Selfstudys Com File
Selfstudys Com File
Selfstudys Com File
x 6 y z 1 R
Sol. …(1) 4cos(90–)
3 2 1
x = 3 – 6, y = 2, z = – 1 D 4 90–
2sin(90–)
x7 y9 z4 Sol.
µ …(2) 2 2 Q
4 3 2 S
x = 4µ + 7, y = 3µ + 9, z = 2µ + 4 2cos(90–)
A 4 B
3 – 6 = 4µ + 7 3 – 4µ = 13 …(3) × 2
2 = 3µ + 9 2 – 3µ = 9 …(4) × 3 P
6 – 8µ = 26
Area = (4cos + 2sin) (2cos + 4sin)
6 – 9µ = 27
= 8cos2 + 16sincos + 4sincos + 8sin2
– + – .
= 8 + 20 sincos
µ = –1
= 8 + 10 sin2
3 – 4(–1) = 13
Max Area = 8 + 10 = 18 (sin2
3 = 9
(a + b)2 = (4cos + 2sin+ 2cos + 4sin)2
=3
= (6cos + 6sin)2
int. point (3, 6, 2) ; (7, 8, 9)
2
= 36 (sin + cos)2
d = 16 + 4 + 49 = 69
36( 2)2
Ans. d2 + 6 = 69 + 6 = 75
3. Let two straight lines drawn from the origin 4. If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential
O intersect the line 3x + 4y = 12 at the points P and dy 3
equation + 2y = sin (2x), y(0) = , then
Q such that OPQ is an isosceles triangle and dx 4
POQ = 90°. If l = OP2 + PQ2 + QO2, then the
y is equal to :
greatest integer less than or equal to l is : 8
(1) 44 (2) 48 (1) e–/8 (2) e–/4
(3) 46 (4) 42 (3) e/4 (4) e/8
Ans. (3) Ans. (2 )
dy 3
Sol. 2y sin 2x , y(0)
Q(rcos(90+, rsin(90+) = (–rsinrcos) dx 4
Sol.
I.F = e
2 dx
P(rcos, rsin) = e2x
y.e2x e2x sin 2x dx
O
e2x (2sin 2x 2cos2x)
y.e2x C
44
3x + 4y = 12
3(rcos) + 4(rsin) = 12 3 3 1(0 2)
x = 0, y = .1 C
4 4 8
r(3cos + 4sin) = 12 ...(1)
3 1
3(–rsin) + 4(rcos) = 12 C
4 4
r(–3sin + 4cos) = 12 ...(2)
1=C
2 2
12 12 2 2
2sin 2x 2 cos2x
(3cos 4sin ) (3sin 4 cos ) y 1.e 2x
r r
8
2
12
2 9 16 1 2
r x , y 2sin 2 cos e 8
8 8 4 4
2 144
2
25 288 = 25r2
r y0e 4
(1) 2 2 (2) 5 3
Sol. Centre of the circle = ,1
2
(3) 4 2 (4) 4
Ans. (4) Equation of diameter = 2x + 3y – k = 0
3
2 3(1) – k 0
Q(5, 5) 2
P(3, 2) k=6
R
R
Sol. Now, Equation of ellipse becomes
C(2, 1) x2 + 9y2 = 36
O x2 y2
1
62 22
2b2 2.22 8 4 m z1 z
length of LR
a
6
6 3 n z1 z2 2 2 z1 z 2
z1 z2
2m + n = 2(4) + 3 = 11
statement I is correct
14. Consider the following two statements :
For Statement II :
Statement I : For any two non-zero complex
a b c
numbers z1, z2
yz zx xy
z1 z2
z1 z2
z1 z2
2 z1 z2 and a2 b2 c2
2
2
2
yz zx xy
Statement II : If x, y, z are three distinct complex
a2 = (|y – z|2) = (y – z) y z
numbers and a, b, c are three positive real numbers
6 36 4(5)(3) 1 1 1
t ... n
2(5) 1 2 2 3 99 100
6 96 1 1 1 1 1 1
... n
10 1 2 2 3 99 100
6 4 6 1
1 n
10 100
99
3 2 6 n
t 100
5
2 99
2 6 3 24 9 12 6 (m, n) = 9,
1 1 100
1 t 2
5 25
cos
1 t2 2 6 3
2
24 9 12 6 99
1 1 11(9) – 100
5 25
100
25 33 12 6 12 6 8 6 6 4 29 6 6 = 99 – 99 = 0
25 33 12 6 58 12 6 29 6 6 29 6 6 Ans. option (4) 11x – 100y = 0
100 150 6 4 6 6 4 6 6 17. Let f(x)= x5 + 2x3 + 3x + 1, x R, and g(x) be a
625 25 46 6 function such that g(f(x))=x for all x R. Then
200 8 4 g(7)
25 4 6 6 46 6 3 6 2 g'(7)
is equal to :
1 1 1 (1) 7 (2) 42
16. If ... m and
1 2 2 3 99 100 (3) 1 (4) 14
1 1 1 Ans. (4)
... n , then the point (m, n)
1 2 2 3 99 100
Sol. f(x) = x5 + 2x3 + 3x + 1
lies on the line
f(x) = 5x4 + 6x2 + 3
(1) 11(x – 1) – 100(y – 2) = 0
f(1) = 5 + 6 + 3 = 14
(2) 11(x – 2) – 100(y – 1) = 0
g(f(x)) = x
(3) 11(x – 1) – 100y = 0
g(f(x))f(x) = 1
(4) 11x – 100y = 0
for f(x) = 7
Ans. (4)
x5 + 2x3 + 3x + 1 = 7
1 1 1
Sol. ... m x = 1
1 2 2 3 99 100
1 1
1 2 2 3 99 100 g(7) f(1) = 1 g'(7)
... m f '(1) 14
1 1 1
x = 1, f(x) = 7 g(7) = 1
2y
2y sin y
1 cos2 y dy 1 cos2 y dy
g(7) 1
14
g'(7) 1 / 14 (Odd) (Even)
18. If A(l, –1, 2), B(5, 7, –6), C(3, 4, –10) and
sin y
0 2.2 y 2
dy
D(–l, –4, –2) are the vertices of a quadrilateral 1 cos y
0
Sol. A(1, –1, 2) sin y
2I 4 2
dy
B(5, 7, –6) 0 1 cos y
C(3, 4, –10)
sin y
I 2 2
dy
0 1 cos y
D(–1, –4, –2)
Area = 1
2
AC BD
1 ˆ ˆ
2
2i 5 j 12kˆ 6iˆ 11jˆ 4kˆ
2 tan 1 cos y
1
112iˆ 64ˆj 8kˆ
2 2
4 4
4 14iˆ 8jˆ kˆ
2
2 2
4
4 196 64 1
2 x 3y 2
20. If the line 4 z makes a right
4 261 3 4 1
x 3 1 2y 5 z
12 29 angle with the line , then
3µ 6 7
2y(1 sin y)
19. The value of 1 cos 2
y
dy is : 4 + 9µ is equal to :
(1) 13 (2) 4
2 (3) 5 (4) 6
(1) 2 (2)
2
Ans. (4)
2
(3) (4) 2 2 x 3y 2
2 Sol. 4z …(1)
3 4 1
Ans. (1)
2
y
2y(1 sin y) x2 3 z4
Sol. 1 cos 2
y
dy
(3) 4 1 (1)
3
x 3 1 2y 5 z 22. If the constant term in the expansion of
…(2)
3µ 6 7 9
3 1
1 (l + 2x – 3x ) x 2 is p, then 108p is equal
3
y 2 3x
x3 2 z5
3µ (3) (7) to
Right angle (3)(3µ) 4 1 (3) (1)(7) 0 Ans. (54)
3
9
–9µ – 4 – 1 + 7 = 0 3 1
4 + 9µ = 6 Sol. 2
3
1 2x 3x x 2
3x
SECTION-B 9
3 1
General term m x 2
21. From a lot of 10 items, which include 3 defective 2 3x
items, a sample of 5 items is drawn at random. Let 392r
9C r 9 r
(1) r x183r
the random variable X denote the number of 2
defective items in the sample. If the variance of X 1 0 7 0
Put r = 6 to get coeff. of x0 9 C6 x x
63 18
is 2, then 962 is equal to__________.
35
Ans. (56) Put r = 7 to get coeff. of x 3 9 C r (1) 7 x 3
22
Sol. X = denotes number of defective 1
9 C7 5 2
x 3 x 3
x 0 1 2 3 3 2 27
P(x)
7 5 5 1
1 2x 3x 187 x
3 0
1 3
27
x
15 12 12 12
x12 0 1 4 9 7 3 7 1 72 9 1
18 27 18 9 18 18 2
5 20 9
Pix12 0 1
12 12 12 108 54
2
5 10 3 23. The area of the region enclosed by the parabolas
pixi 0
12 12 12
y = x2 – 5x and y = 7x – x2 is __________.
18
µ p i x i Ans. (72)
12
NTA Ans. (198)
34
p i x12 Sol. y = x2 – 5x and y = 7x – x2
12
O 5 7
34 27 7
12 12 f(x)
7
962 96 56
12
6 1
0 (g(x) f(x))dx Case-1 : a
2
0 (7x x
6 2
) (x2 5x) dx 2a – 1 = [a] + 2a
[a] = –1 a [–1, 0) Reject
6
2x
0 12x 2x dx 12 2
2 3
6 2 x 1
Case-2 : a
3 0 2
2 –2a + 1 = [a] + 2a
6(6)2 (6)3
3
a=I+f
= 216 – 144 = 72 unit2 –2(I + f) + 1 = I + 2I + 2f
24. The number of ways of getting a sum 16 on
1 1
I = 0, f a
throwing a dice four times is __________. 4 4
Ans. (125) 1
Hence a
1
Sol. (x + x ....+ x )2 6 4 4
1
6
4
72 a 72 18
x · 1 x
4
aS 4
1 x
26. Let f be a differentiable function in the interval
4 6 4 –4
x ·(1–x ) ·(1–x)
t 2 f(x) x 2 f(t)
4 6 12 –4 (0, ) such that f(l) = 1 and lim 1
x [1–4x + 6x ....] [(1–x) ] t x tx
(x4 – 4x10 + 6x16....) (1–x)–4 for each x > 0. Then 2 f(2) + 3 f(3) is equal to
__________.
(x4 – 4x10 + 6x16) (1 + 15C12 x12 + 9C6x6 ....)
Ans. (24)
15 9 16
( C12 – 4 C6 + 6)x
t 2 f(x) x 2 f(t)
Sol. lim 1
(15C3 – 49C6 + 6) t x tx
2t.f(x) x 2 f '(x)
= 35 × 13 – 6 × 8 × 7 + 6 lim 1
t x 1
= 455 – 336 + 6
2x.f(x) – x2f(x) = 1
= 125 dy 2 1
y 2
25. If S = {a R : |2a – 1| = 3[a]+2{a}}, where [t] dx x x
denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to t 2
x dx 1
I.f. e
and {t} represents the fractional part of t, then x2
72 a is equal to __________. y 1
aS 2
4 dx C
x x
Ans. (18)
y 1
Sol. |2a – 1| = 3[a] + 2{a} 2
3 C
x 3x
|2a – 1| = [a] + 2a
Put f(1) = 1
C
2 Sol. a 2b c 3 c a
3
1 2x 2
2b 4a c 0
y
3x 3
c 4a 2b 8iˆ 14ˆj 30kˆ
2x3 1
y a c 130
3x
17 8 + 42 + 210 = 130
f(2)
6 1
55 2
f(3)
9 c 4iˆ 7jˆ 15kˆ
17 55 72
2f(2) + 3f(3) = 24 b c = 8 + 7 + 15 = 30
3 3 3
29. The number of distinct real roots of the equation
27. Let a1, a2, a3, ... be in an arithmetic progression of
|x| |x + 2| – 5|x + l| – 1 = 0 is __________.
positive terms.
Ans. (3)
Let Ak = a12 – a22 + a32 – a42 + ... + a2k–12 – a2k2.
If A3 = –153, A5 = –435 and a12 + a22 + a32 = 66, –2 –1 0
then a17 – A7 is equal to __________. Sol.
Ans. (910) Case-1
Sol. d common diff. x 0
Ak = –kd[2a + (2k – 1)d] x2 + 2x – 5x – 5 – 1 = 0
A3 = –153 x2 – 3x – 6 = 0
3
S
d
= 4a cosec2
9
12
d2
d2 = 108
PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 0
1 A
31. Light emerges out of a convex lens when a source
0B 0 R 1
of light kept at its focus. The shape of wavefront of 0C
the light is: 1
(1) Both spherical and cylindrical 0D
(2) Cylindrical
(3) Spherical 33. If G be the gravitational constant and u be the
(4) Plane energy density then which of the following
Ans. (4) quantity have the dimension as that the uG :
Sol. Light emerges parallel (1) Pressure gradient per unit mass
planor wavefront (2) Force per unit mass
(3) Gravitational potential
(4) Energy per unit mass
Ans. (2)
F Sol. [uG] = [(M1L–1T–2) (M–1L3T–2)]
[uG] = [M0L2T–4]
32. Following gates section is connected in a complete [ uG ] = [L1T–2]
suitable circuit. Option (2) is correct
34. Given below are two statements :
A
Statement-I: When a capillary tube is dipped into
B R
a liquid, the liquid neither rises nor falls in the
C
capillary. The contact angle may be 0°.
D Statement-II: The contact angle between a solid
and a liquid is a property of the material of the
solid and liquid as well :
For which of the following combination, bulb will In the light of above statement, choose the correct
glow (ON): answer from the options given below.
(1) A = 0, B = 1, C = 1, D = 1 (1) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.
(2) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0, D = 0 (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
(3) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0, D = 1 (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(4) A = 1, B = 1, C = 1, D = 0 (4) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false.
Ans. (2) Ans. (1)
Sol. Bulb will glow if bulb have potential drop on it. Sol. Capillary rise
One end of bulb must be at high (1) and other must 2T cos
h ;
be at low (0). gr
Option (2) satisfy this condition If = 0° then rise is non-zero
Statement-1 is incorrect.
Option(1) is correct
35. Given below are two statements: 36. The angle between vector Q and the resultant of
V0 M1 M 2 (2Q 2P) and (2Q 2P) is:
(1) 0°
(2Q 2P)
(2) tan 1
2Q 2P
v P
(3) tan 1
Statement-I: Figure shows the variation of Q
stopping potential with frequency () for the two 2Q
(4) tan 1
photosensitive materials M1 and M2. The slope P
h Ans. (1)
gives value of , where h is Planck's constant, e is
e Sol. R (2Q 2P) (2Q 2P)
the charge of electron. R 4Q
Statement-II: M2 will emit photoelectrons of Angle between Q and R is zero
greater kinetic energy for the incident radiation Option (1) is correct
having same frequency. 37. In hydrogen like system the ratio of coulombian
In the light of the above statements, choose the force and gravitational force between an electron
most appropriate answer from the options given and a proton is in the order of:
below. (1) 1039 (2) 1019
(3) 1029 (4) 1036
(1) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
Ans. (1)
incorrect.
kQ1Q2 9 10 9 1.6 10 19 1.6 10 19
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is Sol. Fe
r2 r2
correct.
Gm1m 2 6.67 10 11 9.1 10 31 1.6 10 27
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Fg
r2 r2
incorrect. Fe
0.23 10 40 2.3 1039
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Fg
correct. Option (1)
Ans. (1) 38. In a co-axial straight cable, the central conductor
Sol. eV0 hv and the outer conductor carry equal currents in
opposite directions. The magnetic field is zero.
h (1) inside the outer conductor
V0 v
e e (2) in between the two conductors
M2 material has higher work function, so (3) outside the cable
statement-(II) is incorrect. (4) inside the inner conductor
Option (1) is correct. Ans. (3)
f v T
f1 T 300
I 1
I f2 T2 400
r
4 2
f2 f1 Z
3 3
Sol.
41. Ratio of radius of gyration of a hollow sphere to
B.d 0 ienc 0 that of a solid cylinder of equal mass, for moment
B = 0 outside the cable of Inertia about their diameter axis AB as shown in
39. An electron rotates in a circle around a nucleus 8
figure is . The value of x is:
having positive charge Ze. Correct relation x
between total energy (E) of electron to its potential A A
energy (U) is:
(1) E = 2U (2) 2E = 3U M
(3) E = U (4) 2E = U 2R
Ans. (4) R
k(Ze)(e) mv 2 4R
Sol. F Diameter
r2 r B
B
1 1 K(Ze)(e)
KE mv 2 (1) 34 (2) 17
2 2 r
(3) 67 (4) 51
K(Ze)(e) Ans. (3)
PE
r 2
Sol. I sphere MR 2 Mk12
K(Ze)(e) K(Ze)(e) K(Ze)(e) 3
TE
2r r 2r 1 1
I cylinder M(4R 2 ) MR 2 M(2R) 2
PE 12 4
TE
2 67
MR 2 Mk 22
2TE = PE 12
Option (4) k1 2 12 8
.
40. If the collision frequency of hydrogen molecules in k2 3 67 67
a closed chamber at 27°C is Z, then the collision 42. Two conducting circular loops A and B are placed
in the same plane with their centres coinciding as
frequency of the same system at 127° C is :
shown in figure. The mutual inductance between
3 4 them is:
(1) Z (2) Z
2 3 B
A
2 3
(3) Z (4) Z O
3 4 a
b
Ans. (3)
b >> a
Sol. Assuming mean free path constant.
0 a 2 0 b2 with an acceleration of 0.1 ms–2. The action force
(1) (2) . of the system on the floor is equal to:
2b 2 a
(1) 297 N (2) 294 N
0 b2 0 a 2
(3) (4) . (3) 291 N (4) 196 N
2a 2 b
Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)
Sol. Taking g = 9.8 m/s2
Sol. = Mi = BA
0 i 2
Mi a 25 kg
2b
5 kg 0.1 m/s2
0 a 2
M N
2b 30 × 9.8= 294
43. Match list-I with list-II: 294 – N = 30 × 0.1
List-I List-II N = 291
(A) Kinetic energy of planet (I) GMm 45. A simple pendulum doing small oscillations at a
a place R height above earth surface has time period
(B) Gravitation Potential (II) GMm of T1 = 4 s. T2 would be it's time period if it is
energy of Sun-planet 2a brought to a point which is at a height 2R from
system. earth surface. Choose the correct relation [R =
(C) Total mechanical energy (III) Gm radius of Earth]:
of planet r (1) T1 = T2 (2) 2T1 = 3T2
(D) Escape energy at the (IV) GMm (3) 3T1 = 2T2 (4) 2T1 = T2
surface of planet for unit 2a Ans. (3)
mass object
Sol. T1 2 (2R)2
(Where a = radius of planet orbit, r = radius of GM
planet, M = mass of Sun, m = mass of planet)
Choose the correct answer from the options given T2 2 (3R)2
GM
below:
(1) (A) – II, (B) – I, (C) – IV, (D) – III T1 2
(2) (A) – III, (B) – IV, (C) – I, (D) – II T2 3
(3) (A) – I, (B) – IV, (C) – II, (D) – III 46. A body of mass 50 kg is lifted to a height of 20 m
(4) (A) – I, (B) – II, (C) – III, (D) – IV from the ground in the two different ways as
Ans. (1) shown in the figures. The ratio of work done
1 GMm against the gravity in both the respective cases,
Sol. KE mv 2
2 2a will be:
PE = –2KE
TE = –KE
44. A wooden block of mass 5kg rests on soft
horizontal floor. When an iron cylinder of mass 25
kg is placed on the top of the block, the floor yields
and the block and the cylinder together go down
Ans. (1)
Sol. U = 0 (Cyclic process)
M=50kg h =20m
Q = W = area of P-V curve.
30°
= × (140 ×103 Pa) × (140 ×10–6 m3)
Case-1: Pulled straight up
Q = 61.6 J
M=50k
49. In the given figure R1 = 10, R2 = 8, R3 = 4
and R4 = 8. Battery is ideal with emf 12V.
h =20m
Equivalent resistant of the circuit and current
30°
supplied by battery are respectively.
Case-2: Along the ramp
R1
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 :2 (4) 1 : 2 + R4
12 V R2 R3
Ans. (1) –
Sol. Work done by gravity is independent of path. It
depends only on vertical displacement so work
(1) 12 and 11.4 A (2) 10.5 and 1.14 A
done in both cases will be same.
(3) 10.5 and 1 A (4) 12 and 1 A
Option (1) is correct
Ans. (4)
47. Time periods of oscillation of the same simple
Sol. Here R2, R3, R4 are in parallel
pendulum measured using four different measuring
1 1 1 1
clocks were recorded as 4.62 s, 4.632 s, 4.6 s and
4.64 s. The arithmetic mean of these reading in
R 234 R 2 R 3 R 4
correct significant figure is. R234 = 2
(1) 4.623 s (2) 4.62 s R234 is in series with R1 so
(3) 4.6 s (4) 5 s Req = R234 + R1 = 2 + 10 = 12
Ans. (3) 12
i = 1Amp
Sol. Sum of number by considering significant digit 12
sum = 4.6 + 4.6 + 4.6 + 4.6 = 18.4 50. An alternating voltage of amplitude 40 V and
sum 18.4 frequency 4 kHz is applied directly across the
Arithmetic Mean = = 4.6
4 4 capacitor of 12 µF. The maximum displacement
48. The heat absorbed by a system in going through current between the plates of the capacitor is
the given cyclic process is : nearly:
P(in cc) (1) 13 A (2) 8 A
(3) 10 A (4) 12 A
340 Ans. (4)
Sol. Displacement current is same as conduction
60 current in capacitor.
0 V 1 1
XC
60 340 (in kPa) C 2 fC
(1) 61.6 J (2) 431.2 J 1
3.317
(3) 616 J (4) 19.6 J 2 4 10 3 12 10 6
V 40 54. Three blocks M1, M2, M3 having masses 4 kg, 6 kg
I 12A
X C 3.317 and 10 kg respectively are hanging from a smooth
pully using rope 1, 2 and 3 as shown in figure. The
SECTION-B
tension in the rope 1, T1 when they are moving
51. In Young's double slit experiment, carried out with
upward with acceleration of 2ms–2 is ............... N
light of wavelength 5000Å, the distance between
(if g = 10 m/s2)
the slits is 0.3 mm and the screen is at 200 cm from
the slits. The central maximum is at x = 0 cm. The
value of x for third maxima is ............. mm.
Ans. (10) 1 T1 2m/s2
T1
D 5 10 7 2 10 10 3 M1
Sol. m
d 3 10 4 3 T2
4g 2
rd –3
For 3 maxima y3 = 310 ×10 m = 10 mm T2
52. A 2A current carrying straight metal wire of M2 6kg
C = 20 µF
mg
Sol.
T = mg
T mg ~
V= sin 100t volt
A A
(A )g
Ans. (50)
A
Sol. XL = L = 100 × 1 = 100
1.2 108 3
600 1 1
g 6 10 4 10 XC 500
C 100 20 10 6
56. A body moves on a frictionless plane starting from
rest. If Sn is distance moved between t = n – 1 and t Z (X L X C )2 R 2
= n and Sn – 1 is distance moved between t = n –2
(100 500)2 3002
Sn 1 2
and t = n – 1, then the ratio is 1 for n Z = 500
Sn x
Vrms 50
= 10. The value of x is ............ i rms 0.1A
Z 500
Ans. (19)
rms voltage across capacitor
1 19a
Sol. Sn a(2n 1) Vrms = XC irms
2 2 =500 × 0.1 = 50V
1 17a 59. In the experiment to determine the galvanometer
Sn 1 a(2n 3)
2 2 1
resistance by half-deflection method, the plot of
Sn 1 17 2
1 x 19
Sn 19 x vs the resistance (R) of the resistance box is shown
57. If three helium nuclei combine to form a carbon in the figure. The figure of merit of the
nucleus then the energy released in this reaction is galvanometer is .............. ×10–1 A/division. [The
.......... × 10–2 MeV. (Given 1 u = 931 MeV/c2, source has emf 2V]
atomic mass of helium = 4.002603 u)
2
Ans. (727)
Sol. Reaction :
324 He
12
6 C rays 1
Mass defect = m = (3mHe – mC) 1/2
= (3 × 4.002603 – 12) = 0.007809 u 0
2 4 6 R()
Energy released
= 931 m MeV
Ans. (5)
Sol. i = K
2
K
GR
1 (G R)K K KG
R
2 2 2
K 1
Slope = K 0.5 5 10 1 A
2 4
60. Three capacitors of capacitances 25 µF, 30 µF and
45 µF are connected in parallel to a supply of 100
V. Energy stored in the above combination is E.
When these capacitors are connected in series to
9
the same supply, the stored energy is E . The
x
value of x is .................
Ans. (86)
Sol. In parallel combination : Potential difference is
same across all
1
Energy = (C1 C 2 C3 )V 2
2
1
(25 30 45) (100) 2 10 6 = 0.5 = E
2
In series combination: Charge is same on all.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
C equ C1 C 2 C3 25 30 45
1 (18 15 10) 43 450
C equ
C equ 450 450 43
Q2 Q2 Q2
Energy =
2C1 2C 2 2C3
Q2 1 1 1
2 C1 C2 C3
(V Cequ )2 1 V2 Cequ
2 Cequ 2
(100)2 450
10 6
2 43
4.5 9 9
E 0.5 x = 86
86 x x
CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 63. Identify compound (Z) in the following reaction
61. The incorrect postulates of the Dalton's atomic sequence.
Cl
theory are :
(A) Atoms of different elements differ in mass. 623 K
+ NaOH 300 atm X
HCl
Y
Conc. HNO3
Z
(B) Matter consists of divisible atoms.
(C) Compounds are formed when atoms of OH OH
NO2 NO2
different element combine in a fixed ratio. (1) (2)
(D) All the atoms of given element have different
properties including mass. NO2
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) (4)
Ans. (4) 64. Given below are two statements : One is labelled
Sol. B, D as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
62. The following reaction occurs in the Blast furnance Assertion (A): Enthalpy of neutralisation of strong
where iron ore is reduced to iron metal monobasic acid with strong monoacidic base is
–1
Fe2O3 s 3CO(g) Fe l 3CO2(g) always –57 kJ mol
Reason (R): Enthalpy of neutralisation is the
Using the Le-chatelier's principle, predict which +
amount of heat liberated when one mole of H ions
one of the following will not disturb the –
furnished by acid combine with one mole of OH
equilibrium. ions furnished by base to form one mole of water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Addition of Fe2O3
correct answer from the options given below.
(2) Addition of CO2 (1) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(3) Removal of CO
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Removal of CO2 (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (1) (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
Sol. When solid added no effect on equilibrium. Ans. (2)
Sol. Enthalpy of neutralization of SA & SB is always 67. Given below are two statements :
–57 kJ / mol because strong monoacid gives one Statement I: In group 13, the stability of +1
mole of H+ and strong mono base gives one mole oxidation state increases down the group.
of OH– which form one mole of water. Statement II: The atomic size of gallium is greater
65. The statement(s) that are correct about the species than that of aluminium.
2– – + 2+ In the light of the above statements, choose the
O , F , Na and Mg .
(A) All are isoelectronic most appropriate answer from the options given
(B) All have the same nuclear charge below:
(C) O
2–
has the largest ionic radii (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
2+ correct
(D) Mg has the smallest ionic radii
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
options given below :
incorrect
(1) (B), (C) and (D) only
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
incorrect
(3) (C) and (D) only
Ans. (4)
(4) (A), (C) and (D) only
Sol. Statement I : Number of d & f electrons, increases
Ans. (4)
down the group and due to poor shielding of d & f
Sol. O–2 F– Na+ Mg+2
e–, stability of lower oxidation states increases
(No. of e–) 10 10 10 10
down the group
(Ionic radius) O > F > Na > Mg+2
–2 – +
Statement II : The atomic size of aluminium is
Zeff O–2 < F– < Na+ < Mg+2
greater than that of gallium.
66. For the compounds:
68. Number of and bonds present in ethylene
(A) H3C–CH2–O–CH2–CH2–CH3
molecule is respectively :
(B) H3C–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3 (1) 3 and 1 (2) 5 and 2
(C) CH3–CH2–C–CH2–CH3 (3) 4 and 1 (4) 5 and 1
Ans. (4)
O
H H
(D) H3C–CH– CH2– CH2–CH3 Sol. ethylene is C=C , it has 5 bonds and
H
OH H
Ans. (2)
Sol.
O
(i) N2 H 4
Sol. Dipole moment is a vector quantity and for
(ii)ethylene glycol/KOH
CH3 compound net dipole moment is the vector sum of
CH3 all dipoles hence dipole moment of cis form is
CH3 – Wolf kishner reduction. greater than trans form.
CH3 CH3 CH3
:CH3 H
70. The reaction at cathode in the cells commonly used C=C > C=C
H H H
in clocks involves. Cis CH3 trans
(1) reduction of Mn from +4 to +3 ( > 0) ( = 0)
(2) oxidation of Mn from +3 to +4
(3) reduction of Mn from + 7 to +2 73. Given below are two statements :
(4) oxidation of Mn from + 2 to +7 Statement I: Nitration of benzene involves the
Ans. (1) following step –
Sol. In the cathode reaction manganese (Mn) is reduced
H
from the +4 oxidation state to the +3 state.
71. Which one of the following complexes will exhibit H – O – NO2 H2O + NO2
••
the least paramagnetic behaviour ?
[Atomic number, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27] Statement II: Use of Lewis base promotes the
(1) [Co(H2O)6]
2+
(2) [Fe(H2O)6]
2+ electrophilic substitution of benzene.
2+ 2+ In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) [Mn(H2O)6] (4) [Cr(H2O)6]
Ans. (1) most appropriate answer from the options given
Sol. below :
Number of n(n 2) B.M. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
unpaired e– incorrect
2+ 3 3.87
[Co(H2O)6] (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
2+ 4 4.89
[Fe(H2O)6] incorrect
2+ 5 5.92
[Mn(H2O)6] (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
2+ 4 4.89
[Cr(H2O)6] correct
2+
Least paramagnetic behaviour = [Co(H2O)6] (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
72. Given below are two statements : one is labelled correct
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Ans. (2)
Reason (R). Sol. In nitration of benzene concentrated H2SO4 and
Assertion (A): Cis form of alkene is found to be HNO3 is used as reagent which generates
more polar than the trans form
Reason (R): Dipole moment of trans isomer of electrophile N O2 in following steps:
2-butene is zero. H
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below : H2SO4 + HNO3
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true Lewis acids can promote the formation of
Ans. (3) electrophiles not Lewis base
74. The correct order of ligands arranged in increasing Sol. Phenol is a highly activated compound which can
field strength. undergo bromination directly with Bromine
– – – –
(1) Cl < OH < Br < CN without any lewis acid.
– – –
(2) F < Br < I < NH3 79. Molar ionic conductivities of divalent cation and
– – anion are 57 S cm2 mol–1 and 73 S cm2 mol–1
(3) Br < F < H2O < NH3
– – respectively. The molar conductivity of solution of
(4) H2O < OH < CN < NH3
Ans. (3) an electrolyte with the above cation and anion will
– – be :
Sol. Experimental order Br < F < H2O < NH3
2 –1 2 –1
75. Which of the following gives a positive test with (1) 65 S cm mol (2) 130 S cm mol
ninhydrin ? 2 –1 2 –1
(3) 187 S cm mol (4) 260 S cm mol
(1) Cellulose (2) Starch Ans. (2)
(3) Polyvinyl chloride (4) Egg albumin
2
Ans. (4) Sol. C 57Scm 2 mol –1
Sol. Ninhydrin test is a test of amino acids. Egg
A2 73Scm 2 mol –1
albumin contains protein which is a natural
polymer of amino acids which will show positive 2 2
Solution C A
ninhydrin test
76. The metal that shows highest and maximum = 57 + 73 = 130
number of oxidation state is: 80. The number of neutrons present in the more abundant
(1) Fe (2) Mn isotope of boron is 'x'. Amorphous boron upon
(3) Ti (4) Co heating with air forms a product, in which the
Ans. (2) oxidation state of boron is 'y'. The value of x + y is …
Sol. Mn shows highest oxidation state (Mn+7) in 3d (1) 4 (2) 6
series metals. (3) 3 (4) 9
77. Ail organic compound has 42.1% carbon, 6.4% Ans. (4)
hydrogen and remainder is oxygen. If its molecular Sol. More abundant isotope = B11
weight is 342, then its molecular formula is :
[Number of neutrons = 6]
(1) C11H18O12 (2) C12H20O12
x=6
(3) C14H20O10 (4)
C12H22O11 B + O2 B2O3
Ans. (4) Oxidation state of B in B2O3 = +3
Sol. only C12H22O11 has 42.1% carbon, 6.4% hydrogen So, y = 3
& 51.5 percent oxygen. Hence x + y = 9
78. Given below are two statement : SECTION-B
Statement I : Bromination of phenol in solvent –18
81. The value of Rydberg constant (RH) is 2.18×10 J.
with low polarity such as CHCl3 or CS2 requires –31
The velocity of electron having mass 9.1×10 kg
Lewis acid catalyst.
in Bohr's first orbit of hydrogen atom
Statement II : The lewis acid catalyst polarises the 5 –1
bromine to generate Br .
+ = ……… ×10 ms (nearest integer)
In the light of the above statements, choose the Ans. (22)
correct answer from the options given below : Z
Sol. V = 2.18 × 106 ×
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. n
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 1
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. = 21.8 × 105 × 22 × 105 (nearest)
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
1
Ans. (4)
A 85. The spin only magnetic moment value of the ion
B among Ti , V , Co
2+ 2+ 3+ 2+
and Cr , that acts as
82.
strong oxidising agent in aqueous solution is
……….. BM (Near integer).
In a borax bead test under hot condition, a metal
(Given atomic numbers : Ti : 22, V : 23, Cr : 24,
salt (one from the given) is heated at point B of the
Co : 27)
flame, resulted in green colour salt bead. The
spin-only magnetic moment value of the salt is Ans. (5)
…………. BM (Nearest integer) Sol. Strong oxidising agent = Co+3
[Given atomic number of Cu = 29, Ni = 28, No. of unpaired e– in Co+3[3d6] = 4
Mn = 25, Fe = 26]
Hence n(n 2) 24 BM
Ans. (6)
Sol. Fe+3 will give green coloured bead when heated at Nearest integer = 5
point B. 86. During Kinetic study of reaction 2A + B C + D,
Number of unpaired e– in Fe+3 = 5 the following results were obtained :
= 5.92
Nearest integer = 6 A[M] B[M] initial rate of
83. The heat of combustion of solid benzoic acid at formation of D
I 0.1 0.1 –3
constant volume is –321.30 kJ at 27°C. The heat of 6.0 × 10
combustion at constant pressure is (–321.30 – xR) II 0.3 0.2 –2
7.2 × 10
kJ, the value of x is ……………. –1
III 0.3 0.4 2.88 × 10
Ans. (150) –2
IV 0.4 0.1 2.40 × 10
15
Sol. C6H5COOH(S) + O2(g) 7CO2(g) + 3H2O()
2 Based on above data, overall order of the reaction
H = U + ngRT is ……….
1 R Ans. (3)
321.30 300
2 100 Sol. r = K[A]x[B]y
= (–321.30 – 150R) kJ (I) 6 × 10–3 = K[0.1]x[0.1]y
84. Consider the given chemical reaction sequence : (IV) 2.4 × 10–2 = K[0.4]x[0.1]y
OH (IV)/(I)
4 = (4)x
Conc. H2SO4 Conc. HNO3
Product A Product B x=1
r = K[A]x[B]y
Total sum of oxygen atoms in Product A and (III) 2.88 × 10–1 = K[0.3]x[0.4]y
Product B are ……… (II) 7.2 × 10–2 = K[0.3]x[0.2]y
Ans. (14) (III)/(II)
Sol. Picric acid is prepared by treating phenol first with 4 = 2y
concentrated sulphuric acid which converts it to y=2
phenol-2,4-disulphonic acid and then with Overall order = x + y = 1 + 2 = 3
concentrated nitric acid to get 2, 4, 6 trinitrophenol.
87. An artificial cell is made by encapsulating 0.2 M 90. 9.3 g of pure aniline is treated with bromine water
glucose solution within a semipermeable at room temperature to give a white precipitate of
membrane. The osmotic pressure developed when the product 'P'. The mass of product 'P' obtained is
the artificial cell is placed within a 0.05 M solution 26.4 g. The percentage yield is ……… %.
of NaCl at 300 K is _______ × 10–1 bar. Ans. (80)
(Nearest Integer) NH2 NH2
–1 –1 Br
[Given : R = 0.083 L bar mol K ] Br
Assume complete dissociation of NaCl Sol.
Ans. (25)
Sol. Br
(white ppt)
0.2 M 0.05 M
Glucose NaCl Sol. 93 g of aniline produces 330 g of 2, 4, 6-
tribromoaniline. Hence 9.3 g of aniline should
produce 33g of 2, 4, 6-tribromoaniline. Hence
NaCl Na+ + Cl– 26.4 100
percentage yield 80%
0.05M 0.05M 0.05M 33
Total C1 = 0.05 + 0.05 = 0.1 M (NaCl)
C2 = 0.2 M (glucose)
= (C2 – C1) RT
= (0.2 – 0.1) × 0.083 × 300
= 2.49 bar
= 24.9 × 10–1 bar
88. The number of halobenzenes from the following
that can be prepared by Sandmeyer's reaction
is .......
F Cl Br I At
I II III IV V
Ans. (2)
Sol. In Sandmayer reaction only bromobenzene &
chlorobenzene are prepared
–
89. In the lewis dot structure for NO2 , total number of
valence electrons around nitrogen is …….
Ans. (8)
Sol.
N
–
O O
Number of valence e– around N-atom = 8