Activity Drill for Heat Transfer

Question 1
 In I.C engine, combustion chamber and piston are the surrounding while outside of the
combustion chamber is the system.
Response: False
Correct answer: False
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 2
 Which way is heat transfer believed to take place in a long, hollow cylinder that is kept
at consistent but varied temperatures on its inner and outer surfaces?
Response: Radial only
Correct answer: Radial only
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 3
 In which of the following cases provision of fins on a given heat transfer surface will be
more effective?
Response: Large number of thin fins
Correct answer: Large number of thin fins
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 4
 What is the order of the tensor of temperature?
Response: Zero Order
Correct answer: Zero Order
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 5
 The appropriate rate equation for convective heat transfer between a surface and
adjacent fluid is prescribed by which law?
Response: Newton’s law of cooling
Correct answer: Newton’s law of cooling
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 6
 An energy of system defined as the summation of all energy associated with the
system
Response: Internal energy
Correct answer: Internal energy
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 7
 Consider the following statements pertaining to heat transfer through fins
(i) They must be arranged at right angles to the direction of flow of working fluid
(ii) The temperature along the fin is variable and accordingly heat transfer rate varies
along the fin elements
(iii) Fins are equally effective irrespective whether they are on the hot side or cold side
of the fluid
(iv) Fins are made of materials that have thermal conductivity higher than that of wall
Identify the correct statements
Response: i and ii
Correct answer: i and ii
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 8
 A 25 mm diameter egg roll (k = 1 W/m degree) is roasted with the help of microwave
heating. For good quality roasting, it is desired that temperature at the center of roll is
maintained at 100 degree Celsius when the surrounding temperature is 25 degree
Celsius. What should be the heating capacity in W/m 3 of the microwave if the heat
transfer coefficient on the surface of egg roll is 20 W/m 2 degree?
Response: 613.31 k W/m3
Correct answer: 613.31 k W/m3
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 9
 At the molecular level, it is the transport of energy by bulk motion of molecules, which
takes energy associated with them.
Response: Convection
Correct answer: Convection
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 10
 Which statement is true to the effect of temperature on the thermal conductivity of
metals?
Response: Thermal conductivity of metals increases with temperature
Correct answer: Thermal conductivity of metals increases with temperature
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 11
 What is the rate of heat transfer from the fin in case of fin insulated at the tip?
Response: (h P k A)1/2 (t 0 – t a) tan h ml
Correct answer: (h P k A)1/2 (t 0 – t a) tan h ml
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 12
 A heating unit is made in the form of a vertical tube of 50 mm outside diameter and 1.2
m height. The tube is fitted with 20 steel fins of rectangular section with height 40 mm
and thickness 2.5 mm. The temperature at the base of fin is 75 degree Celsius, the
surrounding air temperature is 20 degree Celsius and the heat transfer coefficient
between the fin as well as the tube surface and the surrounding air is 9.5 W/m 2 K. If
thermal conductivity of the fin material is 55 W/m K, find the amount of heat transferred
from the tube without fin
Response: 98.44 W
Correct answer: 98.44 W
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 13
 Which statement is CORRECT on why the heat flux is not constant in a hollow
composite cylinder?
Response: All of the above
Correct answer: All of the above
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 14
 The similarity of Newton’s law of viscosity and Fourier’s law of heat conduction are both
empirical laws, based on the observations.
Response: True
Correct answer: True
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 15
 The possible heat sources for any system may be nuclear fusion, heat produced by
reaction, heat produced by electric dissipation or heat produced by viscous dissipation.
Response: True
Correct answer: True
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 16
 What is heat transfer?
Response: Flow of energy in the form of heat from high-temperature reservoir to low-
temperature reservoir
Correct answer: Flow of energy in the form of heat from high-temperature reservoir to
low-temperature reservoir
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 17
 Heat transfer takes place according to which of the following law?
Response: Second law of thermodynamics
Correct answer: Second law of thermodynamics
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 18
 What is the range of Prandtl number of non-metal liquids?
Response: More than 1 and varies largely
Correct answer: More than 1 and varies largely
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 19
 At the molecular level, it is defined as transport of energy by emission or absorption of
electromagnetic waves.
Response: Radiation
Correct answer: Radiation
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 20
 The ratio of kinematic viscosity and the thermal diffusivity is known as?
Response: PRANDTL NUMBER (Pr)
Correct answer: PRANDTL NUMBER (Pr)
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 21
 Which of the following is an example of steady-state heat transfer?
Response: Electric bulb cools down by the surrounding atmosphere
Correct answer: Electric bulb cools down by the surrounding atmosphere
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 22
 At the molecular level, it is defined as transport of energy by transfer of kinetic energy
from one molecule to another.
Response: Conduction
Correct answer: Conduction
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 23
 Which of the following is a method of heat transfer?
Response: All of the above
Correct answer: All of the above
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 24
 Which of the following is correct regarding one dimensional heat transfer?
Response: Steady – f (x), Unsteady – f (x, t)
Correct answer: Steady – f (x), Unsteady – f (x, t)
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 25
 What’s this in transport phenomena that deals with the transport of energy?
Response: Heat Transfer
Correct answer: Heat Transfer
Score: 1 out of 1 
Activity Drill for CRE
Question 1
 Bulk diffusion in catalyst pore __________ with increase in pressure.
Response: Decreases
Correct answer: Decreases
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 2
 __________ gas is normally employed in B.E.T. method of finding out the surface area
of catalyst.
Response: N2
Correct answer: N2
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 3
 The conversion for a first order liquid phase reaction. A --------> B in a CSTR is 50%. If
another CSTR of the same volume is connected in series, then the % conversion at the
exit of the second reactor will be
Response: 75
Correct answer: 75
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 4
 What is the dispersion number for a CSTR?
Response: ∞
Correct answer: ∞
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 5
 When a catalyst increases the rate of chemical reaction, the rate constant
Response: increases
Correct answer: increases
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 6
 A non-catalytic chemical reaction of the type 

 is called a __________ reaction.

Response: series-parallel
Correct answer: series-parallel
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 7
 For the same residence time, which one will give the maximum conversion?
Response: Single tubular flow reactor (v = 5 liters)
Correct answer: Single tubular flow reactor (v = 5 liters)
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 8
 A batch adiabatic reactor at an initial temperature of 373°K is being used for the
reaction, A -----> B. Assume the heat of reaction is - 1kJ/mole at 373°K and heat
capacity of both A and B to be constant and equal to 50J/mole.K. The temperature rise
after a conversion of 0.5 will be
Response: 10°C
Correct answer: 10°C
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 9
 Reaction of benzene with chlorine gas to produce tri-chlorobenzene exemplifies a/an
__________ reaction.
Response: consecutive
Correct answer: consecutive
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 10
 The minimum energy required to allow a chemical reaction to proceed is termed as the
'threshold energy '. Chemical reaction with low activation energy are
Response: insensitive to temperature changes
Correct answer: insensitive to temperature changes
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 11
 An isothermal aqueous phase reversible reaction, P <----> R, is to be carried out in a
mixed flow reactor. The reaction rate in k.mole/m 3 .h is given by, r = 0.5CP - 0.125CR. A
stream containing only P enters the reactor. The residence time required (in hours) for
40% conversion of P is
Response: 1.60
Correct answer: 1.60
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 12

 The order of the reaction,   , is

Response: 0
Correct answer: 0
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 13
 The rate constant of a reaction depends on the
Response: temperature of the system
Correct answer: temperature of the system
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 14
 The fractional volume change between no conversion and complete conversion, for the
isothermal gas phase reaction, 2A ---> R, is
Response: -0.5
Correct answer: -0.5
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 15
 With increase in the order of reaction (for all positive reaction orders), the ratio of the
volume of mixed reactor to the volume of plug flow reactor (for identical feed
composition, flow rate and conversion)
Response: Increases
Correct answer: Increases
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 16
 With increase in temperature, the rate constant obeying Arsenious equation
Response: Decrease exponentiallly
Correct answer: Decrease exponentiallly
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 17
 Arrhenius equation shows the variation of __________ with temperature.
Response: rate constant
Correct answer: rate constant
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 18
 __________ is the controlling step in a highly temperature sensitive fluid-solid non-
catalytic reaction.
Response: Chemical Reaction
Correct answer: Chemical Reaction
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 19
 Design of heterogeneous catalytic reactor involves consideration of __________ steps.
Response: both chemical and physical
Correct answer: both chemical and physical
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 20
 For a mixed flow reactor operating at steady state, the rate of reaction is given by

Response: 
Correct answer: 
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 21
 If C  is the quantity of reactants initially present, the quantity left after 'n' half periods will be equal to
A

Response: 

Correct answer: 
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 22
 For the reversible reaction A <--------> 2B, if the equilibrium constant K is 0.05
mole/liter; starting from initially 2 moles of A and zero moles of B, how many moles will
be formed at equilibrium?
Response: 0.338
Correct answer: 0.338
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 23
 How do you define space velocity
Response: All of the above
Correct answer: All of the above
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 24
 When the density of the reaction mixture is constant in a chemical reaction, the ratio of
the mean residence time to space time is
Response: 1
Correct answer: 1
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 25
 From Collison Theory, the reaction rate constant is proportional to
Response: Tm.exp(-E/RT)
Correct answer: Tm.exp(-E/RT)
Score: 1 out of 1 

Activity Drill for ChE Thermodynamics

Question 1
 One kg of diatomic Oxygen is present in a 500 L tank. Find the specific volume on both
mass and mole basis.
Response: 0.5 m3/kg , 0.0160 m3/mole
Correct answer: 0.5 m3/kg , 0.0160 m3/mole
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 2
 In reactions involving solids and liquids (where change in volume is negligible), the heat
of reaction at constant pressure as compared to that at constant volume is
Response: Same
Correct answer: Same
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 3
 The unit of fugacity is the same as that of the
Response: Pressure
Correct answer: Pressure
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 4
 The unit of equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction is the same as that of
Response: None
Correct answer: None
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 5
 A piston/cylinder with a cross-sectional area of 0.01 m 2 is resting on the stops. With an
outside pressure of 100 kPa, what should be the water pressure to lift the piston?
Response: 198 kPa
Correct answer: 198 kPa
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 6
 The number of phases in a colloidal system are
Response: 2
Correct answer: 2
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 7
 A 5 m long vertical tube having cross sectional area 200 cm 2 is placed in a water. It is
filled with 15°C water, with the bottom closed and the top open to 100 kPa atmosphere.
How much water is present in tube?
Response: 99.9 kg
Correct answer: 99.9 kg
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 8
 Fugacity co-efficient of a substance is the ratio of its fugacity to
Response: pressure
Correct answer: pressure
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 9
 Find the change in u for carbon dioxide between 600 K and 1200 K for a constant
Cv0 value.
Response: 391.8 kJ/kg
Correct answer: 391.8 kJ/kg
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 10
 What is the source of water vapor in the flue gas?
Response: Hydrogen in the fuel
Correct answer: Hydrogen in the fuel
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 11
 Combustion reaction is
Response: both a and c
Correct answer: both a and c
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 12
 A piston-cylinder device initially contains air at 150 kPa and 27°C. At this state, the
volume is 400 litre. The mass of the piston is such that a 350 kPa pressure is required
to move it. The air is now heated until its volume has doubled. Determine work done by
the air.
Response: 140 kJ
Correct answer: 140 kJ
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 13
 A 5 m long vertical tube having cross sectional area 200 cm 2 is placed in a water. It is
filled with 15°C water, with the bottom closed and the top open to 100 kPa atmosphere.
What is the pressure at the bottom of tube ?
Response: 149 kPa
Correct answer: 149 kPa
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 14
 The total hydrogen and oxygen in fuel can:
Response: exist as a gaseous product
Correct answer: exist as a gaseous product
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 15
 ) Which of the following is not the effect/s of excess air in the combustion process?
Response: Increases the condensation rate of gases
Correct answer: Increases the condensation rate of gases
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 16
 A compound that is composed of only carbon and hydrogen contains 80.0% C and
20.0% H by mass. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
Response: CH3
Correct answer: CH3
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 17
 Find the pressure of water at 200°C and having specific volume of 1.5 m 3/kg.
Response: 0.9578 m3/kg
Correct answer: 0.9578 m3/kg
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 18
 The pressure gauge on an air tank shows 60 kPa when the diver is 8 m down in the
ocean. At what depth will the gauge pressure be zero?
Response: 24.118 m
Correct answer: 24.118 m
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 19
 When liquid and vapour phases of one component system are in equilibrium (at a given
temperature and pressure), the molar free energy is
Response: same in both the phases.
Correct answer: same in both the phases.
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 20
 Calculate the change in enthalpy of carbon dioxide from 30 to 1500°C at 100 kPa at
constant specific heat.
Response: 1237.7 kJ/kg
Correct answer: 1237.7 kJ/kg
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 21
 The chemical potential of any constituent of an ideal solution depends on the
__________ of the solution.
Response: Temperature, pressure, composition
Correct answer: Temperature, pressure, composition
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 22
 Find the pressure of water at 200°C and having specific volume of 1.5 m 3/kg.
Response: 161.6 kPa
Correct answer: 161.6 kPa
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 23
 Chemical potential (an intensive property) of a substance is a force that drives the
chemical system to equilibrium and is equal to its partial molar properties. The ratio of
chemical potential to free energy of a pure substance at constant temperature and
pressure is
Response: 1
Correct answer: 1
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 24
 This gives luminosity to gaseous fuels
Response: hydrocarbons
Correct answer: hydrocarbons
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 25
 This chemical does not contribute to the calorific value of the fuel.
Response: oxygen
Correct answer: oxygen
Score: 1 out of 1 
Drill for Separation Processes

Question 1
 How can the DNA fragments be separated from DNA?
Response: Electrophoresis
Correct answer: Electrophoresis
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 2
 Which of the following separation techniques is NOT used in the process of
manufacturing of citric acid?
Response: Distillation
Correct answer: Distillation
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 3
 Which of the following is NOT a disadvantages of using a mass-separating agent
(MSA)?
Response: Need for large quantities of MSA
Correct answer: Need for large quantities of MSA
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 4
 Which of the following is NOT used to represent a chemical process?
Response: Flow chart
Correct answer: Flow chart
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 5
 In a biochemical plant, what do the physiological conditions vary with?
Response: The micro-organism
Correct answer: The micro-organism
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 6
 Crystallization exploits difference in which factors?
Response: Melting point
Correct answer: Melting point
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 7
 In azeotropic distillation, why is an entrainer added?
Response: To form a minimum boiling point azeotrope
Correct answer: To form a minimum boiling point azeotrope
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 8
 How is the Diethyl Ether removed in the manufacturing of ethanol from ethylene?
Response: Light-ends tower
Correct answer: Light-ends tower
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 9
 Which separation process is used when the volatility differences is too small between
the species?
Response: Extractive distillation
Correct answer: Extractive distillation
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 10
 Chemical reactions require feed mixtures from non-renewable resources like coal,
petroleum. What is used in place of non-renewable sources?
Response: Biomass
Correct answer: Biomass
Score 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 11
 When is the liquid-liquid extraction preferred over distillation?
Response: When the liquid mixture is temperature sensitive
Correct answer: When the liquid mixture is temperature sensitive
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 12
 What is the separation by polymer membrane?
Response: Exploits the difference in permeability
Correct answer: Exploits the difference in permeability
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 13
 Which of the following is NOT an importance of separation process?
Response: Increases the speed of the reaction
Correct answer: Increases the speed of the reaction
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 14
 What separation technique is used when a separation operation is accompanied by
chemical reaction that facilitates separation?
Response: Reactive distillation
Correct answer: Reactive distillation
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 15
 How a mixture of iron and copper fillings is be separated?
Response: Magnetic separation
Correct answer: Magnetic separation
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 16
 How can be citric acid produced other than from lemons?
Response: Aerobic fermentation of starch
Correct answer: Aerobic fermentation of starch
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 17
 Which separation technique shall be employed to separate acetone and methanol?
Response: Extractive distillation
Correct answer: Extractive distillation
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 18
 If only 5% of Ethylene is converted to Ethylene glycol, why is there a need of
separation process?
Response: To recover the unreacted Ethylene Glycol
Correct answer: To recover the unreacted Ethylene Glycol
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 19
 How is Oil and Hexane separated?
Response: Separating funnel
Correct answer: Separating funnel
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 20
 Which of the following separation techniques is dependent on difference in volatility?
Response: Distillation
Correct answer: Distillation
Score: 1 out of 1 

Activity Drill for Environmental Science and Engineering

Question 1
 Developed countries are notorious for producing an excessive amount of waste or
garbage and dumping their waste in the oceans and, less developed countries
Response: True
Correct answer: True
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 2
 At the same distance from source, the horizontal dispersion coefficient is greater when
the stability is moderately unstable than when the stability is moderately stable.
Response: True
Correct answer: True
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 3
 This is define as the outspread of the urban center towards a less populated zoned.
Response: Urbanization
Response: Overpopulation
Response: Urban Sprawl
Response: Development
Correct answer: Urbanization (50%), Urban Sprawl (50%)
Score: 0.33 out of 1 

Question 4
 Any solid, semi-solid or liquid wastes material with no commercial value released by a
manufacturing or processing plant other than excluded material
Response: Industrial waste
Correct answer: Industrial waste
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 5
 In composting, the decomposition of _____ may be accomplished either aerobically or
anaerobically depending on the availability of _____.
Response: organic waste
Response: oxygen
Correct answer: organic waste, oxygen
Score: 1 out of 1 

Question 6
 Means non-government organizations (NGOs) and peoples organizations (PO)
Response: Civil society
Correct answer: Civil society
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 7
 Identified areas of the land surface where groundwater quality is most at risk of human
activities and shall reflect a different degrees of groundwater vulnerability based On a
range of soil properties and hydro geological criteria to serve as guide in the protection
of the groundwater from contamination
Response: Groundwater vulnerability
Correct answer: Groundwater vulnerability map
Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 8
 The importance of _____ lies in its value as a secondary barrier after the engineering
design of landfills.
Response: attenuation
Correct answer: attenuation
Score: 1 out of 1 No

Question 9
 Also known as the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000 –
Response: RA 9003
Correct answer: RA 9003
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 10
 _____ is any solid material in the material flow pattern that is rejected by society.
Response: Solid waste
Correct answer: Solid Waste
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 11
 Water-borne human or animal wastes, excluding oil or oil wastes, removed from
residences, building, institutions, industrial and commercial establishments
Response: Sewage
Correct answer: Sewage
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 12
 _____ is a pathway by which chemical substance moves through both biotic and
abiotic.
Response: Biochemical Cycles
Correct answer: Biochemical Cycles
Score: 1 out of 1 No

Question 13
 The portion of the Earth that supports life.
Response: Biosphere
Correct answer: Biosphere
Score: 1 out of 1 No

Question 14
 Also known as the Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004 –
Response: RA 9275
Correct answer: RA 9275
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 15
 _____ define as all the interconnected food chains that can exist in an ecosystem.
Response: Food Webs
Correct answer: Food Webs
Score: 1 out of 1 No

Question 16
 The vertical dispersion coefficient at a distance of 5,000 meters from the source with a
stability that is slightly unstable, is less than the vertical dispersion coefficient at a
distance of 50,000 meters from the source with a stability that is moderately stable.
Response: False
Correct answer: False
Score: 1 out of 1 No

Question 17
 Pollution control devices or apparatus, processes, or other means that effectively
prevent control or reduce pollution of water caused by effluents and other discharges,
from any point source at levels within the water pollution standards is called Pollution
Control Technology
Response: True
Correct answer: True
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 18
 One of the important provisions in RA 8749 that are related to the SWM discipline is
“Ban on Incineration”. Incineration, hereby defined as the burning of municipal, bio-
medical andhazardous wastes, which process emits _____ and _____ fumes, is hereby
prohibited.
Response: poisonous
Response: toxic
Correct answer: poisonous, toxic
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 19
 Judicious use of means to achieve an end and “End” means removal of rejected
material from the flow pattern is called _____
Response: Solid Waste Management
Correct answer: Solid Waste Management
Score: 1 out of 1 No

Question 20
 It is the simplest type of dispersion model.
Response: Box model
Correct answer: Box model
Score: 1 out of 1 

Drill for Particle Technology

Question 1
 Carrier that is recognized and widely used of handling and transporting coals and
ashes in modern boiler house
Response: Peck Carriers
Correct answer: Peck Carriers
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 2
 Belt Conveyor deals w/ transfer of materials over relatively short distances
Response: False
Correct answer: False, Solid Handling
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 3
 Vacuum Conveyor are type of Pneumatic conveyor system characterized by a material
moving in an air stream or pressure less than ambient.
Response: True
Correct answer: True
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 4
 Carrier that is used to handle large volumes over long distances
Response: Belt Conveyor
Correct answer: Belt Conveyor
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 5
 The termed packed bed refers to volume of voids / volume bed
Response: False
Correct answer: False, voidage
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 6
 Mechanical Conveyor that has a double chain and is also known as farm elevator is
called?
Response: Flight Conveyor
Correct answer: Flight Conveyor
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 7
 Defibrating, deagglomerating, crushing, grinding, milling, and cutting are examples of
size reduction.
Response: True
Correct answer: True
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 8
 Agglomeration, Briquetting/Pelletizing, Coating, and Compacting are the examples of
Response: size enlargement
Correct answer: size enlargement
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes
Question 9
 The five different classes of unit operations/areas of particle technology are:
1. Size reduction
2.. Size enlargement
3. Separation
4. Mixing
5. Grinding
Response: False
Correct answer: False, 1. Size reduction
2.. Size enlargement
3. Separation
4. Mixing
5. Storage, transport, and dosage
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 10
 Flight Conveyor is a mechanical conveyor that is mainly characterized for its great
capacity for, preparability, horizontal transport over long distances of a high percentage
of bulk materials.
Response: False
Correct answer: False, Reddler Conveyor
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes