High Yield Test #2 (Level 1) - NEW NCERT

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

6. Which of the following microbes is used for the

Botany - Section A commercial production of citric acid?
1. In a type of apomixis known as adventive 1. Aspergillus niger
polyembryony, embryo develops directly from the: 2. Clostridium butylicum
1. synergids or antipodals in an embryo sac 3. Acetobacter aceti
4. Lactobacillus
2. nucellus or integuments
3. zygote 7. Frugivorous birds are found in large numbers in
4. accessory embryo sac in the ovule tropical forests mainly because of :
1. lack of niche specialisation.
2. higher annual rainfall.
2. Select the correct statement: 3. availability of fruits throughout the year.
1. Franklin Stahl coined the term "linkage" 4. temperature conducive for their breeding.
2. Punnett square was developed by a British scientist
3. Spliceosomes take part in translation 8. The embryo does not have:
4. Transduction was discovered by S. Altman 1. Embryonal axis
2. Radicle
3. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome 3. One or two cotyledons
indicates: 4. Seed coat
1. DNA replication is occurring
2. The DNA is condensed into a chromatin fibre 9. Which of the following shows the coordinated
3. The DNA double helix is exposed movement of cilia?
4. Transcription is occurring 1. Trypanosoma
2. Entamoeba
4. Mycorrhizal plants have the following benefits, 3. Paramoecium
except: 4. Plasmodium
1. Phosphorus from the soil by means of fungi
2. Resistance to root borne pathogens 10. Which of the following is not a true statement?
Tolerance to salinity, drought, and extremely low In translation, the transfer of genetic information
3. 1. from a polymer of nucleotides to a polymer of amino
temperature
acids takes place.
4. Overall increase in plant growth and development
Complementarity exists between nucleotide
2.
sequences and amino acid sequences.
5. Which of the following statements is true? The basis for transcription and replication is
3.
A British scientist created the conditions proposed by complementarity.
Oparin and Haldane in a closed flask with A change in nucleic acid is responsible for a change
4.
temperature of 800 degrees Celsius in electric in amino acid.
1.
discharge along with gases methane, hydrogen,
ammonia and water vapour and observed the
formation of amino acid. 11. Identify the incorrect statement:
Some similar experimental setups were also prepared Tall plant produces gametes by meiosis and the dwarf
1.
2. by other scientists and the formation of sugar, plant by mitosis.
nitrogenous bases, pigments and fats were recorded. 2. Only one allele is transmitted to a gamete.
The processes of chemical evolution occurring 3. The segregation of alleles is a random process.
3. elsewhere in space was concluded by the analysis of 4. Gametes will always be pure for the trait.
content of gaseous cloud.
The first self-replicating metabolic capsule of life
4.
arose 3 billion years back.

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12. Plants do not contain many parts that can be easily 16. Select the option with correct words for the blanks
fossilized. Which of the following has proved helpful in below:
preserving pollens as fossils? Histones are organised to form a unit of eight
1. Pollenkit A.
molecules called _______.
2. Cellulosic intine _______ constitute the repeating unit of a structure
3. Callose in pollen tetrad B.
in nucleus called chromatin.
4. Sporopollenin
The chromatin that is more densely packed and
C.
stains dark is called ________.
13. Match the following and choose the correct option:
Options:
Column I Column II
A B C
(a) Aleurone layer (i) without fertilization
1. Nucleosome Chromosome Euchromatin
(b) Parthenocarpic fruit (ii) Nutrition fruit
2. Histone octamer Nucleosome Heterochromatin
(c) Ovule (iii) Double fertilization
3. Histone octamer Nucleoid Euchromatin
(d) Endosperm (iv) Seed
4. Nucleosome Nucleoid Heterochromatin
Options:

(a) (b) (c) (d) 17. In the given diagram:

1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
3. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
4. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

I: A is filiform apparatus, B is synergid,

14. In RNAi, the genes are silenced using : II: C is PEN, D are egg cells
1. dsRNA III: E is generative nucleus, F is antipodal
2. ssDNA 1. Only I is correct 2. Only I and III are correct
3. ssRNA 3. Only II is correct 4. Only II and III are correct
4. dsDNA

15. Removal of apical dominance by decapitation is 18. In taxonomy:

utilised for: Nomenclature is critical as it allows a particular
1. Suppressing the activity of intercalary meristem I: organism to be known by the same name all over the
2. Early senescence world.
3. Hedge making Identification is critical as nomenclature or naming
4. Preparing weed-free lawns is only possible when the organism is described
II:
correctly and we know to what organism the name is
attached to.
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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19. 24. Select the wrong statement:

Whole plants can be regenerated from any Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes
1.
Assertion part of a plant taken out and grown in a test of nutrition
(A): tube, under sterile conditions in special 2. Some fungi are edible
nutrient media 3. Nuclear membrane is present in Monera
Reason 4. Cell wall is absent in Animalia
Every living plant cell is totipotent
(R):

Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) is the correct 25. Select the wrong statement:
1.
explanation of the (A) 1. Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism
Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) is not the 2. Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
2.
correct explanation of the (A)
Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of
3. (A) is True but (R) is False 3.
bacterial cells
4. Both (A) and (R) are False 4. Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells

20. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 26. Which of the following is not true regarding
was called: comparison between the gymnosperms Pinus and
for immediate steps to discontinue use of CFCs that Cycas?
1.
were damaging the ozone layer Character Pinus Cycas
2. to reduce CO2 emissions and global warming Root symbiotic
1. Mycorrhiza Cynobacteria
for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable association
3.
utilization of its benefits 2. Stem Branched Unbranched
to assess threat posed to native species by invasive Reproductive
4. 3. Dioecious Monoecious
weed species parts
Fall off as Persistent,
4. Scale leaves
branches mature protective
21. Glycolysis is found in the cytoplasm of virtually all
types of aerobic/anaerobic cells. In this process, glucose
is converted into : 27. Consider the following statements (a-d) each with
1. PEP one or two blanks.
2. acetyl CoA All solids that settle during primary treatment of
3. pyruvic acid 1.
sewage forms (i) and supernatant forms the (ii) .
4. citric acid
Secondary treatment of sewage is also known as
2.
22. The amount of biomass or organic matter produced (iii) treatment.
per unit area over a time period by plants during 3. A small part of the activated sludge is pumped back
photosynthesis is called: into the aeration tank to serve as the (iv) .
1. Secondary production 4. The sewage water is treated till (v) is reduced.
2. Primary production Which of the following options correctly fills the above
3. Gross primary production blanks?
4. Net primary production (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
Primary
23. Which one of the following statements is correct? 1. Flocs DO
sludge
1. The seed in grasses is not endospermic.
2. Effluent Biological Inoculum BOD
2. Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit
3. A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize 3. Primary
Flocs Inoculm DO
grain. sludge
4. A sterile pistil is called a staminode. Primary
4. Effluent Flocs BOD
sludge

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28. Select the incorrect statement with respect to C3 32. The age pyramid with broad base indicates:
cycle: 1. high percentage of old individuals
2. low percentage of young individuals
1. For one CO2 fixation, three ATPs are required
3. a stable population
Regeneration of the CO2 acceptor molecule RuBP is 4. high percentage of young individuals
2.
not crucial for the continuation of the cycle
3. The first stable product is PGA 33. The correct chronology of steps of formation of the
4. Carboxylation is the most crucial step given metabolites in TCA cycle is:
Isocitrate – Citrate – Succinyl CoA – α
1.
ketoglutarate
29. The given figure shows a T.S. of: 2. Citrate – Isocitrate – Succinyl CoA – α ketoglutarate
3. Citrate – Isocitrate – α ketoglutarate – Succinyl CoA
4. Isocitrate – Citrate – α ketoglutarate – Succinyl CoA

34. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was

crossed with a white flower and in F generation, pink
1

flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed,

the F generation showed white, red and pink flowers.
2

Choose the incorrect statement from the following:

1. Law of Segregation does not apply in this experiment
This experiment does not follow the Principle of
2.
Dominance
3. Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance
4. Ratio of F2 is 1/4(red):2/4(pink):1/4(white)
1. Monocot root
2. Dicot root
3. Dicot stem
4. Monocot stem 35. The sequence that controls the copy number of the
linked DNA in the vector is termed :
30. Some stages of development of a dicot embryo are 1. Ori site
given below:- 2. Palindromic sequence
3. Recognition site
a. Proembryo
4. Selectable marker
b. Globular stage
c. Heart shape
d. Mature embryo Botany - Section B
36. Find the incorrect statement about cell wall:
The correct sequence of the given stages is: 1. determines shape of the cell
2. prevent cell from bursting and collapsing
1. a, b, c, d 3. selective permeable in nature
2. c, d, b, a 4. provides strong structural support
3. a, c, d, b
4. b, d, c, a 37. Identify the correct match:
1. Coleorhiza Dicot family
2. Non-albuminous seed Thick and swollen cotyledon
31. DNA and RNA differ by:- 3. Residual nucellus maize
1. Nitrogen bases and sugars 4. Residual endosperm Pea
2. Nitrogen bases and phosphate groups
3. Number of C-atoms in sugars
4. Sugar and phosphate groups

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38. Choose correct option with respect to given below 42. The logistic population growth is expressed by the
inflorescence: equation:
1. dN

dt
= rN (
N −K

N
)

2. dt

dN
= N r(
K−N

K
)

3. dN

dt
= rN (
K−N

K
)

4. dN

dt
= rN

43. A molecule of GTP is synthesized in Krebs cycle

1. Main axis terminates in flower during:
2. Acropetal arrangement of flowers 1. the condensation of acetyl group with oxaloacetic acid
3. Unlimited growth of main axis 2. isomerization of citrate to isocitrate
4. More than one option is correct 3. the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinic acid
4. the regeneration of oxaloacetic acid
39. The diagram shows the inflorescence scheme and the
floral diagram of the family: 44. Which one is true for collenchyma?
1. forms the hypodermis of dicot stem
2. present below the epidermis in layers or patches
thickened corners due to cellulose, hemicellulose, and
3.
pectin deposition
4. All of the above

1. Liliaceae 2. Gramineae
3. Leguminosae 4. Rosaceae

40. Which plant hormone is used to prepare weed free

lawns?
1. Kinetin
2. 2,4-D
3. Zeatin
4. Dormin

41. In papaya:
both male and female flowers are present on the
I:
same plant
II: autogamy is prevented, but not geitonogamy

1. Only I is true 2. Only II is true

3. Both I and II are true 4. Both I and II are false

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45. Examine the figures A, B, C, and D and identify the 48. Plant tissue culture may offer certain advantages
one in which all labelings are correct? over traditional methods of propagation, including all
the following except:
The production of plants that exhibit large variations
1.
from the parent plants.
2. Quickly production of mature plants.
A. B. The regeneration of whole plants from plant cells that
3.
have been genetically modified.
Storage of genetic plant material to safeguard native
4.
plant species.

49. Identify the incorrect pair:

C. D. 1. Lectins - Concanavalin A
2. Drugs - Ricin
3. Alkaloids - Codeine
4. Toxin - Abrin

50. Which stages of cell division do the following

A B C D
figures A and B represent respectively ?
Male thallus of
1. Laminaria Salvinta Cayas
Marchantia
Female thallus of
2. Polysiphonia Equisetum Ginkgo
Marchantia
3. Chara Selaginella Sphagnum Ginkgo
4. Fucus Fern Funaria Pinus

46. Select the incorrect statement with respect to light

reaction: 1. Metaphase-Telophase
1. The primary acceptor of PS-ll is pheophytin 2. Telophase - Metaphase
2. The splitting of water is associated with PS-ll 3. Late anaphase – Prophase
In PS-l, the reaction centre Chlorophyll-a has an 4. Prophase – Anaphase
3.
absorption peak at 680 nm
4. The LHC are made up of core and antenna molecules
Zoology - Section A
51. Which of the following hormone is responsible for
47. Glycerol would enter the respiratory pathway after cell mediated immunity?
being converted to-
1. PGAL 1. Thyroxine
2. DPGA 2. adrenaline
3. PGA 3. Thymosins
4. Acetyl CoA 4. parathyroid

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52. Read the following statements carefully: 57. Which of the following is not a part of urine
Lipid component of the plasma membrane mainly formation?
A. 1.Glomerular Filtration
consists of phosphoglycerides.
Polar molecules can pass through the lipid bilayer of 2.Reabsorption
B. the plasma membrane, therefore they do not require 3.Secretion
carrier proteins to facilitate their transport. 4.Counter current mechanism
The secondary wall is capable of growth and it is
C. 58. Match the items given in Column I with those in
formed on the outer side of the cell.
Column II and select the correct option given below:
Quasi-fluid nature of lipids enables the lateral
Column I Column II
D. movement of proteins within the overall lipid bilayer
of the plasma membrane. a. Tricuspid i. Between left atrium and left
valve ventricle
Middle lamella glues the different neighboring cells
E. b. Bicuspid ii. Between right ventricle and
together.
valve pulmonary artery
How many statements are incorrect? c. Semilunar iii. Between right atrium and right
valve ventricle
1. Three 2. Five
3. Four 4. Two Options:

a b c
53. Bundles of skeletal muscle fibres called fascicles are 1. iii i ii
enclosed by a connective tissue known as: 2. i iii ii
1. Fascia 2. Perimysium 3. i ii iii
3. Endomysium 4. Epimysium 4. ii i iii

54. In genetic engineering, the antibiotic resistance 59. Under resting conditions, the axonal membrane is:
gene are used: impermeable to Na+ ions and relatively more
1. As selectable markers 1.
permeable to K+ ions.
2. To select healthy vectors
3. As sequences from where replication starts 2. impermeable to Na+ ions and K+ ions.
4. to keep the cultures free of infection +
3. freely permeable to Na ions and relatively more
impermeable to K+ ions.
55. Which one of the following is at high risk of 4.
freely permeable to Na+ ions and K+ ions.
extinction?
1. Mammals
2. Birds
3. Amphibians 60. Which of the following inhibits gastric secretion?
4. Echinoderms 1. Gastrin
2. Secretin
56. Which of the following is true for inspiration? 3. Cholecystokinin
1. thoracic chamber volume increases 4. Gastric inhibitory peptide
2. Diaphragm contracts
3. pulmonary volume increases
4. All of these

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61. The structure given below is of: 66. A human female with turner's syndrome:
1. has 45 chromosomes with XO
2. has one additional X-chromosome
3. exhibits male characters
4. is able to produce children with normal husband

67. Sertoli cells are found in:

1. ovaries and secrete progesterone
1. A purine base 2. Adenosine 2. adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
3. Adenylic acid 4. A pyrimidine base 3. seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ
cells
4. pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin
62. Match the organism in Column-I with its excretory
structure in Column-II: 68. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into:
Column I Column II 1. Digestive disorder
(a) Cockroach (p) Nephridia 2. Addison's disease
3. Dysfunction of Immune system
(b) Earthworm (q) Proboscis gland 4. Parkinson's disease
(c) Balanoglossus (r) Kidney
(d) Clarias (s) Malpighian tubules 69. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram:

(a (b) (c) (d)

1. (s) (p) (q) (r)
2. (s) (p) (r) (q)
3. (q) (p) (r) (s)
4. (s) (q) (r) (p)

63. Pvu I restriction site is present in pBR322 at:

1. rop
2. Tetracycline Resistance gene
3. Ampicillin Resistance gene
4. Ori
A B C D
64. Relief in allergic reactions can be provided by the 1. Z line A band H zone I band
use of all of the following except: 2. Z line A band I band H zone
1. Anti-histamines 2. Steroids 3. M line A band H zone I band
3. Adrenaline 4. Antibiotics 4. M line H zone A band I band

65. Which of the following is not true about Homo

sapiens?
1. Arose in 75000- 10000 years ago
2. Cave art developed about 18000 years ago
3. Agriculture came around 10000 years ago
Modern man's skull resembles more with adult
4.
chimpanzee than baby chimpanzee

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70. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their 74. Which one of the following pairs of animals
modes of action (a-d) in achieving contraception. Select comprises ‘jawless fishes’?
their correct matching from the four options that follow: 1. Guppies and hag fishes
Method Mode of action 2. Lampreys and eels
A The pill a Prevents sperms from reaching ovum 3. Mackerels and Rohu
4. Lampreys and hag fishes
B Condom b Prevents implantation
C Vasectomy c Prevents ovulation 75. Which of the following components provides sticky
D Copper - T d Semen contains no sperms character to the bacterial cell?
Options: 1. Cell wall
A B C D 2. Nuclear membrane
1. c a d b 3. plasma membrane
2. d a b c 4. Glycocalyx
3. c d a b 76. Which one of the following options gives the correct
4. b c a d matching of a disease with its causative organism and
mode of infection?
Causative
71. Skeletal muscles appear striated due to presence of Disease Mode of Infection
Organisms
two characteristic proteins in alternating dark and light 1. Typhoid Salmonella typhi With inspired air
bands. Which of the following is a correct match of the
protein with its light refractive property and colour? Streptococcus
2. Pneumonia Droplet infection
pneumoniae
Protein Colour Property
Wuchereria infected water and
1. Myosin Light Anisotropic 3. Elephantiasis
bancrofti food
2. Actin Dark Anisotropic
Bite of male
3. Myosin Dark Isotropic 4. Malaria Plasmodium vivax
anopheles mosquito
4. Actin Light Isotropic

77. Which one of the following techniques made it

72. Exotic species introduced in India are: possible to genetically engineer living organisms?
1. Lantana Camara, Water Hyacinth 1. Recombinant DNA techniques
2. Water Hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria 2. X-ray diffraction
3. Nile Perch, Ficus religiosa 3. Heavier isotope labeling
4. Ficus religiosa, Lantana Camara 4. Hybridization

73. Which of the following is a correct statement? 78. The eye of an octopus and the eye of a cat show
Every chemical reaction of metabolism is a catalysed different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar
1.
reaction. function. This is an example of:
There is no uncatalysed metabolic conversion in the Homologous organs that have evolved due to
2. 1.
living system. convergent evolution
The proteins with catalytic power are called as Homologous organs that have evolved due to
3. 2.
enzymes. divergent evolution
4. All of these Analogous organs that have evolved due to
3.
convergent evolution
Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent
4.
evolution

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79. Which one of the following statements is correct? 82. Match the items given in column I with those in
Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice column II and select the correct option given below:
1.
versa. Column I Column II
Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, and Accumulation of uric acid
2. (a) Glycosuria (i)
nervous system regulates endocrine glands. in joints
Neither hormones control neural activity nor do the Mass of crystallised salts
3. (b) Gout (ii)
neurons control endocrine activity. within the kidney
Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice
(c) Renal calculi (iii) Inflammation in glomeruli
4.
versa. (d) Glomerulonephritis (iv) Presence of glucose in urine
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
80. A drop of each of the following is placed separately
1. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?
1. Whole blood from pulmonary vein 2. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
2. Blood plasma 3. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
3. Blood serum 4. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
4. Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system

81. Select the answer with correct matching of the 83. Trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi at
structure, its location, and function: the level of:
Structure Location Function 1. Seventh cervical vertebra
Controls respiration 2. Third thoracic vertebra
1. Cerebellum Midbrain and gastric 3. Fifth thoracic vertebra
secretions 4. Seventh thoracic vertebra
Controls body
2. Hypothalamus Forebrain temperature, urge for 84. Select the incorrect statement with respect to male
eating and drinking reproductive system:
Near the place Seminiferous tubules in the testes are a site of sperm
Rods and cones are 1.
where optic formation
3. Blind spot present but inactive Leydig cells scattered outside the Seminiferous
nerve leaves the 2.
here tubules provide nourishment to sperms
eye
Equalizes air For most mammals, sperm production occurs
Eustachian Anterior part of pressure on either 3. properly only when the testes are cooler than normal
4. body temperature
tube internal ear side of tympanic
membrane Sperms, while passing through epididymis attain
4.
motility

85. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A): The alimentary canal in frog is short.
Reason (R): Frog is a herbivore.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not explain
2.
(A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

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91. The invertebrates have which of the following

Zoology - Section B excretory structures?
86. Which of the following events happen when air is 1. Simple Tubular forms
expelled from the lungs? 2. Complex tubular organs
1. Ribs and sternum return to the original position 3. Kidneys
2. volume of thorax decreases 4. Interstitial lamina
3. Diaphragm relaxes and arches upwards
4. All of the above 92. The ……. receive signals from …….and transmit it
via …….nerve root
87. Water retention in plasma is brought about mainly 1. Afferent neurons, sensory organs, dorsal
by: 2. Afferent neurons, effector organs, ventral
1. Fibrinogens 3. Efferent neurons, sensory organs, ventral
2. Serum albumins 4. Efferent neurons, effector organs, dorsal
3. Alpha globulins
4. Gamma globulins 93. Which of the following hormone is related to the
pigmentation of skin?
88. During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle 1. MSH
which of the following occur? 2. ACTH
The primary follicle grows and becomes fully 3. LH
I: 4. FSH
mature Graafian follicle
The endometrium of the uterus regenerates through
II: 94. Mark the feature which is not associated with white
proliferation
muscle fibres:
1. Only I 1. Lighter in color
2. Only II These muscles have a fast rate of contraction but for a
2.
3. I and II short period
4. None They depend mainly on glycolysis for
3.
energy production and soon get fatigued
Less sarcoplasmic reticulum compared to red muscle
4.
fibres
89. The protozoans that cause malaria in humans are :
1. Radiolarians 2. Dinoflagellates
3. Chrysophytes 4. Sporozoans 95. The first type II restriction endonuclease discovered
that could cut dsDNA at specific site was:
1. EcoRI
90. Mark the correct character of the following figure: 2. SmaI
3. Hind II
4. Hind III

96. What is true about Bt toxin?

1. The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.
The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form
2.
in the insect gut
3. BT protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus.
The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to
4.
sterilise it and thus prevent its multiplication
1. Tetrapedal and having bony plates on the back
2. Tetrapedal and having a collar on the neck
3. Bipedal and have huge fearsome dagger-like teeth
4. Bipedal and have three horns on head

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97. The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the 103. Which of the following pairs is expected to have
secretory source of: the same bond order?
1. progesterone 1. O , N
−

2
−

2. intestinal mucus 2. O , N
− +

2 2
3. glucagon 3. O , N
+ −

4. androgens 2 2

4. O , N
2 2

98. Which of the sets of diseases are completely curable

if detected early? 104. Which among the following is a paramagnetic
1. Hepatitis - B, Gonorrhoea, Syphilis complex?
2. Genital herpes, Chlamydiasis, Syphilis 1. [Co(NH3)6]3+
3. HIV Infections, Chlamydiasis, Gonorrhoea 2. [Pt(en)Cl2]
4. Chlamydiosis, Syphilis, Gonorrhoea
3. [CoBr4]2–
99. The symptoms of common cold lasts for: 4. Mo(CO)6
1. Generally 1 day (At. No. Mo = 42, Pt = 78)
2. Generally 2-3 days
3. Usually, At maximum 14 days 105. Select the correct option based on the statements
4. Usually 3-7 days below:
Chlorine is an electron-withdrawing
100. The length of E. coli DNA and the length of DNA Assertion (A): group but it is ortho, para directing in
in a human 2N cell is: electrophilic aromatic substitution.
1. 1.36 mm and 2.2 m respectively Inductive effect of chlorine destabilises
2. 1.36 mm and 2.2 mm respectively the intermediate carbocation formed
3. 1.3 ìm and 2.2 ìm respectively during the electrophilic substitution,
4. 1.36 cm and 2.2 cm respectively Reason (R): however due to the more pronounced
resonance effect, the halogen stabilises
Chemistry - Section A the carbocation at ortho and para
positions.
101. The compound Y in the above sequence of
reactions is: Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
1. 1-Phenylethene
2. 2-Phenyl-2-propanol
3. Acetophenone 106. The reaction of NO with N O at 250 K gives :
4. Benzaldehyde
2 4

1. N2O5 2. NO2
102. The d-electron configuration of [Ru(en)3]Cl2 and 3. N2 O 4. N2 O3
[Fe(H2O)6]Cl2, respectively are :
1. t2g6 eg0 and t2g4 eg2
4 2 4 2
107. The osmotic pressure of a 5 % (W/V) solution of
2. t
2g
eg and t
2g
eg
cane sugar at 150 °C is:
3. t
3

2g
3
eg and t
4

2g
2
eg 1. 1.45 atm 2. 5.07 atm
4 2 3 3
3. 3.4 atm 4. 4 atm
4. t eg and t eg
2g 2g

Page: 12
 High Yield Test #2 (Level 1) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

108. The major product of the following chemical 114. The molality of a urea solution in which 0.0100
reaction is : 3
(1) H3 O
+
,Δ
g of urea, [ CO(NH2)₂ ] is added to 0.3000 dm of
CH CH CN −
3 2 −−−−−−−−−→ water at STP is-
(3) P d/BaSO4 ,H2

(2) SOCl2 ?
1. 0.555 m 2. 5.55×10-4 m
1. CH3CH2CH3 2. CH3CH2CH2OH 3. 33.3 m 4. 3.33×10-2 m
3. (CH3CH2CO)2O 4. CH3CH2CHO

109. Among the following, the mixture that will produce

a buffer solution when mixed in equal volumes is- 115. The final product (III) obtained in the reaction
1. 0.1 mol dm-3 NH4OH and 0.1 mol dm-3 HCl sequence
2. 0.05 mol dm-3 NH4OH and 0.1 mol dm-3 HCl
3. 0.1 mol dm-3 NH4OH and 0.05 mol dm-3 HCl
4. .1 mol dm-3 CH3COONa and 0.1 mol dm-3 NaOH
is

110. One mole of sugar is dissolved in three moles of 1. 2.

water at 298 K. The relative lowering of vapour pressure
is:
1. 0.25 2. 0.15
3. 0.50 4. 0.33
3. 4. None of these

111. In both DNA and RNA, heterocyclic base and

phosphate ester linkages are at:
1. C5' and C1' respectively of the sugar molecule 116. Energy of H-atom in the ground state is -13.6 eV.
Hence, it can be concluded that the energy in the second
2. C1' and C5' respectively of the sugar molecule excited state will be:
3. C2' and C5' respectively of the sugar molecule 1. -6.8 eV
2. -3.4 eV
4. C5' and C2' respectively of the sugar molecule 3. -1.51 eV
4. -4.53 eV

112. To neutralize 20 mL of 0.1 M aqueous solution of 117. H2 gas is absorbed on the metal surface like
phosphorus acid (H P O ) completely, the volume of tungsten. This follows ________ order reaction:
3 3

0.1 M aqueous KOH solution required is: 1. Third

1. 10 mL 2. 20 mL 2. Second
3. 40 mL 4. 60 mL 3. Zero
4. First

113. The increasing order of the first ionization

enthalpies of the elements B, P , S and F (lowest first) is
:
1. F < S < P < B 2. P < S < B < F
3. B < P < S < F 4. B < S < P < F

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 High Yield Test #2 (Level 1) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

118. SN1 reaction is feasible in- 121. For the reaction:

Fe3O4 (s) + Al (s) → Fe (s) + Al2O3 (s)
1. The correct statement(s) in the equation is(are):
a. Stoichiometric coefficient of Fe is 9.
b. Aluminium is oxidized
2. c. Ferrous ferric oxide (Fe3O4) is oxidize
d. Aluminium is reduced.

3. 1. a, c
2. a, b
3. b, c
4. 4. c, d

122. The ionization constant of ammonia is 1.77 × 10–5.

119. For a chemical reaction,
The pH of a 0.05M of
CO(g) + 3H ( g) ⇌ CH ( g) + H O(g)
2 4 2
ammonia solution is 11. The ionization constant of the
At equilibrium, the following factor influence the conjugate acid of
quantity of product formed: ammonia is:
1. Temperature
2. Pressure 1. 2.44 × 10–9
3. Temperature and pressure 2. 6.14 × 10–12
4. Temperature, pressure and catalyst 3. 1.24 × 10–14
4. 5.64 × 10–10
120. The major product A in the following reaction is:
123. The incorrect statement about H2SO4 is-
1. It is used in the fertilizer industry.
It is used in the manufacture of pigments, paints, and
2.
detergents.
3. It is used in the manufacture of storage batteries.
1. 4. It is a weak dehydrating agent.

124. Incorrect match among the following is:

Tetraamminediaquacobalt(III) [Co(H O) (NH ) ]Cl
2. 1. 2 2 3 4 3
chloride
Ammine
2. bromidochloridonitrito-N- [Pt(NH3)BrCl(NO2)]-
platinate(II)
3. Dichloridobis
3. (ethane−1,2−diamine) [PtCl2(en)2](NO3)2
platinum(IV)nitrate
4. None of the above 4. Iron(III) hexacyanoferrate(II) Fe2[Fe(CN)6]3

Page: 14
 High Yield Test #2 (Level 1) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

125. Match the oxide given in column I with its property 129. The point that represents bond formation condition
given in column II as per the graph given below among the following is:
Column I Column II
(i) Na O
2 (a) Neutral
(ii) Al O
2 (b) Basic
3

(iii) N O
2 (c) Acidic
(iv) Cl O
2 (d) Amphoteric
7

Which of the following options is correct?

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 1. A 2. B

1. (b) (a) (d) (c) 3. C 4. D
2. (c) (b) (a) (d)
3. (a) (d) (b) (c)
4. (b) (d) (a) (c) 130. The product(s) formed from the following reaction
is/are:

126. The basic structural unit of silicates is:

1. (SiO ) 4
2. (SiO )
4−
3
2−

3. (SiO4 )
2−
4. (SiO)
−
1. RCOOH only
2. RCH2COOH only

127. The general electronic configuration for the 2nd- 3.

row transition series is:
1. [Ne]3d1-10 4s2 2. [Ar]3d1-10 4s1-2
4. RCOOH and RCH2COOH
3. [Kr]4d1-10 5s1-2 4. [Xe]5d1-10 5s1-2

131. The structure of the product B formed in the

128. The structure of B is:
reaction given below is-
(i)N aN H2 /N H3 (l)

CH3 − C ≡ C − H −−−−−−−−−−−→ (A)

CH3 −CH2 −CH2 −Br

−−−−−−−−−−−−−→ (B);

1. CH3 − C ≡ C − CH 2 − CH2 − CH3 .

2. CH3 − CH = CH2

3. CH3 − CH2 − C ≡ C − CH2 − CH3

4. CH3 − CH = C = CH − CH2 − CH3

1. 2.
132. The correct IUPAC name of the given compound
is-

3. 4.
1. 3,5,6-Trimethyloctane 2. 1,2,3,6-Tetramethylheptane
3. 3,4,6-Trimethyloctane 4. None of the above

Page: 15
 High Yield Test #2 (Level 1) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

133. Kohlrausch gives the following relation for strong

electrolytes: Chemistry - Section B
∧ = ∧ 0 − A√ C 136. Mg is present in:
Which of the following equality holds? 1. Chlorophyll 2. Haemoglobin
1. Λ = Λ0 as C ⟶ √Λ
3. Vitamin-B12 4. Vitamin-B
2. Λ = Λ0 as C ⟶ ∞

3. Λ = Λ0 as C ⟶ 0

4. Λ = Λ0 as C ⟶ 1
137. From the given options, the compound that has a
134. One mole of an ideal gas at 900 K undergoes two planar structure is:
reversible processes, I followed by II, as shown below. If 1. XeF4
the work done by the gas in the two processes is same, 2. XeOF2
the value of ln is-
V3
3. XeO2F2
V2

4. XeO4

138. An organic compound neither reacts with neutral

ferric chloride solution nor with Fehling solution. It
however, reacts with Grignard reagent and gives positive
iodoform test. The compound is-

1. 2.
(U: internal energy, S: entropy, p: pressure, V: volume,
R: gas constant)
(Given : molar heat capacity at constant volume, C of
v,m

the gas is R) 5

1. 5 2. 10 3. 4.
3. 0.1 4. 0.5

135. The correct options to distinguish nitrate salts of

Mn
2+
and Cu taken separately is:
2+
139. The molecular geometry of SF6 is octahedral. The
Mn shows the characteristic green color in the
2+
geometry of SF4 (including lone pair(s)) of electrons is-
a.
flame test 1. Trigonal bipyramidal
Only Cu shows the formation of a precipitate by
2+
2. Square planar
b.
passing H S in acidic medium
2 3. Tetrahedral
Only M n shows the formation of precipitate by
2+
4. Pyramidal
c.
passing H S in faintly basic medium
2

/Cu has higher reduction potential than

2+
Cu
d.
/M n (measured under similar conditions)
2+
Mn

1. Both a, and b are correct.

2. Both b, and c are correct.
3. Both c, and a are correct.
4. Both b and d are correct.

Page: 16
 High Yield Test #2 (Level 1) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

140. The major product [B] in the following reaction is: 144. The solubility product of Pbl is 8.0 × 10–9 . The
2
solubility of lead iodide in 0.1 molar solution of lead
nitrate is x × 10–6 mol/L. The value of x is-
(Rounded off to the nearest integer)
H I /H eat H2 SO4

⟶ (A) Alcohol ⟶ (B)

Δ
[Given : √2 = 1.41 ]

1. 154
1. 2. 2. 423
3. 282
4. 141

145. Sucrose hydrolysis in acidic solution into glucose

3. 4. CH 2 = CH2
and fructose follows the first-order rate law with a half-
life of 3.33 h at 25°C. After 9 h, the fraction of sucrose
remaining is f. The value of log( ) is A×10-2 . The
1

value of A is-
141. 6.023 × 1022 molecules are present in 10 g of (Rounded off to the nearest integer) [Assume : ln 10 =
substance ‘x’. The molarity of a solution containing 5 g 2.303, ln 2 = 0.693]
of substance ‘x’ in 2L solution is- 1. 78
1. 0.00025 2. 81
2. 2.5 3. 85
3. 0.025 4. 75
4. 25
146. The reaction of cyanamide, NH2CN(s) with oxygen
142. The variation of molar conductivity with the was run in a bomb calorimeter and ΔU was found to be
concentration of an electrolyte (X) in an aqueous
–742.24 kJ mol–1 . The magnitude of ΔH (KJ) for the
solution is shown in the given figure. 298

reaction
NH2CN(s) + O2(g) → N2(g) + O2(g) + H2O(l) is-
3

[Assume ideal gases and R = 8.314 J mol −1

K
−1
]

1. 741 KJ
2. 745 KJ
3. 720 KJ
4. 734 KJ

147. The number of 𝜎 and 𝜋-bonds in the molecule of

The electrolyte X is:
tetracyanoethylene is-
1. CH3COOH 2. KNO3
3. HCl 4. NaCl

143. For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following

1. 9𝜎 and 9𝜋
compounds, which one will show the highest freezing
2. 5𝜎 and 9𝜋
point ?
1. [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 3. 9𝜎 and 7𝜋
4. 5𝜎 and 8𝜋
2. [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
3. [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O
4. [Co(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O

Page: 17
 High Yield Test #2 (Level 1) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

148. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon: 152. The wave described by y=0.25 sin(10πx+2πt),
1. Charge on the ion and size of the ion where x and y are in meters and t in seconds, is a wave
2. Packing of ions only traveling along the:
3. Size of the ion only +ve X-direction with frequency 1 Hz and wavelength
4. Charge on the ion only 1.
λ=0.2 m

-ve X-direction with amplitude 0.25 m and

149. Hg
2+
/H
+
2.
Ph − C ≡ C − CH3 −−−−−−→ A wavelength λ=0.2 m
In the above reaction, the structure of the product (A) is: 3. -ve X-direction with frequency 2 Hz
+ve X-direction with frequency π Hz and wavelength
4.
λ=0.2 m

1. 2.
153. The Bulk modulus of a perfectly rigid body is equal
to:
1. zero
3. 4. 2. unity
3. infinity
4. may have any finite non-zero value
150. The increasing order of stability of the following
free radicals is:
154. The flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given
1. (CH ) C˙H < (CH ) C˙ < (C H ) C˙H < (C H ) C˙ by ϕ=ct −20t+3. If the induced emf at t = 2 sec is
3 2 3 3 6 5 2 6 5 3 2

2. ˙ ˙
2
˙ ˙
(C6 H5 ) C < (C6 H5 ) C H < (CH 3 ) C < (CH 3 ) C H
3 3 2
zero, then value of 'c' is:
1. 2
3. (C ˙ ˙ ˙
H5 ) C H < (C6 H5 ) C < (CH 3 ) C < (CH 3 )
˙
CH
6 2 3 3 2
2. 3
4. ˙ ˙ ˙
(CH 3 ) C H < (CH 3 ) C < (C6 H5 ) C < (C6 H5 )
2 3 3 2
CH 3. 5
˙

4. 10

155. A coil of resistance 10 ohm and inductance 5 henry

Physics - Section A is connected to a 100 volt battery. The energy stored in
151. Moment of inertia (M.I.) of four bodies, having the coil is:
same mass and radius, are reported as: 1. 250 joule
2. 250 erg
3. 125 joule
I M.I. of thin circular ring about its diameter
1
4. 125 erg
M.I. of circular disc about an axis perpendicular to
I2
the disc and going through the centre 156. If λ and λ are the wavelengths of the first
1 2

I M.I. of solid cylinder about its axis

3 members of the Lyman and Paschen series respectively,
I M.I. of solid sphere about its diameter
4 then λ : λ is: 1 2

1. 1 : 3
Then: 2. 1 : 30
1. I + I < I + I
1 3 2 4 3. 7 : 50
2. I + I = I + I
1 2 3
5
4
4. 7 : 108
2

3. I 1 = I2 = I3 > I4

4. I 1 = I2 = I3 < I4

Page: 18
 High Yield Test #2 (Level 1) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

157. A transformer is used to light 140 watts 24 volt 161. If we shift a body in equilibrium from A to C in a
lamp from 240 volt AC mains; the current in the main gravitational field via path AC or ABC, then the work
cable is 0.7 amp. The efficiency of the transformer is: →
done by the force F is:
1. 63.8%
2. 84%
3. 83.3%
4. 48%

158. A current I =I 0 sin(ωt−

π
) flows in an AC circuit.
2

If the potential of E=E sin ωt has been applied, then

0

the power consumption P in the circuit will be:

E 0 I0
1. P =
√2

2. P = EI

√2

E 0 I0
3. P = 2
1. same for both the paths
4. P = zero 2. WAC > WABC
3. WAC < WABC
159. An object placed in front of a concave mirror of a 4. none of the above
focal length 15 cm produces a virtual image which is
twice the size of the object. The position of the object is: 162. Two particles of masses m and 2m with charges 2q
1. -5.5 cm and 2q are placed in a uniform electric field E and
2. -6.5 cm allowed to move for the same time. The ratio of their
3. -7.5 cm kinetic energies will be:
4. 8.5 cm 1. 2:1
2. 8:1
160. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a direct current, 3. 4:1
the magnetic field associated with the current will be: 4. 1:4

1. only inside the pipe 163. When a diamagnetic material is placed in a

2. only outside the pipe magnetic field, the field strength within the material is:
3. both inside and outside the pipe 1. increased
4. neither inside nor outside the pipe 2. decreased
3. unchanged
fluctuating with time: first increasing and then
4.
decreasing

164. The refractive index of a material of a plano-

concave lens is 5/3, and the radius of curvature is 0.3 m.
The focal length of the lens in air is:
1. −0.45 m
2. −0.6 m
3. −0.75 m
4. −1.0 m

Page: 19
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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

165. Representing the stopping potential V along y-axis 170. A particle of mass m oscillates in simple harmonic
and (1/λ) along x-axis for a given photocathode, the motion between points X and X , the equilibrium
1 2

curve is a straight line, the slope of which is equal to: position being O. Its kinetic energy is correctly
1. e
represented by which of the following graphs?
hc

2. hc

3. ec

h
1. 2.
4. he

166. An element has binding energy 8 eV/nucleon. If it

has a total binding energy 128 eV, then the number of
nucleons are:
1. 8 3. 4.
2. 14
3. 16
4. 32

167. For the given circuit, the potential difference 171. In the interference pattern, the energy is:
between C and D is:
1. created at the position of maxima.
2. destroyed at the position of minima.
3. conserved but redistributed.
4. all of the above.

172. A plane EM wave of frequency 30 MHz travels in

free space along the X-direction. The electric field
1. 0 component of the wave at a particular point of space and
2. 5 volt time is E = 6 V/m along Y-direction. Its magnetic field
3. 10 volt component B at this point would be:
4. 15 volt
1. 2 × 10 T along Z-direction
−8

2. 6 × 10 T along X-direction
−6

168. In the case of p-n junction diode at a high value of

reverse bias, the current rises sharply. The value of 3. 6 × 10 T along Y-direction
−8

reverse bias is known as: 4. 6 × 10 T along Z-direction

−8

1. zero voltage 2. zener voltage

173. Given that T stands for time period and l stands for
3. inverse voltage 4. critical voltage the length of simple pendulum. If g is the acceleration
due to gravity, then which of the following statements
about the relation T = l/g is correct?
2

169. In an adiabatic process wherein pressure is

Cp
increased by 2
% if =
3
, then the volume decreases It is correct both dimensionally as well as
3 Cv 2
1.
by about: numerically.
1. % 4
2. It is neither dimensionally correct nor numerically.
9

2. % 2 3. It is dimensionally correct but not numerically.

3

3. 4 % 4. It is numerically correct but not dimensionally.

4. %
9

Page: 20
 High Yield Test #2 (Level 1) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

174. The friction of the air causes vertical retardation 178. In the following figure, the reading of the ammeter
equal to 10% of the acceleration due to gravity. The A is: (assume the internal resistance of the battery is
maximum height will be decreased by: (Take g = 10 ms- zero)
2)

1. 8% 2. 9%
3. 10% 4. 11%

175. At what height h above the earth, the value of g

becomes g/2? (R = Radius of the earth)
1. 3R
1. amp
20

2. √2R 3

2. amp
20

3. (√2−1) R 12

3. amp 20

4. 1
R
4

√2
4. ( + 20

3
20

12
) amp
176. Two rods of equal length and area of the cross-
section are kept parallel and lagged between 179. If the range of a gun which fires a shell with muzzle
temperatures 20oC and 80oC. The ratio of the effective speed v, is R, then the angle of elevation of the gun is:
2

1. cos
v
thermal conductivity to that of the first rod is: −1
(
Rg
)

[the ratio (K1/K2) = 3:4] Rg

2. cos −1
( )
1. 7:4 v
2

2. 7:6 3. 1
sin
−1
(
v
2

)
3. 4:7 2 Rg

Rg
4. 7:8 4. 1

2
sin
−1
(
2
)
v

177. Let us suppose that the earth (radius 6400 km) has a
180. A gas at a temperature of 250 K is contained in a
net charge equivalent to one electron per square metre of
closed vessel. If a gas is heated through 1°C, the
its surface area. The earth's potential (in volt) at the
percentage increase in its pressure is nearly:
surface will be:
1. +0.12 1. 0.4% 2. 0.6%
2. -0.12 3. 0.8% 4. 1.0%
3. +1.2
4. -1.2
181. The linear density of a wire is 1.3 × 10 kg/m. A
−4

transverse wave represented by the equation,

y=0.021 sin(x+30t) is propagating along the wire (x

and y are in m and t in sec). The tension of the wire is:

1. 0.12 N 2. 0.48 N
3. 1.2 N 4. 4.8 N

Page: 21
 High Yield Test #2 (Level 1) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

182. Two concentric coils of 10 turns each are situated in 185. A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. The
the same plane. Their radii are 20 and 40 cm and they whole system as shown in the figure is falling under
carry respectively 0.2 and 0.3 ampere current in opposite gravity. The upthrust on the body due to liquid is:
direction. The magnetic field in Wb/m2 at the centre is:
1. μ
35
0
4
μ0
2. 80

3.
7
μ0
80

4. 5

4
μ0

183. A massless string passes over a frictionless pulley

and carries two masses m and m (m > m ) at its
1 2 1 2

ends. If g is the acceleration due to gravity, then the 1. zero.

thrust on the pulley is: 2. equal to the weight of liquid displaced.
3. equal to the weight of the body in air.
4. equal to the weight of the immersed body.

Physics - Section B
186. Two satellites A and B of masses 200 kg and 400
kg are revolving around the earth at height of 600 km
and 1600 km respectively. If T and T are the time
A B

periods of A and B respectively, then the ratio is:

TA

2m1 m2 TB

1. ( m1 −m2
)g

2m1 m2
2. ( m1 +m2
)g

4m1 m2
3. ( m1 +m2
)g

4. zero

184. Three identical thin rods each of length l and mass

M are joined together to form a letter H . The moment of

inertia of the system about one of the sides of H is:

2

1.
Ml
[Given : radius of earth = 6400 km, mass of earth =
3
2
6 × 10 kg] 24

2.
Ml

4 3
2
1. ( ) 7

3.
2M l
8
3
2 3/2

4. 2. (
4M l 7
)
3 8

2/3

3. ( 7

8
)

1/3

4. ( 7

8
)

Page: 22
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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

187. A body A is projected vertically upwards. 191. Tanks A and B open at the top contains two
Another body B of the same mass is projected at an different liquids upto a certain height in them. A hole is
angle of 60° with the horizontal. If both the bodies attain made in the wall of each tank at a depth h from the
the same maximum height, the ratio of the initial kinetic surface of the liquid. The area of the hole in A is twice
energy of body A to that of body B is: that of in B. If the mass flow rate through each hole is
1. 3
equal, then the ratio of densities of the liquids
4

√3
respectively is:
2. 2 1. 2/1
3. 1
2. 3/2
3. 2/3
√2

4. 1

2 4. 1/2

188. A wire carrying a current i from O to is placed 192. An n-type semiconductor is formed by adding
A
→
inside a uniform magnetic field ^
B =−B0 k . The shape of which of the following impurity materials:
the wire is parabolic and has equation Y = 2x − x
2
. The
force on the wire will be: 1. aluminum, boron, or selenium
2. aluminum, boron, or indium
3. phosphorus, antimony, or arsenic
4. cobalt, aluminum, or selenium

193. A gas is heated at constant pressure. The fraction of

heat supplied used for external work is:
1. F = 2B0 i, upwards
1. 1

2. F = 2B0 i, downwards
2. (1− 1
)
γ
3. F = 4B0 i, upwards

4. F = 4B0 i, downwards
3. γ−1
4. (1− 1

2
)
γ

189. Consider a system in which the work done by

external forces acting equals -10 Joules and the potential 194. A particle on the trough of a wave at any instant
energy decreases by 30 Joules. Which of the following will come to the mean position after a time: (T = time
statements is true? period)
There are definitely no "non-conservative" forces 1. T/2
1.
acting in this situation 2. T/4
At least one of the forces in this situation is 3. T
2.
"conservative" in nature 4. 2T
Work done by the "internal" forces would be -30
3.
joules
Work done by the "internal" forces would be -40
4.
joules

190. Dispersion of light is caused due to:

1. intensity of light
2. density of the medium
3. wavelength of light
4. amplitude of light

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 High Yield Test #2 (Level 1) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

195. The variation of potential with distance R from a 199. Two electric bulbs, one of 200 V−40 W and the
fixed point is shown in the figure. The electric field at other of 200 V−100 W are connected in a domestic
R = 5 m is: circuit. Then:
(Given, the potential, V in volts and distance, R in 1. they have equal currents through them.
meters) 2. the resistances of both the bulbs are same.
3. the resistance of the bulb of 40 watts is more.
4. the resistance of the bulb of 100 watts is more.

200. A closed tube partly filled with water lies in a

horizontal plane. The tube rotates about a perpendicular
bisector with angular velocity ω. If the tube stops
rotating, the moment of inertia of the system:
1. 2.5 Vm −1

2. −2.5 Vm −1
1. increases.
3. Vm
2 −1
2. decreases.
5

4. − 2
Vm
−1 3. remains constant.
4. depends on the sense of rotation.
5

196. A photon of wavelength 6630A˚ is incident on a

totally reflecting surface. The momentum delivered by
the photon is equal to:
1. 6.63 × 10 −27
kg−m/s Fill OMR Sheet*
2. 2 × 10 −27
kg−m/s

3. 10 −27
kg−m/s
*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
4. none of these where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there

197. With what minimum acceleration can a fireman

slide down a rope whose breaking strength is th of his
2

weight?
1. 1 g
2. 0.4 g
CLICK HERE to get
3. 0.6 g
4. 0.8 g
FREE ACCESS for 2
198. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a
days of ANY NEETprep
period of 8 s and amplitude 4 cm. Its maximum speed
(in cm/s) is:
course
1. π
2.π

3.π

4.π

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