2024 11 06 0.8852422779541216

Polity & Governance Brazil-2nd country of BRICS to opt out of BRI
of China .............................................................. 53
Article 142 ............................................................ 5
Economy and Infrastructure
Special status for Ladakh and Asymmetric
Federalism ........................................................... 7 Cruise Bharat Mission ...................................... 55
Classical Language status to Assamese ....... 10 PM-KISAN Scheme ........................................... 55
Internal Democracy in Political parties .......... 11 Sensex and NIFTY 50 ....................................... 56
New Lady Justice Statue.................................. 12 Atal Pension Yojana ......................................... 58
Secularism - core part of the Indian Gig workers ....................................................... 58
Constitution ....................................................... 13
Monetary Policy Review ................................... 59
Right to clean environment ............................. 16
Middle Income Trap .......................................... 61
Tax on Industrial Alcohol ................................. 18
Nobel Prize in Economics................................ 63
New Chief Justice of India ............................... 18
PLI for White goods .......................................... 65
Parliamentary Standing Committee................ 20
World Food Day 2024 ....................................... 66
Anti defection law ............................................. 22
Global Hunger Index 2024 ............................... 68
Election Expenditure limit ............................... 25
Direct vs Indirect tax share in overall revenue
The US President election process ................ 27 ............................................................................ 70
Swachh Bharat Mission 2.0 ............................. 28 Hike in MSP ....................................................... 71
Jal Jeevan Mission ........................................... 29 RBI’s action against four NBFC ...................... 72
Rice fortification................................................ 31 Agricultural Households in India on rise ....... 74
Outsourcing development ............................... 32 Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi
Rare Diseases ................................................... 33 Pariyojana .......................................................... 75
Greenwashing guidelines ................................ 35 World Economic Outlook report ..................... 75
Marital Rape exception..................................... 36 SAMARTH Scheme ........................................... 76
Nikshay Poshan Yojana ................................... 37 Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana ......................... 76
Biosimilars and Evergreening of Patents ...... 39 PM Gati Shakti ................................................... 77
New population strategy of China .................. 41 Indian Railways-reforms and challenges ...... 78
21st Livestock Census ..................................... 79
International Relations
Private sector military aircraft assembly in
OPEC+ group..................................................... 43 India .................................................................... 80
Currency Swap agreement with Maldives ..... 44 India’s reliance on oil and natural gas import
10 point plan for India-ASEAN relation .......... 46 ............................................................................ 81
United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon ...... 48 Science and Technology

SCO meet in Pakistan....................................... 49 Type I diabetes reversal with stem cell
BRICS Summit ................................................... 49 transplant ........................................................... 81
India and China patrolling agreement along Nobel Prize in Medicine or Physiology .......... 83
the LAC .............................................................. 51 Nobel Prize in Chemistry ................................. 84
Gender Performativity ...................................... 52 X-band radar ...................................................... 85
Indian’s in Science Nobel Prize....................... 86 Nobel Peace Prize 2024.................................. 116
Small Modular Nuclear reactors ..................... 88 Quote - ‘Contentment is the only real wealth’
.......................................................................... 116
Nobel Prize in Physics ..................................... 88
Haber-Bosch process....................................... 89 Internal Security
Europa Clipper mission ................................... 91 Digital arrests .................................................. 118
Kala-azar elimination certificate...................... 91 S-400 missile ................................................... 119
Pandemic fund for Zoonotic diseases ........... 92 Fourth nuclear-powered ballistic missile
GIS Survey of Guwahati by GMC .................... 92 submarine ........................................................ 121
Environment Assam Specific

Swallowtail butterflies ...................................... 93 Mukhyamantrir Atmanirbhar Assam Abhiyan
.......................................................................... 123
Declining elephants population ...................... 94
GI tags to tribal products from Assam ......... 123
Pygmy Hog conservation programme ........... 95
Co-districts for better administration in Assam
Eco Sensitive Zone around Gir National Park .......................................................................... 124
............................................................................. 96
Abhinandan Scheme ...................................... 125
National Wildlife Week ..................................... 97
Classical language status for Assamese .... 125
Living Planet Report 2024 ................................ 98
Wetland conservation programme in Assam
CoP 16 of Convention on Biological Diversity .......................................................................... 126
............................................................................. 99
Supreme Court’s verdict on Sec 6A of
Geoengineering for combating climate change Citizenship act................................................. 127
........................................................................... 102
Mission Basundhara 3.0 ................................ 127
Emission Gap Report ..................................... 103
Pact to boost Biogas sector in Assam ......... 128
Asiatic Golden Cat in Manas ......................... 104
Prelims Specific
Flue Gas Desulphurisation ............................ 104
Dada Saheb Phalke Award ............................ 129
Protest in Guwahati against felling trees for
flyover .............................................................. 105 Chagos island ................................................. 129
Geography & Disaster Management Wild Ass population estimation .................... 131
Panchayat level whether forecasts............... 106 Nobel Prize in Literature ................................ 131
National Agriculture Code ............................. 106 e-Migrate portal and mobile app ................... 131
THAAD.............................................................. 132
History
Predator high altitude drones ....................... 132
75 years of Communist Party of China rule. 108
Mera Hou Chongba festival ........................... 132
Korean War ...................................................... 109
Harry Messel Award for rhino conservation 133
National Unity Day .......................................... 111
National Ayurveda Day .................................. 133
Ethics Cybersquatting................................................ 134
Gandhian ideology.......................................... 112
Practice Questions
Quote Means: ‘The cost of being wrong is less
than the cost of doing nothing’ ..................... 114
Polity & Governance
Article 142 as State highways in order to prevent drunk
driving.
GS Paper II-Indian Polity Prelims
Youtube: DNA 1.10.2024
Current development
• Atul Kumar, son of a daily wager, belongs to a
Scheduled Caste community.
• His family income was below the poverty line.
• Kumar had secured a rank of 1,455 in JEE
(Advanced) 2024 but missed the admission
deadline due to his inability to pay ₹17,500 on
time.
• The Supreme Court used its extraordinary
powers under Article 142 to facilitate the
admission of Atul Kumar to IIT Dhanbad after
he missed the deadline due to inability to pay Vishakha Guidelines,1997
fees on time. • Given by the SC to prevent sexual harassment
at workplace.
MC Mehta case
• Ban on BS 4 vehicles.
Arun Gopal case

• Fixed timings for fireworks on Diwali.
National Anthem in Cinema halls-

• Directive by Supreme Court to play National
Anthem in cinema halls.
Article 142 of the constitution

• Article 142 provides discretionary power to the
Supreme Court.
• It states that the Supreme Court in the exercise
of its jurisdiction may pass such order as is
necessary for doing complete justice in any
cause or matter pending before it.
• Any order so passed or order so made shall be
enforceable throughout the territory of India.
• Article 142 provides a unique power to the
Supreme Court, to do “complete justice”
between the parties, where, at times, the law or
statute may not provide a remedy.
Important instances when Article 142 was Article 142 and Doctrine of Separation of
invoked Power
Liquor sale ban case • Order released by the SC under Article 142 has
• The Supreme Court banned liquor shops within gravity of a law.
a distance of 500 metres from National as well • Thus such orders are known as Judicial
Legislations.
5
Doctrine of separation of power-
• Doctrine of Separation of Powers is the division
of the legislative, executive, and judicial
functions of government.
Judicial Legislations and Doctrine of

Separation of power
• But the power of the SC under Article 142 to
pass an order with gravity of a law is seen as
analogous legislative power at par with the
Parliament (deviation from doctrine of
separation of power).
• Judicial legislations are commended for doing
SC on use of Article 142
complete justice and hence called Judicial Prem Chand Garg case (1962)
activism. • SC demarcated the contours for the exercise
• But when such activism crosses limits, it is
of the Court’s powers under Article 142(1). It
condemned as Judicial Overreach. said-
1. The order must be consistent with the
fundamental rights guaranteed by the
Constitution.
2. SC order cannot be inconsistent with the
substantive provisions of the relevant
statutory laws.
UPSC Prelims 2019

Q1. With reference to the Constitution of India,
prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained
in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or
limitations on the constitutional powers under
Article 142. It could mean which one of the
following?
a. The decisions taken by the Election
Commission of India while discharging its
duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
b. The Supreme Court of India is not constrained
in the exercise of its powers by laws made by
the Parliament.
Article 142-criticised for Judiciary interfering c. In the event of grave financial crisis in the
Legislative and executive branch (Judicial country, the President of India can declare
overreach) Financial Emergency without the counsel from
the Cabinet.
d. State Legislatures cannot make laws on
certain matters without the concurrence of
Union Legislature.
UPSC 2020
Q. Judicial Legislation is antithetical to the
doctrine of separation of powers as envisaged
in the Indian Constitution. In this context justify
the filing of a large number of public interest
petitions praying for issuing guidelines to
executive authorities. (250 Words, 15 Marks)
Hints
6
• Judicial Legislation refers to the phenomenon • Fixed timings for fireworks on Diwali.
where the judiciary actively engages in Way forward-
lawmaking. The Supreme Court has power of • SC should practice judicial restraint while
Judicial Legislation under Article 142 of the invoking Article 142. Its own directives in Prem
constitution. Chand Garg case (1962) can be referred to
Article 142 of the constitution- avoid judicial adventurism or overreach.
• Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction
may pass such order as is necessary for doing
complete justice.
Special status for Ladakh
• This power of the SC may be used when the and Asymmetric Federalism
law or statute may not provide a remedy.
o Such extraordinary power of the SC
has been invoked in the past to do Youtube: DNA 3.10.2024
justice.
o For example in Lily Thomas Case 2013, Symmetric vs Asymmetric Federalism
the SC invoked article 142 and clarified • In a symmetric federal system like the U.S. or
disqualification provisions under Australia all States enjoy the same set of
Representation of People Act,1951 for powers and autonomy.
limiting criminalisation of politics. • Asymmetrical federalism is where some States
o SC recently put hold on Electoral Bond and areas have more autonomy than others.
Scheme because of its ‘anonymity • The Indian Constitution follows ‘asymmetrical’
provisions’ which violated citizen’s federalism.
Fundamental Right ie Right to • In India, there are a few States/areas that enjoy
information. more autonomy or have special provisions
o Vishakha Guidelines (1997) on Sexual under the Constitution than others.
harassment at workplace.
However Judicial Legislations have also been Asymmetric federalism provision in the Indian
condemned for- constitution-
• Violating Doctrine of separation of powers • Fifth and Sixth Schedules
• Leading to Judicial Overreach/adventurism • Part XXI of the Constitution- special provisions
Doctrine of separation of powers and Judicial applicable to many of the northeastern States -
Legislations Articles 371A (Nagaland), 371B (Assam),
• The power of the SC under Article 142 to pass 371C (Manipur), 371F (Sikkim), 371G
an order with gravity of a law is seen as (Mizoram) and 371H (Arunachal Pradesh).
analogous legislative power at par with the
Parliament.
• The power of the SC under Article 142 to pass
an order (known as Judicial legislation) with
gravity of a law is seen as analogous legislative
power at par with the Parliament.
• Judicial legislations are commended for doing
complete justice and hence called Judicial
activism.
• But when such activism crosses limits, it is
condemned as Judicial Overreach.
Some examples of Judicial overreach (violation of
principle of separation of power) -
1. Liquor sale ban case Fifth and Sixth Schedule of the Indian
• The Supreme Court banned liquor shops within constitution
a distance of 500 metres from National as well The Fifth Schedule
as State highways in order to prevent drunk • The Fifth Schedule is applicable to what are
driving. officially called ‘scheduled areas’ that are
2. MC Mehta case declared by the President.
• Ban on BS 4 vehicles. • The guiding norms for declaring an area as a
3. Arun Gopal case ‘scheduled area’ include-
7
a. Preponderance of tribal populations Note-The Bodoland territorial council in Assam is
b. Economic backwardness an exception, as it has 46(40 elected + 6
• At present 10 States have such ‘scheduled nominated) members and also has right to make
areas. laws on 39 issues.
• Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) are set up
in these States, consisting of not more than
20 members, of which three-fourths shall
be tribal MLAs from the State.
• The TAC provides advice pertaining to
welfare and advancement of the Scheduled
Tribes (ST) in these States.
• The Governor may direct that a particular
act of Parliament or State legislature shall
not apply or apply with modifications to
such ‘scheduled areas.’
The Sixth Schedule

• The sixth schedule under article 244 provides
for the formation of autonomous district
councils (ADCs) that are autonomous
administrative divisions which have some
legislative, judicial and administrative
autonomy within a state.
• The six schedule applies to the states of
Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura. History of the Fifth and Sixth Schedules
• The autonomous district councils have up to 30 • Till the entry of the British, the tribals were the
members with the term of 5 years which can masters of their forests and ancestral lands.
make laws, rules and regulations with regard • However, the initial British laws and their forest
to- policies affected the tribal way of life.
1. Land, forest, water and agriculture • Their traditional rights over forest lands were
2. Health and sanitation not recognised and their movement inside
3. Village and town level policing forests became restricted.
4. Inheritance, marriage, divorce, social customs • This discontentment resulted in various tribal
etc rebellions like the Kol rebellion (1831-32),
8
Santhal revolt (1855), Munda Rebellion (1899- Current news?
1900) and Bastar rebellion (1911). • Local people of Ladakh led by Sonam
• These rebellions culminated in the British Wangchuk are demanding the region to be
policy of ‘isolation’ towards the tribals, and the included in the sixth schedule from the
creation of ‘excluded’ and ‘partially excluded’ constitution to safeguard land, employment
areas under the Government of India Act, and cultural identity of the local people.
1935. • Local people have a feeling of neglect by the
• The ‘excluded’ areas mainly consisted of hilly central government regarding development of
regions in the northeast and ‘Partially the region.
excluded’ areas consisted of tribal tracts in
present day Bihar, Bengal, Orissa, Madhya Basis of demand
Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra. 1. Tribal populations
• Here British laws were applied with • UT of Ladakh is 79.61% of the total
modifications. population (2011 census).
• The Fifth and Sixth Schedules have been 2. Neglect of developmental needs
modelled on the basis of these provisions of
Government of India Act, 1935.
Procedure for declaring an area under

Sixth Schedule
Articles 244(2)
• The Governor may, by public notification, —
create a new autonomous district.
• But the Governor can notify creation of the new
autonomous district only on the basis of
recommendation of the commission
constituted for this purpose.
• The Governor has power to constitute
Commission for the purpose of examining the
question regarding autonomous districts.
9
UPSC Prelims 2015 official communication, reflecting respect for
Q1. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth regional linguistic identities.
Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in 4. Preventing Secessionist Movements
order to • In regions like Nagaland, Manipur, and earlier
a. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes in Jammu and Kashmir, special provisions
b. determine the boundaries between States under asymmetric federalism have provided a
c. determine the powers, authority and peaceful constitutional framework, addressing
responsibilities of Panchayats regional aspirations within the Indian Union
d. protect the interests of all the border States rather than through violent separatism.
Challenges
Q. “India’s asymmetric federalism has helped • While asymmetric federalism has largely been
in keeping nation as one addressing need of successful, it requires continuous balancing to
many marginalised communities.” Discuss. 10 prevent excessive regionalism or challenges to
marks/150 words national integration.
Hints India's asymmetric federalism has played a critical
• Asymmetric federalism refers to the varying role in preserving the country's unity by
degrees of autonomy granted to different accommodating the distinct needs of its
states and regions. Asymmetric federalism is marginalised communities. But India must
embedded in the Indian Constitution. continue to strike a delicate balance between
For Example- granting autonomy and ensuring national
• Article 371 and its sub-clauses provide special cohesion.
provisions to states like Nagaland (Article
371A), Sikkim (Article 371F), and Maharashtra
(Article 371D) to protect the interests of local
Classical Language status
ethnic, cultural, and regional groups. to Assamese
• Sixth Schedule for the administration of tribal
GS Paper II-Indian Polity GS Paper V-Assam
areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and
Issues Prelims
Mizoram, which ensures self-governance for
tribal communities. Youtube: DNA 3.10.2024
Asymmetric federalism has allowed India to
respond to the distinct needs of various What is Classical language?
marginalised groups- • A classical language is a prestigious status is
1. Tribal Rights and Autonomy accorded to Ministry of Culture to ancient
• The Sixth Schedule grants local councils languages of India.
legislative powers, thereby preserving tribal • Currently there are six languages that enjoy the
customs and land rights. This has been crucial ‘Classical’ status in India:
in ensuring the political representation of tribal 1. Tamil (declared in 2004)
communities and protecting them from 2. Sanskrit (2005)
exploitation. 3. Kannada (2008)
2. Cultural Autonomy for Ethnic Minorities 4. Telugu (2008)
• States with unique ethnic compositions like 5. Malayalam (2013)
Nagaland and Mizoram enjoy provisions to 6. Odia (2014).
preserve their customary laws, religious • All the Classical Languages are listed in the
practices, and local governance, preventing Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
cultural alienation and promoting national
integration.
Asymmetric federalism has allowed India to
respond to the distinct needs of various
marginalised groups-
3. Language and Linguistic Diversity
• The recognition of various languages in
different states under the Eighth Schedule
reflects India's commitment to linguistic
diversity. States like Tamil Nadu have special
provisions that allow for the use of Tamil in
10
Criteria for Classical Language Status Inner Party democracy- Opinion of every
• The Ministry of Culture outlined the criteria member must count
for declaring a language as ‘Classical’:
1. High Antiquity Issue of Inner party democracy in India
• The language must have a recorded history • Inner party democracy is generally not found in
spanning 1500-2000 years. India.
2. Valuable Heritage
• It should possess a body of ancient Factors that has limited inner party democracy
literature and texts cherished by in India-
generations. 1. Anti-defection law
3. Originality 2. Whip
• The literary tradition must be unique and 3. Dynasty Politics
not borrowed from another linguistic 4. PM or CM at the State level are chosen by
community. party high command not by party members.
4. Distinctness 5. Personality cult-There is a tendency of hero
• The classical language and its literature worship in India which is antithetical to
should be distinct from modern forms or democracy.
offshoots. 6. Lack of Law- No provision or law in India that
requires o hold regular internal elections for
Current news? office bearers.
• Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma has
requested Prime Minister Narendra Modi to
Way forward
declare Assamese as one of the classical
1. Amending Anti Defection Law,1985- The anti
languages of India.
defection law can be limited to disqualification
UPSC Prelims 2015 of Members only if they vote against their party
Q3. Which one of the following was given classical whip during important events such as no-
language status most recently? confidence motions.
a. Odia 2. Law to Compulsify Elections for post of office
b. Konkani bearers in a political party.
c. Bhojpuri 3. Empowering ECI: The ECI shall be competent
d. Assamese to inquire into allegations of non-compliance of
any of the provisions requiring elections.
Internal Democracy in Conclusion

Political parties • Political parties are integral part of political
system of a country.
GS Paper II-Indian Polity Prelims • If political parties do not act in democratic
Youtube: DNA 4.10.2024 manner the political system can never be truly
democratic
Internal Democracy in Political parties
• Internal Democracy in Political parties means Core idea discussed in the article
the decision making in party from choosing the • The article is based on the interview of Mr OP
president to all political matters, follow a bottom Rawat, former Chief Election Commissioner.
up approach. • Mr Rawat says EC is responsible for
• The opinion of all members are equally registering and monitoring political parties in
respected. India.
• But cannot regulate internal party politics.
• A 2002 Supreme Court ruling clarified that the
EC could not interfere in the internal
functioning of parties.
• Its authority is limited to ensuring that political
parties are working within the bounds of the
Constitution.
11
Mains Practice Question parties are the building blocks of
Q. The most pertinent challenges faced by parliamentary democracy, their internal
Indian politics today is lack of intra party shortcomings weaken the overall
democracy. Comment. 15 marks/250 words democratic structure of the country.
Hints Recent Developments and Attempts at Reform
• Intra-party democracy refers to the degree to • Election Commission of India (ECI) has
which political parties allow internal debate, periodically emphasized the need for political
transparent decision-making processes, and parties to hold internal elections and maintain
democratic mechanisms for electing democratic structures.
leadership and selecting candidates. The lack • Law Commission of India in its 255th Report
of intra-party democracy is one of the most (2015) recommended that internal democracy
significant challenges facing Indian politics within parties be made a precondition for their
today. registration.
Factors that has limited inner party democracy in Conclusion
India- • Political parties are integral part of political
1. Anti-defection law system of a country.
2. Whip • If political parties do not act in democratic
3. Dynasty Politics manner the political system can never be truly
4. PM or CM at the State level are chosen by democratic
party high command not by party members.
5. Personality cult-There is a tendency of hero
worship in India which is antithetical to
New Lady Justice Statue
democracy. GS Paper II-Indian Polity Prelims
Challenges Posed by Lack of Intra-Party Youtube: DNA 18.10.2024
Democracy-
1. Concentration of Power What is the news?
• In most political parties in India, power is • The familiar ‘Lady Justice’ statue (in the judges
concentrated in the hands of a few library at the Supreme Court) has been
individuals or families. redesigned by the Supreme Court.
• This centralization stifles new leadership • Traditionally depicted with a blindfold and a
and innovation within parties, reducing their sword.
ability to evolve and adapt to changing • The updated version removes the blindfold and
political realities. replaces the sword with the Constitution.
2. Absence of Internal Elections • This transformation is part of an effort to move
• Political parties, both national and regional, away from its colonial legacy.
rarely hold regular and transparent
elections for key positions.
• This lack of internal democracy prevents
the rise of competent leaders who could
energize the party with fresh ideas and
reforms.
3. Alienation of Grassroots Workers
• The absence of internal democracy
discourages active participation from
grassroots party workers, who may feel
sidelined and disillusioned.
4. Money power and muscle power in politics
• Influential people, often with criminal
background, are allowed party tickets to
contest elections while genuine candidates
are neglected. Symbolic Change
5. Impacts on National Democracy Sword replaced with Constitution
• The undemocratic functioning of political • The sword in the previous statue symbolized
parties can have adverse effects on India’s punishment for the culprit.
democratic framework. Since political
12
• The Constitution represents a more balanced
and principled approach to justice in line with
constitutional values.
Retaining the Scales of Justice

• These scales continue to symbolize the
balance of justice, ensuring that courts weigh
the facts and arguments from both sides before
reaching a fair and impartial decision.
Prelims Practice Question
Q1. With regard to the unveiling of the new flag of
the Supreme Court of India on its 75th anniversary,
evaluate the following statements:
1. The new flag of the Supreme Court prominently
represents the Indian Constitution and includes
the phrase "Yato Dharmas Tato Jayah."
2. The phrase "Yato Dharmas Tato Jayah"
inscribed in the Roman script, which translates
to ‘where there is Dharm there is victory.’
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
New Flag and Insignia of Supreme Court c. Both 1 and 2
• Commemorating the 75th anniversary of the d. Neither 1 nor 2
Supreme Court's establishment President
Droupadi Murmu unveiled the new flag and
insignia of the Supreme Court of India.
Secularism - core part of the
Indian Constitution
New Flag of the Supreme Court
• The flag features a prominent representation of
the Indian Constitution and includes the phrase Youtube: DNA 22.10.2024
"Yato Dharmas Tato Jayah".
Term ‘Secularism’ and ‘Socialism’ in Preamble
New Insignia of the Supreme Court • Two words ‘Secularism’ and ‘Socialism’ were
• The insignia also includes the phrase "Yato originally not a part of the Preamble.
Dharmas Tato Jayah" inscribed in Devanagari • They were added by The Constitution (42nd
script, which means ‘where there is Dharm Amendment) Act, 1976 during the Emergency
there is victory’. imposed by then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment also
replaced the phrase “unity of the nation” with
“unity and integrity of the nation.”
13
Why ‘Socialism’ was not included in • Later on India adopted ‘sui generis’ concept of
original Preamble? Secularism.
1. Indian Socialism different from prevalent idea of
Socialism
• Socialism envisaged by the Indian state was
not the socialism of the USSR or China of the
time.
• It did not envisage the nationalisation of all of
India’s means of production.
2. India adopted mixed economic model
3. India attempted to avoid getting embroiled in
Cold war dynamics
• Cold war was ideological war between
Socialist and Liberal ideologies.
Indian Polity was always Socialist in its essence as
can be seen in several articles under Part IV ie
DPSP.
Indira Gandhi government heavily relied on welfare
measures to address inequality, poverty. Her
government popularised the slogan “garibi hatao”.
Thus during her regime ‘Socialism’ was included in
the Preamble.
Current context
• Petitions were filed in the Supreme Court
challenging the inclusion of the terms
“socialist” and “secular” in the Preamble.
• The Supreme Court declared that secularism is
an indelible and core part of the Basic Structure
of the Indian Constitution.
• The petitioners argued that “socialism” limits
personal liberty, but Justice Khanna disagreed,
noting that socialism also stands for equality
India adopted Democratic Socialist polity without and opportunity for all.
specifying Socialism in the preamble-
• The concept of democratic socialism has been Prelims Practice Question
adopted in various liberal democracies like Q1. Consider the following statements about the
India with the concept of a welfare state. Indian version of Secularism:
1. State maintains a principled distance from
Why ‘Secularism’ was not included in religion.
original Preamble? 2. State does not interfere in any religious activity.
• The secular nature of the Indian state is 3. All religious communities can co-exist
secured by Articles 25-28 of the Constitution. peacefully without negative discrimination.
• But the term ‘Secularism’ was not there in 4. Individual has the freedom to interpret religious
original constitution, since idea of Indian teachings differently and choose her/his
secularism was different from accepted religion.
concept of secularism, especially prevalent in Which of the above statements is/are correct?
the West. a. 1 and 2
• West concept of Secularism is mutual b. 2 only
exclusion of state and religion, i.e. non- c. 1, 2 and 4
interference in affairs of each other. d. 1, 3 and 4
14
GS Paper II-Indian Polity However, secular democracy in India faces several
Q. Discuss various features of Indian contemporary challenges that threaten this
secularism. Also, mention various threats to foundational principle. Threats to Secular
secular democracy in India. 15 marks/250 Democracy in India are following-
words 1. Communalism: Rising communal tensions,
• Indian secularism, as enshrined in the fueled by political mobilization along religious lines,
Constitution, is distinct from the Western pose a significant threat to secularism. Instances
model. It is characterized by its commitment to of communal violence, such as the 2002 Gujarat
equal respect for all religions, ensuring riots or more recent communal flare-ups,
religious freedom, and maintaining a balance undermine the secular fabric of the nation.
between the state and religion. 2. Politicization of Religion: The increasing use of
Features of Indian Secularism: religion in electoral politics, including vote-bank
1. Equal Respect for All Religions (Sarva Dharma politics and the use of religious symbolism, dilutes
Sambhava): Indian secularism promotes the idea the secular character of Indian democracy.
of equal respect and treatment for all religions, Political parties often engage in appeasement of
rather than indifference to religion. The state particular religious groups, which can lead to
recognizes the religious diversity of its citizens and polarization.
strives to ensure no religion is privileged over 3. Majoritarianism: The growing trend of
another. majoritarianism, where the majority community
seeks to impose its values and norms on the
2. Principled Distance: The Indian state maintains minority communities, threatens the pluralistic
a "principled distance" from religion, meaning it nature of Indian society. This can be seen in the
does not completely separate itself from religious growing calls for a Uniform Civil Code and the
institutions but intervenes where necessary to debates surrounding religious conversions.
ensure social reform, such as the abolition of 4. Hate Speech and Religious Intolerance: The
untouchability and regulation of religious practices increasing instances of hate speech and religious
like Sati or child marriage. intolerance, often spread through social media and
3. Religious Freedom: Article 25 of the Constitution public platforms, exacerbate religious divisions.
guarantees the right to freedom of religion, Lynching incidents over issues like cow slaughter
allowing individuals to practice, profess, and have further deepened the communal divide.
propagate their faith, subject to public order, 5. Interference in Personal Laws: The coexistence
morality, and health. This provides a broad of religious personal laws (Hindu, Muslim,
framework for religious autonomy while ensuring Christian) has led to debates about the Uniform
limits to prevent harm or discrimination. Civil Code, with some arguing that the existence of
separate personal laws for different communities
4. State’s Non-Identification with Religion: The undermines the equality principle of secularism.
state itself does not endorse any specific religion However, efforts to impose a uniform code without
as a state religion. Articles 27 and 28 prohibit the adequate consultation can lead to alienation of
use of state resources for religious purposes and minorities.
prevent religious instruction in state-funded 6. Religious Radicalization: The growth of religious
educational institutions. extremism, both within the majority and minority
communities, has the potential to undermine
5. Cultural and Educational Rights: Articles 29 and secular values. Radical ideologies can erode the
30 ensure the rights of religious and linguistic fabric of democratic discourse and lead to
minorities to conserve their culture and establish violence, such as seen in acts of terrorism and
educational institutions, allowing diversity to communal unrest.
flourish within the secular framework. Indian secularism, which is rooted in the idea of
6. Reformative Role of the State: The Indian model equal respect for all religions, faces several
permits the state to engage in social reform within challenges in the current socio-political landscape.
religious communities. For instance, laws like the To protect the secular democratic framework, it is
Hindu Marriage Act (1955) and the Muslim Women essential for institutions, political leadership, and
(Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act (2019) civil society to actively work towards upholding the
reflect this role. constitutional values of equality, tolerance, and
mutual respect.
15
Right to clean environment
GS Paper II-Indian Polity GS Paper III-
Environment Prelims
Ex situ (off site) stubble management

Baler machines
• Farmers cut the crop residue with a tractor-
mounted cutter.
• After two days of drying, a tractor-mounted
baler machine then compresses the stubble
into compact bales.
• These bales are transported to factories or
dumping sites.
Issues-with bale machines

• A single baler costs about Rs 14.5 lakh without
subsidies
• Thus there are not enough baler machine
Stubble burning
• Stubble burning creates huge air pollution in
areas around Delhi.
• The smoke created because of stubble burning
in areas around Punjab and Haryana slowly
gets drifted towards Delhi.
• In Delhi during the winters the smoke mixes
with the fog and create smog.
• The smog is very much harmful and causes
lungs infection.
Super seeder machine
16
In situ (off site) stubble management Article 21 of the constitution-
Super seeders Interpretations
• Incorporation of the stubble into the soil • Using the idea that Art 21 does not mean right
Benefit to life just as mere survival but a dignified life,
• Stubble remains-organic fertiliser SC expanded the ambit of Art 21.
Issues
• Increase in insect attacks It included-
• Right to meaningful livelihood (Olga Telli case
Current context 1986)
• The Supreme Court expressed dissatisfaction • Right against pollution-free water and air
over the continued incidents of stubble burning (Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991)
by Punjab and Haryana farmers. • Protection of cultural heritage
• The Court criticized the selective penalties • Right of every child to a full development
imposed by Punjab and Haryana governments. • Right against custodial death
• Many violators were allowed to go free after • Right against delayed execution
paying minimal fines. • Right to go abroad
• The court highlighted that Article 21 of the • Right to shelter
Constitution guarantees every citizen the right • Right to privacy (KS Puttaswamy judgment
to live in an environment free from pollution. 2017)
Article 21 of the constitution

• No person should be deprived of life or
personal liberty except according to procedure
by law.
Francis vs. Union Territory of Delhi (1981) Q1. Consider the following statements regarding
• SC said right to life doesn’t mean mere the "Right to Life" under Article 21 of the Indian
survival, animal like existence. Constitution:
• Right to life would include, right to life with 1. The "Right to Life" includes the right to live with
dignity. dignity and access to basic necessities like
• Dignity is also a constitutional value mentioned food, clothing, and shelter.
in the ‘Preamble’ of the constitution. 2. The "Right to Life" guarantees protection from
arbitrary deprivation of life, including the right
against capital punishment in all cases.
3. The "Right to Life" encompasses the right to a
clean environment, as recognized by judicial
interpretations.
4. The "Right to Life" under Article 21 can only be
suspended during a national emergency.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
17
•
Tax on Industrial Alcohol States can regulate production, possession,
transport, and sale of liquors.
Youtube: DNA 24.10.2024 Entry 52 of List I (Union List)
• The Centre has the power to regulate
7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution industries under Parliament’s law.
• The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution • Accordingly Parliament has passed Industries
divides the powers and responsibilities (Development and Regulation) Act, 1961 to
between the Union (Central) and State regulate industrial products including liquor.
governments.
It contains three lists: Current issue
1. Union List • A dispute was brought in the Supreme
• Subjects on which only the Central Court on state government’s power to tax
Government can make laws (e.g., defense, industrial alcohol.
foreign affairs, atomic energy, banking). • A nine-judge Bench of the Supreme Court
2. State List ruled 8:1 that states have the power to tax
• Subjects on which only the State not just "drinking alcohol" but also
Governments can legislate (e.g., police, "industrial alcohol."
public health, agriculture, local
government).
3. Concurrent List
• Subjects on which both Central and State
Governments can make laws (e.g., criminal
law, marriage, bankruptcy, education).
• However, in case of a conflict, the Central law
prevails.
This division of power ensures the federal structure
of governance in India.
Industrial Alcohol is produced by the fermentation
of Sugar Cane Molasses by the action of
microorganism, YEAST. It is mainly used as
solvent in industries.

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding
the taxation rights on alcohol in India:
1. The power to levy taxes on the sale of alcohol
lies with the State Governments.
2. The revenue generated from alcohol taxation is
a major source of income for the Central
Government.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None
New Chief Justice of India

Overlapping Entries in Constitution
How are the judges of the High Court and
Entry 8 of List II (State List)
Supreme Court selected?
Eligibility to become a Supreme Court judge:
18
• The recommended person must be a citizen of judge of high court shall be appointed by the
India; President by warrant under his hand and seal
• They should not be above 65 years of age; after consultation with the Chief Justice of
a. They must have been a judge of one or more India, the Governor of the state.
High courts continuously for five years; OR
b. They must have been an advocate in the high The Judges Cases
court for at least ten years; OR The First Judges Case (1981) ruled that the
c. The recommended person must be a “consultation” with the CJI in the matter of
distinguished jurist in the opinion of the appointments does not mean concurrence
President. The Second Judges Case (1993) introduced the
Collegium system, holding that “consultation”
Eligibility to become a High Court judge: really meant “concurrence”.
• A person to be appointed as a judge of a high On a Presidential Reference for its opinion, the
court, should be a citizen of India. Supreme Court, in the Third Judges Case (1998)
• Further, He should have held a judicial office in expanded the Collegium to a five-member body,
the territory of India for ten years or should comprising the CJI and four of his senior-most
have been an advocate of the high court(s) for colleagues in case of SC, CJI and two of his senior-
ten years. most colleagues in case of a HC.
• They should not be above 62 years of age;
• There is no minimum age fixed for high Court The procedure followed by the Collegium for-
judges. Appointment of CJI
• The President of India appoints the CJI.
• The outgoing CJI recommends his successor.
Note
• Constitution of India does not have any
provision for criteria and procedure for
appointing the CJI. Appointment of CJI is done
according to a convention.
What is the convention?

• When the incumbent CJI retires (all Supreme
Court judges retire at the age of 65), the senior
most judge in the SC becomes the CJI.
• The convention of appointing senior most
judge as CJI was made a procedure in second
Judges case 1993.
How seniority is decided in the SC?

• On the basis of date of induction in the
Supreme Court. A judge who takes oath
earlier becomes senior to another who takes
How are the judges of the SC/HC are oath later.
selected?
Appointment of SC judges Power of the government in appointment of
• Article 124 of the Indian Constitution deals with Judges
the appointment of Chief Justice and Judges of • The government’s role is limited to getting an
the Supreme Court. It states that every judge inquiry conducted by the Intelligence Bureau
of Supreme court shall be appointed by the (IB) if a lawyer is to be elevated as a judge in a
President by warrant under his hand and seal High Court or the Supreme Court.
after consultation with the Chief Justice of India • It can also raise objections and seek
and other judges he may deem fit. clarifications regarding the collegium choices,
but if the collegium reiterates the same names,
Appointment of HC judges the government is bound, under Constitution
• Article 217 deals with the appointment of Bench judgments, to appoint them as judges.
judges of High Courts and states that every
19
Current news? Parliamentary Standing Committees
• President Draupadi Murmu on appointed Why are bills referred to parliamentary
Justice Sanjiv Khanna as the 51st Chief Justice committees?
of India. • Not enough time to discuss every bill in details
• Justice Khanna, who is likely to take oath on in the House
November 11, will succeed CJI D Y • The debate in the house does not go into the
Chandrachud who is due to retire on November technical details of the bill.
10. • Parliament Committee summons experts from
different field while framing its
recommendation.
Practice Question
Q1. To whom the Chief Justice of India submits
his resignation?
a. The President of India
b. The Senior most judge of the Supreme Court
c. Speaker
d. Law Minister
Parliamentary Standing
Committee
Parliamentary committees
A parliamentary committee means a committee-
That:
1. Is appointed or elected by the House or
nominated by the Speaker / Chairman
2. Works under the direction of the Speaker /
Chairman
3. Presents its report to the House or to the
Speaker / Chairman
4. Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha /
Rajya Sabha
20
Challenges of Parliamentary Committees Prelims Practice Question
Factors Q2. Consider the following statements:
1. Declining number of bills referred to Parliament The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
Standing Committee 1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of the
• The government rushes through a bill after Lok Sabha
introducing into the parliament on the pretext 2. Scrutinizes appropriation finance accounts of
that there is less time for discussion. It requests Government
the speaker to go directly for voting. 3. Examines the report of the Auditor examines
• Only 10% of the bills have been referred to the report Comptroller and General of India
committee in 17th Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is / are
2. Decline in sittings of Parliament correct?
• The average number of days Parliament sits a. 1 only
annually has reduced from 156 (in the 1950s) b. 2 and 3 only
to 55 (in the 17th Lok Sabha from 2019 to c. 3 only
2024). d. 1, 2 and 3
Q. Explain the significance of parliamentary

committees for the effective functioning of the
legislature with suitable examples. 15
marks/250 words
Hints
• Parliamentary Standing Committees are
permanent committees in the Indian
Parliament, established to study and scrutinize
government policies, programs, and bills in a
more detailed and systematic way than can’t
typically be done in the Parliament sessions.
They play a critical role in supporting effective
legislation and ensuring accountability in
governance.
Key Significance of Parliamentary Committees-
3. Misuse of money bill 1. Detailed Scrutiny of Bills and Policies
• For example Aadhaar bill was declared a • Committees enable detailed analysis of
money bill. proposed laws, regulations, and policies
4. Absenteeism of the members and vacancies that may be impractical to conduct on the
5. Use of whip floor of Parliament due to time constraints
• After introduction of whip intra party and limited expertise among all members.
democracy is lost. MPs have become a For example:
rubber stamp. They are not allowed to • Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) on
express their opinion and thus overall the the Data Protection Bill: This committee
debate culture is gone. examined various nuances of data privacy,
balancing individual rights with national
How to Improve Effectiveness of Parliamentary security and digital economy concerns.
Committees? After thorough deliberation, it
1. Mandatory referring bills to committees recommended significant amendments to
• Currently, it is not mandatory to refer a Bill ensure the bill was aligned with public
to a Committee in India. interest.
• In some Parliamentary systems like the • Standing Committee on Labour’s Review of
UK, all Bills other than Money Bills are the Code on Wages: This committee
automatically referred to Committees. provided detailed input on how the code
2. Expert Witnesses and Research Support could improve labor welfare without
• To aid in their study, members of DRSCs imposing excessive costs on employers,
can consult with expert witnesses, demonstrating the importance of domain-
stakeholders, and government officials. specific insights.
21
2. Ensuring Financial Accountability enhancing transparency and regulation in
• Committees play an essential role in financial markets.
scrutinizing government expenditure, 5. Facilitating Informed Public Policy through
taxation, and economic policies, ensuring Expert Opinions
that public funds are utilized efficiently and • Committees often invite subject matter
transparently. experts, stakeholders, and civil society
• Public Accounts Committee (PAC): This representatives to contribute diverse
committee examines the Comptroller and viewpoints.
Auditor General (CAG) reports to identify • Parliamentary Committee on Information
financial irregularities and inefficiencies. Technology: During discussions on internet
For instance, the PAC scrutinized the regulation, the committee called upon tech
CAG’s findings on irregularities in the companies, digital rights activists, and
allocation of coal blocks in 2012, leading to government representatives to deliberate
policy shifts to prevent arbitrary allocation on issues of data privacy and freedom of
of natural resources. expression, underscoring the importance of
• Estimates Committee: This committee multi-stakeholder perspectives.
evaluates budget estimates for specific Conclusion
sectors to ensure that funds are allocated • Parliamentary committees are essential to
efficiently. Its report on railway the legislative process, as they ensure
modernization led to recommendations for accountability, transparency, and efficiency
safety enhancements and technological in governance. By providing a mechanism
improvements in the railways. for detailed scrutiny, bipartisan
3. Oversight of Executive Actions cooperation, and expert consultation, they
• Committees act as watchdogs over the uphold the principles of democracy and
executive, holding it accountable for its strengthen the quality of legislation. In a
actions and ensuring governance complex, diverse country like India,
transparency. parliamentary committees are
• Committee on Government Assurances: indispensable for promoting informed
This committee monitors the policymaking and responsive governance,
implementation of assurances given by aligning with the spirit of democracy as
ministers in Parliament. For example, it enshrined in the Constitution.
followed up on promises related to the
implementation of the One Rank, One
Pension (OROP) scheme for the armed
Anti defection law
forces, ensuring that the government GS Paper II-Indian Polity Prelims
remained committed to its assurance. Youtube: DNA 26.10.2024
• Committee on Public Undertakings: This
committee assesses the performance of
public sector enterprises. In its review of "Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram" of Indian politics
the disinvestment process, the committee • "Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram" is a term in Indian
suggested improvements to ensure that politics that describes frequent and
disinvestment is conducted transparently opportunistic party-switching by politicians.
and safeguards public assets. • It originated in the 1960s and became symbolic
4. Enabling Consensus-Building and Bipartisan of the defection problem that plagued Indian
Dialogue democracy.
• By bringing together members from across • The phrase was coined after an incident
party lines, committees foster bipartisan involving Gaya Lal, an MLA in Haryana, who
discussion, which is critical for healthy switched parties three times in one day in
democratic functioning. 1967.
• JPC on the Securities Scam (1992): This • This incident highlighted the ease with which
committee brought together political parties politicians could change affiliations for
to investigate financial irregularities in stock personal or financial gain, leading to political
markets. Its findings led to the instability.
establishment of the Securities and
Exchange Board of India (SEBI),
22
Solution to the "Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram" 2. If an independent candidate who is not aligned
culture? to any political party, joins a political party after the
• Anti defection law introduced through 52nd election.
amendment act. 3. Case of nominated MPs
• In their case, the law specifies that within
six months of being nominated to the
House, they can choose to join a political
party.
• The time is given so that if a nominated MP
is not a member of a political party, they
can decide to join one if they want.
• But if they don’t join a political party during
the first six months of their tenure, and join
a party thereafter, then they lose their seat
in Parliament.
Anti-Defection Law
• It was passed in 1985 through the 52nd
Amendment to the Constitution, which added
the Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution.
• The main intent of the law was to combat “the
evil of political defections”.
• Articles 102 (2) and 191 (2) deal with anti-
defection.
• The law applies to both Parliament and state
assemblies respectively.
• It prescribes grounds for the disqualification of
an MLA or MP for defection. Merger provision in Anti Defection law-
• The law allows a party to merge with or into
another party provided that at least two-thirds
of its legislators are in favour of the merger.
• In such a scenario, neither the members who
decide to merge, nor the ones who stay with
the original party will face disqualification.
Who disqualify a member?

• Speaker in LS/LA of States
• Chairman in RS
• The law said decision of the Speaker or
Chairman will be final and can’t be challenged
in a court.
• There is no time period for the Presiding Officer
to decide on a disqualification plea under the
What are the conditions for Tenth Schedule.
disqualification?
1. If a member of a house belonging to a political Kihoto Hollohan case (1992)
party: • The Supreme Court ruled that while the
• Voluntarily gives up the membership of his Speaker's decisions are subject to judicial
political party, or review.
• Votes, or does not vote in the legislature, • This means that if a Speaker's decision is
contrary to the directions of his political found to be biased, arbitrary, or
party. unconstitutional, it can be challenged in the
High Court or Supreme Court.
23
(170th report,1999), and National Commission
to Review the Working of the Constitution
(2002), have suggested reforms to strengthen
the anti-defection law.
Important suggestions made-

1. Time Limit for Decision
• Setting a deadline for Speakers to resolve
defection cases to prevent delays.
2. Transfer of Adjudication
• Shifting decision-making power to an
independent tribunal or Election Commission
to reduce bias and ensure impartiality.
Supreme Court’s view-
• In Keisham Meghachandra Singh vs The
Hon'ble Speaker Manipur Legislative
Issues with Anti Defection law Assembly and Ors. (2020), the Supreme Court
1. Loss of intra party democracy of India recommended replacing the Speaker’s
• With the use of party Whip as per anti role in anti-defection cases with an
defection law, the members of a party are independent tribunal or a body appointed by
made to vote in line with the party high the Election Commission of India.
command.
2. Frequent misuse of merger provisions
• For example in July 2019, 10 out of 15 UPSC Prelims 2022
Congress MLAs in the Goa Assembly Q1. With reference to anti-defection law in India,
merged with the BJP. Since this group consider the following statements:
constituted two-thirds of the Congress 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator
legislative party, they claimed immunity cannot join any political party within six months
from disqualification. of being appointed to the House.
3. Misuse of discretionary Power of 2. The law does not provide any time-frame within
Speaker/Chairperson which the presiding officer has to decide a
• The Speaker or Chairperson has significant defection case.
discretionary power in handling defection Which off the statements given above is/are
cases, including decision delays. Correct?
• This power is sometimes misused, a. 1 only
undermining the law's effectiveness. b. 2 only
4. Issues with Transparency c. Both
• Lack of transparency in decision-making by d. None
party whips and the Speaker often
complicates anti-defection cases, UPSC 2013
sometimes leading to delays or political Q. The role of individual MPs (Members of
bias. Parliament) has diminished over the years and
as a
result healthy constructive debates on policy
issues are not usually witnessed. How far can
this
be attributed to the anti-defection law, which
was legislated but with a different intention?
(200
words, 10 marks)
Hints
• The anti-defection law, instituted through the
Suggestions made to improve the law 52nd Constitutional Amendment in 1985, aims
• Various committees, including Dinesh at frequent and opportunistic party-switching
Goswami Committee (1990), Law Commission by politicians. Though with time the law
24
contributed to stifling individual MPs’ roles in a b. Limited Parliamentary Sessions: The
manner unintended by its framers. decreasing number of Parliament sittings has also
Original Intent and Evolving Consequences of the curtailed the scope for detailed discussions. When
Anti-Defection Law combined with constraints posed by the anti-
• The anti-defection law was introduced with the defection law, this further diminishes MPs'
intent of addressing the "Aaya Ram, Gaya engagement in meaningful debates.
Ram" phenomenon, where MPs and MLAs While the anti-defection law was introduced to
frequently switched allegiances, destabilizing promote stability, its broad application has
governments and compromising governance. inadvertently suppressed individual MPs’ voices,
However, over the years, the law’s strict affecting the quality of parliamentary debate. By
provisions have increasingly been applied to all restricting MPs’ ability to express independent
forms of voting and expression within views, the law has contributed to a more
Parliament, limiting MPs’ ability to represent constrained, less dynamic legislative process.
the interests of their constituents
independently. Election Expenditure limit
Anti-Defection Law and Diminished Autonomy of
MPs
• The anti-defection law mandates that MPs Youtube: DNA 29.10.2024
must adhere to the party's directives or face
disqualification from their seat if they vote What are the election expenditure limits in
contrary to the party line on critical issues. India?
• This curbs the independent exercise of • The election expenditure limit for candidates is
judgment by MPs, as they are bound to ₹95 lakh per Lok Sabha constituency in larger
vote as instructed by party whips, even on States and ₹75 lakh in smaller States.
complex policy issues where individual • With respect to Legislative Assemblies, they
viewpoints could enrich the debate. are ₹40 lakh and ₹28 lakh for larger and
Impact on Policy Debates smaller States respectively.
a. Reduction in Diverse Perspectives: Parliament • These limits are set, from time to time, by the
is meant to be a forum for diverse voices and Election Commission (EC).
opinions. However, the anti-defection law • There are no limits on the expenditure of
discourages MPs from voicing dissenting views, political parties during elections.
especially on policy debates that could benefit from
varied perspectives. Consequently, debates often
become repetitive, lacking the depth that would
arise from truly independent contributions.
b. Decline in Quality of Deliberation: The law's
enforcement has contributed to a homogenized
discourse, where MPs may feel compelled to
passively agree with party positions rather than
critically evaluating and contributing to policy
discussions. For example, key bills are sometimes
passed without substantial debate, as party whips
Challenges associated with election
dictate MPs’ stances, sidelining critical
deliberation. expenditure
Broader Factors Affecting the Role of MPs • In India, candidates from all major political
a. Centralization within Political Parties: Over the parties breach the election expenditure limits
years, decision-making within political parties in by a wide margin.
India has become highly centralized, with a few • Further, there are no limits on political party
leaders setting the agenda and controlling party spending during elections.
positions on policy matters. This centralization • The official expenditures declared by the BJP
further compounds the influence of the anti- and Congress for the 2019 election were
defection law, as MPs have fewer avenues to ₹1,264 crores and ₹820 crores, respectively.
express individual viewpoints even within their own • However, according to a report by the CMS
parties. (Centre for Media Studies), ₹50,000 crore was
25
spent by various parties during the 2019 officials favor corporate interests over
election. public welfare.
• The CMS has estimated that spending during 5. Vicious Cycle of Expenditure
the 2024 election by various political parties • Politicians spend heavily to win elections,
was close to ₹1,35,000 crores. and once in power, they may focus on
• The report suggests that 35% of this money recovering these costs through various
was spent on campaigns and publicity, while means, often leading to rent-seeking
25% was illegally distributed among voters. behavior.
Concerns of high election expenditure

1. Encourages Corruption State funding of elections
• Excessive spending can lead to corrupt • In this system, the states bear the election
practices, including illegal distribution of expenditure of political parties contesting the
money to voters and manipulation of the Election.
electoral process. • This can bring transparency in the funding
2. Uneven Playing Field process as public finance can limit the
• Wealthier candidates or parties have an influence of interested donors’ money and
advantage, creating an unfair competition thereby help curb corruption.
that undermines the democratic principle of
equal opportunity. Recommendations on State Funding
3. Influence of Black Money and criminalisation of 1. Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998)
politics • It suggested that state funding would ensure a
• High election costs often lead to the level playing field for poorer political parties
involvement of unaccounted money (black and argued that such a move would be in
money), as candidates seek funds from public interest.
untraceable sources. 2. Law Commission Report (1999)
4. Increased Political Influence of Corporates • It stated that a state funding of elections is
(crony capitalism) ‘desirable’ provided that political parties are
• Candidates and parties often rely on prohibited from taking funds from other
corporate funding, which can lead to a sources.
"quid pro quo" situation where elected 3. National Commission to Review the Working of
the Constitution (2000)
26
• It did not support the idea but mentioned that • Caucuses and primaries are the processes
an appropriate framework for the regulation of which are available to the 50 American states
political parties needs to be implemented. (plus Washington DC and outlying territories)
• State funding may put huge pressure on public to choose the two major parties’ nominees for
exchequer. President.
Simultaneous election Caucuses

• Simultaneous election can bring some • Caucuses are lengthier processes in which
transparency in spending and also bring down voters attend meetings at public places such as
overall expenditure in election. school gymnasiums, churches, and community
• But use of black money and criminalisation of centres, debate candidate preferences.
politics may not get addressed even with • In caucuses the voting is done by openly
simultaneous election. raising their hands for their choice.
Q. Discuss the escalating costs of elections in Primaries

India and its implications on the democratic • Voters go to polling stations and check the box
process. 10 marks/150 words against the name of their favoured candidate.
Hints After the primaries, each party holds a national
• Start with norm set by EC on election funding. convention, where delegates officially nominate
• Discuss the trend of escalating costs of their presidential candidate.
elections in India
• Provide data or examples to substantiate the
increasing trend.
• Discuss the factors contributing to this
escalation.
• Explain the concerns associated with high
election expenditure.
• Explain how it impacts the level playing field,
potentially favoring wealthier candidates or
parties.
• Discuss its influence on policy-making,
possibly leading to favoritism or corruption.
• Discuss its effect on political participation,
potentially discouraging less affluent
candidates.
• Conclude by summarizing the implications of
escalating election costs on India’s democratic
process.
• Highlight the need for reforms to ensure fair
and inclusive elections.
The US President election

process
GS Paper II-Indian Polity-Comparing different
constitutions Prelims
The US President election process

• The election process for the President of the
United States happens every four years and
has following key steps:
1. CAUCUS and Primaries system
27
2. General Election Campaign • If a candidate has reached at least 270
• The main candidates from each party electoral votes, they are declared the
campaign across the country, presenting winner.
their policies and goals to convince voters. 6. Inauguration
• They participate in debates, rallies, and • The President-elect takes the oath of office
media events. on January 20th, officially beginning their
3. Election Day term as President.
• On Election Day, usually the first Tuesday
in November, registered voters across the
country cast their votes.
• However, these votes don’t directly elect
the President.
• Instead, they determine which set of
"electors" from the Electoral College will
vote for the President on behalf of each
state.

Q1. Consider the following statements about the
U.S. presidential election process:
1. The President is elected directly by the popular
vote of citizens across all states.
2. The Electoral College is the body responsible
What is the electoral college? for the formal election of the President and Vice
• The electoral college is an intermediary body President.
that chooses the U.S. President. In this system, 3. Each state has a set number of electors in the
voters of each State cast their ballots to choose Electoral College based on its representation
electors of the electoral college who then vote in Congress.
to select the President. 4. A candidate must receive at least 270 electoral
• The number of electors accorded to each State votes to win the presidential election.
is in proportion to its population. Which of the above statements are correct?
• In the months leading up to the election, a. Only 1 and 2
different parties nominate their slate of would- b. Only 2, 3, and 4
be electors in each State. The slate of the party c. Only 1, 3, and 4
that wins the popular vote in a State goes on to d. Only 3 and 4
become electors from that State in the electoral
•
college.
If the elector votes against the citizens’ choice, Swachh Bharat Mission 2.0
they are called faithless electors. GS Paper II-Governance Prelims
4. Majority vote required
• To win, a candidate must receive a majority
Swachh Bharat Mission
of the 538 electoral votes, which is at least • The Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) or Clean
270. Whichever candidate wins the popular India Mission is a country-wide campaign
vote in a state generally wins all of that launched by the central government on
state's electoral votes. October 2, 2014.
5. Counting of Electoral Votes
• In early January, Congress officially counts
Goal
the electoral votes. • To eliminate open defecation and to create
Open Defecation Free (ODF) villages in 5
years.
28
Outcome tuberculosis, asthma, diabetes, and
• The mission achieved the ambitious goal of depression.
creating an ODF India by October 2, 2019, 2. Environmental impact
coinciding with the 150th birth anniversary of • Legacy waste dumpsites are also a source of
Mahatma Gandhi. greenhouse gas emissions, such as methane
and carbon dioxide.

Q2. Consider the following statements about
Swachh Bharat Mission 2.0:
1. Swachh Bharat Mission 2.0 aims to make all
urban areas in India “garbage-free” by
promoting sustainable waste management
practices.
2. Under Swachh Bharat Mission 2.0, the
government focuses exclusively on the
construction of household toilets in rural areas
to eliminate open defecation.
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
Swachh Bharat Mission 2.0 c. Both 1 and 2
• In 2021, the Government launched its second d. Neither 1 nor 2
edition of Swachh Bharat campaign
committing to making all Indian cities "garbage-
free" by 2026.
Jal Jeevan Mission
• The SBM 2.0 aims to remediate all legacy GS Paper II-Governance GS Paper V-Assam
dumpsites and convert them into green zones. Issues Prelims
What are legacy waste dumpsites?
• Legacy waste dumpsites are dump sites that Jal Jeevan Mission
contain solid waste that have been collected • In the Independence Day speech of 15th
and untreated for years in an unscientific and August 2019 Prime Minister Narendra Modi
mismanaged manner. announced Jal Jeevan Mission.
It has 2 components-
Progress so far? 1. Jal Jeevan Mission (Rural)
• Remediation has started on 1,226 dumpsites • Objective- Tap water supply(drinkable) to
and 27% of the total area has been reclaimed every rural household of the country by
so far. 2024.
• Tamil Nadu has the highest number of • It will require a functional household tap
remediated dumpsites. connection (FHTC) to about 16 crore rural
households.
• Tagline-'Har Ghar Jal'.
• Implemented by Ministry of Jal Shakti (a
Central sponsored scheme).
2. Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban)
• Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry to
provide universal coverage of water supply
to all households through functional taps in
all statutory towns.
• In accordance with Sustainable
Impact of legacy waste dumpsites- Development Goal- 6.
1. Health impact Benefits of the scheme-
• Inhaling methane from landfills can have long-
term consequences, including diseases like
29
• Reduce child mortality by curbing cases of
diarrhoea and intestinal worm. Jal Jeevan Dashboard
• Address nutritional insecurity and anaemia • Real Time monitoring of completion of work
amongst women associated with digestive under JJM.
issues.
Implementation approach
• Implementation at the village level with help of
Gram Panchayat and Gram Sabha. Ideas presented in the article
• 3.43 lakh Pani Samitis constituted/ made • The article highlights the significant challenges
functional at Gram Panchayat level. and delays in the implementation of the Jal
• Next set of fund is released only when earlier Jeevan Mission in Assam, with emphasis on
fund is used and it's proof is uploaded on the health risks and the need for focused action to
Jal Jeevan Mission portal. improve water access in rural areas.
• Women in every Gram Panchayat are being
trained to report if there is any misuse of fund. Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) Implementation
• They have been given testing kit also to issues:
estimate quality of water. • Concerns in Assam over project quality and
• Households that gets tap connection has to delays.
pay some nominal monthly fees of about Rs • The state government plans to review
50-60 just to make the the Gram panchayat contractors’ performance.
accountable to the households (Freely • Repeated missed deadlines and quality issues
distributed goods diminishes accountability on have overshadowed the mission's progress.
the part of government agencies).
Q1. With reference to Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM)
consider the following statements:
1. It aims at ensuring potable drinking water
security in every rural household and public
institutions across India by 2024.
2. It is being implemented by the Ministry of Rural
Development.
Select the correct statement using the code given
below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
30
Rice fortification
GS Paper II-Governance-Health Prelims
What is rice fortification?

• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of
India (FSSAI) defines fortification as
“deliberately increasing the content of essential
micronutrients in a food so as to improve the
nutritional quality of food and to provide public
health benefit with minimal risk to health”.
• Fortified rice helps in tackling hidden hunger.
Why is rice fortification needed?
India has very high levels of malnutrition among
women and children. It is evident from following
data-
• According to the Health Ministry, every second
woman in the country is anaemic and every
third child is stunted.
• Fortification of food is considered to be one of
the most suitable methods to combat
malnutrition.
• Rice is one of India’s staple foods, consumed
by about two-thirds of the population.
• Therefore, fortifying rice with micronutrients is
an option to supplement the diet of the poor.
Methods used for Rice Fortification
• Various methods are available for rice How can a beneficiary identify that she is getting
fortification, such as- fortified rice and not regular rice?
1. Coating • Fortified rice will be packed in jute bags with
2. Dusting the logo (‘+F’) and the line “Fortified with Iron,
3. Extrusion-Best technology Folic Acid, and Vitamin B12” mandatorily
printed on the pack.
Extrusion
• Dry rice flour is mixed with a premix of
micronutrients, and water is added to this
mixture.
• This mixture then goes into a twin-screw
extruder with heating zones, which produces
kernels similar in shape and size to rice.
• Fortified Rice Kernels (FRK) has a shelf life of
at least 12 months.
• These FRKs are mixed with regular rice.
• As per the Health Ministry’s guidelines, 10 g of
FRK must be blended with 1 kg of regular rice
(About 1% fortification) Fortified Rice
Does fortified rice have to be cooked differently?
• The cooking of fortified rice does not require
any special procedure.
• The rice needs to be cleaned and washed in
the normal way before cooking.
31
Current news? International NGOs impact on India
• THE UNION Cabinet has extended the • INGOs like the Ford Foundation, Rockefeller
universal supply of fortified rice under all Foundation played a significant role in shaping
government run food supply scheme until India’s family planning and population control
December 2028. policies from the 1950s to the 1980s.
• INGOs introduced sex-determination
Practice Question technologies, like amniocentesis, at AIIMS,
Q1. Which of the following statements are true originally for detecting fetal abnormalities.
regarding food fortification? • However, they quickly became tools for
1. Regular milled rice is low in micronutrients and determining fetal sex.
serves primarily as a source of carbohydrate • Misuse of Amniocentesis Tests led to declining
only child sex ratio.
2. Fortified rice are contains Vitamin A, Vitamin • The child sex ratio dropped from 983 girls per
B1, Vitamin B12, Folic Acid, Iron and Zinc. 1,000 boys in 1951 to 927 in 2001, with the
3. Fortified rice helps in tackling hidden hunger. sharpest decline coinciding with the
a. 1,2 only introduction of sex-determination tests.
b. 2,3 only
c. 1,3 only
d. 1,2,3 all
Outsourcing development
GS Paper II-Governance-the role of NGOs Prelims
Ideas presented in the article

• The article discusses how international NGOs
(INGOs) have harmed local communities in
countries. Key idea is-
• While INGOs may have good intentions, their • Mere good intentions are not enough.
interventions have often caused lasting harm • Understanding ground realities before framing
since they don't understand local realities. a policy and introducing a technology is equally
Some international examples where INGOs have important.
done more harm than good-
1. In Tanzania and Kenya, INGOs displaced Prelims Practice Question
Maasai communities through environment Q2. Consider the following statements about the
conservation projects. Masai tribe:
2. In Bolivia, INGOs backed water privatization in 1. The Masai primarily live in the savannas of
restricting access and causing public protests. Tanzania and Kenya.
2. The Masai tribe practices a predominantly
agricultural way of life, relying heavily on crop
farming for sustenance.
Which statement is correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None
32
Hints
• The Masai are traditionally pastoralists, not
agriculturalists.
• They rely on livestock rather than crop farming
for their livelihood.
Rare Diseases
GS Paper II-Governance-Health Prelims
Rare Diseases
• A rare disease, also referred to as an orphan
disease, is any disease that affects a small
percentage of the population (disease that
affects less than 1 in 1,000 people).
• Most rare diseases are genetic, and are
present throughout a person’s entire life, even
if symptoms do not immediately appear.
Why rare diseases are known as ‘Orphan

disease’?
• Rare diseases are called orphan diseases National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021
when they receive little to no funding or Aim
research for treatments. • Lower the high cost of treatment for rare
• This is due to the rarity of the disease, which diseases.
results in a limited patient population and high • Increased focus on indigenous research.
development costs.
Provisions
Cost of Orphan Drugs • Financial support for one-time treatment of up
• These drugs are expensive, as they are rarely to Rs. 50 lakh.
produced, and development costs are high. • Introduces a crowd funding mechanism.
• Pharmaceutical companies find them • Creates a registry of rare diseases and
unprofitable. provides for early detection.
• Eight (08) Centres of Excellence (CoEs) like
Current news? AIIMS and PGIMER have been identified for
• The Delhi High Court recently directed diagnosis, prevention and treatment of rare
improvements in the availability of "orphan diseases.
drugs" used for treating rare diseases.
Centres of Excellence
Note- National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021 was • The Centres of Excellence would be provided
brought by the government for treatment of rare a one-time grant to a maximum of Rs. 5 crore
diseases patients. each for infrastructure development for
screening, tests, treatment.
33
• Constitutional Provisions in the context of the
new policy for rare diseases -Article 38, Article
41, Article 47
• About 95% rare diseases have no approved
treatment and less than 1 in 10 patients receive
disease-specific treatment.
• Thus government announced National Policy
for Rare Diseases 2021.
Provisions of National Policy for Rare Diseases
2021
• National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021
It categorizes rare diseases into three groups:
• Group 1: Disorders amenable to one-time
curative treatment (e.g., certain cancers,
bone marrow transplant).
• Group 2: Diseases requiring long-term
treatment but with some benefits from
existing therapies (e.g., Gaucher’s disease,
Cystic Fibrosis).
• Group 3: Diseases for which definitive
treatment is not available but supportive
care improves quality of life (e.g., muscular
dystrophies).
Financial Assistance:
• Provision for a one-time financial
assistance of up to ₹20 lakhs for diseases
listed under Group 1, under the Rashtriya
Arogya Nidhi (RAN) for Below Poverty Line
(BPL) families.
• Creation of a digital platform for
crowdfunding to support treatment for
diseases in Group 2 and 3.
• Designation of specific hospitals as CoEs
for diagnosis and treatment of rare
diseases.
• Development of a National Registry to
better understand the prevalence and
spread of rare diseases.
Significance of the policy-
• By formally categorizing rare diseases, the
policy acknowledges the heterogeneity of
Q. Critically analyse National Policy for Rare these conditions, which helps tailor
Diseases 2021. 15 marks/250 words treatment approaches and financial
Hints support.
• A rare disease, also referred to as an orphan
Criticisms of the National Rare Disease Policy
2021
disease, is any disease that affects a small
percentage of the population. 1. The government support for treating patients
• Most rare diseases are genetic, and are
with a ‘rare disease’— from Rs 15 lakh to Rs 20
present throughout a person’s entire life, even lakh — caregivers say this doesn’t reflect actual
if symptoms do not immediately appear. costs of treatment.
2. The Policy leaves patients with Group 3 rare
• Haemophilia, Thalassemia, Sickle-cell
anaemia, Autoimmune diseases, Pompe diseases to fend for themselves due to the
disease etc absence of a sustainable funding support.
34
3. In absence of proper research and screening
provisions the policy may fail to yield desired
outcome.
The National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021 is a
welcome development, as it highlights the
government’s recognition of the challenges faced
by individuals suffering from rare diseases.
However, the policy falls short in several areas,
including financial support, comprehensive care for
chronic conditions, and equitable access. Thus
recently the Delhi High Court recently directed
improvements in the availability of "orphan drugs"
used for treating rare diseases.
Greenwashing guidelines
GS Paper IV-Ethics and Integrity-Corporate
governance Prelims
What is Greenwashing?
• Greenwashing refers to the deceptive practice
by companies or organizations that make
Current news?
• To restrain companies from making false or
misleading or exaggerated claims about the
misleading claims about the environment-
environmental benefits of their products,
services, or practices. friendly nature of their products or services, the
government released new guidelines that
• For example, a company might label a product
make it mandatory for companies to
as "eco-friendly" without providing evidence or
substantiate their claims with scientific
while still engaging in harmful environmental
evidence.
practices.
• The Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation
of Greenwashing or Misleading Environmental
Real example of greenwashing-Volkswagen’s
emissions scandal Claims were issued by the Central Consumer
• In 2015, it was revealed that Volkswagen had
Protection Authority (CCPA) which works
under the Consumer Affairs Ministry.
installed "defeat devices" in millions of its
• The move is part of the government's
diesel vehicles to cheat emissions tests.
crackdown on misleading advertisements.
• These cars were marketed as being
environmentally friendly, with claims of low
emissions and fuel efficiency.
• However, in reality, the vehicles were emitting
nitrogen oxides at levels up to 40 times higher
than the legal limit
35
UPSC Prelims 2022 Matrital Rape: Analysis
Q3. Which one of the following best describes the Arguments in favor of marital rape exceptions
term “greenwashing? 1. Misuse of law
a. Conveying a false impression that a company’s • Jurists and even men’s rights activists have
products are eco-friendly and environmentally raised alarm over the criminalisation of
sound marital rape due to its misuse as seen in
b. Non-Inclusion of ecological/ environmental case of dowry cases.
costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a 2. Burden of proof
country • Intercourse is a part of any marriage.
c. Ignoring the disastrous ecological • It will be difficult to prove that there existed
consequences while undertaking infrastructure some force during the intercourse.
development
d. Making mandatory provisions for Criticism of marital rape exceptions
environmental costs in a government 1. Illogical Differentiation between Married &
project/programme Unmarried women
2. Reflects Patriarchal outlook of Laws
Marital Rape exception • Rape laws in our country continue with the
patriarchal outlook of considering women
GS Paper I-Indian Society GS Paper II- to be the property of men post marriage,
Governance GS Paper IV-Ethics and Integrity with no autonomy or agency over their
PSIR-Feminism bodies.
Youtube: DNA 18.10.2024 3. Marital Rape exception is a colonial relic and
reflection of Victorian morality.
Matrital Rape
• Marital rape, the act of forcing spouse into
having sex without consent.
• It is an unjust and against dignity of a woman.
• Yet marital rapes has not been criminalised in
India.
• There is an exception to Section 375 (rape) of
the Indian Penal Code (IPC) which allows a
man to force sex on his wife.
• Bhartiya Nyaya Samhita (which superseded
IPC) extends the exception of marital rape
under BNS Section 63.
Victorian morality
Section 63 of the Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) • British Victorian morality refers to a set of social
gives 2 exceptions- and moral values that were prevalent in Britain
1. Medical procedures or interventions: These during the Victorian era (1837 to 1901)-reign of
are not considered rape. Queen Victoria.
2. Sexual acts between a man and his wife, if the • These values were characterized by a
wife is not under 18: This is known as the conservative social norms.
Marital Rape Exception (MRE). • The Marital Rape Exception (MRE) is a colonial
relic, originating from the doctrine of coverture
in English law prevailed during Victorian era.
What is doctrine of coverture?

• A legal principle from English common law that
governed the legal status of married women
during the early modern period, particularly
during the 18th and 19th centuries.
• Under coverture, a married woman’s legal
identity was "covered" by her husband’s.
36
• Essentially, when a woman married, her 2. Sexual acts between a man and his wife, if the
separate legal existence was merged with that wife is not under 18, are considered marital
of her husband, effectively placing her under rape under Section 63 of BNS.
his authority and control. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Mains Practice Question

Q. Criminalising Marital Rape may destabilise
the institution of marriage apart from being an
easy tool for harassing the husbands. Critically
analyse the statement. 150 words/10 marks
Hints
• Define marital rape (mention exception 2 of
BNS section 63).
Britain to a great extent has abandoned the Marital Rape may destabilise the institution of
Victorian morality including doctrine of coverture. marriage
But the Marital Rape exception in India exemplifies • India is a very diverse country, and marriage is
the effectiveness of the doctrine in Indian legal sacred and sacroscant. It is basis for family
system. system in India.
• Just because developed country is having law
Recommendation regarding Marital Rape on it, it doesn’t mean that we follow it blindly.
• Justice JS Verma Committee,2013(created • Possibility of misuse of law
after Nirbhaya case for suggesting measures • Burden of proof
regarding protection of women) suggested So, we can see the above statements appealing to
that rapes committed by husbands against not to criminalise on the ground, that it destabilizes
wife also should be considered a punishable the marriage and become a tool for harassing men.
offence. Yet the arguments of other side is equally valid.
• In March 2022, the Karnataka High Court in Criticism of India’s Law on Marital Rape
Hrishikesh Sahoo versus State of Karnataka • Against International Norm
and Others ruled that a married man can be • Reflects Patriarchal outlook of Laws
prosecuted for raping his wife. • Unintelligible differentia- Illogical Differentiation
• The judgment relied on a 2013 report authored between Married & Unmarried women
by the Justice J.S. Verma Committee, which • Relic of colonial era- Doctrine of coverture
recommended the abolition of the MRE. The higher judiciary needs to evaluate the issue
from both cultural and liberal perspective.
Current news?
• A three-judge Bench headed by Chief Justice
of India (CJI) D.Y. Chandrachud has begun
Nikshay Poshan Yojana
hearing a batch of petitions challenging the GS Paper II-Governance-Health Prelims
constitutional validity of Exception 2 to Section Youtube: DNA 21.10.2024
63 of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023
leading to Marital Rape exception. Tuberculosis
• Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a bacterium
Prelims Practice Question called Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Q2. With regard to Section 63 of the Bharatiya • It is serious infectious disease that mainly
Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), which supersedes the affects lungs.
Indian Penal Code (IPC), evaluate the following • TB remains one of the country’s most severe
statements: health challenges, with estimated 3,00,000
1. Medical procedures or interventions are fatality in India annually.
exempted from being considered rape under
Section 63 of BNS.
37
National TB elimination Programme
• National TB elimination Programme is
eliminate TB by 2025.
• DoTS (directly-observed therapy, short-
course) programme is run by government of
India under which free medicine is provided to
TB patients.
Medicine administered under DoTS-

a. isoniazid (INH),
b. rifampicin (Rif),
c. pyrazinamide (PZA),
d. ethambutol
(All 4 are different types of antibiotics)
Undernutrition and TB has organic relation-one

leading to another
Current news?
• The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has
doubled the direct benefit transfer (DBT) under
the Nikshay Poshan Yojana (NPY) from ₹500
to ₹1,000 per month for the entire duration of
TB treatment.
• Additionally, ₹3,000 is disbursed at the time of
diagnosis to cover immediate nutritional needs.
Undernutrition and TB
• Undernutrition is a significant risk factor for TB,
with a high prevalence of malnutrition among
TB patients in India (average weight of 43 kg
for men and 38 kg for women).
• Lack of nutritional support leads to poor
treatment outcomes, reduced ability to work,
and increased risk of disease recurrence and
increased mortality.
• To address the problem of Undernutrition
amongst TB patients GoI launched Nikshay
Poshan Yojana. Prelims Practice Question
• Under the scheme the government provides Q1. Evaluate the following statements regarding
one time grant and monthly monetary support the Nikshay Poshan Yojana:
to the TB patients for address the issues of 1. The Nikshay Poshan Yojana is a government
malnutrition. initiative that provides financial assistance to
TB patients.
38
2. The financial support is directly transferred to National Biopharma Mission
the patient's bank account through the Direct • Under the Make in India Initiative, the Centre
Benefit Transfer (DBT) system. has launched the National Biopharma Mission
3. The scheme is only applicable to patients (NBM).
enrolled in public healthcare facilities. • It is a $250 million mission, co-funded by the
Which of the above statement is/are correct? World Bank.
a. 1,2 only
b. 1,3 only Aim
c. 2,3 only • An industry-academia collaboration.
d. 1,2,3 all • It supports nearly 150 academic organisations
and 300 MSMEs, with 21 shared infrastructure
Biosimilars and facilities established for research and
biomanufacturing.
Evergreening of Patents • These facilities were pivotal in the Covid-19
vaccine trials.
GS Paper II-Governance GS Paper III-Indian
• They contribute to India’s long-term healthcare
Economy Prelims
goals.
Youtube: DNA 28.10.2024 • Despite these efforts, India has a mere 3 per
cent share of the global biosimilar market.
What are Biosimilars? • One of the biggest barriers faced by Indian
• Biopharmaceuticals are medicines made from biosimilar manufacturers is patent
living cells, such as yeast and bacteria, unlike evergreening.
conventional drugs that are made from
chemicals.
• They have revolutionised the treatment of
chronic diseases like cancer, diabetes,
cardiovascular diseases etc.
Biosimilars
• A biologic substance that is very similar to the
Biopharmaceuticals.
• They have the same efficacy, are as safe as
the reference Biopharmaceuticals and are
used to treat the same disorders.
Biosimilar market in India
• India is a pioneer in the global biosimilars
market.
• It was the first country to approve a biosimilar
product for Hepatitis B.
• Today, there are 98 approved biosimilars in
India, with at least 50 in the market, the most in
any country.
• Many India-made biosimilars have been
approved in markets like the US. What is Patent?
• A patent is an intellectual property (IP) right for
a technical invention.
• Intellectual property rights (IPR) are the rights
given to persons over the creations of their
minds.
• It allows you to prevent others from using your
invention for commercial purposes.
• Patent rights are given to promote innovations
by protecting the commercial interest of
innovators.
39
Current case
• The multinational Roche extended the
exclusivity of trastuzumab (Herceptin), a
biologic used to treat breast cancer, by
introducing a subcutaneous version just as the
original patent was expiring.
• It is estimated that this strategy of “patent
evergreening”

Patent evergreening concept of patent evergreening in India:
• In India, patents are granted for a maximum 1. Patent evergreening allows pharmaceutical
term of 20 years (provided it is maintained by companies to extend their monopoly by making
paying annuity fees). minor changes to existing patents and filing for
• After the expiry of the patent, the local new ones.
manufacturers can make generic version of the 2. In India, patents are granted for a maximum
medicine (Biosimilar of the Biopharmaceutical) term of 10 years, after which generic versions
which would be cheaper. can be produced by local manufacturers.
• However, sometimes the patentees (mostly Which of the above statements is/are correct?
pharmaceutical companies) attempt to extend a. Only 1
this monopoly right beyond the limited period b. Only 2
of 20 years. c. Both 1 and 2
• When the term of the patent is about to end, d. Neither 1 nor 2
these companies make trivial /insignificant
variations to the existing patented invention Q. What is patent evergreening, and why is it a
and file for a new patent, thus extending their concern? Discuss its impact on innovation and
monopoly. public health, particularly in the Indian context.
• This is known as the Ever-greening of a patent. (10 marks)
• Patent evergreening involves the continuous
extension of patent rights through cosmetic
incremental innovations. Companies may
obtain new patents for slight modifications,
such as changes in dosage, delivery
mechanism, or combinations with other
compounds. This practice can effectively
prolong the monopoly over a drug, sometimes
for decades beyond the original patent
expiration, curtailing the competition from
generics.
Concerns Related to Patent Evergreening
1. Access to Affordable Medicines: Evergreening
impedes access to affordable medicines,
especially in developing nations. By extending
patents, pharmaceutical companies prevent
Laws to prevent Patent evergreening generic manufacturers from producing cost-
• Section 3(d) of the Patent Act, 1970 states that effective alternatives, making essential drugs
the "mere discovery of a new form of a known inaccessible to low-income populations.
substance which does not result in the 2. Impact on Innovation: Patent evergreening
enhancement of the known efficacy of that often discourages genuine innovation.
substance is not patentable under the Indian Companies focus resources on tweaking
Patent Act. existing drugs to secure patent extensions
• Despite these legal safeguards, evergreening rather than investing in new, groundbreaking
remains a challenge in launching affordable
biosimilars.
40
research, which can stifle the development of • People are now accustomed to have one or
truly innovative therapies. no child.
3. Public Health Implications: With delayed • This is negatively impacting the
access to affordable generics, patients in low- demographic structure of China.
income and developing countries may not 3. More than 2 children policy (2021 onwards)
receive timely, affordable treatment, which can 2021
lead to broader public health crises, especially • China is encouraging people to have 3
for chronic diseases like cancer, HIV, and children.
diabetes.
4. Economic Burden: High drug prices due to
prolonged monopolies increase the economic
burden on patients and healthcare systems. In
countries with limited health insurance
coverage, this translates to out-of-pocket
expenditure for the public.
Patent Evergreening in the Indian Context
• Section 3(d) of the Indian Patent Act is a
notable provision against evergreening. It
mandates that incremental innovations
must demonstrate "enhanced efficacy" to
qualify for patent protection.
Conclusion
• Patent evergreening presents significant
ethical and economic challenges, especially for
developing countries reliant on affordable Current news?
generics. India’s stance, underscored by its • China has introduced policies to encourage
patent laws and judicial precedents, couples to have more children due to declining
exemplifies a model that protects public health birth rates and an aging population.
interests without entirely disincentivizing • 13 Targeted Measures: The State Council
innovation. As the global pharmaceutical issued a directive with 13 measures aimed at
landscape evolves, India’s balanced approach enhancing childcare support, expanding
continues to advocate for a patent regime that childcare systems, improving education,
supports innovation while ensuring equitable housing, and employment, and fostering a
access to medicines. family-friendly social environment.
Why China wants people to have more

New population strategy of children?
China Following challenges are arising for China
because of its one child policy-
GS Paper II-Governance Prelims 1. Ageing economy
Youtube: DNA 30.10.2024 • Projections suggest that China’s elderly
population could exceed 400 million by 2035.
Population control strategies of China • This means less working people but more old
1. One Child Policy (1980 till 2016) age people to take care.
• Ordinary people had to pay heavy fines in 2. High dependency ratio/Distorted demographic
China for each additional child, structure
government employees who broke the • Dependency Ratio= Dependent
rules faced termination. Population/Working Age Population
2. Two child policy (2016-2021) • The dependency ratio is a measure of the
• The government started incentivising number of dependents aged zero to 15 and
people to have 2 children. over the age of 65, compared with the total
• But an authoritarian state can force population aged 15 to 64.
people to produce less children but • China’s population aged above 65 years would
cannot force them to produce more. increase from 10% in 2010 to 32.6% in 2050.
41
• Its young age population is
declining,dependency ratio is increasing.
• European demography already has matured
for example mean age of Germany and France
is 47 years.
• This puts India into an advantages position with
an mean age of 28 years.
Lesson for India

• Population control strategies must aim at
controlling population in moderate fashion
unlike China.
• There must be a medium and long term
strategy in population management.
NFHS-5
Where did China go wrong? • Overall India’s Total Fertility Rate is 2.
• Due to one child policy over a long period of • Since replacement rate is 2.1, it can be inferred
time TFR of China declined to 1.7. that India’s population will stabilise.
(Replacement rate is 2.1).
• Thus China facing the problem of distorted
demography.
• Now people have become used to one child
norms plus the cost of living has gone up so
people do not want to have more kids.
• Thus despite having two child policy of three
child policy the population of China is not
increasing.
UPSC 2024
Q1. Consider the following countries:
Problem of 4-2-1 of China 1. Italy
• The ratio of dependent population wrt working 2. Japan
population has gone up. 3. Nigeria
• Pension seeking people are more, working 4. South Korea
population is less. 5. South Africa
Which of the above countries are frequently
Opportunity and lesson for India mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or
Economic opportunity ageing population or declining population?
• China’s economy has peaked up. a. 1, 2 and 4
• China no longer can be driver of global b. 1, 3 and 5
economy. c. 2 and 4 only
d. 3 and 5 only
42
UPSC 2024 b. the number of children born to couple in their
Q2. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined lifetime in a given population.
as: c. the birth rate minus death rate.
a. the number of children born per 1000 People in d. the average number of live births a woman
the Population in a year. would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
OPEC+ group
GS Paper II-International Relations Prelims
OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum

Exporting Countries)
• A permanent, intergovernmental organization,
headquartered in Vienna, Austria.
• OPEC was founded in Baghdad in 1960 by five
countries namely Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi
Arabia and Venezuela.
• Currently, the Organization has a total of 12 OPEC + group
Member Countries (Angola withdrew its • OPEC+ refers to a group of 22 oil-exporting
membership effective 1 January 2024). nations, which includes the 12 members of the
Organization of the Petroleum Exporting
What does OPEC do? Countries (OPEC) and 10 other major oil
• OPEC is group of major petroleum producing producers.
countries. • The "plus" refers to these additional producers,
• Coordinate petroleum policies among member most notably Russia.
Countries, in order to secure fair and stable • OPEC+ was formed in late 2016 in response to
prices. falling oil prices and oversupply in the global
market, aiming to stabilize oil prices through
coordinated production cuts.
OPEC+ (Extension of OPEC)

• OPEC plus countries include Azerbaijan,
Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia,
Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan and
Sudan.
43
Current context
• The conflict between Israel and Iran has
Currency Swap agreement
escalated. with Maldives
• A full-blown conflict could disrupt oil supply in
world market, since West Asia is key supplier GS Paper II-International Relations Prelims
of petroleum products. Youtube: DNA 8.10.2024
• It is speculated that oil prices above $100 per
barrel, driven by supply disruptions. What is currency Swap?
• In this context OPEC+ members are • Currency swap is effectively a loan given in one
coordinating with each other to avoid supply currency but paid back in other currency.
shock.
For example under Currency Swap agreement
Main concern with Sri Lanka in 2020-
• OPEC has enough spare oil capacity to • India gave to Sri Lanka in dollars, with an
compensate for the full loss of Iranian oil supply agreement that the debt will be repaid with
if it is disrupted due to conflict. interest in Sri Lankan rupees.
• However, much of OPEC's spare capacity is
located in the Gulf region, making it vulnerable Why such transaction is known Currency
to attacks. Swap?
• Because the currency is changed(swapped) in
the transaction.
Why Currency Swap agreements are made?

1. To help a country to deal with Balance of
Payments (BOP) crisis
2. To protect a country against currency risk
• These swap operations carry no exchange
rate risks as transaction terms are set in
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding advance.
OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum Exporting
Countries) and OPEC+:
1. OPEC was founded by five countries, including
Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and
Venezuela, in Baghdad in 1960.
2. OPEC's headquarters are located in Vienna,
Austria, and the organization focuses on
coordinating petroleum policies among its
member countries to stabilize oil prices.
3. Angola is the latest member to join OPEC.
a. 1 only
b. 1,2 only
c. 2,3 only
d. 1,2,3 all
44
SAARC currency swap framework
• The SAARC currency swap framework came
into operation on November 15, 2012.
• According to it SAARC members can provide
credit in foreign currencies like Dollar, Euros to
each other and take back repayment in local
currencies.
• The facility is available to all SAARC member
countries, subject to their signing the bilateral
swap agreements.
• According to one such bilateral agreement
India’s RBI provided $400 million to Sri Lanka
in 2020.
• Similarly Sri Lanka entered a 200 million dollar
swap with the Bangladesh central bank in
2022.
• RBI has created a overall corpus of USD 2
billion to support other SAARC countries under
swap arrangement. Change in position by Muizzu
• After getting elected the new President of
Maldives Mohamed Muizzu has taken several
anti India and pro China stand.
Steps taken by President Muizzu-
1. Choose Turkey (known for its anti India stand)
for one of his first overseas visits
2. Signed 21 new agreements with China
3. Asked India to withdraw military personnel from
Maldives
4. Scrapped a key pact with India involving a
water survey.
But still India is helping Maldives considering its
significance for India.
Current news?
• Maldivian President Mohamed Muizzu is on
visit to India.
• India signed a $750 million currency swap
agreement with the Maldives.
• This swap, under the SAARC Currency Swap
Framework, will be available until 2027.
• The deal will help the Maldives to manage its
balance of payment (BoP) crisis.
• India and Maldives also signed ‘A Vision for
Comprehensive Economic and Maritime
Security Partnership’. • A Maldivian ministers' offensive remarks
against India’s PM on his visit to Lakshadweep
had led to boycott Maldives trend in India.
• This led to forex reserve crisis for Maldives.
45
Significance of Maldives for India • India supplies Maldives with its everyday
1. Location and maritime security essentials: rice, spices, fruits, vegetables,
• Maldives proximity to the west coast of poultry.
India (barely 70 nautical miles from Minicoy 2. Supply of critical care and life-saving drugs
and 300 nautical miles from India’s West 3. Supplies basic items to build infrastructure
coast). • Cement, rock boulders, and basically
• Given the location Maldives is one of the anything one needs to build a house or a
key elements in India’s maritime security bridge or a school or a hospital.
calculus. 4. Education
2. Security surveillance • The islands are isolated and spread out,
• India wants to set up a coastal radar there are no major educational institutions.
system in Maldives, with a view to keep an • So, every year, Maldivian students flock to
eye on the activities in the Indian Ocean. Indian higher educational institutions.
3. China factor 5. Economic dependence
• Maldives Male port is part of Belt and Road • Maldives is dependent on India for most
Initiative of China which is dubbed as items, and hence India is among its top
Strings of Pearls by security experts. trading partners.
6. Help during disasters
• India has been the main pillar of help for
Maldives in times of crisis and distress.
• When a tsunami struck the islands in 2004,
India was the first to send in help.
• Again, in 2014, when Male suddenly had a
drinking water crisis as the major
desalination plant broke down, India
overnight airlifted drinking water to the
islands.
7. Security provider
• When there was a coup attempt in 1988
against then President Abdul Gayoom,
India sent in troops to fight the combatants
(Operation Cactus).
Conclusion
• The India out campaign by the current
government of Maldives is not in interest of
India but it can be more detrimental for the
interest of Maldives.
10 point plan for India-

ASEAN relation
Mains Practice Question
Q. Maldives need India more than India needs ASEAN
Maldives. Discuss. 15 marks/250 words • The Association of Southeast Asian Nations
Hints (ASEAN) is an international organisation that
• Briefly discuss- Significance of Maldives for has 10 member countries in Southeast Asia:
India. 1. Brunei
• Discuss in detail-significance of India for 2. Cambodia
Maldives. 3. Indonesia
Significance of India for Maldives 4. Laos
1. Essentials supplies 5. Malaysia
46
6. Myanmar East Asia Summit is ASEAN + 8 members
7. Philippines (Australia, China, Japan, India, New Zealand, the
8. Singapore Republic of Korea, Russia and the United States)
9. Thailand
10. Vietnam. Current news?
• Secretariat: Jakarta, Indonesia • Recently the 21st ASEAN-India Summit, held
• History: It was formed in 1967 on 10 October 2024 in Vientiane, Laos.
• The summit marked a decade of India’s Act
East Policy.
• PM Modi participated from India’s side.
Key highlights of the 21st ASEAN - India

Summit
• In line with the summit’s theme of "Enhancing
Connectivity and Resilience," PM Modi
unveiled a 10-point plan.
Brief History of India ASEAN relations

• Till 1991 USSR was India's major trading
partner.
• But after disintegration of USSR India look for
or other trading partners. 10-Point Plan for India-ASEAN relation
• Thus in 1992 under Prime Ministership of PV • Celebrating 2025 as ASEAN-India Year of
Narasimha Rao India started Look East Policy- Tourism
To promote trade with Southeast Asian • Conduct Youth Summits and Start-up Festivals
countries. • Organizing the ASEAN-India Women
• This was the beginning of India ASEAN Scientists Conclave
relations. • Doubling scholarships at Nalanda University
• In 2014 Look East Policy was upgraded in to for ASEAN Students
Act East Policy to add strategic dimensions in • Reviewing the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods
India ASEAN relations. Agreement
• Allocating USD 5 million to enhance Disaster
Resilience
• Initiating a Health Ministers’ track to build
health resilience
• Establishing an ASEAN-India Cyber Policy
Dialogue
• Hosting a workshop on Green Hydrogen
• Launching the ‘Plant a Tree for Mother’
campaign to promote climate resilience
Future Plan of Action (2026-2030)

• Leaders agreed on the creation of a new
ASEAN-India Plan of Action (2026-2030) to
further the partnership.
47
UPSC Prelims 2015 • Set up by the UN Security Council in 1978 in
Q1. India is a member of which among the Lebanon.
following? • UNIFIL is stationed in southern Lebanon.
1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
2. Association of Southeast Asian Nations Mandate of UNIFIL-
3. East Asia Summit • UNIFIL was established to oversee the Israeli
Select the correct answer using the code given withdrawal from Lebanon (from the areas that
below. were acquired by Israel).
a. 1 and 2 only • To restore peace and security in the area.
b. 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. India is a member of none of them
United Nations Interim Force

in Lebanon
UN Peacekeeping Force
• UN Peacekeeping forces are deployed to
ensure fulfilment of peace commitments
between conflicting parties. Current development
• UN Peacekeeping forces can’t be used for • Israeli forces have been attacking Hezbollah
offensive action by UN. groups of Lebanon for about a month.
UN Peacekeeping is guided by three basic • Hezbollah leader Sheikh Hassan Nasrallah
principles: was killed by Israeli forces in an airstrike.
1. Consent of the parties. • Now Israeli forces launched an attack on the
2. Impartiality. headquarters of the United Nations Interim
3. Non-use of force except in self-defence and Force in Lebanon (Unifil) in southern Lebanon
defence of the mandate. recently.
Note- Every peacekeeping mission is authorized
by the United Nations Security Council.
Hezbollah
• A militant group of Lebanon
UN peacekeepers (often referred to as Blue Berets • Part of Iran’s axis of resistance against Israel
or Blue Helmets because of their light blue berets • Recently under attack of Israel
or helmets)
United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon Q1. Examine the following statements-
(UNIFIL) 1. Lebanon shares a western coastline along the
• UNIFIL is part of the UN Peacekeeping force. Mediterranean Sea.
2. Israel doesn't shares a border with Lebanon.
48
3. Both Lebanon and Israel have borders with • If India agrees to participate in the Champions
Syria. Trophy, it could signify a positive step toward
Which of the above statements are correct? improving India-Pakistan relation.
a. 1,2 only
b. 2,3 only
c. 1,2,3 all
d. 1,3 only
SCO meet in Pakistan

Shanghai Cooperation Organization

• SCO is a permanent intergovernmental
organisation.
• It was created in 2001. BRICS Summit
• Objective- It aims at promoting political,
economic and military cooperation amongst
members. Youtube: DNA 22.10.2024
• Secretariat is in Beijing.
What is BRICS?
Membership • BRICS is an acronym for the grouping of the
• Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, world’s leading emerging economies, namely
Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, India, Pakistan, Iran Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
and Belarus. • The BRICS Leaders’ Summit is convened
• India and Pakistan became members in 2017. annually.
• Russia supported inclusion of India, in return • The first BRIC Summit took place in 2009 in
China insisted on inclusion of Pakistan. Yekaterinburg, Russia.
• South Africa was invited to join BRIC in
December 2010, after which the group adopted
the acronym BRICS.
• The Chairmanship of the forum is rotated
annually among the members.
• In 2021 BRICS Chairmanship was with India
and in 2022, China is having its Chairmanship.
• In 2023 BRICS chairmanship has been handed
over to South Africa.
Current context BRICS - timeline

• 23rd session of the Council of Heads of
Government (CHG) of SCO was held in
Islamabad, Pakistan.
• India’s External Affairs Minister Dr S
Jaishankar represented India.
• On the sidelines of SCO meet, first direct
conversation between Indian and Pakistani
Foreign Ministers since 2015.
Cricket Diplomacy
• Pakistan has invited India to play in the
Champions Trophy scheduled for February
2025 in Pakistan, which could mark India's first
visit to Pakistan for a cricket match in 17 years.
49
Prime agenda of BRICS
1. Geopolitical Cooperation
• Rebalancing an international system
dominated by the West.
• This strengthened the world’s march
towards multi-polarity.
2. Economic Cooperation
• Establishment of the BRICS New
Development Bank (NDB) and the
Contingency Reserve Arrangement (CRA)
can be seen as an alternative to World
Current development
BRICS Summit 2024
Bank and IMF.
• In 2024, Russia holds the chairmanship of
3. Prospective Cooperation
BRICS.
• BRICS Payment System-alternative to the
• This responsibility was handed over to Russia
SWIFT payment system.
on January 1, 2024, and it will culminate in the
• This has taken on a new urgency as post
16th BRICS Summit, which is set to take place
Ukraine war, Russia has been frozen out of
in Kazan, Russia from October 22-24, 2024.
SWIFT.
• Under its leadership, Russia is focusing on
three main areas:
1. Politics and security
2. Economy and finance,
3. Cultural and humanitarian cooperation.
• This chairmanship also coincides with
BRICS expanding its membership, adding
five new countries—Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran,
Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab
Emirates
BRICS Chairmanship
• The chairmanship of BRICS rotates annually
among its five founding members.
• The rotation is based on the alphabetical order
of the countries' names.
For example:
1. Brazil held the chairmanship in 2019,
2. Russia in 2020,
3. India in 2021,
4. China in 2022,
5. South Africa in 2023.
Due to Brazil's G20 presidency in 2024, Brazil
requested to swap its chairmanship year with
Russia, resulting in Russia leading BRICS in 2024
and Brazil taking over in 2025.
50
UPSC Prelims 2014 Border agreements between India and
Q2. With reference to a grouping of countries China
known as BRICS, consider the following 1. 1993 Agreement on the Maintenance of Peace
statements: and Tranquility
1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de • This was the first formal agreement between
Janeiro in 2009. India and China on maintaining peace along
2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS the LAC.
grouping. • Both sides agreed to respect the status quo
Which of the statements given above is / are and avoid military confrontations.
correct? 2. 2013 Border Defence Cooperation Agreement
a. 1 only • Both sides agreed not to follow or tail each
b. 2 only other's patrols.
c. Both 1 and 2 • Both sides committed to not using force or
d. Neither 1 nor 2 threatening to use force during border patrol
encounters.
India and China patrolling Galwan conflict 2020
agreement along the LAC • Chinese soldiers confronted Indian soldiers in
many areas in Ladakh.
• Most violent incidents happened in Galwan
Youtube: DNA 23.10.2024 Valley, where 20 Indian soldiers were
martyred.
What is Line of Actual Control?
• The LAC is the demarcation that separates
Indian-administered territory from Chinese-
controlled territory.
• India considers the LAC to be 3,488 km long.
It is divided into three sectors:

1. the eastern sector which spans Arunachal
Pradesh and Sikkim,
2. the middle sector in Uttarakhand and Himachal
Pradesh,
3. the western sector in Ladakh.
• LAC is a large empty area and the armies of
India and China maintain a gap of nearly 50 to
100 km.
• But lack of precise border demarcation leads to
confusion and conflict between Indian and
Chinese soldiers.
Current development
• India and China have agreed to resume
patrolling at key friction points along the Line of
Actual Control (LAC) in eastern Ladakh.
• This agreement follows years of military
standoffs since the 2020 Galwan Valley clash.
• The pact aims to restore trust between the two
countries through monthly commander-level
meetings and case-specific talks.
• Both sides aim to reduce the overall
deployment of troops along the LAC.
51
• ‘Gender Performativity’ propounds Gender is
not something one is, but something one does.
• It's a performance, rather than an innate
identity.
• For example, in many schools in India, while
girls are expected to have long neatly tied hair,
if a boy grows his hair long, he may face
criticism and be pressured to conform to
traditional masculine norms and cut his hair
short.
• This demonstrates how regulations and
expectations shift according to gender.
• Judith Butler distinguishes between biological
sex and socially constructed gender.

Q1. Arrange the following places from north to
south as per their locations on the map:
1. Kargil
2. Leh
3. Srinagar
4. Jammu
Which of the following is the correct order?
a. 3, 1, 2, 4 “Women are not born, they are made”
• Simone de Beauvoir’s another feminist thinker
b. 1, 3, 2, 4
c. 1, 2, 3, 4 asserted in the 1949 book, The Second Sex:
d. 3, 2, 1, 4 'One is not born, but rather becomes, a
woman.'
• De Beauvoir’s statement underscores that
gender identity is shaped and constructed
through societal norms, and is not an innate
quality.
Gender Performativity In what types of essays this idea can be

used?
Paper I-Essay PSIR UPSC 2023
Youtube: DNA 1.10.2024 • Girls are weighed down by restrictions, boys
with demands – two equally harmful disciplines
Gender Performativity The topic expects a student to explain, how
• The concept of ‘Gender Performativity’ has ascribing a particular expectations based on
been given by a feminist thinker Judith Butler societal and superficial phenomenon of gender
in her writing ‘Gender Trouble’ in 1990.
52
limits the possible course of actions for an Objective
individual. This creates an unnatural burden. • To connect Asia, Africa and Europe.
• This is expected to boost trade amongst the
Brazil-2nd country of BRICS countries of Asia, Africa and Europe.
to opt out of BRI of China

Belt and Road Initiatives

Background
• By 21st century, when China emerged as
major competitor of the US.
• It realised its major weakness - Malacca
dilemma.
What is Malacca dilemma of China?

• In 2003 Chinese President Hu Jintao identified
that China’s 80% of their energy needs (oil
imports) coming from the Middle East passes
through Malacca Straits (between Malaysia
and Indonesia).
• Countries around strait of Malacca are pro US.
• So the US and India may choke China’s access India’s stand on BRI
through Malacca strait. • More than 150 countries signed documents
• This will lead to energy crisis in China. to join China's Belt and Road Initiative
(BRI).
• China is giving them loan to build road,
ports, pipelines in their countries.
• But India has not joined BRI.
Why India has not joined BRI?

1. Sovereignty challenge
• CPEC is moving through PoK. China has
built it without consulting India. This
challenges India’s sovereignty.
2. Security Threat
• Amongst the security experts across the
world there is a notion that China is
encircling India under BRI.
• They have named it “string of pearls”
around India.
3. Debt Trap
What was China’s response to Malacca • China gives loan on very hard terms. So if
dilemma? India joins OBOR then it may fall into debt
Belt and Road Initiative trap like Sri Lanka, Pakistan.
• BRI project of China is massive infrastructure
project started in 2013.
• Under it China is building road, railways,
pipeline, ports.
• As per China it is attempt to revive old Silk
trade routes.
53
Hints
• International aid supports resource-challenged
nations but involves complex ethical
considerations, regarding sovereignty,
transparency, conditionality, sustainability, and
equity.
Some positive examples of International aid-
1. Kerala Flood Relief,2018
• NGOs like Oxfam ensured that
international aid poured into Kerala for
flood relief.
2. Ethiopia's Productive Safety Net Programme
(PSNP)
• This initiative provides food and cash
transfers to food-insecure households of
Ethiopia while creating community assets
through public works.
3. GAVI, the Vaccine Alliance
• GAVI focuses on providing vaccines to low-
income countries, ensuring access to
essential healthcare without imposing
Current news? conditions.
• Brazil, under President Lula da Silva, has
4. Norwegian Refugee Council (NRC)
decided not to join China’s Belt and Road • NRC provides aid to refugees and
Initiative (BRI), becoming the second BRICS displaced persons in conflict ridden areas
nation after India to decline participation. like Gaza and Syria.
• Brazil is wary of the potential debt traps
Some unethical example of international aid-
associated with BRI projects, which have
1. The US Food for Peace Programme (PL-480)
caused financial crises in smaller countries like • Started by the US to further its interest
Sri Lanka. during cold war.
• Brazil aims to seek alternative ways to • American food supplies came with strings
collaborate with Chinese investors without
attached and were being used as a means
formalizing a large infrastructure agreement
of diplomatic interference.
under BRI. 2. China’s financial aid
• Known as ‘Cheque book diplomacy’ and
UPSC Prelims Practice Question ‘debt trap diplomacy’ of China for
Q3. With reference to Belt and Road initiative (BRI) conditions that impact sovereignty of the
consider the following statements: receiver country.
1. It aims filling the infrastructure gap in Asia by • Hambantota port of Sri Lanka acquired by
connecting land and sea routes under the Silk China on 99 years lease.
Route. 3. UK-Rwanda deal
2. India is part of this initiative. • The UK agreed to pay approximately $ 300
Select the correct statements using the codes million to Rwanda to accept settlement of
given below:
refugees from the UK.
a. 1 only
• The UK through the deal tries to evade its
b. 2 only moral responsibility.
c. Both Ethical international aid respects recipient nations'
d. None sovereignty, ensures transparency, avoids
conditionality, promotes sustainability, and is
Q. International aid is an accepted form of distributed equitably. But very often international
helping ‘resource- challenged’ nations. aid is used as a means to further narrow, vested
Comment on ‘ethics in contemporary national interest of donor country.
international aid’. Support your answer with
suitable examples. 10 marks/150 words (UPSC
2023)
54
Economy
Cruise Bharat Mission PM-KISAN Scheme
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
Youtube: DNA 1.10.2024 Youtube: DNA 5.10.2024
Current news? PM Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana

• The Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & • Financial benefit of Rs 6000/- per year in three
Waterways, Sarbananda Sonowal, launched equal installments, every four month is
the "Cruise Bharat Mission" in Guwahati to transferred into the bank accounts of farmers’
boost the potential of cruise tourism in India, families across the country through Direct
aiming to double passenger traffic by 2029. Benefit Transfer (DBT) mode.
Mission Goals: Who is covered under the scheme?

1. Increase river cruise passengers from 0.5 • The scheme was initially meant for Small and
million to 1.5 million (by 2029). Marginal Farmers (SMFs) having landholding
2. Propel India as a global leader in the cruise upto 2 hectares but scope of the scheme was
tourism sector. extended to cover all landholding farmers.
3. Integrate cruise circuits across the Indian
subcontinent. Funding and Implementation:
4. Expand international cruise terminals from 2 to • It is a Central Sector Scheme with 100%
10. funding from the Government of India.
5. Increase river cruise terminals from 50 to 100. • It is being implemented by the Ministry of
Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
When to use?
• If a question is asked in Mains regarding steps
taken to promote tourism.
Current news?
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi released Rs
20,000 crore as the 18th instalment of the PM-
Kisan scheme benefiting over 9.4 crore
farmers across the country.
55
Prelims Practice Question Two of the most well-known stock markets in
Q1. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kisan the India are-
Samman Nidhi, consider the following statements- 1. The Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
1. PM-KISAN is a central sector scheme that 2. The National Stock Exchange (NSE)
provides income support to the farmers and
their families. How it works?
2. The Scheme is implemented as a Central • Companies list their shares on the stock
Sector Scheme with 100% financial support by market through a process called an IPO (Initial
the Central Government. Public Offering).
a. 1 only • Investors buy shares based on how they
b. 2 only believe the company will perform in the future.
c. Both • This is known as Primary Stock Market.
d. None
Sensex and NIFTY 50

GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
Shares and Stocks

• Stock refers to the ownership in a company as
a whole.
• For example, if a company has issued 1,000
shares and you own 100 of them, you own 10% Primary Stock Market
of the company’s stock. • This is where companies issue new shares for
• Shares are the individual units of stock. the first time to the public to raise capital.
• This process is called an Initial Public Offering
(IPO).
• In the primary market, the company directly
sells shares to investors.
Secondary Stock Market

• Investors buy and sell shares among
themselves after the company has already
issued them.
• The prices of shares decided on the basis of
demand and supply.
Sensex and NIFTY 50

Stock Market Sensex
• A stock market is like a marketplace where • Sensex is an abbreviation for the Sensitive
buyers and sellers trade ownership stakes in Index.
companies.
56
• It represents the performance of shares of 30
largest and most well-established companies
traded on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
in India.
• When the Sensex rises, it indicates that the
prices of these 30 companies are generally
increasing, suggesting positive market
sentiment known as Bullish market.
• Conversely, when the Sensex falls, it reflects a
decline in the market value of these
companies, indicating a bearish trend.
• It is used as a benchmark to track the overall Prelims Practice Question
performance of the Indian stock market. Q2. Consider the following statements about bull
and bear markets:
NIFTY 50 1. A bear market refers to a period of rising stock
• Nifty 50 is a stock market index that represents
prices and investor optimism.
the 50 largest and most actively traded 2. A bull market is characterized by falling stock
companies listed on the National Stock prices and widespread pessimism.
Exchange (NSE) in India. Which of the above statements are correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
APSC 2024
Q. What are Nifty and Sensex? Comment on the
growing popularity of mutual fund investment
in India. (Answer in 250 words)
Hints
• Nifty and Sensex are two major stock market
indices in India, reflecting the performance of
the stock market and the broader economy.
Sensex:
• Short for the "Sensitive Index," Sensex is the
benchmark index of the Bombay Stock
Exchange (BSE).
• It represents the 30 most financially sound and
well-established companies listed on BSE
Current news? across various sectors.
• On October 8, the Sensex surged by 584 Nifty:
points (0.72%) to close at 81,634, and the Nifty • The Nifty 50, or simply Nifty, is the
50 rose by 217 points (0.88%) to close at benchmark index of the National Stock
25,013, driven by positive market sentiment Exchange (NSE). It comprises the top 50
due to election results (not important from companies, selected based on market
exam point of view). capitalization and liquidity, from different
industries.
Bullish and Bearish Market A mutual fund is a type of investment where many
Bullish Market people pool their money together to invest in a
• A bullish market is a market that is on the rise variety of assets like stocks, bonds, or other
and is economically sound, securities. A professional manager, called a fund
Bearish Market manager, manages this money and decides where
• While a bear market is a market that is to invest it based on the fund’s goals. It’s like a
receding, where most stocks are declining in basket where an investors puts money, and the
value. fund manager invests that money on behalf of the
investor.
57
Now a days mutual fund investment in India are Provisions
growing on their popularity. Contribution
Factors behind growing Popularity of Mutual Fund • The amount of contribution depends on the age
Investments in India of the subscriber and the pension amount
1. Financial Awareness chosen.
• The Securities and Exchange Board of India Pension Benefits
(SEBI) and mutual fund companies have • Subscribers receive a fixed pension ranging
conducted campaigns like "Mutual Funds Sahi from ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 per month after they turn
Hai," which have improved investor awareness 60.
about the benefits of systematic investment Government Contribution
plans (SIPs) and diversification. • For eligible subscribers, the government used
2. Regulatory Reforms to co-contribute 50% of the total contribution or
• SEBI's regulatory measures to enhance ₹1,000 per year (whichever is lower) for five
transparency, reduce costs, and protect years. However, this benefit was available only
investors have made mutual funds a trusted for those who joined the scheme before
investment avenue. December 31, 2015.
3. Tax Benefits Tax Benefits
• Equity-Linked Savings Schemes (ELSS) offer • Contributions to the Atal Pension Yojana are
tax deductions under Section 80C of the eligible for tax deductions under Section
Income Tax Act, making mutual funds 80CCD of the Income Tax Act.
attractive to tax-conscious investors. Death Benefits
4. Ease of Access • In case the subscriber dies before reaching the
• Digital platforms and fintech innovations have age of 60, the spouse can either continue
simplified the process of investing in mutual contributing or withdraw the corpus amount.
funds, even for small investors, by enabling No Exit Before 60 allowed
SIPs with as low as ₹500 per month.
5. Shift in Investment Culture Prelims Practice Question
• Amid volatile real estate and gold markets, and Q3. Which of the following is true about the Atal
low interest rates on traditional savings, Pension Yojana (APY)?
investors are shifting towards mutual funds for a. It is a government-backed pension scheme
better returns. aimed at individuals aged 18 to 40.
This growing trend reflects India's increasing b. It is a pension scheme available only to senior
participation in financial markets, contributing to citizens.
wealth creation and financial inclusion. c. It is a private pension plan for organized sector
employees.
Atal Pension Yojana d. It is a scheme launched to provide financial
support exclusively to government employees.
Youtube: DNA 9.10.2024 Gig workers
Atal Pension Yojana GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
• Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a government- Youtube: DNA 9.10.2024
backed pension scheme in India aimed
primarily at the unorganized sector workers. Gig workers
• It was launched in 2015 to provide financial • Gig workers are individuals who engage in
security and income stability to individuals short-term, freelance, or contractual work as
during their retirement years. opposed to traditional, long-term employment.
• Any Indian citizen between the ages of 18 and • They typically work on a project or task basis,
40 can join. often through digital platforms or apps, and are
paid for the specific tasks they complete.
What is the news? • Examples-Cab drivers of Ola, Uber or delivery
• Popularity of Atal Pension Yojana is growing partners of Swiggy, Zomato etc.
with gross enrollment went beyond 7 crore
subscribers.
58
3. Fair contracts
4. Fair management
5. Fair representation
• Almost all platforms were found short on their
commitments of fair pay and work conditions
for their gig workers.

gig economy:
1. The gig economy refers to a labor market
characterized by short-term contracts or
freelance work instead of permanent jobs.
2. Gig workers are typically provided with the
same benefits and protections as full-time
Challenges faced by Gig workers employees.
1. Unregulated Nature: The gig economy thrives 3. Technology platforms play a key role in
largely unregulated, therefore workers have connecting gig workers with potential
little job security and few benefits. employers or customers.
2. Demand-Supply Mismatch: There are already Which of the above statements are correct?
many more potential workers than jobs, and a. 1 and 2
this demand-supply mismatch which on the b. 1 and 3
rise after the pandemic. c. 2 and 3
3. Inconsistent Income: Since the work is not d. 1, 2, and 3
guaranteed, gig workers often experience
irregular income, with earnings depending on
the availability of tasks or demand for services. Monetary Policy Review
4. Lack of Employment Benefits: Gig workers GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
generally do not receive traditional
employment benefits such as health insurance, Youtube: DNA 10.10.2024
paid leave, or retirement benefits.
What is Monetary Policy Review?
• Monetary Policy Committee was established in
2016 by amending RBI Act 1934.
Purpose of Monetary policy committee

• To decide monetary policy of India (Monetary
Policy Review).
• According to it, Monetary Policy will decided
by a 6 member body-
1. RBI Governor
2. RBI Deputy Governor
3. RBI official
4. 3 members appointed by the government
• Decision taken by voting on majority of votes.
In case of tie RBI governor will have deciding
Current news? vote.
• A report titled Fairwork India Ratings 2024:
Labour Standards in the Platform Economy Note
assessed 11 platforms (Amazon Flex, • Before establishment of monetary policy
BigBasket, BluSmart, Flipkart, Ola, Porter, committee in 2016 monetary policy was solely
Swiggy, Uber, Urban Company, Zepto, decided by the RBI Governor.
Zomato) on five key principles: • Monetary policy review is done every second
1. Fair pay month.
2. Fair conditions
59
Different components of Monetary policy
UPSC 2024
Q. "What are the causes of persistent high food
inflation in India? Comment on the
effectiveness of the monetary policy of the RBI
to control this type of inflation. (Answer in 150
words)
Hints
• Persistent high food inflation in India stems
from several factors:
1. Supply-side disruptions
• Erratic monsoons, droughts, and floods affect
agricultural production, leading to volatility in
prices of essential commodities like
vegetables, pulses, and grains.
2. Rising input costs
• Increased prices of fertilizers, fuel, and
transportation significantly elevate the cost of
agricultural production.
Current news? 3. Structural issues
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has kept its • Fragmented agricultural markets, inefficient
Repo rate ie benchmark interest rate at 6.5% supply chains, and inadequate cold storage
for the 10th consecutive review since April facilities result in post-harvest losses and price
2023. surges.
• The decision was supported by five out of six 4. Unscientific storage
members of the Monetary Policy Committee • Open and unscientific storage of food
(MPC). produces leads to huge loss in case of
• The MPC noted that inflation and growth are unexpected rainfall.
currently balanced. Effectiveness of RBI’s Monetary Policy:
• Retail inflation (CPI-Inflation) for July and • RBI’s monetary policy, primarily designed to
August was within the tolerance band at 4.7%. manage overall demand-pull inflation. It has
• The RBI retained its 7.2% GDP growth limited effectiveness against food inflation,
projection for the current fiscal year. which is often supply-driven.
60
Food inflation can be curbed through actions like- issue of middle-income trap faced by many
1. Cut down on exports specific food items economies of the world.
fuelling inflation.
2. Increase imports of food items causing What is middle-income trap?
inflation. • The middle-income trap refers to the slowdown
3. Releasing food grains from the buffer stock of growth as economies reach middle-income
maintained by government agencies like FCI status.
and NAFED.
Raising interest rates can curb helps control Data to prove that world economies are facing
inflationary expectations and stabilize the middle-income trap-
economy. But food based inflation in long run can • Only 34 countries successfully transitioning to
be controlled mainly through fiscal interventions, high-income levels in the last 34 years.
like schemes improving agricultural productivity "3i" approach suggested by the World Bank-
and infrastructure. • investment in new technologies
• fostering domestic innovation,
• Right policy intervention by the government for
Middle Income Trap creating virtuous cycle.
Youtube: DNA 11.10.2024 Successful countries (like South Korea and Chile)
that broke the trap had significant state
World Bank categorisation of economies intervention.
• The World Bank classifies countries into four
groups based on per-capita gross national Challenges for India
income (GNI) in US dollars- 1. High inequality
1. Low income • The concentration of economic power
2. Lower-middle income among billionaires and their influence on
3. Upper-middle income the state has hampered domestic
4. High income investment.
• Threshold limit for different groups was 2. On set of vicious cycle due to inequality
recently updated by the World Bank too. • Wage growth has not kept up with
• India with approximately $2600 per year per economic growth, with inflation eroding real
capita is categorised in Lower Middle Income wage gains, limiting consumption and
category. hindering economic expansion.
3. Slowdown in decision making due to democracy
• Democracy poses challenges in balancing
economic growth with maintaining
democratic principles, as some successful
economies like South Korea and Chile
experienced authoritarian governance
during their growth phases.
• Eg 3 Farm laws were withdrawn by the
government, NPS was tweaked into UPS
under public pressure.
Suggestions given the the article-
• The article stresses that India should not
abandon democracy in pursuit of economic
growth, as seen in historical examples of South
Korea and Chile, where democracy was
sacrificed for rapid industrialization.

Q2. The World Development Report is published
Recent development by which organization?
• The World Development Report 2024 recently a. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
published by the World Bank highlights the b. United Nations (UN)
61
c. World Bank new-age sectors like AI, machine learning, and
d. World Economic Forum (WEF) robotics.
• Reforming Labor Laws: Ensure flexibility in
GS Paper III labor markets to enhance efficiency without
Q. What is middle income trap? Do you think compromising worker protections.
India is facing middle income trap? Suggest • Promote MSMEs: Encourage innovation and
measures to move beyond it. 15 marks/250 productivity in micro, small, and medium
words enterprises (MSMEs) by improving access to
Hints credit, technology, and global markets.
• The middle-income trap refers to the slowdown 2. Promoting Innovation and R&D:
of growth as economies reach middle-income • Increased R&D Investment: Boost spending on
status.The World Development Report 2024 research and development to at least 2-3% of
recently published by the World Bank GDP, especially in high-value sectors like
highlights the issue of middle-income trap biotechnology, renewable energy, and
faced by many economies of the world. Only aerospace.
34 countries successfully transitioning to high- • Public-Private Partnerships: Strengthen
income levels in the last 34 years. collaboration between universities, research
• India with approximately $2600 per year per institutions, and industries to foster an
capita is categorised in Lower Middle Income innovation-driven economy.
category. • Startup Ecosystem Support: Continue
initiatives like Startup India and provide
Is India Facing the Middle Income Trap? infrastructure and funding support to nurture
• It is not yet in the middle-income trap but faces high-tech startups.
risks of falling into it if certain structural 3. Moving Up the Value Chain in Manufacturing:
weaknesses are not addressed. • Focus on Advanced Manufacturing: Incentivize
industries to shift from labor-intensive to
Some of the key indicators to watch are:
technology-driven manufacturing sectors like
1. High inequality
electronics, pharmaceuticals, and defense.
• The concentration of economic power among
• PLI Schemes: Expand the Production Linked
billionaires and their influence on the state has
Incentive (PLI) schemes to cover more high-
hampered domestic investment.
tech sectors, facilitating global
2. On set of vicious cycle due to inequality
competitiveness.
• Wage growth has not kept up with economic
4. Infrastructure Development:
growth, with inflation eroding real wage gains,
• Physical Infrastructure: Massive investments in
limiting consumption and hindering economic
roads, railways, ports, and smart cities to
expansion.
improve productivity and connectivity.
3. Low Productivity and Innovation
• Digital Infrastructure: Continue expanding
• Despite having a young and large labor force,
internet connectivity and digital services,
India's productivity growth has been below
especially in rural and semi-urban areas, to
global benchmarks.
bridge the digital divide.
Some of the key indicators to watch are:
While India is not yet trapped in the middle-income
4. Low Labour Force Participation Rate
category, it faces several challenges that could
• India’s Low Labour Force Participation Rate is
slow its progress towards becoming a high-income
close to 50% as per MoSPI.
economy. By focusing on productivity
5. Slow decision making due to democracy
enhancements, innovation, institutional reforms,
• South Korea and Chile experienced
and inclusive growth, India can overcome these
authoritarian governance during their growth
barriers and chart a path to sustained high-income
phases transition to high income.
status. Also India should not abandon democracy
Measures to Move Beyond the Middle Income in pursuit of economic growth
Trap:
To avoid falling into the middle-income trap, India
must undertake several strategic measures:
1. Enhancing Productivity and Skill Development:
• Education and Vocational Training: Invest
heavily in skill development, with a focus on
62
Nobel Prize in Economics
Paper I-Essay GS Paper III-Economics Optional-
PSIR Prelims
Current news?
• The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences on
awarded the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in
Economic Sciences (commonly known as
Nobel prize in Economics) in 2024 to three US-
based economists — Daron Acemoglu, Simon
Johnson, and James A Robinson.
Areas of research that won them the prize?

• Why are some nations rich and others poor?
• Why do some nations fail while others succeed In 2013 Acemoglu and Robinson’s book Why
in achieving prosperity? Nations Fail: The Origins of Power, Prosperity, and
Poverty discussed the importance of institutions in
economic prosperity.
Arguments presented in the work of the

Why are some nations rich and others three economists
poor? • In the inclusive institutional framework people
• Over the years, many explanations have been are convinced that if they work hard to create
put forward — everything from biology to wealth, it won't be taken away by anyone by
geographical location to climate to culture. force.
• But in recent decades, economists say some • The wealth will allow them and their coming
nations have done better than others when generations to have good life.
institutions (social, economic and political) • Thus people work hard, create wealth.
turned out better. • This result in boosting long-term growth and
• Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson, and James prosperity.
A Robinson’s body of work provides • Economic growth and prosperity, in turn,
substantial evidence of how institutions play facilitate human well-being.
significant role in prosperity. • An extractive institutional framework will not be
• Their work classifies institutions in 2 broad able to ensure sustained prosperity for all
categories- people even if they work hard.
1. Inclusive • Thus in the absence of an inclusive institutional
2. Extractive framework, economic development will
stagnate.
63
Counter argument
• In 2013, Arvind Subramanian, who later
became India’s Chief Economic Advisor, wrote
an article in American Interest, where he
argued that neither India nor China fit this
narrative.
• That’s because China had grown quite rich
despite not having any inclusive institutions,
while India had barely grown notwithstanding
all its inclusive institutions.
Examples presented in the work of the

three economists
City of Nogales
• An example given is the city of Nogales,
divided by the U.S.-Mexico border, where
residents on the U.S. side benefit from better
institutions.
India- before and after colonisation Arvind Subramanian

• As late as the mid-18th century, industrial • Chief Economic Advisor to the Government of
production in India was higher than in the US. India 2014 to 2018.
• This has changed fundamentally since the start
of the nineteenth century with colonization of Q. In light of Sveriges Riksbank Prize in
India by Britishers (Drain of wealth begun). Economic Sciences 2024 discuss the role of
inclusive and extractive institutions in shaping
1st and 2nd Industrial revolutions the economic and political development of
• The technical innovations sweeping across the nations. 10 marks/150 words
world were only able (to) take hold in places
where institutions had been established that Winners of Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic
would benefit the wider population. Sciences 2024 Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson,
and James A. Robinson’s research highlights that
the prosperity of nations is deeply influenced by
the nature of their institutions, which can be
broadly categorized as either inclusive or
extractive.
Inclusive institutions
• Inclusive institutions are characterized by
political and economic systems that allow
broad participation, uphold the rule of law,
protect property rights, and encourage
innovation and competition. These institutions
create a conducive environment for economic
growth by ensuring that individuals have
incentives to invest in businesses, education,
The laureates examined the European and technology.
colonisation of large parts of the world, and • Democracies with strong legal frameworks,
summarised their findings in a paper titled The such as the United States or Western
Colonial Origins of Comparative Development: An European nations, are prime examples where
Empirical Investigation’, which was first published
in The American Economic Review in 2001.
64
inclusive institutions have fostered long-term 9. White Goods (ACs & LED)
development and stability. 10. Speciality Steel
Extractive institutions 11. Defence
• On the other hand, extractive institutions 12. Solar
concentrate power and wealth in the hands
of a few elites, who exploit resources and Recent development
suppress the broader population’s ability to • The government reopened the application
participate in economic and political window for the PLI scheme for air-conditioners
processes. These institutions, often found (ACs) and LED lights in July to allow more
in autocratic or colonial settings, stifle players to participate.
growth by discouraging innovation and • 38 companies, including Daikin, Voltas, and
perpetuating inequality. Countries with Blue Star, have applied for the Production-
extractive institutions, such as in certain Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for white goods
post-colonial African or Latin American in the third round.
states, often experience stagnation or
decline in economic and social progress. White goods
In essence, the laureates argue that inclusive • White goods encompass large household
institutions lead to sustainable development, appliances like air conditioners, refrigerators,
whereas extractive institutions hinder it by washing machines and dryers, dishwashers,
perpetuating inequality and limiting opportunities and LED Lights.
for the majority. • The term "white goods" originally comes from
the traditional white enamel finish of these
PLI for White goods appliances.
• Although they're now available in various
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims colors, they retain the name "white goods."
Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme

• Launched in 2020.
• The PLI scheme was conceived with aim to-
a. Scale up domestic manufacturing capability,
b. Higher import substitution
c. Employment generation.
• Under the new PLI scheme, companies that set
up new unit or expanded their present units
would get incentives of 4-6 per cent on
incremental sales from goods made in India.
• The total incentive to be given to each
company will be decided by an empowered
committee
• It will cover target segments that are
manufactured in India for a period of five years.
The scheme initially targeted three industries:

Mobile and allied Component Manufacturing but
later expanded. Later, it was extended to 14
sectors including-
1. Advance Chemistry
2. Electronic/Technology Products
3. Automobiles and components
4. Pharmaceuticals drugs
5. Telecom and Networking Products
6. Textile Products and technical textiles
7. Food Products
8. High Efficiency Solar PV Modules
65
Prelims Practice Question Transformation in fisheries have improved food
Q2. Consider the following statements about white availability.
goods: • Current focus is shifting toward ensuring
1. White goods generally refer to large household nutrition, which is vital for children’s
appliances such as refrigerators, washing development and economic productivity.
machines, and air conditioners. • Efforts in food security now aim to provide
2. The term "white goods" originally comes from diverse food sources and nutritious food for all,
the traditional white enamel finish of these addressing malnutrition and marginalization.
appliances.
3. Televisions and laptops are considered white National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) -
goods due to their common usage in (2019-21)
households. • Stunting (low height-for-age): 35.5% of
4. White goods typically have a long product life children under 5 years are stunted
cycle and are often energy-intensive. • Wasting (low weight-for-height): 19.3% of
Which of the above statements are correct? children under 5 years are wasted
a. 1,2,3 only • Underweight (low weight-for-age): 32.1% of
b. 1,2,4 only children under 5 years are underweight.
c. 1,3 only
d. 2,3,4 only
Note-
• Televisions and laptops are not considered
white goods; they fall under consumer
electronics, not large appliances.
World Food Day 2024

Youtube: DNA 16.10.2024 Challenges faced by Agriculture sector in
India
World Food Day 2024 1. Small or marginal farmers
• October 16, 2024 is World Food Day. • 82% of India’s agrarian households are
• Theme this year being 'right to foods for a small or marginal farmers with less than 2
better life and a better future'. hectares of land.
• As per State of Food Insecurity (SOFI) • Fragmented land holding limits smallholder
report 2023 by Food and Agriculture farmers adoption of modern techniques,
Organization (FAO) 733 million people face reducing productivity and income.
hunger across the world. 2. Degrading soil health
• Excessive use of chemical fertilizers,
monocropping, and groundwater strain is
harming soil health.
3. Rural poverty
• Ensuring that small and marginal farmers
can access financial services, technology
and modern irrigation systems will be vital
for improving agricultural productivity and
enhancing their livelihoods.
4. Climate change
• Climate change continues to pose risks to
agriculture, causing erratic weather
patterns.
Food security status in India
• Initiatives like the Green Revolution for cereals,
White Revolution in milk, and Blue
66
sector by promoting the mass production of
fish.
Which of the above statement is/are incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None
GS Paper III-Indian Economy

Q. How do socioeconomic disparities, climate
change, and agricultural inefficiencies affect
the availability and accessibility of food? 10
marks/150 words
Hints
• Socioeconomic disparities, climate change,
and agricultural inefficiencies are significant
factors that affect the availability and
accessibility of food, exacerbating food
insecurity in India and globally.
Impact of Socioeconomic disparities on food
Efforts to address food insecurity in India security:
1. National Food Security Act (NFSA) of 2013 1. Income Inequality
• Under the act a GoI scheme PM Garib • Low-income groups lack purchasing
Kalyan Ann Yojana ensures 5kg of food power, limiting their access to nutritious
grain free of cost per month to 80 crore food. According to the National Sample
poor population. Survey Office (NSSO), poorer households
2. Mid-Day Meal Scheme spend a higher percentage of their income
• Provides free lunches to children in on food, making them vulnerable to price
government schools to improve their fluctuations.
nutritional intake. 2. Urban-Rural Divide
3. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) • Rural populations, particularly small and
• Aims to provide supplementary nutrition, marginal farmers, often face difficulties in
healthcare, and preschool education to accessing markets and earning fair prices
children under 6 years of age. for their produce. Additionally, urban poor
4. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana suffer from rising food prices due to supply
(PMMVY) chain inefficiencies.
• A maternity benefit program offering cash 3. Social Exclusion
incentives to improve nutrition among • Marginalized communities like Scheduled
pregnant and lactating women. Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and
5. Fortified Rice Distribution (2024-2028) women-headed households often face
• The government has planned to distribute structural inequalities, limiting their access
fortified rice in the Public Distribution to food distribution schemes.
System (PDS) to address micronutrient Impact of Climate Change:
deficiencies, such as iron, folic acid, and 1. Agricultural Productivity
vitamin B12, to combat anaemia and • Erratic rainfall patterns, extreme
malnutrition. temperatures, and shifting monsoon cycles
lead to crop failures, reduced yields, and
Q1. Consider the following statements loss of livelihoods. A NITI Aayog report on
1. The Blue Revolution refers to the growth of the climate change indicates that agricultural
dairy industry, aiming to enhance milk productivity could fall by up to 20% in some
production through improved breeding and regions by 2050.
farming techniques. 2. Water Scarcity
2. The White Revolution, spearheaded by • Climate-induced water stress hampers
Operation Flood, transformed India's fisheries irrigation, exacerbating food production
challenges in states like Punjab, Haryana,
67
and Maharashtra, which are already water- Scoring: 100-point scale where 0 is the best
stressed. possible score (no hunger) and 100 is the worst.
Impact of Agricultural Inefficiencies:
1. Low Productivity
• India’s agricultural sector suffers from low
productivity due to fragmented
landholdings, inadequate mechanization,
and suboptimal input usage. According to
the Economic Survey, India’s agricultural
yield per hectare is lower than the global
average.
2. Post-Harvest Losses
• Inefficiencies in storage, transport, and
processing lead to significant food
wastage. The Food and Agriculture
Organization (FAO) estimates that about
40% of food produced in India is lost before
reaching consumers. • India is ranked 105th out of 127 countries in the
3. Inequitable Distribution Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2024.
• Poor supply chain management and • With a score of 27.3, India has been
regional imbalances in food production and categorised in 'serious' level of hunger.
consumption lead to food shortages in
certain areas, particularly remote and India’s Hunger Statistics:
conflict-affected regions. • 13.7% of the population is undernourished.
Ensuring food security requires a multi-pronged • 35.5% of children under 5 are stunted.
approach that addresses the interconnected • 18.7% of children are wasted.
challenges of socioeconomic inequality, climate • 2.9% of children die before their 5th birthday.
change, and agricultural inefficiencies.
Global Hunger Index 2024

Global Hunger Index

• It is an annual report- Jointly published by
Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe.
• It was first produced in 2006.
• It is published every October.
Aim
• To comprehensively measure and track Link Between GDP and Hunger
hunger at the global, regional, and country • The report emphasizes that economic growth
levels. alone is not enough to reduce hunger and
It is calculated on the basis of four indicators: improve nutritional outcomes.
1. Undernourishment: Share of the population • It highlighted the need for policies that focus on
with insufficient caloric intake. poverty reduction and addressing social
2. Child Wasting: Share of children under age five inequalities.
who have low weight for their height, reflecting Proposed Solutions
acute undernutrition. 1. Agricultural reforms
3. Child Stunting: Share of children under age five • Investments in agricultural reforms that
who have low height for their age, reflecting promote nutritious and sustainable food
chronic undernutrition. production, including millets.
4. Child Mortality: The mortality rate of children 2. Dedicated welfare schemes towards nutrition
under the age of five.
68
• Dedicated efforts towards improving Poshan Tracker App
mother and child health, water, sanitation, • Implemented as part of National Nutrition
and hygiene. Mission (NNM).
• Developed by MoWCD, the Poshan Tracker
app enables real-time monitoring and tracking
of all Anganwadi Centre (AWC), Anganwadi
Workers (AWWs) and beneficiaries.
How Poshan Tracker works?

• The Anganwadi workers are being provided
smartphones procured through Government e-
Market (GeM) for efficient service delivery.
• A nodal person has also been appointed for
providing technical support.

Q3. With reference to Global Hunger Index (GHI)
consider the following statements:
1. It is released by the World Economic Forum.
2. India’s position has improved in the recent GHI.
Government’s concern 3. Child Stunting is one of the indicators used in
• The government has termed Global Hunger the GHI.
Index 2024 “erroneous”. Which of the statements given above are not
• The Ministry of Women and Child Development correct?
have expressed concerns about the data not a. 1 and 2 only
being accessed from their ICT application b. 2 and 3 only
'Poshan Tracker'. c. 1 and 3 only
• UNICEF, World Bank, WHO has d. 1, 2 and 3
acknowledged Poshan Tracker as Q. Global Hunger Index 2024 ranking shows a
gamechanger in tackling hunger in India. serious level of hunger and food insecurity in
• Poshan Tracker reflects continuous
India. Despite being one of the largest
improvement in wasting/stunting. producer of almost all types of food grains
explain why India such paradox exists. 15
marks
Hints
• Food security includes
→ affordability of food grains
→ availability of food grains
→ accessibility of food grains
• India has been ranked poorly at 105 out of 127
countries in the Global Hunger Index 2024.
India's hunger level has been categorized as
'serious'.
• India's poor performance in the Hunger Index
is due to poor food security status in the
country.
Lack of food security translates into the challenge
of malnutrition.
• National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5)-
(2019-21)
• Stunting (low height-for-age): 35.5% of
children under 5 years are stunted
• Wasting (low weight-for-height): 19.3% of
children under 5 years are wasted
69
• Underweight (low weight-for-age): 32.1% of
children under 5 years are underweight.
Direct vs Indirect tax share
The status of malnutrition, hunger, and food in overall revenue
security in India appears paradoxical considering
India's food production. GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
• India's food production status: Youtube: DNA 18.10.2024
• Largest milk producer in the world.
• Largest pulses producer in the world. Direct vs Indirect tax
• Second largest producer of rice, wheat, • In India, taxes are classified into two broad
sugarcane, groundnut, vegetables, and categories: Direct Taxes and Indirect Taxes.
fruits.
Reasons behind the hunger paradox: Direct Taxes:
1. Low per capita production of food grains due to • Direct taxes are those taxes where the liability
high population. to pay the tax and the burden of the tax fall on
2. Hidden hunger: the same person.
• Mainly due to consumption of high • These taxes are paid directly by individuals or
carbohydrate food like rice & wheat. organizations to the government.
→ Due to open-ended procurement of rice • Examples-Income Tax, Corporate Tax, Capital
& wheat under MSP and their availability at Gains Tax etc
PDS.
3. Huge wastage of about 40%: Indirect Taxes:
→ Hot & humid climate • Indirect taxes are those taxes where the liability
→ Unscientific storage by FCI (Food to pay the tax is on one person, but the burden
Corporation of India) or the MSP of the tax can be shifted to another person.
procurement. • Example-Goods and Services Tax (GST),
4. Export of food grains: Customs duty etc
• Export-led inflation of wheat led to a
temporary ban on wheat exports by the
government.
5. Corruption: Leakage/diversion of food
grains from government schemes like NFSA
(National Food Security Act) and MDM (Mid Day
Meal).
The paradox can be addressed through strategic
interventions like:
1. Agri Investment Fund of ₹1 lakh crore for
creating storage facilities and reducing
wastage.
2. Food fortification to counter hidden hunger. Direct vs Indirect tax: Revenue trends of
3. Restructure of Mid Day Meal to PM POSHAN: central govt
→ Include Bal Vatikas Direct Tax Contribution:
→ Include more protein sources like eggs • The share of direct taxes in total tax revenue
4. Technical intervention in the form of "One increased to 56.72% in 2023-24, the highest in
Nation One Ration Card" to make NFSA 14 years.
effective. • The direct tax-to-GDP ratio increased to
6.64%, the highest in over two decades.
India is moving through a phase of once in a
lifetime opportunity of young demography. If India Reason for surge
has to utilize the opportunity to the fullest, it must • The growth is driven by contributions from
address the vicious cycle of malnutrition → low salaried middle-class individuals and the self-
productivity → poverty → hunger → malnutrition. employed.
• The number of income tax return filers rose to
8.09 crore.
• Corporate tax is estimated to contribute more
than half of the total direct tax revenue.
70
Indirect Tax Decline:
• The share of indirect taxes in the total tax
revenue dropped to 43.28%, reflecting a shift
towards higher direct tax collections.
Tax Buoyancy
• The tax buoyancy ratio, measures tax growth
relative to GDP growth.
• It has increased to 2.12 in FY24, reflecting
robust tax collection performance.

Q. Consider the following statements-
1. Indirect tax collection in India is higher than
direct tax revenue at central level.
2. Income tax contribution in direct tax is more
than corporate tax.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None
Hike in MSP
Minimum Support Price Scheme

• The MSP is the rate at which the government
buys grains from farmers.
• The government announces MSP before the
sowing season for a particular crop.
• This protects the farmer from market failure in
case of bumper production.
• CCEA (Cabinet Committee of Economic
Affairs) announces MSP.
71
Current news? and are not able to buy high quality seeds,
• The Central government declared an MSP fertilisers, pesticides & tractor-rent for next
(Minimum Support Price) of ₹2,425 per quintal cropping season, which will further decrease
for wheat for the 2024-25 season, a ₹150 their income from the next cycle. MSP prevents
increase from the previous year. this phenomenon.
• The official reason for this increase is to ensure 2. Provides base price to the farmers and hence
enough wheat stock in public storage, as give them a bargaining power against buyers.
current stocks are near the minimum 3. Helps them in right price discovery of the crops
requirement of 20.52 million metric tons. for the farmers.
• Wheat stocks have depleted, especially since 4. Helps informed decision making
2022, due to increased public distribution. • Government announces MSP before the
• MSP for other Rabi crops like Barley, Gram, sowing season for 23 crops including cereals,
Lentil Rapeseed and mustard has also been pulses, oilseeds & certain cash crops. This
increased. advance information helps the farmer to make
an informed decision about which crop to sow.
Food inflation concerns 5. Diversification of crops
• The recent hike in Minimum Support Price Challenges with MSP:
(MSP) for Rabi crops by 2.4% to 7% could • Politicisation of MSP, causing disruption of agri
further contribute to food inflation, adding market
pressure to already rising prices. • Farmers across the country have been facing
problems selling their produce at the Minimum
Support Price.
• Only 6 percent of farmers in India succeed in
selling their crops at MSP (as per Shantakumar
Committees)
• Open ended procurement of Rice and wheat
only leading to faulty agricultural practice and
hidden hunger.
• Dispute at WTO wrt Amber box subsidy in
Agreement on agriculture.
However, despite these issues, MSP helps
farmers to avoid income-trap in three ways such as
preventing distress sale, helping farmers to make
informed decisions about sowing and assuring
UPSC 2018 farming as a profitable business activity. The need
Q1. What do you mean by Minimum Support is expansion of MSP in terms of farmers covered
Price (MSP)? How will MSP rescue the farmers and number of crops balancing the dominance of
from the low-income trap? 10 marks/150 words wheat and rice.
• MSP is a price insurance scheme for farmers
to protect them against market failure. It is the
rate at which the government buys grains from RBI’s action against four
farmers. NBFC
• The government announces MSP before the
sowing season for a particular crop. It supports GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
the food security program through PDS and Youtube: DNA 19.10.2024
also gives sufficient remuneration to the
farmers. Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC)
MSP help in rescuing farmers from low income trap • A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is
in the following ways: a company registered under the Companies
1. Prevents Distress-Sale Act, 1956 engaged in the business of loans and
• Farmer rarely has surplus savings for buying advances etc.
inputs for the next cropping season. Access to
credit (loans) is also difficult for small and Some examples of NBFCs-
marginal farmers. So, they are forced into • Bajaj Finance Limited, Muthoot Finance, Tata
distress-sale of produce at throw-away prices, Capital Financial Services Limited etc.
72
• By these three steps, the money supply has
gone from $100,000 to $271,000.
Credit Creation Process in Banks
• Note that Alice, Joe, and Lois all consider the
• A bank accepts deposits from customers.
money they have on account is their own
• The bank keeps a fraction of these deposits in
money.
reserve (CRR/SLR).
• The remaining portion is lent out as loans.
Categorization of NBFCs
• This is also known as money multiplier effect of
• As part of the 2021 NBFC reforms, the RBI
Bank.
classifying NBFCs (based on Scale of
NBFCs do not have this mechanism. They can
Operation):
only lend the funds they have from their own capital
1. Base Layer: Non-systemically important
or borrowings, without creating new money.
NBFCs (NBFC-ND) with smaller asset sizes.
2. Middle Layer: Systemically important non-
deposit-taking NBFCs (NBFC-ND-SI), deposit-
taking NBFCs (NBFC-D), and others.
3. Upper Layer: Large NBFCs identified as
posing significant systemic risks, based on size
and interconnectivity.
4. Top Layer: This layer is currently empty but
reserved for NBFCs that pose extreme
systemic risks and may be subjected to
enhanced regulation.
73
Current news?
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has barred
several non-banking finance companies
(NBFCs), including prominent firms like
Asirvad Micro Finance, DMI Finance, Navi
Finserv, etc., from sanctioning and disbursing
loans for violating RBI regulations on various
practices.
The NBFCs were found to be engaging in:

1. Charging excessive interest rates.
2. Using coercive recovery methods.
UPSC 2021
Q2. The money multiplier in an economy increases
with which one of the following?
a. Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the
banks
b. Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the
banks
c. Increase in the banking habit of the people
d. Increase in the population of the country
Factors behind reversal in the trend
Agricultural Households in 1. Impact of COVID-19
• The shift toward agriculture likely accelerated
India on rise due to the economic disruptions caused by the
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims pandemic.
• Agriculture became a refuge during lockdowns,
as the sector was largely exempt from
restrictions, while other sectors faced severe
Current context disruptions.
• The All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey 2. Lack of opportunities in other sectors
(2021-22) by NABARD shows increase in • Lack of opportunities in other sectors like
agricultural rural household by 2021-22 wrt manufacturing and services, leading to
2016-17. reliance on agriculture as a fallback for
livelihoods.
Definition of Agricultural Households- 3. Good monsoon
• An agricultural household is one that earns
• Four consecutive good monsoons was also
over ₹5,000 annually from farming or related important factor in attracting workers back to
activities (cultivation, livestock, fishery, etc.) agriculture sector.
Trend witnessed in the survey-
• Nearly all Indian states have seen an increase
in households identifying as agricultural Q3. Evaluate the following statements based on
between 2016-17 and 2021-22. the All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey
• The average monthly income for agricultural
(2021-22) by NABARD:
households in 2021-22 was ₹13,661, higher 1. The survey shows that nearly all Indian states
than non-agricultural rural households have witnessed an increase in households
(₹12,557). identifying as agricultural between 2016-17
and 2021-22.
2. The average monthly income for agricultural
households in 2021-22 was higher than the
income for non-agricultural rural households.
a. Only 1
74
b. Only 2 • All therapeutic medicines and surgical
c. Both 1 and 2 equipments are made available from Jan
d. Neither 1 nor 2 Aushadhi Stores.
• Pharmacists of Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi
Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Kendra are known as Swasth ke Sipahi.
Janaushadhi Pariyojana Who can open a Jan Aushadhi Kendra?

• State Governments or any organization /
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims reputed NGOs/ Trusts / Private hospitals /
Youtube: DNA 22.10.2024 charitable institutions / Doctors / Unemployed
pharmacists/ individual entrepreneurs are
• Launched by: It was launched by the eligible to apply for the new Jan Aushadhi
Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Kendra.
Chemicals & Fertilizers, under the name Jan • The applicants shall have to employ one B
Aushadhi Campaign. Pharma / D Pharma degree holder as
• Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the Pharmacist in their proposed store.
implementation agency for PMBJP.
• Purpose: To bring down the healthcare budget
of every citizen of India through providing
Quality generic Medicines at Affordable Prices.
BPPI (Bureau of Pharma Public Sector

Undertakings of India)
• Established under the Department of
Pharmaceuticals.
• For coordinating procurement, supply and
marketing of generic drugs through the Jan
Aushadhi Stores.
Current news?
• Sales of Jan Aushadhi Kendra crossed Rs
1000 crore in year 2024.
World Economic Outlook

report
Current news?
• In the recently released World Economic
Outlook Report, International Monetary Fund
(IMF) has retained its projection of 7% growth
for India in FY 25 (fiscal year ending March 31,
2025).
Growth Deceleration
• India’s growth rate has decelerated from 8.2%
in 2023 to 7% in 2024, and is expected to
further decrease to 6.5% in 2025.
Jan Aushadhi Store Reasons for Growth Deceleration
• JAS has been opened across the country.
• The demand accumulated during the
pandemic is largely exhausted.
75
Current news?
• Inauguration of Skill Training under SAMARTH
Scheme for Kaziranga Forest Fringe
communities.
• Also a Dedicated Handloom Art and Tourism
village established to promote indigenous
crafts.
• Future collaboration between SAMARTH
scheme and MSME schemes to build a
sustainable circular economy.
Q3. World Economic Outlook (WEO) Report is
published by-
a. IMF
b. World Bank
c. OECD
d. WTO
SAMARTH Scheme What is a circular economy?

GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims • A 'circular economy' model, employs maximum
Youtube: DNA 24.10.2024 reuse, recycling and minimize waste.
• It will help in improvement of efficiency of
SAMARTH Scheme industries and minimize environment pollution
• The SAMARTH (Scheme for Capacity Building due to industries.
in Textile Sector) scheme is an initiative of the
Ministry of Textiles, Government of India, Prelims Practice Question
aimed at providing skill development training to Q3. Which of the following best describes the
boost employment in the textile and related concept of a circular economy?
sectors. a. An economic system focused on maximizing
• It focuses on creating employment waste disposal.
opportunities for youth and ensuring a steady b. An economic model that promotes constant
supply of skilled workforce to the textile production and consumption of new resources.
industry. c. A linear economic model of production and
• The scheme primarily targets unemployed disposal.
youth, with a special focus on women, rural d. An economic system that aims to eliminate
populations, SC/ST/OBC, minorities, and waste through resource reuse and recycling.
differently-abled individuals.
• One of the significant aims of SAMARTH is to Pradhan Mantri Mudra
ensure that at least 70% of the trained
individuals are placed in relevant jobs in the Yojana
textile and related sectors. GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims
Pradhan Mantri Mudra Scheme

Background
• Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(MSMEs) often find it difficult to avail loans
from banks via traditional borrowing channels
due to lack of security and inadequate funds.
• To solve this, the Government of India
launched the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana
(PMMY) in 2015.
76
• PMMY provides loans to the non-corporate, Current news?
non-farm small/micro enterprises. • The loan limits under the Pradhan Mantri
• For this purpose GOI has instituted a refinance Mudra Yojana (PMMY) have been increased to
institution MUDRA (Micro Units Development Rs 20 lakhs.
& Refinance Agency Ltd). • A new loan category named Tarun Plus has
been introduced.
MUDRA (Micro Units Development &
Refinance Agency Ltd) New loan categories-
• MUDRA does not lend directly to micro- 1. Shishu: Loans up to ₹50,000.
entrepreneurs/individuals. 2. Kishore: Loans between ₹50,001 and ₹5 lakh.
• MUDRA provides funding to the non-corporate 3. Tarun: Loans between ₹5,00,001 and ₹10
small business sector through various last-mile lakh.
financial institutions like Banks, Non-Banking 4. Tarun Plus: Loans between ₹10,00,001 and
Financial Companies (NBFCs) and Micro ₹20 lakh.
Finance Institutions (MFIs).
UPSC Prelims 2016
Q2. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at
a. bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal
financial system
b. providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating
particular crops
c. providing pensions to old and destitute persons
d. funding the voluntary organizations involved in
the promotion of skill development and
employment generation
Sci & Tech
Categories of Loans under PMMY:
• 'Shishu', 'Kishore' and 'Tarun'
PM Gati Shakti
Eligibility for PMMY GS Paper III-Infrastructure Prelims
• Any Indian Citizen who has a business plan for Youtube: DNA 14.10.2024
a non-farm income generating activity.
• The applicant should not be a defaulter to any PM Gati Shakti Scheme
bank. • To provide speed (Gati) and power (Shakti) to
Provisions of MUDRA loan- infrastructure projects.
1. No Collateral Security • It envisages a centralised portal to unite the
2. Rural Empowerment infrastructural initiatives planned and initiated
3. Employment generation by as many as 16 central ministries and
4. MUDRA Card departments.
5. Women empowerment • Infrastructure schemes of various Ministries
6. Social justice and State Governments like Bharatmala,
• Approximate 69% loans of the total number of Sagarmala, inland waterways, dry/land ports,
loans have been sanctioned to Women UDAN will be subsumed etc.
Entrepreneurs & 51% loans have been
sanctioned to SC/ST/OBC categories of It targets to-
borrowers. 1. Cut logistic costs
Mudra loan limits earlier 2. Increase cargo handling capacity
3. Reduce the turnaround time
Current news?
• 208 big-ticket infrastructure projects of different
ministries, including roads and railways, worth
Rs 15.39 lakh crore have been recommended
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for approval under the PM Gati Shakti initiative Which of the statements given above is/are
so far. correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Indian Railways-reforms and

challenges
GS Paper III-Infrastructure Prelims
Current news?
• Railways have shortened the advance
reservation period (ARP) from four months
(120 days) to two months (60 days) for long
journeys.
• This change will be effective from November 1,
2024.
Reason for the change:

1. High Cancellation ratio
2. Potential fraud
3. Wastage
• The Railways observed that many passengers
National Infrastructure Pipeline project were not turning up for journeys despite
booking tickets well in advance. Around 4% to
• The Gati Shakti scheme subsumed National
5% of reserved passengers did not show up.
Infrastructure Pipeline that was launched in
Also, around 88% to 90% of tickets are booked
2019.
within 30 days of the journey, leading to wasted
• National Infrastructure Pipeline is Rs 110 Lakh
seats.
crore to be invested in next 5 years in
infrastructure.
• Projects will be brought in PPP model. Where
investment ratio will be-
Centre- 39%
States- 39%
Private sector- 22%
• Private sector-projects like toll roads where
private players may be interested.
• Major Investment areas- Energy (24%), Roads
(19%), Urban (16%), and Railways (13%).

Q1. With reference to PM Gati Shakti, consider the
following statements: Indian Railways-challenges and solutions
1. Gati Shakti is a digital platform. • Indian Railways has faced a series of accidents
2. The plan will bring all Ministries including recently, including incidents in Chennai,
Railways and Roadways together. Balasore, and Andhra Pradesh.
3. The Gati Shakti scheme will subsume the Rs • These accidents have raised concerns about
110 lakh crore National Infrastructure Pipeline railway safety and maintenance.
that was launched in 2019. • While the number of accidents has decreased
from 1,300 per year in the 1960s to 50-80 per
78
year today, but the issue is accidents still • Freight services have been more profitable,
occur. contributing 65% of the Railways’ revenue.
• Indian Railways makes cross subsidies from
Reasons behind accidents- freight to passenger to maintain affordability.
• Human error accounts for 58% of all railway 3. High revenue expenditures
accidents, with 28% caused by equipment • The Railways are expected to self-finance a
failure. major portion of their budget, particularly with
• Kavach system is a solution to the rising regard to renewal and upgradation of tracks
accidents. and rolling stock.
• However, 76% of its revenue goes towards
Kavach safety system salaries, pensions, and fuel.
• This system uses sensors to prevent train
collisions by controlling speeds and Prelims Practice Question
automatically braking trains. Q3. What does the Operating Ratio of Indian
• The Railways plans to expand its coverage, Railways indicate?
though implementation has been criticized for a. The percentage of profit earned by Indian
being slow. Railways.
• Only 1,465 route km (2% of total Railway route) b. The percentage of total revenue spent on
has been covered so far. operating expenses.
c. The percentage of funds allocated to
infrastructure development.
d. The percentage of revenue earned through
passenger services.
21st Livestock Census

Livestock Census
• The Livestock Census is conducted every five
years.
• The census carries out a headcount of the
number of domesticated animals, poultry, and
stray animals in the country.
• The census takes into account information
about the species, breed, age, sex, and
ownership status of the animals in question.
• Since 1919, a total of 20 livestock censuses
have been carried out so far, with the last being
conducted in 2019.
Budgetary problems of Railways

1. High Operating Ratio (OR)
• The operating ratio (OR) – the amount the
Railways spends to earn ₹100.
• In 2024-2025 is estimated to be ₹98.2.
Due to high Operating Ratio (OR) Railways face
difficulty balancing-
• Affordability and safety for passengers with its
own profitability.
2. Freight and passenger services cross subsidy
• Passenger services are under financial
pressure due to increased operating costs and
subsidies.
79
Difference between livestock, cattles and
poultry
Private sector military
aircraft assembly in India
Background
• In September 2021, India sealed a Rs 21,000
crore deal with the Airbus Defence and Space
to procure 56, C-295 transport aircraft for
Indian Air Force.
Current news? • Under the agreement, Airbus will deliver the
• Recently, the Union Minister of Fisheries, first 16 aircraft in ‘fly-away’ condition from its
Animal Husbandry and Dairying launched the final assembly line in Seville, Spain.
21st Livestock Census in New Delhi. • The subsequent 40 aircraft will be
• Information on sixteen animal species will be manufactured and assembled by TASL (Tata
collected in the 21st census. Advanced Systems ltd) in India as part of an
• These include: cattle, buffalo, mithun, yak, industrial partnership between the two
sheep, goat, pig, camel, horse, ponies, mule, companies.
donkey, dog, rabbit, and elephant.
Current news?
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his Spanish
counterpart Pedro Sanchez inaugurated the
Tata Advanced System Ltd (TASL)-Airbus
facility to manufacture C-295 military aircraft in
India in Vadodara.
Prelims Practice Question • The Tata-Airbus facility is the first private
Q2. Consider the following statements about the sector final assembly line for military aircraft in
Livestock Census in India: India.
1. The Livestock Census in India is conducted Benefits of defence production in India
every five years to collect detailed data on 1. Boost to Self-Reliance: Domestic defense
domesticated animals, poultry, but not stray production reduces dependency on foreign
animals. suppliers, enhancing India's self-reliance and
2. The census has been conducted a total of 21 sovereignty in critical defense capabilities.
times since it began in 1919, with the latest 2. Economic Growth and Job Creation: Setting up
census conducted in 2019. manufacturing facilities attracts investment,
Which of the above statements is/are correct? generates employment, and strengthens the local
a. Only 1 economy through direct and indirect jobs.
b. Only 2 3. Export Potential: Developing a robust defense
c. Both 1 and 2 manufacturing sector allows India to become an
d. None exporter of defense equipment, potentially
increasing foreign exchange earnings and
80
strengthening its position in the global defense • The trend is opposite of India’s overall goal to
market. cut energy import dependency by 15% by
2030.
• Rapidly rising energy demand in India is
causing a higher reliance on imports due to
stagnant domestic production.
Economic Impact of high dependency on

imports for energy needs-
• High dependence on imported oil makes the
Indian economy vulnerable to global oil price
fluctuations, trade deficits, foreign exchange
issues, and inflation.

Q1. Which of the following statements about
India’s procurement of C-295 transport aircraft is
correct?
1. India signed a deal worth Rs 21,000 crore with
Airbus Defence and Space in September 2021
for 56 C-295 aircraft.
2. All 56 C-295 aircraft will be delivered in a 'fly-
away' condition from Spain.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
implications of high dependence on imported oil for
d. None
the Indian economy:
1. High dependence on imported oil increases the
India’s reliance on oil and risk of trade deficits for India.
natural gas import 2. Fluctuating global oil prices can lead to
inflationary pressures in the Indian economy.
GS Paper III-Indian Economy Prelims 3. Heavy reliance on oil imports strengthens
Youtube: DNA 29.10.2024 India's foreign exchange reserves.
a. 1,2 only
Current news?
b. 2,3 only
• India's reliance on imported crude oil and
c. 1,3 only
natural gas increased April-September 2024
d. 1,2,3 all
as compared to same period in last year.
Sci & Tech

Diabetes
Type I diabetes reversal with • Diabetes is a disease that occurs when your
blood glucose, also called blood sugar, is too
stem cell transplant high.
GS Paper III-S&T-Health Prelims • Diabetes happens because of lack of insulin in
the blood or failure of insulin in absorbing the
sugar of blood.
81
• No other cell in the body has the natural ability
to generate new cell types.
Insulin
1. Generates energy
• Insulin is a hormone made by the pancreas
Types of Stem Cell
that allows body to use sugar (glucose)
• Stem cells are divided into 2 main forms. They
from carbohydrates in the food for energy.
are embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells.
2. Controls blood sugar
1. Embryonic stem cells. It come from unused
• Insulin helps keeps your blood sugar level
embryos(abortion). They are donated to science.
from getting too high (hyperglycemia) or
These embryonic stem cells are pluripotent. This
too low (hypoglycemia).
means that they can turn into more than one type
of cell.
2. Adult stem cells. There are 2 types of adult stem
cells.
a. Fully developed tissues such as the brain, skin,
and bone marrow. They are more likely to generate
only certain types of cells only. For example, a
stem cell that comes from the liver will only make
more liver cells.
b. Induced pluripotent stem cells
• These are adult stem cells that have been
changed in a lab to be more like embryonic
stem cells to produce other cells.
Stem Cell Induced Pluripotent Cell (iPS cell)

• Cells are the smallest structural units of living
matter.
• Stem cells are those cells from which other
cells with specialized functions are generated.
• Under certain conditions in the body or a
laboratory, stem cells divide to form more cells
called daughter cells.
• These daughter cells either become new stem
cells (self-renewal) or become specialized cells
(differentiation) with a more specific function,
such as blood cells, brain cells, heart muscle
cells or bone cells.
82
Stem Cell Therapy 2. Stem cells can be used for screening new
• Stem cell therapy, also known as regenerative drugs.
medicine, promotes the repair response of 3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
diseased, dysfunctional or injured tissue using Select the correct answer using the codes given
stem cells or their derivatives. below.
• Stem cells can then be implanted into a a. 1 and 2 only
person. b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1,2,3 all
Nobel Prize in Medicine or

Physiology
GS Paper III-S&T Prelims
What is the news?

• The Nobel Prize in Medicine was awarded to
American scientists Victor Ambros and Gary
Ruvkun for their discovery of microRNA.
Current news? Discovery of microRNA

• Chinese scientists successfully performed a • Helped in understanding gene activity
chronic type-1 diabetes treatment using stem regulation ie how organisms develop and
cell transplants, marking the world’s second function.
such case.
• The patient is a 25-year-old woman who had
type-1 diabetes for over a decade.
• After the procedure, she could naturally
regulate her blood sugar levels within two and
a half months.
• The patient stopped needing insulin injections
75 days after the transplant, and her
improvement has lasted for over a year.
Cells and DNA inside our body

Q2. With reference to 'stem cells, frequently in the
news, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
83
Messenger RNA
• Body DNA produces messenger RNA.
• Messenger RNA is converted into protein by
ribosome.
• This protein is carried through blood plasma as
signal protein.
• This way one body cell communicates with
another body cell and genetic information is
passed from the parents to their children.

Q1. Evaluate the following statements about
microRNAs:
1. MicroRNAs are short, non-coding RNA
molecules that regulate gene expression by
degrading messenger RNA (mRNA) or
inhibiting its translation.
2. A single microRNA can target multiple mRNAs,
and a single mRNA can be regulated by
multiple different microRNAs.
3. MicroRNAs are only present in humans and
are not found in other organisms, such as
plants or animals.
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1,2,3 all
Nobel Prize in Chemistry

microRNA
What is the news?
• Apart from messenger RNA another RNA
• Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2024 will be shared
named micro RNA is produced by DNA.
by scientists David Baker, Demis Hassabis,
• Controls how much of those signal proteins get
and John Jumper.
made by either slowing down or stopping the
process.
David Baker's Contribution
• Used softwares to designed a new protein and
An analogy to understand relations-
then refine its structures.
• DNA-Master of the house who has ordered his
servants to cook food for his friends (other
Demis Hassabis and John Jumper's
cells)
Contribution
• messenger RNA- Recipe
• Developed AlphaFold 2, an artificial
• Ribosome- Kitchen
intelligence model that can predict the
• Micro RNA-Cook
structures of millions of proteins.
• Signal protein- food
• It has been further developed by an AI based
If the Cook makes mistake the entire food may go
company Deep Mind.
wrong. Similarly if Micro RNA doesn’t work
properly a person may develop cancer.
84
• Thus Ministry of Earth Sciences has approved
installation of an X-band doppler radar in
Wayanad district to predict and mitigate such
disasters.
Function of Doppler Radar

• Doppler radar emits radio waves to detect the
distance, velocity, and movement of objects,
particularly useful for monitoring weather
patterns like rain and wind.
• The radar sends signals and measures the
time it takes for the signals to return after hitting
objects like rain droplets, helping predict
storms and floods.
What is AlphaFold?
• An AI tool to predict molecular protein
structure.
How exactly AlphaFold works?
• It works with Input-Output model.
• When protein sequences enter through one
end, the predicted three-dimensional
structures come out through the other.
• AlphaFold 2 significantly outperformed
traditional methods in protein structure
prediction.

Q2. Evaluate the following statements regarding Doppler effect
AlphaFold 2: • When the source and the receiver are in
1. AlphaFold 2 is a deep learning model relative motion to each other there is a change
developed by DeepMind to predict 3D protein in the frequency observed by the observer.
structures. • If they are moving closer frequency increases
2. AlphaFold 2 was able to outperform traditional and vice versa.
methods in the CASP (Critical Assessment of
protein Structure Prediction) competition.
3. AlphaFold 2 requires experimental data to
accurately predict protein structures.
4. AlphaFold 2 has applications in drug discovery
and understanding protein functions.
a. Only 1 and 2
b. Only 1, 2, and 4
c. Only 2 and 3
d. Only 3 and 4
X-band radars
X-band radar Difference between X-band and Other Radars
• X-band radar uses shorter wavelengths (3 cm)
GS Paper III-S&T Prelims compared to traditional radars like S-band
Youtube: DNA 14.10.2024 radar, which uses longer wavelengths.
• This allows X-band radars to detect smaller
particles like raindrops, making them useful for
Current news?
monitoring short-range weather patterns.
• Wayanad district of Kerala faced devastating
floods and landslides in July 2024.
85
Note- • 39-foot stationary antenna reflector made of a
• Higher the frequency lower is the wavelength gold-plated wire mesh
of a wave and vice versa.
• Bandwidth is the maximum amount of data that
can be transferred over a network, while
throughput is the actual amount of data that is
transferred.

Q2. Consider the following statements about X-
band and S-band radars:
1. X-band radar operates at a higher frequency
than S-band radar, offering better resolution
but shorter range.
2. S-band radar is more suitable for long-range
weather monitoring and maritime applications
due to its lower frequency.
NISAR 3. X-band radar is less affected by atmospheric
• The column also talks about NISAR. conditions, making it more reliable in extreme
• NASA and ISRO (Indian Space Research weather than S-band radar.
Organisation) are jointly working on the 4. S-band radar is more commonly used for
development of NISAR, a satellite with radar military and air traffic control due to its high
technology that will help monitor weather resolution and ability to detect small targets.
patterns and natural disasters globally. Which of the above statements are correct?
• NISAR stands for NASA and ISRO are a. 1 and 2
collaborating on developing a satellite called b. 1 and 3
NASA-ISRO synthetic aperture radar. c. 2 and 4
• Synthetic aperture radar-refers to a technique d. 3 and 4
for producing high-resolution images.
• It will detect movements on the Earth’s surface
as small as 0.4 inches in an area of a Tennis
Indian’s in Science Nobel
court size. Prize
• Because of the high precision, the radar can
GS Paper III-Science and Technology Prelims
penetrate clouds and darkness, which means
that it can collect data day and night in any Youtube: DNA 19.10.2024
weather.
• NASA will provide one of the radars for the Nobel Prizes
satellite, a high-rate communication • Alfred Nobel, a prosperous entrepreneur,
subsystem, GPS receivers. inventor, and chemist from Sweden during the
• ISRO- provide the spacecraft bus, the launch 19th century, created his will for rewarding
vehicle people for their endeavours in 5 different fields
1. Medicine
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2. Physics • But each one of these scientists did their work
3. Chemistry outside India, and none of them was an Indian
4. Literature citizen at the time they won the prize.
5. Peace.
• Alfred Nobel is known as inventor of dynamite. India’s nominated for the Nobel Prize in
• The inaugural Nobel Prizes were conferred in Science
1901, five years after Nobel’s passing.
• The Nobel Peace Prize is presented in Norway
while the other awards are handed out in
Sweden.
Who can nominate a candidate?

• Thousands of people around the world are
eligible to submit nominations for the Nobel
Prizes.
• They include university professors, lawmakers,
previous Nobel laureates and the committee
members themselves.
Nobel Prizes for Indians

1. Rabindranath Tagore (1913) – Literature
• The first Asian to win the Nobel Prize,
awarded for his collection of poems,
Gitanjali.
2. C.V. Raman (1930) – Physics
• Awarded for his work on the scattering of
light and the discovery of the Raman effect.
3. Mother Teresa (1979) – Peace
• An Albanian-Indian, she won the Nobel
Nobel Prizes in Science for Indians Peace Prize for her humanitarian work
• It’s now been 94 years since an Indian working through the Missionaries of Charity.
in India has become a Nobel laureate in the 4. Kailash Satyarthi (2014) – Peace
sciences — Physics, Chemistry or • Awarded for his efforts to combat child
Physiology/Medicine. labor and advocate for children’s rights in
• The 1930 Nobel Prize in Physics for Sir C V India.
Raman remains the only such honour.
• Three more Indian-origin scientists have won Prelims Practice Question
the Nobel Prize Q1. Evaluate the following two statements about
1. Har Gobind Khorana in Physiology or Medicine the Nobel Prizes:
in 1968 1. Alfred Nobel established the Nobel Prizes to
2. Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar in Physics in reward achievements in five fields: Medicine,
1983 Physics, Chemistry, Literature, and Peace.
3. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan in Chemistry in 2. The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in Sweden,
2009 along with the other four Nobel Prizes.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
87
a. Only statement 1 is correct
b. Only statement 2 is correct Prelims Practice Question
c. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct Q2. Consider the following statements regarding
d. Neither statement 1 nor 2 is correct “Small modular reactors (SMRs)”:
1. SMRs are advanced nuclear reactors that have
Small Modular Nuclear a power capacity of up to 300 MW(e) per unit.
2. SMRs can be sited on locations not suitable for
reactors larger nuclear power plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Youtube: DNA 7.10.2024 a. 1 only
b. 2 only
What are Small Modular Reactors (SMRs)? c. Both
• SMRs are advanced nuclear reactors that have d. None
a power capacity of up to 300 MW(e) per unit.
• SMRs, which can produce a large amount of
low-carbon electricity. Nobel Prize in Physics
Advantage of SMR? Youtube: DNA 9.10.2024
1. Simpler and safer as compared to large
nuclear plants.
Artificial Neural Networks
2. Flexible in design- can be established on
• Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs) are models
locations not suitable for larger nuclear power
mimicking the human brain, made up of nodes
plants.
(neurons) capable of processing information
3. Lower capital investment
and learning from data without human
4. Clean energy transition.
intervention.
Machine Learning
• Machine learning is a type of technology that
allows computers to learn from data and
improve their performance over time without
being explicitly programmed for each task.
• Machine learning is like teaching a computer
how to learn from experience, just as humans
do.
Note
• Direct question may not come on SMR. But you
can give its passing a reference if any question
comes on Clean Energy transition in context of
of India's INDC or Panchamrit commitment.
Current news?
• The US based company Holtec International is
developing a small modular reactor (SMR)
called the SMR-300.
• Holtec has pitched for fostering a public-private
initiative centred on the American company’s
flagship small modular reactor, the SMR-300.
• The plan is to use existing coal plant sites in
India to deploy its proposed SMR-based
projects and the possibility of joint
manufacturing at some point in the future.
88
What is the news? • Atmospheric nitrogen (N2) is abundant (78% of
• 2024 Nobel Prize in Physics has been awarded air) but inert, making it unusable by plants.
to John Hopfield and Geoffrey Hinton for their • Plants require reactive nitrogen in form of NH3
foundational contributions to machine learning (Ammonia) or NO3-(Nitrates) for growth.
using artificial neural networks.
• The research behind these networks has led to
modern advancements in artificial intelligence
(AI), particularly in tasks such as pattern
recognition and the development of systems
like ChatGPT.

Q1. Consider the following statements about
Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs) and Machine
Learning:
1. ANNs are models inspired by the human brain,
consisting of neurons (nodes) that can process
information.
2. ANNs require constant human intervention to
learn from data.
3. Machine learning allows computers to improve
their performance over time without explicit
programming for each task.
4. Machine learning involves teaching computers
to learn from experience similarly to how Nitrogen Fixation
humans do. • Nitrogen fixation is the process by which
Which of the above statements are correct? nitrogen is taken from its molecular form (N2)
a. 1 and 3 in the atmosphere and converted into nitrogen
b. 2 and 4 compounds (NH3 or NO3-) useful for other
c. 1, 3, and 4 biochemical processes.
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Natural Nitrogen Fixation
Haber-Bosch process 1. Lightning
• The energy from lightning is enough to break
GS Paper III-S&T Prelims the strong N2 bonds which allows nitrogen to
Youtube: DNA 16.10.2024 react with oxygen, forming nitrogen oxides
(NOx).
Importance of Nitrogen • The nitrogen oxides precipitate to the soil
• Nitrogen is essential for life (plants and through rain or snow, where they can form
animals), being a key component of proteins, nitrates (NO3-) in the soil.
enzymes, and amino acids. 2. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
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• Some nitrogen-fixing bacteria have a symbiotic Haber-Bosch Process Mechanism
relationship with plants, particularly legumes. • Combines nitrogen (N2) and hydrogen (H2)
• They live within the root nodules of the plant under high pressure and temperature with a
and provide the plant with nitrogen in a useable iron based catalyst to produce ammonia.
form. • Ammonia is used in synthetic fertilizers,
But these natural methods are insufficient to meet boosting agricultural productivity and global
global food needs. food supply.
Environmental impact
• Despite its benefits, the Haber-Bosch process
has environmental drawbacks.
1. Excess Nitrogen Use
• Leads to soil degradation, water pollution
(eutrophication), and air contamination.
2. Nitrogen Pollution
• Causes acid rain and damages
ecosystems.
3. Greenhouse Gas Emissions
• The energy-intensive process contributes
to carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions.
Haber-Bosch process
• Developed by Fritz Haber and Carl Bosch in
the early 20th century.
• Enabled industrial production of ammonia
(NH3) from atmospheric nitrogen (N2) and
hydrogen (H2).
• Revolutionized global agriculture by facilitating
mass production of nitrogen-based synthetic
fertilizers.
• Without synthetic fertilizers, around one-third
of the global population would face food
shortages.
90
Prelims Practice Question 2. Europa is believed to have a subsurface ocean
Q2. Which of the following best describes that resembles conditions found on Earth,
eutrophication? making it a prime candidate for sustaining life.
a. Excessive nutrient pollution leading to algal 3. Europa Clipper will land on Europa's surface to
blooms in water bodies directly search for signs of life.
b. The process of water purification in lakes and Which of the above statements are correct?
rivers a. 1 only
c. Increased oxygen levels in aquatic ecosystems b. 1 and 2 only
d. A decrease in aquatic plant growth due to lack c. 2 and 3 only
of nutrients d. 1, 2, and 3
Europa Clipper mission Kala-azar elimination

GS Paper III-S&T Prelims certificate
Youtube: DNA 17.10.2024 GS Paper II-S&T-Health Prelims
What is the news?
• Recently NASA has sent Europa Clipper
mission to explore Europa. Kala-Azar
• Europa is one of Jupiter’s moon. • It is a parasitic disease caused by Leishmania
• The Europa Clipper mission is designed to orbit parasites
and study Europa from afar, not to land on its • It is a neglected tropical disease and is the
surface. second-largest parasitic killer in the world (after
malaria).
Significance of the Mission • It is transmitted through the bite of infected
• Europa is considered one of the most likely sandflies.
places to find extraterrestrial life in the solar • Kala-azar primarily affects the spleen, liver,
system. and bone marrow.
• Europa is considered a prime candidate for • Fatality rate is 95%, if left untreated.
sustaining life due to its subsurface ocean,
which resembles conditions found on Earth.

Q2. NASA has recently launched the Europa
Clipper mission to explore Europa, one of Jupiter’s
moons. Consider the following statements about Current news?
the significance of the mission: • India could be at the threshold of eliminating
1. Europa is considered one of the most likely Kala-azar as a public health problem.
places to find extraterrestrial life in the solar • The country having managed to keep the
system. number of cases under one in 10,000 people
for two consecutive years.
91
• This is required by World Health Organization
(WHO) parameters for elimination certification.
• Thus India is looking forward to obtain Kala-
azar elimination certificate from WTO.
Current news?
• The Central Government will implement the
G20 Pandemic Fund.
• The fund is aimed at enhancing the country’s
“animal health security” and curbing “Zoonotic
diseases”.
Prelims Practice Question What is G20 Pandemic Fund?
Q2. Evaluate the following statements regarding • The G20 Pandemic Fund is a financial initiative
Kala-Azar: established by G20 countries to enhance
1. Kala-Azar is a bacterial disease. global preparedness and response to health
2. The only known vector for transmitting Kala- emergencies, particularly pandemics and
Azar in India is the sandfly of the genus zoonotic diseases (diseases transmitted from
Phlebotomus argentipes. animals to humans).
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
Q3. With reference to Zoonotic diseases, consider
c. Both 1 and 2
the following statements:
d. Neither 1 nor 2
1. They can spread to humans through direct
contact but not through food, water or the
Pandemic fund for Zoonotic environment.
diseases 2. HIV (human immunodeficiency virus), Rabies,
Ebola are all example of Zoonotic diseases.
GS Paper III-S&T-Health Prelims Which of the statements given above is/are
Youtube: DNA 28.10.2024 correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
Zoonotic disease c. Both
• Zoonosis refers to the transmission of d. None
pathogens between animals and humans.
• Diseases arising out of zoonosis are termed
Zoonotic Diseases. GIS Survey of Guwahati by
• Zoonoses may be bacterial, viral, or parasitic,
or may even involve unconventional agents for
GMC
the transmission of the disease. GS Paper III-S&T GS Paper V-Assam Issues
• World Zoonoses Day is observed every year Prelims
on July 6 to create awareness on zoonotic Youtube: DNA 31.10.2024
diseases, how to prevent them, and what
actions to take when exposed. Geospatial data
• Rabbies, SARS, MERS, Covid-19 are • The data that includes information related to
examples of Zoonotic diseases. locations on the Earth's surface.
92
• One can map objects, events, and other real-
world phenomena like traffic on GPS etc. Smart House Number Plates
• After data collection, smart house number
Different types of Geospatial data plates will be installed and tagged online on all
• GPS and GIS properties for better streamlining of services.
Difference between GPS and GIS?

• Global Positioning Systems or GPS are used
to find the exact location of things.
• Geographic Information Systems or GIS are
used to record information on to maps eg
Google Maps.
All plots, houses, commercial shops,

establishments and institutes in the city will be
surveyed using GIS and then physical survey of
these structures and plots will be done. This will
help a person to know exact location on GIS
systems like Google maps.

Current news? Q2. Consider the following statements regarding
• The Guwahati Municipal Corporation (GMC)
GIS and GPS technologies:
has started a city-wide Geographic Information
1. GIS is used to capture, store, manipulate, and
System (GIS) survey.
analyze spatial or geographic data.
2. GPS technology requires a network of
Purpose
satellites to determine precise locations on
• The survey aims to enhance civic services by
Earth.
assigning unique smart addresses to all
properties in Guwahati, including houses,
a. 1 only
businesses, and other establishments.
b. 2 only
c. Both
Data Collection Method
d. None
• GMC officials are conducting door-to-door
visits to gather detailed information on each
property.
Environment
• They are notable for their distinctive tail-like
Swallowtail butterflies extensions on the hindwings, which resemble
the tails.
GS Paper III-Environment GS Paper V-Assam
Issues Prelims
Swallowtail butterflies are indicator species
Youtube: DNA 2.10.2024 • Swallowtail butterflies are considered
important bio-indicators, meaning their
Swallowtail butterflies abundance and health reflect the broader
• Swallowtail butterflies are a large and diverse health of the environment they inhabit.
group of butterflies.
93
• Their decline signals environmental 3. Changes in their population can indicate
degradation, including loss of plant diversity environmental changes.
and ecosystem imbalance. 4. Indicator species are always plants.
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2, and 3
d. 3 and 4
Declining elephants
population
GS Paper III-Environment Prelims
The Elephant census

Indicator species • The elephant census is conducted every five
• An indicator species provides information on years by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII).
the overall condition of the ecosystem and of • The census is conducted as part of ‘Project
other species in that ecosystem. Elephant’ an initiative of Ministry of
• They reflect the quality and changes in Environment Forest and Climate Change to
environmental conditions as well as aspects of conserve the population of Elephants.
community composition.
Elephant Census 2017
• India hosts 77 of the 573 swallowtail butterfly • The 2017 census recorded 29,964 wild Asian
species recorded across the world so far. elephants in India.
• The International Union for Conservation of • This represents about 60% of the global Asian
Nature (IUCN) designated the northeastern elephant population, confirming India’s status
part India (especially Assam), where 69 as the country with the largest population of
species have been recorded, a 'swallowtail-rich Asian elephants.
zone' under the Swallowtail Conservation
Action Plan." Top States:
• Karnataka reported the highest number of
Current context elephants with about 6,049 individuals.
• IUCN has expressed concerns over the • Assam followed with approximately 5,719
overexploitation of 25 species of Citrus plants elephants.
valued for their medicinal properties. • Kerala had about 3,054 elephants.
• This threatens the swallowtail butterflies in the
forest habitats of a part of Assam.
• Assam often referred to as the “citrus belt of the
world” for its richness of Citrus fruits like Kaji
Nemu and Gul Nemu lemons.
• Excessive use of pesticides in tea gardens is
also leading to decline in population of
swallowtail butterflies.

Project Elephant
indicator species is/are correct?
• Launched in 1992.
1. Indicator species help to assess the health of
• It is a Centrally-Sponsored Scheme.
an ecosystem.
Aim
2. They are always the top predators in an
• To protect elephants and improve their habitat
ecosystem.
and corridors, reduce Human-elephant conflict
and ensure their welfare.
94
Conservation Status of Asian Elephant 4. Project Elephant is managed solely by the
• IUCN: Endangered Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate
• Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I. Change, without any state involvement.
• CITES: Appendix I Choose the correct answer:
a. Only 1 and 2 are correct
Current context b. Only 1, 2, and 3 are correct
• Reportedly there has been a 20% drop in c. Only 1, 3, and 4 are correct
India’s overall elephant population compared d. All four statements are correct
to five years ago.
• The most significant declines were seen in the
Central Indian and Eastern Ghats regions,
Pygmy Hog conservation
which experienced a 41% reduction in programme
elephant numbers since the 2017 estimates.
• The estimated elephant numbers in India
Issues Prelims
(excluding the Northeast) for 2022-2023 are
around 15,887, which is a 19.9% decline from Youtube: DNA 5.10.2024
the 2017 count.
• Northeast Figures Awaited: The elephant Pygmy Hogs
population numbers for the Northeast are still • Very small sized pigs.
being counted, and the figure is expected by • They are about 55 to 71 cm long and stand at
June 2025. 20–30 cm with a tail of 2.5 cm.
• They weigh 6.6–11.8 kg.
Major Threats • Mammals
• The report identifies "mushrooming • Their population is dwindling fast.
developmental projects" such as unmitigated • Categorised as- Critically Endangered in IUCN
mining and linear infrastructure construction as Red Data Book.
key threats to elephant populations. • The only viable population of the pygmy hog in
the wild is in the Manas Tiger Reserve in
Assam.
• Found in very small numbers at Orang national
Park and Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary.
• They live in grasslands.
• It is one of the very few mammals that build its
own home, or nest, complete with a ‘roof’.
• It is an indicator species as its presence
reflects the health of its primary habitat, tall and
wet grasslands.

Project Elephant are correct?
1. Project Elephant was launched by the
Government of India in 1992 to protect
elephants, their habitats, and corridors.
2. The project focuses on ensuring the welfare of
domesticated elephants in addition to wild
elephant conservation.
3. Project Elephant is responsible for funding the
establishment of Elephant Reserves across
India.
95
Conservation of Pygmy Hogs sanctuaries, tiger reserves, etc. — so that the
• The Pygmy Hogs were thought to be extinct. wildlife has a transition zone around them.
• But some of the Pygmy Hogs were seen near
Manas National park in 1971. Prohibited activities
• Their population remained very less. • Commercial mining, stone quarrying, large
• Thus in 1996 Pygmy Hog Conservation hydroelectric projects, polluting industries,
Programme (PHCP) was launched by Assam brick kilns, etc. are allowed in ESZ.
government in association with Aranyak NGO.
• A Pygmy Hog Conservation Centre in Regulated activities
Guwahati was established. • Commercial establishment of hotels, resorts,
• In 1996, six hogs (2 males, 4 females) were small-scale non-polluting industries and the
captured from the Bansbari range of Manas construction of civic amenities are regulated.
National
Park to start the breeding programme. Who declares an Eco-Sensitive Zone?
• Over a period of time many Pygmy Hogs have • MoEFCC (Ministry of Environment Forest and
been breeded in PHCC, Guwahati and then left Climate Change) on recommendation of Forest
open in Manas National Park. departments of respective state governments.
• Eco-Sensitive Zone declared as per
Environment Protection Act 1986.
Current news?
• Recently, nine captive-bred pygmy hogs were
released in western Assam’s Manas National
Park.
Extent of Eco Sensitive Zone
UPSC Prelims 2013 • It can be minimum of 100 m and maximum 10
Q3. Consider the following – km.
1. Star tortoise • While the 10-km rule is implemented as a
2. Monitor lizard general principle, the extent of its application
3. Pygmy hog can vary.
4. Spider monkey
Which of the above found in India? Current context
a. 1, 2 and 3 only • Recently Ministry of Environment Forest and
b. 2 and 3 only Climate Change has notified Eco Sensitive
c. 1 and 4 only Zone around Gir National Park.
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 • This has led to protest by political parties and
local businesses.
Eco Sensitive Zone around • Many commercial and infrastructure-building
activities are prohibited inside ESZs.
Gir National Park
GS Paper III-Environment Prelims Gir National Park
• The Gir Forests is the only natural habitat of
Youtube: DNA 7.10.2024 Asiatic lions.
• The Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is
What are Eco Sensitive Zone? located in the Junagadh district of Gujarat.
• ESZs essentially act as buffer zones around • Associated Tribe- "Maldharis" Tribes of Gir are
Protected Areas — national parks, wildlife known for their conserving Gir lions.
96
an aim to protect and preserve the flora and
fauna of India.
• National Wildlife Week theme 2024: “Wildlife
Conservation through Co-existence”.
History of Wildlife Week

• The Indian Board of Wildlife was constituted
and the idea of Wildlife Week was
conceptualised in 1952 to raise awareness
about the long term goals of protecting the
wildlife of India.
• Initially, in 1955 the Wildlife day was celebrated
which was later upgraded as Wildlife Week in
1957.
Asiatic Lions
• Asiatic Lions are restricted to Gir National Park
in the state of Gujarat.
• It is listed as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red
List.
• It is listed in Schedule-I of the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972.
• It was also known as the "Indian lion" and the
"Persian lion".

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding
Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs):
Different species covered on different day by
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are established around
the Assam Tribune to celebrate National
Protected Areas to serve as buffer zones for
Wildlife Week
wildlife.
2. Commercial mining, stone quarrying, and large
hydroelectric projects are permitted in Eco-
Sensitive Zones under strict regulations.
3. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change (MoEFCC) declares ESZs on
the recommendation of the respective state
governments' forest departments.
4. Eco-Sensitive Zones are declared as per the
Environment Protection Act, 1986.
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
National Wildlife Week

National Wildlife Week

• National Wildlife Week is annually celebrated
across India between 2nd to 8th October with
97
Q2. Evaluate the following statements about
National Wildlife Week in India:
1. National Wildlife Week is celebrated annually
from 2nd to 8th October to promote the
protection and preservation of India's flora and
fauna.
2. The theme for National Wildlife Week 2024 is
“Wildlife Conservation through Co-existence.”
3. National Wildlife Week was first celebrated in
1955, after the Indian Board of Wildlife was
constituted.
4. National Wildlife Week was upgraded from
Wildlife Day to a full week of celebration in
1957.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 1, 3, and 4
d. 2, 3, and 4
Living Planet Report 2024

What is the Living Planet Report?

• Published by the international non-profit World
Wide Fund for Nature.
98
• It is published every 2nd year.
• Prepared in collaboration between WWF
International and the Zoological Society of
London.
Current news?
• Recently WWF released its biennial Living
Planet report 2024 showing trends in global
biodiversity and the health of the planet.

Q3. Evaluate the following statements regarding
the Living Planet Report:
1. The Living Planet Report is published by the
World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and
focuses on global biodiversity trends.
2. The report shows a consistent increase in
global wildlife populations over recent
decades, indicating positive biodiversity
trends.
Findings of Living Planet Report 2024 a. Only 1
• According to Living Planet Report 2024, a 73% b. Only 2
decline in monitored wildlife populations has c. Both 1 and 2
been observed between 1970 and 2020. d. Neither 1 nor 2
• The report is based on Living Planet Index
•
(LPI).
The LPI, provided by the Zoological Society of
CoP 16 of Convention on
London, tracked 35,000 population trends Biological Diversity
across 5,495 species from 1970 to 2020.
Main cause behind decline: Youtube: DNA 23.10.2024
• Habitat loss, degradation, over-exploitation,
invasive species, diseases, and food
consumption patterns.
Recommendation
• The report emphasizes the need for a
“collective effort” over the next five years to
tackle the interconnected crises of climate
change and biodiversity loss.
Legal status of three agreements-

1. UNFCCC (not legally binding)
• Agreements and protocols under UNFCCC like
Kyoto Protocol and Paris agreement are legally
binding.
99
2. UNCBD
• Legally binding treaty
3. UNCCD
• Legally binding treaty-first and only
internationally legally binding framework set up
to address the problem of desertification.
Cop (Conference of Parties) under CBD

• The CoP meets are held biennially.
• Here the signatory countries assemble to
review the implementation of the CBD, adopt
decisions to further its objectives.
CoP 15 (Kunming-Montreal, 2021-2022)

• Adoption of the Kunming-Montreal Global
Biodiversity Framework to address biodiversity
loss and promote sustainable development
post-2020.
Key provisions of Kunming-Montreal Global

Biodiversity Framework Current news?
1. 30 by 30 Target • The 16th Conference of Parties (COP) to the
• Protect 30% of the world’s land and ocean Convention on Biological Diversity is currently
areas by 2030. being held in Cali, Colombia.
2. Financial Commitments • One of the main objectives of COP16 is to
• Developed nations to pledge $200 billion per expedite progress on the 30 x 30 targets.
year for biodiversity initiatives by 2030. • In order to achieve 30 x 30 targets each
3. Commitment to reduce pesticide use by 50% by country is supposed to prepare and submit
2030. action plans to halt and reverse biodiversity
Note- The framework is not legally binding. loss within their jurisdiction.
• Such action plans by respective member
countries will be known as National
Biodiversity Strategies and Action Plans
(NBSAPs).
• These are similar to the Nationally Determined
Contributions, or NDCs, that countries have to
submit under the 2015 Paris Agreement of
UNFCCC.
• So far, only 32 countries out of the total 196
parties to CBD, have submitted their National
Biodiversity Strategies and Action Plans
(NBSAPs).
100
Aichi Targets
• The Strategic Plan consists of 20 new
biodiversity targets for 2020, termed the ‘Aichi
Biodiversity Targets’
These 20 have been grouped under 5 -
1. Mainstreaming Biodiversity
2. Reduce pressure on Biodiversity
3. Safeguard ecosystems
4. Increase the benefits from biodiversity
5. Participatory approach and knowledge
building.
Convention on Biodiversity
Convention on Biodiversity has two important
protocols signed under it-
1. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety:
• Also known as biosafety protocol
• Adopted in 2000; Came into force in 2003
• The Biosafety Protocol seeks to protect
biological diversity from the potential risks
posed by genetically modified organisms
resulting from modern biotechnology.
• Genetically Modified Organisms can be Access and benefit-sharing
regulated under this protocol. • As per this principle of Nagoya protocol under
CBD the benefit of genetic resources can be
taken up by a MNC only after-
1. Prior Informed Consent (PIC) of the local
communities.
2. On Mutually agreed terms with local
communities.
• Also the benefits of genetic resources must be
shared with the local communities.
2. Nagoya Protocol:
• Adopted in Conference of Parties 10 (CoP10)
(2010) of CBD.
It includes 2 important provisions-
a. Aichi Targets
b. Access and benefit sharing
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APSC CCE 2022 b. Cloud brightening: Increasing the reflectivity of
Q2. Which of the following Protocols/Conventions clouds by spraying seawater or other
is for protecting biological diversity from the risks substances into them.
posed by genetically modified organism? c. Space-based reflectors: Placing mirrors or
a. Cartagena Protocol reflective objects in space to block some of the
b. Nagoya Protocol sunlight.
c. Bonn Convention
d. Vienna Convention Current news?
• A study published in Geophysical Research
Geoengineering for Letters suggests that diamonds could be more
effective than sulfur in reflecting sunlight and
combating climate change cooling the Earth.
GS Paper III-S&T and Environment Prelims As per the study-
Youtube: DNA 24.10.2024 • Spraying of tonnes of diamond dust in the
upper atmosphere could be an effective way of
What is Geoengineering? cooling down the Earth and fixing the problem
• Geoengineering refers to large-scale of global warming.
interventions in Earth's natural systems aimed • The idea currently appears absurd due to high
at combating climate change, particularly cost involved.
global warming. • But the global temperatures have already risen
• These interventions are designed to by about 1.2 degrees Celsius since the pre-
deliberately alter the environment in ways that industrial era, and without intervention, they
can reduce the impacts of climate change. could rise much higher, leading to severe
climate impacts.
There are two primary categories of
geoengineering:
1. Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR)
• Aims to remove carbon dioxide (CO2) from the
atmosphere to slow or reverse the effects of
global warming.
2. Solar Radiation Management (SRM):
• Aims to reflect a small percentage of the sun’s
radiation back into space to cool the Earth and
reduce global warming.
Q. What is geoengineering? "Discuss the

potential of geoengineering as a solution to
Solar Radiation Management (SRM)
climate change, highlighting its benefits, risks,
• It can be done in several ways-
and ethical considerations. 250 words/15
a. Stratospheric aerosol injection: Spraying fine
marks
particles like sulfur into the stratosphere to
reflect sunlight.
102
Geoengineering refers to the deliberate, large- risks and ethical challenges require careful
scale manipulation of Earth's climate systems to consideration. Global cooperation,
counteract the adverse effects of climate change. stringent regulation, and prioritization of
It encompasses two main categories: sustainable practices are essential before
1. Solar Radiation Management (SRM) any large-scale deployment.
2. Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR).
• While geoengineering offers promising
solutions, it also raises significant concerns
Emission Gap Report
about risks, governance, and ethics. GS Paper III-Environment Prelims
Potential Benefits: Youtube: DNA 25.10.2024
1. Mitigation of Global Warming: SRM
techniques, such as stratospheric aerosol Emission Gap report
injection, could reduce the amount of solar • It is a flagship report from UNEP and it
radiation reaching Earth, helping to cool the assesses the gap between anticipated
planet. emissions in 2030 and levels consistent with
2. Carbon Sequestration: CDR methods, like the 1.5°C and 2°C targets of the Paris
afforestation or direct air capture, aim to Agreement.
remove excess CO₂ from the atmosphere, • This is also known as Bridge gap report
potentially reversing some effects of
climate change.
3. Emergency Measures: Geoengineering
may provide short-term relief in the event of
climate emergencies, buying time for global
mitigation efforts.
Risks:
1. Unintended Environmental Consequences: United Nations Environment Programme
Geoengineering could disrupt global • It is an international environmental authority
weather patterns, such as monsoons, created after Stockholm conference on
impacting agriculture and water resources. environment in 1972.
2. Moral Hazard: Over-reliance on • It is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya
geoengineering may reduce the urgency of
Current news?
reducing greenhouse gas emissions,
• Annual Emission Gap Report has been
diverting attention from essential mitigation
released by UNEP.
strategies.
• Global greenhouse gas emissions increased in
3. Geopolitical Tensions: Disagreements over
2023 by 1.3% from the previous year.
the control and deployment of
• China and India, two of the largest emitters,
geoengineering technologies could lead to
saw emissions grow by 5.2% and 6.1%,
international conflicts.
respectively, in 2023.
Ethical Considerations:
1. Environmental Justice: The uneven
Required Emissions Reduction:
impacts of geoengineering could
• To meet the 1.5-degree target, global
disproportionately affect vulnerable
emissions must peak by 2030 and decrease by
nations, exacerbating global inequalities.
57% by 2035, compared to 2019 levels.
2. Governance Challenges: The global nature
• The report emphasizes the need for
of geoengineering requires a robust,
significantly stronger climate action plans from
transparent governance framework,
countries.
ensuring fair participation by all countries.
3. Long-term Impacts: The irreversible nature Prelims Practice Question
of some geoengineering techniques raises Q3. Evaluate the following statements about the
ethical questions about long-term planetary United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)-
stewardship and the risks to future 1. UNEP was established in 1972 following the
generations. United Nations Conference on the Human
Conclusion: Environment in Stockholm.
• While geoengineering presents a potential 2. The primary headquarters of UNEP is located
solution to climate change, its uncertain in Geneva, Switzerland.
103
Which of the above statement is correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None
Asiatic Golden Cat in Manas

Issues Prelims
Current news? Disaster Management
• After a long absence, the Asiatic Golden Cat
has been spotted again in Assam's Manas
National Park.
Flue Gas Desulphurisation
• The sighting marks a significant conservation GS Paper III-Environment and S&T Prelims
success. Youtube: DNA 29.10.2024
Flue-gas desulfurization (FGD)

• It is a set of technologies used to remove sulfur
dioxide (SO2) from exhaust flue gases of fossil-
fuel based thermal power plants.
Why it is needed in India?

• As per the data released by environmental
NGO Greenpeace, India is the largest emitter
of anthropogenic sulphur dioxide in the world.
Harmful impacts of Sulphur dioxide?

• Health impact-Respiratory diseases like
asthma.
• Environmental-Causes acid rain.
Asiatic Golden Cat
• It is a medium sized cat with relatively long How Flue-gas desulfurization (FGD) works?
legs. • Wet scrubbing using a slurry of alkaline
• They are known as the “fire cat” in Thailand sorbent.
and Burma, and as the “rock cat” in parts of
China.
Distribution
• The species occurs in Southeast Asia, from
Nepal and Tibet to Southern China, Sumatra
and India.
Conservation Status:
• IUCN: Near threatened
• CITES: Appendix I
• Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972:
Schedule I
104
2. Acid rain has a pH level higher than 7,
indicating it is more alkaline than normal
rainwater.
3. Acid rain can damage aquatic ecosystems,
particularly affecting fish and other marine life.
4. Forests are unaffected by acid rain as trees
can neutralize the acidic components.
a. Only one statement is correct
b. Only two statements are correct
c. Only three statements are correct
d. All four statements are correct
Protest in Guwahati against

felling trees for flyover
GS Paper IV-Environmental Ethics GS Paper V-
Assam Issues Prelims
Current news? Current context
• New IIT-D study has challenged need for flue • A 5.05-kilometer, four-lane flyover-
gas desulfurization (FGD) in thermal power Dighalipukhuri to Noonmati, the longest in
plants. Guwahati city, is being built as part of the city's
• The study states that the SO2 emissions from infrastructure expansion.
coal-fired TPP stacks have no significant • Trees around Dighalipukhuri, an iconic
impact on ambient air quality beyond a 60- waterbody in Guwahati, are marked for felling
kilometre radius from the power plant. due to an under-construction flyover.
• The usefulness of this technology ie FGD been • According to an RTI response, 21 trees would
questioned for first time. be impacted, with some trees preserved if
feasible.
• This has led to protest by residents of
Guwahati.
• Protesters argue that cutting century-old trees
with ecological significance harms Guwahati’s
environment.
• Citizens have appealed to the Chief Justice of
Assam to initiate a suo motu PIL to prevent the
felling of these trees.

Q2. Consider the following statements about acid
rain:
1. Acid rain is primarily caused by the emission of
sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ)
into the atmosphere.
105
Disaster Management
Panchayat level whether National Agriculture Code
forecasts GS Paper III-Indian Agriculture Prelims
GS Paper III-Disaster Management Prelims
Youtube: DNA 25.10.2024 Current news?
• The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has
Current news? begun the process of formulating a National
• Five-day weather forecasts, updated hourly, Agriculture Code (NAC).
are now available at the panchayat level across • It will be in line with existing National Building
India, providing localized weather information. Code and National Electrical Code.
• The initiative is part of a joint program by the
Panchayati Raj Ministry, Indian Meteorological National Agriculture Code
Department (IMD), and the Ministry of Earth • It will contain a guidance note for standard
Sciences. agriculture practice.
• It will serve as a guide for farmers, agriculture
Objective: universities, and officials involved in the field.
1. The goal is to empower rural communities and • The code will have two parts.
improve disaster preparedness.
2. It aims to promote sustainable agriculture and First part
resilient rural populations. • Cover general principles for all crops.
Example of e-governance- Second part

• Hourly forecasts will be available on the e- • Will deal with crop-specific standards for the
GramSwaraj and Gram Manchitra portals, and likes of paddy, wheat, oilseeds, and pulses.
the Meri Panchayat app
National Building Code of India

• It is a national guidelines for regulating the
building construction activities across the
country.
• It serves as a Model Code for adoption by all
agencies involved in building construction
works be the Public Works Departments, other
government construction departments, local
bodies or private construction agencies.
• Developed by Bureau of Indian Standards
(BIS).
• Similarly National Electrical Code has been
prepared by BIS.
106
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
• It is the National Standard Body of India
established under the BIS Act 2016 for the
harmonious development of the activities of
standardization, marking and quality
certification of goods.
• BIS is working towards ‘One Nation, One
Standard’ to remove multiplicity, the duplicity of
efforts and to bring more clarity among
consumers, manufacturers and to facilitate
trade.
• Functions under Ministry of Consumer Affairs,
Food & Public Distribution. Prelims Practice Question
Q2. Consider the following statements:
BIS provides 3 types or Mark- 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian
1. Hallmark-gold and silver Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive
2. EcoMark-Eco Friendly pdts tyres and tubes.
3. ISI-Industrial pdts 2. AGMARK is a quality Certification mark issued
• The ISI mark logo bears Indian Standard by the Food and Agriculture Organisation
number at the top and seven / ten digit licence (FAO).
number at the bottom which can be verified Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
through “BIS CARE App” to ensure the a. 1 only
authenticity of the certification. b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None
Hints
The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards
(BIS) is compulsory for:
• Certain type of electronic and IT goods
• Cement
• Household and electrical products
• Food products
• Steel materials
• All type of automotive tyres and tubes
AGMARK
• a certification mark employed on agricultural
products in India
• under Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers
Welfare.
• Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking)
Act of 1937 (amended in 1986).
• quality guidelines for 205 different
commodities-cereals, pulses, vegetable oils
107
History
• In its early years, the CPC allied with
75 years of Communist Party Kuomintang or KMT party as part of a united
of China rule •
front to fight foreign imperialism in China.
However, tensions eventually emerged,
GS Paper I-World History GS Paper II- leading to a split and the beginning of the
International Relations Prelims Chinese Civil War in the late 1920s.
China’s Political History

• During the 17th to 19th centuries, China was
ruled by the Qing Dynasty, which was the last
imperial dynasty of China.
Colonialism in China
• China was not colonised in the way India was. Civil War in China
• During the late 19th and early 20th centuries, • A civil war was going on in China from 1927 to
several Western powers and Japan 1949.
established "spheres of influence" in China. • Civil war was fought mainly between two
• The spheres of influence and the perceived parties- Kuomintang (KMT) party vs
unfair treatment to China by Western powers Communist Party of China.
played a significant role in shaping the
nationalist sentiments against foreign powers Kuomintang (KMT) party
leading formation of Communist Party of • Leader- Chiang- Ki- Shek
China, • Ideology- Democracy
• Calls China as Republic of China (RoC)
Communist Party of China

• Leader- Mao Zedong
• Ideology- Communism
• Calls China as People’s Republic of China
End of Civil war in 1949

• In 1949 Communist Party of China forced
Republic of China outside mainland China
under leadership of Mao Zedong.
• After it on 1st October, 1949 Communist rule in
China was set up under one party- Communist
Party of China.
Spheres of Influence
• While Chiang Ki Shek along with his supporters
• The concept of spheres of influence refers to
was forced outside mainland China on an
areas in which foreign countries exerted
island- Farmosa island.
exclusive control or significant influence over
economic, political, and military affairs. These
spheres were essentially zones where foreign
powers dominated trade, investment, and
other aspects of governance without formal
territorial annexation.
Communist Party of China

• The Communist Party of China (CPC) was
founded in 1921 in Shanghai.
• It largely inspired by Marxist ideas and the
success of the 1917 Russian Revolution.
108
Two Chinas- PRC and RoC
• RoC (Taiwan) claims to be original China.
• PRC (the mainland China)- maintains a foreign
policy- “One China Principle”.
One China Principle

• It means there is just one China ie Mainland
China or PRC.
• Following its One China Principle China
doesn't allow membership to Taiwan in any
international forum like UN.
• China claims Taiwan is one of its province.

Q1. Which of the following best describes the "One
China Principle"?
1. It asserts that there is only one sovereign state
under the name China.
2. It recognizes both Taiwan and mainland China
as independent entities.
3. It affirms that Taiwan is a part of China.
4. It denies any claim of sovereignty by China
over Taiwan.
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 3 and 4
Korean War
Current context GS Paper I-World History GS Paper II-
• China marked 75 years of Communist Party International Relations Prelims
rule with minimal festivities due to economic
challenges and ongoing concerns.
Economic Challenges Background

• Cold war-It started after end of World war II
• China is facing several economic difficulties,
including disruptions in supply chains, a (1939-45).
• Right after WWII, USSR and the US came in
declining birth rate, and the struggles of an
export-driven economy. conflict with each other.
• Many countries allied with the US together
• The recovery post-COVID-19 has been slow.
known as the US bloc.
• Others allied with USSR known as the USSR
• China faces growing tensions with neighboring
bloc.
countries such as Japan, South Korea, and
India, particularly around territorial disputes in World after World War II (1939-45)- Era of
the South China Sea and Taiwan. Cold war
109
Conflict between the US and USSR bloc is known
as Cold war because they never came into direct
conflict with each other. Rather they fought proxy
Armistice agreement
wars.
• A Civil war continued for 3 years (1950-53)
• An Armistice agreement was signed to divide
the Korean peninsula along 38 degree Latitude
North and South Korea

• Above 38 degree latitude- North Korea
• Below 38 degree latitude- South Korea
• The Korean Peninsula remains divided at the
38th parallel, demilitarized zone (DMZ) was
established.
The US-North Korea hostility

Korean War • Since the US helped the revolutionaries of
• Korea historically was an independent, united South Korea for Civil war against Communist
country. government of Korea, naturally the North
• It was acquired by Japan in 1910. Korean government maintains hostility with the
• But after loss of Japan in WWII, Korea became US.
independent in 1945.
• USSR bloc wanted a communist government Current context
in Korea while the US wanted a liberal • Tension between North and South Korea has
democratic government in Korea. flared up again.
110
Q1. Evaluate the following statements regarding
the Korean War (1950–1953):
1. The Korean War began when North Korean
forces, backed by the Soviet Union and China,
invaded South Korea in June 1950.
2. The United Nations, led by the United States,
intervened on behalf of South Korea shortly
after the invasion.
3. The war ended with a formal peace treaty
signed in 1953, officially ending the conflict
between North and South Korea.
4. The Korean Peninsula remains divided at the
38th parallel, where a heavily fortified For his strong actions while integration of
demilitarized zone (DMZ) was established. princely states with India he is also known as
Which of the following statements are correct? Loh Purush or Iron Man of India.
a. Only 1 and 2
b. Only 3 and 4 Other facts about Sardar Patel
c. Only 1, 2, and 4 Pre-independence
d. Only 1, 3, and 4 • Integrated the farmer’s cause in Kheda
Satyagraha (1918) and Bardoli Satyagraha
National Unity Day (1928) with the national freedom movement.
• Women of Bardoli bestowed the title ‘Sardar’
GS Paper I-Post Independence History Prelims on Vallabhbhai Patel, which means ‘a Chief or
Youtube: DNA 31.10.2024 a Leader’.
Post-independence
National Unity Day • Sardar Patel was the first Home Minister and
• National Unity day is celebrated on 31st Deputy Prime Minister of India.
October every year to commemorate the birth • He is also remembered as the ‘Patron saint of
anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. India’s civil servants’ as he established the
• Rashtriya Ekta Diwas (National Unity Day) was modern all-India services system.
introduced by the Government of India in 2014.
• Sardar Patel is also known as Bismark of Role in Framing Constitution:
India for his contribution in integration of 562 • He headed various Committees of the
princely states with Dominion of India. Constituent Assembly of India, namely:
• Bismarck (1815-1898) was largely responsible 1. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights.
for the creation of the German Empire in 1871 2. Committee on Minorities and Tribal and
by integration of many small states. Excluded Areas.
3. Provincial Constitution Committee.
111
Statue of Unity Mains Practice Question
• In 2018, the Government of India unveiled the Q. Discuss the role of Sardar Patel in
‘Statue of Unity’ in Gujarat to mark the 143rd integration of princely states in India.15
birth anniversary of Sardar Patel. marks/250 words
• The Statue of Unity is the tallest statue in the Hints
world. • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is known as the “Iron
• At 182 meters, it is 23 meters taller than Man of India” for preventing the balkanization
China's Spring Temple Buddha statue and of India.
almost double the height of the Statue of • He was the Home Minister in the interim
Liberty (93 meters tall) in the US. government, was responsible for unifying
• In January 2020, it was added to the ‘Eight these to create a united country I.e. India.
Wonders’ of the Shanghai Cooperation • Sardar Patel played a key role in the integration
Organization (SCO). of about 562 princely states into the Indian
Union.
• Sardar Patel worked tirelessly to build a
consensus with the princely states but did not
hesitate in employing methods of Sama,
Dama, Dand and Bhed wherever necessary.
• Sam-Communication worked for most of the
princely states.
• Dam-Patel also introduced the idea of ‘privy
purses,’ making payments to the royal families
in lieu of their joining India.
• Dand and Bhed-Few princely states like
Travancore, Hyderabad, Junagadh, Bhopal,
and Kashmir were averse to joining the state of
India. He had used force to annex princely
states of Junagadh ruled by Nawab and
Hyderabad ruled by Nizam, both of whom had
wished not to merge their respective states
with the Union of India.
• Sardar Patel is recognized as the real unifier of
India for his colossal contribution to integrate
and make India a united and an independent
nation.
Ethics
violence, including through education and
Gandhian ideology public awareness".
Paper I-Essay GS Paper IV-Ethics
Current context
• Today is 2nd October ie birth anniversary of
Mahatma Gandhi.
• This days is also celebrated as International
Day of nonviolence.
• According to UN General Assembly resolution
of 2007, which established the
commemoration, the International Day is an
occasion to "disseminate the message of non-
112
Key highlights of Gandhian ideology • His concept of "bread labour" highlights the
1. Nonviolence and Truth idea that individuals should earn their
• Gandhi's commitment to nonviolence (ahimsa) livelihood through manual work.
and truth (satya) are central to his philosophy. • As per Gandhi “Wealth without work” is a
• He emphasized the power of nonviolence to deadly sin.
foster change, resolve conflict, and promote 5. Role of religion
internal peace. Nonviolence is presented as a • Gandhi integrated religion and morality
force for justice, rather than bitterness or deeply into his politics but was against rigid
retaliation. religious rituals.
• His experiments with truth convinced him of the • As per Gandhi “Politics without religion is a
ultimate triumph of righteousness. death trap”.
6. Nationalism and Internationalism:
7. Gandhi was critical of aggressive nationalism
and fascism, advocating for a balanced approach
between nationalism and internationalism.
2. Simplicity and Reduction of Wants

• Gandhi stressed the importance of reducing
wants, leading to simpler living and less
suffering.
• Uncontrolled demand leads to materialism and Q. What do you understand by Gandhian
consumerism. ethics? Discuss the role and relevance of
• This degrades character of an individual, Gandhian ethics in conflict resolution. 10
makes him greedy. marks/150 words
• It also leads to destruction of environment. Hints
3. Trusteeship Concept • Gandhian ethics refers to the set of moral and
• Wealth holders should act as trustees of philosophical principles advocated by
wealth, using their resources for the benefit of Mahatma Gandhi.
society. Principles of Gandhian Ethics
• Wealth holders should take only that amount of 1. Non-violence (Ahimsa): Ahimsa, the principle of
wealth for self use that is needed for a non-violence, is the cornerstone of Gandhian
comfortable life. ethics. It goes beyond physical non-violence to
include the rejection of hatred and ill-will.
2. Truth (Satya): For Gandhi, truth is not just
speaking the truth but also adhering to honesty in
thoughts, actions, and intentions. Satya, for
Gandhi, is the ultimate moral value.
3. Self-discipline (Brahmacharya): Gandhi
emphasized the importance of self-control and
discipline in both personal and public life,
advocating simplicity and minimalism as a way of
life.
4. Satyagraha: The principle of Satyagraha
involves non-violent resistance or civil
4. Bread labour disobedience as a method of confronting injustice,
113
by appealing to the moral conscience of the • People regularly struggle to decide whether
oppressor. action or patience will result in future regret.
5. Trusteeship: Gandhi believed in the concept of • Regret is a common human experience.
trusteeship, where wealth and resources should be • It can stem from actions taken or not taken in
seen as a trust for the welfare of society rather than the past.
for personal accumulation. • The dilemma of Action vs. Inaction often arises
6. Sarvodaya (Welfare of all): Sarvodaya, or the in decision making at-
upliftment of all, is Gandhi’s vision for an 1. Individual level
egalitarian society, where the welfare of the 2. Organizational level (Commercial or non-
poorest and weakest is paramount. commercial)
Gandhian ethics aim at fostering a just and 3. Government level
equitable social order, both at the individual and • There is no simple rule or thumb rule for when
collective levels and thus can be helpful in to act or remain patient.
resolving conflicts. • The dilemma can also be seen as Action vs
Role of Gandhian Ethics in Conflict Resolution Patience.
1. Gandhian method of Satyagraha
• If one believes that he/she is saying Truth
(satya), One will always follow the path of
nonviolence (ahimsa) to convince the other
about truth.
• This will prevent violence and conflict.
2. Appeal to the moral conscience
• Gandhi believed in changing the heart of the
adversary by appealing to their moral and
ethical values. This is relevant in modern times
where conflicts often escalate due to a lack of
dialogue.
3. Inclusive approach
• Gandhian ethics promote inclusivity by
focusing on the welfare of all, including the
marginalized.
4. Balance Nationalism and Internationalism
• This will prevent aggressive nationalism that
becomes reason behind international conflict.
Gandhian ethics provide a timeless framework for Pro-Action Argument
conflict resolution by emphasizing non-violence, • The idiom "The cost of being wrong is less than
empathy, truth, and inclusivity. In a world facing the cost of doing nothing" supports the value of
multiple crises, from political conflicts to action.
environmental degradation, these principles offer • Time and opportunities are beyond human
peaceful, moral, and effective means to address control, and inaction can be perceived as
conflicts. laziness or indecisiveness.
• A 2021 experiment found that people tend to
Quote Means: ‘The cost of evaluate actions more favorably than inactions.
being wrong is less than the Benefits of Action

• Action, even incremental, can help individuals
cost of doing nothing’ and organizations avoid paralysis by
Paper I-Essay GS Paper IV-Ethics indecision.
Youtube: DNA 7.10.2024 • In governance delayed action is considered
poor governance and referred as ‘policy
Essence of the quote paralysis’.
• The quote explores the dilemma of Action vs. • Quick decisions have been beneficial in
Inaction. various situations, such as in battles and crises
known as ‘first mover’s advantage’.
114
idea of being strategic and efficient, winning
without direct conflict when possible.
• The quote favours diplomacy over over-
enthusiastic military action.
• It supports the value of patience over over-
enthusiasm.
• In business or managing foreign relations,
patience can be a virtue, as seen in long-term
investment strategies.
• Not all inactions are manifestation of laziness,
it may be an act according to carefully crafted
plan.
German sociologist Max Weber, in 'The Protestant
Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism', argued that
values such as hard work are central to
Protestantism (a branch of christianity). Constant
work and action, some researchers say, are prized
in societies which value this philosophy.
Risks of Action
• The cost of acting wrongly can be high, such
as in cases where hasty decisions lead to
conflict, like in military or diplomatic situations.
• For example say a small-scale border incursion
leads an impatient world leader to order military
responses over diplomacy, which could be Sun Tzu’s book- The Art of War is considered to
seen as slow-moving. be one of the greatest book on warfare.
• If the other leader also believes in action over
pursuing other alternatives, the resulting Conclusion
escalation and conflict would result in the loss • The key is thoughtful decision-making.
of lives — a significant cost to pay. • Neither action nor inaction is inherently right or
• The above idea is worth exploring in the current wrong, but careful consideration is essential.
conflictual context between Iran and Israel. • One should respond, either in form of action or
inaction, but not react.
• The highest cost comes from making decisions
without proper thought, whether those
decisions involve action or inaction.
Importance of Patience
• Sometimes no action may be the manifestation
of patience and may be the best action in the
given situation.
• Sun Tzu’s quote “The wise win before the fight
while the ignorant fight to win” supports the
115
Nobel Peace Prize 2024 What does it mean?
• Contentment means being satisfied with what
GS Paper IV-Ethics and Integrity Prelims one has, finding joy in the present
Youtube: DNA 14.10.2024 circumstances, rather than constantly striving
for more.
What is the news? • Inner peace and satisfaction hold more value
• Nobel Peace Prize 2024 has been awarded to than external material possessions.
Nihon Hidankyog. • Contentment leads to mental and emotional
• Nihon Hidankyog is an organization that stability, as one is not constantly chasing new
preserves the testimonies of survivors (known desires or ambitions, which are often sources
as “Hibakusha”) of the atomic bombings in of stress and anxiety.
Hiroshima and Nagasaki. • The quote encourages living simply and
appreciating what one already has.
Mission of Nihon Hidankyo • Desires are endless, contentment fosters
• To preserve the “struggles of the atom bomb sustainable happiness, where one’s well-being
survivors to prevent forgetting of the is not dependent on acquiring more or external
catastrophic impact of atom bomb”. changes.
• The group is a consistent advocate for nuclear
disarmament and the banning of atomic
weapons.
• The organization has worked since 1956.
• The devastation of these cities serves as a
moral warning representing the broader
struggle against the technologies of war.
The quote suggests a deeper, philosophical

understanding of wealth—one where personal
satisfaction and peace are the ultimate forms of
richness.
Similar quote in UPSC Mains 2024

• In the UPSC Civil Services Exam,2024 a
similar idea was asked- “There is no path to
happiness; Happiness is the path,”.
• Both suggest the ideal of happiness —
constant joy devoid of pain — is an illusion.
• Real wealth lies in contentment.
• Path of contentment leads to sense of
happiness.
• Happiness is path, not the destination.
• Happiness is found in living meaningfully and
Quote - ‘Contentment is the mindfully.
only real wealth’ • By emphasizing the journey, one can avoid the
stress of always chasing happiness and
Paper I-Essay GS Paper IV-Ethics instead find it in everyday moments and
Youtube: DNA 21.10.2024 actions.
• This perspective counters the modern
• The quote has been said by Alfred Nobel, in emphasis on happiness as a consumerist,
whose memory Nobel prizes are awarded. goal-driven outcome, promoting instead a
more balanced and contented life.
116
UPSC 2024
Counter view
Karl Marx
• Marx emphasized that happiness is deeply
connected to material conditions.
• Poverty, inequality, and exploitation hinder
human happiness.
• He argued that without addressing the material
needs of people—such as food, shelter, and
security—true happiness could not be
achieved.
• Marx argued that the Capitalist class create
Philosophical justification to the quote notions like contentment, not happiness should
Aristotle's Virtue Ethics be the ultimate goal.
• Aristotle argued that happiness • Such notions prevent the possibility of
(eudaimonia) is achieved through living a frustration amongst the workers despite
virtuous life, involving reasoning and moral exploitation.
action, not as a goal to be reached but as a • This allows Capitalists to exploit the workers
state to be lived. without any threat of revolution.
Buddhist Perspective
• One of the 4 Noble truth of Buddha is “
desire is root cause of suffering”.
• Buddhism teaches that happiness comes
from transcending suffering through right
actions and thoughts, where happiness is a
by-product of mindful living.
John Stuart Mill's Philosophy

• Mill’s utilitarian philosophy emphasizes that
happiness is found when focusing on
higher purposes, like helping others, not
when pursued directly. Liberalism view shared by Philosophers like
John Locke, Adam Smith and Jeremy
Bentham
• Wealth creation is necessary for distribution of
wealth and curbing poverty (trickle down
effect).
• For wealth creation, one needs to make profit
and have goal or end oriented approach.
• Bentham went to the extent of equating profit
with happiness.
Stoic Philosopher-Epictetus
• He quote "Don't become a philosopher before
you become rich"
117
• This idea is often iterated by very successful • The exponents of contentment approach
actor Shah Rukh Khan as his suggestion for towards life rightly propound that without inner
youngsters. satisfaction there is no purposeful life.
• Constant pursuit of material wealth is a never
The character Jordan Belfort in the 2013 movie ending game, ultimately leading to frustration
The Wolf of Wall Street and disappointment in life.
• Famously quoted "There is no nobility in • But the critics of this approach towards life also
poverty" is often followed by youth in current hold substance in their argument.
times. • They claim such mindset may lead to inactivity
and inertia.
• This may hinder material progress of
individuals and society.
• The solution lies in the timeless teaching of
Bhagavad Gita.
• The concept of ‘Nishkama karma’ ie
dispassionate action given in Bhagavad Gita if
followed can avoid both ie inactivity and and
degenerated materialist mindset.
• It essentially suggests to work hard and try to
achieve success, without emotionally getting
connected to the outcome.
Conclusion
• The debate of contentment versus material
oriented life requires a deeper analysis.
Internal Security
• In the majority of cases the criminals contact
Digital arrests relatives or friends of the target and tell them
GS Paper III-Internal Security Prelims that the target has been found to be involved in
a crime or an accident, and is in their custody.
Youtube: DNA 28.10.2024 • The criminals, who often use pictures or
identities of police personnel to convey
What is Digital arrests? authenticity, usually demand money from the
• A “Digital Arrest” is a cyber crime that involves target for a ‘compromise’ and closure of the
fraudsters impersonating a law enforcement case.
officer via video calls, threatening fake arrests • Cybercriminals are also known to use studios
to extort money. that look like police stations or government
offices.
118
Why known as Digital arrest? Q4. Which of the following best defines "Digital
• The victims are forced to stay visible over Arrest"?
Skype or other video conferencing platforms to a. It refers to the suspension of digital devices
the criminals until their demands are met. due to technical malfunctions.
b. It involves legally restricting a person’s access
to digital platforms and technologies.
c. It is the process of freezing digital data during
an investigation.
d. It indicates the termination of digital services by
a provider.
S-400 missile
GS Paper III-Defence Prelims
A Delhi based doctor was swindled of Rs 3 crores
by fraudsters through ‘digital arrest’. Youtube: DNA 5.10.2024
Current news? What is the S-400 missile system?

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi in his 115th • Part of India’s Air defence system.
edition of Mann ki baat radio programme has • Surface-to-air missile system (SAM).
cautioned the public about "digital arrest" • Range of 400 km, Altitude of up to 30 km.
scams, where fraudsters pose as law • 5 units Imported from Russia.
enforcement officials. • First unit of S-400 deployed in Punjab to
• PM Modi clarified that no government agency defend against Pakistan.
contacts people via phone or video call to • It is considered much ahead of the US-
threaten arrest. developed Terminal High Altitude Area
• The PM also shared an audio clip of a Defense system (THAAD).
conversation between a victim and a fraudster, • The system can engage all types of aerial
highlighting how these scams operate. targets including aircraft, unmanned aerial
vehicles (UAV and ballistic and cruise
missiles.
The system can track 100 airborne targets and

engage six of them simultaneously.
Why does India need strong Air Defence

System?
• Two of the India's neighbour- Pakistan and
China are Nuclear weapons state.
• Both of are hostile to India.
• Thus India needs a strong Air defence system.
119
India's procurement of S400 missile-
• India is buying 5 units.
• The US$5 billion deal was formally signed in
2018.
Delivery so far-
• The first squadron of S-400 air defense missile
systems was delivered to India in December
2021.
• The second squadron was delivered in April
2022, and the third in March 2023.
• The S-400 Triumf is a mobile surface-to-air
missile (SAM) system developed by Russia in Current context
the 1990s. • Air Chief Marshal A.P. Singh said the Indian Air
Force (IAF) is acquiring and developing air
defence weapon systems similar to Israel's,
Iron Dome to protect against missile attacks.
• Systems like the Iron Dome are part of this
strategy, focusing on intercepting missile
threats.
Concerns
• The delivery of the Russian S-400 missile
systems, delayed due to the Ukraine war.
Concerns for India in S-400 procurement

• India may face trade sanctions from the US
because of S-400 Triumf missile procurement
from Russia.
CAATSA law
• CAATSA- Countering America’s Adversary
Through Sanctions.
• According to the law the US will impose trade
sanctions against the country that will conduct
trade with Iran, Russia and North Korea.
Sanctions against Iran and North Korea
• For possession and development of nuclear
weapons.
Sanctions against Russia
1. Military intervention in Ukraine Another development regarding Air
2. Alleged meddling in the 2016 US Presidential Defence system
elections. • The Indian Army has significantly enhanced its
But delivery of 3 units have not attracted CAATSA air defence capabilities with the acquisition of
law based sanctions. 100 Akashteer air defence systems.
120
Akashteer Systems compared to other systems like the Patriot,
• It is a sophisticated, integrated control and which takes around 25 minutes.
reporting system designed to neutralize enemy 6. Enhanced Target Speed
airborne threats swiftly. • The S-400 has a maximum target speed of
4.8 km/sec, which is significantly higher
than that of systems like the Patriot, which
has a maximum target speed of 1.38
km/sec.
Fourth nuclear-powered
ballistic missile submarine
GS Paper III-Defence Prelims
What are nuclear-powered ballistic missile

submarine?
• A nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine
(SSBN) is a type of submarine designed to
carry and launch ballistic missiles that are
typically equipped with nuclear warheads.
• These submarines are powered by a nuclear
UPSC mains 2021 GS Paper 3
reactor.
Q. How is the S-400 air defence system
• SSBNs are a potent and highly specialised
technically superior to any other system
military asset.
presently available in the world? 10 marks/150
• Operated by only the United States, Russia,
words
China, the United Kingdom, France, and India.
Hints
• The S-400 air defence system is technically
Benefit of Nuclear Powered reactor
superior to any other system in the world: The
• It allows the submarine to stay submerged for
S-400 Triumf stands out from other air defence
extended periods without the need to surface
systems due to several key factors:
frequently for fuel.
1. Versatility
• The S-400 can simultaneously track and
engage a wide range of threats, including
aircraft, missiles, and UAVs.
2. Superior Range and Altitude
• With a maximum range of 400 km and the
ability to engage targets at altitudes of up
to 30 km, S-400 is superior than THAAD of
the US.
3. Layered Air Defense
• The S-400’s multiple missile types and
varying ranges (40 km, 120 km, 250 km,
and 400 km) create a layered air defence
net.
4. Multi-Dimensional Capability
• Unlike some other systems like THAAD,
the S-400 is not limited to one-dimensional Nuclear-powered ballistic missile
defence. submarines of India
5. Rapid Deployment 1. INS Chakra codename S1
• The deployment time of the S-400 system • Nuclear-powered attack submarine (SSN)
is relatively short, at just 5 minutes, that India leased from Russia.
2. INS Arihant codename S2
121
• INS Arihant is India’s first indigenous ensuring that a credible retaliatory capability is
nuclear powered ballistic missile capable maintained.
submarine.
3. INS Arighaat codename S3 • For Credible Nuclear deterrence-Nuclear Triad
• INS Arighaat, was commissioned into naval needs to be created.
service in August 2024. • The more powerful Nuclear Triad is the better
deterrence its creates.
Current news? Why Nuclear deterrence is important for India?
• India launched its fourth nuclear-powered • Because India’s Nuclear doctrine includes ‘no
ballistic missile submarine (SSBN) at the Ship first use’ but massive retaliation principle.
Building Center (SBC) in Visakhapatnam.
• The fourth SSBN is INS Aridhaman Q. Discuss the significance of the Nuclear
codenamed S4*. Triad in the context of nuclear deterrence,
particularly with reference to India's nuclear
Significance of Nuclear-powered ballistic strategy. 15 marks/250 words
missile submarines Hints
• They are part of India's nuclear triad, which is • Nuclear deterrence refers to the prevention of
crucial for nuclear deterrence. nuclear conflict through the credible threat of
retaliation. While a nuclear triad—comprising
land-based ballistic missiles, air strategic
bombers, and submarine-launched ballistic
missiles (SLBMs)—is considered essential for
ensuring a credible second-strike capability,
thereby strengthening nuclear deterrence.
Significance of Nuclear Triad:
1. Credible Second-Strike Capability: The triad
ensures survivability of nuclear forces in the event
of a first strike, providing a credible assurance of
retaliation, a key element of effective deterrence.
a. Land-based missiles: Quick launch capability,
but vulnerable to preemptive strikes.
b. Air-based bombers: Can be called back or
retargeted after launch, but are susceptible to
What is Nuclear triad? air defenses.
• A nuclear triad is a three-pronged military force c. Submarine-based missiles (SLBMs): Offer the
structure that allows a country to deliver most secure form of deterrence, as submarines
nuclear weapons from three different platforms remain undetected underwater, ensuring
ie- retaliation even after a first strike.
1. Land-based Missiles (Intercontinental Ballistic 2. Strategic Flexibility: The triad provides
Missiles or ICBMs) operational flexibility in choosing the method and
2. Air-based Platforms (Strategic Bombers) timing of retaliation, enhancing the credibility of
3. Sea-based Platforms (Submarine-launched deterrence. Multiple platforms complicate the
Ballistic Missiles or SLBMs) adversary’s targeting strategy, increasing the cost
of aggression.
3. Minimizes Risks of Escalation: With secure
Importance of the Nuclear Triad
1. Survivability second-strike options, adversaries are
• The triad ensures that even if one or two
discouraged from contemplating a first strike, thus
components of the nuclear force are destroyed maintaining strategic stability.
in a first strike, the third component can still India’s Nuclear Triad and Deterrence:
• India adheres to a No First Use (NFU) policy,
deliver a retaliatory strike, thereby deterring
adversaries from launching a nuclear attack. underpinned by a credible minimum
2. Deterrence deterrence doctrine. The successful
• The diverse deployment platforms increase the
development of India’s nuclear triad enhances
chances of survival in the event of a conflict, the credibility of this posture:
122
• Land-based Agni series missiles provide long- severe stress. This enhances the overall strategic
range strike capability. stability in South Asia, countering potential threats
• Air-launched nuclear capabilities from Mirage from nuclear-armed neighbors like China and
2000 and other platforms offer additional strike Pakistan.
options. Conclusion:
• INS Arihant, INS Arighaat, INS Aridhaman The nuclear triad plays a crucial role in
India’s indigenously developed nuclear- strengthening deterrence by ensuring second-
powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN), strike capability, enhancing strategic stability, and
completes the triad, significantly enhancing supporting India’s No First Use NFU policy. It
second-strike capabilities. signals India’s commitment to responsible nuclear
India’s triad ensures that its nuclear deterrent behavior while deterring potential adversaries from
remains survivable and credible, even under engaging in nuclear coercion or aggression.
Assam Specific
Current news?
Mukhyamantrir Atmanirbhar • Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma
Assam Abhiyan distributed the first installment of Rs 75,000 to
25,238 entrepreneurs under the
GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims Mukhyamantrir Atmanirbhar Assam Abhiyan.
Youtube: DNA 1.10.2024 • Entrepreneurs represent a wide range of
sectors, including agriculture, manufacturing,
Chief Minister Atma Nirbhar Asom Abhijan aquaculture, services, vocational education,
• Scheme to help the youths of the state set up and more.
their own ventures.
• Under the scheme, financial aid will be given to Prelims Practice Question
two lakh youths for creating a robust Q3. Consider the following statements about a
entrepreneurial ecosystem. state scheme to help the youth set up their
ventures:
Youth to be categorised in 2 groups-
1. Youth with technical degrees such as MBBS,
1. Youth with technical degrees
BDS, and engineering will receive Rs 5 lakh,
• Unemployed degree holders in engineering,
half as a grant and half as a loan.
MBBS, BDS, agriculture, animal husbandry,
2. Youth with general degrees or below
fishery etc will be kept in the first category and
graduation will receive Rs 2 lakh, equally
given Rs 5 lakh (Rs 2.5 Lakhs grant + Rs 2.5
divided between a grant and a loan.
lakhs loan).
3. The scheme aims to provide financial aid to
2. Youth with general degree or below
one lakh unemployed youths in the state.
graduation
• Unemployed post-graduates, general
a. 1,2 only
graduates, ITI, and polytechnic pass-outs will
b. 2,3 only
be kept in the second category for government
c. 1,3 only
assistance of Rs 2 lakh (Rs 1 Lakh grant + Rs
d. 1,2,3 all
1 lakh loan).
GI tags to tribal products

from Assam
GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims
Current news?
• The Geographical Indications Registry in
Chennai has granted GI tags to eight products
used by Assam tribes.
123
• This includes traditional food items and rice essential services locally, without the need to
beer varieties. visit the main district offices.
• A total of 39 co-districts have been created
Products include- across 21 districts.
• Bodo Napham (a dish prepared with fermented • These co-districts will be headed by Co-District
fish) Commissioners (CDC), replacing the previous
• Bodo Ondla (rice powder curry with spices), role of Additional District Commissioners.
• Bodo Gwkha (known as Gwka Gwkhi, • The goal is to streamline administrative
prepared during the Bwisagu festival) functions, making public services more
• Bodo Jou Gishi/Maibra Jou Bidwi/ Bodo Jou accessible and enhancing government
Gwaran(traditional fermented rice responsiveness at the grassroots level.
based alcoholic beverages)
• ‘Bodo Narzi’, a semi-fermented food prepared
with jute leaves
• ‘Bodo Aronai’, a small, beautiful cloth
Co-districts for better

administration in Assam
Current news?
• In Assam, the state government has recently
initiated a significant administrative reform by
renaming newly created sub-districts as co-
districts.
• This change aims to improve administrative
efficiency and bring governance closer to the
people.
• These co-districts are designed to decentralize
governance by allowing residents to access
124
students pursuing higher education through
education loans.
• The scheme offers a one-time subsidy of
₹50,000 to eligible students who have taken
education loans from recognized commercial
and regional rural banks in Assam.
Classical language status

for Assamese
Current news?
• The Union Cabinet approved classical
language status for Assamese.
Abhinandan Scheme • Marathi, Pali, Prakrit and Bengali also have
GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims been accorded status of Classical language.
Youtube: DNA 3.10.2024 History of Classical Language Status:
• The classification of “classical languages” was
Abhinandan Scheme created in 2004, initially awarded to Tamil.
• The Abhinandan Education Loan Subsidy • Since then, languages like Sanskrit, Telugu,
Scheme is an initiative by the Government of Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia have also
Assam aimed at providing financial relief to received this status in subsequent years.
125
Wetland conservation
programme in Assam
Wetlands
• Wetlands act as natural buffers for floods prone
areas.
• They help in filtration of groundwater before it
recharges the underground reserves of water
(thus wetlands are also known as Kidneys of
the Earth).
Wetland Degradation
• Many wetlands have been undergoing rapid
degradation for the past three decades.
Benefits of getting Classical languages tag Reasons behind wetland degradation

1. Two major annual international awards for • Loss of bird habitat
scholars of eminence in classical Indian • Plastic pollution
languages • Construction activities
2. A Centre of Excellence for studies in Classical • Human Encroachment and settlement
Languages is set up
3. The University Grants Commission is
requested to create a certain number of
Professional Chairs in Central Universities for
the Classical Languages so declared.
4. Ministry of culture has dedicated institutions for
the study of the classical languages
• Sanskrit: Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan, New
Delhi and others
• Telugu and Kannada: Centres of Excellence
for Studies in the respective languages at the
Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL).
• Tamil: Central Institute of Classical Tamil
(CICT), Chennai.
Wetland conservation programme in
Assam
• The state government of Assam aims to
rejuvenate 129 wetlands (locally called beels),
covering 3,800 hectares, to support local
livelihoods through fishing and agriculture.
• It is 796-crore ADB-aided project.
The project will focus on-

1. Enhancing the water-holding capacity of the
beels by restoring lost links to their parent
water bodies.
2. Regulating fishing activities and promoting
eco-tourism.
3. Specific water pools for fish stocking,
construction of sluice gates, and controlled
water storage are part of the plan.
126
Current context
• A Constitution Bench led by Chief Justice of
Supreme Court’s verdict on India D.Y. Chandrachud took up a petition
questioning constitutional validity of Section 6A
Sec 6A of Citizenship act of the Citizenship Act, 1955.
Current news?
Youtube: DNA 18.10.2024 • Supreme Court judgment has upheld the
constitutional validity of Section 6A of the 1955
What is Section 6A of Citizenship Act? Citizenship Act.
History
• Section 6A was a special provision inserted
into the Citizenship Act,1955 as a result of Mission Basundhara 3.0
amendment. GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims
• It was inserted in furtherance of a
Memorandum of Settlement called the ‘Assam
Accord’ signed on August 15, 1985.
Mission Basundhara
Mission Basundhara 1.0
• Started on 8th May 2022
• Delivered 10 land-related services to the
people.
• Disposed eight lakh land related cases

• Started on 14th November 2022
• Launched mainly to address the needs of the
indigenous people.
• 1.6 lakh beneficiaries who were given ‘Offer of
Settlement’ belonged to ST, SC, OBC and
Provisions
MOBC.
1. Foreigners who had entered Assam before 1st
• ‘Offer of Settlement’ or land rights, for people
January 1966, and been “ordinarily resident” in
living for the last three generations in the State
the State, would have all the rights and
were considered.
obligations of Indian citizens.
2. Foreigners who had entered the State between
Concerns
1st January 1966, and 25th March 1971 would
• People belonging to tea and Adivasi
have the same rights and obligations except
community suffered (as they could not prove
that they would not be able to vote for 10 years.
settlement for three generations).
3. Migrants those who entered in Assam after
25th March 1971 will be considered foreigner
were to be deported.
127
Current news?
• Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma on rolled
out the third phase of the Mission Basundhara
scheme, a flagship programme to give land
rights to indigenous people of the State.

• In Mission Basundhara 3.0, the ‘definition of
three generations’ will be waived for the tea
and Adivasi community people.
• For the people of Gorkha community, a similar
system like tea and Adivasi community will be
applicable.
• Similarly, people belonging to ST and SC
communities will not have to submit certificate
of three generations of habitation to get land
rights
• People living in the Sunsali area of Guwahati
and Tea Garden Grant areas of Dibrugarh will
be given an one-time opportunity under
Mission Basundhara 3.0 to apply for land
pattas. Pact to boost Biogas sector
• Mission Basundhara 3.0 will be more
comprehensive in terms of land management in Assam
and ensuring reservation of the revenue GS Paper V-Assam Issues Prelims
villages with 100 percent habitation of ST and
SC communities. Youtube: DNA 28.10.2024
Current news?
• The Assam State Cabinet has approved an
initiative to promote the compressed biogas
sector by signing a memorandum of
understanding between the Assam
government and Reliance Bio-Energy Limited.
• This will establish a network of integrated
compressed biogas infrastructure within the
state.
128
Benefits
• The initiative aims to reduce pollution caused
by fossil fuels.
• Create significant employment opportunities.
• Generate additional income for farmers.

Q5. The Assam State Cabinet has recently
approved an initiative to promote the compressed
biogas sector. This will involve the establishment
of a network of integrated compressed biogas
infrastructure within the state. With which company
has the Assam government signed a
memorandum of understanding (MoU) for this
Biogas is a mixture of methane, CO2 and small initiative?
quantities of other gases produced by anaerobic a. Tata Power Renewable Energy
digestion of organic matter in an oxygen-free b. Reliance Bio-Energy Limited
environment. c. Adani Green Energy Limited
d. Indian Oil Corporation Limited
Prelims Specific
Dada Saheb Phalke Award
Prelims
Dadasaheb Phalke Award

• It is presented annually by the Ministry of
Information and Broadcasting.
• The award is considered the highest honour in
the Indian film fraternity.
• It is awarded for outstanding contribution to the
growth and development of Indian cinema.
• The award was instituted by the government in Current news?
1969, and consists of a ‘Swarna Kamal’, a cash • Mithun Chakraborty named for Dadasaheb
prize of INR 10 lakh, a certificate, a silk roll, and Phalke Award for the year 2022.
a shawl.
• The award is presented by the President of Chagos island
India.
Prelims
• The first recipient of the award was Devika
Rani Roerich in 1969. Youtube: DNA 4.10.2024
Dadasaheb Phalke Mauritius

• In 1913, Dadasaheb Phalke wrote, produced, • Mauritius, island country in the Indian Ocean,
and directed India’s first feature film, the silent located off the eastern coast of Africa.
film -Raja Harishchandra. • Physiographically, it is part of the Mascarene
Islands.
• The capital is Port Louis.
129
Chagos islands
• The Chagos Archipelago is a group of over 60
tropical islands in the Indian Ocean, about
halfway between Africa and Indonesia.
• It has been part of the British Indian Ocean
Territory (BIOT) and has been at the center of
a longstanding territorial dispute between the
United Kingdom and Mauritius.
Diego Garcia Military Base:
• Diego Garcia, the largest island in Chagos,
hosts a significant U.S. military base
established through an agreement between
the U.K. and the U.S. in 1966.
Current news
• The U.K. and Mauritius have reached a political
agreement that allows Mauritius to secure
sovereignty over the Chagos Archipelago,
including strategically important Diego Garcia
military base.
130
Q3. Diego Garcia, a strategic military base, is
Nobel Prize in Literature
located in which ocean? Prelims
a. Atlantic Ocean Youtube: DNA 11.10.2024
b. Pacific Ocean
c. Indian Ocean What is the news?
d. Arctic Ocean • South Korean writer Han Kang has been
awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature for
Wild Ass population her "intense prose" that confronts historical
traumas and exposes the fragility of human life.
estimation • Han Kang's literary breakthrough came with
"The Vegetarian" (2007).
Prelims
• It earned her the Man Booker International
Youtube: DNA 8.10.2024 Prize in 2016.
• Her other major works include "The White
Indian wild ass Book" (2016), an elegy about loss, and "Greek
• The Indian wild ass is an endangered species Lessons" (2023).
and is found only in the Little Rann of Kutch
and Great Rann of Kutch of Gujarat.
• It is protected under the Schedule I of the
Wildlife Protection Act and was listed as
endangered by the IUCN.
Current news?
• As per 10th Wild Ass Population Estimation
(WAPE), 2024 the population of Indian wild
asses in Gujarat has increased by 26.14% in
the last four years.
• The estimated population now stands at 7,672,
compared to 6,082 in the 2020 WAPE.
e-Migrate portal and mobile

app
Prelims
Current news?
• Government of India launched a revamped e-
Migrate portal and mobile app on October 14
to ensure safe and legal overseas travel for
Indian citizens, particularly for Indian laborers.
Objective:
• The initiative aims to improve the mobility of
Indian labor while safeguarding their safety
Prelims Practice Question and well-being abroad.
Q3. The Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur) is The initiative follows the “Surakshit Jayen,
primarily found in which region of India? Prashikshit Jayen, Safal Jayen” campaign led by
Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2022(can be used
a. Sundarbans
b. Thar Desert in GS paper II-Diaspora topic)
c. Rann of Kutch
d. Western Ghats
131
Predator high altitude
drones
Prelims
Current news?
• India finalized a major deal with the US to
procure 31 Predator high-altitude, long-
endurance drones.
•
THAAD The drone can fly for 40 hours at a time at
altitudes over 40,000 feet.
Prelims • These drones are fitted with precision strike
Youtube: DNA 16.10.2024 missiles.
• So they can be used for surveillance, tracking
What is THAAD? of target and attack.
• The Indian Navy will receive 15 Sea Guardian
• THAAD (Terminal High-Altitude Area Defense)
is an air defense system. drones, while the Army and Air Force will get 8
• It is designed to intercept and destroy short-, SkyGuardian drones each.
medium range ballistic missiles during their
flight itself.
• THAAD is produced by Lockheed Martin(a US
based defence manufacturer) and is part of the
broader US missile defense strategy.
• THAAD can intercept missiles within a range of
up to 200 km.
Why in news?
• A Terminal High-Altitude Area Defense
(THAAD) system has been sent to Israel, Prelims Practice Question
accompanied by a team of American military Q5. India recently finalized a deal with the US to
personnel by the US. procure Predator high-altitude, long-endurance
drones. Consider the following statements
regarding this deal:
1. These drones can fly continuously for 400
hours at altitudes exceeding 40,000 feet.
2. The deal includes both Sea Guardian and
SkyGuardian drones for the Indian armed
forces.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both
d. None
UPSC Prelims 2018

Q4. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense Mera Hou Chongba festival
(THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? Prelims
a. An Israeli radar system
b. India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
c. An American anti-missile system
d. A defence collaboration between Japan and Mera Houchongba Festival
South Korea • Festival of Manipur
• Age old ritual of exchanging gifts
132
• Cultural dance and songs Harry Messel Award’ for Conservation
• Manipur's traditional Mera Hou Chongba Leadership by the Species Survival
festival symbolizes brotherhood and unity Commission (SSC) of the International Union
among indigenous communities settled in both for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
hill and valley of State. • The award was presented to him during the
• It was celebrated at the Manipur Royal palace ongoing 5th IUCN SSC Leaders’ Meeting in
(Sana Konung) in Imphal in the presence of Abu Dhabi.
King of Manipur, Leishemba Sanajaoba as the • Talukdar was recognised for his significant
main host. contributions to one horn rhino conservation.
The Harry Messel Award

• The "Harry Messel Award for Conservation
Leadership" is a prestigious honor conferred by
the International Union for Conservation of
Nature (IUCN) under its Species Survival
Commission.
• Named after Canadian-born Australian
physicist and educator Harry Messel.

Q3. Which of the following are true about Mera Hou National Ayurveda Day
Chongba festival of Manipur symbolizes Prelims
brotherhood and unity among indigenous Youtube: DNA 30.10.2024
communities of the State?
1. The festival includes age-old rituals of
National Ayurveda Day
exchanging gifts.
• National Ayurveda Day is celebrated on the
2. Cultural dance and songs are a part of the
occasion of Dhanteras every year since 2016.
celebrations.
• Aim is to raise awareness about Ayurveda, an
ancient Indian system of medicine.
a. 1 only
• The theme for Ayurveda Day 2024 is
b. 2 only
"Ayurveda for Global Health," focusing on
c. Both
various aspects like women’s health, mental
d. None
health, and wellness tourism.
Harry Messel Award for Why National Ayurveda Day is celebrated

rhino conservation on occasion of Dhanteras?
• Dhanteras is celebrated on Dhanvantari
Prelims Jayanti.
Youtube: DNA 26.10.2024 • Dhanvantari Jayanti is the birth anniversary of
lord Dhanvantari, the divine physician in Hindu
Current news? mythology and considered the god of
• Assam’s eminent conservation scientist Ayurveda.
Bibhab Kumar Talukdar was awarded ‘The
133
Cybersquatting
Prelims
What is Cybersquatting?
• It is an act of registering a domain name in
advance to profit from a trademark, corporate
or personal name of an individual.
• Usually, cybersquatting is seen as a form of
extortion or even as an attempt to take over
business from its rival.
Current example
The logo of the National Medical Commission • A Delhi based developer registered the
(NMC), the statutory regulator of medical domain, 'Jio Hotstar about a year ago.
education in India, features a colourful image of • The developer, who foresaw a potential merger
Dhanvantari. of Reliance JioCinema and Disney+ Hotstar,
purchased the domain.
Mythology behind Dhanvantari jayanti and • Reportedly, the developer is now offering it for
Dhanteras sale on a domain marketplace.
• According to the Vishnu Purana, Dhanvantari
emerged during samudra manthan, the
churning of the Ocean of Milk, bearing amrit,
the nectar of immortality.
• The devas and asuras had struck an alliance
to obtain amrit together, which they were to
share.
• The ocean was churned using the mountain
Mandara as the rod and the serpent Vasuki as
the churning rope.
• 'First, Dhanvantari appeared during the
samudra manthan, and then Goddess Lakshmi
who, after her appearance, chose to wed Lord
Vishnu.
• Thus, on the day of Dhanteras, both
Dhanvantari and Lakshmi are worshipped, for
good health, prosperity.
134
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Q1. With reference to the Constitution of India, coordinating petroleum policies among its
prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained member countries to stabilize oil prices.
in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or 3. Angola is the latest member to join OPEC.
limitations on the constitutional powers under Which of the above statements are correct?
Article 142. It could mean which one of the (a) 1 only
following? (b) 1,2 only
(a) The decisions taken by the Election (c) 2,3 only
Commission of India while discharging its (d) 1,2,3 all
duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained Q5. Consider the following statements:
in the exercise of its powers by laws made by 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian
the Parliament. Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres
(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the and tubes.
country, the President of India can declare 2. AGMARK is a quality Certification mark issued
Financial Emergency without the counsel from by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
the Cabinet. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on (a) 1 only
certain matters without the concurrence of (b) 2 only
Union Legislature. (c) Both
(d) None
Q2. Which of the following best describes the "One
China Principle"? Q6. Consider the following statements regarding
1. It asserts that there is only one sovereign state Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs):
under the name China. 1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are established around
2. It recognizes both Taiwan and mainland China Protected Areas to serve as buffer zones for
as independent entities. wildlife.
3. It affirms that Taiwan is a part of China. 2. Commercial mining, stone quarrying, and large
4. It denies any claim of sovereignty by China hydroelectric projects are permitted in Eco-
over Taiwan. Sensitive Zones under strict regulations.
(a) 1 and 3 3. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and
(b) 2 and 4 Climate Change (MoEFCC) declares ESZs on
(c) 1 and 4 the recommendation of the respective state
(d) 3 and 4 governments' forest departments.
4. Eco-Sensitive Zones are declared as per the
Q3. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Environment Protection Act, 1986.
Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in How many of the above statements are correct?
order to (a) Only one
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes (b) Only two
(b) determine the boundaries between States (c) Only three
(c) determine the powers, authority and (d) All four
responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border States Q7. The Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur) is
primarily found in which region of India?
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding (a) Sundarbans
OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum Exporting (b) Thar Desert
Countries) and OPEC+: (c) Rann of Kutch
1. OPEC was founded by five countries, including (d) Western Ghats
Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and
Venezuela, in Baghdad in 1960. Q8. Consider the following statements about
2. OPEC's headquarters are located in Vienna, Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs) and Machine
Austria, and the organization focuses on Learning:
135
1. ANNs are models inspired by the human brain, 1. X-band radar operates at a higher frequency
consisting of neurons (nodes) that can process than S-band radar, offering better resolution
information. but shorter range.
2. ANNs require constant human intervention to 2. S-band radar is more suitable for long-range
learn from data. weather monitoring and maritime applications
3. Machine learning allows computers to improve due to its lower frequency.
their performance over time without explicit 3. X-band radar is less affected by atmospheric
programming for each task. conditions, making it more reliable in extreme
4. Machine learning involves teaching computers weather than S-band radar.
to learn from experience similarly to how 4. S-band radar is more commonly used for
humans do. military and air traffic control due to its high
Which of the above statements are correct? resolution and ability to detect small targets.
(a) 1 and 3 Which of the above statements are correct?
(b) 2 and 4 (a) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Q9. Which of the following is true about the Atal
Pension Yojana (APY)? Q13. Examine the following statements-
(a) It is a government-backed pension scheme 1. Lebanon shares a western coastline along the
aimed at individuals aged 18 to 40. Mediterranean Sea.
(b) It is a pension scheme available only to senior 2. Israel doesn't shares a border with Lebanon.
citizens. 3. Both Lebanon and Israel have borders with
(c) It is a private pension plan for organized sector Syria.
employees. Which of the above statements are correct?
(d) It is a scheme launched to provide financial (a) 1,2 only
support exclusively to government employees. (b) 2,3 only
(c) 1,2,3 all
Q10. Evaluate the following statements regarding (d) 1,3 only
AlphaFold 2:
1. AlphaFold 2 is a deep learning model Q14. Which of the following best describes
developed by DeepMind to predict 3D protein eutrophication?
structures. (a) Excessive nutrient pollution leading to algal
2. AlphaFold 2 was able to outperform traditional blooms in water bodies
methods in the CASP (Critical Assessment of (b) The process of water purification in lakes and
protein Structure Prediction) competition. rivers
3. AlphaFold 2 requires experimental data to (c) Increased oxygen levels in aquatic ecosystems
accurately predict protein structures. (d) A decrease in aquatic plant growth due to lack
4. AlphaFold 2 has applications in drug discovery of nutrients
and understanding protein functions.
Which of the above statements are correct? Q15. Evaluate the following statements regarding
(a) Only 1 and 2 the Korean War (1950–1953):
(b) Only 1, 2, and 4 1. The Korean War began when North Korean
(c) Only 2 and 3 forces, backed by the Soviet Union and China,
(d) Only 3 and 4 invaded South Korea in June 1950.
2. The United Nations, led by the United States,
Q11. The World Development Report is published intervened on behalf of South Korea shortly
by which organization? after the invasion.
(a) International Monetary Fund (IMF) 3. The war ended with a formal peace treaty
(b) United Nations (UN) signed in 1953, officially ending the conflict
(c) World Bank between North and South Korea.
(d) World Economic Forum (WEF) 4. The Korean Peninsula remains divided at the
38th parallel, where a heavily fortified
Q12. Consider the following statements about X- demilitarized zone (DMZ) was established.
band and S-band radars: Which of the following statements are correct?
136
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(b) Only 3 and 4 (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only 1, 2, and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Only 1, 3, and 4
Q20. Arrange the following places from north to
Q16. Consider the following statements- south as per their locations on the map:
1. Indirect tax collection in India is higher than 1. Kargil
direct tax revenue at central level. 2. Leh
2. Income tax contribution in direct tax is more 3. Srinagar
than corporate tax. 4. Jammu
Which of the above statements are correct? Which of the following is the correct order?
(a) 1 only (a) 3, 1, 2, 4
(b) 2 only (b) 1, 3, 2, 4
(c) Both (c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) None (d) 3, 2, 1, 4
Q17. Evaluate the following two statements about Q21. Consider the following statements regarding
the Nobel Prizes: the "Right to Life" under Article 21 of the Indian
1. Alfred Nobel established the Nobel Prizes to Constitution:
reward achievements in five fields: Medicine, 1. The "Right to Life" includes the right to live with
Physics, Chemistry, Literature, and Peace. dignity and access to basic necessities like
2. The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in Sweden, food, clothing, and shelter.
along with the other four Nobel Prizes. 2. The "Right to Life" guarantees protection from
Which of the statements is/are correct? arbitrary deprivation of life, including the right
(a) Only statement 1 is correct against capital punishment in all cases.
(b) Only statement 2 is correct 3. The "Right to Life" encompasses the right to a
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct clean environment, as recognized by judicial
(d) Neither statement 1 nor 2 is correct interpretations.
4. The "Right to Life" under Article 21 can only be
Q18. Evaluate the following statements based on suspended during a national emergency.
the All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey How many of the above statements are correct?
(2021-22) by NABARD: (a) Only one
1. The survey shows that nearly all Indian states (b) Only two
have witnessed an increase in households (c) Only three
identifying as agricultural between 2016-17 (d) All four
and 2021-22.
2. The average monthly income for agricultural Q22. Evaluate the following statements about the
households in 2021-22 was higher than the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)-
income for non-agricultural rural households. 1. UNEP was established in 1972 following the
Which of the above statements are correct? United Nations Conference on the Human
(a) Only 1 Environment in Stockholm.
(b) Only 2 2. The primary headquarters of UNEP is located
(c) Both 1 and 2 in Geneva, Switzerland.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above statement is correct?
(a) 1 only
Q19. With reference to a grouping of countries (b) 2 only
known as BRICS, consider the following (c) Both
statements: (d) None
1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de
Janeiro in 2009. Q23. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at
2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS (a) bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal
grouping. financial system
Which of the statements given above is / are (b) providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating
correct? particular crops
(a) 1 only (c) providing pensions to old and destitute persons
137
(d) funding the voluntary organizations involved in 3. Acid rain can damage aquatic ecosystems,
the promotion of skill development and particularly affecting fish and other marine life.
employment generation 4. Forests are unaffected by acid rain as trees
can neutralize the acidic components.
Q24. Consider the following statements about the How many of the above statements are correct?
Livestock Census in India: (a) Only one statement is correct
1. The Livestock Census in India is conducted (b) Only two statements are correct
every five years to collect detailed data on (c) Only three statements are correct
domesticated animals, poultry, but not stray (d) All four statements are correct
animals.
2. The census has been conducted a total of 21 Q28. Consider the following statements about the
times since it began in 1919, with the latest implications of high dependence on imported oil for
census conducted in 2019. the Indian economy:
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. High dependence on imported oil increases the
(a) Only 1 risk of trade deficits for India.
(b) Only 2 2. Fluctuating global oil prices can lead to
(c) Both 1 and 2 inflationary pressures in the Indian economy.
(d) None 3. Heavy reliance on oil imports strengthens
India's foreign exchange reserves.
Q25. With reference to Zoonotic diseases, Which of the above statements are correct?
consider the following statements: (a) 1,2 only
1. They can spread to humans through direct (b) 2,3 only
contact but not through food, water or the (c) 1,3 only
environment. (d) 1,2,3 all
2. HIV (human immunodeficiency virus), Rabies,
Ebola are all example of Zoonotic diseases. Q29. Consider the following countries:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Italy
correct? 2. Japan
(a) 1 only 3. Nigeria
(b) 2 only 4. South Korea
(c) Both 5. South Africa
(d) None Which of the above countries are frequently
mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or
Q26. Which of the following statements about ageing population or declining population?
India’s procurement of C-295 transport aircraft is (a) 1, 2 and 4
correct? (b) 1, 3 and 5
1. India signed a deal worth Rs 21,000 crore with (c) 2 and 4 only
Airbus Defence and Space in September 2021 (d) 3 and 5 only
for 56 C-295 aircraft.
2. All 56 C-295 aircraft will be delivered in a 'fly- Q30. With reference to Belt and Road initiative
away' condition from Spain. (BRI) consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. It aims filling the infrastructure gap in Asia by
(b) 2 only connecting land and sea routes under the Silk
(c) Both Route.
(d) None 2. India is part of this initiative.
Select the correct statements using the codes
Q27. Consider the following statements about acid given below:
rain: (a) 1 only
1. Acid rain is primarily caused by the emission of (b) 2 only
sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) (c) Both
into the atmosphere. (d) None
2. Acid rain has a pH level higher than 7,
indicating it is more alkaline than normal
rainwater.
138
ANSWERS
Q1. B Q7. C Q13. D Q19. D Q25. B
Q2. A Q8. C Q14. A Q20. B Q26. A
Q3. A Q9. A Q15. C Q21. B Q27. B
Q4. B Q10. B Q16. B Q22. A Q28. A
Q5. A Q11. C Q17. A Q23. A Q29. A
Q6. C Q12. A Q18. C Q24. D Q30. A
139

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Polity & Governance Brazil-2nd country of BRICS to opt out of BRI

Greenwashing guidelines ................................ 35 World Economic Outlook report ..................... 75

Marital Rape exception..................................... 36 SAMARTH Scheme ........................................... 76

Nikshay Poshan Yojana ................................... 37 Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana ......................... 76

Biosimilars and Evergreening of Patents ...... 39 PM Gati Shakti ................................................... 77

United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon ...... 48 Science and Technology

Environment Assam Specific

Arun Gopal case

National Anthem in Cinema halls-

Article 142 of the constitution

Judicial Legislations and Doctrine of

UPSC Prelims 2019

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Procedure for declaring an area under

Internal Democracy in Conclusion

Retaining the Scales of Justice

Ex situ (off site) stubble management

Issues-with bale machines

Article 21 of the constitution

Prelims Practice Question

New Chief Justice of India

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How seniority is decided in the SC?

Q. Explain the significance of parliamentary

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Important suggestions made-

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Q. Discuss the escalating costs of elections in Primaries

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Prelims Practice Question

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Ideas presented in the article

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Mains Practice Question

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Why China wants people to have more

Lesson for India

OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum

OPEC+ (Extension of OPEC)

Why Currency Swap agreements are made?

10 point plan for India-

Key highlights of the 21st ASEAN - India

Brief History of India ASEAN relations

Future Plan of Action (2026-2030)

United Nations Interim Force

SCO meet in Pakistan

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Current context BRICS - timeline

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