concentration gradient.
b. molecules are small.
c. proteins act as helpers.
d. water is transported.
e. energy is used.
____ 53. Which of these molecules requires a protein channel to enter the cell?
a. carbon dioxide
b. cholesterol
c. water
d. oxygen
e. potassium ion
____ 54. Which of these molecules requires a carrier protein to enter the cell?
a. glucose
b. oxygen
c. carbon dioxide
d. chloride ion
e. water
____ 55. Energy is required to transport molecules

a. if they are charged, like chloride ions.
b. against the concentration gradient.
c. if they are large, like amino acids.
d. dissolved gases needed for respiration.
e. water when it is needed for photosynthesis.
____ 56. Which process is most affected by the genetic disorder Cystic Fibrosis?
a. movement of chloride ions through channels
b. osmosis
c. facilitated diffusion of amino acids.
d. production of digestive enzymes in the lysosome.
e. active transport of sodium ions
____ 57. Cystic fibrosis usually results in chloride channels that do not work properly. This leads
to many conditions, but NOT
a. isotonic conditions.
b. a high concentration of chloride ions outside the cell.
c. imbalance to water levels in cells.
d. excessive salt in secreted sweat.
e. a mucus build up on the outside of the cell membrane.
____ 58. How do carrier proteins work for facilitated diffusion? Carrier proteins
a. has a tubular shape.
b. work with the concentration gradient.
c. are peripheral proteins.
d. require energy to change shape.
e. change shape when inn contact with the target molecule.
____ 59. Glut 1 is the name of
a. the protein channel for glutamine.
c. an enzyme that allows galactose to change shape to form glucose.
d. a carrier protein for glucose.
e. the active site of a catalyst.
____ 60. Diffusion is slowest for

a. water moving across the phospholipid bilayer..
b. ions moving through ion channels.
c. dissolved gases.
d. amino acids moving through a protein carrier.
e. ions moving through a pump.
____ 61. Cystinurea is a hereditary disorder that results in

a. black urine.
b. impaired glucose carrier proteins.
c. lower concentrations of oxygen.
d. blocked chloride channels.
e. cystine crystals that form stones.
____ 62. What factor is most important to the movement of molecules across a particular protein
channel?
a. concentration
b. shape and size
c. hormonal signals.
d. electric charge
e. polarity.
____ 63. The movement of particles across channel proteins stops when
a. energy is used up.
b. ions are present.
c. other solutes are more concentrated.
d. the cell is in an isotonic solution.
e. gates close.
____ 64. Both carrier proteins and channel proteins

a. are part of active transport.
b. helical in shape.
c. have an exterior of non-polar amino acids.
d. have gates that can stop diffusion.
e. bind with the transported molecule.
____ 65. Active transport is different from passive transport because

a. no additional energy is required.
b. molecules move from low concentration to high concentration.
c. ions are involved.
d. proteins are involved.
e. water is moved across the membrane.
____ 66. Why is energy required for active transport?

a. molecules are large.
b. water is highly concentrated.
c. molecules are charged,
d. molecules are to high concentration.
e. toxins might kill the cell.
____ 67. ATP consists of phosphates and

a. adenine.
b. adenosine.
c. actin filaments.
d. adipose droplets.
e. alpha glucose.
____ 68. ATP releases energy during a

a. neutralization reaction.
b. reduction reaction.
c. condensation reaction.
d. oxidation reaction.
e. hydrolysis reaction.
____ 69. What other reactant does ATP require to releases energy and one phosphate group?
a. thymine.
b. chloride ions.
c. urea.
d. water.
e. carbon dioxide.
__b__ 70. Which of these represents an example of primary active transport with ATP?
a. chloride channel
b. sodium pump
c. glucose protein Glut 1
d. potassium gate
e. osmosis
____ 71. The sodium pump requires ATP and

a. potassium.
b. chloride.
c. glucose.
d. cholesterol.
e. oxygen.
____ 72. How is potassium important to the sodium pump? Potassium

a. maintains water concentration.
b. binds with the protein so it can return to the active shape.
c. attracts sodium out of the protein pump surface.
d. catalyzes ATP to release energy.
e. is not important to the sodium pump.
____ 73. If three sodium ions are pumped out of the cell, then
a. three chloride ions enter.
b. two chloride ions exit.
c. three potassium ions enter.
d. two potassium ions enter.
e. no further change is required.
____ 74. When potassium ions attach to the sodium pump

a. ATP is produced.
b. the phosphate group is released.
c. sodium ions are released.
d. ATP releases a phosphate group.
e. ADP removes a phosphate group.
____ 75. An electrochemical gradient is formed if

a. ions move across a membrane.
b. ion concentration changes on one side of a membrane.
c. energy is released.
d. salts are produced.
e. ATP ®ADP + Pi
____ 76. Hydrogen ions help to move

a. sucrose
b. glucose
c. adenine
d. cytosine
e. galactose
____ 77. A high concentration of hydrogen ions results in

a. thick mucus.
b. an electrochemical gradient.
c. buffers.
d. an explosion.
e. a weak acid.
____ 78. What is the source of energy for secondary active transport?
a. hydrolyzed glucose
b. cytoskeletal movement
c. an electrochemical gradient
d. hydrlyzed ATP
e. a phosphate ion donated by ATP
____ 79. What is the source of energy for primary active transport?
a. hydrolyzed glucose
b. cytoskeletal movement
c. an electrochemical gradient
d. hydrolyzed ATP
e. a phosphate ion donated by ATP
____ 80. The sodium pump moves sodium ions

a. to the cytosol.
b. to the intracellular environment.
c. to the extracellular environment.
d. into the intermembrane space.
e. into the intramembrane region.
____ 81. Membrane lipids are held together by
a. ionic bonds.
b. polar covalent bonds.
c. covalent bonds.
d. intermolecular forces.
e. hydrogen attraction.
____ 82. Endocytosis is often associated with the

a. secretion of hormones.
b. removal of ions from a cell.
c. transduction of a hormone.
d. creation of vesicles by the ER.
e. movement of food into a cell.
____ 83. Endocytosis results in the production of

a. a vesicle with a single membrane.
b. an organelle with enzymes.
c. a vesicle with a double membrane.
d. lipids for the plasma membrane.
e. fibres for transporting organelles.
____ 84. How is pinocytosis similar to phagocytosis? Both processes

a. collect large particles like bacteria.
b. destroy viruses.
c. fold the cell membrane around matter.
d. involve ion pumps.
e. require a concentration gradient.
____ 85. Receptor mediated endocytosis requires the presence of

a. protein channels to mediate the activity of the receptors.
b. carrier proteins that move molecules across the membrane into the cytosol.
c. primary active transport pumps.
d. concentrated ions for secondary active transport.
e. specialized proteins on the membrane surface.
____ 86. A coated pit is the name of

a. a chloride channel covered with mucus.
b. gated potassium channels.
c. the receptor site of a carrier protein.
d. the active site of a membrane catalyst.
e. an area rich with receptor proteins.
____ 87. The sodium pump will stop if

a. there are too many sodium ions.
b. water is highly concentrated inside the cell.
c. ATP is hydrolyzed.
d. no potassium ions are available.
e. hydrogen ions are pumped into the extracellular fluid.
____ 88. Exocytosis involves all of these steps but NOT
a. secretion of materials like a hormone.
b. vesicle fusion with the cell membrane.
c. movement of large particles.
d. excretion of waste material from the cytoplasm.
e. receptor proteins that pull in particles.
____ 89. Pinocytosis is a form of membrane-assisted transport. This process requires

a. a concentration gradient.
b. folding the cell membrane.
c. solutes.
d. energy.
e. bilipid membrane vesicles.
____ 90. A cell membrane with no proteins will still show which process?
a. active transport
b. transduction
c. facilitated diffusion
d. osmosis
e. receptor-mediated endocytosis
____ 91. Which of these molecules is most likely to pass through the phospholipid bilayer without
protein assistance?
a. glucose
b. methane
c. triglyeride
d. ribose
e. ATP
____ 92. The human immune system includes a number of specialized cells. Suggest the activity of
the macrophage based on your understanding of cell processes. The macrophage
a. produces large antibody proteins.
b. engulfs and digests bacteria and other pathogens.
c. digests toxins created by the cell.
d. uses pinocytosis to drink solutes.
e. has specific receptor proteins that allow the capture of antigens.
Chapter 5
____ 1. Chromosomes are made up of two types of macromolecules: nucleic acids and
a. carbohydrates.
b. lipids.
c. proteins.
d. phosphates.
e. reaction centres.
____ 2. Griffith’s transforming principle is best described by which statement?

a. Using enzymes to destroy protein, only chromosomal DNA could transform living
bacteria.
b. Radioactive phosphorus traced the activity of viral DNA to show that this was injected
into cells.
c. DNA made with a heavy isotope of nitrogen was replicated in a medium with the light
isotope of nitrogen.
d. Something present in heat killed bacteria could transform different, living bacteria.
e. All DNA exists in a specific ratio, so that the amount of adenine is equal to the amount
of thymine.
____ 3. Avery, McLeod and McCarty showed that DNA was responsible for transforming
bacteria. This is best described by which statement?
bacteria.
into cells.
of thymine.
____ 4. Hershey and Chase determined that DNA is the genetic material. This is best described
by which statement?
bacteria.
into cells.
of thymine.
____ 5. Meselson and Stahl found that DNA replication is semi-conservative. This is best
described by which statement?
bacteria.
into cells.
of thymine.
____ 6. Chargaff’s Rule is best described by which statement?

bacteria.
into cells.
of thymine.
____ 7. When selecting to use isotopes to distinguish protein from DNA, which element is best
selected to trace DNA?
a. phosphorus.
b. oxygen.
c. nitrogen.
d. sulfur.
e. carbon.
____ 8. When selecting to use isotopes to distinguish protein from DNA, which element is best
selected to trace protein?
a. phosphorus.
b. oxygen.
c. nitrogen.
d. sulfur.
e. carbon.
____ 9. When selecting to use isotopes to distinguish new DNA from old DNA, which element is
best selected to trace old DNA?
a. phosphorus.
b. oxygen.
c. nitrogen.
d. sulfur.
e. carbon.
____ 10. Which of these components is unique to DNA (rather than RNA)?
a. adenine
b. thymine
c. uracil
d. guanine
e. cytosine
____ 11. Which of these components is unique to RNA (rather than DNA)?
a. adenine
b. thymine
c. uracil
d. guanine
e. cytosine
____ 12. A nucleotide consists of

a. a phosphate.
b. a simple sugar.
c. a nitrogenous base.
d. All of these.
e. None of these
____ 13. Which of these is a purine?

a. deoxyribose
b. guanine
c. phosphate
d. alanine
e. pyrimidine
____ 14. Which of these is a pyrimidine?

a. deoxyribose
b. cytosine
c. phosphate
d. alanine
e. adenine.
____ 15. Which of these is a purine?

a. allosteric.
b. aldosterone.
c. adenosine
d. alanine
e. adenine.
____ 16. Guanine and cytosine bind together with

a. two hydrogen bonds.
b. three hydrogen bonds.
c. condensation reactions.
d. hydrolase links.
e. All of these.
____ 17. How is DNA different from RNA?

a. DNA has 5 nitrogenous bases.
b. The sugar has OH attached at the number 2 carbon.
c. DNA is a single strand.
d. RNA has 5 nitrogenous bases.
e. The sugar has H attached at the number 2 carbon.
____ 18. How is RNA different from DNA?

a. DNA has 5 nitrogenous bases.
b. The sugar has OH attached at the number 2 carbon.
c. DNA is a single strand.
d. RNA has 5 nitrogenous bases.
e. The sugar has H attached at the number 2 carbon.
____ 19. Franklin’s use of X-ray diffraction determined a key characteristic of DNA. Which
statement best reflects this?
a. DNA has a definite helical structure with nitrogenous bases toward the middle.
b. Using known distances and bond angles, DNA is shown to have a helical structure.
c. The three-dimensional structure of DNA shows A-T and C-G connections.
d. DNA is a polymer of nucleotides that differ by nitrogenous base: adenine, guanine,
thymine and cytosine co
e. Hydrogen bonding connects one side of the DNA helix to the other side.
____ 20. Pauling determined a key characteristic of DNA. Which statement best reflects this?
____ 21. Levene determined a key characteristic of DNA. Which statement best reflects this?
____ 22. Watson and Crick determined a key characteristic of DNA. Which statement best reflects
this?
____ 23. Which term best describes the basic unit of heredity?
a. genome.
b. gene.
c. supercoiling.
d. plasmid.
e. nucleoid.
____ 24. Which term best describes the compacting of DNA?

a. genome.
b. gene.
c. supercoiling.
d. plasmid.
e. nucleoid.
____ 25. Which term best describes the region of a bacterial cell where DNA is found?
a. genome.
b. gene.
c. supercoiling.
d. plasmid.
e. nucleoid.
____ 26. Which term best describes the circular DNA fragment in bacteria?
a. genome.
b. gene.
c. supercoiling.
d. plasmid.
e. nucleoid.
____ 27. Which term best describes the total DNA sequence of an organism?
a. genome.
b. gene.
c. supercoiling.
d. plasmid.
e. nucleoid.
____ 28. Nucleotides are combined together

a. by hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases.
b. in a continuous circle.
c. by sugar-phosphate bonds.
d. ongoing oxidation-reduction reactions.
e. by twisted pairs.
____ 29. Thymine and adenine bind together with

a. two hydrogen bonds.
b. three hydrogren bonds.
c. condensation reactions.
d. hydrolase links.
e. All of these.
____ 30. The two strands of DNA are antiparallel. That means
a. one complete turn has 5 base pairs.
b. blue spheres are oriented away from red and white spheres.
c. phosphates bind to sugar.
d. each strand has a different direction.
e. the nucleotides are complementary.
____ 31. Supercoiling of bacterial DNA depends on the action of

a. hydrophobic and hydrophilic forces.
b. topoisomerase I and topoisomerase II.
c. plasmid folding.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 32. DNA of Eukaryotic cells has

a. a nucleosome structure.
b. histone proteins.
c. long intertwined strands called chromatin.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 33. DNA replication takes place

a. during G1.
b. during S phase.
c. during G2.
d. during prophase of mitosis.
e. during telokinesis after mitosis.
____ 34. DNA replication is semi-conservative. This means that

a. all daughter strands include an original strand.
b. the first half of the new DNA double strand is old.
c. the second half of the new DNA double strand is old.
d. some of the new DNA strand has pieces of old DNA.
e. the parent strand is intact and the daughter strand is new.
____ 35. When centrifuging replicated DNA, Meselson and Stahl knew that
a. replicated nucleotides always go to the top.
b. replicated strands with heavy N isotopes move to the bottom.
c. replicated strands with some heavy N isotopes move to the middle.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 36. DNA replication is

a. conservative.
b. semi-conservative.
c. dispersive.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 37. There are three basic steps to DNA replication. The first one is
a. step one.
b. starting off.
c. startup.
d. inactivation.
e. initiation.
____ 38. There are three basic steps to replication, the second step is
a. growing.
b. moving along.
c. elongation.
d. expanding.
e. reinforming.
____ 39. There are three basic steps to DNA replication. The third step is
a. dispersal.
b. termination.
c. separation
d. letting go.
e. completion.
____ 40. What is the first action in DNA replication?

a. DNA unwinds.
b. hydrogen bonds connect new nucleotides to the old strand.
c. Okazaki fragments are removed.
d. introns are removed.
e. histones are deactivated.
____ 41. The replication fork is the location of the enzyme that
a. adds O to deoxyribose to start.
b. catalyzes the reaction between the old and new nucleotides.
c. moves new nucleotides into place.
d. splits the strands into two parts.
e. connects Okazaki fragments together.
____ 42. Topoisomerase II helps replication by

a. stabilizing newly unwound DNA strands.
b. providing energy to the helicase enzyme.
c. combining nucleotides to the exposed strand
d. breaking the H bonds between complementary base pairs.
e. reducing the stress caused by the unwinding DNA.
____ 43. Single-strand-binding proteins help replication by

____ 44. Helicase help replication by

____ 45. DNA polymerase III help replication by

c. combining nucleotides to the exposed strand.
____ 46. Okazaki fragments form on the

a. lagging strand.
b. leading strand.
c. replication fork.
d. RNA primer.
e. termination sequence.
____ 47. DNA polymerase III adds a nucleotide to the

a. lagging strand.
b. leading strand.
c. 3’ end of the strand.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 48. The lagging strand is called this because

a. it forms after the leading strand is done.
b. nucleotides are added away from the replication fork.
c. the origin of replication must move.
d. it is a natural consequence to semi-conservative replication.
e. the nucleotides have to be flipped to fit.
____ 49. The Okazaki fragment is formed

a. near the replication fork.
b. on the lagging strand.
c. in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 50. The RNA primer is used to

a. removes improper nucleotides.
b. activate the hydrogen bonds between nucleotides.
c. rewinds the completed nucleotide.
d. binds Okazaki fragments together.
e. act as a starting point for nucleotide addition.
____ 51. The DNA ligase is used to
a. removes improper nucleotides.
b. activate the hydrogen bonds between nucleotides.
c. rewinds the completed nucleotide.
d. binds Okazaki fragments together.
e. act as a starting point for nucleotide addition.
____ 52. Lagging strand synthesis requires all of these EXCEPT

a. RNA primers.
b. DNA polymerase I.
c. DNA polymerase II.
d. DNA polymerase III.
e. DNA ligase.
____ 53. At DNA replication termination,

a. DNA polymerase III fills the gaps.
b. DNA ligase connects Okazaki fragments together.
c. helicase starts to move in the opposite direction.
d. open DNA strands start new replication.
e. the replication machine is dismantled.
____ 54. DNA polymerase II is responsible for

a. starting replication.
b. catalyzes the new H bond in the replicated strand.
c. removes the RNA primer.
d. helps to proofread the new strand.
e. ending replication.
____ 55. A possible mistake in replication is

a. a permanent DNA-altering mutation.
b. mispairing between a new nucleotide and a template nucleotide.
c. strand slippage that leads to a deletion.
d. strand slippage that creates an addition.
e. All of these.
____ 56. DNA repair includes

a. combining fragments.
b. removing introns.
c. mismatch repair.
d. splicing exons.
e. All of these.
____ 57. A telomere is

a. the enzyme that terminates replicaton.
b. a repetitive end of a chromosome.
c. responsible for elongation.
d. another name for the circular chromosome in bacteria.
e. None of these.
____ 58. The telomere is a distinct feature of eukaryotic DNA because

a. eukaryotic DNA is linear.
b. bacterial DNA is not in a nucleus.
c. more than one origin of replication is found.
d. this is the place where histones start.
e. All of these.
____ 59. Telomerase is responsible for

a. removing telomeres from replicated strands.
b. replacing lost nucleotides to a telomere.
c. reading the telomere nucleotides.
d. adding a nucleotide to a single stranded telomere.
e. None of these.
____ 60. Prokaryotes replicate at a faster rate than eukaryotes, at about a rate of
a. 10 000 nucleotides per second.
b. 40 nucleotides per second.
c. 400 nucleotides per second.
d. 1000 nucleotides per second
e. 100 nucleotides per second.
____ 61. Eukaryotes replicate at a slower rate than eukaryotes, at about a rate of
a. 10 000 nucleotides per second.
b. 40 nucleotides per second.
c. 400 nucleotides per second.
d. 1000 nucleotides per second
e. 100 nucleotides per second.
____ 62. Making a new strand of DNA is called

a. duplication.
b. copying.
c. replication.
d. titration.
e. substitution.
____ 63. Who determined that replication is semi-conservative?

a. Levene.
b. Meselson and Stahl.
c. Hershey and Chase.
d. Franklin.
e. Watson and Crick.
_c___ 64. Who determined that DNA is responsible for transforming bacteria?
a. Levene.
d. Franklin.
____ 65. Who determined that DNA is helical?

a. Levene.
d. Franklin.
____ 66. Who determined the structure of DNA?

a. Levene.
d. Franklin.
____ 67. Who determined that there are two forms of nucleic acids?
a. Levene.
d. Franklin.
____ 68. Heavy isotopes of atoms were key to which DNA discovery?
a. Levene
b. Watson and Crick
c. Pauling
d. Meselson and Stahl.
e. Franklin.
____ 69. During elongation

a. Okazaki fragments are formed.
b. helicase unwinds the DNA.
c. mismatched pairs are corrected.
d. DNA molecules separate.
e. oxygen is removed from ribose.
____ 70. During initiation

____ 71. During termination

____ 72. After replication

____ 73. A replication bubble consists of

a. completed DNA strands.
b. excised errors.
c. telomeres.
d. plasmid copies.
e. an area of replication on DNA.
____ 74. The end of eukaryote chromosomes are called

b. excised errors.
c. telomeres.
d. plasmid copies.
____ 75. After termination there are two

b. excised errors.
c. telomeres.
d. plasmid copies.
____ 76. Prokaryotes may include

b. excised errors.
c. telomeres.
d. plasmid copies.
____ 77. What is the direction of elongation?

a. 5’ to 3’
b. telomere to telomere
c. 3’ to 5’
d. centromere to telomere
e. None of these.
____ 78. Centrifugation separates material by

a. charge.
b. density.
c. electronegativity.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 79. Griffith’s experiment involved making dangerous bacteria safe with
a. radioactive isotopes.
b. heat.
c. enzyme action.
d. poison.
e. a centrifuge.
____ 80. What bacteria was used by Griffith for his experiment?
a. Caenorhabditis elegans
b. Echerichia coli
c. Oryza sativa
d. Protopterus aethiopicus
e. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Chapter 6
____ 1. What is the characteristic feature of a patient with alcaptonuria?
a. Poor muscle tone.
b. Skin sores.
c. Urine turns black in air.
d. Short stature.
e. All of these.
____ 2. Beadle and Tatum worked with Neurospora crassa, a
a. Brewer’s yeast.
b. bacterium.
c. bread mold.
d. fruit fly.
e. small worm.
____ 3. Tatum and Beadle mutated their wild variety of mold using
a. Gamma-Rays.
b. radioactive isotopes.
c. teratogenic chemicals.
d. Arsenic.
e. X-rays.
____ 4. What protein did Sanger study?
a. insulin.
b. hemoglobin.
c. cytochrome c.
d. ubiquitin.
e. adamantine.
____ 5. In eukaryotes, the genes responsible for protein production are located in
a. some endoplasmic reticulum.
b. the nuceolus.
c. a nucleoid region.
d. the nucleus.
e. the lysosome.
____ 6. DNA, which is responsible for the code that makes proteins is in the nucleus, but protein
production is found
a. outside the cell.
b. in the Golgi apparatus.
c. in the cytosol.
d. near the cell membrane.
e. in the nucleolus.
____ 7. Jacob and Monod worked with
a. bread mold.
b. bacteria.
c. fruit flies.
d. zebra fish.
e. small worms.
____ 8. Jacob and Monod hypothesized the existence of
a. ribosomal RNA.
b. transposons.
c. retroviruses.
d. messenger RNA.
e. sticky ends.
____ 9. The genetic code is
a. a set of rules.
b. a mechanism for stabilizing DNA.
c. the genetic reader.
d. a codon combination.
e. an infection.
____ 10. The triplet hypothesis described how three
a. different RNAs were involved.
b. enzymes started the process.
c. steps were required to make protein.
d. ways are needed for bacteria, plants and animals.
e. nucleotides code for an amino acid.
____ 11. Crick and Brennet confirmed the triplet hypothesis by using
a. bacteriophage viruses.
b. yeast
c. bread mold.
d. E. coli.
e. Drosophila.
____ 12. What was the key action that supported the triplet hypothesis?
a. The study of corn found that some DNA sequences can exchange places between chromosomes.
b. Viral RNA were tagged with heavy isotopes to trace the activity.
c. Adding one nucleotide of viral DNA resulted in no protein produced.
d. Nutrient poor culture medium promoted some varieties but not others.
e. E. coli can make enzymes to digest lactose when lactose is present.
____ 13. What was the key action that supported the one-gene/one-enzyme hypothesis?
a. The study of corn found that some DNA sequences can exchange places between chromosomes.
b. Viral RNA were tagged with heavy isotopes to trace the activity.
c. Adding one nucleotide of viral DNA resulted in no protein produced.

d. Nutrient poor culture medium promoted some varieties but not others.
e. E. coli can make enzymes to digest lactose when lactose is present.
____ 14. The genetic code interprets nucleotides
a. from left to right.
b. in groups of three.
c. starting from TTT.
d. in pairs.
e. that are inverted.
____ 15. Which of these codons is the START codon?
a. CGC
b. CGU
c. AUG
d. UGA
e. UGG
____ 16. Which of these codons does NOT code for start or stop?
a. UAG
b. UGA
c. UGG
d. AUG
e. UAA
____ 17. Which of these statements is NOT part of the genetic code? The genetic code is
a. the same for almost all organisms.
b. continuous.
c. redundant.
d. more rapid in bigger cells.
e. nearly universal.
____ 18. Gene expression refers to
a. information flow to make protein.
b. viral DNA added to a genome.
c. the process of modifying genes.
d. transfer of viral DNA to the host.
e. elimination of nucleotide errors.
____ 19. Gene expression follows which path?
a. transcription - translation
b. DNA - protein
c. translation - transcription
d. protein - DNA
e. RNA - DNA
____ 20. Which process best describes the process of transcription?
a. Outside the nucleus, mRNA collects the tRNA amino acids.
b. DNA strands open and both strands are copied by mRNA.
c. Ribosomes read the DNA to make copies of tRNA to make protein.2
d. A DNA strand is read and the sugar is replace to make it mRNA.
e. DNA strands open and one strand is copied by mRNA.
____ 21. How is DNA similar to RNA? They
a. have the same sugar.
b. have the same purines.
c. have the sam pyrimidines.
d. have phosphates.
e. have equal lengths.
____ 22. What is the role of mRNA?
a. involved in modification of mRNA molecules.

b. the template of translation.
c. involved in the translation of mRNA.
d. involved in regulating gene expression.
e. an enzyme combined with RNA.
____ 23. What is the role of tRNA?
____ 24. What is the role of RNaseP?
____ 25. What is the role of snRNA?
____ 26. Transcription starts with initiation on the
a. antisense strand.
b. sense strand.
c. start codon.
d. polymerase complex.
e. enhancer site.
____ 27. The promoter region in E. coli is the location
a. where RNA polymerase binds.
b. where two promoter regions are located.
c. of a start signal.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 28. The elongation of transcription involves
a. replacing T with U on the sense strand.
b. removing untranscribed nucleotides.
c. minimizing sequence repetition.
d. RNA polymerase joins the antisense strand to join RNA nucleotides.
e. All of these.
____ 29. At termination during transcription,
a. RNA polymerase proofreads the new strand.
b. another RNA polymerase starts a new strand copy.
c. the new mRNA strand is released.
d. the promoter sequence dismantles to attach at another spot.
e. All of these.
____ 30. Eukaryotic transcription
a. is the same as prokaryotic.
b. copies the sense strand instead of the antisense strand.
c. involves the addition of a cap.
d. includes proofreading.
e. is repeated multiple times to prepare the mRNA to exit the nucleus.

____ 31. Removal of introns requires
a. a 5’ cap.
b. a poly-A tail.
c. topoisomerase II enzymes.
d. the action of snRNP.
e. curling to the enhancement site.
____ 32. Translation requires the involvement of
a. ribosomes.
b. amino acids.
c. tRNA.
d. mRNA.
e. All of these.
____ 33. The component mRNA
a. help at every step of producing a polypeptide.
b. composed of RNA and protein
c. determines the amino acid sequence.
d. contains an anitcodon.
e. modifies the message.
____ 34. The translation factors
____ 35. To connect to the message, tRNA

____ 36. The site of the process of location, ribosomes
b. are composed of RNA and protein
____ 37. Each tRNA has two functional regions, the anticodon loop and
a. an amino acid.
b. a transferase enzyme.
c. a poly-A tail.
d. acceptor stem.
e. attachment point.
____ 38. Where is the codon located?
a. On mRNA
b. On the rRNA.
c. On the tRNA.
d. On the snRNA.
e. On the miRNA.
____ 39. Where is the anticodon located?
a. On mRNA
b. On the rRNA.
c. On the tRNA.
d. On the snRNA.
e. On the miRNA.
____ 40. Translation occurs in multiple locations by a
a. complementary complex.
b. peptide zone.
c. multisome.
d. cleavosome.
e. polyribosome
____ 41. Building a tRNA ready for translation requires
a. translation loop.
b. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
c. anticodon enzymes.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 42. The small ribosomal sub-unit is responsible for
a. releases the amino acid to form peptide bonds.
b. attaching to mRNA.
c. the binding site for tRNA.
d. releasing the completed polypeptide.
e. organizing ribosomal proteins.
____ 43. Translation requires that mRNA be
a. correct.
b. single-stranded.
c. unstructured until tRNA arrives.
d. activated.
e. formed in a loop.
____ 44. Translation requires
a. energy.
b. amino acids.
c. ribosomes.
d. tRNA.
e. All of these.
____ 45. The reading frame is set by
a. a methionine derivative.
b. the assembly of initiation factors.
c. the initiation complex.
d. AUG.
e. methionine.
____ 46. In eukaryotic cells, the first amino acid is
d. AUG.
e. methionine.
__ 47. In prokaryotic cells, the first amino acid is
d. AUG.
e. methionine.
____ 48. During elongation, the tRNA enter at

a. the A site.
b. the P site.
c. the E site.
d. the assembly point.
e. the peptide loop.
____ 49. During elongation, the tRNA leave from
a. the A site.
b. the P site.
c. the E site.
____ 50. During elongation, tRNA detaches from the polypeptide chain when at
a. the A site.
b. the P site.
c. the E site.
____ 51. The amino acid attached to the tRNA is determined by
a. methionine.
b. the size of the tRNA.
c. the code of the stem loop.
d. the mRNA codon.
e. the initiation factor.
____ 52. How does the tRNA move from site to site in the ribosome?
a. ribosomal action factors.
b. mRNA moves forward one codong.

c. pulled by the polypeptide chain.
d. proton motive force.
e. letting go of the amino acid.
____ 53. What is required for termination?
a. The mRNA has a stop codon.
b. A release factor cuts the polypeptide free.
c. The translation machinery dismantle.s
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 54. Which amino acid is at the start of every eukaryotic polypeptide formed?
a. tyrosine.
b. tryptophan.
c. methionine.
d. aspargine.
e. alanine.
____ 55. Which of the following can result from a single-gene mutation?
a. point mutation.
b. nonsense mutation.
c. frameshift mutation.
d. silent mutation.
e. All of these.
____ 56. A mutation is a change in
a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. DNA
d. snRNA
e. All of these.
____ 57. A point mutation can involve
a. a deletion of a nucleotide.
b. an insertion of a nucleotide.
c. nucleotide substitution.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 58. The redundancy of the genetic code helps to explain
a. frameshift mutations.
b. missense mutations.
c. nonsense mutations.
d. silent mutations.
e. All of these.
____ 59. If a mutation changes the codon for tyrosine (UCC) to stop (UAG). The result is a
a. nonsense mutation.
b. frameshift mutation.
c. missense mutation.
d. silent mutation.
e. point mutation.
____ 60. A chromosomal mutation can involve all of these EXCEPT
a. deletion.
b. frameshift change.
c. reciprocal translocation.
d. inversion.
e. duplication.
____ 61. Which of these statements describe chromosomal inversion?

a. A new nucleotide causes the entire reading frame to be altered.
b. Loss of nucleotides from a break that does not re-form.
c. A section of a chromosome is broken and then re-inserted in the opposite direction.
d. A section of one chromosome breaks and fuses to another chromosome.
e. A segment is repeated multiple times.
____ 62. A mutagen is something that
a. can swap DNA segments between chromosomes.
b. increases the rate of changes to the DNA sequence.
c. an excision of combined thymines.
d. changes the reading frame of a chromosome.
e. All of these.
____ 63. An example of a physical mutagen is
a. heat.
b. cigarette smoke.
c. X rays.
d. boric acid.
e. excision enzymes.
____ 64. Gene expression results in
a. translation machinery.
b. excision of thymine dimers.
c. an organism’s phenotype.
d. transposons in chromosomes.
e. None of these.
____ 65. Gene regulation controls
a. the rate of tRNA activity.
b. activity or inactivity of a gene.

c. housekeeping genes.
d. at one level of activity.
e. All of these.
____ 66. Gene regulation in prokaryotes can occur
a. during transcription.
b. during translation.
c. after the protein is synthesis.
d. during initiation of transcription.
e. All of these.
____ 67. In a prokaryote, an operon is
a. the location of the constitutive genes.
b. a repressor protein.
c. an inactive codon sequence.
d. the region where transcription starts.
e. polycistronic mRNA.
____ 68. The lac operon is found in
a. E. coli.
b. corn.
c. sheep.
d. yeast.
e. all cells.
____ 69. The lac operon is activated by the presence of
a. lactose.
b. lactase.
c. lack of sugar.
d. galactose.
e. sugar enzymes.
____ 70. What is the role of lactose for the lac operon?
a. activator.
b. repressor.
c. co-repressor.
d. operator.
e. promoter.
____ 71. In E. coli, lactose causes
a. the promoter to start.
b. translation to start.
c. accelerated of translation.
d. the repressor to leave.
e. DNA transposition.
____ 72. The key molecule for the trp operon is
a. transcriptase.
b. triphosphate.
c. reverse transcriptase.
d. tryptophan.
e. tyrosine.
____ 73. The trp operon is active when tryptophan is
a. a polypeptide.
b. present.
c. combined with lactose.
d. absent.
e. a polymer.
____ 74. The trp operon contains how many genes related to the synthesis of tryptophan?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
____ 75. Unlike the trp operon, the lac operon is
a. a transposon.
b. an excision repair.
c. inversible.
d. repressible.
e. inducible.
____ 76. In addition to the 5 genes required for coding tryptophan, the trp operon includes
a. a promoter.
b. an operator.
c. a regulatory region.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.
____ 77. Allolactose is derived from lactose and affects the lac operon by
a. enhancing the ribosome enzyme.
b. binding on the promoter.
c. becoming an activator.
d. binding with the repressor.
e. releasing the activator.
____ 78. In eukaryotes, gene expression is regulated at every step EXCEPT
a. post-termination.
b. translation.
c. post-translation.
d. transcription.
e. pre-transcription.
____ 79. DNA in highly condensed areas of chromatin are
a. excised before transcription.
b. unable to bind to other proteins.
c. activated by enhancers.
d. transcribed by repressors.
e. induced by the presence of sterols.
____ 80. RNA polymerase will initiate transcription when
a. combined to multiple activators.
b. enhancers deactivate repressors.
c. transcriptoin factors interact with the promoter.
d. repressors are removed.
e. activators are present.

Chapter 8
____ 1. Blood plays an important role in thermoregulation. Which of the following statements
about thermoregulation is NOT correct?
a. Thermoregulation involves a balance between the production of heat and the loss of
heat.
b. The rate of heat loss is affected by the difference between temperature of skin and
external environment.
c. Internal conditions remain the same regardless of the external conditions.
d. Heat loss from surface of the body is slower when the temperature gradient is higher.
e. Heat loss from the body deceases as more blood passes through the skin.
____ 2. Which among the following body fluids play a major role in maintaining optimum body
temperature?
a. Blood
b. Lymph
c. Pericardial fluid
d. Cerebrospinal fluid
e. Urine
____ 3. In a neuron, the _____ receives signals from other neurons and the _____ transmits
signals to the next neuron or to an effector.
a. dendrite axon
b. axon dendrite
c. nucleus cytoplasm
d. cytoplasm nucleus
e. axon cell body
____ 4. At the place where one neuron transmits an impulse to another neuron there is a (an)
a. interneuron
b. node of Ranvier
c. cell body
d. synapse
e. Schwann cell
____ 5. A nerve impulse consists of a series of action potentials that involve the movement of
which of the following ions?
a. Sodium and potassium
b. Sodium and zinc
c. Sodium and phosphorus
d. Phosphorus and potassium
e. Phosphorus and zinc
____ 6. The cells which create the myelin sheath around an axon are
a. sensory nerve cells
b. motor nerve cells
c. Schwann cells
d. hair cells
e. nodes of Ranvier
__a__ 7. The grey matter of the brain consists of _____ neurons while the white matter of the brain
consists of _____ neurons. This statement is completed by the information in row
a. unmyelinated myelinated
b. unmyelinated unmyelinated
c. myelinated myelinated
d. myelinated unmyelinated
e. none of these
____ 8. Use the following information to answer the next question
Scientists A. L. Hodgkin and A.F. Huxley experimented with the neurons of

the squid classified in the genus Loligo. They inserted tiny electrodes into the
neurons and learned how a resting membrane potential is established.
The scientists experimented with the neurons of this squid because the
a. axons are abundant
b. axons are very large
c. squid is easily raised in a lab
d. squid is not an endangered species
e. squid has no synapses
____ 9. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes the function of a component
of a reflex arc?
a. Sensory neurons gather information from effectors.
b. Sensory receptors receive stimuli from interneurons.
c. Motor neurons conduct impulses from interneurons to effectors.
d. Effectors act as integration centres.
e. The brain reacts to sensory neurons.
____ 10. If the neurons in a reflex arc were damaged or cut, the neural pathway would be affected.
Which of the following symptoms would appear in a patient who had suffered damage to the motor
pathway of a reflex arc?
a. Sensory neurons would not function but impulses would move up the spinal cord.
b. Motor neurons would not function but the muscles would contract normally.
c. Stimuli would be felt but the muscles would be paralyzed.
d. Stimuli would not be felt but muscles would contract normally.
e. Stimuli would be felt and the muscles would contract normally.
____ 11. In the central nervous system, myelinated neurons form a matter known as
a. grey matter
b. pia mater
c. white matter
d. dura mater
e. cerebral matter
____ 12. Use the following information to answer the next question.
Myelinated neurons conduct impulses faster than unmyelinated neurons because in myelinated fibers,
sodium gates open only a
a. dendrite labeled 1
b. dendrite labeled 4
c. node of Ranvier labeled 3
d. node of Ranvier labeled 4
e. cell body labeled 2
____ 13. Use the following information to answer the

next question.
Which of the following describes the ion flow into or out of the
nerve fibre at the position marked 1 on the graph?
a. K+ are flowing out
b. K+ are flowing in
c. Na+ are flowing in
d. Na+ are flowing out
e. K+ and Na+ are flowing in opposite directions
When an action potential arrives at a synaptic terminal, neurotransmitters are

released and carry impulses to the postsynaptic membrane. After the
neurotransmitter has had its effect, enzymes break it down.
Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft by

a. exocytosis
b. endocytosis
c. phagocytosis
d. pinocytosis
e. osmosis
Which of the following correctly describes the ion flow into or out of a neural fibre during
repolarization?
a. K+ flow out
b. K+ flow in
c. Na+ flow out
d. Na+ flow in
e. none of these
____ 16. The central nervous system is made up of the brain and spinal cord. The brain and the
spinal cord are protected by the _____ and _____, respectively.
a. sternum skull
b. backbone sternum
c. skull backbone
d. backbone skull
e. sternum backbone
__c__ 17. The meninges which enclose the brain and the spinal cord consist of how many layers of
tissue?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
____ 18. Use the diagram given below to answer the next question.
In the above diagram, the part of the brain that serves as a link between the nervous system and the
endocrine system is numbered
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 3 and 4
The cerebrum consists of four lobes each of which is associated with

different functions. It is also divided into left and right hemispheres.
The structure that connects the left and the right cerebral hemispheres is the
a. thalamus
b. hypothalamus
c. medulla oblongata
d. corpus callosum
e. midbrain
__c__ 20. Use the following information to answer the next question.
Each half of the cerebrum is composed of four lobes. Each lobe is associated
with different functions. The four lobes of cerebrum are the frontal, parietal,
temporal and occipital lobes.
Which lobe of cerebrum is associated with memory?

a. Temporal lobe
b. Occipital lobe
c. Frontal lobe
d. Parietal lobe
e. All of these
The rest-and-digest response is initiated when the body is calm and at rest.
There is reduction in heart rate and blood pressure, enhancement in digestion
of food and stimulation of reproductive organs.
Which of the following divisions of the nervous system is active during the rest-and-digest response?
a. Somatic nervous system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
c. Parasympathetic nervous system
d. Central nervous system
e. None of these
The rest-and-digest response is initiated when the body is calm and at rest.
There is reduction in heart rate and blood pressure, enhancement in digestion
of food and stimulation of reproductive organs.
This neurotransmitter released during the rest-and-digest response is

a. acetylcholine
b. norepinephrine
c. epinephrine
d. dopamine
e. serotonin
____ 23. The autonomic nervous system is involuntary. It controls the heart, smooth muscles and
some glands during times of stress and of relaxation. The two parts of the brain that control the
autonomic nervous system are the
a. hypothalamus and medulla oblongata
b. hypothalamus and thalamus
c. medulla oblongata and thalamus
d. medulla oblongata and pons
e. hypothalamus and pons
__a__ 24. The part of the brain that controls body temperature, hunger and thirst is the
a. hypothalamus
b. medulla oblongata
c. cerebrum
d. cerebellum
e. pons
The cerebrum is the largest part of the human brain. It is divided into the
right and the left cerebral hemispheres.
Which of the following are functions of the cerebrum?

a. Controls balance, posture and body movements
b. Interprets and controls responses to sensory information
c. Regulates the release of hormones from the two pituitary glands
d. Controls swallowing and rate and depth of breathing
e. Controls blood pressure and body temperature
The cerebrum is the largest part of the human brain. It is divided into the
right and the left cerebral hemispheres and is the centre for intellect,
memory consciousness and language.
Each half of cerebrum consists of an internal mass of _____ matter and external covering of _____ matter.
a. Grey White
b. White Grey
c. Grey Grey
d. White White
e. Grey Grey and White
____ 27. The four lobes of cerebrum perform various functions such as auditory, sensory and
visual reception. Which lobe is involved in interpretation and understanding of speech?
a. occipital lobe
b. frontal lobe
c. temporal lobe
d. parietal lobe
e. all of these
Under a stressful situation, the sympathetic nervous system is activated and

exerts an effect on its target organs through the release of a neurotransmitter.
The neurotransmitter released by the sympathetic neurons is

a. acetylcholine
b. norepinephrine
c. dopamine
d. endorphin
e. serotonin
____ 29. The peripheral nervous system contains both sensory and motor neurons. This system
helps to cope under stress with the aid of its two subdivisions i.e. somatic and autonomic system. The
somatic system is mostly associated with the _____ response and the autonomic nervous system is mostly
associated with the _____ response.
a. Voluntary Voluntary
b. Involuntary Involuntary
c. Voluntary Involuntary
d. Involuntary Voluntary
e. Involuntary Voluntary & Involuntary
____ 30. A small region of the brain found above and in front of the medulla oblongata that serves
as a relay centre between neurons of the right and left cerebral hemispheres, the cerebellum and the rest of
the brain is the
a. pons
b. medulla oblongata
c. thalamus
d. hypothalamus
e. midbrain
____ 31. The nervous system of vertebrates is divided into the central nervous system and the
peripheral nervous system. The nerves of the peripheral system differ from those of the central system in
that the peripheral nerves
a. consist of sensory and motor neurons
b. are not myelinated
c. control only internal bodily functions
d. are not surrounded by protective bone
e. none of these
____ 32. Which of the following actions is NOT an example of a reflex action?
a. Catching a football
b. Withdrawal of the hand upon touching a hot object
c. Closing the eyelids when an insect comes towards the eyes
d. Salivating at the sight of food
e. Jerking the knee when the tendon below the knee is tapped
____ 33. Various sensory receptors detect different forms of energy from the environment and
initiate neural impulses. However, the real sense organ is the brain because
a. only the brain can initiate responses to sensations
b. sensations occur only when impulses arrive at various locations on the cerebral cortex
c. impulses from sensory receptors travel to the cerebral cortex in various ways
d. sensory receptors often send impulses that create illusions
e. only the brain contains neurons
__b__ 34. Sensory receptors convert energy from a specific stimulus into _____ energy, which is
processed by the _____ system.
a. physiochemical nervous
b. electrochemical nervous
c. chemical endocrine
d. physiochemical endocrine
e. chemical nervous
____ 35.
When dental work is to be done, the gums and nerves in the teeth are anesthetized by
injection of lidocaine. This drug blocks the Na+ channels in the membrane of the sensory
cells.
This drug is an effective local anesthetic because the

a. sensory cell membranes do not repolarize after impulses are sent
b. sensory cell membranes do not depolarize and create impulses
c. neurotransmitters in the sensory pathway are not released
d. neurotransmitters are destroyed before the post-synaptic neuron is stimulated
e. none of these
____ 36. How many pairs of spinal nerves are in the somatic system?
a. 1
b. 12
c. 8
d. 31
e. 43
____ 37. In addition to carrying information between the brain and the peripheral nervous system,
the spinal cord also functions
a. to coordinate fine movements in skeletal muscles
b. to carry impulses which control heart and breathing rates
c. as the control centre for some reflex actions
d. as the control centre for production of digestive secretions
e. all of these
____ 38. How many pairs of spinal nerves are in the thoracic region?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 8
d. 12
e. 31
____ 39. How many pairs of spinal nerves are in the cervical region?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 8
d. 12
e. 31
____ 40. Which of the following correctly identifies the characteristics of the vagus nerve?
a. It is a spinal nerve that controls the functioning of internal organs.
b. It is a spinal nerve that controls the breathing muscles.
c. It is a cranial nerve that carries sensory information from the face to the brain.
d. It is a cranial nerve that controls functioning of internal organs.
e. It is a spinal nerve that contains sensory and motor neurons.
____ 41. Which of the following cell types are the functional units of the nervous system?
a. Schwann cells
b. Glial cells
c. Hair cells
d. Neurons
____ 42. Reflex actions have evolved as ways to respond without thinking during times of danger.
Which of the following descriptions of reflexes is NOT correct?
a. A reflex action varies depending upon the type of stimulus.
b. Reflexes are very rapid occurring in about 50 ms.
c. Most reflex arcs contain only a few neurons.
d. Impulses move through the spinal cord before the brain is aware of the action.
e. All of these are correct.
____ 43. The spaces between the Schwann cells on a neural fibre are known as
a. synapses
b. ganglia
c. nodes of Ranvier
d. ventricles
e. dendrites
____ 44. Which of the following best describes the information pathway that leads to a response
when a stimulus is received?
a. sensory neuron gland motor neuron muscle
b. sensory neuron interneuron motor neuron muscle
c. sensory receptor sensory neuron motor neuron muscle
d. sensory receptor interneuron sensory neuron muscle
e. sensory receptor motor neuron gland muscle
____ 45. Which of the following is a function of the cerebral cortex on the surface of the frontal
lobe?
a. Controls precise voluntary movements of skeletal muscles
b. Receives and processes sensory information from the skin
c. Receives and analyzes visual information
d. Processes information about the body’s orientation.
e. Receives and analyzes auditory information
____ 46. The higher-level functioning of the brain is associated mostly with grey matter which is
located
a. on the cerebral cortex and contains cell bodies, axons and dendrites.
b. on the cerebral cortex and contains long myelinated axons
c. in some inner regions of the brain and contains long myelinated axons
d. in some inner regions of the brain and contains cell bodies, axons and dendrites
e. in the corpus callosum and contains long myelinated axons
____ 47. The grey matter of the brain is consists of _____ neurons and the white matter of the
brain consists of _____ neurons. The statement above is completed by the information in row
a. unmyelinated myelinated
b. myelinated unmyelinated
c. demyelinated unmyelinated
d. unmyelinated demyelinated
e. myelinated demyelinated
____ 48. The structure which carries information between the left and right cerebral hemispheres is
the
a. thalamus
b. corpus callosum
c. pons
d. hypothalamus
e. cerebellum
____ 49. Which of the following structures can be found at the back of the occipital lobe?
a. Motor cortex
b. Auditory cortex
c. Somatosensory cortex
d. Visual cortex
e. Cerebral cortex
____ 50. Which cerebral lobe(s) is/are involved with visual perception?
a. Frontal
b. Parietal
c. Temporal
d. Occipital
e. Frontal and Occipital
____ 51. Which of the following is a function of the cerebral cortex on the surface of the parietal
lobe?
a. Interpretation of information from sensory receptors
b. Controls precise voluntary movement of skeletal muscles
c. Receives and analyzes visual information
d. Controls reasoning and critical thinking
e. Receives and analyzes auditory information
____ 52. Which of the following is a function of the cerebral cortex on the surface of the temporal
lobes?
a. Hearing and comprehension of speech
b. Interpretation of information from sensory receptors
c. Reasoning, memory and personality
d. Receives and analyzes visual information
e. Controls precise voluntary movement of skeletal muscles.
____ 53. Which of the following forms of energy is used to pump ions in a sodium-potassium
pump?
a. Heat
b. Light
c. ATP
d. AMP
e. NaDH
____ 54. What is the approximate amount of cerebrospinal fluid found in the human brain in
millilitres?
a. 100
b. 150
c. 180
d. 220
e. 500
____ 55. Which of the following types of nervous system manages digestion in the human
stomach?
a. Somatic
b. Enteric
c. Sympathetic
d. Parasympathetic
e. none of these
____ 56. Which of the following types of nervous system is related to the fight-or-flight response?
a. Somatic
b. Enteric
c. Sympathetic
d. Parasympathetic
e. none of these
____ 57. Which of the following types of nervous system is also known as the rest-and-digest
system?
a. Somatic
b. Enteric
c. Sympathetic
d. Parasympathetic
e. none of these
____ 58. Which of the following neurotransmitters is the only one used by the parasympathetic
nervous system?
a. Dopamine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Epinephrine
e. Serotonin
____ 59. What would be the resting membrane potential of a neuron expressed in millivolts?
a. –50 mV
b. –60 mV
c. –70 mV
d. –80 mV
e. –90 mV
____ 60. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the cerebrospinal fluid?
a. Transports hormones, white blood cells and nutrients
b. Carries oxygen to the brain and spinal cord and removes carbon dioxide
c. Circulates between the meninges and acts as a shock absorber
d. Continuously secreted and reabsorbed into blood and body fluids
e. Cushions the brain
____ 61. Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area are regions on the cerebral cortex. Which of the
following rows correctly identifies the functions of each area?
Row Broca’s area Wernicke’s area

A. Control of speech muscles and Understanding of spoken or written
formation of words from thoughts language
B. Understanding of spoken or written Control of speech muscles and formation
language of words from thoughts
C. Control of speech muscles and Formation of words from thoughts
understanding of spoken and written
language
D. Understanding of spoken or written Formation of words from thoughts
language
E. Formation of words from thoughts Control of speech muscles and
understanding of spoken and written
language
a. Row A
b. Row B
c. Row C
d. Row D
e. row E
____ 62. Which of the following neurotransmitters is produced at neuromuscular junctions and
synapses in the parasympathetic division of the nervous system?
a. Norepinephrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. Acetylcholine
e. All of these
____ 63. Which of the following actions is NOT an example of a reflex action?
a. Blinking the eyelids when the eyelashes are touched
b. Narrowing of the pupil in response to intense light
c. Hitting a golf ball
d. Sneezing
e. Withdrawing the finger when it is pricked by a needle
____ 64. Which of the following does NOT lead to the generation of a resting membrane
potential?
a. The sodium-potassium exchange pump
b. Presence of chloride ions inside the neural fibre
c. Flow of Na+ into the cytoplasm of a neural fibre
d. Presence of negatively charged proteins inside the neural fibre

e. None of these
____ 65. Although ATP is continually spent to maintain a polarized neuronal membrane, the
potential difference across the membrane is called the resting potential. The term resting means that
a. the movement of all the ions is occurring by passive transport
b. ATP is diffusing across the neuronal membrane
c. it is not possible to create an action potential
d. no neural impulses are being transmitted
e. none of these
____ 66. Below are several statements about homeostasis and feedback systems.
1. A negative feedback system reverses the stimulus that causes the effect.
2. A positive feedback system reinforces the stimulus that causes the effect.
3. A positive feedback system maintains equilibrium.
4. An example of negative feedback is shivering caused by a decrease in body temperature.
5. An example of positive feedback is constriction of blood vessels in the hands caused
by a decrease in body temperature.
Which statements about homeostasis and feedback systems are CORRECT?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 3 and 5
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 4 and 5
e. 1 and 3
____ 67. An action potential occurs when

a. the transmembrane potential becomes less than the resting potential
b. the resting transmembrane potential is constant at -70mV
c. K+ diffuse out of the neural fibre
d. Na+ diffuse out of the neural fibre
e. All of these are correct.
____ 68. A neural impulse begins to travel along a myelinated neuron when a (an)
a. action potential occurs at a node of Ranvier
b. action potential occurs anywhere along the membrane
c. resting potential is established at a node of Ranvier
d. resting potential is established anywhere along the membrane
e. both an action and resting potential occurs
_d___ 69. After a neuronal membrane has become depolarized its resting potential is reestablished
when
a. Na+ diffuse into the neural fibre
b. Na+ diffuse out of the neural fibre
c. K+ diffuse into the neural fibre
d. K+ diffuse out of the neural fibre
e. Both Na+ and K+ diffuse into the neural fibre
__a__ 70. A neuronal membrane cannot be stimulated to undergo an action potential

a. during the refractory period when repolarization is occurring
b. during the refractory period when depolarization is occurring
c. after a resting potential has been established
d. if the threshold potential has been exceeded
e. none of these
___ 71. After an action potential has occurred in a myelinated neuron, Na+ inside the axon diffuse
along the membrane causing
a. depolarization at the adjacent region of the membrane
b. repolarization at the adjacent region of the membrane
c. depolarization at the adjacent node of Ranvier
d. repolarization at the adjacent node of Ranvier
e. none of these
____ 72. A neural impulse in an unmyelinated fibre can be described as a series of action
potentials
a. occurring at adjacent nodes along a neural fibre
b. traveling along the membrane of a neural fibre
c. resulting in saltatory conduction along a neural fibre
d. traveling at a speed of about 120 m/s
e. all of these
____ 73. Multiple sclerosis is a disorder characterized by the breakdown of the myelin sheath
around axons in the central nervous system. The absence of a fully functional myelin sheath causes
a. an increase in the amount of saltatory conduction
b. an attack on the Schwann cells by the immune system
c. neural impulses to travel more slowly than normal
d. abnormal functioning of the sodium-potassium exchange pump
e. an increase in the speed of nerve impulse transmission
____ 74. Which of the following regions of the brain are responsible for the sense of hearing?
a. parietal lobe of the cerebrum
b. temporal lobe of the cerebrum
d. pons
e. hypothalamus
____ 75. Which of the following regions of the brain are responsible for the sense of touch?
a. parietal lobe of the cerebrum
b. temporal lobe of the cerebrum
d. pons
e. hypothalamus
Chapter 9
____ 1. Antidiuretic hormone is released into the blood stream from the
a. anterior pituitary gland
b. posterior pituitary gland
c. thyroid gland
d. adrenal glands
e. hypothalmus
The tallest human being ever known was 2.7 m tall and was still growing
taller when he died at the age of 22.
This disorder results from a childhood disorder involving excessive secretion of

a. HGH
b. thyroxin
c. TSH
d. ACTH
e. PTH
____ 3. Which of the following disorders is best treated by taking medication that contains
thyroxine?
a. Graves’ disease
b. Acromegaly
c. Goitre
d. Cretinism
e. Hyperglycemia
____ 4. Which of the following symptoms is related to cretinism?

a. Tall stature
b. Thin build
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Kidney failure
e. A goitre
As thyroxin is released from the thyroid gland, it accumulates, inhibits the anterior pituitary
gland and reduces the production of TSH by negative feedback. Iodine is an ingredient in
the production of thyroxin. Lack of dietary iodine results in an enlarged thyroid gland known
as a goitre.
Which of the following BEST explains how a lack of iodine causes the thyroid to enlarge and become a
goitre?
A. High levels of thyroxin over stimulate the thyroid gland.
B. High levels of TSH over stimulate the thyroid gland.
C. An enlarged thyroid compensates for the lack of iodine.
D. An enlarged thyroid increases the production of TSH.
E. High levels of calcitonin over stimulate the thyroid gland.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 6. Lack of iodine in diet may lead to a disorder known as

a. Gigantism
b. Scurvy
c. Rickets
d. Goitre
e. Dwarfism
As thyroxin is released from the thyroid gland, it accumulates, inhibits the anterior pituitary
gland and reduces the production of TSH by negative feedback. Iodine is an ingredient in
the production of thyroxin. Lack of dietary iodine results in an enlarged thyroid gland known
as a goitre.
Some goitres occur even though there is adequate iodine in the diet. Which of the following is the most
likely explanation of a goitre in someone who consumes enough dietary iodine?
a. The anterior pituitary gland produces too little TSH.
b. The anterior pituitary gland absorbs too much iodine.
c. An abnormal thyroid gland produces too much thyroxin.
d. An abnormal thyroid gland produces too little thyroxin.
e. An abnormal thyroid gland produces too much TSH.
____ 8. If there is ___i___ than the required amount of iodine in our diet, ___ii___ cannot be
produced and this will lead to a disorder known as goitre.
Row i ii
A. more thyroxine
B. less thyroxine
C. more oxytocin
D. more TSH
E. less oxytocin
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 9. A lack of insulin production by the pancreas leads to various symptoms such as excess
urination, thirst, lack of energy and fatigue. The direct cause of a lack of energy and fatigue is that
a. body cells do not absorb glucose from the blood
b. body cells burn glucose supplies too rapidly
c. there are inadequate glucose levels in the blood
d. the kidneys excrete too much of glucose
e. none of these
____ 10. Which of the following conditions leads to diabetes mellitus?
a. insufficient insulin
b. insufficient thyroxine
c. insufficient glucagon
d. insufficient iodine
e. insufficient glucose
____ 11. Type 1 diabetes is an ___i___ disorder resulting from the immune system having
produced antibodies that attack the ___ii___ of pancreas.
Row i ii
A. insulin-independen beta cells
t
B. insulin-dependent beta cells
C. insulin-independen alpha cells
t
D. insulin-independen capillaries
t
E. insulin-dependent alpha cells
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 12. ___i___ is a severe state of hyperthyroidism that results when the immune system
produces antibodies that attack the ___ii___ gland.
Row i ii
A. Graves’ disease thyroid
B. Graves’ disease parathyroid
C. Cretinism thyroid
D. Cretinism hypothyroid
E. Cretinism parathyroid
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
In the above diagram, the part of the female reproductive system where the process of fertilization
normally occurs is numbered
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 3 and 4
____ 14. Which of the following rows has the organ of the female reproductive system correctly
matched with its function?
Row Organ Function

A. uterus produces eggs
B. cervix houses the developing fetus
C. fimbriae releases eggs
D. ovary produces sex hormones
E. oviduct serves as the birth canal
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 15. Testes have two basic functions, i.e., production of sperm and secretion of the hormone
testosterone. ___i___ cells help in the development of sperm and ___ii___ cells secrete the hormone
testosterone. The statement given above is complete by the information in row:
Row i ii
A. Sertoli interstitial
B. Sertoli sertoli
C. Interstitial interstitial
D. Interstitial seminal
E. Interstitial sertoli
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 16. The follicular stage of the ovarian cycle begins with an increase in the level of ___i___
and ends with an increase in the level of___ii___. The statement given above is completed by the
information in row:
Row i ii
A. FSH LH
B. LH FSH
C. progesterone estrogen
D. estrogen FSH
E. estrogen progesterone
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 17. Which of the following rows has the organs of the male reproductive system correctly
matched with its function?
Row Organ Function

A. urethra nourishes sperm
B. testes secrete testosterone
C. seminal vesicle carry semen into female rep. tract
D. penis transfer seminal fluid to the testes
E. epididymys contribute alkaline fluid to semen
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 18. Menstrual cycles stop at the time of pregnancy. The reason for this is the continued
presence of the hormone
a. progesterone
b. estrogen
c. LH
d. FSH
e. testosterone
____ 19. Which hormone is responsible for the maturation of follicles?

a. LH
b. estrogen
c. FSH
d. progesterone
e. GnRH
____ 20. In males, production of sperm is controlled by the hormone ___i___ and production of
testosterone is controlled by hormone ___i___. The statement given above is completed by the
information in row:
Row i ii
A. FSH LH
B. LH FSH
C. estrogen FSH
D. progesterone estrogen
E. estrogen LH
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 21. The level of sperm production remains relatively constant all the time. The reason for this
is a feedback loop between:
a. LH and inhibin
b. LH and FSH
c. FSH and inhibin
d. inhibin and testosterone
e. LH and testosterone
____ 22. Puberty begins with an increase in level of GnRH, which is released from the
hypothalamus. GnRH causes the anterior pituitary gland to release two hormones that reach the male
reproductive system. These hormones are:
a. FSH and LH
b. LH and testosterone
c. FSH and testosterone
d. testosterone and inhibin
e. LH and progesterone
____ 23. The feedback loop between ___i___ and ___ii___ maintains the constant testosterone
level in the male body. The statement given above is completed by the information in row:
Row i ii
A. FSH LH
B. FSH testosterone
C. LH inhibin
D. GnRH LH
E. LH testosterone
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 24. A scientist is studying artificial hormones that prevent ovulation. The scientist should
expect that these hormones will mimic the hormone ___i___ and inhibit the release of ___ii___. The
statement given above is completed by the information in row ______.
Row i ii
A. FSH estrogen and progesterone
B. estrogen FSH and HCG
C. progesterone FSH and LH
D. GnRH estrogen and progesterone
E. LH estrogen and progesterone
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 25. Menopause is the cessation of the menstrual cycle in human females. What is the age
range during which menopause occurs in human females?
a. 25–35 years
b. 35–45 years
c. 45–55 years
d. 55–65 years
e. 65–75 years
____ 26. If a woman started developing male secondary sex characteristics, it might be due to (a)
a. overproduction of adrenal androgens
b. overproduction of estrogen
c. disorder of the mammary glands
d. disorder of the ovaries
e. overproduction of FSH
____ 27. The following hormones affect the male reproductive system. Which of these hormones
negatively affect the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone?
I. luteinizing hormone
II. inhibin
III. follicle-stimulating hormone
IV. testosterone
a. II and III
b. I and II
c. II and IV
d. I and III
e. III and IV
____ 28. The anterior pituitary gland has been referred to as the “the master gland”. This is
because
a. many of its secretions control hormone production in other glands
b. many of its secretions control reproductive functions
c. its hormones control the major and most important bodily functions
d. its hormones directly affect most cells in the body
e. it is considered to be a part of the nervous system
____ 29. A cell is a _____ cell for a particular hormone only if it contains a _____ for that
hormone.
a. gland organelles
b. target receptor
c. helper receptor
d. killer receptor
e. hormone gland
____ 30. The follicle-stimulating hormone _____ the release of estrogen, and a high level of
estrogen _____ the further production of the follicle-stimulating hormone.
a. stimulates stimulates
b. suppresses suppresses
c. suppresses stimulates
d. stimulates suppresses
e. stimulates stops
As young roosters mature, they develop secondary sex characteristics such as crowing,
fighting with other males and trying to mate. If the testes are removed at an early age, the
roosters do not develop these characteristics. These castrated roosters are called capons.
This experiment demonstrates that the testes stimulate the development of sexual behaviour
in some way.
Which would be the most convincing evidence that the testes stimulate sexual behaviours by releasing
hormones into the blood?
a. removal of the testes from young roosters prevents them from developing sexual
behaviour
b. removal of the testes does not effect normal growth and the development of typical
male plumage
c. replacing the testes anywhere in the bodies of capons stimulates their sexual behaviour
d. replacing the testes only stimulates sexual behaviours if they are reconnected to the
nervous system
e. none of these
Antagonistic hormones have opposite effects upon their target cells. Calcitonin and
parathyroid hormone have opposing effects on bone tissue, one hormone causing bone to
release calcium ions and the other causing it to absorb them.
Another example of a pair of antagonistic hormones is

a. glucagon and insulin
b. epinephrine and norepinephrine
c. aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone
d. estrogen and testosterone
e. cortisol and ACTH
____ 33. About 200 hormones move through the circulatory system and come in contact with all
tissues in the body, but each hormone affects only certain types of tissues or organs. Whether a group of
cells is targeted by a particular hormone depends upon
a. the presence of appropriate receptor proteins on the cell membranes
b. the location of the cells in relation to the gland that produces the hormone
c. whether the cells are actively dividing and growing
d. whether the cells are also being stimulated by the nervous system
e. all of these
____ 34. Which of the following glands play a role in maintaining blood calcium levels?
a. Anterior and posterior pituitary glands
b. Thyroid and parathyroid glands
c. Adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex
d. Pancreas and parathyroid glands
e. Thyroid and pancreas
____ 35. The loss of which of the following cells of the islets of Langerhans results in type 1
diabetes mellitus?
a. Beta
b. Alpha
c. Delta
d. PP
e. capillary
Some glands in the body, known as endocrine glands, are ductless and their products are
secreted directly into the blood as it passes through the gland. Others, known as exocrine
glands, release their products into ducts which lead into body cavities. Salivary glands are
examples of exocrine glands.
Which of the following can be classified as both an endocrine gland and an exocrine gland?
a. Parathyroid
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Pancreas
d. Thyroid
____ 37. Which of the following is the primary effect of thyroxine?

a. stimulates the growth of muscles, connective tissue and long bones
b. stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete TSH
c. lowers the concentration of calcium ions in the blood
d. increases the rate of metabolism of fats, proteins and carbohydrates
e. all of these
____ 38. The primary effect of insulin is to cause

a. the pancreas to secrete glucagon
b. fats in adipose tissue to be converted into glucose
c. the cells in body to absorb glucose from the blood
d. breakdown of glycogen and the release of glucose into the blood
e. an increase in glucose blood levels
____ 39. Which of the following symptoms is a result of the overproduction of hGH during
childhood?
a. Acromegaly
b. Cretinism
c. Gigantism
d. Pituitary dwarfism
e. Diabetes
____ 40. Which of the following symptoms is a result of the onset of hGH overproduction during
adulthood?
a. enlargement of the face, feet and hands
b. increased height and body size
c. slow pulse rate, puffy skin and weight gain
d. protruding eyes and impaired vision
e. all of these
____ 41. Which of the following effectors in the body are stimulated by PTH and calcitonin in the
process of regulating calcium ion levels in the blood?
a. Intestine, liver and bones
b. Intestine, kidneys and bones
c. Muscles, kidneys and nerves
d. Muscles, liver and nerves
e. Muscles, larynx, trachea
____ 42. The steroid hormone cortisol is produced by the adrenal cortex as a response to
a. long-term stress
b. short-term stress
c. damage to the heart muscle
d. high blood pressure
e. increase in sodium levels
____ 43. Addison’s disease is a hormonal disorder that results from inadequate hormone secretion
by the
a. thyroid gland
b. posterior pituitary gland
c. adrenal cortex
d. adrenal medulla
e. islets of Langerhans
____ 44. Which of the following hormones play an important role in the fight-or-flight response?
a. Epinephrine
b. Insulin
c. Glucagon
d. Testosterone
e. Estrogen
____ 45. The neuroendocrine system plays an important role in

a. homeostasis
b. RBC production
c. WBC production
d. lymph production
e. respiration
____ 46. The mineralocorticoid called aldosterone is produced by the

a. adrenal cortex and it stimulates the reabsorption of sodium ions in the nephrons
b. renal cortex and it increases blood pressure
c. adrenal medulla and it increases blood glucose levels
d. renal medulla and it stimulates the reabsorption of sodium ions in the nephrons
e. renal cortex and it responses to low blood sugar
____ 47. Which of the following statements does NOT describe a function of cortisol?
a. promotes breakdown of fats and their conversion to glucose
b. promotes reabsorption of Na+ and water in the nephrons
c. suppresses the production of ACTH
d. promotes protein breakdown into amino acids and their conversion to glucose
____ 48. Which of the following statements does NOT describe a function of cortisol?
a. promotes breakdown of fats and their conversion to glucose
b. promotes reabsorption of Na+ and water in the nephrons
c. suppresses the actions of the immune system
d. promotes protein breakdown into amino acids and their conversion to glucose
e. suppresses the production of ACTH
____ 49. Which of the following pathways correctly shows the sequence of stimulations initiated
by the hypothalamus that leads to the production of the long-term stress hormone?
a. hypothalamus ® spinal cord ® adrenal medulla that produces epinephrine
b. hypothalamus ® spinal cord ® adrenal medulla that produces norepinephrine
c. hypothalamus ® posterior pituitary ® adrenal cortex that produces cortisol
d. hypothalamus ® anterior pituitary ® adrenal cortex that produces cortisol
e. hypothalamus ® anterior pituitary ® adrenal medulla that produces ACTH
__a__ 50. Use the following information to answer the next question
The sympathetic nervous system secretes epinephrine at its axon terminals in the internal
organs and the adrenal medulla secretes it into the bloodstream.
Which of the following statements which compare the two sources of epinephrine is (are) correct?
1. Epinephrine from the sympathetic system is released faster.
2. Epinephrine from the sympathetic system is released more slowly.
3. The effects of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla last longer.
4. The effects of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla disappear more quickly.
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
e. 1 and 4
Blood and body fluid volumes are decreased as a result of blood donation or severe
bleeding, while osmotic pressure of the blood is affected very little.
Increased secretion of which of the following hormones would most likely compensate for blood loss by
returning the fluid volume to normal?
a. antidiuretic hormone
b. aldosterone
c. thyroxin
d. insulin
e. cortisol
____ 52. A tumor in the adrenal gland or increased growth of normal cells can cause the adrenal
cortex to release excessive amounts of the mineralocorticoids. This causes abnormally high blood
pressure.
High blood pressure from such an adrenal gland tumor most likely occurs because
a. of an increase in ADH production
b. of a decrease in ADH production
c. aldosterone promotes loss of sodium ions and water from the body
d. aldosterone promotes reabsorption of sodium ions and water into the body
____ 53. Which of the following responses is not found in the short-term stress response?
a. Increased blood pressure
b. Increased breathing rate
c. Breakdown of glycogen
d. Breakdown of fats
e. Increased blood flow to the heart
____ 54. Epinephrine is a hormone as well as a neurotransmitter. Which of the following is not a
function of epinephrine?
a. Increased breathing rate
b. Increased rate of carbohydrate oxidation
c. Decreased heart rate
d. Dilation of pupils
e. Increased metabolism
____ 55. The two hormones produced by the adrenal medulla are _____ and _____.
a. epinephrine norepinephrine
b. epinephrine renin
c. norepinephrine calcitonin
d. aldosterone cortisol
e. norepinephrine cortisol
Because the risk of hypothyroidism increases as adults get older, part of a routine medical
exam for many adults involves a test of thyroid gland function. However, rather than
testing for levels of thyroxin, a sample of blood is usually analyzed to determine the
concentration of TSH.
A test for TSH is an effective test for hypothyroidism because a lack of thyroxin causes
a. increased activity of the posterior pituitary gland
b. decreased activity of the posterior pituitary gland
c. an increase in TSH production
d. a decrease in TSH production
e. inactivity in the posterior pituitary gland
____ 57. Under normal conditions, an increase in the production of cortisol would result in a (an)
a. decrease in the production of ACTH by the anterior pituitary gland
b. increase in the production of ACTH by the anterior pituitary gland
c. decrease in the production of ACTH by the hypothalamus
d. increase in the production of ACTH by the hypothalamus
e. increase in the production of ACTH by the posterior pituitary gland
____ 58. Which of the following are tropic hormones?

a. PTH and ACTH
b. PTH and TSH
c. TSH and ACTH
d. TSH and ADH
e. ACTH and ADH
____ 59. The islets of Langerhans are located in the

a. pancreas where they secrete insulin and glucagon into the blood
b. pancreas where they secrete insulin into the blood
c. liver where they store glycogen
d. liver where they store glucagon
e. liver where they store insulin
____ 60. Low levels of calcium ions in the blood are detected by the
a. thyroid gland which produces thyroxin
b. thyroid gland which produces TSH
c. parathyroid glands which produce PTH
d. parathyroid glands which produce calcitonin
e. parathyroid glands which produce TSH
____ 61. Calcitonin and PTH are called antagonistic hormones because calcitonin
a. decreases Ca2+ in the blood and PTH increases it
b. increases Ca2+ in the blood and PTH decreases it
c. is produced by the thyroid gland and PTH by the parathyroid gland

d. is produced by the parathyroid gland and PTH by the thyroid gland
e. decreases Ca2+ in the blood and PTH also decreases it
____ 62. The fight-or-flight response occurs when norepinephrine is released from the
a. adrenal medulla and the sympathetic nervous system
b. adrenal cortex and the sympathetic nervous system
c. adrenal medulla and the parasympathetic nervous system
d. adrenal cortex and the sympathetic nervous system
e. adrenal cortex and the somatic nervous system
____ 63. Which of the following statements about the relationship between the nervous and
endocrine systems is NOT correct?
a. A part of the brain called the hypothalamus controls a part of the endocrine system
called the pituitary gland.
b. A part of the brain called the hypothalamus controls a part of the endocrine system
called the parathyroid gland.
c. During embryonic development, part of the adrenal gland forms from nervous system
tissue.
d. Neurons of the sympathetic nervous system stimulate the production of hormones from
the adrenal gland.
e. None of these.
Cause: Drinking alcohol or coffee inhibits the release of ADH from the posterior pituitary
gland.
Effect: The collecting ducts of the nephrons become more permeable and less water is
reabsorbed from the filtrate.
Which statement about the following cause and effect is correct?

a. The cause is false, but the effect is true.
b. The cause is true, but the effect is false.
c. Both the cause and effect are false.
d. Both the cause and effect are true, but the effect is not a logical consequence of the
cause.
e. None of these are correct.
____ 65. After several hours of fasting, blood glucose levels tend to decrease because glucose is
absorbed into the cells and broken down during cellular respiration. Glucose in the blood is replaced
during fasting as
a. glucagon is secreted and converts stored glycogen into glucose
b. glycogen is secreted and converts stored glucagon into glucose
c. decreased production of insulin stimulates conversion of glycogen to glucose
d. increased production of insulin stimulates conversion of glycogen into glucose
e. glycogen is secreted and glycogen converts into glucose
____ 66. After a meal containing carbohydrates, secretion of insulin increases. Which of the
following is a likely consequence of this secretion?
a. decreased glycogen in the cells
b. increased glycogen in the cells
c. increased vasodilation of the peripheral blood vessels
d. increased filtration of blood in the kidneys
e. decreased glucose in the cells
____ 67. What constitutes the endocrine system?

a. the endocrine glands only
b. the hormones secreted by the endocrine glands only
c. the exocrine glands only
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
____ 68. All hormones are essentially _________.

a. effectors of the endocrine system
b. glands that send out chemical messengers
c. receptor proteins
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
____ 69. Which is NOT true of steroid hormones?

a. They are lipid insoluble hormones.
b. They can easily diffuse through the lipid bilayer of a membrane.
c. They include hormones like testosterone and estrogen.
d. They bind to receptor proteins inside target cells.
e. When they bind with receptors, specific genes are activated resulting in cell changes.
____ 70. Which is NOT a water-soluble hormone?

a. epinephrine
b. human growth hormone
c. thyroxine
d. insulin
e. cortisol
____ 71. Which statement is NOT true?

a. Target cells are specific cells upon which hormones act and produce effects.
b. Each target cell contains receptor proteins.
c. A target cell and its receptor undergo a series of reactions before they can bind
together.
d. Each type of cell contains proteins specifically shaped to bind with a particular
hormone.
e. When the hormone binds to its receptor, other reactions are triggered in the target cell.
____ 72. How many lobes does the pituitary gland have?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
____ 73. Which gland does not produce any hormones?

a. posterior pituitary
b. anterior pituitary
c. thyroid
d. parathyroid
e. adrenal
____ 74. Which condition results because of high levels of blood glucose?
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Type 1 Diabetes
d. Type 2 Diabetes
e. All of these
____ 75. Which researcher is instrumental in the development of treatment for diabetes?
a. Banting
b. Graves
c. Addison
d. Langerhan
e. None of these
Chapter 10
1. Nephrons are the structural and functional units of the kidney. Which of the following rows correctly
matches the part of the nephron with its excretory function? Row Structures of nephron Function
a. Descending loop of Henle Active reabsorption of sodium ions
b. Proximal tubule Active reabsorption of glucose
c. Collecting tube Reception of glomerular filtrate
d. glomerulus Passive transport of solutes
e. Bowman’s capsule Reabsorption of water
2. The amount of water that is reabsorbed or excreted in urine is controlled by the release of the hormone
a. PTH
b. LH
c. FSH
d. ADH
e. TSH
3. In human males, an organ of the excretory system merges with the vas deferens of the reproductive
tract. This organ is the
a. kidney
b. ureter
c. urethra
d. urinary bladder
e. nephron
4. The principal organs of the human excretory system are the kidney, urinary bladder, ureter, and urethra.
Two of these organs, the ___i___ and ___ii___, occur in pairs. The statement given above is completed by
the information in row Row i ii
a. kidney ureter
b. urethra ureter
c. kidney urethra
d. urethra urinary bladder
e. urinary bladder kidney
5. Human beings have a pair of fist-sized organs that are located in the lower back on each side of the
spine. What is the name of these organs?
a. Kidney
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Ureter
e. Urinary bladder
6. Use the following information to answer the next question. Urine produced by the kidneys passes
through various excretory organs before it finally exits the body through a tube called the urethra. Which
of the following organs has sphincters that relax to allow urine to drain into the urethra?
a. Kidney
b. Ureter
c. Urinary bladder
d. Rectum
e. Urethra
7. About one million microscopic structures are present in the kidney, which serve as the latter’s structural
and functional units. What are these units of the kidney known as?
a. Nephrons
b. Villi
c. Rugae
d. Nerves
e. Capillary network
8. The four processes that occur during urine formation are as follows: glomerular filtration, tubular
reabsorption, tubular secretion, and water reabsorption. In the nephron, the process of reabsorption does
not occur in the
a. glomerulus
b. proximal tubule
c. distal tubule
d. loop of Henle
e. all of these
9. Use the following information to answer the next question. Nephrons are the functional units of the
kidney. Each nephron ends in a pipe-like structure. This structure reclaims excess water from the filtrate,
ultimately forming urine. What is this pipe-like structure called?
a. Proximal tubule
b. Distal tubule
c. Collecting duct
d. Ascending loop
e. Descending loop
10. Use the following information to answer the next question. Nephrons are the functional units of the
kidney. Each nephron reabsorbs water and solutes from the glomerular filtrate, ultimately forming urine.
The water and solutes reclaimed during reabsorption are returned to the body by the
a. renal arteries
b. renal veins
c. pulmonary arteries
d. pulmonary veins
e. proximal tubule
11. The formation of urine starts with glomerular filtration. The walls of the glomerulus act as a filtration
device. Which of the following substances will not usually pass through the glomerulus?
a. water only
b. ions only
c. red blood cells only
d. protein only
e. red blood cells and protein
12. Use the following information to answer the next question. The glomerulus creates a plasma-like
filtrate from the blood to initiate urine formation in the kidney. This filtrate then moves through various
parts of the nephron. Structurally, the glomerulus is a fine network of
a. arteries
b. veins
c. capillaries
d. arterioles
e. venules
13. Positively charged sodium ions are actively reabsorbed in the nephron. Which region of the nephron is
not involved in the active reabsorption of sodium ions?
a. Proximal tubule
b. Ascending loop of Henle
c. Distal tubule
d. Descending loop of Henle
e. Capillary network
14. The reabsorption of which component of the filtrate contributes most to the decrease in volume as it
becomes urine?
a. Glucose
b. Amino acids
c. Water
d. Glycerol
e. Sodium ions
15. Reabsorption of water takes place in the nephrons by a process of
a. diffusion
b. osmosis
c. active transport
d. chemiosmosis
e. active secretion
16. Which of the following processes occur in Bowman’s capsules?
a. Filtration of blood
b. Active reabsorption of sodium ions
c. Passive reabsorption of water
d. Passive reabsorption of chloride ions
e. Active secretion of hydrogen ions
17. Some substances are added to the filtrate by the process of secretion. Which of the following ions are
secreted into the filtrate?
a. H+ and K+
b. HCO3– and Na+
c. HCO3– and Cl-
d. H+ and HCO3-
e. Na+ and Cl-
18. Kidneys are excretory organs that expel metabolic wastes from our body. Wastes produced by the
kidneys are called
a. sweat
b. urine
c. feces
d. sebum
e. semen
19. In addition to metabolic wastes, nephrons also excrete substances such as penicillin and other drugs.
These substances are secreted into the filtrate in the
a. proximal tubules
b. distal tubules
c. descending loop of Henle
d. ascending loop of Henle
e. collecting tubules
20. The structures where water is reabsorbed from the filtrate as it is carried into the renal pelvis are the
a. proximal tubules
b. glomeruli
c. ascending loop of Henle
d. collecting tubules
e. descending loop of Henle
21. Glomerular filtrate is similar in composition to blood plasma in that it contains many nutrients.
Molecules such as glucose and amino acids are returned the bloodstream as a result of
a. passive transport from the proximal tubule
b. passive transport from the distal tubule
c. active transport from the proximal tubule
d. passive transport from the proximal tubule
e. active transport from Bowman’s capsule
22. Which of the following nitrogenous wastes is present in the highest concentration in the urine?
a. Ammonia
b. Uric acid
c. Creatinine
d. Urea
e. Calcitriol
23. Nitrogenous wastes are produced as result of the metabolic breakdown of
a. proteins
b. lipids
c. carbohydrates
d. minerals
e. hemoglobin
24. Ca2+ ions which play an important role in muscle function, are reabsorbed in the
a. proximal tubule
b. descending loop of Henle
c. ascending loop of Henle
d. distal tubule
e. glomerulus
25. Which one of the following substances promotes the reabsorption of water from the glomerular
filtrate?
a. Potassium ions
b. Hydrogen ions
c. Aldosterone
d. Antidiuretic hormone
e. potassium ions
26. Filtration of blood occurs as fluid is forced into the nephron through the porous walls of
a. the proximal tubule
b. the distal tubule
c. the glomerulus
d. Bowman’s capsule
e. loop of Henle
27. The homeostatic process in which the concentration of salts in the blood is controlled is called
a. dehydration
b. thermoregulation
c. osmoregulation
d. hemodialysis
e. antidiuresis
28. Nitrogenous wastes are the by-products of the metabolism of
a. carbohydrates
b. lipids
c. proteins
d. vitamins
e. fats
29. Which of the following is NOT a function of the excretory system?
a. Homeostasis
b. Breakdown of fats
c. Filtration of body fluids
d. Elimination of wastes
e. Regulate blood pH
30. About 65% of the water in the nephric filtrate is reabsorbed in
a. Bowman’s capsule
b. the proximal tubule and loop of Henle
c. the loop of Henle and distal tubule
d. the proximal tubule and collecting duct
e. glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule
31. Urine is carried from the kidneys to the bladder by means of
a. diffusion
b. osmosis
c. osmoregulation
d. peristalsis
e. active transport
32. Ammonia is a highly toxic nitrogenous waste produced by the cells. It is converted to a less toxic
compound called urea in the
a. liver
b. kidneys
c. bladder
d. blood
e. urethra
33. Which is NOT a function of the excretory system?
a. produces glucose
b. maintains water-salt balance
c. maintains acid-base balance
d. removes nitrogen-containing wastes
e. secretes hormones
34. Nitrogenous wastes include which of the following?
a. ammonia
b. urea
c. uric acid
d. a and b only
e. a, b, and c
35. Which of these makes up the majority of nitrogenous waste in the body?
a. ammonia
b. urea
c. uric acid
d. sodium
e. glucose
36. Which organ converts highly toxic ammonia to less toxic urea?
a. urinary bladder
b. kidney
c. pancreas
d. liver
e. none of these
37. In humans, the kidneys ________ urine.
a. store
b. produce
c. transport
d. excrete
e. all of these
38. Tubular absorption is _____________.
a. the transport of filtrate into the nephron
b. the removal of additional wastes and excess from the blood into the filtrate
c. the removal of useful substances from the filtrate back into the blood
d. the filtration of urine
e. none of these
39. What is the function of the antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
a. to stimulate urine production
b. to transport blood to the kidneys

c. to change the blood pH
d. to control the concentration of the urine
e. to control the reabsorption of substances
40. Water reabsorption from the collecting duct takes place by __________.
a. osmosis
b. diffusion
c. active transport
d. active secretion
e. none of these
41. In which procedure is blood pumped from an artery to an artificial membrane in an external device
and returned to the body by way of a vein?
a. hemodialysis
b. peritoneal dialysis
c. removal of kidney stones
d. kidney transplant
e. urinalysis
42. Which of these is a diuretic?
a. caffeinated coffee
b. alcoholic beverages
c. carbonated cola beverages
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
43. Which of these will cause a decrease in the production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
a. drinking an alcoholic beverage
b. exercising for long periods of time
c. increasing blood glucose levels
d. increasing blood pressure
e. none of these
44. The majority of substances from the glomerular filtrate are reabsorbed in the
a. glomerulus
b. proximal tubule
c. collecting tubule
d. distal tubule
e. ureter
45. Which homeostatic mechanism helps to maintain blood pH at normal levels?
a. the acid-base buffer system
b. respiration
c. the kidneys
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
46. Females get urinary tract infections more than males primarily because of the __________.
a. bacteria present in the rectum
b. shorter distance between the urethral and anal opening
c. difference in diet
d. difference in hygiene
e. difference in hormones

Bio 12 Exam

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Chapter 1

___ 1. Isotopes are atoms that differ in the number of

____ 2. Covalent bonds

b. form with metals.

d. are found within a molecule.

____ 3. Water is a polar covalent molecule. This means that

b. hydrogen is partially charged.

c. oxygen is more electronegative.

d. electrons are less attracted to the hydrogen nucleus.

e. All of the above.

____ 4. Intermolecular forces include

d. polar covalent bonds.

____ 5. Hydrogen bonding describes

c. a strong bond within a molecule.

d. the formation of acids.

e. all of the above.

____ 6. A hydrophobic molecule

b. combines with water easily.

c. dissolves into ions with water.

____ 7. When mixed with water, hydrophobic molecules will

e. not enough information provided.

b. has gained one or more electrons.

c. has lost one or more electrons.

____ 9. Hydrophilic molecules have a tendency to

c. form hydrogen bonds with water.

____ 10. If an atom loses an electron it is called

____ 11. When placed in water, non-polar molecules will

c. dissociate into ions.

d. form many small droplets surrounded by water.

____ 12. Which of these molecules is a hydrocarbon?

____ 13. A functional group is

c. many monomers linked together.

d. a cluster of atoms that behave in a certain way.

e. all of the above.

____ 14. Most functional groups contains

____ 15. A common characteristic of all functional groups is

e. all of the above.

b. the elements involved.

c. how the atoms bond.

e. all of the above.

____ 18. Which of these functional groups is polar, negatively charged?

____ 19. Which of these functional groups is polar, acidic?

____ 20. Which of these functional groups is polar, basic?

____ 21. The monomer for starch is a

____ 22. The monomer for a nucleic acid is a

____ 23. The monomer for a protein is a

____ 24. Which of the following is a macromolecule?

____ 25. Which of the following is a monomer?

____ 26. Which of the following is commonly called blood sugar?

____ 27. Which of the following is an isomer of glucose?

____ 28. Which of these molecules is a disaccharide?

____ 29. A disaccharide is formed by a covalent bond called a

____ 30. Two isomers vary by

e. all of the above.

____ 31. Carbohydrates are molecules that contain

b. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen.

c. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and phosphorus.

d. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur and phosphorus.

e. all of these are possible.