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Free-central placentation is found in?

1.
Examine the figure (A-D) given below and select 2.
the right option out of 1-4, in which all the four 3. Brassica
structures A, B, C, and D are identified correctly: 4.

The capacity to generate a whole plant from any

cell of the plant is called:
1. Micropropagation
2. Differentiation
3. Somatic hybridization
4. Totipotency

Experimental verification of the chromosomal

theory of inheritance was done by:
1. Sutton 2. Boveri
3. Morgan 4. Mendel

Options Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals,

A B C D vitamins, and proteins is called:
1. Runner Archegoniophore Synergid Antheridium1. somatic hybridization
2. Offset Antheridiophore Antipodals Oogonium 2. biofortification
Megaspore 3. biomagnification
3. Sucker Seta mother Gamma cup4. micropropagation
cell
4. Rhizome Sporangiophore Polar cell Globule
If the distance between two consecutive base
pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs
Which of the following statements is not of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell
correct? is 6. 6 × 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is
Lysosomes are formed by the process of approximately:
1.
packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum. 1. 2.5 meters 2. 2.2 meters
2. Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes 3. 2.7 meters 4. 2.0 meters
The hydrolytic enzyme of lysosomes are active
3.
under acidic pH
4. Lysosomes are membrane bound structure. dB is a standard abbreviation used for the
quantitative expression of:
1. the density of bacteria in a medium
Which of the following is not used as a 2. a particular pollutant
biopesticide? 3. the dominant Bacillus in a culture
1. 4. a certain pesticide
2. harzianum
3. (NPV)
4. Xanthomonas campestris

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In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have: Study the four statements (I-IV) given below
thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few and select the two correct ones out of them:
1.
chloroplasts Definition of biological species was given by
1.
thin walls, many intercellular spaces and Ernst Mayr.
2.
no chloroplasts Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in
2.
thick walls, no intercellular spaces and a large plants.
3.
number of chloroplasts Binomial nomenclature system was given by RH
3.
thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several Whittaker.
4.
chloroplasts In unicellular organisms, reproduction is
4.
synonymous with growth.

Western Ghats have a large number of plant The two correct statements are:
and animal species that are not found anywhere 1. II and I
else. Which of the following terms will you use to 2. III and IV
notify such species? 3. I and IV
1. Endemic 2. Vulnerable 4. I and II
3. Threatened 4. Keystone

Match List I with List II

Select the correct option with respect to
mitosis. (Interaction) (Species A and B)
A. Mutualism I. +(A), O(B)
Chromatids start moving towards opposite
1. B. Commensalism II. –(A), O(B)
poles in telophase.
C. Amensalism III. +(A), –(B)
Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are
2. D. Parasitism IV +(A), +(B)
still visible at the end of prophase.
Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and
Choose the correct answer from the options given
3. get aligned along the equatorial plate in
below :
metaphase.
Options: A B C D
Chromatids separate but remain in the center of
4. 1. III I IV II
the cell in anaphase.
2. IV II I II
3. IV I II III
4. IV III I II

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Given below is the diagram of a stomatal

apparatus. In which of the following, all the four Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of:
parts labelled as A, B, C and D are correctly
identified: 1. Gossypium
2. Triticum
3. Brassia
4.

Given below are two statements

The rate of decomposition is not
related to chemical composition of
detritus and climatic factors.
A B C D
In a particular climatic condition,
Stomatal Subsidiary Epidermal decomposition rate is faster if detritus
1. Guard cell
aperture Cell Cell is rich in lignin and chitin.
Epidermal Stomatal Subsidiary In light of the above statements, choose the correct
2. Guard Cell
Cell aperture cell answer from the options given below:
Epidermal Subsidiary Stomatal 1. Both and are True
3. Guard Cell
Cell Cell aperture 2. Both and are False
Subsidiary Epidermal Stomatal 3. is True but is False
4. Guard Cell
Cell Cell aperture 4. is False but is True

Which two distinct microbial processes are

responsible for the release of fixed nitrogen as
The energy-releasing process in which the dinitrogen gas (N2) to the atmosphere?
substrate is oxidized without an external electron
acceptor is called: 1. Aerobic nitrate oxidation, and nitrite reduction
Decomposition of organic nitrogen, and
1. fermentation 2. conversion of dinitrogen to ammonium
2. photorespiration compounds
3. aerobic respiration Enteric fermentation in cattle, and nitrogen
4. glycolysis 3.
fixation by in root nodules of legumes
Anaerobic ammonium oxidation, and
The phenomenon by which the undividing 4.
denitrification
parenchyma cells start to divide mitotically during
plant tissue culture is called as :
1. Differentiation
2. Dedifferentiation
Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes
3. Redifferentiation
among the following :
4. Secondary growth
1. and
2. and
3. and
4. and

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Barophilic prokaryotes: is used in the

formation of:
Grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at 1. Ethanol
1.
high altitudes 2. Methanol
Grow and multiply in very deep marine 3. Acetic acid
2. 4. Antibiotics
sediments
Readily grow and divide in seawater enriched in
3. Which of the following is the correct floral
any soluble salt of barium
formula of Liliaceae?
Occur in water containing high concentrations of
4.
barium hydroxide
1.

Root pressure develops due to?

1. Active absorption 2.
2. Low osmotic potential in Soil
3. Passive absorption
4. Increase in transpiration 3.

The chief advantage of encystment to an

is: 4.
The ability to survive during adverse physical
1.
conditions
The ability to live for some time without
2.
ingesting food What is the reason for the formation of
3. Protection from parasites and predators embryoids from pollen grain in tissue culture
The chance to get rid of accumulated waste medium?
4. 1. Cellular totipotency
products
2. Organogenesis
3. Double fertilization
The organelles that are included in the 4. Test tube culture
endomembrane system are:
Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes, and Sickle cell anaemia is due to:
1. Change of Amino Acid in α-chain of
Lysosomes 1.
Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Haemoglobin.
2. Change of Amino Acid in β-chain of
Mitochondria, and Lysosomes 2.
The endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Haemoglobin.
3. Change of Amino acid in both α and β chains of
Ribosomes, and Lysosomes 3.
The endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Haemoglobin.
4. Change of Amino acid either α or β chain of
Lysosomes, and Vacuoles 4.
Haemoglobin.

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Consider the following four statements (I-IV) Study the pathway given below:
and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only:
Single-cell can produce large
I. quantities of food rich in protein, minerals,
vitamins, etc.
Body weight-wise, the
microorganism
II. may be able to produce several times more
proteins than that produced by a cow per day
through its milk.
Common button mushrooms are a very rich
III.
source of vitamin C.
A rice variety has been developed which is very
IV.
rich in calcium.

1. Statements (I), (III), and (IV)

2. Statements (II), (III), and (IV)
3. Statements (I), (II) In which of the following options, correct words for
4. Statements (III), (IV) all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated?
A B C
1. Fixation Transamination Regeneration
2. Fixation Decarboxylation Regeneration
A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily
by the three regions in DNA and these are with 3. Carboxylation Decarboxylation Reduction
respect to upstream and downstream end: 4. Decarboxylation Reduction Regeneration
1. Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene
2. Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene
3. Promotor, Structural gene, Terminator conservation refers to:
4. Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene 1. Conserve only extinct species
2. Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
The thickness of the ozone in a column of air 3. Conserve only high risk species
from the ground to the top of the atmosphere is 4. Conserve only endangered species
measured in terms of :
1. Dalton units During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to
2. Svedberg units disappear at:
3. Monomeric units 1. late prophase
4. Dobson units 2. early metaphase
3. late metaphase
4. early prophase

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Which one of the following is not an

essential mineral element for plants while the
Regarding Meiosis, which of the statement is remaining three are?
incorrect ? 1. Phosphorus
Four haploid cells are formed at the end of 2. Iron
1. 3. Manganese
Meiosis-II.
4. Cadmium
2. There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II.
3. DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis-II.
Which one of the following generally acts as an
Pairing of homologous chromosomes and antagonist to Gibberellins?
4.
recombination occurs in Meiosis-I. 1. Ethylene
2. ABA
3. IAA
In some plants, the thalamus contributes to 4. Zeatin
fruit formation. Such fruits are termed as:
1. False fruits Green house effect is:
2. Aggregate fruits 1. Gardening outside the house
3. True fruits 2. Global cooling
4. Parthenocarpic fruits 3. Global warming
4. Green colour house
When dominant and recessive alleles express
themselves together it is called: In , aestivation is:
1. Co-dominance 1. Valvate 2. Vexillary
2. Dominance
3. Imbricate 4. Twisted
3. Amphidominance
4. Pseudo dominance

Match List I with List II:

Consider the following four conditions (I-IV) and
select the correct pair of them as an adaption to A. Axoneme I. Centriole
the environment in desert lizards. B. Cartwheel pattern II. Cilia and flagella
The conditions: C. Crista III. Chromosome
I. Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature D. Satellite IV. Mitochondria
Losing heat rapidly from the body during high
II.
temperature Choose the correct answer from the options given
III. Bask in the sun when the temperature is low below:
IV. Insulating body due to the thick fatty dermis 1. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
2. A-II ,B-IV, C-I, D-III
3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
1. (I) and (III) 2. (II) and (IV)
4. A-IV,B-III, C-II, D-I
3. (I) and (II) 4. (III) and (IV)

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Breeding crops, with higher levels of vitamins

and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats,
is called: Read the following four statements (I-IV):
1. Bio-accumulation Colostrum is recommended for the newborn
2. Bio-magnification I.
because it is rich in antigen
3. Bio-remediation
Chikungunya is caused by a Gram-negative
4. Bio-fortification II.
bacterium
Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining
If 20 J of energy is trapped at the producer III.
virus-free plants
level, then how much energy will be available to
peacocks as food in the following chain? Beer is manufactured by distillation of
IV.
fermented grape juice
Plant → mice → snake → peacock
1. 0.02 J 2. 0.002 J
3. 0.2 J 4. 0.0002 J How many of the above statements are wrong?
1. Three
2. Four
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying 3. One
differences in some specific regions in DNA 4. Two
sequence called:
1. Single nucleotides 2. Polymorphic DNA
3. Satellite DNA 4. Repetitive DNA
In humans, the process of respiration involves
the following steps:
The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane
human in making curd from milk and in production Diffusion of gases between blood and tissues
of antibiotics are the ones categorized as: Transport of gases by blood
1. Cyanobacteria Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic
2. Archaebacteria reactions
3. Chemosynthetic autotrophs Breathing or pulmonary ventilation
4. Heterotrophic bacteria Choose the correct sequence of steps from the
options given below:
When a carrier protein facilitates the movement
1. A →E→B→C→D
of two molecules across the membrane in same
2. C →E→A→B→D
direction, it is called :
3. B →D→C→E→A
1. Uniport
4. E →A→C→B→D
2. Transport
3. Antiport
Which of the following is not a function of the
4. Symport
skeletal system?
1. Production of erythrocytes
Male gametes are flagellated in:
2. Storage of minerals
1.
3. Production of body heat
2.
4. Locomotion
3.
4.

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Arrange the sequence of different hormones for Which one of the following structural formulae
their role during gametogenesis: of two organic compounds are correctly identified
Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and along with its related function?
A.
secretion of Androgen
Gonadotropin releasing hormone from
B.
hypothalamus
C. Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis
Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of
D.
spermiogenesis
E. Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
1. (E), (A), (D), (B), (C) 2. (C), (A), (D), (E), (B)
3. (B), (E), (A), (C), (D) 4. (D), (B), (A), (C), (E)

Which one of the following is not a part of a renal

pyramid?

1. Convoluted tubules
2. Collecting ducts
3. Loops Henle 1. A- Triglyceride – a major source of energy
4. Peritubular capillaries 2. B- Uracil – a component of DNA
3. A- Lecithin – a component of cell membrane
Name the blood cells, whose reduction in 4. B- Adenine – a nucleotide that makes up nucleic
number can cause clotting disorder, leading to acids
excessive loss of blood from the body:
1. Erythrocytes
2. Leucocytes
Identify the correct statement with reference to
3. Neutrophils
human digestive system
4. Thrombocytes
1. Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary
canal.
The unique mammalian characteristics are:
2. Ileum is a highly coiled part.
1. pinna, monocondylic skull and mammary glands
3. Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.
2. hairs, tympanic membrane and mammary glands
4. Ileum opens into small intestine.
3. hairs, pinna and mammary glands
4. hairs, pinna and indirect development
Artificial light, extended work-time and reduced
sleep-time disrupt the activity of:
1. Thymus gland
2. Pineal gland
3. Adrenal gland
4. Posterior pituitary gland

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The factor that leads to Founder effect in a Select the answer with correct matching of the
population is: structure, its location and function:
1. Mutation A B C
2. Genetic drift Controls
3. Natural selection respiration
4. Genetic recombination 1. Cerebellum Mid brain
and gastric
secretions
For effective treatment of the disease, early Controls body
diagnosis and understanding of its temperature,
pathophysiology is very important. Which of the 2. Hypothalamus Fore brain urge for
following molecular diagnostic techniques is very eating and
useful for early detection? drinking
Hybridization
1. ELISA Technique 2. Near the
Technique
place Rods and
Western Blotting Southern Blotting where optic cones are
3. 4. 3. Blind spot
Technique Technique nerve present but
leaves the inactive here
eye
Which of the following are used in gene Equalizes air
cloning: pressure on
1. Lomasomes Anterior
Eustachian either sides
2. Mesosomes 4. part of
tube of
3. Plasmids internal ear
tympanic
4. Nucleoids membrane

Select the incorrectly matched pair from the

following:
AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects:
1. Chondrocytes - Smooth muscle cells
1. Activator B cells
2. Neurons - Nerve cells
2. T4 lymphocytes
3. Fibroblast - Areolar tissue
3. Cytotoxic T cells
4. Osteocytes - Bone cells
4. All lymphocytes

Given below are two statements:

Intra Cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is
another specialized procedure of
fertilization.
Infertility cases due to the inability of the male
partner to inseminate the female can be
corrected by artificial insemination (AI)

In light of the above statements, choose the correct

answer from the options given below:
1. is correct but is false
2. is incorrect but is true
3. Both and are true
4. Both and are false

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Match List I with List II: Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of
the excretory products of:
Expiratory reserve 1. man
volume + Tidal volume 2. earthworm
1. Expiratory capacity I. 3. cockroach
+ Inspiratory reserve
volume 4. frog
Tidal volume +
Functional residual A certain road accident patient with an
2. II. Expiratory reserve
capacity unknown blood group needs an immediate blood
volume
transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers
Tidal volume +
his blood. What was the blood group of the donor?
3. Vital capacity III. Inspiratory reserve
1. Blood group B
volume
2. Blood group AB
Expiratory reserve 3. Blood group O
Inspiratory
4. IV. volume + Residual 4. Blood group A
capacity
volume
Match List - I with List - II
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(A) Contractile vacuole (I)
1. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (B) Water vascular system (II)
3. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (C) Canal system (III)
4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (D) Flame cells (IV)

An acromion process is characteristically found Choose the correct answer from the options given
in the: below:
1. Skull of frog Options: (A) (B) (C) (D)
2. Sperm of mammals 1. (IV) (II) (I) (III)
3. Pelvic girdle of mammals 2. (I) (III) (II) (IV)
4. Pectoral girdle of mammals
3. (III) (II) (I) (IV)
Which one of the following statements about 4. (II) (I) (III) (IV)
human sperm is correct?
The acrosome has a conical, pointed structure
1. used for piercing and penetrating the egg,
resulting in fertilization.
The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the
2.
egg envelope, facilitating fertilization.
The acrosome serves as a sensory structure,
3.
leading the sperm towards the ovum.
4. The acrosome serves no particular function.

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The figure given below shows the conversions Match List I with List II
of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In which
one of the four options (1-4), the components of A. Peptic cells I. Mucus
the reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified B. Goblet cells II. Bile juice
correctly:
C. Oxyntic cells. III. Proenzyme pepsinogen
HCl and intrinsic factor for
D. Hepatic cells IV.
absorption of vitamin B12
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
Options: A B C D
1. II IV I III
2. IV III II I
3. II I III IV
Options
4. III I IV II
A B C D
Activation
Activation
Transition Potential energy Which of the following hormones is responsible
1. energy with
state energy without for both the milk ejection reflex and the foetal
enzyme
enzyme ejection reflex?
Activation 1. Estrogen 2. Prolactin
Activation
Potential Transition energy
2. energy with 3. Oxytocin 4. Relaxin
energy state without
enzyme
enzyme
Activation Which one of the following options gives one
Activation
Transition energy Potential correct example of convergent evolution and
3. energy with
state without energy divergent evolution?
enzyme
enzyme
Activation
Activation Eyes of octopus and Bones of forelimbs
Potential Transition energy 1.
4. energy with mammals of vertebrates
energy state without
enzyme Thorns of Bougainvillea Wings of butterflies
enzyme 2.
and tendrils Cucurbita and birds
Bones of forelimbs of Wings of butterfly
3.
vertebrates and birds
Thorns of Bougainvillea Eyes of Octopus
4.
and tendrils of Cucurbita and mammals

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Which of the following is commonly used as a Which of the following receptors are
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human specifically responsible for maintenance of balance
Lymphocytes? of body and posture?
1. Retrovirus 1. Basilar membrane and otoliths
2. Ti plasmid 2. Hair cells and organ of corti
3. λ phage 3. Tectorial membrane and macula
4. pBR 322 4. Crista ampullaris and macula

Which of the following is correct regarding

Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand AIDS causative agent HIV?
giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. HIV is an enveloped virus containing one
What is so, special shown in it? 1. molecule of single-stranded RNA and one
5’___GAATTC___3’ molecule of reverse transcriptase
3’___CTTAAG__5’ HIV is an enveloped virus that contains two
2. identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and
1. Deletion mutation two molecules of reverse transcriptase
2. Start codon at the 5' end 3. HIV is an unenveloped retrovirus
3. Palindromic sequence of base pairs
HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired
4. Replication completed 4.
immune response
Which type of tissue is correctly matched with
its location?
What is true about RBCs in humans?
Tissue Location
1. They carry about 20-25 per cent of CO2
1. Areolar tissue Tendons
2. Transitional epithelium Tip of nose 2. They transport 99.5 per cent of O2
3. Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach They transport about 80 per cent oxygen only
3. and the rest 20 per cent of it is transported in
4. Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
dissolved state in blood plasma
4. They do not carry CO2 at all
The technique called gamete intrafallopian
transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females:
who cannot provide a suitable environment for Low Ca2+ in the body fluid may be the cause of:
1. 1. tetany
fertilisation
2. who cannot produce an ovum 2. anaemia
3. angina pectoris
3. who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
4. gout
whose cervical canal is too narrow to
4.
allow passage for the sperms

Nucleic acid in HIV:

1. ss RNA
2. ds RNA
3. ss DNA
4. ds DNA

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The terga,sterna and pleura of the cockroach Given below are two statements:
body are joined by: Amino acids have a property of
1. cementing glue ionizable nature of –NH2 and –COOH
2. muscular tissue groups, hence have different structures
3. arthrodial membrane at different pH.
4. cartilage Amino acids can exist as Zwitterionic
form at acidic and basic pH.
Removal of the proximal convoluted tubule
In the light of the above statements, choose the
from the nephron will result in:
most appropriate answer from the options given
1. more diluted urine
below:
2. more concentrated urine
1. Both and are correct.
3. no change in the quality and quantity of urine
4. no urine formation 2. Both and are Incorrect.
is correct but is
3.
incorrect.
Which one of the following is the correct is incorrect but is
4.
matching of three items and their grouping correct.
category?
Items Group
1. Malleus, incus cochlea Ear ossicles Silencing of mRNA has been used in
Coxal bones of pelvic producing transgenic plants resistant to:
2. Ilium, ischium, pubis 1. Bacterial blights
girdle
2. Bollworms
Actin, myosin
3. Muscle proteins 3. Nematodes
rhodopsin
4. White rusts
Cytosine, uracil
4. pyrimidines
thiamine Identify the wrong statement with reference to
transport of oxygen:
Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2
1.
binding with haemoglobin.
Higher H+ concentration in alveoli favours the
2.
formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of
3.
oxyhaemoglobin.
Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly
4.
related to partial pressure of O2.

The test-tube baby programme employs which

one of the following techniques?
1. Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
2. Intra Uterine Insemination (IUI)
3. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
4. Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer(ZIFT)

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Select the correct statement. Which of the following is not a selectable

1. Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia. marker of cloning vectors?
2. Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes. 1. Ampicillin
3. Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia. 2. Metformin
4. Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis. 3. Chloramphenicol
4. Tetracycline
Role of enamel is to :
1. Connect crown of tooth with its root. Select the correct statements:
2. Masticate the food. Platyhelminthes are triploblastic,
3. Form bolus. pseudocoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical
4. Give basic shape to the teeth organisms.
Ctenophores reproduce only sexually and
The hepatic portal vein drains blood to the liver fertilization is external.
from: In tapeworm, fertilization is internal but sexes
1. Stomach are not separate.
2. Kidneys
Ctenophores are exclusively marine, diploblastic
3. Intestine
and bioluminescent organisms.
4. Heart
In sponges, fertilization is external and
Given below are two statements : one is development is direct.
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
Pregnancy is characterised by 1. , and only 2. , and only
metabolic changes in the mother. 3. and only 4. and only
During pregnancy the level of
thyroxine is increased in the
maternal blood. Which one of the following statements is not
correct?
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given Retinal is the light-absorbing portion of visual
1.
below: photo pigments
In retina, the rods have the photopigments
Both and are correct and is the 2. rhodopsin while cones have three different
1. photopigments.
correct explanation of .
Both and are correct but is not the 3. Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin C
2.
correct explanation of . Rhodopsin is the purplish protein present in rods
4.
3. is correct but is not correct. only.
4. is not correct but is correct.

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The incorrect statement among the following

Which one of the following methods can be regarding interstitial compounds is:
used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at 1. They are chemically reactive.
room temperature? 2. They are much harder than the pure metal.
1. Distillation 3. They have a higher melting point than pure
2. Zone refining metals.
3. Electrolysis 4. They retain metallic conductivity.
4. Chromatography

The Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of

nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of The ideal solution indicates:
nitrogen in which one of the following compounds? A – B attraction force is greater than A – A and
1.
B – B.
A – B attraction force is less than A – A and B –
2.
1. 2. B.
Attraction force remains the same in A – A and
3.
B – B.
The volume of the solution is different from the
4.
sum of the volume of the solute and solvent.
3. 4.

The correct sequence given below contains

neutral, acidic, basic, and amphoteric oxide each,
respectively is:
The ionization energy required to remove an
2+
electron from the second orbit of Li is: 1. NO, ZnO, CO2, CaO 2. ZnO, NO, CaO, CO2
1. 122.4 eV 3. NO, CO2, ZnO, CaO 4. NO, CO2, CaO, ZnO
2. 40.8 eV
3. 30.6 eV
4. 13.6 eV Pumice stone is an example of-
1. foam 2. sol
The number of hydrogen bonded water 3. gel 4. solid sol
molecules(s) associated with CuSO4 . 5H2 O is:
1. 3
2. 1
3. 2
4. 5

Page: 15
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 03 Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Mark the correct increasing order of basic
Zn − H2 O gives propanone and ethanal in strength of given molecules:
equimolar ratio. The addition of HCl to alkene "A"
gives "B" as the major product. The structure of
product "B" is:

1. 2.

(I) (II) (III)

3. 4.
1. III < I < II
2. III < II < I
3. II < I < III
4. II < III < I
The number of octahedral void(s) per atom
present in a cubic close-packed structure is:
1. 1
2. 3 Weight (g) of two moles of the organic
3. 2 compound, which is obtained by heating sodium
4. 4 ethanoate with sodium hydroxide in the presence
of calcium oxide is:
Among the given complex, the complex 1. 18
having the highest paramagnetic behaviour is: 2. 16
(At. No. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30) 3. 32
2+ 4. 30
1. [Zn (NH3 )6 ]
3+
2. [Ti (NH3 )6 ] During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution
3+ (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the
3. [Cr (NH3 )6 ]
3+ following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of
4. [Co (NH3 )6 ] Fe2+ ion?
1. Concentrated sulphuric acid
2. Dilute nitric acid
3. Dilute sulphuric acid
4. Dilute hydrochloric acid

Which of the following contains the highest

number of helium atoms?
1. 4 u of helium
2. 4 g of helium
3. 2.27 L of helium at STP
4. 4 mol of helium

Page: 16
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 03 Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Nitrogen form N2 , but phosphorous form P2 , Match List - I with List - II.
it's at a time convert in P4 , reason is: List-I List - II
1. Triple bond present between phosphorous (Hydrides) (Nature)
atoms. (a) MgH2 (i) Electron precise
2. pπ − pπ bonding is weak in phosphorous.
(b) GeH4 (ii) Electron deficient
3. pπ − pπ bonding is strong in phosphorous.
4. Multiple bonds easily form phosphorous. (c) B2H6 (iii) Electron rich
(d) HF (iv) Ionic
Intermolecular forces are forces of attraction Choose the correct answer from the options given
and repulsion between interacting particles that will below:
be: (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. dipole - dipole forces 1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
B. dipole-induced dipole forces 2. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
C. hydrogen bonding 3. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
D. covalent bonding 4. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
E. dispersion forces
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: When 5 litres of a gas mixture of methane and
1. A, C, D, E are correct propane is perfectly combusted at 0°C and 1
2. B, C, D, E are correct atmosphere, 16 litres of oxygen at the same
3. A, B, C, D, E are correct temperature and pressure is consumed. The
4. A, B, C, E are correct amount of heat released from this combustion in
kJ (ΔHcomb. (CH4) = 890 kJ mol–1, ΔHcomb(
The correct example of metal displacement
C3H8) = 2220 kJ mol–1) is:
reaction among the following is:
1. 38
1. Fe + 2HCl → FeCl2 + H2 ↑
2. 317
2. 2 Pb (NO3 )2 → 2PbO + 4 NO2 + O2 ↑
3. 477
Δ
3. 2 KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2 4. 32
Δ
4. Cr2 O3 + 2Al → Al2 O3 + 2 Cr
The reactivity order of halides for
dehydrohalogenation is:
1. R–F > R–Cl > R–Br > R–I
2. R–I > R–Br > R–Cl > R–F
3. R–I > R–Cl > R–Br > R–F
4. R–F > R–I > R–Br > R–Cl

Page: 17
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 03 Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Structures of some common polymers are Match List I with List II for the composition of
given. The incorrect match is: substances and select the correct answer using the
code given below:
1. Teflon
List-II
List-I Substances
Composition
(A) Plaster of paris (i) CaSO4. 2HO
2. Neoprene
(B) Epsomite (ii) CaSO4.½H2O
(C) Kieserite (iii) MgSO4.7H2O
3. Terylene (D) Gypsum (iv) MgSO4.H2O
(v) CaSO4
4. Nylon 66
Code :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
2. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
The correct statement among the following is:
3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Any aldehyde gives secondary alcohol
1. 4. (i) (ii) (iii) (v)
on reduction.
The reaction of vegetable oil with H2SO4 gives
2.
glycerin.
The ionization constant of ammonium
3. C2 H5OH and iodine with NaOH give iodoform. hydroxide is 1.77 x 10-5 at 298 K. Hydrolysis
4. Sucrose in reaction with NaCl gives invert sugar. constant of ammonium Chloride is:
1. 5.65 x 10-10
2. 6.50 x 10-12
3. 5.65 x 10-13
4. 5.65 x 10-12

2A → B + C; It would be a zero-order
reaction when:
The rate of reaction is proportional to the
1.
square of the concentration of A
The rate of reaction remains the same at
2.
any concentration of A
The rate remains unchanged at
3.
any concentration of B and C
The rate of reaction doubles if the concentration
4.
of B is doubled

Page: 18
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 03 Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Which of the following is the most correct Match List - I with List - II.
electron displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to
take place?
1. Antacids Salvarsan
Antihistamines Morphine
2. Analgesics Cimetidine
Antimicrobials Seldane
Choose the correct answer from the options given
3.
below:
4.
1. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
2. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
In a Borax bead test, which compound is 3. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
formed: 4. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
1. Orthoborate
2. Metaborate
3. Double oxide A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown
4. Tetraborate below.
A|A+(x M) || B+(y M)|B
The RBC deficiency is a deficiency disease of: The Emf measured is +0.20 V. The cell reaction is:
1. Vitamin B1 1. A+ + B → A + B+
2. Vitamin B2 2. A+ + e- → A ; B+ + e- → B
3. Vitamin B12 3. The cell reaction cannot be predicted.
4. Vitamin B6 4. A + B+ → A+ + B

The incorrect statement about carbon The metal oxide which cannot be reduced to
monoxide is- metal by carbon is:
1. It reduces the oxygen-carrying ability of blood. 1. Al2O3
The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound 2. PbO
2. 3. ZnO
to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
3. It is produced due to incomplete combustion. 4. Fe2O3
4. It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.

Page: 19
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 03 Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

The most stable carbocation among the 4− 3−

[Fe (CN)6 ] → [Fe (CN)6 ] + e− ;
following is: o
E = −0. 35 V
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e− ; Eo = −0. 77 V
1. The strongest oxidizing agent in the above
equation is:
4−
1. [Fe (CN)6 ]
2+
2. 2. Fe
3+
3. Fe
3−
4. [Fe (CN)6 ]

3. Which one of the following alkali metals forms

only the normal oxide M2O on heating in air?
1. Rb
2. K
4. 3. Li
4. Na

The existence of two different coloured

complexes with the composition of
The number of d -electrons in Fe2+ (atomic +
[Co(NH3)4Cl2] is due to:
number Z = 26) is different from the number of: 1. Linkage isomerism
1. s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12) 2. Geometrical isomerism
2. p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17) 3. Coordination isomerism
3. d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26) 4. Ionisation isomerism
4. p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)
A compound among the following that can be
used as a tranquilizer is:
1. Promethazine
Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic 2. Valium
substitution exclusively by SN1 mechanism? 3. Naproxen
1. Ethyl chloride 4. Mifepristone
2. Isopropyl chloride
3. Benzyl chloride For an endothermic reaction, the energy of
4. Chlorobenzene activation is Ea, and the enthalpy of reaction is ∆H
(both of these in kJ/mol). The minimum value of
Ea will be:
1. Less than ΔH
2. Equal to ΔH
3. More than ΔH
4. Equal to zero

Page: 20
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 03 Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

The compound among the following that used The major products formed in the following
in cosmetic surgery is: reaction are:
1. Silica
2. Silicates
3. Silicones
4. Zeolites

In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type

1. 2.
DMF
− −
R − Br + Cl −−−→ R − Cl + Br
one of the following that has the highest relative
rate is:
3. 4.

1. CH3 − CH2 − CH2 Br 2.

What is the correct relationship between

changes in enthalpy and internal energy within the
3. 4. CH3 CH2 Br following options?
1. ΔH + ΔU = ΔnR
2. ΔH = ΔU − Δng RT
3. ΔH = ΔU + Δng RT
4. ΔH − ΔU = −Δng RT
How many number of tetrahedral voids are
formed in 5 mol of a compound having cubic close
If an atom has electronic configuration
packed structure? (Choose the correct option)
1s22s22p63s23p63d34s2, we will place it in group
1. 1.550 × 1024 2. 3.011 × 1025 number:
3. 3.011 × 1024 4. 6.022 × 1024 1. Fifth 2. Fifteenth
3. Second 4. Third

Wrong statement among the following is:

1. Bond energy of F2 > Cl2 A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases
2. Electronegativity of F > Cl in the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). The molar ratio of the two
3. F is more oxidizing than Cl gases in the mixture will be:
4. Electron affinity of Cl > F 1. 1:4 2. 4:1
3. 16:1 4. 2:1
The correct shape and hybridisation of BrF5
is:
2
1. Square pyramidal and sp3 d
2
2. Square pyramidal and d sp3
2
3. Trigonal bipyramidal and sp3 d
2
4. Trigonal bipyramidal and d sp3

Page: 21
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 03 Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

If a charge Q μC is placed at the centre of

the cube, the flux (In SI unit) coming out from any
A coil of resistance 400 Ω is placed in a surface will be:
magnetic field. The magnetic flux ϕ (Wb) linked Q Q
1. × 10−6 2. × 10−3
with the coil varies with time t (s) as 6ε0 6ε0
ϕ = 50t2 + 4. The current in the coil at t = 2 s is: Q Q
1. 0.5 A 3. 4.
2ε0 8ε0
2. 0.1 A
3. 2 A
4. 1 A
Match with .
→ →
If the angle between the vector A and B is (x-y graphs) (Situations)
→ → →
θ, the value of the product ( B × A ) ⋅ A is Total mechanical
energy is
equal to:
conserved
1. zero
2. BA2sin θ cos θ
3. BA2cos θ Bob of a
4. BA2sin θ pendulum is
oscillating under
The maximum elongation of a steel wire of negligible air
1 m length if the elastic limit of steel and its friction
−2
Young's modulus, respectively, are 8 × 108 N m
11 −2
and 2 × 10 N m , is:
1. 0.4 mm Restoring force
2. 40 mm of a spring
3. 8 mm
4. 4 mm
Bob of a
On observing light from three different stars
pendulum is
P , Q, and R, it was found that the intensity of the oscillating along
violet colour is maximum in the spectrum of P , the
with air friction
intensity of the green colour is maximum in the
spectrum of R and the intensity of the red colour is
maximum in the spectrum of Q. If TP , TQ , and TR Choose the correct answer from the options given
are the respective absolute temperatures of P , Q, below:
and R, then it can be concluded from the above
observations that: 1.
1. TP > TQ > TR 2.
2. TP > TR > TQ 3.
3. TP < TR < TQ 4.
4. TP < TQ < TR

Page: 22
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 03 Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter The universal gravitational constant is

telescope for a wavelength of 5000 Å is of the dimensionally represented as:
order of: 1. [ML2 T −1 ]
1. 10–4 rad 2. [M −2 L3 T −2 ]
2. 10–6 rad 3. [M −2 L2 T −1 ]
3. 106 rad
4. [M −1 L3 T −2 ]
4. 10–2 rad
The Bohr model of atoms:
A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass
1. uses Einstein's photoelectric equation.
940 kg and presses the button on control panel.
The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration 2. predicts continuous emission spectra for atoms.
of 1.0 ms−1 . If g = 10 ms−2 , the tension in the 3.
predicts the same emission spectra for all types
supporting cable is: of atoms.
1. 9680 N assumes that the angular momentum of
2. 11000 N 4. electrons is
3. 1200 N quantized.
4. 8600 N

The threshold frequency for a photosensitive

A drum of radius R and mass M rolls down metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If the light of frequency
without slipping along an inclined plane of angle θ. 8.2 × 1014 Hz is incident on this metal, the cutoff
The frictional force: voltage for the photoelectric emission will be:
1. Decreases the rotational and translational 1. 1 V 2. 2 V
motion
3. 3 V 4. 5 V
2. Dissipates energy as heat
3. Decreases the rotational motion
4. Converts translational energy to rotational
Two transparent media A and B are
energy
separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light
What is the cause of “Greenhouse effect”? in those media are 1.5 × 108 m/s and 2.0 × 108
1. Infra-red rays m/s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light
2. Ultraviolet rays for these two media is:
3. X-rays 1. tan−1 (0.750) 2. sin−1 (0.500)
4. Radio waves 3. sin−1 (0.750) 4. tan−1 (0.500)

Two particles A and B, move with constant

velocities v →1 and v→2 respectively. At the initial In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is
moment, their position vectors are r →1 and r→2 10 mH, capacitance C is 1 μF and resistance R
respectively. The condition for particles A and B is 100 Ω. The frequency at which resonance
for their collision will be: occurs is:
r→1 − r→2 v→2 − v→1 1. 1.59 kHz 2. 15.9 rad/s
1. =
|r→1 − r→2 | |v→2 − v→1 | 3. 15.9 kHz 4. 1.59 rad/s
→1 ⋅ v→1 = r→2 ⋅ v→2
2. r
→1 × v→1 = r→2 × v→2
3. r
→1 − r→2 = v→1 − v→2
4. r

Page: 23
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 03 Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the A very long conducting wire is bent in a semi-
ground with a certain momentum p. If the same circular shape from A to B as shown in the figure.
stone is dropped from a height 100% more than The magnetic field at the point P for steady current
the previous height, the momentum when it hits the configuration is given by:
ground will change by:
1. 41%
2. 200%
3. 100%
4. 68%

The half-life of a radioactive element X is 50

2
[1 − ] pointed into the page
yrs. It decays to another element Y which is stable. μ0 i
1.
The two elements X and Y were found to be in the 4R π
ratio of 1:15 in a sample of a given rock. The age of μ0 i
the rock was estimated to be: 2. pointed into the page
4R
1. 200 yr
μ0 i
2. 250 yr 3. pointed away from the page
3. 100 yr 4R
2
[1 − ] pointed away from the page
4. 150 yr
μ0 i
4.
4R π
An infinite number of bodies, each of mass
2 kg are situated on the x-axis at distances
1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m, . . . . . .respectively, from An object falls freely from height h above the
the origin. The resulting gravitational potential due ground. It
to this system at the origin will be: 5
8 4
travels h in the last 1 s. Then height h is: (Given g = 10 ms
1. − 3 G 2. − 3 G 9
1. 5 m 2. 25 m
3. −4G 4. −G
3. 45 m 4. 58 m

The pressure experienced by a swimmer

20 m below the water surface in a lake is
appropriately:
(Given density of water =
3 −3 −2 5
10 kgm , g = 10 ms and 1 atm = 10 Pa)
1. 1 atm 2. 2 atm
3. 3 atm 4. 4 atm

Page: 24
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 03 Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

An ideal gas equation can be written as A source of sound S emitting waves of

ρRT frequency 100 Hz and an observer O are located at
P= where ρ and M0 are respectively:
some distance from each other. The source is
M0
1. mass density, the mass of the gas. moving with a speed of 19.4 ms-1 at an angle of
2. number density, molar mass. 600 with the source-observer line as shown in the
3. mass density, molar mass. figure. The observer is at rest. The apparent
frequency observed by the observer (velocity of
4. number density, the mass of the gas.
sound in air 330 ms-1), is:

The efficiency of a Carnot engine is 50% and

the temperature of the sink is 500K. If the
temperature of the source is kept constant and its
efficiency raised to 60%, then the required
temperature of the sink will be:
1. 100 K
2. 600 K
3. 400 K
4. 500 K 1. 100 Hz
2. 103 Hz
A compass needle which is allowed to move 3. 106 Hz
in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic 4. 97 Hz
pole. It:
1. will become rigid showing no movement If the galvanometer G does not show any
2. will stay in any position deflection in the circuit shown, the value of R is
3. will stay in north-south direction only given by:
4. will stay in east-west direction only

1. 400 Ω 2. 200 Ω
3. 50 Ω 4. 100 Ω

Three capacitors each of capacity 4 µF are to

be connected in such a way that the effective
capacitance is 6 µF. This can be done by:
1. connecting all of them in a series.
2. connecting them in parallel.
3. connecting two in series and one in parallel.
4. connecting two in parallel and one in series.

Page: 25
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 03 Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

The output (Y ) of the given logic gate is Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q,
similar to the output of an/a: are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
repulsion between the ions, the number of
electrons missing from each ion will be:
(e is the charge on an electron)
2. √
4πε0 F d 2 4πε0 F e2
1.
e2 d2

3. √
4πε0 F d 2 4πε0 F d 2
4.
e2 q2
1. NOR gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
The phase difference between the
4. NAND gate
instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a
particle executing simple harmonic motion is:
The primary and secondary coils of a
1. 0.5π
transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If
2. π
the magnetic flux ϕ linked with the primary coil is
3. 0.707π
given by ϕ = ϕ0 + 4t, where ϕ is in Weber, t is
4. zero
time in seconds, and ϕ0 is a constant, the output
voltage across the secondary coil is: In Young's-double slit experiment, the distance
1. 90 V between the slits and the screen is doubled. The
2. 120 V separation between the slits is reduced to half. As
3. 220 V a result the fringe width:
4. 30 V 1. is halved

Vectors A, → B→ and C → are such that 2. become four times

3. remains unchanged
→ ⋅B
A → = 0 and A → ⋅C
→ = 0. Then the vector
4. is doubled
→ is:
parallel to A
→×B
1. A →
→ + C→
2. B
→ × C→
3. B
→ and C→
4. B

On a new scale of temperature, which is linear

and called the W scale, the freezing and boiling
points of water are 39∘ Wand 239∘ W
respectively. What will be the temperature on the
new scale corresponding to a temperature of
39∘ C on the Celsius scale?
∘
1. 78 C
∘
2. 117 W
3. 200∘ W
4. 139∘ W

Page: 26
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 03 Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

A wire carrying a current I along the positive

x-axis has length L. It is kept in a magnetic field
→
As per this diagram, a point charge +q is B = (2^ i + 3^j − 4k)
^ T. The magnitude of the
placed at the origin O. Work done in taking another
magnetic force acting on the wire is:
point charge −Q from the point A, coordinates
1. √3IL
(0, a), to another point B, coordinates (a, 0),
2. 3IL
along the straight path AB is:
3. √5IL
4. 5IL

In a Rutherford scattering experiment, when a

projectile of charge Z1 and mass M1 approaches
a target nucleus of charge Z2 and mass M2 , the
distance of the closest approach is r0 . The energy
−qQ 1
1. ( ) √2a 2. zero of the projectile is:
4πε0 a2 1. directly proportional to M1 M2 .
1 1 qQ 1
3. ( )
qQ
4. ( ) √2a 2. directly proportional to Z1 Z2 .
4πε0 a 2
√2 4πε0 a2 3. inversely proportional to Z1 .
4. directly proportional to mass M1 .

In the given figure, a = 15 m/s2 represents

the total acceleration of a particle moving in the If the error in the measurement of the radius
clockwise direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the
at a given instant of time. The speed of the particle determination of the volume of the sphere will be:
is: 1. 4%
2. 6%
3. 8%
4. 2%

1. 4.5 m/s
2. 5.0 m/s
3. 5.7 m/s
4. 6.2 m/s

Page: 27
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 03 Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

The given circuit has two ideal diodes From a disc of radius R and mass M, a
connected as shown in the figure below. The circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes
current flowing through the resistance R1 will be: through the centre is cut. What is the moment of
inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a
perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?
13
1. 32 MR2
11
2. 32 MR2
9
3. 32 MR2
15
4. 32 MR2

A body weighing 100 N on the surface of the

−2 1
Earth weights x kg-ms at a height 9 RE above
1. 2.5 A the surface of Earth. The value of x is:
2. 10.0 A (take g = 10 m s−2 at the surface of Earth and
3. 1.43 A RE is the radius of Earth)
4. 3.13 A 1. 72
2. 54
Match List-I with List-II 3. 81
4. 62
Diamagnet Alnico
Paramagnet Copper The terminal velocity of a copper ball of radius
5 mm falling through a tank of oil at room
Soft ferromagnet Aluminium
temperature is 10 cm s−1 . If the viscosity of oil at
Hard ferromagnet Gadolinium
room temperature is 0.9 kg m−1 s−1 , the viscous
drag force is:
Choose the correct answer from the options given
1. 8.48 × 10−3 N
below:
2. 8.48 × 10−5 N
1.
3. 4.23 × 10−3 N
2.
4. 4.23 × 10−6 N
3.
4.
A photosensitive metallic surface has a work
function of hν0 . If photons of energy 2hν0 fall on
this surface, the electrons come out with a
An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial
maximum velocity of 4 × 106 m/s. When the
volume using several processes. Which of the
photon energy is increased to 5hν0 , then the
processes results in the maximum work done on
maximum velocity of photoelectrons will be:
the gas?
1. 2 × 107 m/s
1. adiabatic
2. isobaric 2. 2 × 106 m/s
3. isochoric 3. 8 × 105 m/s
4. isothermal 4. 8 × 106 m/s

Page: 28
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 03 Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a

charge +Q. The electric field at the centre O of
the ring due to the charge on the part AKB of the
ring is E. The electric field at the centre due to the
*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
charge on the part ACDB of the ring is:
where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there

CLICK HERE to get

FREE ACCESS for 2
1. 3E along KO
days of ANY NEETprep
2. E along OK
3. E along KO
course
4. 3E along OK

In the nuclear decay given below:

A A−4 A−4
ZX →A Z+1 Y → Z−1 B → Z−1 B the particles
emitted in the sequence are:
1. β, α, γ 2. γ, β, α
3. β, γ, α 4. α, β, γ

A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a

distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and
the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a
screen 2 m away. The distance between the first
dark fringes on either side of the central bright
fringe is:
1. 1.2 cm
2. 1.2 mm
3. 2.4 cm
4. 2.4 mm

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