Maths PDF
Maths PDF
Maths PDF
PART- A (MATHEMATICS)
Q.1 If the curves y2 = 6x, 9x2 + by2 = 16 intersect each other at right angles, then the value of b is :
9 7
(1) (2) 6 (3) (4) 4
2 2
Ans. [1]
Sol. Curve y 2 6x, 9x 2 by 2 16 intersect orthogonally
3
Let point of intersection is t 2 ,3t .
2
Now, 2y m1 = 6 & 18 x + 2bym2 = 0
3 9x
m1 & m2
y by
3
9 2
3 2
m1 & m2
3t b 3t
1 9t
m1 & m2
t 2b
intersect orthogonally Hence, m1 m 2 1
1 9t
1
t 2b
9
b
2
Q.2 Let u be a vector coplanar with the vectors a 2i 3j k and b j k . If u is perpendicular
2
to a and u b 24 , then u is equal to :
(1) (2) (3) (4) 4
4 8 2
Ans. [1]
/2
sin 2 x
Sol. I 1 2x dx … (i)
/2
/2 /2
sin 2 x 2 x sin 2 x
I dx 1 2x dx … (ii)
/2
1 2 x /2
2I
/2
1 2 sin
x 2
x
dx
/2
1 2 x
/2 1 cos 2x
2I dx
/2
2
/2
1 sin 2x
I x
4 2 /2
1
I 0 0
4 2 2
I
4
Q.6 Let g (x) = cos x2, f x x , and , be the roots of the quadratic equation
18x 2 9x 2 0 . Then the area (in sq. units) bounded by the curve y gof x and the
lines x , x and y = 0, is :
1 1 1 1
(1)
2
2 1 (2)
2
3 1 (3)
2
3 1 (4)
2
3 2
Ans. [2]
Sol. gf x cos x
,
6 3
/3
/3
cos xdx sin x
/6
/6
3 1
2
1
Q.7 If sum of all the solutions of the equation 8cos x cos x cos x 1 in [0, ] is
6 6 2
k, then k is equal to :
20 2 13 8
(1) (2) (3) (4)
9 3 9 9
Ans. [3]
1
Sol. cos x cos x cos x 1
6 6 2
1
8cos x cos 2 sin 2 x 1
6 2
1
cos 3x
2
x 0, 3x 0,3
3x , 2 , 2
3 3 3
5 7
x , ,
9 9 9
3
Sum of all solution
9
1 1 f x
Q.8 Let f x x 2 and g x x , x R 1,0,1 . If h x , then the local
x2 x gx
h() 2 2
Q.9 The integral
sin 2 x cos 2 x
2 dx is equal to :
sin 5
x cos3 x sin 2 x sin 3 x cos 2 x cos5 x
1
(1) C
1 cot 3 x
1
(2) C
3 1 tan 3 x
1
(3) C
3 1 tan 3 x
1
(4) C
1 cot 3 x
(where C is a constant of integration)
Ans. [3]
sin 2 x cos 2 x
Sol. 2
dx
sin x sin
2 3
x cos3 x cos 2 x sin 3 x cos3 x
sin 2 x cos 2 x
2 2
dx
sin 3
x cos3 x sin 2 x cos 2 x
sin 2 x cos 2 x
2 dx
sin 3
x cos3 x
tan 2 x sec 2 x
2
dx
tan 3
x 1
Let 1 + tan3x = t
3tan 2 x sec 2 xdx dt
1 dt
3 t2
1 1
C
3 t
1
C
3 1 tan 3 x
Q.10 A bag contains 4 red and 6 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag, its colour is
observed and this ball along with two additional balls of the same colour are returned to the
bag. If now a ball is drawn at random from the bag, then the probability that this drawn ball is
red, is :
3 3 2 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 10 5 5
Ans. [3]
Sol. Given 4 red ball and 6 black ball.
Case – I
If first drawn ball is red, then :
4 6 24
( 2 Red balls are added)
10 12 120
So, in box (6 R, 6 B)
Case – II
If first drawn is black, then :
6 4 24
( 2 Black balls are added)
10 12 120
So, in box (4 R, 8 B)
24 24 48 2
PR
120 120 120 5
Q.11 Let the orthocenter and centroid of a triangle be A 3,5 and B 3,3 respectively. If C is the
circumcentre of this triangle, then the radius of the circle having line segment AC as diameter,
is :
3 5 5
(1) (2) 10 (3) 2 10 (4) 3
2 2
Ans. [4]
Sol. Given :
Orthocentre = A = (– 3, 5)
Centroid = B = (3, 3)
and C is circumcentre.
We know that
2 3 2 5
3 and 3
3 3
6 and 2
So, C (6, 2)
2 2
Distance AC 6 3 2 5
81 9
90
90 5
Radius 3
4 2
Q.12 If the tangent at (1, 7) to the curve x 2 y 6 touches the circle x 2 y 2 16x 12y c 0 then
the value of c is :
(1) 95 (2) 195 (3) 185 (4) 85
Ans. [1]
Sol. T=0
y – 2x – 5 = 0, It is also tangent to circle having centre (– 8, – 6) and r 100 c
Applying condition of tangency c = 95.
Q.13 If , C are the distinct roots, of the equation x 2 x 1 0 , then 101 107 is equal to :
(1) 2 (2) – 1 (3) 0 (4) 1
Ans. [4]
Sol. +=1
.= 1
1 3i
2
2
1 3i 1 3i
2 2
101 107 1
Q.14 PQR is a triangular park with PQ = PR = 200 m. A T.V. tower stands at the mid-point of QR.
If the angles of elevation of the top of the tower at P, Q and R are respectively 45°, 30° and
30°, then the height of the tower (in m) is :
(1) 50 2 (2) 100 (3) 50 (4) 100 3
Ans. [2]
ST x
Sol. tan 30 h
QS 2 3
Also, PQ2 = PS2 + QS2
x2 x2 x2
40000 h 2 40000 x 100 12
4 12 4
& h = 100
9 9
2
Q.15 If x
i 1
i 5 9 and x
i 1
i 5 45 , then the standard deviation of the 9 items
x1 , x 2 ,, x 9 is :
(1) 3 (2) 9 (3) 4 (4) 2
Ans. [4]
9 9
2
Sol. x
i1
i 5 9 and x
i 1
i 5 45
x
x 3 1 x x 3 1 , x 1 is :
Q.17 Tangents are drawn to the hyperbola 4x 2 y 2 36 at the point P and Q. If these tangents
intersect at the point T (0, 3) then the area (in sq. units) of PTQ is :
By putting x = 1
–3 2 2
2
2 –3 2 A B 1– A B = 5
2 2 –3
2 2
B a, b R R : 4 a – 6 9 b – 5 36
Then :
(1) neither A B nor B A (2) B A
(3) A B (4) A B (an empty set)
Ans. [3]
Sol. For set A,
1 a – 5 1 a 4,6
1 b – 5 1 b 4,6
Set B represents an ellipse covering larger subset and also all the value of set A satisfies set B.
A B .
Q.22 Tangents and normal are drawn at P(16, 16) on the parabola y 2 16x, which intersect the axis
of the parabola at A and B, respectively. If C is the centre of the circle through the points P,A
and B and CPB then a value of tan is :
4 1
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4) 3
3 2
Ans. [3]
Sol. Parabola y 2 16x & given point P(16, 16)
Equation of tangent T : x – 2y 16 0
Equation of normal N : 2x y – 48 0
Axis of parabola is y 0
B
C
A
4
m PC , m PB –2
3
tan
Q.23 Let S t R :f x | x– | . e|x| –1 sin | x |is not differentiable at t . Then the set S is equal to:
(1) 0, (2) (an empty set) (3) {0} (4) {}
Ans. [2]
Sol. As per rule of multiplicity of roots, we can see the function has more than one root at x = 0 and
. Therefore, the function is derivable at all the points.
Q.24 The Boolean expression
p q P q is equivalent to :
= p q p q
= p q q
= p
Q.25 A straight line through a fixed point (2, 3) intersects the coordinate axes at distinct points P and
Q. If O is the origin and the rectangle OPRQ is completed, then the locus of R is :
(1) 3x 2y 6xy (2) 3x 2y 6 (3) 2x 3y xy (4) 3x 2y xy
Ans. [4]
Sol. y 3 m x 2
3
So, P 2 ,0 & Q 0,3 2m
m
Let R (h, k)
3 1 2h
h 2 … (i)
m m 3
3k
k 3 2m m …(ii)
2
Eq. (i) + (ii)
2 h 3 k
1
3 2
6 2 x 3 y
3x 2y xy
Q.26 Let A be the sum of the first 20 terms and B be the sum of the first 40 terms of the series
12 2.2 2 32 2.4 2 52 2.6 2 ....... if B – 2A = 100thenis equal to:
(1) 496 (2) 232 (3) 248 (4) 464
Ans. [3]
Sol. A 12 2 2 ......... 202 2 2 12 2 2 ...... 102 4410
cot x.dx
I.F. e
– 2
y sin x 2x 2 c 0 2 cc
4 2
2
2 –8
y sin x 2x – y
2 6 9
Q.28 The length of the projection of the line segments joining the point (5, –1, 4) and (4,–1, 3)on the
plane, x + y + z = 7 is :
2 2 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3 3
Ans. [1]
Sol. P (5, – 1, 4), Q (4, – 1, 3)
2 2 2
PQ 5 4 1 1 4 3 2
& D.R. of PQ = 1, 0, 1
If angle between Plane and line PQ is .
1 0 1 2
sin
2 3 3
2 1
cos 1
3 3
P 'Q ' PQ cos
2
3
Q.29 Let S x R : x 0 and 2 | x – 3 | x
x – 6 6 0 Then S :
Sol. 2| x –3| x
x –6 6 0; x 0
Case – I
Let x 3
2 x 6 x 6 x 6 0
x4 x 0
x x 4 0
x 0 or x 4
× x 16
Case – II
Let x 3
2 x 6 x 6 x 6 0
x 8 x 12 0
x 2
x 6 0
x 2 x 6
x4 ×
Contain exactly two elements.
12
Q.30 Let a1 ,a 2 , a 3 ......, a 49 be in A.P. such that a
k 0
4k 1 416 and a 9 a 43 66 if
a 2 a 2 a 2 82 92 242 12 22 242 12 2 2 7 2
1 2 17
4760 = 34 × 140
PART- B (PHYSICS)
Q.31 Three concentric metal shells A, B and C of respective radii a, b and c(a < b < c) have surface
charge densities +, – and + respectively. The potential of shell B is:
b2 – c 2 a 2 – b2 a 2 – b2 b2 – c 2
(1) c a (2) a c (3) b c (4) b a
o o o o
Ans. [3]
KQ a KQ b KQc
Sol.
b b c
k4a 2 k4b 2 k4c 2
b b c
a 2 b2
k.4 c
b
Q.32 Seven identical circular planar disks, each of mass M and radius R are welded symmetrically
as shown. The moments of inertia of the arrangement about the axis normal to the plane and
passing through the point P is:
181 19 55 73
(1) MR 2 (2) MR 2 (3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
2 2 2 2
Ans. [1]
MR 2 MR 2
Sol. I0 6 M(2R) 2
2 2
I P Icm 7M(3R)2
R
Q.33 From a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass 9M, a small disc of radius is removed as
3
shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to
the plane of the disc and passing through centre of disc is.
37 40
(1) MR 2 (2) 4MR 2 (3) MR 2 (4) 10MR 2
9 9
Ans. [2]
1 1 MR 2 4R 2
Sol. I Re 9MR 2 M
2 2 9 9
9MR 2 9 MR 2
=
2 18
9 1
= MR 2 MR 2
2 2
= 4MR2
Q.34 The reading of the ammeter for a silicon diode in the given circuit is:
v1 v2 2v 0
Q.39 A particle is moving with a uniform speed in a circular orbit of radius R in a central force
inversely proportional to the nth power of R. If the period of rotation of the particle is T, then :
(1) T Rn/2 (2) T R3/2 for any n
n
1
(3) T R 2 (4) T R(n+1)/2
Ans. [4]
C mv 2
Sol. F
rn r
v2 r1 n
1 n
v r 2
1 n 2 1 n
2 r r r1 1
2
T 1 n
r r 2
v v
r 2
Q.40 Two batteries with e.m.f 12V and 13V are connected in parallel across a load resistor of 10.
The internal resistances of the two batteries are 1 and 2 respectively. The voltage across the
load lies between :
(1) 11.7V and 11.8V (2) 11.6V and 11.7V
(3) 11.5V and 11.6V (4) 11.4V and 11.5V
Ans. [3]
I 10
Sol. 1
12V
13V 2
1 2
r1 r2 37
eq V
1 1 3
r1 r2
2
req =
3
37
I= A
32
10 ~ 11.55V
V10 =
37 / 32
Q.41 In an a.c. circuit, the instantaneous e.m.f. and current are given by:
e = 100 sin 30t
i = 20 sin 30t
4
In one cycle of a.c., the average power consumed by the circuit and the wattless current are,
respectively :
1000 50
(1) 50, 0 (2) 50, 10 (3) , 10 (4) ,0
2 2
Ans. [3]
Sol. Pavg = Vrms Irms cos
100 20
= cos 45º
2 2
1000
=
2
Wattless Current = Irms sin
20 1
2 2
Q.42 An EM wave from air enters a medium. The electric fields are :
z
E1 E 01xˆ cos 2v t in air and E 2 E 02 xˆ cos k 2z ct in medium, where the wave
c
number k and frequency refer to their values in air. The medium is non-magnetic. If r1 and
r2 refer to relative permittivities of air and medium respectively, which of the following option
is correct?
r1 1 r1 r1 r1 1
(1) (2) 4 (3) 2 (4)
r2 2 r2 r2 r2 4
Ans. [4]
Sol. Speed of light in medium is c/2
1
cm
Q.43 A telephonic communication service is working at carrier frequency of 10 GHz. Only 10% of it
is utilized for transmission. How many telephonic channels can be transmitted simultaneously
if each channel requires a bandwidth of 5 kHz?
(1) 2×10 6 (2) 2×103 (3) 2×104 (4) 2×105
Ans. [4]
Sol. Carrier frequency = 10 GHz.
10
10% of 10 GHz = 10 109 Hz 109 Hz
100
109 Hz 10 105
No. of telephonic channels = 2 105
5 103 5
Q.44 A granite rod of 60 cm length is clamped at its middle point and is set into longitudinal
vibrations. The density of granite is 2.7×10 3 kg/m3 and its Young’s modulus is 9.27×1010 Pa.
What will be the fundamental frequency of the longitudinal vibrations?
(1) 7.5 kHZ (2) 5 kHz (3) 2.5 kHz (4) 10 kHz
Ans. [2]
Sol. L
2
V f
2L(f )
Q.45 It is found that if a neutron suffers an elastic collinear collision with deuterium at rest,
fractional loss of its energy is pd; while for its similar collision with carbon nucleus at rest,
fractional loss of energy is pc. The values of pd and p c are respectively :
(1) (0, 1) (2) (.89, .28) (3) (.28, .89) (4) (0, 0)
Ans. [2]
u
n D n v1 D v2
m 2m m 2m
Sol. e=1
mu = mv1 + 2mv2 ……. (i)
v v
i 2 1 ……. (ii)
u
v2 – v1 = u
2v1 + v1 = u
– 3v1 = u
u
v1
3
2
1 2 1 u 8 mu 2 8
Pd = mu m = = K = 0.89K
2 2 3 9 2 9
u n
n C v1 C v2
m 12m m 12m
e=1
mu = m (–v1) + 12mv2 …………. (i)
v v2
1 1
u
u = 12v2 – v1
u = v1 + v2
– 11u = – 13v1
11u
v1
13
2
1 1 11u 48
Pc = mu 2 m = K = 0.28K
2 2 13 169
Q.46 The density of a material in the shape of a cube is determined by measuring three sides of the
cube and its mass. If the relative errors in measuring the mass and length are respectively
1.5% and 1%, the maximum error in determining the density is :
(1) 6% (2) 2.5% (3) 3.5% (4) 4.5%
Ans. [4]
m
Sol.
a3
m 3 a
m a
1.5 + 3 × 1 = 4.5
Q.47 Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas occupies a volume V at 27°C. The gas expands
adiabatically to a volume 2V. Calculate (a) the final temperature of the gas and (b) change in its
internal energy.
(1) (a) 195K (b) 2.7 kJ
(2) (a) 189K (b) 2.7 kJ
(3) (a) 195K (b) – 2.7 kJ
(4) (a) 189K (b) – 2.7 kJ
Ans. [4]
1 1
Sol. T1V1 T2 V2
1 5 2
1 3
T2 V1 1 3 1
T1 V2 2 2
2 1
1 3 1 3
T2 300 = 300
2 4
Q.48 A solid sphere of radius r made of a soft material of bulk modulus K is surrounded by a liquid
in a cylindrical container. A massless piston of area a floats on the surface of the liquid,
covering entire cross section of cylindrical container. When a mass m is placed on the surface
dr
of the piston to compress the liquid, the fractional decrement in the radius of the sphere, ,
r
is :
mg Ka Ka mg
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ka mg 3mg 3Ka
Ans. [4]
P
Sol. K
V
V
V 3r P
V r K
r P mg
r 3K 3KA
Q.49 A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 90 pF is connected to a battery of emf 20V. If a
5
dielectric material of dielectric constant K is inserted between the plates, the magnitude of
3
the induced charge will be:
(1) 0.9 n C (2) 1.2 n C (3) 0.3 n C (4) 2.4 n C
Ans. [2]
1
Sol. Qb Q 1
k
1
Q b CV 1
k
Q.50 The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying a current I, is m and the magnetic field at the
centre of the loop is B1. When the dipole moment is doubled by keeping the current constant,
B1
the magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B2. The ratio is:
B2
1
(1) (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 2
2
Ans. [4]
0I
Sol. B1
2R1
m I Area
m 2 times
A2 = 2A1
R 22 2 R12
So, R2 = 2R1
0I B1
B2
2 2R 1 2
B1
= 2
B2
Q.51 An electron from various excited states of hydrogen atom emit radiation to come to the ground
state. Let n, g be the de Brogile wavelength of the electron in the nth state and the ground
state respectively. Let n be the wavelength of the emitted photon in the transition from the nth
state to the ground state. For large n, (A, B are cosntants)
2 B 2 2
(1) n (2) n A 2
(3) n A B n (4) n A B n
n
Ans. [2]
nC
Sol. An
1
E1 1 2
n
nC 1
An 1 2
E1 n
nC nC
E1 E1n 2
B
An A
2n
Q.52 The mass of a hydrogen molecule is 3.32 × 1027 kg. If 1023 hydrogen molecule strike, per
second, a fixed wall of area 2 cm2 at angle of 45º to the normal, and rebound elastically with a
speed of 103 m/s, then the pressure on the wall is nearly:
(1) 4.70×102 N/m2 (2) 2.35×10 3 N/m2 (3) 4.70×10 3 N/m3 (4) 2.35×10 2 N/m
Ans. [2]
Sol. 45°
1
10 23 3.32 1027 103
F dP / dt 2 = 2.35×10 3 N/m2
P =
A A 2 10 4
Q.53 All the graphs below are intended to represent the same motion. One of them does it
incorrectly. Pick it up.
Ans. [3]
Sol. The motion and equivalent to ball projected vertical upwards from (neglecting air resistance)
Distance graph
Displacement graph
Q.54 An electron, a proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in
circular orbits of radii re, rp, r respectively in a uniform magnetic field B. The relation between
re, rp, r is:
(1) re < r < rp (2) re > rp = r (3) re < rp = r (4) re < rp < r
Ans. [3]
m
Sol. R
q
Q.55 On interchanging the resistances, the balance point of a meter bridge shifts to the left by 10cm.
The resistance of their series combination is 1k. how much was the resistance on the left slot
before interchanging the resistances?
(1) 910 (2) 990 (3) 505 (4) 550
Ans. [4]
Sol.
R S S R
l 100 l l
10 cm.
R l It means
……….. (1)
S 100 l l – (100 – l) = 10
S 100 l l – 100 + l = 10
……..(2)
R l
2l = 110
l = 55 cm
R 55
So by equation (1)
S 45
R + S = 1000
45R
R 1000
55
R 550
Q.56 In potentiometer experiment, it is found that no current passes through the galvanometer when
the terminals of the cell are connected across 52 cm of the potentiometer wire. If the cell is
shunted by a resistance of 5, a balance is found when the cell is connected across 40 cm of
the wire. Find the internal resistance of the cell.
(1) 2.5 (2) 1 (3) 1.5 (4) 2
Ans. [3]
l l
Sol. r 1 2 R
l2
Q.57 If the series limit frequency of the Lyman series is L , then the series limit frequency of the
Pfund series is:
(1) L / 25 (2) 25 L (3) 16 L (4) L /16
Ans. [1]
1 1
Sol. L 2 2
1
1 1
P 2 2
5
P L
25
Q.58 The angular width of the central maximum in a single slit diffraction pattern is 60º. The width
of the slit is 1 m. The slit is illuminated by monochromatic place waves. If another slit of
same width is made near it, Young’s fringes can be observed on a screen placed at a distance
50 cm from the slits. If the observed fringe width is 1 cm, what is slit separation distance?
(i.e. distance between the centres of each slit.)
(1) 100 m (2) 25 m (3) 50 m (4) 75 m
Ans. [2]
2
Sol.
a
a
2
D aD
d 2d
aD
d
2
Q.59 A particle is moving in a circular path of radius a under the action of an attractive
k
potential U . Its total energy is:
2r 2
3 k k k
(1) (2) (3) (4) Zero
2 a2 4a 2 2a 2
Ans. [4]
k dU
Sol. U F
2r 2 dr
k mv 2 k
F 3
3
r r r
1 k
mv 2 E = U + K
2 2r 2
k k
= E = 0
2r 2 r2
Q.60 A silver atom in a solid oscillates in simple harmonic motion in some direction with a
frequency of 1012/sec. What is the force constant of the bonds connecting one atom with the
other? (Mole wt. of silver = 108 and Avagadro number = 6.02 × 1023 gm mole1 )
(1) 5.5 N/m (2) 6.4 N/m (3) 7.1 N/m (4) 2.2 N/m
Ans. [3]
Sol. f = 1012/sec
= 2f
k
m
108
k = m2 [mass of 1 atom = 23
10 3 kg ]
6.02 10
108 10 3 2
K 4 10 24
6 1023
= 72×1026×10 25
= 7.2 N/m
PART- C (CHEMISTRY)
Q.61 For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following compounds, which one will show the highest
freezing point?
(1) [Co(H2O)2Cl3].3H2O (2) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3
(3) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O (4) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O
Ans. [1]
Sol. i = 1, minimum depression in freezing point
So, final freezing point will be maximum.
Q.62 Hydrogen peroxide oxidizes [Fe(CN)6]4 to [Fe(CN)6]3 in acidic medium but reduces
[Fe(CN)6]3 to [Fe(CN)6]4 in alkaline medium.The other products formed are, respectively:
(1) H2O and (H2O + OH) (2) (H2O+O2) and H2O
(3) (H2O + O2) and (H2O + OH) (4) H2O and (H2O + O2)
Ans. [4]
Sol. 2K4 [Fe (CN)6] + H2O2 + H 2SO 4 K3 [Fe (CN)6] + K2SO4 + 2H2O
(Acidic Medium)
Ans. [3]
Sol. Kjeldal method is not applicable to compound containing nitrogen in nitro & Azo group and
nitrogen present in ring as nitrogen of these compound does not convert to ammonium
sulphate. So aniline is suitable.
Q.64 Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives:
(1) 6-iodohexanal (2) n-Hexane (3) 1-Hexene (4) Hexanoic acid
Ans. [2]
HI
Sol. Glucose n Hexane
Re duction
Suggest that Glu cos e contain 6 carbon[Straight Chain ]
Q.65 An alkali is titrated against an acid with methyl orange as indicator, which of the following is a
correct combination?
Base Acid End point
(1) Strong Strong Pink to colourless
(2) Weak Strong Colourless to pink
(3) Strong Strong Pinkish red to yellow
(4) Weak Strong Yellow to pinkish red
Ans. [4]
Sol. As pH range of methyl orange is 3 to 5. Below 3 it it pinkish red and above 5 it is yellow.
Colour changes when a weak base is titrated against a strong acid, methyl orange will change
its colour from yellow to pinkish red.
Q.66 The predominant form of histamine present in human blood is (pKa, Histidine = 6.0)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. [1]
(1) (d) < (b) < (a) < (c) (2) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d)
(3) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d) (4) (b) < (a) < (d) < (c)
Ans. [4]
Sol. Order of basic strength (b) < (a) < (d) < (c)
Order of basic strength Amidine > Amine > Imine
Q.68 Which of the following lines correctly show the temperature dependence of equilibrium
constant, K, for an exothermic reaction ?
(1) A and D (2) A and B (3) B and C (4) C and D
Ans. [2]
– H o – So
Sol. lnk
RT R
For exothermic reaction H= –ve
So slop is positive & correct answer is A & B
Q.69 How long (approximate) should water be electrolysed by passing through 100 amperes current
so that the oxygen released can completely burn 27.66 g of diborane ? (Atomic weight of B =
10.8 u)
(1) 1.6 hours (2) 6.4 hours (3) 0.8 hours (4) 3.2 hours
Ans. [4]
Sol. [ B 2 H 6 3O 2 B2O3 3H 2O ]
27.669
moles of B2H6 = =1mole
27.66
1mole B2H6 need 3mole O2 = 96gm O2
E
W i t
96500
8
96 100 t
96500
t = 193min = 3.2 Hours
Q.70 Consider the following reaction and statements:
[Co(NH 3 ) 4 Br2 ] Br [Co(NH 3 )3 Br3 ] NH 3
(I) Two isomers are produced if the reactant complex ion is a cis-isomer
(II) Two isomers are produced if the reactant complex ion is a trans-isomer
(III) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant complex ion is a trans-isomer
(IV) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant complex ion is a cis-isomer
The correct statements are:
(1) (II) and (IV) (2) (I) and (II) (3) (I) and (III) (4) (III) and (IV)
Ans. [3]
NH3 Br Br
H3N Br – H 3N Br H3N NH3
Sol. Co + Br Co + Co
H 3N Br – NH 3 H 3N Br H 3N Br
NH3 NH3 Br
cis-form Fac-isomer Mer-isomer
Br Br
H3N NH3 + Br– H3N Br
Co – NH3 Co
H 3N NH3 H 3N NH3
Br Br
trans-form Mer-isomer
Q.71 Phenol reacts with methyl chloroformate in the presence of NaOH to form product A. A reacts
with Br2 to form product B. A and B are respectively:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. [4]
Sol. First Acylation take place followed by Bromination.
O
OH O O — C —CH 3
Cl — C — O — CH 3
(A)
NaOH
Br2
O
O — C —CH 3
(B)
Br
Ba 2 10 –9 in final solution
10 –9 500
So initially concentration of Ba+2 ion is
450
= 1.1x10–9M
Q.73 At 518ºC, the rate of decomposition of a sample of gaseous acetaldehyde, initially at a pressure
of 363 Torr, was 1.00 Torr s–1 when 5% had reacted and 0.5 Torr s–1 when 33% had reacted.
The order of the reaction is:
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1
Ans. [2]
Sol. Acetaldehyde Product
t=0 P0 = 363 torr
t = t1 ; 0.95 P0; R t1 1.00 torr.sec 1
x2
Q.74 The combustion of benzene (l) gives CO2(g) and H2O(l). Given that heat of combustion of
benzene at constant volume is –3263.9 kJ mol–1 at 25ºC; heat of combustion (in kJ mol–1) of
benzene at constant pressure will be: (R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
(1) –3267.6 (2) 4152.6 (3) –452.46 (4) 3260
Ans. [1]
15
Sol. C6 H 6(l) O 2(g ) 6CO 2(g ) 3H 2 O(l)
2
15
n g 6
2
3
2
H U n g RT
3 (8.314)(298)
3263.9
2 1000
= –3267.6 kJ mol–1
Q.75 The ratio of mass percent of C and H of an organic compound (CXHYOZ) is 6 : 1. If one
molecule of the above compound (CXHYOZ) contains half as much oxygen as required to burn
one molecule of compound CXHY completely to CO2 and H2O. The empirical formula of
compound CXHYOZ is:
(1) C2H4O3 (2) C3H6O3 (3) C2H4O (4) C3H4O2
Ans. [1]
Sol. CXHYOZ CXHY
12X 6
Mass percent
Y 1
2X Y ……….(1)
Y Y
CX H Y x O2 XCO 2 H 2 O
4 2
Y
Z X ………(2)
4
2X
ZX
4
2Z = 3X
X:Y:Z
3
1: 2:
2
2 : 4:3
C2H4O 3
Q.76 The trans-alkenes are formed by the reduction of alkynes with:
(1) Sn – HCl (2) H2–Pd/C, BaSO4 (3) NaBH4 (4) Na/liq.NH3
Ans. [4]
Sol. Birch reduction
Q.77 Which of the following are Lewis acids?
(1) BCl3 and AlCl3 (2) PH3 and BCl3 (3) AlCl3 and SiCl4 (4) PH3 and SiCl4
Ans. [1]
Sol. BCl3 and AlCl3 are lewis acid, because B and Al can accept lone pair electrons in their vacant
orbitals.
Q.78 When metal 'M' is treated with NaOH, a white gelationous precipitate 'X' is obtained, which is
soluble in excess of NaOH. Compound 'X' when heated strongly gives an oxide which is used
in chromatography as an adsorbent. The metal 'M' is:
(1) Fe (2) Zn (3) Ca (4) Al
Ans. [4]
Al O [Used in Chromatography]
Al (OH)3 + NaOH Na [Al(OH)4] 2 3
(White ppt.)
(X)
Q.79 According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following will not be a viable molecule ?
(1) H 22 (2) He22 (3) He2 (4) H 2
Ans. [1]
Sol. H 22 will not be a viable molecule because it has zero bond order according to M.O.T.
–
H– H
*
1s 1s
Nb Na 2 2
Bond Order = = =0
2 2
Q.80 The major product formed in the following reaction is:
Sol.
Q.81 Phenol on treatment with CO2 in the presence of NaOH followed by acidification produces
compound X as the major product . X on treatment with (CH3CO)2O in the presence of
catalytic amount of H2SO4 produces:
Q.86 An aqueous solution contains 0.10 M H2S and 0.20 M HCl. If the quilbrium constants for the
formation of HS - from H2S is 1.0 X 10 -7
and that of S –2 from HS– ions is 1.2 × 10 –13 then the
concentration of S2- ions in aqueous solution is :
(1) 5X10 -19 (2) 5 X10 -8 (3) 3 X10-20 (4) 6X10-21
Ans. [3]
Sol. H 2S H HS K1 110 7
[S2 ][H ]2
K eq K1 K 2
[H 2S]
[S2 ][0.04]
1.2 1020
0.1
[S2 ] 3 1020 M
Q.87 The oxidation states of Cr in [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3,[Cr(C6H6)2], and K2[Cr(CN)2(O)2(O)2(NH3)]
respectively are :
(1) +3, 0, and +4 (2) +3, +4, and +6 (3) +3 , +2, and +4 (4)+3, 0, and +6
Ans. [4]
Sol. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 [Cr(C6H6)2]
x + (0×6) = –3 x + (0×2) = 0
x = +3 x=0
K2 [Cr(CN)2(O)2 (O2) NH3]
x + (–1 × 2) + (– 2×2) + (–2 ×1) + (1×0) = –2
x = +6
Q.88 The recommended concentration of fluoride in drinking water is up to 1ppm as fluoride ion is
required to make teeth enamel harder by converting [3Ca3(PO4)2.Ca(OH)2] to:
(1) [3Ca(OH) 2 .CaF2 ] (2) [CaF2 ]
Ans. [3]
Sol. CH3COOK is salt of strong base and weak acid.
Q.90 Total number of lone pair of electrons in I3– ion is:
(1) 12 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 9
Ans. [4]
–
Sol. No. of lone pair of electrons in I3 are 9.
I
I
I