Question 1

AMU 2023 Model exam 565 Questions for mechanical engineering students
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Which of the following has least percentage of carbon
a.
wrought iron
b.
pig iron
c.
stainless steel
d.
malleable iron
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The food compartment of a refrigerator is maintained at 4 degrees Celsius by removing heat from it at a
rate of 360KJ/min. If the required power input to the refrigerator is 2kW, determine the coefficient of
performance of the refrigerator.
a.
3.0
b.
1.0
c.
2.0
d.
4.0
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At pressures below the triple point value the process of passing from the solid phase directly into the
vapor phase is called________________.
a.
Melting
b.
Sublimation
c.
Triple point
d.
Phase change
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Consider a steady-flow Carnot cycle with water as the working fluid. The maximum and minimum
temperatures in the cycle are 327 and 27 degree Celsius. Determine the thermal efficiency.
a.
0.6
b.
0.5
c.
0.7
d.
0.4
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Which one of the following is microscopic forms of energy>
a.
Kinetic energy
b.
Mechanical energy
c.
Internal energy
d.
Potential energy
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Carnot cycle is the most efficient cycle operating between two specified temperature limits, however,
the Carnot cycle is not a suitable model for power cycles. Which of the following impracticalities are
associated with Carnot cycle?
a.
Limiting the maximum temperature in the cycle.
b.
Limits the thermal efficiency.
c.
The quality of the steam decreases during isentropic expansion process.
d.
All
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Which one of the following is ideal cycle for spark ignition reciprocating engines?
a.
Rankine cycle
b.
Brayton cycle
c.
Diesel cycle
d.
Otto cycle
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______the temperature at which condensation begins when the air is cooled at constant pressure.
a.
Dry bulb temperature
b.
Dew point temperature
c.
Adiabatic saturation temperature
d.
Web bulb temperature
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From the following statements, which one is Clausiuss second law of?
a.
It is impossible for a self-acting machine to transfer heat from a colder body to a hotter one without the
aid of an external agency
b.
It is impossible to design an engine that extracts heat and fully utilizes it into work without producing
any other effect.
c.
Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It can only change forms. In any process, the total energy
of the universe remains the same
d.
As the temperature approaches absolute zero, the entropy of a system approaches a constant
minimum.
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Heat is transferred to a heat engine from a furnace at a rate of 80 MW. If the rate of waste heat
rejection to a nearby river is 20 MW, Determine the thermal efficiency of the heat engine.
a.
50.0 %
b.
25.0 %
c.
None
d.
75.0 %
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A change in the state of gas during which the pressure of the gas remains constant is called
____________ change.
a.
Isothermal
b.
Isochoric
c.
Adiabatic
d.
Isobaric
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Water boils at 100C.
a.
True
b.
False
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Which one is not refrigeration cycle?
a.
Reversed Brayton cycle
b.
Reversed Carnot cycle
c.
Ideal vapor compression refrigeration cycle

d.
Brayton cycle
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Any change that a system undergoes from one equilibrium state to another is called a
_______________.
a.
System
b.
Process
c.
State
d.
Property
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Consider a gas mixture that consists of 3 kg of O2, 5 kg of N2, and 2 kg of CH4. Determine the mass
fraction of O2.
a.
1.0
b.
0.2
c.
0.3
d.
0.5
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__________is the form of energy that is transferred between two systems (or a system and its
surroundings) by virtue of a temperature difference.
a.
Temperature
b.
Mass
c.
Work
d.
Heat
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________the energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one degree.
a.
Specific work
b.
Specific enthalpy
c.
Specific heat
d.
Specific volume
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Which one of the following quantities is used to describe the amount of moisture the air holds relative
to the maximum amount of moisture the air can hold at the same temperature?
a.
Humidity ratio
b.
Relative humidity
c.
Absolute humidity
d.
Specific humidity
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Atmospheric pressure is measured by a device called a_____________.
a.
U-tube
b.
Barometer
c.
Thermometer
d.
Manometer
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Which term is related with the transfer of heat from a lower temperature region to a higher
temperature one?
a.
Work engine
b.
Refrigeration
c.
Heat engine
d.
Thermal engine
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Which one of the following is true about the increase of entropy principle?
a.
Sgen = 0, for irreversible process
b.
Sgen = 0, for reversible process

c.
Sgen = 0, for impossible process
d.
None
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Energy can cross the boundary of a closed system in the form of ____________.
a.
Heat or Mass
b.
Heat or Work or Mass
c.
Heat or Work
d.
Work or Mass
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During a steady-flow process, fluid properties within the control volume may change with position but
not with time.
a.
False
b.
True
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A _________ is defined as a quantity of matter or a region in space chosen for study.
a.
Surrounding
b.
Boundary
c.
Mass
d.
System
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Which one of the following is not intensive property of a system?
a.
Temperature
b.
Density
c.
Total mass
d.
Pressure
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Which one of the following is basic dimension?
a.
Temperature
b.
Velocity
c.
Pressure
d.
Energy
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Temperature difference is the driving force for heat transfer. The larger the temperature difference, the
higher is the rate of heat transfer.
a.
True
b.
False
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A liquid that is about to vaporize is called a ______________.
a.
Saturated liquid
b.
Compressed liquid
c.
Saturated vapor
d.
Sub cooled liquid
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The amount of energy absorbed or released during a phase-change process is

called_________________.
a.
Heat energy
b.
Work energy
c.
Thermal energy
d.
Latent heat
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A process during which there is no heat transfer is called________________.
a.
Adiabatic process
b.
Isobaric process
c.
Isochoric process
d.
Isothermal process
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A rigid tank contains 10 kg of water at 90 degree Celsius. If 8 kg of the water is in the liquid form and the
rest is in the vapor form, determine the quality of the mixture.
a.
1.0
b.
0.8
c.
1.25
d.
0.2
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Which method increases the thermal efficiency of simple ideal Rankine cycle on which steam power
plant operates?
a.
Lowering the Condenser Pressure.
b.
Superheating the Steam to High Temperatures.

c.
Increasing the Boiler Pressure.
d.
All
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Which of the following is the best definition of density?
a.
The weight of an object per unit volume
b.
The force of an object per unit volume
c.
The volume of an object per unit mass
d.
The mass of an object per unit volume

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Which of the following is the definition of dynamic viscosity?
a.
The time it takes for a known amount of fluid to flow a given distance.
b.
The force required to move a unit area of fluid parallel to a second unit area of fluid a unit distance apart
in a unit time.
c.
The ratio of the shear stress to the shear rate.
d.
The ratio of the dynamic viscosity to the density of the fluid.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of irrotational flow?

a.
The flow is steady, with the velocity at any point remaining constant over time.
b.
The flow is uniform, with the velocity at any point being the same in all directions.
c.
The fluid particles do not rotate about their own axis.
d.
The fluid particles rotate about their own axis.
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Which of the following is the total acceleration of a fluid particle?
a.
The sum of static pressure and dynamic pressure
b.
The sum of the pressure gradient and the shear stress.

c.
The sum of the gravity force and the viscous force.
d.
The sum of the convective acceleration and the local acceleration.
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Which of the following is a vortex flow?
a.
A flow in which the fluid particles move in a wavy manner.
b.
A flow in which the fluid particles move in a random manner.
c.
A flow in which the fluid particles move in a circular path.
d.
A flow in which the fluid particles move in a straight line.

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What is the Bernoulli principle?
a.
The pressure of a fluid is inversely proportional to its velocity.
b.
The pressure of a fluid decreases as its velocity increases.
c.
The pressure of a fluid is constant regardless of its velocity.
d.
The pressure of a fluid increases as its velocity decreases.
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Which of the following is the best definition of vacuum pressure?
a.
The pressure of a gas above atmospheric pressure
b.
The pressure of a gas below atmospheric pressure
c.
The pressure of a gas in a vacuum
d.
None of the above
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Which of the following is the best definition of kinematic viscosity?
a.
The resistance of a fluid to flow
b.
The ease with which a fluid flow
c.
The velocity of a fluid
d.
The force required to move a fluid
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Which of the following is a true statement about streamlines?
a.
Streamlines never cross each other
b.
Streamlines are smooth curves that follow the path of fluid particles.
c.
Streamlines are tangent to the velocity vector at every point.
d.
All of the above.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of steady flow?
a.
The fluid particles move in smooth, parallel layers.
b.
c.
d.
The fluid particles move in a random, chaotic manner.
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What is hydrostatic pressure distribution?
a.
The distribution of temperature in a fluid in motion.
b.
The distribution of pressure in a fluid in motion.
c.
The distribution of pressure in a fluid at rest.
d.
The distribution of temperature in a fluid at rest.
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Which of the following is the main difference between a simple manometer and a differential
manometer?
a.
A simple manometer uses a single leg, while a differential manometer uses two legs.
b.
A simple manometer is less expensive than a differential manometer.
c.
A simple manometer is more accurate than a differential manometer.
d.
A simple manometer measures the pressure of a single point, while a differential manometer measures
the pressure difference between two points.
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The buoyant force for a floating body passes through the:
a.
center of gravity of the body
b.
meta-center of body
c.
centroid of displaced volume

d.
centroid of volume of the body
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What is the unit of specific volume?
a.
None of the above
Question 47
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Which of the following is the definition of kinematic viscosity?
a.
The time it takes for a known amount of fluid to flow a given distance.
b.
The ratio of the dynamic viscosity to the density of the fluid.

c.
The ratio of the shear stress to the shear rate.
d.
The force required to move a unit area of fluid parallel to a second unit area of fluid a unit distance apart
in a unit time.
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Which of the following is the best definition of dynamic viscosity?
a.
The ease with which a fluid flow
b.
The velocity of a fluid
c.
The resistance of a fluid to flow
d.
The force required to move a fluid

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Which of the following is a characteristic of laminar flow?
a.
b.
c.
The fluid particles move in smooth, parallel layers.
d.
The fluid particles move in a random, chaotic manner.
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Which of the following is the stream function?
a.
A function that gives the velocity of a fluid.
b.
A function that gives the velocity potential of a fluid
c.
A function that gives the temperature of a fluid.
d.
A function that gives the pressure of a fluid.
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The three-way catalytic converter cannot control which one of the following ________________.
a.
PM
b.
NOx
c.
HC
d.
CO
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The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following number of ________________
revolutions of crankshaft.
a.
b.
c.
1/2
d.
2
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In which is more viscous lubrication oil,________________.
a.
SAE 70
b.
SAE 50
c.
SAE 80
d.
SAE 40
Question 54
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Combustion in compression ignition engines is________________.
a.
Homogeneous
b.
Heterogeneous
c.
Laminar
d.
Both A and B
Question 55
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The ratio of indicated work done to the energy supplied by the fuel is called as _____.
a.
Volumetric efficiency
b.
Overall efficiency
c.
Thermal Efficiency
d.
Mechanical efficiency
Question 56
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The process of breaking up or a liquid into fine droplets by spraying is called as ________________.
a.
Atomization
b.
Ionization
c.
Injection
d.
Carburetion
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The presence of nitrogen in the products of combustion ensures that: ________________.
a.
Dry products of combustion are analyzed
b.
Complete combustion of fuel takes place
c.
Incomplete combustion of fuel occurs
d.
Air is used for the combustion
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The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is known
as________________.
a.
Turbulence
b.
Scavenging
c.
Pre-ignition
d.
Supercharging
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Black smoke appears in the exhaust due to ____________.
a.
combustion of lubrication oil

b.
Incomplete combustion
c.
High load operation
Question 60
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Which of the following is false for inventory control?
a.
Economic order quantity has a minimum total cost per order
b.
Inventory carrying costs increases with an increasing quantity per order
c.
Ordering cost decreases with an increasing quantity per order
d.
Inventory carrying costs decrease with an increasing quantity per order

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Which one of the following is true about forecasting.
a.
All
b.
Forecasts are not perfect
c.
Forecasts are more accurate for groups
d.
Forecast accuracy increases as time horizon decreases
Question 62
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In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is based on frequently pattern of
items.
a.
SDE Analysis
b.
ABC Analysis
c.
FSN Analysis
d.
VED Analysis
Question 63
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In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is based on lead time required to
obtain the materials.
a.
SDE Analysis
b.
VED Analysis
c.
HML Analysis
d.
FSN Analysis
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Which one of the following is not true about Economic order quantity and inventory.
a.
Average inventory level and number of orders per year are inversely related.
b.
Carrying cost are linearly related to order size
c.
None
d.
Ordering cost are non-linearly related to order size
Question 65
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--------- is the time that elapses between issuing replenishment order and receiving the material in
stores.
a.
None of the above
b.
Lead time
c.
Idle-time
d.
Replenishment time
Question 66
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Which one of the following is controllable factors of plant location.
a.
Climatic conditions
b.
Supply of raw material
c.
Proximity to markets
d.
B and C
Question 67
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--------- is the task of buying goods of the right quality in the right quantities, at the right time, and with
the right price.
a.
None of the above

b.
Supplying
c.
Scrutinizing
d.
Purchasing
Question 68
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Is the process of motivating, guiding, and supervising subordinates towards company objectives.
a.
Staffing
b.
Controlling
c.
Organizing
d.
Directing
Question 69
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Which of the following is not investment appraisal techniques.
a.
Accounting Rate of Return
b.
Profitability index
c.
Payback period
d.
Economy ordering quantity model
Question 70
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Which one of the following statements are not true
a.
The probability of occurrence of risk events is lowest near the end of a project
b.
The probability of occurrence of risk events is highest near the beginning of a project
c.
The cost associated with risk events tends to be lowest near the beginning of a project
d.
The cost associated with risk events tends to be highest near the beginning of a project
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---------Is concerned with reducing, controlling, and eliminating hazards from the organizational unit.
a.
Industrial safety
b.
plant layout
c.
Ergonomics
d.
Inventory
Question 72
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A type of plant layout useful when the production process is in a continuous or repetitive way.
a.
Process or functional layout
b.
Cellular layout
c.
Product or line layout
d.
Fixed position or location layout
Question 73
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A machine costs of 1,000,000 birr, it produces items that generate a profit of 10 birr each on a
production run of 50,000 units per year. What is the payback periods.
a.
4 years
b.
1 years
c.
2 years
d.
3 years
Question 74
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Which range of forecasting time horizon, that used to forecast facility expansion and relocation.
a.
Long range forecast
b.
Short range forecast
c.
medium range forecast
d.
A and B
Question 75
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Which one of the following is not true about Critical Path Method Technique.
a.
Critical Path Method network is event-oriented
b.
None
c.
Critical Path Method is mostly used in deterministic situations.
d.
Critical Path Method network is activity-oriented
Question 76
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Which of the following are the supplier sourcing.
a.
Multiple sourcing
b.
Sole sourcing
c.
Single sourcing
d.
All
Question 77
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A type of layout that combines the resources necessary to manufacture a good or deliver a service, in
one physical location.
a.
Fixed position/project layout
b.
Process layout
c.
Combined layout
d.
Product layout
Question 78
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In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is the source of supplies.
a.
SO-S Analysis
b.
GOLF Analysis
c.
VED Analysis
d.
SDE Analysis
Question 79
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Which one of the are not true about the importance of forecasting.
a.
For long range planning
b.
For finance and accounting
c.
None
d.
for marketing
Question 80
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Which type of organizational structure are temporary organizational structures formed for specific
projects for a specific period of time and are dismantled, once the required goal is achieved.
a.
Matrix
b.
Line
c.
Functional
d.
Line and Staff
Question 81
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-----------is the process of which planning, coordinates, supervises, controlling and carry out the tasks
associated with the flow of materials; to, through, and out of an organization in an integrated manner.
a.
Materials Management
b.
Inventory Management
c.
Project Management
d.
Resource Management
Question 82
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The primary goal of the plant layout is to minimize the profit by the arrangement of all the industrial
facilities to the best advantage of total manufacturing of the product.
a.
False
b.
True
Question 83
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A type of forecast they predict the company's products and estimate consumer request.
a.
Supply forecasts
b.
Economic forecasts
c.
Demand forecasts
d.
Technological forecasts
Question 84
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One of the following is the function of forecasting.
a.
Forecasting staff needs
b.
All
c.
Forecasting economic trend

d.
Forecasting sales
Question 85
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Is the process of measuring, evaluating and monitoring the current activities how an organization has
achieved its goals and to take any corrective actions needed to improve performance.
a.
Directing
b.
Controlling
c.
Organizing
d.
Staffing
Question 86
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In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is the nature of supplies.
a.
VED Analysis
b.
SDE Analysis
c.
GOLF Analysis
d.
SO-S Analysis
Question 87
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-------------- is a type of operation in the network that neither requires any time nor any resources.
a.
Successor activity
b.
Dummy activities
c.
Predecessor activity
d.
Critical activities
Question 88
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If an activity is an immediate predecessor for just a single activity, the Latest finishing (LF) equals the
latest starting (LS) of the activity that immediately follows it.
a.
False
b.
True
Question 89
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If an activity has multiple immediate predecessors, its earliest start (ES) is ------------.
a.
The maximum of all the earliest finishing values of its predecessors
b.
Minimum latest starting of all immediately following activities
c.
Earliest starting (ES) + activity time
Question 90
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----------is a method for shortening the project duration by reducing the time of one or more of the
critical project activities to a time that is less than the normal activity time.
a.
Crash time
b.
Project crashing
c.
Crash cost
d.
Project risk
Question 91
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Which one of the following statements are not true.
a.
When the project time is reduced, the direct cost decreases.
b.
When the project time is reduced, the direct cost increases.
c.
None
d.
When the project time is reduced, the indirect cost decreases.
Question 92
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Which type of organizational structure is difficult control because, there are no clear lines of authority
and responsibility.
a.
Matrix
b.
Line and Staff
c.
Line
d.
Functional
Question 93
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If an activity has only a single immediate predecessor, its earliest start (ES) equals the earliest finish (EF)
of the predecessor.
a.
True
b.
False
Question 94
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Slack time is ---------------.
a.
LF-ES/ES-LE
b.
LF-EF/LS-ES
c.
LS-EF/ EF-LS
d.
ES-EF/EF-ES
Question 95
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-----------is a stock of materials used to facilitate production or to satisfy customer demands. It includes
raw-materials, work-in-progress and finished goods.
a.
none
b.
Inventory
c.
purchasing
d.
Martials
Question 96
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One of the following is not the characteristics of management.
a.
Management is goal oriented
b.
Management is individual activity
c.
Management is ongoing processes
d.
Management is universal
Question 97
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Is the arrangement of industrial facilities such as personnel, operating equipment, storage space,
materials handling equipment and all other supporting services.
a.
Organization
b.
Ergonomics
c.
Plant layout
d.
Plant location
Question 98
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A type of plant layout that is useful when the production process is organized in batches.
a.
Cellular layout
b.
Fixed position or location layout
c.
Product or line layout

d.
Process or functional layout
Question 99
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Is concerned with the achievement of optimal relationship between workers and their work
environment.
a.
management
b.
Organization
c.
staff
d.
Ergonomics
Question 100
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Which one of the following factors are not internal affect productivity improvement.
a.
Infrastructure supports
b.
Poor maintenance system
c.
Insufficient plant layout
d.
Unhealthy working environment
Question 101
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Which one of the following are not the principle of good plant layout.
a.
Principle of integration
b.
None
c.
Principle of minimum distance
d.
Principle of safety and satisfaction
Question 102
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Which one of the following statements is not true about productivity.
a.
Increase in production does necessarily by itself indicate increase in productivity.
b.
Higher productivity means to produce more with the same expenditure
c.
Higher productivity means to produce more with a minimum increase in expense
d.
Productivity is the efficient utilization of resources in producing goods/services.
Question 103
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If you are a mechanical engineer, which one of the following factors to be considered in design plant
Layout.
a.
Type of Production
b.
Type of layout
c.
Hazards
d.
All
Question 104
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In which selective inventory control system, the base of classification is based on annual consumption
value/items on the basis of their usage.
a.
ABC Analysis
b.
FSN Analysis
c.
VED Analysis
d.
HML Analysis
Question 105
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--------- is a methodology for converting a large-scale project into detailed schedules for its thousands of
activities for planning, scheduling and controlling purpose.
a.
Bar Charts
b.
Milestone Charts
c.
Network Scheduling
d.
Work Breakdown Structure
Question 106
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The revision applied to the critical value so that the final result obtained improves the worth of the
result is called ________.
a.
Range
b.
Actual value
c.
Error
d.
Correction
Question 107
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Which one of the following are not systematic error?
a.
Observational errors
b.
Random errors
c.
Instrumental errors
d.
Environmental errors
Question 108
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The following quantities are typically within the scope of mechanical measurements except
a.
Current
b.
Pressure
c.
Temperature
d.
Flow
Question 109
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Which of the following device can be used for force measurement?
a.
Bourdon tube
b.
Bellows
c.
Capsule
d.
Beams
Question 110
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Which of the following can be measured using a Ring-type load cell?
a.
Both large and small weights
b.
None of the mentioned
c.
Large weigh
d.
Small weight
Question 111
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One of the following is not an advantage of digital device
a.
No need of calibration
b.
High speed
c.
Decrease of human error
d.
Accuracy
Question 112
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Which statement is false about primary standard?
a.
All are false
b.
Are not available for use outside the national laboratories.
c.
Are used by the workers and technicians who actually carry out the measurements
d.
Have highest accuracy and very expensive to own.
Question 113
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The ratio of output response to a specified change in the input
a.
Repeatability
b.
Readability
c.
Accuracy
d.
Sensitivity
Question 114
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Identify the transducer not used for the measurement of temperature.
a.
Pyrometer
b.
Bourdon gage
c.
Thermometer
d.
Thermocouple
Question 115
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_________ Sensors translate movement into a change in the mutual inductance between magnetically
coupled parts.
a.
Ultrasonic
b.
Inductive
c.
Capacitive
d.
Resistive
Question 116
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Which frequency is attenuated in a Low-Pass filter?
a.
High frequency
b.
Mid-Range frequency
c.
Low frequency
d.
No frequency
Question 117
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For the above question number 8 what will be the value of percentage of relative error?
a.
0.6
b.
0.4
c.
1.62
d.
1.45
Question 118
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Which of the following is the input quantity provided to photoelectric type transducer?
a.
Sound
b.
Pressure
c.
Light
d.
Air
Question 119
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Which of the following is an analog transducer?
a.
Digital tachometers
b.
Encoders
c.
Limit switches
d.
Strain gauge
Question 120
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A pressure indicator showed a reading as 42 bar on a scale range of 0 - 50 bar. If the true value was 41.4
bar, what is the value of static error?
a.
0.6 bar
b.
0.4 bar
c.
1.62 bar
d.
1.45
Question 121
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Which of the following properties a capacitive type transducer measures?
a.
Displacement
b.
All the above
c.
Temperature
d.
Pressure
Question 122
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A device which is used to increase or augment the weak signal.
a.
Transducer
b.
Filter
c.
Attenuator
d.
Amplifier
Question 123
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Which of the following is fundamental quantity
a.
Pressure
b.
Time
c.
Velocity
d.
All
Question 124
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RTD and Thermistors are _____ transducers.
a.
Passive and analog
b.
Active and digital
c.
Passive and digital
d.
Active and analog
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Indirect measurement involving one translation is called _______.
a.
Tertiary measurement
b.
Primary measurement
c.
None
d.
Secondary measurement
Question 126
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_________sensors rely on variation of the resistance of a material when the measured variable is
applied to it.
a.
Ultrasonic
b.
Resistive
c.
Inductive
d.
Capacitive
Question 127
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A filter that has a pass band which allows all frequencies from zero up to some frequency to be
transmitted.
a.
Band pass filter
b.
Band stop filter

c.
Low pass filter
d.
High pass filter
Question 128
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Which of the following elements of control systems is responsible for transforming the output of a
microprocessor/microcontroller into a controlling action on a machine?
a.
Actuator
b.
Sensor
c.
Controller
d.
System
Question 129
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A combination of components which are coordinated together to perform a specific objective.
a.
Mechatronics
b.
Modeling
c.
All
d.
System
Question 130
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The term PLC stands for:

a.
Programmable local computer.
b.
Personal logic computer
c.
Personal logic controller
d.
Programmable logic controller.
Question 131
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All are displacement sensor except
a.
Capacitive element
b.
Strain-gauged element
c.
Potentiometer
d.
Piezoelectric
Question 132
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One of the following is different from the others
a.
Brushed DC Motor
b.
Relays
c.
Diodes
d.
Transistors
Question 133
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Produce force only in one direction by hydraulic/pneumatic pressure acting on the piston
a.
Directional control valve
b.
Double acting cylinder
c.
Single acting cylinder
d.
All
Question 134
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A device which is used to increase or augment the weak signal.
a.
Amplifier
b.
Attenuator
c.
Filter
d.
Transducer
Question 135
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_________ is a motor that produces rotation through equal angles for each digital pulse supplied to its
input.
a.
Stepper motor
b.
DC motor
c.
Servo motor
d.
Ac motor
Question 136
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An input condition that is open when de-energized describes
a.
Normally closed
b.
Negated Output
c.
Normally open
d.
Output
Question 137
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An electronic component which is used as switching device
a.
Resistor
b.
Transistor
c.
Capacitor
d.
Inductor
Question 138
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The Wheatstone bridge can be used to convert
a.
Resistance changes to a voltage change
b.
Voltage changes to a current change
c.
Voltage changes to a resistance change
d.
Current change to a resistance change
Question 139
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Which one is not the function of transducer in mechatronics?
a.
To produce force only in one direction by hydraulic/pneumatic pressure acting on the Piston.
b.
To act as protective mechanism for a system
c.
To make mechanically complex and expensive feeding and sorting devices
d.
To provide identification and indication of the presence of different components
Question 140
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Which of the following is velocity sensor?
a.
Orifice plate
b.
Potentiometer
c.
Tach generator
d.
Strain gage
Question 141
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Directional control valve is considered as
a.
A and C
b.
ON/OFF Control
c.
Finite Position
d.
Infinite Position
Question 142
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The extent to which the measured value might be wrong and normally expressed in percentage is called
a.
Reproducibility
b.
Sensitivity
c.
Accuracy
d.
Error
Question 143
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The ability of transducer to give the same output when used to measure a constant input over a period
of time is called __________
a.
Sensitivity
b.
Repeatability
c.
Reproducibility
d.
Stability
Question 144
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One of the following is not the function of sequencing
a.
Timing
b.
Logic
c.
Sequencing
d.
None
Question 145
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___________ is a mechanical actuator that give change of speed in mechatronic system.
a.
Valves
b.
Belt
c.
Motors
d.
Gears
Question 146
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Modulus of resilience is defined as
a.
Strain energy per unit volume
b.
Independent of strain energy
c.
d.
Strain energy per unit area
Question 147
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Find the mean coil diameter of a helical compression sprig if a load of 1200N is applied on the spring.
Spring index is 6, and wire diameter 7mm.
a.
7/6mm
b.
42mm
c.
None of the listed
Question 148
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Which one are not methods of reducing stress concentration?
a.
Use of multiple holes instead of single hole
b.
None
c.
Avoiding sharp corners.
d.
Providing fillets.
Question 149
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In which of the following case stress concentration factor is ignored?
a.
Ductile material under static load
b.
Brittle material under fluctuating load
c.
Brittle material under +static load
d.
Ductile material under fluctuating load
Question 150
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Which of the following is not true about gears?
a.
Transmit large power
b.
Constant velocity ratio
c.
Positive drive
d.
Bulky construction
Question 151
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Which one of the following are a measure of stiffness?
a.
Modulus of plasticity
b.
Modulus of elasticity
c.
Toughness
d.
Resilience
Question 152
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Which of the following is not the function of a spring?
a.
They are used to measure displacement
b.
They are used to store energy
c.
They are used to absorb shocks and vibrations

d.
They are used for the measurement of force and to control motion
Question 153
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A_______ bearing supports the load acting along the axis of the shaft.
a.
Transversal
b.
Radial
c.
Thrust
d.
Longitudinal
Question 154
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If the spring is compressed completely and the adjacent coils touch each other, the length of spring is
called as?
a.
Solid length
b.
c.
Compressed length
d.
Free length
Question 155
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The phenomenon of decreased resistance of the materials to fluctuating stresses is the main
characteristic of _____ failure.
a.
Fatigue
b.
c.
Fracture
d.
Yielding
Question 156
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An unfired pressure vessel is used to carry stem, gases or fluids at pressure.
a.
b.
Less than atmospheric pressure
c.
Greater than atmospheric pressure
d.
Equal to atmospheric pressure
Question 157
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If driving gear rotates ACW, driven gear will rotate in which direction?
a.
Both CW and ACW
b.
ACW
c.
CW
Question 158
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The shaft is always stepped with ________ diameter at the middle portion and __________ diameter at
the shaft ends.
a.
Maximum, minimum
b.
Zero, infinity
c.
Minimum, minimum
d.
Minimum, maximum
Question 159
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Which of the following act on shafts?
a.
Bending Moment
b.
Both torsional and bending
c.
d.
Torsional moment
Question 160
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Which of the following is not a type of sunk key?
a.
Gib headed key
b.
Square key
c.
Hollow saddle key

d.
Woodruff key
Question 161
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Use of multiple notches in a V shaped flat plate will
a.
Reduce the stress concentration
b.
No effect
c.
Increase the stress concentration
d.
Cannot be determined
Question 162
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Which of the following can be used for power transmission in intersecting shafts?
a.
None of the listed
b.
Bevel Gear
c.
Helical Gear
d.
Spur Gear
Question 163
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Longitudinal stress in a cylinder is given by [symbols have their usual meanings].
a.
PD/4t
b.
PD/2t
c.
2PD/t
d.
4PD/t
Question 164
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Which of the following is not a type of welding joint?
a.
Single strap joint
b.
Tee joint
c.
Butt joint
d.
Lap joint
Question 165
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The phenomenon of decreased resistance of the materials to fluctuating stresses is the main
characteristic of _____ failure.
a.
Fatigue
b.
Fracture
c.
Yielding
d.
None
Question 166
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-------Is the determination of the technical state or state of damage of equipment?
a.
Maintenance technique
b.
None
c.
Sampling techniques
d.
Technical diagnostics
Question 167
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As a product has more components, what will be the reliability?

a.
All
b.
The reliability is constant
c.
The reliability is decrease
d.
The reliability is increase.
Question 168
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What is the primary goal of improving availability?
a.
To reduce maintenance costs
b.
To increase the number of spare parts available

c.
To increase the utilization of the equipment or system
d.
To reduce the number of repairs needed
Question 169
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Is a set of activities that detect changes in the physical condition of equipment (signs of failure) in order
to carry out the appropriate maintenance work.
a.
Predictive maintenance
b.
Preventive maintenance
c.
Reactive maintenance
d.
Breakdown maintenance
Question 170
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The __________goes on increasing with the increase in degree of maintenance efforts.
a.
Cost of spares and maintenance
b.
Labor and overhead cost
c.
All of the above
d.
Cost of down time
Question 171
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---------is the interval between the occurrence of a potential failure and its deterioration in to functional
failure.
a.
P-S interval
b.
None
c.
P-D interval
d.
P-F interval
Question 172
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Due to damages, bearings will either gets:
a.
All
b.
Abnormal noise
c.
Vibration
d.
Heated up
Question 173
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Which of the following are the general-purpose monitoring techniques?
a.
Thermal monitoring
b.
Vibration/noise monitoring
c.
All
d.
Lubricant monitoring
Question 174
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Which of the following are the symptoms of misalignment?
a.
Excessive amount of oil leakage at the bearing seals
b.
High casing temperatures at or near the bearings
c.
Loose foundation bolts
d.
All
Question 175
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The cost of spare parts is more than ____ of the total maintenance cost in the industry.
a.
55%
b.
45
c.
50%
d.
60%
Question 176
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One of the following reinforcement and anchoring approaches provides relatively a more rigid support.
a.
All
b.
Anchor Bolts and Shims
c.
Leveling Wedges
d.
Leveling Screws
Question 177
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This type of schedule allows 10% to 15% of the workforce to be available for emergency work.
a.
Medium-range
b.
Weekly
c.
Daily
d.
Long-range
Question 178
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Which one of the following is NOT the advantage of standardization?
a.
Eliminates the need for special components
b.
Improves in reliability
c.
Increases maintenance time and cost
Question 179
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Which of the following is an example of preventive maintenance?

a.
Replacing a broken machine part
b.
None of the above
c.
Cleaning an air filter
d.
Repairing a malfunctioning machine
Question 180
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Damage is classified as:
a.
All
b.
Corrosion
c.
Wear
d.
Fatigue
Question 181
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Which of the following is a common tool used in maintenance engineering?
a.
Root Cause Analysis (RCA)
b.
Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA
c.
All of the above
d.
Pareto Analysis
Question 182
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What is maintenance technology?
a.
The tools and techniques used to support maintenance activities
b.
The process of measuring the effectiveness of maintenance activities
c.
The process of performing maintenance on equipment or systems
d.
The process of scheduling maintenance activities
Question 183
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Failures are resulting from:
a.
All
b.
material or information input
c.
customer actions
d.
within the operation
Question 184
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------ is the probability that items or system can be retained in, or can be restored to operating condition
in a specified amount of time.
a.
None
b.
Maintainability
c.
Availability
d.
Reliability
Question 185
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Which of the following are maintenance schedule techniques?
a.
CPM
b.
Modified Gantt chart
c.
All
d.
PERT
Question 186
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Several findings show the reason why seals fail. How many percent does improper installation
constitutes to the failure?
a.
22 percent
b.
26 percent
c.
12 percent
d.
15 percent
Question 187
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Which of the following are true about P-F interval?
a.
The failure development period.
b.
lead time to failure
c.
warning period
d.
All
Question 188
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Maintenance schedule can be prepared at:
a.
Daily schedule
b.
Long-range schedule
c.
All
d.
Weekly schedule
Question 189
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In designing the foundation for an alignment-critical machine, all factors are important except:
a.
Local soil conditions
b.
Stiffness of a foundation
c.
Different foundation block

d.
Foundation thickness
Question 190
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All but one is not the way of achieving a good reliability.
a.
To have fewer number of components
b.
To have backup components
c.
To have a parallel system
d.
To have a series system
Question 191
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----------is defined as an identifiable physical condition which indicates that a functional failure is either
about to occur or it is in the process of occurring.
a.
functional failure
b.
Potential failure
c.
Physical failure
d.
Chemical failure
Question 192
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Which of the following are the causes of shaft failure?
a.
All
b.
Fatigue
c.
Wear
d.
Misalignment
Question 193
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Which of the following are true about objectives of planning and scheduling maintenance?
a.
Maintaining the operating equipment at a responsive level in terms of delivery schedule and quality.
b.
Maximizing the efficient use of work time, material, and equipment
c.
All
d.
Minimizing the idle time of maintenance workers
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What is the life history curve of equipment?
a.
A graph that shows the cost of equipment over time
b.
A graph that shows the maintenance requirements of equipment over time
c.
A graph that shows the performance of equipment over time
d.
A graph that shows the failure rate of equipment over time
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MTTR is estimated to:
a.
Estimate the time required in marketing
b.
Calculate labor cost
c.
Determine work maintenance
d.
Determine the actual repair work required
Question 196
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----------Is a system that utilizes to collected data from the machinery in order to predict and prevent the
potential failures?
a.
Intelligent Maintenance System
b.
Normal Maintenance System
c.
Old Maintenance System
d.
Typical Maintenance System
Question 197
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Which one of the following is not true about Proper machine installations?
a.
Maximize reliability
b.
Minimizing maintenance challenge
c.
Maximize life cycle costs of production machinery
d.
Maximize capacity utilization
Question 198
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Which of the following is a common type of vibration sensor?
a.
Pressure transducer
b.
Microphone
c.
Thermocouple
d.
Accelerometer
Question 199
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Which of the following are true about the relationship between Weibull analysis and hazard rate?
a.
When B less than 1, we get a decreasing hazard function
b.
When B = 1, the hazard function is constant
c.
All
d.
When B greater than 1, we get increasing hazard function.
Question 200
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Which of the following are the basic elements of maintenance technology?

a.
Servicing
b.
Operation
c.
Repair.
d.
All
Question 201
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The following are the most commonly used inventory analyses except one.
a.
FSM
b.
SDE
c.
VED
d.
HML
Question 202
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Which of the following are true about the purpose of planned maintenance
a.
To prevent the occurrence of breakdown
b.
If breakdown has occurred then to restore it to original condition
c.
If breakdown has occurred then discard the items
d.
A and B
Question 203
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Which one of the following is not the benefit of predictive type of maintenance
a.
Low production
b.
Less machine failure
c.
Low maintenance cost
d.
Longer machine life
Question 204
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The damage in sliding bearings is the result of:

a.
Fatigue
b.
None
c.
Wear plus Fatigue
d.
Wear
Question 205
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The cost of spare parts is more than ____ of the total maintenance cost in the industry.
a.
60%
b.
50%
c.
45
d.
55%
Question 206
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Which one of the following are the commonly measure of availability.
a.
All
b.
Achieved Availability
c.
Inherent Availability
d.
Operational Availability
Question 207
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--------- are a type of decision-making environments, it has more than one states of nature exist but it has
sufficient information to know the consequences of different actions.
a.
None
b.
Decision Making under Conditions of Risk
c.
Decision Making under Conditions of Uncertainty
d.
Decision Making under Conditions of Certainty
Question 208
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What would happen, if equipment possesses reliability and maintainability to the maximum extent in
accordance to MTTR?
a.
Failure rate is lower and downtime is shorter
b.
Failure rate is higher and downtime is longer
c.
Failure rate is lower and downtime is longer
d.
Failure rate is higher and downtime is shorter
Question 209
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Which of the following is a technique used to monitor the condition of bearings?
a.
Oil analysis
b.
Partial discharge testing
c.
Acoustic emission testing
d.
Thermography
Question 210
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Which of the following are not true about debugging phase in hazard rate curves?
a.
Hazard rate is rapid decrease
b.
Infant mortality
c.
Hazard rate is constant
Question 211
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Which of the following are the category of Preventive Maintenance
a.
Design-out Maintenance
b.
Running Maintenance
c.
Shut-down Maintenance
d.
All
Question 212
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Which of the following are categories of condition monitoring techniques?

a.
Chemical monitoring
b.
Dynamic monitoring
c.
Temperature monitoring
d.
All
Question 213
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In which generation, the maintenance was restricted to fixing the components when it breaks because it
was the cheapest alternative.
a.
Fourth generation
b.
First generation
c.
Third Generation
d.
Second Generation
Question 214
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The P-F curve shows all but not one
a.
None
b.
Where the equipment has failed indicating functional failure.
c.
Where failure in the equipment starts to occur.
d.
Where equipment condition deteriorates to the point at which the failure can be detected; and finally.
Question 215
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Which of the following are true about maintenance planning?
a.
Improved utilization of the maintenance workforce
b.
All
c.
Reduced maintenance cost
d.
Improved quality of maintenance work
Question 216
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Which of the following are the objectives of spare parts managements?

a.
Minimizing the economic costs.
b.
Minimize environmental costs
c.
Maximizing spare parts availability,
d.
All
Question 217
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Which of the following are not maintenance objectives.
a.
Minimizing energy usage.
b.
Improving equipment efficiency

c.
Minimizing production
d.
Reducing downtime.
Question 218
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Which of the following is NOT a step in the maintenance planning process?
a.
Developing a maintenance schedule
b.
Assigning maintenance personnel
c.
Conducting maintenance activities
d.
Identifying maintenance needs

Question 219
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All but one is not the way of achieving a more reliability.
a.
To have a parallel system
b.
To have backup component
c.
To have a series system
d.
To have fewer number of components
Question 220
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Which of the following is a common metric used to measure maintainability?
a.
Overall Equipment Effectiveness (OEE)
b.
None of the above
c.
Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)
d.
Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)
Question 221
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Most failures give some warning before they occur. This warning is------------
a.
functional failure
b.
Chemical failure
c.
Potential failure
d.
Physical failure
Question 222
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Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when determining the appropriate level of spares
provisioning?
a.
The age of the equipment
b.
The frequency of equipment failures
c.
The lead time required to obtain spare parts
d.
The cost of the spare parts
Question 223
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Which one of the following is the first most important aspect of reliability?
a.
All
b.
Design
c.
Transportation
d.
Production
Question 224
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Question text
For the successful spare parts management, it is essential to analyze the spare parts inventory based on:
a.
Annual consumption value
b.
Criticality
c.
Frequency of issues
d.
All
Question 225
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-----------is the measuring technique of the state of damage that determines the difference between the
initial state and the state after wear process.
a.
Related measurement
b.
Indirect measured
c.
Absolute measurement
d.
Direct measured
Question 226
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With the increase in preventive maintenance cost, breakdown maintenance cost
a.
Increases
b.
Decreases
c.
Remains same
d.
Any of the above
Question 227
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A systematic approach for maintenance is?
a.
This choice was deleted after the attempt was started.
Question 228
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Which of the following are the defects rolling bearing?
a.
Bearing inner race loose on shaft
b.
Miss-alignment
c.
Bearing running dry
d.
All
Question 229
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The state of damage of equipment is depends on:
a.
All
b.
Kind of damage
c.
condition of damage
d.
Duration of operation of equipment

Question 230
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Which of the following is a benefit of preventive maintenance?
a.
Increased repair costs
b.
Increased downtime
c.
None of the above
d.
Increased equipment life
Question 231
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Damage is influenced by:
a.
conditions of use of equipment
b.
environmental conditions
c.
operational processes
d.
All
Question 232
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a maintainable equipment or system?
a.
Standardized components and procedures
b.
Easy access to components that require maintenance
c.
Diagnostic capabilities
d.
High complexity
Question 233
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Which of the following is NOT a factor considered when determining spares provisioning levels?
a.
Production capacity
b.
Criticality of the equipment
c.
Consumption value
d.
Lead time
Question 234
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Which of the following are not true about useful life phase in hazard rate curves?
a.
the failures occur randomly manner
b.
hazard rate is constant
c.
None
d.
Weibull distributions B = 1
Question 235
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Question text
Which of the following are not true about wear-out phase in hazard rate curves?
a.
hazard rate is increases
b.
End of life failure
c.
Weibull distributions B= 1
Question 236
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Which of the following are the reconditioning steps?
a.
All
b.
Repair
c.
Overhaul
d.
Inspection
Question 237
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Which of the following is defined as average of the time taken in repair work?
a.
Breakdown maintenance
b.
Total productive maintenance
c.
Predictive maintenance
d.
Preventive maintenance
Question 238
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Which of the following are the objectives of accurate alignment?
a.
Minimize the amount of shaft bending
b.
Minimize the amount of wear
c.
Reduce excessive axial and radial forces
d.
All
Question 239
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-------- Is the process by which jobs are matched with resources and sequenced to be executed at a
certain point in time?
a.
Planning
b.
Networking
c.
Staffing
d.
Scheduling
Question 240
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On-condition tasks are carried out at
a.
at the P-F intervals
b.
A and C
c.
less than the P-F intervals
d.
greater than the P-F intervals
Question 241
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Which of the following is not a type of preventive maintenance?
a.
Calibration
b.
Inspections
c.
Lubrication
d.
Replacing broken parts
Question 242
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Which of the following are true about maintenance scheduling?
a.
All
b.
Facilitates optimum use of highly paid maintenance staff
c.
Eliminates chances of sudden breakdown
d.
Facilitates proper sequence in maintenance service
Question 243
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Question text
Which one of the following is the first most important aspect of reliability?
a.
Design
b.
Transportation
c.
Production
d.
All
Question 244
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Which of the following is NOT a goal of spares provisioning?
a.
Minimizing downtime
b.
Maximizing repair costs
c.
Reducing inventory costs
d.
Ensuring availability of necessary spare parts
Question 245
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Which of the following is a technique used to monitor the condition of insulation in electrical
equipment?
a.
b.
Partial discharge testing
c.
Oil analysis
d.
Thermography
Question 246
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Which of the following remedies are true for preventing shaft failures?
a.
All
b.
Misalignment can be eliminated by proper assembly procedures
c.
Fatigue can be reduced by proper design of local areas
d.
Wear of can be prevented by using proper lubrication
Question 247
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--------- are a type of decision-making environments, it has more than one states of nature exist but lacks
sufficient knowledge and insufficient information to know the consequences of different actions.
a.
None
b.
Decision Making under Conditions of Certainty
c.
Decision Making under Conditions of Uncertainty
d.
Decision Making under Conditions of Risk
Question 248
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-------are a type of decisions that have been encountered and made in the past.
a.
Programmed decisions
b.
Associative choices
c.
None
d.
Non programmed decisions
Question 249
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What is the primary goal of improving maintainability?
a.
To reduce the time required to perform repairs
b.
To increase the utilization of the equipment or system
c.
To reduce the number of repairs needed

d.
To reduce maintenance costs
Question 250
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How much of the annual steel production is lost due to corrosion.
a.
15%
b.
5%
c.
3%
d.
10%
Question 251
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---------- is done to keep an equipment or machinery in a satisfactory operating condition through regular
inspection, calibration, lubrication or replacement of certain components.
a.
Corrective Maintenance
b.
Preventive Maintenance
c.
Predictive Maintenance
d.
Running Maintenance
Question 252
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----------are techniques of condition monitoring that mostly carried out without interruption of operation
of the unit.
a.
Dynamic monitoring techniques
b.
Off-load monitoring techniques
c.
Particle monitoring techniques
d.
On-load monitoring techniques
Question 253
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--------Is the probability that an item/equipment or system will perform its intended function for a stated
period of time under specified operating conditions?
a.
Maintainability
b.
Reliability
c.
None
d.
Availability
Question 254
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Which of the following are the causes of equipment breakdown?
a.
Unsound foundation
b.
Too high or too low voltage supply
c.
Lack of lubrication
d.
All
Question 255
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Which of the following is a technique used to monitor the condition of rotating machinery?
a.
Vibration analysis
b.
c.
Oil analysis
d.
Thermography
Question 256
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Which of the following statement is correct for orthogonal cutting system?

a.
The cutting edge clears the width of the workpiece on either ends
b.
The cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
c.
All of the above
d.
The chip flows over the tool face and the direction of the chip flow velocity is normal to the cutting edge
Question 257
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In manufacturing self-lubricating bearings by powder metallurgy an important secondary operation that

is carried out after sintering is
a.
Infiltration
b.
Cold isostatic pressing

c.
Impregnation
d.
Hot isostatic pressing
Question 258
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Composites are used in
a.
all of the above
b.
earthquake proof highway supports
c.
power generating wind mills
d.
long span bridges

Question 259
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Following is the earliest known fibers used to reinforce materials
a.
Wood fibers
b.
Glass fibers
c.
Carbon fibers
d.
Plant fibers
Question 260
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An acetylene/oxygen flame burns at ___ degree Celsius.
a.
3073
b.
3773
c.
2250
d.
2526
Question 261
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This is a bulk forming process in which the workpiece or billet is shaped into finished part by the
application of compressive and tensile forces with the help of a pair of rods.
a.
Wire drawing
b.
Extrusion
c.
Rolling
d.
Forging
Question 262
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Fused deposition modeling is a layer AM process that uses a _______________filament by fused

deposition.
a.
Thermoelastic
b.
None
c.
Thermoplastic
d.
Polylactic
Question 263
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A property of sand due to which it evolves a great amount of steam and other gasses is called
a.
permeability
b.
cohesiveness
c.
adhesiveness
d.
none
Question 264
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From the following which one falls under the trade name full mold process?
a.
Squeeze casting
b.
Slush casting
c.
Semi-solid metal casting
d.
Evaporative pattern casting
Question 265
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In heading, the maximum length that can be upset in a single blow is _________ the diameter of the
initial wire stock.
a.
Four times
b.
None
c.
Two times
d.
One times
Question 266
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The defects due to metal starts freezing before reaching the farthest point in the cavity is:
a.
Cold shut
b.
Gas holes
c.
Mis run
d.
Pin hole
Question 267
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Which of the following is (are) property(ies) of ceramic?
a.
Corrosion resistant
b.
Heat resistant
c.
All
d.
Brittle
Question 268
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The main drawback to the use of FDM technology is___________.
a.
Surface finish
b.
Quality
c.
Speed of construction
d.
All
Question 269
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Which casting defect occurs due to excess moisture content in molding sand?
a.
Inclusion
b.
Porosity
c.
Shrinkage
d.
Blow holes
Question 270
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Which of the following is ceramic forming technique(s)?
a.
slip casting
b.
all of the above

c.
shaping by hand
d.
injection moulding
Question 271
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Friction at the tool-chip interface can be reduced by
a.
Increasing the cutting speed
b.
Decreasing the cutting speed
c.
Increasing the depth of cut
d.
Decreasing the rake angle

Question 272
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Gas welding is also known as
a.
oxy-fuel welding
b.
oxyacetylene welding
c.
all of the above
d.
oxy welding
Question 273
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The cold working of metals is carried out by

a.
below the recrystallization temperature
b.
the any temperature
c.
at a recrystallization temperature
d.
above the recrystallization temperature
Question 274
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What is the major problem in hot extrusion?
a.
Wear and tear of die
b.
Design of punch
c.
Wear of punch
d.
Design of die
Question 275
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Ultra-Sonic Machining removes materials using the ____________ tool.
a.
Inclined oscillating
b.
Perpendicularly rotating
c.
Perpendicularly oscillating
d.
Axially oscillating
Question 276
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Drilling is an example of
a.
Orthogonal cutting
b.
Oblique cutting
c.
Uniform cutting
d.
Simple cutting
Question 277
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--------------SLA printing uses a plastic strand that's pushed through a heated nozzle.
a.
True
b.
False
Question 278
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The welder uses the ___ flame as the starting point for all other flame adjustments.
a.
Oxidizing
b.
None
c.
Reducing
d.
Neutral
Question 279
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The process in which molten metal is forced to pass through a nozzle in to a steam of water or air is
called__________
a.
Shotting
b.
Electrolysis
c.
Reduction
d.
Atomization
Question 280
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Which of the following is typically the cheapest type of 3D printer?
a.
SLA
b.
Powder based
c.
SLM
d.
FDM
Question 281
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which one is the function of a matrix?
a.
Holds the fibers together

b.
Enhances transverse properties of a laminate
c.
Protects the fibers from environment
d.
All of the above
Question 282
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In oxidizing flame, the color of inner cone is
a.
purplish tinge
b.
red
c.
dark blue
d.
light blue
Question 283
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Sintering increases
a.
Electrical conductivity, density and brittleness
b.
Porosity, electrical conductivity and brittleness
c.
Porosity, density and ductility
d.
Electrical conductivity, density and ductility
Question 284
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What must be the velocity of the carrier gas that carries the abrasive particles in AJM?
a.
none
b.
200-400 m/sec
c.
300-500 m/sec
d.
100-200 m/sec
Question 285
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Which of the following will give better chip flow?
a.
Positive back rake angle tool
b.
c.
Zero back rake angle tool
d.
Negative back rake angle tool
Question 286
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Which type of 3D printer uses a pool of resin to create the solid part?
a.
SNL
b.
SLA
c.
FDM
d.
None
Question 287
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From the following which printer melts metal?
a.
SLM
b.
FDM
c.
SLS
d.
SLA
Question 288
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Which of the following process would produce strongest components?
a.
Hot rolling
b.
Cold rolling
c.
Forging
d.
Extrusion
Question 289
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After debarring is done, which of the following is formed?
a.
Flat surfaces
b.
Controlled radius
c.
All
d.
Sharp edges
Question 290
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Thermoplastics is an example of
a.
Ceramic matrix composites

b.
Carbon and Graphic matrix composites
c.
Polymer matrix composites
d.
Metal matrix composites
Question 291
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The first step in each product design process is to________and conceptualize the function and
appearance of the product.
a.
Summarize
b.
None
c.
Imagine
d.
Visualize
Question 292
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Which one of the following processes does NOT use laser?
a.
LOM
b.
FDM
c.
SLA
d.
SLS
Question 293
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Which one of the following engineering materials is defined as a compound containing metallic and
nonmetallic elements:
a.
ceramic
b.
metal
c.
polymer
d.
composite
Question 294
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Which of the following cutting conditions greatly affects the tool wear?
a.
None of the above is correct.

b.
Depth of cut
c.
Cutting speed
d.
Feed
Question 295
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Tool life is measured by the
a.
Time the tool is in contact with the job
b.
All of the above
Question 296
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The heat generated in resistance welding is expressed by
a.
4I2RT
b.
2I2RT
c.
I2RT
d.
IRT2
Question 297
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In metal machining, the zone where the heat is generated due to friction between the moving chip and
the tool face, is called
a.
Shear zone
b.
Friction zone
c.
Work-tool contact zone
d.
None of these
Question 298
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Which of the following materials can be machined using ECM?
a.
Hard nonconductive materials
b.
All conductive materials
c.
All of the above
d.
Hard conductive materials
Question 299
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Which of the following tools are generally manufactured by Powder metallurgy?
a.
Low carbon steel
b.
Abrasives
c.
Cemented carbides
d.
High carbon steel
Question 300
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In which one of the following ionized gas are used to cut metal sheet?
a.
Laser beam machining
b.
Plasma arc machining
c.
Electron beam machining
d.
Ultrasonic machining
Question 301
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What type of electrodes are used in resistance seam welding

a.
Pointed
b.
Flat
c.
Disk
d.
Domed
Question 302
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Green sand is a mixture of
a.
90% sand and 10% clay
b.

c.
d.
Question 303
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Cold working of a metals increase
a.
all of these
b.
yield strength
c.
hardness
d.
tensile strength
Question 304
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What is the cause of pinhole defects in casting?
a.
Tiny blow holes occurring either at or just below the casting surface.
b.
Metal starts freezing before reaching the farthest point in the cavity
c.
Entrapped spherical shaped bubbles
d.
Metal starts freezing before reaching the center of the casting for a casting with two gates at its two
sides
Question 305
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Advanced machining process by which small portion of the worksurface to be removed by fusion or
vaporization is:
a.
Electro chemical machining
b.
Chemical machining
c.
Mechanical machining
d.
Thermal machining
Question 306
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Which of the following is typically the most expensive type of 3D printer?
a.
SLA
b.
SLM
c.
FDM
d.
None
Question 307
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From the following which one is the sequence of operations in conventional powder metallurgy
process?
a.
Blending and mixing__Atomization__Compacting__Sintering
b.
Atomization__Blending and mixing__Compacting__Sintering
c.
Blending and mixing__Compacting__Atomization__Sintering
d.
Atomization__Blending and mixing__Sintering__Compacting
Question 308
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LOM machines are primarily used for rapid prototyping of_______________
a.
Ceramic parts
b.
Plastic parts
c.
Wooden parts
d.
Metallic parts
Question 309
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Which one of the following secondary operations is used to improve the self-lubricating capacity of the
sintered part in powder metallurgy?
a.
Impregnation
b.
Infiltration
c.
Coining
d.
Repressing
Question 310
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The tool life increases with the
a.
Decrease in back rake angle

b.
Increase in side cutting edge angle
c.
Decrease in nose radius
d.
Decrease in side rake angle
Question 311
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Additive manufacturing uses much less material than other subtractive manufacturing processes.
a.
false
b.
true
Question 312
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Which one among the following welding processes uses non-consumable electrode?
a.
Gas tungsten arc welding
b.
Gas metal arc welding
c.
Submerged arc welding
d.
Flux coated arc welding
Question 313
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Thermal cracking of tools occurs at
a.

b.
Low cutting speed
c.
Low temperature
d.
High temperature
Question 314
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The property by virtue of which a sand mold is capable of with standing a high temperature of the
molten metal with out fusing is known as_______
a.
Refractoriness
b.
Adhesiveness
c.
Porosity
d.
Cohesiveness
Question 315
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Which motion is responsible to determine the geometry of jobs to be machined?
a.
b.
Relative motion between tool and work piece
c.
Only Motion of tool
d.
Only motion of work piece
Question 316
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Which of the type of centrifugal casting methods is used to produce?
a.
Semi centrifugal casting
b.
True centrifugal casting
c.
Centrifuge casting
d.
None centrifugal casting
Question 317
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Which one of the following methods is not used for producing metal powders?
a.
Atomization
b.
Electrolysis
c.
Compacting
d.
Machining and grinding
Question 318
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In which one of the following casting process oil bonded sand and gray iron are used as a typical core
material?
a.
Semisolid metal casting
b.
Permanent mold casting

c.
Squeeze casting
d.
Slush casting
Question 319
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Which one of the following is a machine used to perform extrusion:
a.
milling machine
b.
forge hammer
c.
press
d.
rolling mill
Question 320
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Spherical metal powders are produced by:
a.
Electrolytic process
b.
Oxidation
c.
Reduction
d.
Atomization
Question 321
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In the following properties of nozzle, which of them does not influence the MRR in AJM?
a.
Size
b.
Wear
c.
Outside temperature
d.
Distance from work piece
Question 322
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What material is not used in 3D printing?
a.
PVC
b.
PLA
c.
ABS
d.
Nylon
Question 323
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Density in sintering product is improved by
a.
hot pressing
b.
cold pressing
c.
Coining
d.
A and C
Question 324
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Which method is used to make powder of metals having low melting point?
a.
Chemical reduction
b.
Mechanical pulverization
c.
d.
Atomization
Question 325
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Which of the following gas welding process uses constant voltage?
a.
Stud welding
b.
Tungsten inert gas welding
c.
d.
Question 326
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By increasing cutting speed, amount of heat generated
a.

b.
Increases
c.
Remains constant
d.
Decreases
Question 327
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In abrasive jet machining, as the distance between the nozzle tip and the work surface increases, the
material removal rate
a.
Decreases becomes stable and then increases
b.
Increases continuously
c.
Increases, becomes stable and then decreases

d.
Decreases continuously
Question 328
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In which of the following gas welding process a non-consumable electrode is used?
a.
b.
Tungsten inert gas welding
c.
d.
Stud welding
Question 329
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Question text
In a single point turning operation with a cemented carbide and steel combination having a Taylor
exponent of 0.25, if the cutting speed is halved, then the tool life will become
a.
Half
b.
Two times
c.
Sixteen times
d.
Eight times
Question 330
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For machining to take place, tool should be penetrated into work piece to a certain _____
a.
Height
b.
Length
c.
Depth
d.
Width
Question 331
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Which type of sand is used in shell molding?
a.
Black sand
b.
Dry and fine sand
c.
Wet and fine sand

d.
Any of the sand
Question 332
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What is the function of flux in submerged arc welding?
a.
To prevent oxidation of joint
b.
To prevent sticking of molten metal
c.
To prevent spattering of molten metal
d.
To completely cover the welded zone
Question 333
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3D printing technology is expanding and is now able to print metal parts.
a.
True
b.
False
Question 334
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Cast iron during machining produces
a.
Continuous chips
b.
Discontinuous chips
c.
Continuous chips with built-up edge
d.
B and C are correct
Question 335
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From the following which one is not independent variable in cutting process?
a.
tool material and coatings
b.
cutting fluids
c.
cutting speed, feed, and depth of cut
d.
temperature rise in the workpiece, the tool, and the chip,
Question 336
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Gas hole defect is the result of:
a.
Metal starts freezing before reaching the farthest point in the cavity
b.
Metal starts freezing before reaching the center of the casting for a casting with two gates at its two
sides
c.
Entrapped spherical shaped bubbles
d.
Tiny blow holes occurring either at or just below the casting surface
Question 337
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Which of the following processes start with a material that is in a fluid or semifluid state and solidifies
the material in a cavity:
a.
casting
b.
pressing
c.
forging
d.
machining
Question 338
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Types of machining used to remove round sharp corners on holes in metal parts produced by
conventional through-hole drilling is called:
a.
Electro chemical grinding
b.
Electro chemical debarring

c.
None of the above
d.
Electro chemical drilling
Question 339
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In plasma arc welding the gas is?
a.
Vaporized
b.
Magnetized
c.
Heated
d.
Ionized
Question 340
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Angle between side cutting edge and axis of tool is known as
a.
Back rake angle
b.
Side relief angle
c.
Side cutting edge angle
d.
Side rake angle
Question 341
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From the following printers which one can print multiple materials at one time?
a.
None
b.
SLA
c.
SLM
d.
FDM
Question 342
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In the orthogonal cutting of metals _________
a.
the cutting forces occur in one direction only
b.
the cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
c.
the cutting edge is wider than the depth of cut
d.
all of the mentioned
Question 343
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Casting defects due to metal starts freezing before reaching the center of the casting for a casting with
two gates at its two sides is called_________
a.
Mis run
b.
Gas holes
c.
Pin hole
d.
Cold shut
Question 344
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Which of the following method is used to make powder for brittle metals?
a.
Chemical reduction
b.
c.
Atomization
d.
Mechanical pulverization
Question 345
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The process of cutting hole of various shapes and sizes in to a work piece
a.
trimming
b.
slitting
c.
punching
d.
die
Question 346
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Which of the following components influence the material removal rate in Abrasive jet machining?
a.
Abrasive grain
b.
Carrier gas
c.
Nozzle
d.
All of the mentioned
Question 347
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In which one of the following sand casting the bonding of the mold process takes place without heating?
a.
No bake
b.
Cold box
c.
Dry sand mold

d.
A and B
Question 348
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What does SLS stands for?
a.
None of the above
b.
Separated light sintering
c.
Selective laser sintering
d.
Selective lithographic solution
Question 349
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One of the following casting processes uses polystyrene pattern:
a.
All
b.
Investment casting
c.
Lost wax process
d.
Lost foam
Question 350
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Which of the following process includes heating of green compact at high temperature in the powder
metallurgy process?
a.
Atomization
b.
Compacting
c.
Sintering
d.
Scaling
Question 351
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Which file type is most commonly exported from CAD software?
a.
SLDRT
b.
JPG
c.
STL
d.
All
Question 352
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In machining metals, surface roughness is due to
a.
Cutting tool vibrations
b.
Feed marks or ridges left by the cutting tool
c.
Fragment of built-up edge on the machined surface
d.
All of these
Question 353
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In order to generate a casting with an internal surface, which part is typically used in a casting
operation?
a.
Chaplets
b.
Riser
c.
Pattern
d.
Core
Question 354
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Hollow casting is the other name of which of the following special casting process?
a.
Slush casting
b.
Vacuum die casting
c.
Precision investment casting
d.
Squeeze casting
Question 355
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Crater wear leads to
a.
All of these
b.
Friction and cutting forces

c.
Increase in cutting temperature
d.
Weakening of tool
Question 356
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Discoloration should be avoided while handling
a.
zinc oxide
b.
starch
c.
silica flour
d.
tobacco
Question 357
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Which of the following bearing is not used in earth moving equipment?
a.
needle bearing
b.
ball bearing
c.
bush bearing
d.
jewel bearing
Question 358
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In case of belt conveyors, the bearings used for return idlers are
a.
cast iron bearings
b.
split bush bearings
c.
anti-friction bearings
d.
bush bearings
Question 359
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Which of the following materials is corrosive?
a.
sulphur
b.
soap flakes
c.
zinc oxide
d.
starch
Question 360
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Which of the following bearing is not used in earth moving equipment?
a.
jewel bearing
b.
ball bearing
c.
needle bearing
d.
bush bearing
Question 361
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Which one of the following is not a excavating and moving type machine?
a.
dragline
b.
dump truck
c.
clam shell
d.
scarper
Question 362
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Which of the following characteristic can be assigned to soda ash?
a.
free flowing
b.
fragile
c.
explosive
d.
caustic
Question 363
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Rails for railway track are made of
a.
cast iron
b.
mild steel
c.
high speed steel
d.
chrome steel
Question 364
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Chains for material handling equipment are generally made of
a.
wrought iron
b.
cast iron
c.
carbon steel
d.
mild steel
Question 365
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Which of the following cannot be handled using lifting magnets?
a.
mild steel plates
b.
Scarp iron
c.
castings of cast iron
d.
high manganese steel
Question 366
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A four wheel drive has
a.
differential on rear side only
b.
differential on front side only
c.
no differential
d.
both front as well as rear differentials
Question 367
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Pneumatic conveyors are generally used for conveying
a.
granular material
b.
mineral ores
c.
heavy goods
d.
package goods
Question 368
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Braking system in invariably incorporated in case of
a.
all of the above
b.
hand chain hoists
c.
magnetic hoists
d.
electric hoists
Question 369
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Which of the following cannot be handled using lifting magnets?
a.
mild steel plates
b.
high manganese steel
c.
castings of cast iron
d.
scarp iron
Question 370
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Which one of the following does not fall under the category of hoisting equipment?
a.
dragline
b.
chain hoist
c.
pull lift
d.
jack
Question 371
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Escalators have the advantage of
a.
all of the above

b.
continuity of motion
c.
greater capacity
d.
small space requirement
Question 372
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The number of cylinders in case of steam locomotive is
a.
four
b.
One
c.
two
d.
eight
Question 373
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Chains for material handling equipment are generally made of
a.
wrought iron
b.
carbon steel
c.
mild steel
d.
cast iron
Question 374
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Lifting magnets cannot be used for
a.
handling dust of magnetic materials
b.
handling ferrous castings
c.
under water handling
d.
handling materials above dull red heat
Question 375
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Which braking system is not used in case of earth moving machinery?
a.
pneumatic braking system
b.
mechanical braking system
c.
vacuum braking system
d.
hydraulic braking system
Question 376
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Flight conveyors are mainly used for conveying
a.
bauxite
b.
coal
c.
iron ore
d.
grains
Question 377
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In case of belt conveyors, the bearings used for return idlers are
a.
split bush bearings
b.
bush bearings
c.
anti friction bearings
d.
cast iron bearings
Question 378
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Which of the following item can be conveyed using pneumatic conveyors?
a.
all of the above
b.
salt cake
c.
soda ash
d.
carbon black
Question 379
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Flight conveyors are used for the transportation of

a.
all of the above
b.
granular materials
c.
lumpy materials
d.
pulverized materials
Question 380
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Lift trucks are used in industries generally for the transportation of
a.
nonferrous materials
b.
batches of material
c.
heavy equipment
d.
castings only
Question 381
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Bevel gears are equivalent to rolling ________
a.
Cubes
b.
Cones
c.
Spheres
d.
Cuboids
Question 382
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If there are redundant constraints in the chain and it forms a statically indeterminate structure, what is
the degree of freedom or the mobility of this structure?
a.
Less than 0
b.
c.
More than 0
d.
Question 383
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The ratio of maximum fluctuation of energy to the work done per cycle is called
a.
coefficient of fluctuation of speed
b.
maximum fluctuation of energy
c.
fluctuation of energy
d.
none of the mentioned
Question 384
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When large gear reductions are needed _________ gears are used.
a.
Spur
b.
Helical
c.
Worm
d.
Bevel
Question 385
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When the pin connects one sliding member and the other turning member, the angular velocity of the
sliding member is __________
a.
b.
c.
d.
3
Question 386
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Which of the following is an advantage of worm gear?
a.
It is expensive
b.
Used for reducing speed and increasing torque
c.
Produce a lot of heat
d.
Has high power losses and low transmission efficiency
Question 387
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In a multi plate clutch, number of discs on the driving shaft is given by n1. True or false?
a.
True
b.
False
Question 388
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The distance traveled by a point on either pitch circle of the two wheels during the period of contact of a
pair of teeth is called _______
a.
arc of contact
b.
path of contact
c.
contact ratio
d.
angle of action
Question 389
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The distance by which a helix advances along the axis of the gear for one turnaround is called
_____________
a.
joint line
b.
normal link
c.
Lead
d.
axial pitch
Question 390
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In a dynamically equivalent system, a uniformly distributed mass is divided into
a.
Infinite point masses
b.
Four point masses
c.
Two point masses
d.
Three point masses
Question 391
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The co-efficient of fluctuation of energy is the ratio of maximum energy to the minimum energy.
a.
False
b.
True
Question 392
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The magnitude of velocities of the points on a rigid link is directly proportional to the distances from the
points to the instantaneous center.
a.
True
b.
False
Question 393
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The quick return mechanism which is an inversion of 4-bar linkage is
a.
Drag link mechanism

b.
Whitworth quick return mechanism
c.
d.
Crank and slotted lever mechanism
Question 394
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The velocity of the instantaneous center relative to any third rigid link will be different.
a.
False
b.
True
Question 395
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In which of the following mechanism the relative motions of the rigid bodies are in one plane or in
parallel planes?
a.
flexure mechanism
b.
spherical mechanism
c.
spatial mechanism
d.
planar mechanism
Question 396
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The distance measured along the circumference of the pitch circle from a point on one tooth to the
same point on the adjacent tooth is called ________________
a.
line of centers
b.
pitch point
c.
pitch diameter
d.
circular pitch
Question 397
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Which of the following clutches include shoes and spider inside the rim of the pulley?
a.
Multi plate clutch
b.
Cone clutch
c.
Centrifugal clutch
d.
Single plate clutch
Question 398
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The number of degree of freedom of a planer linkage with 8 links and 9 simple revolute joints is
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
Question 399
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The maximum fluctuation of energy is the
a.
difference between the maximum and minimum energies
b.
variations of energy above and below the mean resisting torque to the
c.
sum of the maximum and minimum energies
d.
ratio of the mean resisting torque to the work done per cycle
Question 400
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If the shortest link is fixed, what type of mechanism is obtained?

a.
Double crank mechanism
b.
Double rocker mechanism
c.
Crank rocker mechanism
d.
Linkage is not planar
Question 401
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The ratio of angle of action to the pitch angle is called ___________
a.
angle of approach
b.
angle of recess
c.
contact ratio
d.
space width
Question 402
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The angle turned by the gear from the beginning to the end of engagement of a pair of teeth is called
______________
a.
angle of approach
b.
angle of contact
c.
angle of recess
d.
angle of action
Question 403
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In a cone clutch, the mean radius of the bearing surface is 300 mm, whereas the breadth is 20 mm. Find
the inner and outer radii. The semi cone angle is 30 degrees.
a.
145 mm, 155 mm
b.
140 mm, 160 mm
c.
160 mm, 140 mm
d.
155 mm, 145 mm
Question 404
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The contact ratio is the ratio of arc of contact to the ____________
a.
dedendum
b.
Module
c.
circular pitch
d.
circular pitch
Question 405
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The condition which must be fulfilled by two gear tooth profiles to maintain a constant angular velocity
ratio between them is called __________________
a.
path of contact
b.
law of gearing
c.
interference
d.
arc of contact
Question 406
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__________ Mechanism is a crossed four bar chain mechanism in early steam engines to guide the
piston rod in a cylinder to have an approximate straight line motion.
a.
Peaucellier
b.
Grasshoppe
c.
Watt
d.
Chebychev
Question 407
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The smaller and generally the driving gear of a pair of mated gears is called _________
a.
Module
b.
Pitch
c.
Rack
d.
Pinion
Question 408
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Which of the gears has the highest contact ratio?
a.
Worm
b.
Bevel
c.
Spur
d.
Helical
Question 409
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The locus of a point on the pitch circle from the beginning to end of engagement of two mating gears is
called as ___________
a.
Arc of approach
b.
Path of contact
c.
Path of approach
d.
Arc of contact
Question 410
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Which of these is not a type of clutch?
a.
Cylindrical
b.
Single disc
c.
Conical
d.
Centrifugal
Question 411
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When a cylinder is located in a Vee-block, the number of degrees of freedom which are arrested is
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
Question 412
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In a four stroke I.C. engine, the turning moment during the compression stroke is
a.
positive during major portion of the stroke
b.
positive throughout
c.
negative throughout
d.
negative during major portion of the stroke
Question 413
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In a vapor absorption refrigeration system based on the ammonia-water pair, what is the role of
ammonia?
a.
Ammonia is used as the refrigerant.
b.
Ammonia is used as the absorbent.
c.
Ammonia is used as the working fluid in the generator.
d.
Ammonia is used as the working fluid in the condenser.
Question 414
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What is a variable refrigerant flow (VRF) system?
a.
A system that uses a variable speed fan to adjust the airflow

b.
A system that can vary the amount of refrigerant flow to different indoor units based on their cooling
load
c.
A system that uses a variable moisture control mechanism to regulate humidity
d.
A system that uses a variable speed compressor to adjust the cooling capacity
Question 415
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In the reversed Carnot cycle, what is the state of the gas at the end of the isothermal expansion
process?
a.
Saturated liquid
b.
Sub cooled liquid
c.
Saturated vapor
d.
Superheated vapor
Question 416
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What is the purpose of the expansion valve in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a.
To transfer heat from the compressed air to the evaporated working fluid
b.
To regulate the flow of the working fluid
c.
To increase the pressure and temperature of the working fluid
d.
To reduce the pressure and temperature of the working fluid
Question 417
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What is the purpose of an evaporator in a refrigeration system?
a.
To regulate the flow of refrigerant
b.
To compress the refrigerant
c.
To expand the refrigerant
d.
To remove heat from the system
Question 418
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What is the primary use of cryogenics?
a.
All of the above
b.
Medical research
c.
Space exploration
d.
Food preservation
Question 419
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Question text
What is the coefficient of performance (COP) of a vapor compression refrigeration system?
a.
The ratio of the heat removed to the heat added
b.
The ratio of the power input to the heat added
c.
The ratio of the heat removed to the power input
d.
The ratio of the heat added to the heat removed
Question 420
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Which of the following processes involves cooling air without changing its moisture content?
a.
Humidification
b.
Sensible cooling
c.
Dehumidification
d.
Latent cooling
Question 421
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In the reversed Carnot cycle, which process is reversible adiabatic compression or expansion?
a.
Neither is a reversible adiabatic process
b.
Compression
c.
Both are reversible adiabatic processes
d.
Expansion
Question 422
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What is the main purpose of air ducts in an air conditioning system?

a.
To cool the air
b.
To transport the air
c.
To humidify the air
d.
To filter the air
Question 423
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Question text
What is a refrigerated container?
a.
A container used to transport perishable items at low temperatures
b.
A container used to store liquid nitrogen at low temperatures

c.
A container used to store medical equipment at low temperatures
d.
A container used to transport electronics at low temperatures
Question 424
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In a vapor absorption refrigeration system based on the ammonia-water pair, what is the role of water?
a.
Water is used as the working fluid in the generator.
b.
Water is used as the working fluid in the condenser.
c.
Water is used as the refrigerant.
d.
Water is used as the absorbent.

Question 425
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Which of the following is not an application of refrigeration and air-conditioning systems?
a.
Food preservation
b.
Medical procedures
c.
Transportation
d.
Comfort cooling
Question 426
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In a vapor absorption refrigeration system based on the ammonia-water pair, what is the purpose of the
evaporator?
a.
The evaporator is where the refrigerant is absorbed by the absorbent.
b.
The evaporator is where the refrigerant is compressed.
c.
The evaporator is where the refrigerant is condensed.
d.
The evaporator is where the cooling effect is produced.
Question 427
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Which of the following processes involves adding moisture to air without changing its temperature?
a.
Humidification
b.
Sensible heating
c.
Adiabatic cooling
d.
Sensible cooling
Question 428
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in the evaporator of a vapor compression refrigeration system:
a.
All except c
b.
Refrigeration effect is produced as the refrigerant liquid vaporizes
c.
A low pressure is maintained so that the compressor can run
d.
A low temperature is maintained so that heat can flow from the external fluid
Question 429
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What is a liquefied natural gas (LNG) carrier?
a.
A refrigeration system used to transport liquid oxygen at low temperatures
b.
A refrigeration system used to transport liquid nitrogen at low temperatures
c.
A refrigeration system used to transport liquid helium at low temperatures
d.
A refrigeration system used to transport natural gas at low temperatures
Question 430
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What is the most common material used for air conditioning ducts?
a.
Aluminum
b.
PVC
c.
Copper
d.
Steel
Question 431
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What safety precautions should be taken when working with cryogenic fluids?
a.
All of the above
b.
Wear appropriate personal protective equipment, such as goggles and gloves
c.
Post appropriate warning signs
d.
Store and handle cryogenic fluids in a well-ventilated area
Question 432
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What is the term for the temperature at which the air would need to be cooled in order for it to become
saturated with water vapor?
a.
Wet bulb temperature
b.
c.
d.
Enthalpy
Question 433
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What is a ram air system in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a.
A system that uses air from the outside environment to provide cooling
b.
A system that uses air from the compressor to provide cooling
c.
A system that uses air from the engine to provide cooling
d.
A system that uses air from the cabin to provide cooling
Question 434
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Question text
Which of the following types of fans is commonly used in air conditioning ducts?
a.
Pedestal fans
b.
Centrifugal fans
c.
Axial fans
d.
Ceiling fans
Question 435
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Which law of thermodynamics describes the basic principle behind the operation of a vapor
compression refrigeration system?
a.
Third law of thermodynamics

b.
Second law of thermodynamics
c.
First law of thermodynamics
d.
Zeros law of thermodynamics
Question 436
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What is the purpose of cryopreservation?
a.
To liquefy cryogenic fluids for transportation
b.
To generate electricity from cryogenic fluids
c.
To measure the temperature of cryogenic fluids

d.
To freeze and store biological materials at very low temperatures to preserve them for future use
Question 437
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What is the inside design condition for a typical air conditioning system in a commercial building?
a.
This choice was deleted after the attempt was started.
Question 438
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In the reversed Carnot cycle, what is the purpose of the isothermal expansion process?
a.
To increase the temperature and pressure of the working fluid
b.
To decrease the temperature and pressure of the working fluid

c.
To remove heat from the working fluid
d.
To maintain the temperature and pressure of the working fluid
Question 439
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Which of the following is not an advantage of air cycle refrigeration systems?
a.
They use a non-toxic working fluid
b.
They have low environmental impact
c.
They are highly efficient
d.
They are easy to maintain

Question 440
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What is the definition of relative humidity?
a.
The ratio of dry air to water vapor in a mixture
b.
The temperature at which water vapor begins to condense out of the air
c.
The amount of moisture in the air
d.
The ratio of actual vapor pressure to the saturation vapor pressure at a given temperature
Question 441
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Which of the following factors is NOT a consideration when selecting a refrigerant for a system?
a.
Environmental impact
b.
Compressor power input
c.
Cost
d.
Compatibility with materials
Question 442
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Question text
Which of the following is an example of a cryogenic application?
a.
Refrigeration of food products
b.
Cooling of computer processors
c.
Cooling of medical equipment during surgeries
d.
Air conditioning in a residential home
Question 443
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Which of the following duct shapes has the lowest pressure drop?
a.
Oval ducts
b.
Rectangular ducts
c.
Triangular ducts
d.
Round ducts
Question 444
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What is the efficiency of the reversed Carnot cycle?
a.
Equal to the efficiency of a Carnot cycle operating between the same temperature limits
b.
Equal to the efficiency of a Rankine cycle operating between the same temperature limits
c.
Less than the efficiency of any other cycle operating between the same temperature limits
d.
Greater than or equal to the efficiency of any other cycle operating between the same temperature
limits
Question 445
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Question text
The function of a compressor in a vapor compression refrigeration system is to:
a.
all of the above
b.
To maintain the required low-side pressure in the evaporator
c.
To maintain the required high-side pressure in the condenser
d.
To circulate required amount of refrigerant through the system
Question 446
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Which of the following air conditioning systems is a type of rooftop system?
a.
Packaged air conditioning systems

b.
Window air conditioning units
c.
Split air conditioning systems
d.
Portable air conditioning units
Question 447
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What is a desiccant dehumidification system?
a.
A system that uses a fan to blow air over a cooled surface to remove moisture
b.
A system that uses a desiccant material to absorb moisture from the air
c.
A system that uses a refrigerant to cool and dehumidify the air

d.
A system that uses a chemical process to remove moisture from the air
Question 448
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What is a cry cooler?
a.
A device used to measure the temperature of cryogenic fluids
b.
A device used to generate electricity from cryogenic fluids
c.
A device used to heat objects to very high temperatures
d.
A device used to cool objects to very low temperatures
Question 449
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Question text
What is the working fluid used in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a.
Water
b.
Air
c.
Ammonia
d.
Carbon dioxide
Question 450
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What is the purpose of the compressor in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a.
To regulate the flow of the working fluid

b.
To compress the working fluid and increase its pressure and temperature
c.
To reduce the pressure and temperature of the working fluid
d.
To transfer heat from the compressed air to the evaporated working fluid
Question 451
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What is the formula for calculating the total cooling load of a space?
a.
Total cooling load = Sensible cooling load + Latent cooling load
b.
Total cooling load = Sensible cooling load - Latent cooling load
Question 452
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What is the term used to describe the resistance of air flow in ductwork?
a.
Dynamic pressure
b.
Total pressure
c.
Static pressure
d.
Velocity pressure
Question 453
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What is the term for the ratio of the mass of water vapor in a given volume of air to the total mass of
the air?
a.
Relative humidity
b.
Humidity ratio
c.
d.
Question 454
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Which of the following parameters is a measure of the moisture content of air?
a.
Enthalpy
b.
c.
Relative humidity
d.
Question 455
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Question text
Which type of air-conditioning system is commonly used in residential homes?
a.
Split system
b.
Packaged system
c.
All of the above
d.
Central system
Question 456
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What is the refrigerant in a typical vapor compression refrigeration system?
a.
A refrigerant such as R-134a or R-22
b.
CO2
c.
Water
d.
Air
Question 457
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Which of the following statements are TRUE?

a.
A and C
b.
During sensible cooling of air, dry and wet bulb temperatures decrease but dew point temperature
remains constant
c.
During sensible cooling of air, both dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures decrease
d.
During sensible cooling of air, dry bulb temperature decreases but wet bulb temperature remains
constant
Question 458
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Absorption of the refrigerant by the absorbent in vapor absorption refrigeration System is accompanied
by:
a.
Release of heat
b.
Reduction in volume
c.
No thermal effects
d.
Absorption of heat
Question 459
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Which of the following factors is important in determining the efficiency of an air conditioning system?
a.
Number of windows in the space
b.
Color of the walls in the space
c.
Size of the space to be cooled
d.
Type of refrigerant used

Question 460
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What is a clean room?
a.
A room that has a high level of negative pressure to prevent the spread of contaminants
b.
A room that has been cleaned with special cleaning agents
c.
A room that has been treated with ultraviolet light to reduce bacteria and viruses
d.
A room designed to maintain a specific level of cleanliness and control of environmental factors
Question 461
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What is the term for the temperature at which the air becomes saturated with water vapor and
condensation begins to form?
a.
Relative humidity
b.
c.
d.
Humidity ratio
Question 462
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Which of the following factors can affect the transmission of air in air conditioning ducts?
a.
All of the above
b.
Duct size and shape
c.
Type of duct material
d.
Air velocity
Question 463
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How does an air cycle refrigeration system work?
a.
It evaporates water, cools the air, and condenses the water to produce cooling
b.
It boils a liquid, cools the vapor, and condenses it to produce cooling
c.
It compresses refrigerant, cools it, and expands it to produce cooling
d.
It compresses air, cools it, and expands it to produce cooling
Question 464
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In a standard vapor compression refrigeration system, which component is responsible for removing
heat from the cooled space?
a.
Compressor
b.
Expansion valve
c.
Evaporator
d.
Condenser
Question 465
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What is the main purpose of air conditioning ducts?
a.
To distribute air throughout a space
b.
To cool air before it enters a space
c.
To filter air before it enters a space
d.
To heat air before it enters a space
Question 466
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What is the coefficient of performance (COP) of a vapor absorption refrigeration system?
a.
The ratio of the heat removed to the power input

b.
The ratio of the heat removed to the heat added
c.
The ratio of the power input to the heat added
d.
The ratio of the heat added to the heat removed
Question 467
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Which of the following factors is important to consider when selecting an air conditioning system for a
residential space?
a.
Capacity of the system
b.
Noise level of the system
c.
Cost of the system

d.
Type of refrigerant used
Question 468
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What is the primary application of air cycle refrigeration systems?
a.
Cooling of aircraft cabins
b.
Cooling of electronic equipment
c.
Comfort cooling in residential homes
d.
Cooling of food products
Question 469
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In a vapor compression refrigeration cycle, which component is responsible for changing the refrigerant
from a high-pressure vapor to a low-pressure vapor?
a.
Compressor
b.
Expansion valve
c.
Evaporator
d.
Condenser
Question 470
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What is the most commonly used cryogenic fluid?
a.
Liquid oxygen
b.
Liquid helium
c.
Liquid nitrogen
d.
Liquid carbon dioxide
Question 471
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What is the primary purpose of refrigeration and air-conditioning systems?
a.
To cool the air
b.
To regulate the temperature and humidity of a space
c.
To remove moisture from the air

d.
To heat the air
Question 472
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Which of the following statements are TRUE?
a.
During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air may increase, decrease or remain
constant depending upon the temperature of the wet surface
b.
During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air decreases
c.
During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air remains constant
d.
During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air increases
Question 473
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Which of the following is a key difference between gas cycles and vapor cycles?
a.
Gas cycles are used primarily for heating applications, while vapor cycles are used primarily for cooling
applications.
b.
Gas cycles use a working fluid that is in a gaseous state throughout the cycle, while vapor cycles use a
working fluid that undergoes a phase change during the cycle.
c.
Gas cycles are more efficient than vapor cycles.
d.
Vapor cycles operate at higher pressures than gas cycles.
Question 474
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What is the purpose of insulation in air conditioning ducts?

a.
To reduce noise transmission
b.
To prevent air leakage
c.
To improve energy efficiency
d.
All of the above
Question 475
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What is a cool room?
a.
A room designed to maintain a cool temperature for comfort
b.
A room used to simulate low temperature environments for research purposes

c.
A room used for storing perishable items at low temperatures
d.
A room used for storing electronics at low temperatures
Question 476
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What is the function of the generator in a vapor absorption refrigeration system?
a.
To evaporate the refrigerant
b.
To cool the refrigerant vapor and condense it into a liquid
c.
To regulate the flow of refrigerant
d.
To separate the refrigerant from the absorbent and raise its pressure
Question 477
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Which component of a vapor compression refrigeration system is responsible for metering the flow of
refrigerant into the evaporator?
a.
Evaporator
b.
Condenser
c.
Compressor
d.
Expansion valve
Question 478
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What is a bleed air system in an air cycle refrigeration system?

a.
A system that uses air from the compressor to provide cooling
b.
A system that uses air from the engine to provide cooling
c.
A system that uses air from the cabin to provide cooling
d.
A system that uses air from the outside environment to provide cooling
Question 479
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In a vapor absorption refrigeration system, which component is responsible for absorbing the refrigerant
vapor and returning it to a liquid state?
a.
Absorber
b.
Evaporator
c.
Condenser
d.
Generator
Question 480
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What is the primary disadvantage of air cycle refrigeration systems compared to vapor compression
refrigeration systems?
a.
They are less efficient
b.
They are less reliable
c.
They require more maintenance
d.
They are more expensive

Question 481
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In an air cycle refrigeration system, low temperatures are produced due to:
a.
Evaporation of liquid air
b.
Expansion of air in turbine
c.
None of the above
d.
Throttling of air
Question 482
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What is the purpose of a damper in an air conditioning duct?
a.
To regulate the flow of air
b.
To filter the air
c.
To insulate the ducts
d.
To humidify the air
Question 483
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Which of the following is an example of a commercial application of refrigeration?
a.
Window air conditioners
b.
Home refrigerators
c.
Car air conditioning
d.
Ice cream freezers
Question 484
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Which of the following is a common application of air conditioning in the healthcare industry?
a.
Sterilization
b.
Patient comfort
c.
Equipment cooling
d.
All of the above
Question 485
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Which of the following refrigerants is not considered an ozone-depleting substance?
a.
R-134a
b.
R-410A
c.
R-22
d.
Ammonia
Question 486
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Question text
Which of the following is not a limitation of air cycle refrigeration systems?
a.
They have a low coefficient of performance (COP)
b.
They require a large amount of space to operate
c.
They are not effective at very high temperatures
d.
They are not effective at very low temperatures
Question 487
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Which of the following is a common application of air conditioning in data centers?
a.
All of the above

b.
Humidity control to prevent equipment damage
c.
Cooling of computer processors
d.
Comfort cooling for employees
Question 488
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What is a chilled beam system?
a.
A system that uses a fan to blow air over a cooled surface to provide cooling
b.
A system that uses a combination of air and water to provide cooling
c.
A system that uses an evaporative cooling process to provide cooling

d.
A system that uses a refrigerant to provide cooling directly to the air stream
Question 489
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Which of the following is not a component of an air cycle refrigeration system?
a.
Evaporator
b.
Compressor
c.
Expansion valve
d.
Condenser
Question 490
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Question text
What is the effect of increasing the condenser temperature in a standard vapor compression
refrigeration system?
a.
It increases the COP of the system
b.
It decreases the COP of the system
c.
It has no effect on the COP of the system
d.
It increases the power input of the system
Question 491
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What is the main assumption made in air standard analysis?
a.
The working fluid is a perfect gas

b.
The working fluid is a mixture of gases
c.
The working fluid is a solid
d.
The working fluid is a liquid
Question 492
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Which of the following air conditioning systems is most suitable for large commercial spaces?
a.
Window air conditioning units
b.
Portable air conditioning units
c.
Split air conditioning systems

d.
Central air conditioning systems
Question 493
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An air stream at a flow rate of 1 kg/s and a DBT of 30oC mixes adiabatically with another air stream
flowing with a mass flow rate of 2 kg/s and at a DBT of 15oC. Assuming no condensation to take place,
the temperature of the mixture is approximately equal to:
a.
25oC
b.
Cannot be found
c.
20oC
d.
22.5oC
Question 494
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What is the required wattage of an electrical heater that heats 0.1 m3/s of air from 15oC and 80% RH to
55oC? The barometric pressure is 101.325 kPa. Given that average specific heat of
air(Cpm=1.021kJ/kg.k), vapor pressure (Pv=1.364kPa) and gas constant of air(0.287kJ/kg.k).
a.
6.3kW
b.
4.938kW
c.
13kW
d.
5.8kW
Question 495
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Which type of air conditioning system is commonly used in large commercial buildings?
a.
Central system
b.
Split system
c.
Window unit
d.
Packaged system
Question 496
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What is a heat exchanger in an air cycle refrigeration system?
a.
A device used to transfer heat from the compressed air to the evaporated working fluid
b.
A device used to transfer heat from the compressed air to the surrounding environment
c.
A device used to transfer heat from the evaporated working fluid to the compressed air
d.
A device used to transfer heat from the condenser to the evaporator
Question 497
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The ratio of tensile or compressive stress to the corresponding strain is known as
a.
modulus of rigidity
b.
modulus of toughness
c.
shear modulus
d.
Young modulus
Question 498
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If a beam is supported on more than two supports, it is called a
a.
simply supported beam
b.
encastered beam.
c.
continuous beam
d.
built-in beam
Question 499
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Question text
if a section of a beam is subjected to a transversal load applied to the beam from above, and Couse pure
bending in the beam and the longitudinal beam concaves upward, then the stress variation will be:
a.
the stresses will be tensile below the neutral axis.
b.
the stresses will be compressive at any point above the neutral axis
c.
The stress at the neutral axis is zero.
d.
all
Question 500
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The ratio of change of dimension of the body to the original dimension is known as ………...
a.
stress
b.
deflection
c.
strain
d.
elongation
Question 501
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The stress due to suddenly applied load as compared to the stress due to the same load gradually
applied to the same rod is
a.
same
b.
half
c.
three times.
d.
double
Question 502
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When a body is subjected to an axial tensile load
a.
there is an increase in the width of the body
b.
there is an increase in the length of the body
c.
no change in dimension at all
d.
there is an increase in other dimensions of the body at right angles to the axis of the body
Question 503
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The torsional rigidity of a shaft is defined as the torque required to produce
a.
maximum twist in the shaft
b.
maximum shear stress in the shaft
c.
minimum twist in the shaft
d.
A twist of one radian per unit length of the shaft.
Question 504
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The resistance per unit area, offered by a body against deformation is known as .
a.
deflection
b.
stress
c.
elongation
d.
strain
Question 505
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The ratio of linear stress to linear strain is known as
a.
modulus of elasticity.
b.
modulus of rigidity
c.
bulk modulus
Question 506
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When an element is subjected to a set of shear stresses
a.
All
b.
The planes of maximum normal stresses are perpendicular to each other.
c.
One of the maximum normal stress is tensile while the other maximum normal stress is compressive.
d.
The planes of maximum normal stresses are inclined at an angle of 45 degrees to the planes
of pure shear.
Question 507
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In a tensile test of a specimen, the ratio of maximum load to the original cross-sectional area of the test
piece is called
a.
breaking stress.
b.
safe stress
c.
ultimate stress
d.
yield stress
Question 508
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The work done in producing strain on a material per unit volume is called
a.
plasticity
b.
resilience
c.
elasticity
d.
ductility
Question 509
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The bending moment at a section, where shear force is zero, will be
a.
zero
b.
either minimum or maximum

c.
minimum
d.
maximum
Question 510
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a.
45 * 109 N/mm2
b.
63.6 * 109 N/mm2
c.
56.6 * 106 N/mm2
d.
84.24 N/mm2
Question 511
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The shear force and bending moment are zero at the free end of a cantilever, if it carries a
a.
uniformly distributed load over the whole length
b.
point load in the middle of its length
c.
point load at the free end
d.
none of the above.
Question 512
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The stress which will cause a specified permanent deformation in a material (usually 0.01% or less) is
called
a.
rupture stress
b.
proof stress
c.
Ultimate stress.
d.
flow stress
Question 513
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The stresses induced in a body due to change in temperature are known as
a.
shear stress
b.
thermal stress
c.
tensile strain
d.
bearing stresses
Question 514
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The property by virtue of which a metal can be beaten into plates is called
a.
plasticity.
b.
malleability
c.
ductility
d.
resilience
Question 515
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If a beam is fixed at both its ends, it is called a
a.
fixed beam
b.
any one of the above
c.
built-in beam
d.
encastered beam
Question 516
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A laminated spring 1 m long carries a central point load of 2000 N. The spring is made up of plates each
5 cm wide and 1 cm thick. The bending stress in the plates is limited to 10 N/mm2. The number of plates
required, will be
a.
8.
b.
c.
d.
Question 517
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Torsional rigidity of a shaft is equal to
a.
Ratio of modulus of rigidity and polar moment of inertia.

b.
difference of modulus of rigidity and polar moment of inertia
c.
sum of modulus of rigidity and polar moment of inertia
d.
product of modulus of rigidity and polar moment of inertia
Question 518
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The shear stress at any point of a shaft, subjected to twisting moment, is
a.
proportional to its distance from the central axis of the shaft
b.
None of the above.
c.
proportional to the square of its distance from the central axis of the shaft
d.
inversely proportional to its distance from the central axis of the shaft
Question 519
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A simply supported beam of span (l) carries a uniformly distributed load over the whole span. The shear
force diagram will be
a.
two equal and opposite triangles.
b.
a triangle
c.
a rectangle
d.
two equal and opposite rectangles
Question 520
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If a member, whose tensile strength is more than two times the shear strength, is subjected to an axial
load upto failure, the failure of the member will occur by
a.
maximum normal stress
b.
normal stress or shear stress
c.
maximum shear stress
d.
none of the above.
Question 521
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Column is defined as a
a.
Vertical member of a structure which carries an axial compressive load.

b.
member of a structure which carries an axial compressive load
c.
member of a structure which carries a tensile load
d.
vertical member of a structure which carries a tensile load
Question 522
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A fixed beam is a beam whose end supports are such that the end slopes
a.
are zero
b.
none of the above.
c.
are minimum
d.
are maximum
Question 523
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The angle made by the resultant stress with the normal of the oblique plane, is known as
a.
angle of twist
b.
obliquity
c.
straight line angle
d.
none
Question 524
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Maximum shear stress by the Mohrs circle method is equal to-----------
a.
maximum normal stress
b.
resultant stress
Question 525
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The stress induced in a body, which is subjected to two equal and opposite pushes, is known as
a.
tensile stress
b.
bearing stress
c.
tensile strain
d.
compressive stress
Question 526
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Which one of the following units of measurements cannot express stress?
a.
10-4 N/cm2
b.
10-6 N/mm2
c.
106 N/mm2
d.
N/m2
Question 527
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The bending moment on a section is maximum where shearing force is
a.
maximum
b.
minimum
c.
zero
d.
changing sign
Question 528
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Within elastic limit in a loaded material, stress is

a.
none of the above.
b.
Adirectly proportional to strain
c.
inversely proportional to strain
d.
equal to strain
Question 529
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A loaded column fails due to
a.
None of the above.
b.
stress due to direct load

c.
A and B
d.
stress due to bending
Question 530
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is the property by virtue of which certain materials return back to their original position after the
removal of the external force.
a.
machinability
b.
ductility
c.
plasticity
d.
elasticity
Question 531
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The property of a material by virtue of which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the
load is known as
a.
ductility
b.
plasticity
c.
resilience.
d.
elasticity
Question 532
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The ratio of normal stress of each face of a solid cube to volumetric strain is called
a.
modulus of rigidity
b.
bulk modulus
c.
modulus of elasticity.
Question 533
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A cantilever of length (l) carries a uniformly distributed load over the whole length. The bending
moment diagram will be
a.
parabola with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end
b.
triangle with maximum ordinate at the free end
c.
parabola with maximum ordinate at the center
d.
triangle with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end.
Question 534
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Strut is defined as a
a.
None of the above.
b.
vertical member of a structure which carries a tensile load
c.
member of a structure which carries a tensile load
d.
member of a structure which carries an axial compressive load
Question 535
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Fletched beam means a
a.
fixed beam
b.
continuous beam
c.
beam of composite section consisting of a wooden beam strengthened by mild steel plates
d.
None of the above.
Question 536
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Every cross-section of a shaft, which is subjected to a twisting moment, is under

a.
Bending stress.
b.
tensile stress
c.
shear stress
d.
compressive stress
Question 537
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The stress induced in a body, which is subjected to two equal and opposite pulls, is known as
a.
tensile strain
b.
bearing stresses
c.
compressive stress
d.
tensile stress
Question 538
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Which one is not correct?
a.
lateral strain is always the same in sign to longitudinal strain
b.
poisons ratio is the ratio of lateral strain to the longitudinal strain
c.
If longitudinal strain is tensile, the lateral strains will be compressive.
d.
lateral strain is opposite in sign to longitudinal strain

Question 539
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Buckling factor is defined as the ratio of
a.
None of the above.
b.
length of the column to the area of cross-section of the column
c.
length of the column to the minimum radius of gyration
d.
equivalent length of a column to the minimum radius of gyration
Question 540
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The extension in a rectangular steel bar of length 800 mm and of thickness 20 is-------
a.
45 KN
b.
84.7KN
c.
96KN
d.
60.6KN
Question 541
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A solid circular shaft of diameter D carries an axial load W. If the same load is applied axially on a hollow
circular shaft of inner diameter as D 2, the ratio of stresses in a solid shaft to that of hollow shaft would
be
a.
4 /3
b.
1 /2
c.
3 /4
d.
1 /4
Question 542
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The diameter of a mild steel round bar, on which tensile test is performed, at fracture will
a.
be same
b.
none of the above.
c.
increase
d.
decrease
Question 543
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The point of contraflexure occurs only in
a.
continuous beams
b.
simply supported beams
c.
overhanging beams
d.
cantilever beams
Question 544
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The ratio of moment of inertia about the neutral axis to the distance of the most distance point of the
section from the neutral axis is called
a.
Modulus of rigidity.
b.
section modulus
c.
moment of inertia
d.
polar moment of inertia
Question 545
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A short column of circular section carries a point load acting with an eccentricity. The shape of Kernel
area would be.
a.
circle
b.
rectangle
c.
Rhombus.
d.
square
Question 546
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Polar modulus of a shaft section is equal to
a.
sum of polar moment of inertia and maximum radius of the shaft
b.
product of polar moment of inertia and maximum radius of the shaft
c.
Difference of polar moment of inertia and maximum radius of the shaft.
d.
ratio of polar moment of inertia to maximum radius of the shaft
Question 547
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A cantilever of length (l) carries a point load (W) at the free end. The bending moment diagram will be a
a.
parabola with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end
b.
parabola with maximum ordinate at the center of the beam
c.
triangle with maximum ordinate at the free end
d.
triangle with maximum ordinate at the cantilever end.
Question 548
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The shear stress required to cause plastic deformation of solid metal is called
a.
flow stress
b.
proof stress
c.
Ultimate stress.
d.
rupture stress
Question 549
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Which one of the following is wrong about Hooke's law?

a.
the stress is proportional to the strain.
b.
it is applicable only within elastic limit
c.
it does work within the plastic region
d.
the shear stress is proportional to the shear strain.
Question 550
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Which one of the following is wrong about the assumptions made in the theory of simple bending?
a.
The material of the beam is homogeneous and isotropic
b.
The transverse sections which were plane before bending, remain plane after bending also.
c.
The radius of curvature is small when compared with the dimensions of the cross-section.
Question 551
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A short column of rectangular section carries a point load (W) acting with an eccentricity (e). The shape
of Kernel area would be
a.
square
b.
circle
c.
rectangle
d.
Rhombus.
Question 552
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Hooke’s law holds good too.
a.
plastic limit.
b.
proportional limit
c.
yield point
d.
elastic limit
Question 553
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When the external load is applied in the transverse direction to the longitudinal axis of the component
and causes the element to flex/bend due to the applied load, then the type of the element can be
identified as:
a.
shaft
b.
column
c.
beam
d.
bar
Question 554
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Slenderness ratio is defined as the ratio of
a.
equivalent length of the column to the minimum radius of gyration

b.
Minimum radius of gyration to the area of cross-section of the column.
c.
length of the column to the minimum radius of gyration
d.
length of the column to the area of cross-section of the column
Question 555
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A loaded column is having the tendency to deflect. On account of this tendency, the critical load
a.
decreases with the increase in length
b.
first decreases then increases with the decrease in length
c.
decreases with the decrease in length

d.
First increases then decreases with the decrease in length.
Question 556
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A rod 200 cm long and of diameter 3 cm is subjected to an axial pull of 30 kN. If the Young’s modulus of
the material of the rod is 2 × 105 N/mm2, determine: the stress?
a.
56.04 N/mm2
b.
64.24 N/mm2
c.
49.21 N/mm2
d.
42.44 N/mm2
Question 557
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A beam which is fixed at one end and free at the other end, is known as
a.
Cantilever beam
b.
Fixed beams
c.
Simply supported beam
d.
Overhanging beam
Question 558
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The type of mechanical component that has a circular cross section and is subjected to a torque, on both
ends is called:
a.
shaft
b.
bar
c.
column
d.
beam
Question 559
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A rod is 3 m long at a temperature of 15C. Find the expansion of the rod.
a.
1.35m
b.
0.288cm
c.
0.288m
d.
1.35cm
Question 560
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when a mechanical component is subjected to a series of external axial loads that pass through the
centroid of the cross section, and result in change in length in the material then the type of the element
would be:
a.
shaft
b.
bar
c.
column
d.
beam
Question 561
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A beam which is provided more than two supports is known as
a.
Overhanging beam
b.
Simply supported beam
c.
Fixed beams
d.
Continuous Beam
Question 562
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The maximum energy stored in the body without permanent deformation (i.e., upto elastic limit) is
known as
a.
Resilience
b.
Modulus of resilience
c.
strain energy
d.
Proof Resilience.
Question 563
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The stress obtained by dividing the load at the moment of incipient fracture, by the area supporting that
load is called
a.
proof stress
b.
Ultimate stress.
c.
rupture stress
d.
flow stress
Question 564
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The planes, which have no shear stress, are known as
a.
inclined plane
b.
oblique plane
c.
principal plane
d.
slanted plane
Question 565
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The maximum axial compressive load which a column can take without failure by lateral deflection is
called
a.
buckling load
b.
critical load
c.
Any one of the above.
d.
crippling load

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AMU 2023 Model exam 565 Questions for mechanical engineering students

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Which of the following has least percentage of carbon

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Which one of the following is microscopic forms of energy>

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Limiting the maximum temperature in the cycle.

Limits the thermal efficiency.

The quality of the steam decreases during isentropic expansion process.

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Dew point temperature

Adiabatic saturation temperature

Web bulb temperature

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Water boils at 100C.

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Which one is not refrigeration cycle?

Reversed Brayton cycle

Reversed Carnot cycle

Ideal vapor compression refrigeration cycle

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