565 Questions Model Exam For Mechanical

Dashboard / My courses / Mech_2023 / General / Re- Model Exit Examination For Mechanical Engineering 2023
Started on Tuesday, 27 June 2023, 12:04 PM

State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 27 June 2023, 1:06 PM
Time taken 1 hour 1 min
Overdue 1 min 17 secs
Marks 0.00/592.00
Grade 0.00 out of 500.00 (0%)
Question 1
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Total atoms in face centered cubic (FCC) structure unit cell is
a. 4
b. 6
c. 9
d. 2
The correct answer is: 4
Question 2
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A _________ is defined as a quantity of matter or a region in space chosen for study.
a. Surrounding
b. System
c. Mass
d. Boundary
The correct answer is: System

Question 3
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Any change that a system undergoes from one equilibrium state to another is called a _______________.
a. Process
b. Property
c. State
d. System
The correct answer is: Process
Question 4
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Carnot cycle is the most efficient cycle operating between two specified temperature limits, however, the Carnot cycle is not a suitable model
for power cycles. Which of the following impracticalities are associated with Carnot cycle?
a. Limiting the maximum temperature in the cycle.
b. Limits the thermal efficiency.
c. The quality of the steam decreases during isentropic expansion process.
d. All
The correct answer is: All
Question 5
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The food compartment of a refrigerator is maintained at 4 degrees Celsius by removing heat from it at a rate of 360KJ/min. If the required
power input to the refrigerator is 2kW, determine the coefficient of performance of the refrigerator.
a. 1.0
b. 3.0
c. 2.0
d. 4.0
The correct answer is: 3.0

Question 6
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A liquid that is about to vaporize is called a ______________.
a. Compressed liquid
b. Saturated vapor
c. Saturated liquid
d. Sub cooled liquid
The correct answer is: Saturated liquid
Question 7
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is not intensive property of a system?
a. Temperature
b. Pressure
c. Density
d. Total mass
The correct answer is: Total mass
Question 8
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Temperature difference is the driving force for heat transfer. The larger the temperature difference, the higher is the rate of heat transfer.
a. True
b. False
The correct answer is: True

Question 9
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Water boils at 100C.
a. True
b. False
The correct answer is: False
Question 10
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is ideal cycle for spark ignition reciprocating engines?
a. Diesel cycle
b. Brayton cycle
c. Rankine cycle
d. Otto cycle
The correct answer is: Otto cycle
Question 11
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is basic dimension?
a. Energy
b. Pressure
c. Temperature
d. Velocity
The correct answer is: Temperature

Question 12
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
From the following statements, which one is Clausiuss second law of?
a. As the temperature approaches absolute zero, the entropy of a system approaches a constant minimum.
b. It is impossible for a self-acting machine to transfer heat from a colder body to a hotter one without the aid of an external agency
c. It is impossible to design an engine that extracts heat and fully utilizes it into work without producing any other effect.
d. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It can only change forms. In any process, the total energy of the universe remains the
same
The correct answer is: It is impossible for a self-acting machine to transfer heat from a colder body to a hotter one without the aid of an
external agency
Question 13
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
During a steady-flow process, fluid properties within the control volume may change with position but not with time.
a. False
b. True
Question 14
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A change in the state of gas during which the pressure of the gas remains constant is called ____________ change.
a. Adiabatic
b. Isobaric
c. Isochoric
d. Isothermal
The correct answer is: Isobaric

Question 15
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which method increases the thermal efficiency of simple ideal Rankine cycle on which steam power plant operates?
a. Lowering the Condenser Pressure.
b. Superheating the Steam to High Temperatures.
c. Increasing the Boiler Pressure.
d. All
Question 16
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Heat is transferred to a heat engine from a furnace at a rate of 80 MW. If the rate of waste heat rejection to a nearby river is 20 MW,
Determine the thermal efficiency of the heat engine.
a. 50.0 %
b. 25.0 %
c. None
d. 75.0 %
The correct answer is: 75.0 %
Question 17
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Consider a steady-flow Carnot cycle with water as the working fluid. The maximum and minimum temperatures in the cycle are 327 and 27
degree Celsius. Determine the thermal efficiency.
a. 0.7
b. 0.4
c. 0.5
d. 0.6

Question 18
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one is not refrigeration cycle?
a. Brayton cycle
b. Ideal vapor compression refrigeration cycle
c. Reversed Carnot cycle
d. Reversed Brayton cycle
The correct answer is: Brayton cycle
Question 19
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Consider a gas mixture that consists of 3 kg of O2, 5 kg of N2, and 2 kg of CH4. Determine the mass fraction of O2.
a. 0.5
b. 1.0
c. 0.3
d. 0.2
Question 20
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A rigid tank contains 10 kg of water at 90 degree Celsius. If 8 kg of the water is in the liquid form and the rest is in the vapor form, determine
the quality of the mixture.
a. 1.25
b. 0.2
c. 0.8
d. 1.0

Question 21
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
At pressures below the triple point value the process of passing from the solid phase directly into the vapor phase is called________________.
a. Sublimation
b. Triple point
c. Phase change
d. Melting
The correct answer is: Sublimation
Question 22
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
______the temperature at which condensation begins when the air is cooled at constant pressure.
a. Dew point temperature
b. Adiabatic saturation temperature
c. Dry bulb temperature
d. Web bulb temperature
The correct answer is: Dew point temperature
Question 23
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which term is related with the transfer of heat from a lower temperature region to a higher temperature one?
a. Work engine
b. Heat engine
c. Thermal engine
d. Refrigeration
The correct answer is: Refrigeration

Question 24
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
________the energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one degree.
a. Specific volume
b. Specific enthalpy
c. Specific work
d. Specific heat
The correct answer is: Specific heat
Question 25
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is microscopic forms of energy>
a. Internal energy
b. Potential energy
c. Kinetic energy
d. Mechanical energy
The correct answer is: Internal energy
Question 26
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The amount of energy absorbed or released during a phase-change process is called_________________.
a. Heat energy
b. Latent heat
c. Thermal energy
d. Work energy
The correct answer is: Latent heat

Question 27
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is true about the increase of entropy principle?
a. Sgen = 0, for irreversible process
b. Sgen = 0, for reversible process
c. Sgen = 0, for impossible process
d. None
The correct answer is: Sgen = 0, for reversible process
Question 28
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
__________is the form of energy that is transferred between two systems (or a system and its surroundings) by virtue of a temperature
difference.
a. Heat
b. Work
c. Mass
d. Temperature
The correct answer is: Heat
Question 29
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Atmospheric pressure is measured by a device called a_____________.
a. Thermometer
b. Manometer
c. Barometer
d. U-tube
The correct answer is: Barometer

Question 30
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following quantities is used to describe the amount of moisture the air holds relative to the maximum amount of moisture
the air can hold at the same temperature?
a. Specific humidity
b. Absolute humidity
c. Humidity ratio
d. Relative humidity
The correct answer is: Relative humidity
Question 31
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Energy can cross the boundary of a closed system in the form of ____________.
a. Work or Mass
b. Heat or Work or Mass
c. Heat or Work
d. Heat or Mass
The correct answer is: Heat or Work
Question 32
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A process during which there is no heat transfer is called________________.
a. Isothermal process
b. Isochoric process
c. Adiabatic process
d. Isobaric process
The correct answer is: Adiabatic process

Question 33
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The buoyant force for a floating body passes through the:
a. centroid of volume of the body
b. meta-center of body
c. centroid of displaced volume
d. center of gravity of the body
The correct answer is: centroid of displaced volume
Question 34
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is hydrostatic pressure distribution?
a. The distribution of temperature in a fluid in motion.
b. The distribution of pressure in a fluid in motion.
c. The distribution of temperature in a fluid at rest.
d. The distribution of pressure in a fluid at rest.
The correct answer is: The distribution of pressure in a fluid at rest.
Question 35
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is the best definition of density?
a. The mass of an object per unit volume
b. The weight of an object per unit volume
c. The force of an object per unit volume
d. The volume of an object per unit mass
The correct answer is: The mass of an object per unit volume
Question 36
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a characteristic of irrotational flow?
a. The fluid particles do not rotate about their own axis.
b. The flow is steady, with the velocity at any point remaining constant over time.
c. The flow is uniform, with the velocity at any point being the same in all directions.
d. The fluid particles rotate about their own axis.
The correct answer is: The fluid particles do not rotate about their own axis.
Question 37
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the unit of specific volume?
a. None of the above
Question 38
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a true statement about streamlines?
a. Streamlines never cross each other
b. Streamlines are smooth curves that follow the path of fluid particles.
c. All of the above.
d. Streamlines are tangent to the velocity vector at every point.
The correct answer is: All of the above.

Question 39
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the Bernoulli principle?
a. The pressure of a fluid decreases as its velocity increases.
b. The pressure of a fluid is inversely proportional to its velocity.
c. The pressure of a fluid is constant regardless of its velocity.
d. The pressure of a fluid increases as its velocity decreases.
The correct answer is: The pressure of a fluid decreases as its velocity increases.
Question 40
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is the best definition of vacuum pressure?
b. The pressure of a gas above atmospheric pressure
c. The pressure of a gas in a vacuum
d. The pressure of a gas below atmospheric pressure
The correct answer is: The pressure of a gas below atmospheric pressure
Question 41
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is the total acceleration of a fluid particle?
a. The sum of the convective acceleration and the local acceleration.
b. The sum of the pressure gradient and the shear stress.
c. The sum of static pressure and dynamic pressure
d. The sum of the gravity force and the viscous force.
The correct answer is: The sum of the convective acceleration and the local acceleration.
Question 42
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a vortex flow?
a. A flow in which the fluid particles move in a circular path.
b. A flow in which the fluid particles move in a random manner.
c. A flow in which the fluid particles move in a wavy manner.
d. A flow in which the fluid particles move in a straight line.
The correct answer is: A flow in which the fluid particles move in a circular path.
Question 43
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a characteristic of steady flow?
a. The fluid particles move in a random, chaotic manner.
b. The fluid particles move in smooth, parallel layers.
d. The flow is steady, with the velocity at any point remaining constant over time.
The correct answer is: The flow is steady, with the velocity at any point remaining constant over time.
Question 44
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is the definition of dynamic viscosity?
a. The force required to move a unit area of fluid parallel to a second unit area of fluid a unit distance apart in a unit time.
b. The ratio of the dynamic viscosity to the density of the fluid.
c. The time it takes for a known amount of fluid to flow a given distance.
d. The ratio of the shear stress to the shear rate.
The correct answer is: The force required to move a unit area of fluid parallel to a second unit area of fluid a unit distance apart in a unit time.
Question 45
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is the main difference between a simple manometer and a differential manometer?
a. A simple manometer uses a single leg, while a differential manometer uses two legs.
b. A simple manometer is less expensive than a differential manometer.
c. A simple manometer measures the pressure of a single point, while a differential manometer measures the pressure difference
between two points.
d. A simple manometer is more accurate than a differential manometer.
The correct answer is: A simple manometer measures the pressure of a single point, while a differential manometer measures the pressure
difference between two points.
Question 46
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is the best definition of dynamic viscosity?
a. The resistance of a fluid to flow
b. The ease with which a fluid flow
c. The velocity of a fluid
d. The force required to move a fluid
The correct answer is: The resistance of a fluid to flow
Question 47
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is the definition of kinematic viscosity?
a. The ratio of the dynamic viscosity to the density of the fluid.
b. The time it takes for a known amount of fluid to flow a given distance.
c. The ratio of the shear stress to the shear rate.
d. The force required to move a unit area of fluid parallel to a second unit area of fluid a unit distance apart in a unit time.
The correct answer is: The ratio of the dynamic viscosity to the density of the fluid.
Question 48
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a characteristic of laminar flow?
a. The flow is steady, with the velocity at any point remaining constant over time.
b. The fluid particles move in smooth, parallel layers.
d. The fluid particles move in a random, chaotic manner.
The correct answer is: The fluid particles move in smooth, parallel layers.
Question 49
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is the best definition of kinematic viscosity?
a. The velocity of a fluid
b. The force required to move a fluid
c. The ease with which a fluid flow
d. The resistance of a fluid to flow
The correct answer is: The ease with which a fluid flow
Question 50
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is the stream function?
a. A function that gives the temperature of a fluid.
b. A function that gives the velocity of a fluid.
c. A function that gives the velocity potential of a fluid
d. A function that gives the pressure of a fluid.
The correct answer is: A function that gives the velocity of a fluid.
Question 51
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The process of breaking up or a liquid into fine droplets by spraying is called as ________________.
a. Ionization
b. Atomization
c. Carburetion
d. Injection
The correct answer is: Atomization
Question 52
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In which is more viscous lubrication oil,________________.
a. SAE 80
b. SAE 70
c. SAE 40
d. SAE 50
The correct answer is: SAE 80
Question 53
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Combustion in compression ignition engines is________________.
a. Homogeneous
b. Heterogeneous
c. Laminar
d. Both A and B
The correct answer is: Heterogeneous

Question 54
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is known as________________.
a. Pre-ignition
b. Turbulence
c. Supercharging
d. Scavenging
The correct answer is: Supercharging
Question 55
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The ratio of indicated work done to the energy supplied by the fuel is called as _____.
a. Mechanical efficiency
b. Overall efficiency
c. Volumetric efficiency
d. Thermal Efficiency
The correct answer is: Thermal Efficiency
Question 56
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Black smoke appears in the exhaust due to ____________.
a. Incomplete combustion
b. High load operation
c. combustion of lubrication oil
The correct answer is: High load operation

Question 57
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The three way catalytic converter cannot control which one of the following? ________________ .
a. PM
b. NOx
c. CO
d. HC
The correct answer is: PM
Question 58
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following number of ________________ revolutions of crankshaft.
a. 2
b. 1/2
c. 4
d. 1
Question 59
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The presence of nitrogen in the products of combustion ensures that: ________________.
a. Air is used for the combustion
b. Complete combustion of fuel takes place
c. Dry products of combustion are analyzed
d. Incomplete combustion of fuel occurs
The correct answer is: Air is used for the combustion

Question 60
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A type of plant layout useful when the production process is in a continuous or repetitive way.
a. Product or line layout
b. Process or functional layout
c. Cellular layout
d. Fixed position or location layout
The correct answer is: Product or line layout
Question 61
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
--------- is the time that elapses between issuing replenishment order and receiving the material in stores.
b. Idle-time
c. Lead time
d. Replenishment time
The correct answer is: Lead time
Question 62
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is based on lead time required to obtain the materials.
a. VED Analysis
b. FSN Analysis
c. HML Analysis
d. SDE Analysis
The correct answer is: VED Analysis

Question 63
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following factors are not internal affect productivity improvement.
a. Poor maintenance system
b. Infrastructure supports
c. Insufficient plant layout
d. Unhealthy working environment
The correct answer is: Infrastructure supports
Question 64
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
If an activity has multiple immediate predecessors, its earliest start (ES) is ------------.
a. Minimum latest starting of all immediately following activities
b. The maximum of all the earliest finishing values of its predecessors
c. Earliest starting (ES) + activity time
The correct answer is: The maximum of all the earliest finishing values of its predecessors
Question 65
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which range of forecasting time horizon, that used to forecast facility expansion and relocation.
a. Long range forecast
b. Short range forecast
c. A &B
d. medium range forecast
The correct answer is: Long range forecast

Question 66
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Is the process of measuring, evaluating and monitoring the current activities how an organization has achieved its goals and to take any
corrective actions needed to improve performance.
a. Organizing
b. Directing
c. Controlling
d. Staffing
The correct answer is: Controlling
Question 67
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is not true about Economic order quantity and inventory.
a. Carrying cost are linearly related to order size
b. Average inventory level and number of orders per year are inversely related.
c. Ordering cost are non-linearly related to order size
d. None
The correct answer is: None
Question 68
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A machine costs of 1,000,000 birr, it produces items that generate a profit of 10 birr each on a production run of 50,000 units per year. What
is the payback periods.
a. 2 years
b. 4 years
c. 1 years
d. 3 years
The correct answer is: 2 years

Question 69
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following statements are not true.
a. When the project time is reduced, the direct cost increases.
b. When the project time is reduced, the indirect cost decreases.
c. None
d. When the project time is reduced, the direct cost decreases.
The correct answer is: When the project time is reduced, the direct cost decreases.
Question 70
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which type of organizational structure are temporary organizational structures formed for specific projects for a specific period of time and
are dismantled, once the required goal is achieved.
a. Functional
b. Line &Staff
c. Line
d. Matrix
The correct answer is: Matrix
Question 71
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which type of organizational structure is difficult control because, there are no clear lines of authority and responsibility.
a. Line
b. Line & Staff
c. Functional
d. Matrix
The correct answer is: Functional

Question 72
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is not investment appraisal techniques.
a. Accounting Rate of Return
b. Economy ordering quantity model
c. Profitability index
d. Payback period
The correct answer is: Economy ordering quantity model
Question 73
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
-----------is a stock of materials used to facilitate production or to satisfy customer demands. It includes raw-materials, work-in-progress and
finished goods.
a. purchasing
b. Inventory
c. none
d. Martials
The correct answer is: Inventory
Question 74
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following statements is not true about productivity.
a. Productivity is the efficient utilization of resources in producing goods/services.
b. Higher productivity means to produce more with a minimum increase in expense
c. Increase in production does necessarily by itself indicate increase in productivity.
d. Higher productivity means to produce more with the same expenditure
The correct answer is: Increase in production does necessarily by itself indicate increase in productivity.
Question 75
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following are not the principle of good plant layout.
a. Principle of safety and satisfaction
b. Principle of integration
c. Principle of minimum distance
d. None
Question 76
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The primary goal of the plant layout is to minimize the profit by the arrangement of all the industrial facilities to the best advantage of total
manufacturing of the product.
a. True
b. False
Question 77
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is the source of supplies.
a. SO-S Analysis
b. GOLF Analysis
c. SDE Analysis
d. VED Analysis
The correct answer is: GOLF Analysis

Question 78
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the are not true about the importance of forecasting.
a. For finance and accounting
b. for marketing
c. None
d. For long range planning
Question 79
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
---------Is concerned with reducing, controlling, and eliminating hazards from the organizational unit.
a. Inventory
b. Ergonomics
c. plant layout
d. Industrial safety
The correct answer is: Industrial safety
Question 80
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Is the process of motivating, guiding, and supervising subordinates towards company objectives.
a. Controlling
b. Directing
c. Staffing
d. Organizing
The correct answer is: Directing

Question 81
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
If an activity has only a single immediate predecessor, its earliest start (ES) equals the earliest finish (EF) of the predecessor.
a. False
b. True
Question 82
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is based on frequently pattern of items.
a. VED Analysis
b. ABC Analysis
c. FSN Analysis
d. SDE Analysis
The correct answer is: FSN Analysis
Question 83
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A type of plant layout that is useful when the production process is organized in batches.
a. Process or functional layout
b. Fixed position or location layout
c. Cellular layout
d. Product or line layout
The correct answer is: Process or functional layout

Question 84
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are the supplier sourcing.
a. Single sourcing
b. Sole sourcing
c. All
d. Multiple sourcing
Question 85
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
--------- is the task of buying goods of the right quality in the right quantities, at the right time, and with the right price.
b. Purchasing
c. Scrutinizing
d. Supplying
The correct answer is: Purchasing
Question 86
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is false for inventory control?
a. Inventory carrying costs increases with an increasing quantity per order
b. Inventory carrying costs decrease with an increasing quantity per order
c. Economic order quantity has a minimum total cost per order
d. Ordering cost decreases with an increasing quantity per order
The correct answer is: Inventory carrying costs decrease with an increasing quantity per order
Question 87
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is based on annual consumption value/items on the basis of their
usage.
a. FSN Analysis
b. VED Analysis
c. ABC Analysis
d. HML Analysis
The correct answer is: ABC Analysis
Question 88
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
One of the following is not the characteristics of management.
a. Management is goal oriented
b. Management is individual activity
c. Management is ongoing processes
d. Management is universal
The correct answer is: Management is individual activity
Question 89
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A type of layout that combines the resources necessary to manufacture a good or deliver a service, in one physical location.
a. Combined layout
b. Fixed position/project layout
c. Process layout
d. Product layout
The correct answer is: Fixed position/project layout

Question 90
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
-------------- is a type of operation in the network that neither requires any time nor any resources.
a. Successor activity
b. Predecessor activity
c. Critical activities
d. Dummy activities
The correct answer is: Dummy activities
Question 91
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Slack time is ---------------.
a. LF-ES/ES-LE
b. LF-EF/LS-ES
c. LS-EF/ EF-LS
d. ES-EF/EF-ES
The correct answer is: LF-EF/LS-ES
Question 92
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A type of forecast they predict the company's products and estimate consumer request.
a. Demand forecasts
b. Technological forecasts
c. Supply forecasts
d. Economic forecasts
The correct answer is: Demand forecasts

Question 93
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
----------is a method for shortening the project duration by reducing the time of one or more of the critical project activities to a time that is
less than the normal activity time.
a. Crash cost
b. Crash time
c. Project crashing
d. Project risk
The correct answer is: Project crashing
Question 94
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
One of the following is the function of forecasting.
a. Forecasting staff needs
b. All
c. Forecasting economic trend
d. Forecasting sales
Question 95
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Is the arrangement of industrial facilities such as personnel, operating equipment, storage space, materials handling equipment and all other
supporting services.
a. Plant location
b. Ergonomics
c. Organization
d. Plant layout
The correct answer is: Plant layout

Question 96
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is the nature of supplies.
a. SDE Analysis
b. GOLF Analysis
c. VED Analysis
d. SO-S Analysis
The correct answer is: SO-S Analysis
Question 97
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
If you are a mechanical engineer, which one of the following factors to be considered in design plant Layout.
a. Hazards
b. Type of layout
c. Type of Production
d. All
Question 98
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
If an activity is an immediate predecessor for just a single activity, the Latest finishing (LF) equals the latest starting (LS) of the activity that
immediately follows it.
a. False
b. True

Question 99
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is true about forecasting.
a. Forecasts are more accurate for groups
b. Forecast accuracy increases as time horizon decreases
c. All
d. Forecasts are not perfect
Question 100
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
--------- is a methodology for converting a large-scale project into detailed schedules for its thousands of activities for planning, scheduling
and controlling purpose.
a. Network Scheduling
b. Milestone Charts
c. Work Breakdown Structure
d. Bar Charts
The correct answer is: Work Breakdown Structure
Question 101
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
-----------is the process of which planning, coordinates, supervises, controlling and carry out the tasks associated with the flow of materials; to,
through, and out of an organization in an integrated manner.
a. Inventory Management
b. Materials Management
c. Project Management
d. Resource Management
The correct answer is: Materials Management

Question 102
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is controllable factors of plant location.
a. Climatic conditions
b. Supply of raw material
c. Proximity to markets
d. B &C
The correct answer is: B &C
Question 103
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Is concerned with the achievement of optimal relationship between workers and their work environment.
a. Organization
b. Ergonomics
c. management
d. staff
The correct answer is: Ergonomics
Question 104
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following statements are not true
a. The probability of occurrence of risk events is lowest near the end of a project
b. The cost associated with risk events tends to be lowest near the beginning of a project
c. The cost associated with risk events tends to be highest near the beginning of a project
d. The probability of occurrence of risk events is highest near the beginning of a project
The correct answer is: The cost associated with risk events tends to be highest near the beginning of a project
Question 105
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is not true about Critical Path Method Technique.
a. Critical Path Method network is event-oriented
b. None
c. Critical Path Method network is activity-oriented
d. Critical Path Method is mostly used in deterministic situations.
The correct answer is: Critical Path Method network is event-oriented
Question 106
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The ratio of output response to a specified change in the input
a. Repeatability
b. Sensitivity
c. Accuracy
d. Readability
The correct answer is: Sensitivity
Question 107
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
RTD and Thermistors are _____ transducers.
a. Passive and analog
b. Active and digital
c. Active and analog
d. Passive and digital
The correct answer is: Passive and analog

Question 108
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A pressure indicator showed a reading as 42 bar on a scale range of 0 - 50 bar. If the true value was 41.4 bar, what is the value of static
error?
a. 1.62 bar
b. 1.45
c. 0.6 bar
d. 0.4 bar
The correct answer is: 0.6 bar
Question 109
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
For the above question number 8 what will be the value of percentage of relative error?
a. 0.4
b. 1.62
c. 0.6
d. 1.45
Question 110
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following can be measured using a Ring-type load cell?
a. None of the mentioned
b. Large weigh
c. Both large and small weights
d. Small weight
The correct answer is: Small weight

Question 111
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_________ Sensors translate movement into a change in the mutual inductance between magnetically coupled parts.
a. Capacitive
b. Inductive
c. Ultrasonic
d. Resistive
The correct answer is: Inductive
Question 112
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which statement is false about primary standard?
a. Are not available for use outside the national laboratories.
b. Have highest accuracy and very expensive to own.
c. All are false
d. Are used by the workers and technicians who actually carry out the measurements
The correct answer is: Are used by the workers and technicians who actually carry out the measurements
Question 113
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A device which is used to increase or augment the weak signal.
a. Transducer
b. Filter
c. Amplifier
d. Attenuator
The correct answer is: Amplifier

Question 114
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which frequency is attenuated in a Low-Pass filter?
a. High frequency
b. No frequency
c. Mid-Range frequency
d. Low frequency
The correct answer is: High frequency
Question 115
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Identify the transducer not used for the measurement of temperature.
a. Bourdon gage
b. Thermocouple
c. Pyrometer
d. Thermometer
The correct answer is: Bourdon gage
Question 116
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The following quantities are typically within the scope of mechanical measurements except
a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Flow
d. Current
The correct answer is: Current

Question 117
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following are not systematic error?
a. Observational errors
b. Random errors
c. Environmental errors
d. Instrumental errors
The correct answer is: Random errors
Question 118
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
One of the following is not an advantage of digital device
a. High speed
b. No need of calibration
c. Accuracy
d. Decrease of human error
The correct answer is: No need of calibration
Question 119
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following properties a capacitive type transducer measures?
a. All the above
b. Pressure
c. Temperature
d. Displacement
The correct answer is: All the above

Question 120
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is an analog transducer?
a. Limit switches
b. Digital tachometers
c. Strain gauge
d. Encoders
The correct answer is: Strain gauge
Question 121
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Indirect measurement involving one translation is called _______.
a. Primary measurement
b. Tertiary measurement
c. Secondary measurement
d. None
The correct answer is: Secondary measurement
Question 122
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is the input quantity provided to photoelectric type transducer?
a. Air
b. Sound
c. Pressure
d. Light
The correct answer is: Light

Question 123
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is fundamental quantity
a. Velocity
b. Pressure
c. All
d. Time
The correct answer is: Time
Question 124
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following device can be used for force measurement?
a. Bellows
b. Capsule
c. Beams
d. Bourdon tube
The correct answer is: Beams
Question 125
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The revision applied to the critical value so that the final result obtained improves the worth of the result is called ________.
a. Error
b. Actual value
c. Correction
d. Range
The correct answer is: Correction

Question 126
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
All are displacement sensor except
a. Strain-gauged element
b. Capacitive element
c. Piezoelectric
d. Potentiometer
The correct answer is: Piezoelectric
Question 127
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one is not the function of transducer in mechatronics?
a. To act as protective mechanism for a system
b. To make mechanically complex and expensive feeding and sorting devices
c. To provide identification and indication of the presence of different components
d. To produce force only in one direction by hydraulic/pneumatic pressure acting on the Piston.
The correct answer is: To make mechanically complex and expensive feeding and sorting devices
Question 128
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
___________ is a mechanical actuator that give change of speed in mechatronic system.
a. Motors
b. Belt
c. Valves
d. Gears
The correct answer is: Gears

Question 129
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Directional control valve is considered as
a. A and C
b. ON/OFF Control
c. Infinite Position
d. Finite Position
The correct answer is: A and C
Question 130
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The extent to which the measured value might be wrong and normally expressed in percentage is called
a. Accuracy
b. Error
c. Reproducibility
d. Sensitivity
The correct answer is: Accuracy
Question 131
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
An electronic component which is used as switching device
a. Transistor
b. Inductor
c. Resistor
d. Capacitor
The correct answer is: Capacitor

Question 132
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A device which is used to increase or augment the weak signal.
a. Transducer
b. Attenuator
c. Filter
d. Amplifier
The correct answer is: Transducer
Question 133
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_________ is a motor that produces rotation through equal angles for each digital pulse supplied to its input.
a. Stepper motor
b. DC motor
c. Servo motor
d. Ac motor
The correct answer is: Servo motor
Question 134
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
_________sensors rely on variation of the resistance of a material when the measured variable is applied to it.
a. Ultrasonic
b. Capacitive
c. Inductive
d. Resistive
The correct answer is: Resistive

Question 135
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
An input condition that is open when de-energized describes
a. Normally closed
b. Normally open
c. Output
d. Negated Output
The correct answer is: Normally closed
Question 136
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A filter that has a pass band which allows all frequencies from zero up to some frequency to be transmitted.
a. Band stop filter
b. Low pass filter
c. High pass filter
d. Band pass filter
The correct answer is: Low pass filter
Question 137
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
One of the following is not the function of sequencing
a. Timing
b. Logic
c. Sequencing
d. None

Question 138
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following elements of control systems is responsible for transforming the output of a microprocessor/microcontroller into a
controlling action on a machine?
a. System
b. Actuator
c. Controller
d. Sensor
The correct answer is: Actuator
Question 139
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A combination of components which are coordinated together to perform a specific objective.
a. System
b. Mechatronics
c. All
d. Modeling
The correct answer is: System
Question 140
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The Wheatstone bridge can be used to convert
a. Current change to a resistance change
b. Voltage changes to a current change
c. Voltage changes to a resistance change
d. Resistance changes to a voltage change
The correct answer is: Resistance changes to a voltage change

Question 141
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
One of the following is different from the others
a. Brushed DC Motor
b. Relays
c. Transistors
d. Diodes
The correct answer is: Brushed DC Motor
Question 142
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The ability of transducer to give the same output when used to measure a constant input over a period of time is called __________
a. Stability
b. Sensitivity
c. Reproducibility
d. Repeatability
The correct answer is: Stability
Question 143
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is velocity sensor?
a. Tach generator
b. Potentiometer
c. Orifice plate
d. Strain gage
The correct answer is: Potentiometer

Question 144
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The term PLC stands for:
a. Personal logic controller
b. Personal logic computer
c. Programmable logic controller.
d. Programmable local computer.
The correct answer is: Programmable logic controller.
Question 145
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Produce force only in one direction by hydraulic/pneumatic pressure acting on the piston
a. Double acting cylinder
b. Directional control valve
c. All
d. Single acting cylinder
The correct answer is: Single acting cylinder
Question 146
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is not true about gears?
a. Transmit large power
b. Positive drive
c. Constant velocity ratio
d. Bulky construction
The correct answer is: Bulky construction

Question 147
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The phenomenon of decreased resistance of the materials to fluctuating stresses is the main characteristic of _____ failure.
a. Fatigue
b. None of the mentioned
c. Fracture
d. Yielding
The correct answer is: Fatigue
Question 148
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following can be used for power transmission in intersecting shafts?
a. Spur Gear
b. Bevel Gear
c. Helical Gear
d. None of the listed
The correct answer is: Bevel Gear
Question 149
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The phenomenon of decreased resistance of the materials to fluctuating stresses is the main characteristic of _____ failure.
a.
None
b. Fracture
c. Fatigue
d. Yielding
The correct answer is: Fatigue

Question 150
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is not a type of welding joint?
a. Tee joint
b. Butt joint
c. Single strap joint
d. Lap joint
The correct answer is: Single strap joint
Question 151
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
If driving gear rotates ACW, driven gear will rotate in which direction?
a. CW
b. Both CW and ACW
c. ACW
The correct answer is: ACW
Question 152
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In which of the following case stress concentration factor is ignored?
a. Ductile material under fluctuating load
b. Brittle material under +static load
c. Brittle material under fluctuating load
d. Ductile material under static load
The correct answer is: Ductile material under static load

Question 153
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one are not methods of reducing stress concentration?
a. None
b. Use of multiple holes instead of single hole
c. Providing fillets.
d. Avoiding sharp corners.
Question 154
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Find the mean coil diameter of a helical compression sprig if a load of 1200N is applied on the spring. Spring index is 6, and wire diameter
7mm.
a. 42mm
b. None of the listed
c. 7/6mm
The correct answer is: 42mm
Question 155
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following are a measure of stiffness?
a. Toughness
b. Modulus of plasticity
c. Resilience
d. Modulus of elasticity
The correct answer is: Modulus of elasticity

Question 156
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A_______ bearing supports the load acting along the axis of the shaft.
a. Thrust
b. Transversal
c. Radial
d. Longitudinal
The correct answer is: Thrust
Question 157
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
If the spring is compressed completely and the adjacent coils touch each other, the length of spring is called as?
a. Solid length
b. Free length
c. Compressed length
d. None of the mentioned
The correct answer is: Solid length
Question 158
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
An unfired pressure vessel is used to carry stem, gases or fluids at pressure.
a. Greater than atmospheric pressure
c. Equal to atmospheric pressure
d. Less than atmospheric pressure
The correct answer is: Greater than atmospheric pressure

Question 159
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Use of multiple notches in a V shaped flat plate will
a. Reduce the stress concentration
b. Cannot be determined
c. Increase the stress concentration
d. No effect
The correct answer is: Reduce the stress concentration
Question 160
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is not a type of sunk key?
a. Hollow saddle key
b. Gib headed key
c. Woodruff key
d. Square key
The correct answer is: Hollow saddle key
Question 161
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is not the function of a spring?
a. They are used to measure displacement
b. They are used for the measurement of force and to control motion
c. They are used to store energy
d. They are used to absorb shocks and vibrations
The correct answer is: They are used to measure displacement

Question 162
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Modulus of resilience is defined as
a. Strain energy per unit volume
c. Strain energy per unit area
d. Independent of strain energy
The correct answer is: Strain energy per unit volume
Question 163
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Longitudinal stress in a cylinder is given by [symbols have their usual meanings].
a. 4PD/t
b. PD/4t
c. PD/2t
d. 2PD/t
The correct answer is: PD/4t
Question 164
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The shaft is always stepped with ________ diameter at the middle portion and __________ diameter at the shaft ends.
a. Minimum, minimum
b. Zero, infinity
c. Maximum, minimum
d. Minimum, maximum
The correct answer is: Maximum, minimum

Question 165
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following act on shafts?
a. Bending Moment
c. Both torsional and bending
d. Torsional moment
The correct answer is: Both torsional and bending
Question 166
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The damage in sliding bearings is the result of:
a. None
b. Wear plus Fatigue
c. Fatigue
d. Wear
The correct answer is: Wear plus Fatigue
Question 167
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
One of the following reinforcement and anchoring approaches provides relatively a more rigid support.
a. Leveling Screws
b. Anchor Bolts and Shims
c. All
d. Leveling Wedges
The correct answer is: Leveling Wedges

Question 168
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is the first most important aspect of reliability?
a. Design
b. All
c. Transportation
d. Production
The correct answer is: Design
Question 169
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following are the commonly measure of availability.
a. Operational Availability
b. Inherent Availability
c. Achieved Availability
d. All
Question 170
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are the general-purpose monitoring techniques?
a. Vibration/noise monitoring
b. Thermal monitoring
c. Lubricant monitoring
d. All

Question 171
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are the defects rolling bearing?
a. Miss-alignment
b. Bearing running dry
c. All
d. Bearing inner race loose on shaft
Question 172
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
-------are a type of decisions that have been encountered and made in the past.
a. Programmed decisions
b. None
c. Non programmed decisions
d. Associative choices
The correct answer is: Programmed decisions
Question 173
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the primary goal of improving availability?
a. To reduce the number of repairs needed
b. To reduce maintenance costs
c. To increase the number of spare parts available
d. To increase the utilization of the equipment or system
The correct answer is: To increase the utilization of the equipment or system
Question 174
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
-------- Is the process by which jobs are matched with resources and sequenced to be executed at a certain point in time?
a. Planning
b. Scheduling
c. Staffing
d. Networking
The correct answer is: Scheduling
Question 175
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is not the benefit of predictive type of maintenance
a. Longer machine life
b. Low maintenance cost
c. Low production
d. Less machine failure
The correct answer is: Low production
Question 176
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
-----------is the measuring technique of the state of damage that determines the difference between the initial state and the state after wear
process.
a. Related measurement
b. Direct measured
c. Indirect measured
d. Absolute measurement
The correct answer is: Direct measured

Question 177
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Damage is classified as:
a. Fatigue
b. Wear
c. All
d. Corrosion
Question 178
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a common metric used to measure maintainability?
a. Overall Equipment Effectiveness (OEE)
b. None of the above
c. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)
d. Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)
The correct answer is: Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)
Question 179
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is NOT a step in the maintenance planning process?
a. Conducting maintenance activities
b. Identifying maintenance needs
c. Developing a maintenance schedule
d. Assigning maintenance personnel
The correct answer is: Developing a maintenance schedule

Question 180
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
--------Is the probability that an item/equipment or system will perform its intended function for a stated period of time under specified
operating conditions?
a. None
b. Reliability
c. Maintainability
d. Availability
The correct answer is: Reliability
Question 181
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What would happen, if equipment possesses reliability and maintainability to the maximum extent in accordance to MTTR?
a. Failure rate is higher and downtime is shorter
b. Failure rate is lower and downtime is longer
c. Failure rate is higher and downtime is longer
d. Failure rate is lower and downtime is shorter
The correct answer is: Failure rate is lower and downtime is shorter
Question 182
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a common tool used in maintenance engineering?
a. All of the above
b. Root Cause Analysis (RCA)
c. Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA
d. Pareto Analysis
The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 183
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is the first most important aspect of reliability?
a. Production
b. Design
c. All
d. Transportation
The correct answer is: Design
Question 184
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a common type of vibration sensor?
a. Thermocouple
b. Microphone
c. Pressure transducer
d. Accelerometer
The correct answer is: Accelerometer
Question 185
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is maintenance technology?
a. The tools and techniques used to support maintenance activities
b. The process of scheduling maintenance activities
c. The process of measuring the effectiveness of maintenance activities
d. The process of performing maintenance on equipment or systems
The correct answer is: The tools and techniques used to support maintenance activities
Question 186
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Due to damages, bearings will either gets:
a. Vibration
b. Heated up
c. Abnormal noise
d. All
Question 187
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
As a product has more components, what will be the reliability?
a. The reliability is increase.
b. All
c. The reliability is constant
d. The reliability is decrease
The correct answer is: The reliability is decrease
Question 188
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The __________goes on increasing with the increase in degree of maintenance efforts.
a. Cost of down time
b. Cost of spares and maintenance
c. All of the above
d. Labor and overhead cost
The correct answer is: Labor and overhead cost

Question 189
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is NOT a goal of spares provisioning?
a. Reducing inventory costs
b. Minimizing downtime
c. Ensuring availability of necessary spare parts
d. Maximizing repair costs
The correct answer is: Maximizing repair costs
Question 190
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The following are the most commonly used inventory analyses except one.
a. HML
b. VED
c. SDE
d. FSM
The correct answer is: FSM
Question 191
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
----------is defined as an identifiable physical condition which indicates that a functional failure is either about to occur or it is in the process of
occurring.
a. Chemical failure
b. functional failure
c. Potential failure
d. Physical failure
The correct answer is: Potential failure

Question 192
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are not true about wear-out phase in hazard rate curves?
a. hazard rate is increases
b. End of life failure
c. Weibull distributions B= 1
The correct answer is: Weibull distributions B= 1
Question 193
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
--------- are a type of decision-making environments, it has more than one states of nature exist but lacks sufficient knowledge and insufficient
information to know the consequences of different actions.
a. Decision Making under Conditions of Certainty
b. Decision Making under Conditions of Risk
c. None
d. Decision Making under Conditions of Uncertainty
The correct answer is: Decision Making under Conditions of Uncertainty
Question 194
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are the objectives of spare parts managements?
a. Maximizing spare parts availability,
b. Minimizing the economic costs.
c. All
d. Minimize environmental costs

Question 195
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Failures are resulting from:
a. material or information input
b. All
c. within the operation
d. customer actions
Question 196
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a technique used to monitor the condition of rotating machinery?
a. Acoustic emission testing
b. Oil analysis
c. Thermography
d. Vibration analysis
The correct answer is: Vibration analysis
Question 197
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are the causes of equipment breakdown?
a. Unsound foundation
b. Too high or too low voltage supply
c. Lack of lubrication
d. All

Question 198
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
MTTR is estimated to:
a. Determine work maintenance
b. Determine the actual repair work required
c. Calculate labor cost
d. Estimate the time required in marketing
The correct answer is: Determine the actual repair work required
Question 199
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
How much of the annual steel production is lost due to corrosion.
a. 5%
b. 3%
c. 15%
d. 10%
The correct answer is: 5%
Question 200
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are the causes of shaft failure?
a. Fatigue
b. Misalignment
c. Wear
d. All

Question 201
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are true about P-F interval?
a. The failure development period.
b. All
c. warning period
d. lead time to failure
Question 202
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
For the successful spare parts management, it is essential to analyze the spare parts inventory based on:
a. All
b. Annual consumption value
c. Criticality
d. Frequency of issues
Question 203
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In which generation, the maintenance was restricted to fixing the components when it breaks because it was the cheapest alternative.
a. Third Generation
b. First generation
c. Second Generation
d. Fourth generation
The correct answer is: First generation

Question 204
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
On-condition tasks are carried out at
a. A and C
b. greater than the P-F intervals
c. less than the P-F intervals
d. at the P-F intervals
The correct answer is: less than the P-F intervals
Question 205
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a technique used to monitor the condition of insulation in electrical equipment?
a. Thermography
b. Partial discharge testing
c. Acoustic emission testing
d. Oil analysis
The correct answer is: Thermography
Question 206
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are the objectives of accurate alignment?
a. Minimize the amount of wear
b. Minimize the amount of shaft bending
c. All
d. Reduce excessive axial and radial forces

Question 207
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is not a type of preventive maintenance?
a. Replacing broken parts
b. Calibration
c. Inspections
d. Lubrication
The correct answer is: Replacing broken parts
Question 208
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The state of damage of equipment is depends on:
a. condition of damage
b. All
c. Kind of damage
d. Duration of operation of equipment
Question 209
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following remedies are true for preventing shaft failures?
a. Wear of can be prevented by using proper lubrication
b. Misalignment can be eliminated by proper assembly procedures
c. All
d. Fatigue can be reduced by proper design of local areas

Question 210
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
------ is the probability that items or system can be retained in, or can be restored to operating condition in a specified amount of time.
a. None
b. Reliability
c. Availability
d. Maintainability
The correct answer is: Maintainability
Question 211
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
With the increase in preventive maintenance cost, breakdown maintenance cost
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains same
d. Any of the above
The correct answer is: Decreases
Question 212
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are true about maintenance planning?
a. Reduced maintenance cost
b. Improved utilization of the maintenance workforce
c. Improved quality of maintenance work
d. All

Question 213
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are maintenance schedule techniques?
a. Modified Gantt chart
b. PERT
c. All
d. CPM
Question 214
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Several findings show the reason why seals fail. How many percent does improper installation constitutes to the failure?
a. 22 percent
b. 12 percent
c. 26 percent
d. 15 percent
The correct answer is: 26 percent
Question 215
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are the basic elements of maintenance technology?
a. Repair.
b. Servicing
c. All
d. Operation

Question 216
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are true about the purpose of planned maintenance
a. To prevent the occurrence of breakdown
b. If breakdown has occurred then to restore it to original condition
c. If breakdown has occurred then discard the items
d. A and B
The correct answer is: A and B
Question 217
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a technique used to monitor the condition of bearings?
a. Partial discharge testing
b. Acoustic emission testing
c. Oil analysis
d. Thermography
The correct answer is: Oil analysis
Question 218
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
All but one is not the way of achieving a more reliability.
a. To have a series system
b. To have a parallel system
c. To have backup component
d. To have fewer number of components
The correct answer is: To have a series system

Question 219
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Is a set of activities that detect changes in the physical condition of equipment (signs of failure) in order to carry out the appropriate
maintenance work.
a. Reactive maintenance
b. Preventive maintenance
c. Breakdown maintenance
d. Predictive maintenance
The correct answer is: Predictive maintenance
Question 220
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The P-F curve shows all but not one
a. Where failure in the equipment starts to occur.
b. Where the equipment has failed indicating functional failure.
c. Where equipment condition deteriorates to the point at which the failure can be detected; and finally.
d. None
Question 221
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
This type of schedule allows 10% to 15% of the workforce to be available for emergency work.
a. Long-range
b. Daily
c. Medium-range
d. Weekly
The correct answer is: Weekly

Question 222
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when determining the appropriate level of spares provisioning?
a. The lead time required to obtain spare parts
b. The cost of the spare parts
c. The age of the equipment
d. The frequency of equipment failures
The correct answer is: The age of the equipment
Question 223
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are the category of Preventive Maintenance
a. Shut-down Maintenance
b. Design-out Maintenance
c. All
d. Running Maintenance
Question 224
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are true about the relationship between Weibull analysis and hazard rate?
a. When B less than 1, we get a decreasing hazard function
b. When B greater than 1, we get increasing hazard function.
c. All
d. When B = 1, the hazard function is constant

Question 225
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are the reconditioning steps?
a. All
b. Repair
c. Inspection
d. Overhaul
Question 226
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is not true about Proper machine installations?
a. Minimizing maintenance challenge
b. Maximize life cycle costs of production machinery
c. Maximize reliability
d. Maximize capacity utilization
The correct answer is: Maximize life cycle costs of production machinery
Question 227
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
All but one is not the way of achieving a good reliability.
a. To have backup components
b. To have a parallel system
c. To have a series system
d. To have fewer number of components
The correct answer is: To have a series system

Question 228
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A systematic approach for maintenance is?
a. This choice was deleted after the attempt was started.
Question 229
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are not maintenance objectives.
a. Minimizing production
b. Minimizing energy usage.
c. Reducing downtime.
d. Improving equipment efficiency
The correct answer is: Minimizing production
Question 230
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The cost of spare parts is more than ____ of the total maintenance cost in the industry.
a. 50%
b. 45
c. 60%
d. 55%

Question 231
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the life history curve of equipment?
a. A graph that shows the failure rate of equipment over time
b. A graph that shows the cost of equipment over time
c. A graph that shows the maintenance requirements of equipment over time
d. A graph that shows the performance of equipment over time
The correct answer is: A graph that shows the maintenance requirements of equipment over time
Question 232
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is NOT the advantage of standardization?
a. Improves in reliability
b. Increases maintenance time and cost
c. Eliminates the need for special components
The correct answer is: Increases maintenance time and cost
Question 233
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are true about objectives of planning and scheduling maintenance?
a. Maintaining the operating equipment at a responsive level in terms of delivery schedule and quality.
b. All
c. Minimizing the idle time of maintenance workers
d. Maximizing the efficient use of work time, material, and equipment

Question 234
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In designing the foundation for an alignment-critical machine, all factors are important except:
a. Foundation thickness
b. Different foundation block
c. Stiffness of a foundation
d. Local soil conditions
The correct answer is: Different foundation block
Question 235
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
----------Is a system that utilizes to collected data from the machinery in order to predict and prevent the potential failures?
a. Typical Maintenance System
b. Old Maintenance System
c. Normal Maintenance System
d. Intelligent Maintenance System
The correct answer is: Intelligent Maintenance System
Question 236
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
--------- are a type of decision-making environments, it has more than one states of nature exist but it has sufficient information to know the
consequences of different actions.
a. Decision Making under Conditions of Uncertainty
b. Decision Making under Conditions of Risk
c. Decision Making under Conditions of Certainty
d. None
The correct answer is: Decision Making under Conditions of Risk

Question 237
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the primary goal of improving maintainability?
a. To increase the utilization of the equipment or system
b. To reduce maintenance costs
c. To reduce the number of repairs needed
d. To reduce the time required to perform repairs
The correct answer is: To reduce the time required to perform repairs
Question 238
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is NOT a factor considered when determining spares provisioning levels?
a. Criticality of the equipment
b. Production capacity
c. Lead time
d. Consumption value
The correct answer is: Production capacity
Question 239
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are not true about debugging phase in hazard rate curves?
a. Infant mortality
b. Hazard rate is constant
c. Hazard rate is rapid decrease
The correct answer is: Hazard rate is constant

Question 240
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is an example of preventive maintenance?
a. Cleaning an air filter
b. Repairing a malfunctioning machine
c. Replacing a broken machine part
d. None of the above
The correct answer is: Cleaning an air filter
Question 241
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Maintenance schedule can be prepared at:
a. All
b. Weekly schedule
c. Long-range schedule
d. Daily schedule
Question 242
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a benefit of preventive maintenance?
a. Increased repair costs
b. Increased downtime
c. Increased equipment life
The correct answer is: Increased equipment life

Question 243
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Damage is influenced by:
a. conditions of use of equipment
b. environmental conditions
c. operational processes
d. All
Question 244
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is defined as average of the time taken in repair work?
a. Breakdown maintenance
b. Predictive maintenance
c. Preventive maintenance
d. Total productive maintenance
The correct answer is: Preventive maintenance
Question 245
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
----------are techniques of condition monitoring that mostly carried out without interruption of operation of the unit.
a. On-load monitoring techniques
b. Particle monitoring techniques
c. Dynamic monitoring techniques
d. Off-load monitoring techniques
The correct answer is: On-load monitoring techniques

Question 246
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a maintainable equipment or system?
a. High complexity
b. Standardized components and procedures
c. Diagnostic capabilities
d. Easy access to components that require maintenance
The correct answer is: High complexity
Question 247
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
---------- is done to keep an equipment or machinery in a satisfactory operating condition through regular inspection, calibration, lubrication or
replacement of certain components.
a. Corrective Maintenance
b. Preventive Maintenance
c. Running Maintenance
d. Predictive Maintenance
The correct answer is: Preventive Maintenance
Question 248
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
---------is the interval between the occurrence of a potential failure and its deterioration in to functional failure.
a. P-F interval
b. P-S interval
c. P-D interval
d. None
The correct answer is: P-F interval

Question 249
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The cost of spare parts is more than ____ of the total maintenance cost in the industry.
a. 50%
b. 45
c. 55%
d. 60%
Question 250
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are categories of condition monitoring techniques?
a. Temperature monitoring
b. Dynamic monitoring
c. All
d. Chemical monitoring
Question 251
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are true about maintenance scheduling?
a. Eliminates chances of sudden breakdown
b. Facilitates proper sequence in maintenance service
c. All
d. Facilitates optimum use of highly paid maintenance staff

Question 252
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
-------Is the determination of the technical state or state of damage of equipment?
a. None
b. Sampling techniques
c. Technical diagnostics
d. Maintenance technique
The correct answer is: Technical diagnostics
Question 253
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are not true about useful life phase in hazard rate curves?
a. None
b. Weibull distributions B = 1
c. the failures occur randomly manner
d. hazard rate is constant
The correct answer is:

None
Question 254
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following are the symptoms of misalignment?
a. Excessive amount of oil leakage at the bearing seals
b. All
c. High casing temperatures at or near the bearings
d. Loose foundation bolts

Question 255
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Most failures give some warning before they occur. This warning is------------
a. functional failure
b. Potential failure
c. Physical failure
d. Chemical failure
The correct answer is: Potential failure
Question 256
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The welder uses the ___ flame as the starting point for all other flame adjustments.
a. Oxidizing
b. Reducing
c. Neutral
d. None
The correct answer is: Neutral
Question 257
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following cutting conditions greatly affects the tool wear?
a. Cutting speed
b. Feed
c. None of the above is correct.
d. Depth of cut
The correct answer is: Cutting speed

Question 258
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Additive manufacturing uses much less material than other subtractive manufacturing processes.
a. true
b. false
The correct answer is: true
Question 259
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which motion is responsible to determine the geometry of jobs to be machined?
a. Relative motion between tool and work piece
b. Only Motion of tool
c. None of the mentioned
d. Only motion of work piece
The correct answer is: Relative motion between tool and work piece
Question 260
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Thermoplastics is an example of
a. Carbon and Graphic matrix composites
b. Ceramic matrix composites
c. Metal matrix composites
d. Polymer matrix composites
The correct answer is: Polymer matrix composites

Question 261
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
From the following which one falls under the trade name full mold process?
a. Slush casting
b. Semi-solid metal casting
c. Evaporative pattern casting
d. Squeeze casting
The correct answer is: Evaporative pattern casting
Question 262
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following methods is not used for producing metal powders?
a. Atomization
b. Compacting
c. Electrolysis
d. Machining and grinding
The correct answer is: Compacting
Question 263
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following processes start with a material that is in a fluid or semifluid state and solidifies the material in a cavity:
a. pressing
b. machining
c. casting
d. forging
The correct answer is: casting

Question 264
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which casting defect occurs due to excess moisture content in molding sand?
a. Porosity
b. Inclusion
c. Blow holes
d. Shrinkage
The correct answer is: Blow holes
Question 265
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following tools are generally manufactured by Powder metallurgy?
a. Cemented carbides
b. High carbon steel
c. Abrasives
d. Low carbon steel
The correct answer is: Cemented carbides
Question 266
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Friction at the tool-chip interface can be reduced by
a. Increasing the depth of cut
b. Increasing the cutting speed
c. Decreasing the rake angle
d. Decreasing the cutting speed
The correct answer is: Increasing the cutting speed

Question 267
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the cause of pinhole defects in casting?
a. Metal starts freezing before reaching the farthest point in the cavity
b. Entrapped spherical shaped bubbles
c. Metal starts freezing before reaching the center of the casting for a casting with two gates at its two sides
d. Tiny blow holes occurring either at or just below the casting surface.
The correct answer is: Tiny blow holes occurring either at or just below the casting surface.
Question 268
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Gas hole defect is the result of:
a. Metal starts freezing before reaching the center of the casting for a casting with two gates at its two sides
b. Entrapped spherical shaped bubbles
c. Tiny blow holes occurring either at or just below the casting surface
d. Metal starts freezing before reaching the farthest point in the cavity
The correct answer is: Entrapped spherical shaped bubbles
Question 269
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the type of centrifugal casting methods is used to produce?
a. Centrifuge casting
b. True centrifugal casting
c. Semi centrifugal casting
d. None centrifugal casting
The correct answer is: None centrifugal casting

Question 270
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Fused deposition modeling is a layer AM process that uses a _______________filament by fused deposition.
a. Thermoplastic
b. Polylactic
c. Thermoelastic
d. None
The correct answer is: Thermoplastic
Question 271
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In which one of the following ionized gas are used to cut metal sheet?
a. Electron beam machining
b. Ultrasonic machining
c. Laser beam machining
d. Plasma arc machining
The correct answer is: Plasma arc machining
Question 272
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Cold working of a metals increase
a. yield strength
b. hardness
c. tensile strength
d. all of these
The correct answer is: all of these

Question 273
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following processes does NOT use laser?
a. SLA
b. SLS
c. FDM
d. LOM
The correct answer is: FDM
Question 274
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following statement is correct for orthogonal cutting system?
a. All of the above
b. The cutting edge clears the width of the workpiece on either ends
c. The chip flows over the tool face and the direction of the chip flow velocity is normal to the cutting edge
d. The cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
Question 275
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
3D printing technology is expanding and is now able to print metal parts.
a. True
b. False

Question 276
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the following properties of nozzle, which of them does not influence the MRR in AJM?
a. Outside temperature
b. Wear
c. Distance from work piece
d. Size
The correct answer is: Outside temperature
Question 277
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In plasma arc welding the gas is?
a. Ionized
b. Vaporized
c. Magnetized
d. Heated
The correct answer is: Ionized
Question 278
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the function of flux in submerged arc welding?
a. To prevent sticking of molten metal
b. To completely cover the welded zone
c. To prevent spattering of molten metal
d. To prevent oxidation of joint
The correct answer is: To prevent sticking of molten metal

Question 279
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which type of sand is used in shell molding?
a. Black sand
b. Dry and fine sand
c. Any of the sand
d. Wet and fine sand
The correct answer is: Dry and fine sand
Question 280
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Crater wear leads to
a. Increase in cutting temperature
b. All of these
c. Weakening of tool
d. Friction and cutting forces
The correct answer is: All of these
Question 281
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the orthogonal cutting of metals _________
a. all of the mentioned
b. the cutting edge is wider than the depth of cut
c. the cutting forces occur in one direction only
d. the cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
The correct answer is: the cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
Question 282
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
By increasing cutting speed, amount of heat generated
a. None of the mentioned
b. Remains constant
c. Increases
d. Decreases
The correct answer is: Increases
Question 283
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In which of the following gas welding process a non-consumable electrode is used?
a. Gas metal arc welding
b. Submerged arc welding
c. Tungsten inert gas welding
d. Stud welding
The correct answer is: Tungsten inert gas welding
Question 284
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is a machine used to perform extrusion:
a. rolling mill
b. forge hammer
c. press
d. milling machine
The correct answer is: press

Question 285
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
From the following printers which one can print multiple materials at one time?
a. FDM
b. None
c. SLA
d. SLM
Question 286
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Green sand is a mixture of
a. 30% sand and 70% clay
b. 70% sand and 30% clay
c. 50% sand and 50% clay
d. 90% sand and 10% clay
The correct answer is: 70% sand and 30% clay
Question 287
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In which one of the following casting process oil bonded sand and gray iron are used as a typical core material?
a. Semisolid metal casting
b. Permanent mold casting
c. Slush casting
d. Squeeze casting
The correct answer is: Permanent mold casting

Question 288
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The cold working of metals is carried out by
a. the any temperature
b. at a recrystallization temperature
c. above the recrystallization temperature
d. below the recrystallization temperature
The correct answer is: below the recrystallization temperature
Question 289
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Gas welding is also known as
a. oxy welding
b. oxy-fuel welding
c. all of the above
d. oxyacetylene welding
The correct answer is: all of the above
Question 290
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
After debarring is done, which of the following is formed?
a. All
b. Flat surfaces
c. Controlled radius
d. Sharp edges
The correct answer is: Controlled radius

Question 291
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In forging, specifically warm working, the working temperature is _________.
a. 0.3 Tm
b. 0.5 Tm
c. 0.1 Tm
d. 0.75 Tm
The correct answer is: 0.3 Tm
Question 292
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is (are) property(ies) of ceramic?
a. All
b. Brittle
c. Corrosion resistant
d. Heat resistant
Question 293
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Pattern used in shell moldings is normally made up of?
a. Plastic
b. Wax
c. Metal
d. Wood
The correct answer is: Metal

Question 294
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
An acetylene/oxygen flame burns at ___ degree Celsius.
a. 2526
b. 2250
c. 3073
d. 3773
Question 295
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which technology requires a filling pattern to be produced within the enclosed boundary?
a. Vat polymerization
b. Binder jetting
c. None of the above
d. Material extrusion
The correct answer is: Material extrusion
Question 296
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Composites are used in
a. power generating wind mills
b. earthquake proof highway supports
c. long span bridges
d. all of the above

Question 297
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following will give better chip flow?
a. Negative back rake angle tool
b. Positive back rake angle tool
d. Zero back rake angle tool
The correct answer is: Positive back rake angle tool
Question 298
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The defects due to metal starts freezing before reaching the farthest point in the cavity is:
a. Gas holes
b. Cold shut
c. Mis run
d. Pin hole
The correct answer is: Mis run
Question 299
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Sintering increases
a. Porosity, electrical conductivity and brittleness
b. Porosity, density and ductility
c. Electrical conductivity, density and ductility
d. Electrical conductivity, density and brittleness
The correct answer is: Electrical conductivity, density and ductility

Question 300
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In metal machining, the zone where the heat is generated due to friction between the moving chip and the tool face, is called
a. Shear zone
b. Friction zone
c. None of these
d. Work-tool contact zone
The correct answer is: Friction zone
Question 301
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Cast iron during machining produces
a. Continuous chips
b. Discontinuous chips
c. Continuous chips with built-up edge
d. B and C are correct
The correct answer is: Discontinuous chips
Question 302
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Tool life is measured by the
a. Time the tool is in contact with the job
b. All of the above

Question 303
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In machining metals, surface roughness is due to
a. Fragment of built-up edge on the machined surface
b. All of these
c. Cutting tool vibrations
d. Feed marks or ridges left by the cutting tool
The correct answer is: All of these
Question 304
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is typically the most expensive type of 3D printer?
a. SLA
b. SLM
c. FDM
d. None
The correct answer is: SLM
Question 305
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Thermal cracking of tools occurs at
a. Low temperature
b. High temperature
d. Low cutting speed
The correct answer is: High temperature

Question 306
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following secondary operations is used to improve the self-lubricating capacity of the sintered part in powder metallurgy?
a. Impregnation
b. Coining
c. Infiltration
d. Repressing
The correct answer is: Impregnation
Question 307
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The first step in each product design process is to________and conceptualize the function and appearance of the product.
a. Imagine
b. None
c. Summarize
d. Visualize
The correct answer is: Visualize
Question 308
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the Taylor tool life equation, VT^n = C, the value of n=0.5. The tool.
a. 18 m/min
b. 9 m/min
c. 72 m/min
d. 36 m/min
The correct answer is: 36 m/min

Question 309
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following components influence the material removal rate in Abrasive jet machining?
a. Carrier gas
b. All of the mentioned
c. Abrasive grain
d. Nozzle
The correct answer is: All of the mentioned
Question 310
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
From the following which printer melts metal?
a. SLA
b. SLS
c. SLM
d. FDM
The correct answer is: SLM
Question 311
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
From the following which one is not independent variable in cutting process?
a. cutting fluids
b. tool material and coatings
c. temperature rise in the workpiece, the tool, and the chip,
d. cutting speed, feed, and depth of cut
The correct answer is: temperature rise in the workpiece, the tool, and the chip,
Question 312
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The main drawback to the use of FDM technology is___________.
a. All
b. Surface finish
c. Speed of construction
d. Quality
The correct answer is: Speed of construction
Question 313
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Following is the earliest known fibers used to reinforce materials
a. Wood fibers
b. Plant fibers
c. Carbon fibers
d. Glass fibers
The correct answer is: Glass fibers
Question 314
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The process in which molten metal is forced to pass through a nozzle in to a steam of water or air is called__________
a. Reduction
b. Electrolysis
c. Atomization
d. Shotting

Question 315
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The property by virtue of which a sand mold is capable of with standing a high temperature of the molten metal with out fusing is known
as_______
a. Adhesiveness
b. Refractoriness
c. Cohesiveness
d. Porosity
The correct answer is: Refractoriness
Question 316
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Casting defects due to metal starts freezing before reaching the center of the casting for a casting with two gates at its two sides is
called_________
a. Pin hole
b. Mis run
c. Cold shut
d. Gas holes
The correct answer is: Cold shut
Question 317
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one among the following welding processes uses non-consumable electrode?
a. Gas metal arc welding
b. Gas tungsten arc welding
c. Submerged arc welding
d. Flux coated arc welding
The correct answer is: Gas tungsten arc welding

Question 318
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In order to generate a casting with an internal surface, which part is typically used in a casting operation?
a. Core
b. Pattern
c. Riser
d. Chaplets
The correct answer is: Core
Question 319
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
From the following which one is the advantage of shell molding?
a. Mold collapsibility usually avoids cracks in casting
b. Capability to make thin cross sections in casting
c. Pattern need not be removed from the mold
d. The casting requires minimal finishing and cleaning operations
The correct answer is: Mold collapsibility usually avoids cracks in casting
Question 320
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The heat generated in resistance welding is expressed by
a. I2RT
b. 4I2RT
c. 2I2RT
d. IRT2
The correct answer is: I2RT

Question 321
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following materials can be machined using ECM?
a. All of the above
b. Hard conductive materials
c. All conductive materials
d. Hard nonconductive materials
The correct answer is: Hard conductive materials
Question 322
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Drilling is an example of
a. Uniform cutting
b. Orthogonal cutting
c. Oblique cutting
d. Simple cutting
The correct answer is: Oblique cutting
Question 323
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In manufacturing self-lubricating bearings by powder metallurgy an important secondary operation that is carried out after sintering is
a. Hot isostatic pressing
b. Impregnation
c. Cold isostatic pressing
d. Infiltration
The correct answer is: Impregnation

Question 324
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
This is a bulk forming process in which the workpiece or billet is shaped into finished part by the application of compressive and tensile
forces with the help of a pair of rods.
a. Extrusion
b. Rolling
c. Wire drawing
d. Forging
The correct answer is: Forging
Question 325
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following process includes heating of green compact at high temperature in the powder metallurgy process?
a. Atomization
b. Sintering
c. Compacting
d. Scaling
The correct answer is: Sintering
Question 326
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the major problem in hot extrusion?
a. Design of punch
b. Design of die
c. Wear and tear of die
d. Wear of punch
The correct answer is: Design of die

Question 327
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following gas welding process uses constant voltage?
a. Stud welding
b. Gas metal arc welding
c. Submerged arc welding
d. Tungsten inert gas welding
The correct answer is: Gas metal arc welding
Question 328
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Ultra-Sonic Machining removes materials using the ____________ tool.
a. Axially oscillating
b. Perpendicularly oscillating
c. Perpendicularly rotating
d. Inclined oscillating
The correct answer is: Axially oscillating
Question 329
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A property of sand due to which it evolves a great amount of steam and other gasses is called
a. permeability
b. cohesiveness
c. adhesiveness
d. none
The correct answer is: permeability

Question 330
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
For machining to take place, tool should be penetrated into work piece to a certain _____
a. Depth
b. Width
c. Height
d. Length
The correct answer is: Depth
Question 331
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What must be the velocity of the carrier gas that carries the abrasive particles in AJM?
a. 200-400 m/sec
b. 300-500 m/sec
c. 100-200 m/sec
d. none
The correct answer is: 300-500 m/sec
Question 332
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The tool life increases with the
a. Decrease in back rake angle
b. Increase in side cutting edge angle
c. Decrease in side rake angle
d. Decrease in nose radius
The correct answer is: Increase in side cutting edge angle

Question 333
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following method is used to make powder for brittle metals?
a. Electrolytic process
b. Chemical reduction
c. Atomization
d. Mechanical pulverization
Chemical reduction
The correct answer is: Mechanical pulverization
Question 334
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What type of electrodes are used in resistance seam welding
a. Pointed
b. Domed
c. Flat
d. Disk
The correct answer is: Pointed
Question 335
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The process of cutting hole of various shapes and sizes in to a work piece
a. trimming
b. die
c. slitting
d. punching
The correct answer is: punching

Question 336
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
One of the following casting processes uses polystyrene pattern:
a. Investment casting
b. All
c. Lost wax process
d. Lost foam
Question 337
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What does SLS stands for?
b. Separated light sintering
c. Selective lithographic solution
d. Selective laser sintering
The correct answer is: Selective laser sintering
Question 338
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Hollow casting is the other name of which of the following special casting process?
a. Vacuum die casting
b. Squeeze casting
c. Slush casting
d. Precision investment casting
The correct answer is: Slush casting

Question 339
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
which one is the function of a matrix?
a. All of the above
b. Protects the fibers from environment
c. Holds the fibers together
d. Enhances transverse properties of a laminate
Question 340
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
For large positive back rake angle, tool will be
a. Smoother
b. Harder
c. Weaker
d. Stronger
The correct answer is: Weaker
Question 341
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In abrasive jet machining, as the distance between the nozzle tip and the work surface increases, the material removal rate
a. Increases continuously
b. Decreases becomes stable and then increases
c. Increases, becomes stable and then decreases
d. Decreases continuously
The correct answer is: Increases, becomes stable and then decreases
Question 342
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Advanced machining process by which small portion of the worksurface to be removed by fusion or vaporization is:
a. Chemical machining
b. Mechanical machining
c. Electro chemical machining
d. Thermal machining
The correct answer is: Thermal machining
Question 343
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
--------------SLA printing uses a plastic strand that's pushed through a heated nozzle.
a. False
b. True
Question 344
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
From the following which one is the sequence of operations in conventional powder metallurgy process?
a. Atomization__Blending and mixing__Compacting__Sintering
b. Blending and mixing__Atomization__Compacting__Sintering
c. Atomization__Blending and mixing__Sintering__Compacting
d. Blending and mixing__Compacting__Atomization__Sintering
The correct answer is: Atomization__Blending and mixing__Compacting__Sintering

Question 345
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which file type is most commonly exported from CAD software?
a. JPG
b. SLDRT
c. STL
d. All
The correct answer is: STL
Question 346
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Angle between side cutting edge and axis of tool is known as
a. Side cutting edge angle
b. Back rake angle
c. Side rake angle
d. Side relief angle
The correct answer is: Side cutting edge angle
Question 347
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Spherical metal powders are produced by:
a. Reduction
b. Electrolytic process
c. Atomization
d. Oxidation

Question 348
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Types of machining used to remove round sharp corners on holes in metal parts produced by conventional through-hole drilling is called:
a. Electro chemical drilling
b. None of the above
c. Electro chemical grinding
d. Electro chemical debarring
The correct answer is: Electro chemical debarring
Question 349
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following process would produce strongest components?
a. Forging
b. Hot rolling
c. Cold rolling
d. Extrusion
The correct answer is: Cold rolling
Question 350
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In oxidizing flame, the color of inner cone is
a. dark blue
b. light blue
c. red
d. purplish tinge
The correct answer is: purplish tinge

Question 351
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In heading, the maximum length that can be upset in a single blow is _________ the diameter of the initial wire stock.
a. Four times
b. None
c. Two times
d. One times
Question 352
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
LOM machines are primarily used for rapid prototyping of_______________
a. Wooden parts
b. Ceramic parts
c. Metallic parts
d. Plastic parts
The correct answer is: Plastic parts
Question 353
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is typically the cheapest type of 3D printer?
a. SLA
b. SLM
c. Powder based
d. FDM

Question 354
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In traditional machining, which component is made of a relatively harder material?
a. Tool
b. Holding device
d. Workpiece
The correct answer is: Tool
Question 355
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Density in sintering product is improved by
a. Coining
b. hot pressing
c. cold pressing
d. A and C

A and C
Question 356
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following bearing is not used in earth moving equipment?
a. needle bearing
b. jewel bearing
c. ball bearing
d. bush bearing
The correct answer is: jewel bearing

Question 357
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Flight conveyors are mainly used for conveying
a. grains
b. coal
c. bauxite
d. iron ore
The correct answer is: coal
Question 358
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following characteristic can be assigned to soda ash?
a. caustic
b. fragile
c. explosive
d. free flowing
The correct answer is: caustic
Question 359
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In case of belt conveyors, the bearings used for return idlers are
a. split bush bearings
b. cast iron bearings
c. bush bearings
d. anti-friction bearings
The correct answer is: anti-friction bearings

Question 360
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following cannot be handled using lifting magnets?
a. castings of cast iron
b. scarp iron
c. high manganese steel
d. mild steel plates
The correct answer is: high manganese steel
Question 361
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Chains for material handling equipment are generally made of
a. mild steel
b. carbon steel
c. wrought iron
d. cast iron
The correct answer is: carbon steel
Question 362
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is not a excavating and moving type machine?
a. scarper
b. dragline
c. dump truck
d. clam shell
The correct answer is: dump truck

Question 363
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Escalators have the advantage of
a. greater capacity
b. all of the above
c. continuity of motion
d. small space requirement
Question 364
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following materials is corrosive?
a. soap flakes
b. zinc oxide
c. sulphur
d. starch
The correct answer is: sulphur
Question 365
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following bearing is not used in earth moving equipment?
a. needle bearing
b. bush bearing
c. jewel bearing
d. ball bearing
The correct answer is: jewel bearing

Question 366
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following cannot be handled using lifting magnets?
a. mild steel plates
b. Scarp iron
c. castings of cast iron
d. high manganese steel
The correct answer is: high manganese steel
Question 367
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following item can be conveyed using pneumatic conveyors?
a. carbon black
b. soda ash
c. salt cake
d. all of the above
Question 368
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Flight conveyors are used for the transportation of
a. granular materials
b. all of the above
c. pulverized materials
d. lumpy materials

Question 369
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Lifting magnets cannot be used for
a. handling materials above dull red heat
b. handling dust of magnetic materials
c. handling ferrous castings
d. under water handling
The correct answer is: handling materials above dull red heat
Question 370
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following does not fall under the category of hoisting equipment?
a. dragline
b. pull lift
c. jack
d. chain hoist
The correct answer is: dragline
Question 371
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A four wheel drive has
a. differential on front side only
b. differential on rear side only
c. both front as well as rear differentials
d. no differential
The correct answer is: both front as well as rear differentials

Question 372
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which braking system is not used in case of earth moving machinery?
a. hydraulic braking system
b. vacuum braking system
c. pneumatic braking system
d. mechanical braking system
The correct answer is: vacuum braking system
Question 373
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The number of cylinders in case of steam locomotive is
a. One
b. four
c. two
d. eight
The correct answer is: two
Question 374
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Discoloration should be avoided while handling
a. starch
b. tobacco
c. silica flour
d. zinc oxide
The correct answer is: zinc oxide

Question 375
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Chains for material handling equipment are generally made of
a. mild steel
b. carbon steel
c. cast iron
d. wrought iron
The correct answer is: carbon steel
Question 376
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Lift trucks are used in industries generally for the transportation of
a. nonferrous materials
b. heavy equipment
c. batches of material
d. castings only
The correct answer is: batches of material
Question 377
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In case of belt conveyors, the bearings used for return idlers are
a. anti friction bearings
b. split bush bearings
c. bush bearings
d. cast iron bearings
The correct answer is: anti friction bearings

Question 378
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Braking system in invariably incorporated in case of
a. magnetic hoists
b. electric hoists
c. hand chain hoists
d. all of the above
The correct answer is: electric hoists
Question 379
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Pneumatic conveyors are generally used for conveying
a. heavy goods
b. granular material
c. package goods
d. mineral ores
The correct answer is: granular material
Question 380
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Rails for railway track are made of
a. high speed steel
b. mild steel
c. chrome steel
d. cast iron
The correct answer is: chrome steel

Question 381
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When a cylinder is located in a Vee-block, the number of degrees of freedom which are arrested is
a. 8
b. 4
c. 7
d. 2
Question 382
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is an advantage of worm gear?
a. Used for reducing speed and increasing torque
b. Has high power losses and low transmission efficiency
c. Produce a lot of heat
d. It is expensive
The correct answer is: Used for reducing speed and increasing torque
Question 383
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Bevel gears are equivalent to rolling ________
a. Spheres
b. Cuboids
c. Cones
d. Cubes
The correct answer is: Cones

Question 384
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The smaller and generally the driving gear of a pair of mated gears is called _________
a. Pitch
b. Pinion
c. Module
d. Rack
The correct answer is: Pinion
Question 385
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The quick return mechanism which is an inversion of 4-bar linkage is
a. Whitworth quick return mechanism
c. Drag link mechanism
d. Crank and slotted lever mechanism
The correct answer is: Drag link mechanism
Question 386
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When large gear reductions are needed _________ gears are used.
a. Spur
b. Helical
c. Bevel
d. Worm
The correct answer is: Worm

Question 387
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
__________ Mechanism is a crossed four bar chain mechanism in early steam engines to guide the piston rod in a cylinder to have an
approximate straight line motion.
a. Watt
b. Peaucellier
c. Chebychev
d. Grasshoppe

Watt
Question 388
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The angle turned by the gear from the beginning to the end of engagement of a pair of teeth is called ______________
a. angle of action
b. angle of approach
c. angle of recess
d. angle of contact
The correct answer is: angle of contact
Question 389
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The magnitude of velocities of the points on a rigid link is directly proportional to the distances from the points to the instantaneous center.
a. False
b. True

Question 390
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In which of the following mechanism the relative motions of the rigid bodies are in one plane or in parallel planes?
a. spatial mechanism
b. flexure mechanism
c. spherical mechanism
d. planar mechanism
The correct answer is: planar mechanism
Question 391
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The ratio of maximum fluctuation of energy to the work done per cycle is called
a. none of the mentioned
b. coefficient of fluctuation of speed
c. maximum fluctuation of energy
d. fluctuation of energy
The correct answer is: coefficient of fluctuation of speed
Question 392
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The contact ratio is the ratio of arc of contact to the ____________
a. dedendum
b. Module
c. circular pitch
d. circular pitch
The correct answer is: circular pitch

Question 393
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The distance by which a helix advances along the axis of the gear for one turnaround is called _____________
a. joint line
b. Lead
c. normal link
d. axial pitch
The correct answer is: Lead
Question 394
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In a dynamically equivalent system, a uniformly distributed mass is divided into
a. Infinite point masses
b. Four point masses
c. Two point masses
d. Three point masses
The correct answer is: Two point masses
Question 395
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When the pin connects one sliding member and the other turning member, the angular velocity of the sliding member is __________
a. 2
b. 0
c. 3
d. 1

Question 396
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In a multi plate clutch, number of discs on the driving shaft is given by n1. True or false?
a. False
b. True
Question 397
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of these is not a type of clutch?
a. Single disc
b. Centrifugal
c. Conical
d. Cylindrical
The correct answer is: Cylindrical
Question 398
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following clutches include shoes and spider inside the rim of the pulley?
a. Cone clutch
b. Centrifugal clutch
c. Multi plate clutch
d. Single plate clutch
The correct answer is: Centrifugal clutch

Question 399
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The distance traveled by a point on either pitch circle of the two wheels during the period of contact of a pair of teeth is called _______
a. angle of action
b. arc of contact
c. path of contact
d. contact ratio
The correct answer is: arc of contact
Question 400
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The ratio of angle of action to the pitch angle is called ___________
a. angle of recess
b. angle of approach
c. contact ratio
d. space width
The correct answer is: contact ratio
Question 401
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The number of degree of freedom of a planer linkage with 8 links and 9 simple revolute joints is
a. 2
b. 4
c. 3
d. 1

Question 402
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The velocity of the instantaneous center relative to any third rigid link will be different.
a. True
b. False
Question 403
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In a four stroke I.C. engine, the turning moment during the compression stroke is
a. positive throughout
b. negative throughout
c. positive during major portion of the stroke
d. negative during major portion of the stroke
The correct answer is: negative throughout
Question 404
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
If there are redundant constraints in the chain and it forms a statically indeterminate structure, what is the degree of freedom or the mobility
of this structure?
a. More than 0
b. Less than 0
c. 1
d. 2
The correct answer is: Less than 0

Question 405
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The distance measured along the circumference of the pitch circle from a point on one tooth to the same point on the adjacent tooth is
called ________________
a. pitch point
b. circular pitch
c. line of centers
d. pitch diameter
The correct answer is: circular pitch
Question 406
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the gears has the highest contact ratio?
a. Helical
b. Bevel
c. Spur
d. Worm
The correct answer is: Bevel
Question 407
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The condition which must be fulfilled by two gear tooth profiles to maintain a constant angular velocity ratio between them is called
__________________
a. interference
b. law of gearing
c. path of contact
d. arc of contact
The correct answer is: law of gearing

Question 408
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
If the shortest link is fixed, what type of mechanism is obtained?
a. Linkage is not planar
b. Double rocker mechanism
c. Double crank mechanism
d. Crank rocker mechanism
The correct answer is: Double crank mechanism
Question 409
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In a cone clutch, the mean radius of the bearing surface is 300 mm, whereas the breadth is 20 mm. Find the inner and outer radii. The semi
cone angle is 30 degrees.
a. 145 mm, 155 mm
b. 155 mm, 145 mm
c. 140 mm, 160 mm
d. 160 mm, 140 mm
The correct answer is: 155 mm, 145 mm
Question 410
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The maximum fluctuation of energy is the
a. variations of energy above and below the mean resisting torque to the
b. sum of the maximum and minimum energies
c. difference between the maximum and minimum energies
d. ratio of the mean resisting torque to the work done per cycle
The correct answer is: difference between the maximum and minimum energies
Question 411
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The co-efficient of fluctuation of energy is the ratio of maximum energy to the minimum energy.
a. False
b. True
Question 412
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The locus of a point on the pitch circle from the beginning to end of engagement of two mating gears is called as ___________
a. Path of contact
b. Arc of contact
c. Path of approach
d. Arc of approach
The correct answer is: Arc of contact
Question 413
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a common application of air conditioning in the healthcare industry?
a. Sterilization
b. Patient comfort
c. All of the above
d. Equipment cooling

Question 414
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the main purpose of air conditioning ducts?
a. To cool air before it enters a space
b. To heat air before it enters a space
c. To distribute air throughout a space
d. To filter air before it enters a space
The correct answer is: To distribute air throughout a space
Question 415
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following air conditioning systems is most suitable for large commercial spaces?
a. Window air conditioning units
b. Portable air conditioning units
c. Split air conditioning systems
d. Central air conditioning systems
The correct answer is: Central air conditioning systems
Question 416
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is a refrigerated container?
a. A container used to transport electronics at low temperatures
b. A container used to store medical equipment at low temperatures
c. A container used to store liquid nitrogen at low temperatures
d. A container used to transport perishable items at low temperatures
The correct answer is: A container used to transport perishable items at low temperatures
Question 417
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the reversed Carnot cycle, what is the state of the gas at the end of the isothermal expansion process?
a. Superheated vapor
b. Saturated liquid
c. Saturated vapor
d. Sub cooled liquid
The correct answer is: Superheated vapor
Question 418
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the formula for calculating the total cooling load of a space?
a. Total cooling load = Sensible cooling load - Latent cooling load
b. Total cooling load = Sensible cooling load + Latent cooling load
The correct answer is: Total cooling load = Sensible cooling load + Latent cooling load
Question 419
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the primary disadvantage of air cycle refrigeration systems compared to vapor compression refrigeration systems?
a. They require more maintenance
b. They are more expensive
c. They are less reliable
d. They are less efficient
The correct answer is: They are less efficient

Question 420
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following statements are TRUE?
a. During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air may increase, decrease or remain constant depending upon the
temperature of the wet surface
b. During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air remains constant
c. During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air decreases
d. During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air increases
The correct answer is: During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air may increase, decrease or remain constant depending
upon the temperature of the wet surface
Question 421
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is an example of a cryogenic application?
a. Refrigeration of food products
b. Air conditioning in a residential home
c. Cooling of computer processors
d. Cooling of medical equipment during surgeries
The correct answer is: Cooling of medical equipment during surgeries
Question 422
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the coefficient of performance (COP) of a vapor absorption refrigeration system?
a. The ratio of the heat added to the heat removed
b. The ratio of the heat removed to the heat added
c. The ratio of the heat removed to the power input
d. The ratio of the power input to the heat added
The correct answer is: The ratio of the heat removed to the heat added
Question 423
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In a vapor absorption refrigeration system based on the ammonia-water pair, what is the purpose of the evaporator?
a. The evaporator is where the refrigerant is absorbed by the absorbent.
b. The evaporator is where the refrigerant is condensed.
c. The evaporator is where the cooling effect is produced.
d. The evaporator is where the refrigerant is compressed.
The correct answer is: The evaporator is where the cooling effect is produced.
Question 424
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is not an advantage of air cycle refrigeration systems?
a. They are easy to maintain
b. They use a non-toxic working fluid
c. They are highly efficient
d. They have low environmental impact
The correct answer is: They are highly efficient
Question 425
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The function of a compressor in a vapor compression refrigeration system is to:
a. To maintain the required high-side pressure in the condenser
b. To circulate required amount of refrigerant through the system
c. all of the above
d. To maintain the required low-side pressure in the evaporator

Question 426
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is not a limitation of air cycle refrigeration systems?
a. They are not effective at very low temperatures
b. They have a low coefficient of performance (COP)
c. They are not effective at very high temperatures
d. They require a large amount of space to operate
The correct answer is: They require a large amount of space to operate
Question 427
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following processes involves adding moisture to air without changing its temperature?
a. Sensible cooling
b. Humidification
c. Sensible heating
d. Adiabatic cooling
The correct answer is: Humidification
Question 428
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is a desiccant dehumidification system?
a. A system that uses a refrigerant to cool and dehumidify the air
b. A system that uses a chemical process to remove moisture from the air
c. A system that uses a desiccant material to absorb moisture from the air
d. A system that uses a fan to blow air over a cooled surface to remove moisture
The correct answer is: A system that uses a desiccant material to absorb moisture from the air
Question 429
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is a clean room?
a. A room that has a high level of negative pressure to prevent the spread of contaminants
b. A room designed to maintain a specific level of cleanliness and control of environmental factors
c. A room that has been cleaned with special cleaning agents
d. A room that has been treated with ultraviolet light to reduce bacteria and viruses
The correct answer is: A room designed to maintain a specific level of cleanliness and control of environmental factors
Question 430
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is not an application of refrigeration and air-conditioning systems?
a. Transportation
b. Comfort cooling
c. Medical procedures
d. Food preservation
The correct answer is: Transportation
Question 431
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is a ram air system in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a. A system that uses air from the outside environment to provide cooling
b. A system that uses air from the compressor to provide cooling
c. A system that uses air from the engine to provide cooling
d. A system that uses air from the cabin to provide cooling
The correct answer is: A system that uses air from the outside environment to provide cooling
Question 432
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the reversed Carnot cycle, which process is reversible adiabatic compression or expansion?
a. Neither is a reversible adiabatic process
b. Both are reversible adiabatic processes
c. Expansion
d. Compression
The correct answer is: Both are reversible adiabatic processes
Question 433
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is a bleed air system in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a. A system that uses air from the cabin to provide cooling
b. A system that uses air from the outside environment to provide cooling
c. A system that uses air from the engine to provide cooling
d. A system that uses air from the compressor to provide cooling
The correct answer is: A system that uses air from the engine to provide cooling
Question 434
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following duct shapes has the lowest pressure drop?
a. Round ducts
b. Oval ducts
c. Rectangular ducts
d. Triangular ducts
The correct answer is: Round ducts

Question 435
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following air conditioning systems is a type of rooftop system?
a. Window air conditioning units
b. Packaged air conditioning systems
c. Portable air conditioning units
d. Split air conditioning systems
The correct answer is: Packaged air conditioning systems
Question 436
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In an air cycle refrigeration system, low temperatures are produced due to:
a. Throttling of air
b. Evaporation of liquid air
c. Expansion of air in turbine
The correct answer is: Expansion of air in turbine
Question 437
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
An air stream at a flow rate of 1 kg/s and a DBT of 30oC mixes adiabatically with another air stream flowing with a mass flow rate of 2 kg/s
and at a DBT of 15oC. Assuming no condensation to take place, the temperature of the mixture is approximately equal to:
a. Cannot be found
b. 22.5oC
c. 20oC
d. 25oC
The correct answer is: 20oC

Question 438
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the working fluid used in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a. Air
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Ammonia
d. Water
The correct answer is: Air
Question 439
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In a vapor absorption refrigeration system based on the ammonia-water pair, what is the role of water?
a. Water is used as the refrigerant.
b. Water is used as the working fluid in the condenser.
c. Water is used as the working fluid in the generator.
d. Water is used as the absorbent.
The correct answer is: Water is used as the absorbent.
Question 440
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following factors is important to consider when selecting an air conditioning system for a residential space?
a. Cost of the system
b. Capacity of the system
c. Noise level of the system
d. Type of refrigerant used
The correct answer is: Noise level of the system

Question 441
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is a cool room?
a. A room used to simulate low temperature environments for research purposes
b. A room used for storing electronics at low temperatures
c. A room used for storing perishable items at low temperatures
d. A room designed to maintain a cool temperature for comfort
The correct answer is: A room used for storing perishable items at low temperatures
Question 442
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the purpose of the expansion valve in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a. To increase the pressure and temperature of the working fluid
b. To reduce the pressure and temperature of the working fluid
c. To regulate the flow of the working fluid
d. To transfer heat from the compressed air to the evaporated working fluid
The correct answer is: To reduce the pressure and temperature of the working fluid
Question 443
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the primary application of air cycle refrigeration systems?
a. Comfort cooling in residential homes
b. Cooling of electronic equipment
c. Cooling of aircraft cabins
d. Cooling of food products
The correct answer is: Cooling of aircraft cabins

Question 444
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What safety precautions should be taken when working with cryogenic fluids?
a. Post appropriate warning signs
b. All of the above
c. Wear appropriate personal protective equipment, such as goggles and gloves
d. Store and handle cryogenic fluids in a well-ventilated area
Question 445
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In a vapor compression refrigeration cycle, which component is responsible for changing the refrigerant from a high-pressure vapor to a low-
pressure vapor?
a. Expansion valve
b. Evaporator
c. Compressor
d. Condenser
The correct answer is: Expansion valve
Question 446
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the main assumption made in air standard analysis?
a. The working fluid is a perfect gas
b. The working fluid is a solid
c. The working fluid is a liquid
d. The working fluid is a mixture of gases
The correct answer is: The working fluid is a perfect gas

Question 447
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following factors is NOT a consideration when selecting a refrigerant for a system?
a. Compressor power input
b. Cost
c. Environmental impact
d. Compatibility with materials
The correct answer is: Compressor power input
Question 448
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is an example of a commercial application of refrigeration?
a. Home refrigerators
b. Ice cream freezers
c. Window air conditioners
d. Car air conditioning
The correct answer is: Ice cream freezers
Question 449
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the term used to describe the resistance of air flow in ductwork?
a. Dynamic pressure
b. Velocity pressure
c. Total pressure
d. Static pressure
The correct answer is: Static pressure

Question 450
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is a heat exchanger in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a. A device used to transfer heat from the compressed air to the surrounding environment
b. A device used to transfer heat from the compressed air to the evaporated working fluid
c. A device used to transfer heat from the evaporated working fluid to the compressed air
d. A device used to transfer heat from the condenser to the evaporator
The correct answer is: A device used to transfer heat from the compressed air to the evaporated working fluid
Question 451
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is a liquefied natural gas (LNG) carrier?
a. A refrigeration system used to transport liquid oxygen at low temperatures
b. A refrigeration system used to transport natural gas at low temperatures
c. A refrigeration system used to transport liquid helium at low temperatures
d. A refrigeration system used to transport liquid nitrogen at low temperatures
The correct answer is: A refrigeration system used to transport natural gas at low temperatures
Question 452
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which law of thermodynamics describes the basic principle behind the operation of a vapor compression refrigeration system?
a. Zeros law of thermodynamics
b. Third law of thermodynamics
c. First law of thermodynamics
d. Second law of thermodynamics
The correct answer is: Second law of thermodynamics

Question 453
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which component of a vapor compression refrigeration system is responsible for metering the flow of refrigerant into the evaporator?
a. Compressor
b. Evaporator
c. Condenser
d. Expansion valve
The correct answer is: Expansion valve
Question 454
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following refrigerants is not considered an ozone-depleting substance?
a. R-22
b. R-134a
c. Ammonia
d. R-410A
The correct answer is: Ammonia
Question 455
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In a standard vapor compression refrigeration system, which component is responsible for removing heat from the cooled space?
a. Condenser
b. Evaporator
c. Expansion valve
d. Compressor
The correct answer is: Evaporator

Question 456
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which type of air-conditioning system is commonly used in residential homes?
a. All of the above
b. Central system
c. Split system
d. Packaged system
The correct answer is: Split system
Question 457
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the effect of increasing the condenser temperature in a standard vapor compression refrigeration system?
a. It increases the COP of the system
b. It decreases the COP of the system
c. It has no effect on the COP of the system
d. It increases the power input of the system
The correct answer is: It decreases the COP of the system
Question 458
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following statements are TRUE?
a. During sensible cooling of air, dry bulb temperature decreases but wet bulb temperature remains constant
b. During sensible cooling of air, both dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures decrease
c. During sensible cooling of air, dry and wet bulb temperatures decrease but dew point temperature remains constant
d. A and C
The correct answer is: A and C

Question 459
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the refrigerant in a typical vapor compression refrigeration system?
a. CO2
b. A refrigerant such as R-134a or R-22
c. Water
d. Air
The correct answer is: A refrigerant such as R-134a or R-22
Question 460
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the purpose of cryopreservation?
a. To freeze and store biological materials at very low temperatures to preserve them for future use
b. To generate electricity from cryogenic fluids
c. To liquefy cryogenic fluids for transportation
d. To measure the temperature of cryogenic fluids
The correct answer is: To freeze and store biological materials at very low temperatures to preserve them for future use
Question 461
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the required wattage of an electrical heater that heats 0.1 m3/s of air from 15oC and 80% RH to 55oC? The barometric pressure is
101.325 kPa. Given that average specific heat of air(Cpm=1.021kJ/kg.k), vapor pressure (Pv=1.364kPa) and gas constant of
air(0.287kJ/kg.k).
a. 5.8kW
b. 13kW
c. 4.938kW
d. 6.3kW
The correct answer is: 4.938kW

Question 462
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the main purpose of air ducts in an air conditioning system?
a. To transport the air
b. To cool the air
c. To humidify the air
d. To filter the air
The correct answer is: To transport the air
Question 463
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the purpose of the compressor in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a. To regulate the flow of the working fluid
b. To compress the working fluid and increase its pressure and temperature
c. To transfer heat from the compressed air to the evaporated working fluid
d. To reduce the pressure and temperature of the working fluid
The correct answer is: To compress the working fluid and increase its pressure and temperature
Question 464
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following factors is important in determining the efficiency of an air conditioning system?
a. Color of the walls in the space
b. Size of the space to be cooled
c. Type of refrigerant used
d. Number of windows in the space
The correct answer is: Type of refrigerant used

Question 465
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is a chilled beam system?
a. A system that uses an evaporative cooling process to provide cooling
b. A system that uses a combination of air and water to provide cooling
c. A system that uses a fan to blow air over a cooled surface to provide cooling
d. A system that uses a refrigerant to provide cooling directly to the air stream
The correct answer is: A system that uses a combination of air and water to provide cooling
Question 466
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following parameters is a measure of the moisture content of air?
a. Relative humidity
b. Wet bulb temperature
c. Enthalpy
d. Dry bulb temperature
The correct answer is: Relative humidity
Question 467
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which type of air conditioning system is commonly used in large commercial buildings?
a. Central system
b. Window unit
c. Packaged system
d. Split system
The correct answer is: Central system

Question 468
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is a cry cooler?
a. A device used to generate electricity from cryogenic fluids
b. A device used to heat objects to very high temperatures
c. A device used to cool objects to very low temperatures
d. A device used to measure the temperature of cryogenic fluids
The correct answer is: A device used to cool objects to very low temperatures
Question 469
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In a vapor absorption refrigeration system based on the ammonia-water pair, what is the role of ammonia?
a. Ammonia is used as the working fluid in the condenser.
b. Ammonia is used as the absorbent.
c. Ammonia is used as the working fluid in the generator.
d. Ammonia is used as the refrigerant.
The correct answer is: Ammonia is used as the refrigerant.
Question 470
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Absorption of the refrigerant by the absorbent in vapor absorption refrigeration System is accompanied by:
a. Reduction in volume
b. Absorption of heat
c. No thermal effects
d. Release of heat
The correct answer is: Release of heat

Question 471
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In a vapor absorption refrigeration system, which component is responsible for absorbing the refrigerant vapor and returning it to a liquid
state?
a. Evaporator
b. Condenser
c. Absorber
d. Generator
The correct answer is: Absorber
Question 472
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the function of the generator in a vapor absorption refrigeration system?
a. To evaporate the refrigerant
b. To separate the refrigerant from the absorbent and raise its pressure
c. To regulate the flow of refrigerant
d. To cool the refrigerant vapor and condense it into a liquid
The correct answer is: To separate the refrigerant from the absorbent and raise its pressure
Question 473
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following factors can affect the transmission of air in air conditioning ducts?
a. Air velocity
b. Type of duct material
c. Duct size and shape
d. All of the above

Question 474
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a common application of air conditioning in data centers?
a. Cooling of computer processors
b. All of the above
c. Comfort cooling for employees
d. Humidity control to prevent equipment damage
The correct answer is: Cooling of computer processors
Question 475
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the inside design condition for a typical air conditioning system in a commercial building?
a. This choice was deleted after the attempt was started.
Question 476
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following processes involves cooling air without changing its moisture content?
a. Humidification
b. Sensible cooling
c. Dehumidification
d. Latent cooling
The correct answer is: Sensible cooling

Question 477
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is a variable refrigerant flow (VRF) system?
a. A system that uses a variable speed compressor to adjust the cooling capacity
b. A system that uses a variable moisture control mechanism to regulate humidity
c. A system that uses a variable speed fan to adjust the airflow
d. A system that can vary the amount of refrigerant flow to different indoor units based on their cooling load
The correct answer is: A system that can vary the amount of refrigerant flow to different indoor units based on their cooling load
Question 478
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the primary purpose of refrigeration and air-conditioning systems?
a. To regulate the temperature and humidity of a space
b. To remove moisture from the air
c. To cool the air
d. To heat the air
The correct answer is: To regulate the temperature and humidity of a space
Question 479
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the term for the temperature at which the air becomes saturated with water vapor and condensation begins to form?
a. Humidity ratio
b. Relative humidity
c. Wet bulb temperature
d. Dew point temperature
The correct answer is: Dew point temperature

Question 480
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following types of fans is commonly used in air conditioning ducts?
a. Centrifugal fans
b. Pedestal fans
c. Axial fans
d. Ceiling fans
The correct answer is: Centrifugal fans
Question 481
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the term for the temperature at which the air would need to be cooled in order for it to become saturated with water vapor?
a. Enthalpy
c. Dew point temperature
d. Dry bulb temperature
The correct answer is: Wet bulb temperature
Question 482
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the coefficient of performance (COP) of a vapor compression refrigeration system?
a. The ratio of the heat added to the heat removed
b. The ratio of the power input to the heat added
c. The ratio of the heat removed to the heat added
d. The ratio of the heat removed to the power input
The correct answer is: The ratio of the heat removed to the power input
Question 483
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
in the evaporator of a vapor compression refrigeration system:
a. A low pressure is maintained so that the compressor can run
b. All except c
c. A low temperature is maintained so that heat can flow from the external fluid
d. Refrigeration effect is produced as the refrigerant liquid vaporizes
The correct answer is: All except c
Question 484
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the primary use of cryogenics?
a. Food preservation
b. All of the above
c. Medical research
d. Space exploration
Question 485
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the most common material used for air conditioning ducts?
a. PVC
b. Copper
c. Aluminum
d. Steel
The correct answer is: Aluminum

Question 486
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is not a component of an air cycle refrigeration system?
a. Evaporator
b. Condenser
c. Compressor
d. Expansion valve
The correct answer is: Condenser
Question 487
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In the reversed Carnot cycle, what is the purpose of the isothermal expansion process?
a. To decrease the temperature and pressure of the working fluid
b. To maintain the temperature and pressure of the working fluid
c. To remove heat from the working fluid
d. To increase the temperature and pressure of the working fluid
The correct answer is: To remove heat from the working fluid
Question 488
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the definition of relative humidity?
a. The ratio of dry air to water vapor in a mixture
b. The temperature at which water vapor begins to condense out of the air
c. The ratio of actual vapor pressure to the saturation vapor pressure at a given temperature
d. The amount of moisture in the air
The correct answer is: The ratio of actual vapor pressure to the saturation vapor pressure at a given temperature
Question 489
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the term for the ratio of the mass of water vapor in a given volume of air to the total mass of the air?
a. Dew point temperature
c. Relative humidity
d. Humidity ratio
The correct answer is: Humidity ratio
Question 490
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which of the following is a key difference between gas cycles and vapor cycles?
a. Vapor cycles operate at higher pressures than gas cycles.
b. Gas cycles use a working fluid that is in a gaseous state throughout the cycle, while vapor cycles use a working fluid that undergoes a
phase change during the cycle.
c. Gas cycles are more efficient than vapor cycles.
d. Gas cycles are used primarily for heating applications, while vapor cycles are used primarily for cooling applications.
The correct answer is: Gas cycles use a working fluid that is in a gaseous state throughout the cycle, while vapor cycles use a working fluid
that undergoes a phase change during the cycle.
Question 491
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the most commonly used cryogenic fluid?
a. Liquid nitrogen
b. Liquid helium
c. Liquid carbon dioxide
d. Liquid oxygen
The correct answer is: Liquid nitrogen

Question 492
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
How does an air cycle refrigeration system work?
a. It compresses refrigerant, cools it, and expands it to produce cooling
b. It evaporates water, cools the air, and condenses the water to produce cooling
c. It compresses air, cools it, and expands it to produce cooling
d. It boils a liquid, cools the vapor, and condenses it to produce cooling
The correct answer is: It compresses air, cools it, and expands it to produce cooling
Question 493
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the purpose of insulation in air conditioning ducts?
a. All of the above
b. To reduce noise transmission
c. To improve energy efficiency
d. To prevent air leakage
Question 494
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the efficiency of the reversed Carnot cycle?
a. Equal to the efficiency of a Rankine cycle operating between the same temperature limits
b. Less than the efficiency of any other cycle operating between the same temperature limits
c. Greater than or equal to the efficiency of any other cycle operating between the same temperature limits
d. Equal to the efficiency of a Carnot cycle operating between the same temperature limits
The correct answer is: Greater than or equal to the efficiency of any other cycle operating between the same temperature limits
Question 495
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the purpose of an evaporator in a refrigeration system?
a. To remove heat from the system
b. To regulate the flow of refrigerant
c. To compress the refrigerant
d. To expand the refrigerant
The correct answer is: To remove heat from the system
Question 496
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
What is the purpose of a damper in an air conditioning duct?
a. To regulate the flow of air
b. To insulate the ducts
c. To humidify the air
d. To filter the air
The correct answer is: To regulate the flow of air
Question 497
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The shear stress required to cause plastic deformation of solid metal is called
a. flow stress
b. rupture stress
c. proof stress
d. Ultimate stress.
The correct answer is: flow stress

Question 498
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
If a member, whose tensile strength is more than two times the shear strength, is subjected to an axial load upto failure, the failure of the
member will occur by
a. none of the above.
b. maximum normal stress
c. maximum shear stress
d. normal stress or shear stress
The correct answer is: maximum shear stress
Question 499
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The stress which will cause a specified permanent deformation in a material (usually 0.01% or less) is called
a. proof stress
b. rupture stress
c. flow stress
d. Ultimate stress.
The correct answer is: proof stress
Question 500
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The ratio of linear stress to linear strain is known as
a. modulus of elasticity.
b. bulk modulus
c. modulus of rigidity
The correct answer is: modulus of elasticity.

Question 501
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The torsional rigidity of a shaft is defined as the torque required to produce
a. A twist of one radian per unit length of the shaft.
b. minimum twist in the shaft
c. maximum shear stress in the shaft
d. maximum twist in the shaft
The correct answer is: A twist of one radian per unit length of the shaft.
Question 502
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The type of mechanical component that has a circular cross section and is subjected to a torque, on both ends is called:
a. column
b. shaft
c. bar
d. beam
The correct answer is: shaft
Question 503
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
In a tensile test of a specimen, the ratio of maximum load to the original cross-sectional area of the test piece is called
a. ultimate stress
b. breaking stress.
c. safe stress
d. yield stress
The correct answer is: ultimate stress

Question 504
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Every cross-section of a shaft, which is subjected to a twisting moment, is under
a. shear stress
b. Bending stress.
c. tensile stress
d. compressive stress
The correct answer is: shear stress
Question 505
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The planes, which have no shear stress, are known as
a. inclined plane
b. oblique plane
c. principal plane
d. slanted plane
The correct answer is: principal plane
Question 506
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A beam which is fixed at one end and free at the other end, is known as
a. Overhanging beam
b. Simply supported beam
c. Fixed beams
d. Cantilever beam
The correct answer is: Cantilever beam

Question 507
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A cantilever of length (l) carries a uniformly distributed load over the whole length. The bending moment diagram will be
a. parabola with maximum ordinate at the center
b. triangle with maximum ordinate at the free end
c. parabola with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end
d. triangle with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end.
The correct answer is: parabola with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end
Question 508
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The point of contraflexure occurs only in
a. continuous beams
b. cantilever beams
c. overhanging beams
d. simply supported beams
The correct answer is: overhanging beams
Question 509
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The ratio of change of dimension of the body to the original dimension is known as ………...
a. elongation
b. strain
c. deflection
d. stress
The correct answer is: strain

Question 510
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The property by virtue of which a metal can be beaten into plates is called
a. malleability
b. resilience
c. ductility
d. plasticity.
The correct answer is: malleability
Question 511
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A beam which is provided more than two supports is known as
a. Overhanging beam
b. Continuous Beam
c. Fixed beams
d. Simply supported beam
The correct answer is: Continuous Beam
Question 512
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The shear force and bending moment are zero at the free end of a cantilever, if it carries a
a. uniformly distributed load over the whole length
b. point load in the middle of its length
c. point load at the free end
d. none of the above.
The correct answer is: uniformly distributed load over the whole length
Question 513
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The stress induced in a body, which is subjected to two equal and opposite pushes, is known as
a. compressive stress
b. tensile strain
c. bearing stress
d. tensile stress
The correct answer is: compressive stress
Question 514
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A fixed beam is a beam whose end supports are such that the end slopes
a. are zero
b. are maximum
c. are minimum
The correct answer is: are zero
Question 515
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Maximum shear stress by the Mohrs circle method is equal to-----------
a. maximum normal stress
b. resultant stress
The correct answer is: maximum normal stress

Question 516
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Column is defined as a
a. member of a structure which carries an axial compressive load
b. member of a structure which carries a tensile load
c. vertical member of a structure which carries a tensile load
d. Vertical member of a structure which carries an axial compressive load.
The correct answer is: Vertical member of a structure which carries an axial compressive load.
Question 517
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one is not correct?
a. If longitudinal strain is tensile, the lateral strains will be compressive.
b. lateral strain is opposite in sign to longitudinal strain
c. poisons ratio is the ratio of lateral strain to the longitudinal strain
d. lateral strain is always the same in sign to longitudinal strain
The correct answer is: lateral strain is always the same in sign to longitudinal strain
Question 518
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The ratio of normal stress of each face of a solid cube to volumetric strain is called
a. modulus of elasticity.
b. bulk modulus
c. modulus of rigidity
The correct answer is: bulk modulus

Question 519
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A rod is 3 m long at a temperature of 15C. Find the expansion of the rod.
a. 0.288m
b. 1.35cm
c. 0.288cm
d. 1.35m
The correct answer is: 0.288cm
Question 520
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
is the property by virtue of which certain materials return back to their original position after the removal of the external force.
a. plasticity
b. elasticity
c. machinability
d. ductility
The correct answer is: elasticity
Question 521
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The ratio of tensile or compressive stress to the corresponding strain is known as
a. modulus of toughness
b. shear modulus
c. Young modulus
d. modulus of rigidity

Young modulus
Question 522
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
a. 84.24 N/mm2
b. 45 * 109 N/mm2
c. 56.6 * 106 N/mm2
d. 63.6 * 109 N/mm2
The correct answer is: 63.6 * 109 N/mm2
Question 523
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
If a beam is fixed at both its ends, it is called a
a. encastered beam
b. built-in beam
c. any one of the above
d. fixed beam
The correct answer is: any one of the above
Question 524
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The stress obtained by dividing the load at the moment of incipient fracture, by the area supporting that load is called
a. Ultimate stress.
b. rupture stress
c. proof stress
d. flow stress
The correct answer is: rupture stress

Question 525
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A short column of circular section carries a point load acting with an eccentricity. The shape of Kernel area would be.
a. circle
b. square
c. rectangle
d. Rhombus.
The correct answer is: circle
Question 526
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The bending moment at a section, where shear force is zero, will be
a. minimum
b. maximum
c. either minimum or maximum
d. zero
The correct answer is: either minimum or maximum
Question 527
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The resistance per unit area, offered by a body against deformation is known as .
a. strain
b. stress
c. deflection
d. elongation
The correct answer is: stress

Question 528
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The property of a material by virtue of which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the load is known as
a. elasticity
b. ductility
c. plasticity
d. resilience.
The correct answer is: elasticity
Question 529
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is wrong about Hooke's law?
a. it does work within the plastic region
b. the stress is proportional to the strain.
c. the shear stress is proportional to the shear strain.
d. it is applicable only within elastic limit
The correct answer is: it does work within the plastic region
Question 530
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A rod 200 cm long and of diameter 3 cm is subjected to an axial pull of 30 kN. If the Young’s modulus of the material of the rod is 2 × 105
N/mm2, determine: the stress?
a. 64.24 N/mm2
b. 56.04 N/mm2
c. 49.21 N/mm2
d. 42.44 N/mm2
The correct answer is: 42.44 N/mm2

Question 531
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Within elastic limit in a loaded material, stress is
a. none of the above.
b. equal to strain
c. inversely proportional to strain
d. Adirectly proportional to strain
The correct answer is: Adirectly proportional to strain
Question 532
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following is wrong about the assumptions made in the theory of simple bending?
a. The transverse sections which were plane before bending, remain plane after bending also.
b. The radius of curvature is small when compared with the dimensions of the cross-section.
c. The material of the beam is homogeneous and isotropic
The correct answer is: The radius of curvature is small when compared with the dimensions of the cross-section.
Question 533
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A loaded column is having the tendency to deflect. On account of this tendency, the critical load
a. decreases with the decrease in length
b. first decreases then increases with the decrease in length
c. decreases with the increase in length
d. First increases then decreases with the decrease in length.
The correct answer is: decreases with the increase in length

Question 534
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Slenderness ratio is defined as the ratio of
a. equivalent length of the column to the minimum radius of gyration
b. Minimum radius of gyration to the area of cross-section of the column.
c. length of the column to the area of cross-section of the column
d. length of the column to the minimum radius of gyration
The correct answer is: length of the column to the minimum radius of gyration
Question 535
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Fletched beam means a
a. beam of composite section consisting of a wooden beam strengthened by mild steel plates
b. None of the above.
c. fixed beam
d. continuous beam
The correct answer is: beam of composite section consisting of a wooden beam strengthened by mild steel plates
Question 536
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
if a section of a beam is subjected to a transversal load applied to the beam from above, and Couse pure bending in the beam and the
longitudinal beam concaves upward, then the stress variation will be:
a. the stresses will be tensile below the neutral axis.
b. all
c. the stresses will be compressive at any point above the neutral axis
d. The stress at the neutral axis is zero.
The correct answer is: all

Question 537
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A simply supported beam of span (l) carries a uniformly distributed load over the whole span. The shear force diagram will be
a. a rectangle
b. a triangle
c. two equal and opposite triangles.
d. two equal and opposite rectangles
The correct answer is: two equal and opposite triangles.
Question 538
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When an element is subjected to a set of shear stresses
a. All
b. The planes of maximum normal stresses are perpendicular to each other.
c. The planes of maximum normal stresses are inclined at an angle of 45 degrees to the planes
of pure shear.
d. One of the maximum normal stress is tensile while the other maximum normal stress is compressive.
The planes of maximum normal stresses are inclined at an angle of 45 degrees to the planes
Of pure shear.

Question 539
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A laminated spring 1 m long carries a central point load of 2000 N. The spring is made up of plates each 5 cm wide and 1 cm thick. The
bending stress in the plates is limited to 10 N/mm2. The number of plates required, will be
a. 6
b. 8.
c. 5
d. 3
Question 540
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A short column of rectangular section carries a point load (W) acting with an eccentricity (e). The shape of Kernel area would be
a. rectangle
b. square
c. circle
d. Rhombus.
The correct answer is: Rhombus.
Question 541
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The shear stress at any point of a shaft, subjected to twisting moment, is
a. None of the above.
b. proportional to the square of its distance from the central axis of the shaft
c. inversely proportional to its distance from the central axis of the shaft
d. proportional to its distance from the central axis of the shaft
The correct answer is: proportional to its distance from the central axis of the shaft
Question 542
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A cantilever of length (l) carries a point load (W) at the free end. The bending moment diagram will be a
a. parabola with maximum ordinate at the center of the beam
b. triangle with maximum ordinate at the free end
c. parabola with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end
d. triangle with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end.
The correct answer is: triangle with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end.
Question 543
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When a body is subjected to an axial tensile load
a. no change in dimension at all
b. there is an increase in the width of the body
c. there is an increase in other dimensions of the body at right angles to the axis of the body
d. there is an increase in the length of the body
The correct answer is: there is an increase in the length of the body
Question 544
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The stress induced in a body, which is subjected to two equal and opposite pulls, is known as
a. tensile strain
b. bearing stresses
c. tensile stress
d. compressive stress
The correct answer is: tensile stress

Question 545
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The maximum axial compressive load which a column can take without failure by lateral deflection is called
a. Any one of the above.
b. buckling load
c. critical load
d. crippling load
The correct answer is: Any one of the above.
Question 546
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Hooke’s law holds good too.
a. yield point
b. plastic limit.
c. proportional limit
d. elastic limit
The correct answer is: proportional limit
Question 547
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A loaded column fails due to
a. A and B
b. stress due to direct load
c. stress due to bending
d. None of the above.
The correct answer is: A and B

Question 548
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The stress due to suddenly applied load as compared to the stress due to the same load gradually applied to the same rod is
a. same
b. double
c. half
d. three times.
The correct answer is: double
Question 549
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Buckling factor is defined as the ratio of
a. equivalent length of a column to the minimum radius of gyration
b. length of the column to the area of cross-section of the column
c. length of the column to the minimum radius of gyration
d. None of the above.
The correct answer is: equivalent length of a column to the minimum radius of gyration
Question 550
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The angle made by the resultant stress with the normal of the oblique plane, is known as
a. obliquity
b. angle of twist
c. straight line angle
d. none
The correct answer is: obliquity

Question 551
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The extension in a rectangular steel bar of length 800 mm and of thickness 20 is-------
a. 84.7KN
b. 96KN
c. 60.6KN
d. 45 KN
The correct answer is: 60.6KN
Question 552
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The work done in producing strain on a material per unit volume is called
a. resilience
b. elasticity
c. ductility
d. plasticity
The correct answer is: resilience
Question 553
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
If a beam is supported on more than two supports, it is called a
a. continuous beam
b. simply supported beam
c. encastered beam.
d. built-in beam
The correct answer is: continuous beam

Question 554
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Torsional rigidity of a shaft is equal to
a. Ratio of modulus of rigidity and polar moment of inertia.
b. product of modulus of rigidity and polar moment of inertia
c. sum of modulus of rigidity and polar moment of inertia
d. difference of modulus of rigidity and polar moment of inertia
The correct answer is: product of modulus of rigidity and polar moment of inertia
Question 555
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The ratio of moment of inertia about the neutral axis to the distance of the most distance point of the section from the neutral axis is called
a. moment of inertia
b. Modulus of rigidity.
c. polar moment of inertia
d. section modulus
The correct answer is: section modulus
Question 556
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The maximum energy stored in the body without permanent deformation (i.e., upto elastic limit) is known as
a. strain energy
b. Modulus of resilience
c. Resilience
d. Proof Resilience.
The correct answer is: Proof Resilience.

Question 557
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Polar modulus of a shaft section is equal to
a. ratio of polar moment of inertia to maximum radius of the shaft
b. product of polar moment of inertia and maximum radius of the shaft
c. sum of polar moment of inertia and maximum radius of the shaft
d. Difference of polar moment of inertia and maximum radius of the shaft.
The correct answer is: ratio of polar moment of inertia to maximum radius of the shaft
Question 558
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
when a mechanical component is subjected to a series of external axial loads that pass through the centroid of the cross section, and result
in change in length in the material then the type of the element would be:
a. beam
b. bar
c. column
d. shaft
The correct answer is: bar
Question 559
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
When the external load is applied in the transverse direction to the longitudinal axis of the component and causes the element to flex/bend
due to the applied load, then the type of the element can be identified as:
a. column
b. beam
c. bar
d. shaft
The correct answer is: beam

Question 560
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Which one of the following units of measurements cannot express stress?
a. N/m2
b. 106 N/mm2
c. 10-4 N/cm2
d. 10-6 N/mm2
The correct answer is: 106 N/mm2
Question 561
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
Strut is defined as a
a. None of the above.
b. member of a structure which carries an axial compressive load
c. member of a structure which carries a tensile load
d. vertical member of a structure which carries a tensile load
The correct answer is: member of a structure which carries an axial compressive load
Question 562
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The diameter of a mild steel round bar, on which tensile test is performed, at fracture will
a. increase
b. decrease
c. be same
The correct answer is: decrease

Question 563
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The bending moment on a section is maximum where shearing force is
a. changing sign
b. zero
c. minimum
d. maximum
The correct answer is: changing sign
Question 564
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
A solid circular shaft of diameter D carries an axial load W. If the same load is applied axially on a hollow circular shaft of inner diameter as
D 2, the ratio of stresses in a solid shaft to that of hollow shaft would be
a. 1 /2
b. 4 /3
c. 1 /4
d. 3 /4
The correct answer is: 3 /4
Question 565
Not answered
Marked out of 1.00
The stresses induced in a body due to change in temperature are known as
a. thermal stress
b. bearing stresses
c. tensile strain
d. shear stress
The correct answer is: thermal stress

← Model Exit Examination For Mechanical Engineering 2023
Jump to...
Announcements →

565 Questions Model Exam For Mechanical

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

565 Questions Model Exam For Mechanical

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

565 Questions Model Exam For Mechanical

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Dashboard / My courses / Mech_2023 / General / Re- Model Exit Examination For Mechanical Engineering 2023

Started on Tuesday, 27 June 2023, 12:04 PM

Marked out of 1.00

Total atoms in face centered cubic (FCC) structure unit cell is

The correct answer is: 4

Marked out of 1.00

A _________ is defined as a quantity of matter or a region in space chosen for study.

The correct answer is: System

Marked out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Process

Marked out of 1.00

a. Limiting the maximum temperature in the cycle.

b. Limits the thermal efficiency.

c. The quality of the steam decreases during isentropic expansion process.

The correct answer is: All

Marked out of 1.00

The correct answer is: 3.0

Marked out of 1.00

A liquid that is about to vaporize is called a ______________.

d. Sub cooled liquid

The correct answer is: Saturated liquid

Marked out of 1.00

Which one of the following is not intensive property of a system?

The correct answer is: Total mass

Marked out of 1.00

The correct answer is: True

Marked out of 1.00

Water boils at 100C.

The correct answer is: False

Marked out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Otto cycle

Marked out of 1.00

Which one of the following is basic dimension?

The correct answer is: Temperature

Marked out of 1.00

Marked out of 1.00

The correct answer is: True

Marked out of 1.00

The correct answer is: Isobaric

Marked out of 1.00

a. Lowering the Condenser Pressure.

b. Superheating the Steam to High Temperatures.

c. Increasing the Boiler Pressure.

The correct answer is: All

Marked out of 1.00

The correct answer is: 75.0 %

Marked out of 1.00

The correct answer is: 0.5

Marked out of 1.00

Which one is not refrigeration cycle?

b. Ideal vapor compression refrigeration cycle

c. Reversed Carnot cycle

d. Reversed Brayton cycle

The correct answer is: Brayton cycle

Marked out of 1.00

The correct answer is: 0.3

Marked out of 1.00

The correct answer is: 0.2

Marked out of 1.00