Bio 157

BIOLOGY WORKSHEET
GRADE-XII
2024-25
CHAPTER-1 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Total number of meiotic divisions required for forming 100 zygotes/ 100 grains of wheat
(a) 125 (b) 100 (c) 50 (d) 75
2. Pollination occurs in
(a) Angiosperms and Pteridophytes

(b) Angiosperms and Gymnosperms
(c) Bryophytes and Angiosperms
(d) Fungi and Angiosperms
3. The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilisation is

(a) 8 – celled
(b) 7 – celled
(c) 6 – celled
(d) 5 – celled
4. Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are present in

(a) Helianthus
(b) Commelina
(c) Rosa
(d) Gossypium
5. Feathery stigma occurs in

(a) pea
(b) wheat
(c) Datura
(d) Caesalpinia
6. In maize, 20 chromosomes are present in the cell of shoot apex. The number of
chromosomes in pollen grain, nucellus, polar nucleus and megaspore will be:
(a) 10, 20, 10, 20

(b) 20, 10, 10, 20
(c) 10, 20, 10, 10
(d) 20, 10, 20, 20
7. Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if

(a) pollen matures before maturity of ovule
(b) ovules mature before maturity of pollen
(c) both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously
(d) both anther and stigma are of equal lengths.
8. Anemophily type of pollination is found in

(a) Salvia (b) Bottle brush (c) Vallisneria (d) Coconut
9. In angiosperms, male gametes are formed by the division of

(a) microspore mother cell
(b) microspore
(c) generative cell
(d) vegetative cell
10. Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of parts in an ovule are
(a) egg, nucellus, embryo sac, integument
(b) egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument
(c) embryo sac, nucellus, integument, egg
(d) egg, integument, embryo sac, nucellus
11. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in
(a) Commelina
(b) Zostera
(c) Salvia
(d) Fig
12. Persistent nucellus is called as _______ and is found in _______.
(a) perisperm, black pepper
(b) perisperm, groundnut
(c) endosperm, black pepper
(d) endosperm groundnut
13. Identify the wrong statement regarding post-fertilisation development.
(a) The ovary wall develops into pericarp.
(b) The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen.
(c) The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus) develops into endosperm.
(d) The ovule develops into seed.
14. The stamens represent
(a) microsporangia
(b) male gametophyte
(c) male gametes
(d) microsporophylls
15. The cells of endosperm have 24 chromosomes. What will be the number of
chromosomes in the gametes ?
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 23
(d) 32
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

16. Assertion: If the female parent produces unisexual flowers, there is no need for
emasculation.
Reason: Emasculated flowers are bagged to prevent contamination by undesired pollen.
17. Assertion: Apple is an example of false fruit.
Reason: Thalamus contributes to the formation of pseudocarpic fruits.
18. Assertion: A typical anther of flower is bilobed.
Reason: Each lobe of the anther is dithecous.
19. Assertion: In Autogamy, pollination is achieved within the same flower.
Reason: Autogamy induces cross pollination in flowering plants.
20. Assertion: Papaver has multicarpellary and syncarpous type of pistil.
Reason: Michelia possess multicarpellary and apocarpous type of pistil.
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

21. Why is the process of fertilization in a flowering plant referred to as double fertilization?
22. The flower of Brinjal is referred to as chasmogamous while that of Bean is
cleistogamous. How are they different from each other.
23. Name the cell from which the endosperm of Coconut develops. Give the characteristic
features of endosperm of coconut.
24. Draw a vertical section of a Maize grain and label the following:
(i) pericarp (ii) scutellum (iii) coleoptile (iv) radicle
25. Differentiate between perisperm and endosperm giving one example of each.
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

26. How does the floral pattern of Mediterranean orchid, Ophrys, guarantee cross
pollination?
27. Draw a longitudinal section of a post pollinated pistil showing the entry of pollen tube
into mature embryo sac. Label filiform apparatus, chalazal end, hilum, antipodals, male
gametes and secondary nucleus.
28. Where does triple fusion take place in a flowering plant. Why is it so called? Mention its
significance.
29. (a) Mention any four strategies adopted by flowering plants to prevent self-pollination.
(b)How pollination takes place in Vallesneria?
30. Draw a diagram of a male gametophyte of an angiosperm. Label any four parts. Why is
sporopollenin considered the most resistant organic material?
31. Differentiate between geitonogamy and xenogamy in plants. Which one between the
two will lead to inbreeding depression and why?
CASE-BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

32. The pollen grains or microspores are the male reproductive bodies of a flower and are
contained in the pollen sac or microsporangia. Each pollen grain consists of a single
microscopic cell, possessing two coats : the exine and the intine. The exine of a pollen grain
is made of chemically stable material.
(a) One of the most resistant biological material is present in the exine of pollen grain. Name
that.
(b) Mention the role of large and small cell present in a mature pollen grain.
(c) What is germ pore. State the function of germ pore.

OR
(c) What is the key advantage to the plant for having strong pollen grain walls?
33. Hybrid varieties of several of our food crops are being extensively cultivated. Cultivation
of hybrids has increased the crop production tremendously. But, the problem of hybrids is
that the hybrid seeds have to be produced every year.
(a) What is polyembryony?
(b) Give two examples of very old yet viable seeds.
(c) Name and explain the mechanism by which seeds from hybrid plants are developed that
are able to retain the desired hybrid characters in the progeny.
OR
(c) Seeds offer several advantages to angiosperms. Mention any four.
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

34. How does pollen mother cell develop into a mature pollen grain? Illustrate the stages
with labelled diagrams.
35. (a) Why is the process of fertilization in angiosperms termed as double fertilization.
Explain.
(b) Draw a diagram of an angiospermic embryo sac where fertilization is just completed.
Label the following (i) Micropylar end of embryo sac (ii) Part that develops into an embryo
(iii) Part that develops into an endosperm (iv) The degenerating cells at chalazal end.
(c) Draw a labelled diagram of globular embryonic stage of an angiosperm.
36. Give reasons why

(i) Most zygotes in angiosperms divide only after certain amount of endosperm is formed.
(ii) Groundnut seeds are exalbuminous and Castor seeds are albuminous.
(iii) Micropyle remains as a small pore in the seed coat of a seed.
(iv) Integuments of an ovule harden and the water content is highly reduced as the seed
matures.
(v) Apple and Cashew are not called true fruits.
37. (a) Draw a diagram of an enlarged view of T.S. of one microsporangium of an

angiosperm and label the following parts :
(i) Tapetum (ii) Middle layer (iii) Endothecium (iv) Microspore mother cells
(b) Mention the characteristic features and functions of tapetum.
(c) Explain the following giving reasons:
(i) Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils.
(ii) Pollen tablets are in use by people these days.
38. (a) Explain the characteristic features of wind pollinated flowers. How are insect
pollinated followers different from them?
(b) Explain the mutually rewarding relationship between Yucca plant and species of moth.
39. How does the megaspore mother cell develop into 7-celled, 8 –nucleate embryo sac in
an angiosperm? Draw labelled diagram of a mature embryo sac.
CHAPTER-2 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

1. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs

(a) after entry of sperm but before completion of fertilization
(b) after completion of fertilization
(c) before entry of sperm
(d) without any relation of sperm entry
2. How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?

(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 1
3. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely?
(a) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
(b) Estrogen secretion further decreases
(c) Primary follicle starts developing
(d) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
4. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during
menstrual cycle?
(a) Development of : Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone
(b) Menstruation: breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilized.
(c) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone.
(d) Proliferative phase: Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian
follicle
5. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from
(a) Testicular lobules to rete testis
(b) Rete testis to vas deferens
(c) Vas deferens to epididymis
(d) Epididymis to urethra
6. Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?

(a) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg,
resulting in fertilisation
(b) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilisation
(c) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum
(d) Acrosome serves no particular function
7. What happens during fertilization in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum?
(a) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida
(b) Secretion of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona
pellucida
(c) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails
(d) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperm except one
8. In normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The
result expected was
(a) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening
(b) High levels of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis
(c) High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of
the embryo
(d) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening
9. In human females, meiosis-II is not completed until?
(a) birth
(b) puberty
(c) fertilization
(d) uterine implantation
10. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by:
(a) fully developed foetus and placenta
(b) differentiation of mammary glands
(c) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
(d) release of oxytocin from pituitary
11. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs

(a) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube
(b) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
(c) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum
(d) In the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division
12. In human female the blastocyst
(a) gets implanted into uterus 3 days after ovulation
(b) gets nutrition from uterine endometrial secretion only after implantation
(c) gets implanted in endometrium by the trophoblast cells.
(d) forms placenta before implantation
13. Chorionic villi appear on:
(a) Endometrium (b) Trophoblast (c) Myometrium (d) Perimetrium
14. Colostrum is rich in:
(a) Antigens (b) Antibodies (c) Interferons (d) All
15. Number of mammary lobes in each mammary gland is:
(a) 15-20 (b) 50-100 (c) 100-150 (d) 200
16. Assertion: Outer glandular layer of uterine cavity is endometrium.
Reason: The endometrium undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle.
17. Assertion: Sperm formation continues in old men.
Reason: Ovum formation ceases in women around fifty years.
18. Assertion: Eight to sixteen cell stage of embryo is called morula.
Reason: It is internally hollow and has trophoblast and inner cell mass.
19. Assertion: Seminiferous tubules are lined by male germ cells and sertoli cells.
Reason: Seminiferous tubule is the structural and functional unit of testis.
20. Assertion: Zona pellucida is a cellular layer in ovum of human female.
Reason: Corona radiata is non cellular layer of ovum.

21. What is pregnancy hormone? Why is it so called? Name two sources of the hormone in a
human female.
22. Draw a labelled diagram of ovum and label its four parts.
23. Draw a labelled diagram of a sectional view of human ovary showing various stages of
follicles growing in it.
24. Placenta acts as an endocrine tissue. Justify.
25. Draw a labelled diagram of a sectional view of human seminiferous tubule.

26. Spermatogenesis in human males is a hormone regulated process. Justify.
27. (a) Draw a schematic diagram of human sperm and label the cellular components. Give
the functions of any three parts.
(b) Where are the sperm heads found embedded after spermatogenesis?
28. (a) Write the specific location and functions of the following cells in human males.
(i) Leydig cells (ii)Sertoli cells (iii) Primary spermatocyte
(b) Explain the role of two accessory glands in human male reproductive system.
29. How is oogenesis markedly different from spermatogenesis?
30. Differentiate between: (i)vas deferens and vas efferentia
(ii) Spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis (iii) primary and secondary oocyte

31. The reproductive cycle in the female primates (e.g. monkeys, apes and human beings) is
called menstrual cycle. The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menarche. In
human females, menstruation is repeated at an average interval of about 28/29 days, and
the cycle of events starting from one menstruation till the next one is called the menstrual
cycle.
(a) Which is the shortest phase of the menstrual cycle?
(b) Which hormone level reaches peak during the luteal phase of menstrual cycle?
(c) Name the source of gonadotropins in human females. Explain the changes brought
about in the ovary by these hormones during menstrual cycle.
OR
(c) Mention the fate of corpus luteum and its effects on the uterus in the absence of
fertilization of the ovum in the human female.
32. Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism. Oxytocin acts on the
uterine muscle and causes uterine contractions, which in turn stimulates further secretion
of oxytocin. The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion
continues resulting in stronger and stronger contractions. This leads to expulsion of the
baby out of the uterus through the birth canal.
(a) What happens to placenta after parturition?

(b) Why is it important to feed the new born babies on colostrum?
(c) Which layer of the uterus undergoes contractions? Name the muscles it is made up
of?
OR
(c) From where does signals for parturition originate from? What is this reflex called?

33. Give a schematic representation of oogenesis in humans. Mention the number of
chromosomes at each stage. Correlate the life phases of the individual with the stages of the
process
34. Explain the ovarian and uterine events that occur during a menstrual cycle in a human
female under the influence of pituitary and ovarian hormones respectively.
35. (a) Give a schematic representation of spermatogenesis in humans.
(b) At which stage of life does gametogenesis begin in human male and female respectively?
36. (a) Explain the events taking place at the time of fertilization of an ovum in a human
female.
(b) Trace the development of zygote up to its implantation in the uterus.
(c) Name and draw a labelled sectional view of the embryonic stage that gets implanted.
37. (a) Draw a labelled diagram of the human female reproductive system.
(b) Enumerate the events in the ovary of a human female during (i) Follicular phase (ii)
Luteal phase of menstrual cycle.
CHAPTER-3 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

1. Which of these can be used to cure infertility in couples where male partner has very
low sperm count ?
(a) IUD
(b) GIFT
(c) IUI
(d) None of these
2. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
(a) suppression of gonadotropins
(b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins
(c) suppression of gametic transport
(d) suppression of fertilisation
3. Amniocentesis is a technique used to
(a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
(b) pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo
(c) determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo
(d) all of these.
4. Which of the following correctly describes the measures that can be used to control
over-population ?
(a) Educating people about the advantages of a small family
(b) Raising the age of marriage
(c) Encouraging family planning programme
(d) All of these
5. On which of the following facts does the method of periodic abstinence is based ?
(a) Ovulation occurs on about the 14th day of menstruation.
(b) Ovum remains alive for about 1-2 days.
(c) Sperms survive for about 3 days.
(d) All of these
6. The sexually transmitted disease, that can affect both the male and the female
genitals and may damage the eyes of babies born of infected mothers is
(a) AIDS
(b) syphilis
(c) gonorrhoea
(d) hepatitis
7. The test –tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques
(a) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
(b) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(c) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
(d) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
8. Artificial insemination means:
(a) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
(b) transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
(c) artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
(d) introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
9. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as:
(a) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance
(b) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality
(c) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus
(d) Implantation of defective embryo in the Uterus
10. Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed
thereafter
(A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally
safe
(B) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant up to
two year
(C) Intrauterine devices like Cu-T are effective contraceptives
(D) Contraception pills may be taken up to one week after coitus to prevent conception
Which two of the above statements are correct?
(a) B, C (b) C, D (c) A, C (d) A, B

11. Assertion: Amniocentesis is often misused.
Reason: It is meant for determining the genetic disorders in foetus, but it is being used to
determine the sex of the foetus, leading to female foeticide.
12. Assertion: Contraceptives are methods to prevent unwanted pregnancies.
Reason: Unwanted pregnancies can be prevented by MTP.
13. Assertion: Infertility occurs only in females.
Reason: An infertile couple can have children with the help of ARTs.
14. Assertion: In ZIFT, the zygote is transferred into the fallopian tube of the female.
Reason: ZIFT is an in vivo fertilisation method.
15. Assertion: Reproductive and Child Healthcare Programme is for reproduction related
areas.
Reason: It deals with creating awareness about reproduction related aspects.

16. (a) Expand IUD (b) Why is hormone releasing IUD considered a good contraceptive to
space children?
17. Explain any two methods of Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) that has helped
childless couples to bear children.
18. How does Cu T act as an effective contraceptive for human females?
19. How are ZIFT and GIFT different from intrauterine transfers? Explain.
20. What is amniocentesis? Why has the government imposed a statutory ban inspite of its
importance in the medical field?

21. At the time of independence, the population of India was 350 million which exploded to
over 1 billion by May 2000. List any two reasons for this rise in population and any two steps
taken by the government to check this population explosion.
22. Women are often blamed for producing female children. Consequently, they are ill-
treated and ostracised. How will you address this issue scientifically if you were to conduct
an awareness programme to highlight the values involved?
23. Name any two copper releasing intra-uterine devices (IUDs). List two reasons that make
them effective contraceptives.
24. How do non-medicated and hormone releasing IUDs act as contraceptives? Explain.
25. Explain IVF. Differentiate between IUT and IUI.
26. What is STD? Give any six symptoms related to STDs.

27. Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms
meeting. Periodic abstinence is one such method in which the couples avoid or abstain from
coitus. Abstaining from coitus during a particular period, conception could be prevented.
Withdrawal or coitus interruptus is another method.
(a) Describe the time period when the couple abstain from coitus. Name that period.
(b) What is done by the male partner during coitus interruptus?
(c) Other than these two, name the third natural method of contraception. Mention the
process that does not take place during this.
OR
(c) How long the chances of conception is nil in the third method? Why?
28. Oral administration of small doses of either progestogens or progestogen–estrogen

combinations is another contraceptive method used by the females. They are used in the
form of tablets and hence are popularly called the pills. Generally, pills have to be taken
daily.
(a) For how long the oral pills have to be taken up by females?
(b) What do you mean by emergency contraceptives?
(c) Explain the mode of action of contraceptive pills.
OR
(c) Give two characteristic features of “Saheli” that makes it popular among females.

29. What is MTP? When it is advised?
30. Explain the surgical method of contraception with well labelled diagram.
31. Explain the following: (i) ICSI (ii) AI (iii) GIFT (iv) ET (v) ZIFT
CHAPTER-4 PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION

1. Multiple alleles control inheritance of
(a) phenylketonuria
(b) colour-blindness
(c) sickle cell anaemia
(d) blood groups
2. RR (red) Antirrhinum is crossed with rr (white) one. Offspring Rr are pink. This is
an example of
(a) dominant-recessive
(b) incomplete dominance
(c) hybrid
(d) supplementary genes
3. In a cross between AABB × aabb, the ratio of F2 genotypes AABB, AaBB, Aabb and aabb
would be
(a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 : 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (d) 7 : 5 : 3 : 1
4. A polygenic inheritance in human beings is
(a) skin colour
(b) phenylketonuria
(c) colour-blindness
(d) sickle cell anaemia
5. In a given plant, red colour (R) of fruit is dominant over white fruit (r); and tallness (T) is
dominant over dwarfness (t). If a plant with genotype RRTt is crossed with a plant of
genotype rrtt, what will be the percentage of tall plants with red fruits in the next
generation?
(a) 100% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 75%
6. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype
AABbCC?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Nine (d) Two
7. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by
(a) Test cross
(b) Dihybrid cross
(c) Pedigree analysis
(d) Back cross
8. Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination
frequency?
(a) The genes may be on different chromosomes
(b) The genes are tightly linked
(c) The genes show independent assortment
(d) If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one
crossovers in every meiosis
9. A human female with Turner’s syndrome
(a) Has 45 chromosomes with XO
(b) Has one additional X chromosome
(c) Exhibits male characters
(d) Is able to produce children with normal husband
10. A colour blind man marries a woman with normal sight who has no history of colour
blindness in her family. What is the probability of their grandson being colour-blind?
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5 (c) 1 (d) Nil
11. When a dominant ‘AA’ and a recessive ‘aa’ are crossed percentage of the progenies
showing the parental genotypes will be
a) 0% b)25% c)50% d) 100%
12. The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is
a) It is sex linked disease
b) It is a recessive disease
c) It is a dominant disease
d) A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected
13. In honeybees
a) The males have only one set of chromosomes
b) The males have single sex chromosomes
c) Males produce progeny by parthenogenesis
d) Both (a) and (c)
14. Thalassemia beta is located on
a) 11th chromosome
b) 16th chromosome
c)9th chromosome
d) 12th chromosome
15. Experimental proof for chromosomal theory of inheritance is given by
a) Sutton b) Sutton and Boveri c) T H Morgan d) Sturtevant

16. Assertion: Point mutations occur at nucleotide level.
Reason: Gene mutations are caused by chemical mutagens.
17. Assertion: A gamete contains a single allele for each trait.
Reason: During gametogenesis, the two alleles of each trait segregate, passing on each
gamete at random.
18. Assertion: In a person with AB Blood group, the erythrocytes carry A and B both antigens
on their surface.
Reason: The alleles IA and IB, are co-dominant and both are expressed.
19. Assertion: In honeybee, female is diploid and males are haploid.
Reason: Gametes are formed by mitosis in female and by meiosis in male.
20. Assertion: Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant trait in human being.
Reason: Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive trait.

21. Name the respective pattern of inheritance where F1phenotype
(a) Does not resemble either of the two parents and is in between the two
(b) Resembles only one of the two parents
22. Why is that the father never passes on the gene for haemophilia to his sons? Explain.
23. Explain the sex determination mechanism in humans. How is it different in birds?
24. Write the symptoms of haemophilia and sickle-cell anaemia in humans. Explain how the
inheritance patterns of the two diseases differ from each other
25. (a) State the law of independent assortment.
(b) Using Punnet square, demonstrate the law of independent assortment in a dihybrid
cross involving two heterozygous parents.

26. The male Fruit fly and female Fowl are heterogametic while the female Fruit fly and the
male Fowl are homogametic. Why are they called so?
27. A plant of Antirrhinum with red flowers was crossed with another plant of the same
species with white flowers. The plants of F1 generation bore pink flowers. Explain the
pattern of inheritance with the help of a cross.
28. A woman with blood group O married a man with AB group. Show the possible blood
groups of the progeny. List the alleles involved in this inheritance.
29. How does a test cross help in identifying the genotype of the organism? Explain.
30. During his studies on genes in Drosophila that were sex-linked T.H. Morgan found F2
population phenotypic ratios deviated from expected 9:3:3:1. Explain the conclusion he
arrived at.
31. How are dominance, codominance and incomplete dominance patterns of inheritance
different from one another?
32. A colour-blind child is born to a normal couple. Work out a cross to show how it is
possible. Mention the sex of this child.
33. Name the phenomenon that leads to situation like ‘XO’ abnormality in humans. How do
humans with ‘XO’ abnormality suffer? Explain.
34. Mendel published his work on inheritance of characters in 1865, but it remained
unrecognised till 1900. Give three reasons for the delay in accepting his work.
35. (a) Sickle cell anaemia in humans is a result of point mutation. Explain.
(b) Write the genotypes of both the parents who have produced a sickle celled anaemic
offspring.
36. Explain how does trisomy of 21st chromosome occur in humans. List any four
characteristic features in an individual suffering from it.

37. Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in the single gene.
These disorders are transmitted to the offspring on the same lines as we have studied in the
principle of inheritance. The pattern of inheritance of such Mendelian disorders can be
traced in a family by the pedigree analysis. Most common and prevalent Mendelian
disorders are Haemophilia, Cystic fibrosis, Sickle cell anaemia, Colour blindness,
Phenylketonuria, Thalassemia, etc.
(a) Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. What are the chances
that the child would have the disease if any one of the parent (either mother or
father) is a carrier of the faulty gene (HbS)
(b) If the father in a family has a disease while the mother is normal, the daughters only
are inherited by this disease and not the sons. Name this type of disease?
(c) What causes aneuploidy? How it is different from polyploidy?
OR
(c) Write the genotypes and phenotypes in a man which may be the result of aneuploidy in
sex chromosomes?
38. Pleiotropy is derived from a Greek word meaning more ways. A simple example of a
Pleiotropy is phenylketonuria, a disease. It is a genetic disorder caused by the low
metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine in the body cells.
(a) In phenylketonuria (PKU) disease of human being, which enzyme is deficient?

(b) What is the meaning of pleiotropy in genetics?
(c) Mention the symptoms of the disorder PKU.
OR
(c) This disease is autosomal or sex-linked? Justify.

39. (a) Explain the phenomenon of multiple allelism and codominance taking ABO blood
group as an example.
(b) What is the phenotype of (i) IAi and (ii)ii?
40. A true breeding Pea plant homozygous for axial violet flowers is crossed with another
Pea plant with terminal white flowers (aavv).
(a) What would be the phenotype and genotype of F1 and F2 generation?
(b) Give the phenotypic ratio of F2 generation.
(c) List the Mendal’s generalisations which can be derived from the above cross.
41. A homozygous tall Pea plant with green seeds is crossed with a dwarf pea plant with
yellow seeds. (i) What would be the phenotype and genotype of F1? (ii) Work out the
phenotypic ratio of F2 generation with the help of Punnet square.
42. Inheritance pattern of flower colour in Garden Pea and Snapdragon differs. Why is this
difference observed? Explain showing the crosses up to F2 generation.
43. (a) How does chromosomal disorder differ from a mendelian disorder?
(b) Name any two chromosomal aberration associated disorders.
(c) List the characteristics of the disorders mentioned above that help in their diagnosis.
44. ABO blood grouping in human population exhibits four possible phenotypes from six
different genotypes. Explain different mechanisms of inheritance involved in exhibiting the
possibility of four phenotypes and six genotypes.
45. What is the inheritance pattern observed in the size of starch grains and seed shape in
Pisum sativum. Work out the monohybrid cross showing the above traits. How does this
pattern of inheritance deviate from that of Mendelian law of dominance?
CHAPTER-5 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

1. Which of the following is correct according to Chargaff’s rules?
(a) A+T=G+C (b) A+G=T+C (c) A+C=T+G (d) All of the these
2. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that:
(a) One strand turns clockwise
(b) One strand turns anticlockwise
(c) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position
(d) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the
same position
3. If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the
sequence of bases on complementary strand ?
(a) ATGCATGCA
(b) TUCGTUCGT
(c) TACGTACGT
(d) UACGUACGU
4. Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,
(a) It is densely packed
(b) It stains dark
(c) It is transcriptionally active
(d) It is late replicating
5. If Meselson and Stahl’s experiment is continued for four generations in bacteria, the
ratio of N15/N15:N15/N14:N14/N14 containing DNA in the fourth generation would
be:
a) 1:1:0
b) 1:4:0
c) 0:1:3
d) 0:1:7
6. In transcription in Eukaryotes, heterogeneous nuclear RNA is transcribed by:
a) RNA Polymerase I
b) RNA Polymerase II
c) RNA Polymerase III
d) All of these
7. Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand, because:
a) DNA molecule being synthesised is very long
b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation only in one direction
(5’ 3’)
c) It is a more efficient process
d) DNA ligase has to have a role
8. With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes
a) exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA
b) exons appear but introns do not appear in the mature RNA
c) introns appear but exons do not appear in the mature RNA
d) both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA
9. If the sequence of Nitrogenous bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription
unit is: 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be:
a) 5’ – AUGAAUG – 3’
b) 5’ – UACUUAC – 3’
c) 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
d) 5’ – TACTTAC – 3’
10. The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at
a) 3′ (downstream) end and 5′ (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
b) 5′ (upstream) end and 3′ (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
c) 5′ (upstream) end
d) 3′ (downstream) end
11. What is not true for genetic code?

(a) It is degenerate
(b) It is unambiguous
(c) A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion
(d) It is nearly universal
12. Satellite DNA is important because it:
(a) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication
(b) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle
(c) Shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of
polymorphism in an individual, which is heritable from parents to children
(d) Does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population
13. Point mutation involves:
(a) Duplication
(b) Deletion
(c) Insertion
(d) Change in single base pair
14. When did human genome project start?
(a) 1989 (b) 1990 (c) 1988 (d) None
15. Find out the incorrect pair out of the following:
1. β- galactosidase – produces by z-gene
2. Permease – produces by y-gene
3. Transacetylase – produces by a-gene
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 2&3 (c) All the statements (d) None of the statements

16. Assertion: In bacteria, mRNA does not require any type of processing.
Reason: Processing is a feature of eukaryotic RNA.
17. Assertion: Lac operon has three structural genes: z, y and a.
Reason: y genes codes for permease, which increases permeability of the cell for galactose.
18. Assertion: S-strain of streptococcus is non-virulent in nature.
Reason: R-strain of streptococcus is virulent in nature.
19. Assertion: Replication of DNA takes place in S-phase of the cell cycle.
Reason: The replication of DNA and the cell division cycle should be highly coordinated.
20. Assertion: P and A site of a ribosome are different.
Reason: P site is present on smaller subunit and A site is present on larger subunit.

21. Mention two functions of codon AUG.
22. Draw a schematic representation of a nucleotide. Label the following: (i) The
components of a nucleotide (ii) 5’ end (iii) N-glycosidic linkage (iv) phosphodiester linkage
23. Explain the process of charging of tRNA. Why is it essential in translation?
24. Write the full form of VNTR. How is VNTR different from probe?
25. Draw a schematic diagram of lac operon in its ‘switched off’ position. Label
(i) The Structural genes (ii) Repressor bound to its correct position
(iii) Promoter gene (iv) Regulator gene
26. Draw a schematic diagram of a part of double stranded dinucleotide DNA chain having
all the four nitrogenous bases and showing the correct polarity.
27. What are satellite DNAs in a genome? Explain their role in DNA finger printing.
28. Draw the structure of the initiator tRNA adapter molecule.
29. Base sequence in one of the strands of DNA is TAG CAT GAT.
(i) Give the base sequences of its complementary strand.
(ii) How are these base pairs held together in a DNA molecule?
(iii) Explain the base complementarity rule. Name the scientist who framed this rule.
30. How is hnRNA processed to form mRNA?
31. Draw a labelled schematic sketch of replication fork of DNA. Explain the role of the
enzymes involved in DNA replication.
32. Describe the initiation, elongation and termination process of transcription in bacteria.
33. (a) In human genome which one of the chromosomes has the most genes and which one
has the fewest?
(b) Scientists have identified about 1.4 million single nucleotide polymorphs in human
genome. How is the information of their existence going to help the scientists?
34. (a) Draw a schematic representation of a transcription unit and show the following in it.
(i) Direction in which the transcription occurs (ii) Polarity of the two strands involved (iii)
Template strand (iv) Terminator
(b) Mention the function of promoter in transcription.

35. Human genome is said to have approximately 3 x 109 bp, and if the cost of sequencing
required is US $ 3 per bp (the estimated cost in the beginning), the total estimated cost of
the project would be approximately 9 billion US dollars. Further, if the obtained sequences
were to be stored in typed form in books, and if each page of the book contained 1000
letters and each book contained 1000 pages, then 3300 such books would be required to
store the information of DNA sequence from a single human cell.
(a) According to HGP, what is the approximate number of genes present in human
genome?
(b) Name the largest known gene present in human genome. What is its size?
(c) What were the two major approaches for HGP? Explain.
OR
(c) Mention the commonly used hosts and vectors in this project.
36. The process of copying genetic information from template strand of DNA to RNA is
called transcription. It is mediated by RNA polymerase. Transcription takes place in the
nucleus of eukaryotic cells. In transcription only a segment of DNA and only one of the
strands is copied into RNA.
(a) What do you understand by transcription unit?
(b) Point out the difference between monocistronic and polycistronic gene.
(c) How many types of RNA polymerases are used for transcription in eukaryotes?
Mention the type of RNA transcribed by each of them.
OR
(c) Explain introns and exons. What is splicing?

37. What is semiconservative DNA replication? How was it experimentally proved and by
whom?
38. Draw a labelled schematic structure of a transcription unit. Explain the function of each
component of the unit in the process of transcription.
39. (a) Who proposed the concept of lac operon?
(b) Draw a labelled schematic representation of a lac operon.
(c) Explain how does this operon get switched ‘on’ and ‘off’
40. Describe the experiment of Frederick Griffith on bacterium Streptococcus pneumonia.
Mention the important conclusion(s).
41. List the salient features of double helix structure of DNA. Support your answer with a
diagram.
42. How did Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase arrive at the conclusion that DNA is the
genetic material?
43. Where do transcription and translation occur in bacteria and eukaryotes respectively?
Explain the complexities in transcription and translation in eukaryotes that are not seen in
bacteria.
44. (i) DNA polymorphism is the basis of DNA finger printing technique. Explain.
(ii) Mention the causes of DNA polymorphism.
45. (a) Explain the process of aminoacylation of tRNA. Mention its role in translation.
(b) How do ribosomes in the cells act as factories for protein synthesis?
(c) Describe ‘initiation’ and ‘termination’ phases of protein synthesis.
46. The average length of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is approximately
2.2 m and the dimension of a nucleus is about 10-6 m.
(a) How is it possible that long DNA polymers are packed within a very small nucleus?
(b) Differentiate between euchromatin and heterochromatin.
(c) Mention the role of non-histone chromosomal protein.
47. (i) Name the scientist who suggested that the genetic code should be made of a
combination of three nucleotides. (ii) Explain the basis on which he arrived at this
conclusion. (iii) Give the properties of genetic code.
48. Forensic department was given three blood samples. Write the steps of the procedure
carried to get the DNA fingerprinting done for the above samples.
CHAPTER-6 EVOLUTION
1. The concept of chemical evolution is based on:

a) Crystallization of chemicals.
b) Interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat.
c) Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental
conditions.
d) Effect of solar radiations on chemicals.
2. About how long ago, was the earth formed?
a) 3.5 billion years ago
b) 4.5 billion years ago
c) 10 billion years ago
d) 20 billion years ago
3. Haekel’s theory of recapitulation means that:
a) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
b) Progeny of an organism resembles its parents
c) All organisms begin their life from one cell
d) Regeneration
4. The gas mixture used by Miller in his experiment comprised:
a) CH4, CO2, N2, H2O
b) NH3, CO2, H2O, N2
c) CH2, NH3, N2, H2O
d) CH4, NH3, H2O, H2
5. Evolution is
(a) progressive development of a race
(b) history and development of race along with variations
(c) history of race
(d) development of race
6. Genetic drift operates only in
(a) smaller populations
(b) larger populations
(c) Mendelian populations
(d) island populations
7. Darwin in his ‘Natural Selection Theory’ did not believe in any role of which one of the
following in organic evolution?
(a) Discontinuous variations
(b) Parasites and predators as natural enemies
(c) Survival of the fittest
(d) Struggle for existence
8. Industrial melanism is an example of
(a) defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet radiations
(b) drug resistance
(c) darkening of skin due to smoke from industries
(d) protective resemblance with the surroundings
9. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other
geographical areas is known as
(a) Migration
(b) Divergent evolution
(c) Adaptive radiation
(d) Natural selection
10. A population will not exist in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium if:
(a) There are no mutations
(b) There is no migration
(c) The population is large
(d) Individuals mate selectively.
11. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all vertebrates, supports the theory of
(a) biogenesis
(b) recapitulation
(c) metamorphosis
(d) organic evolution
12. Darwin’s finches provide an excellent evidence in favour of evolution. This evidence
comes from the field of
(a) Biogeography (b) Anatomy (c) Embryology (d) Palaeontology
13. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are examples of
(a) analogous organs
(b) homologous organs
(c) vestigial organs
(d) retrogressive evolution
14. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterized by
(a) radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles
(b) dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear
(c) flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear
(d) gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear
15. Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?
(a) Homo sapiens
(b) Homo neanderthalensis
(c) Homo habilis
(d) Homo erectus

16. Assertion: Ramapithecus was more man-like whereas Dryopithecus was more ape-like.
Reason: These primates were hairy and walked like Gorillas and Chimpanzees.
17. Assertion: The amphibians evolved into reptiles.
Reason: Reptiles lay thick shelled eggs which do not dry up in sun like those of amphibians.
18. Assertion: The total genes and their alleles in a population is called gene pool.
Reason: The gene pool in a population remains constant.
19. Assertion: The essence of Darwinian theory about evolution is natural selection.
Reason: Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian
theory.
20. Assertion: Life appeared five hundred million years after the formation of earth.
Reason: There was no atmosphere on early earth.
21. Are the thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita homologous or analogous? What
type of evolution has brought such a similarity in them?
22. According to Hardy-Weinberg principle the allele frequency of a population remains
constant (p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1). How do you interpret the change of frequency of alleles in a
population?
23. Are flippers of penguin and dolphin homologous or analogous? What type of evolution
has brought such a similarity in them?
24. Mention how is mutation theory of Hugo de Vries different from Darwin’s theory of
natural selection.
25. State the significance of the study of fossils in evolution.
26. State the significance of biochemical similarities amongst diverse organisms in evolution.

27. Explain Oparin and Haldane theory of origin of life.
28. What is convergent and divergent evolution? Explain with the help of example.
29. Explain Darwinian theory of evolution with the help of one suitable example. State the
two key concept of the theory.
30. Anthropogenic actions have caused evolution of species. Explain with the help of two
examples.
31. “Nature selects for fitness” Explain with suitable example.
32. How does Darwin’s finches illustrate adaptive radiation?
33. (a) How does Hardy Weinberg expression (P2 + 2pq + q2 = 1) explain that genetic
equilibrium maintained in a population?
(b) List any two factors that can disturb the genetic equilibrium.
34. Explain adaptive radiations and convergent evolution by taking example of some of
Australian marsupials and placental mammals.
35. In England during the post industrialised period, the count of melanic moths increased in
urban area but remained low in rural areas. Explain.
36. State the theory of biogenesis. How does Miller’s experiment support this theory?

37. Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England proposed that the first form of life could have
come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules (e.g. RNA, protein, etc.) and that
formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution, i.e., formation of diverse organic
molecules from inorganic constituents. The conditions on earth were – high temperature,
volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3, etc. In 1953, S.L. Miller, an
American scientist created similar conditions in a laboratory scale.
a) A scientist simulated a similar set up and added CH4, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C.
Which important component is missing in his experiment?
b) Name the organic compound observed by Miller in the liquid water after the
experiment.
c) When was the first cellular form of life originated? Name the theory supporting this,
which is accepted by majority.
OR
(d) Name and State the hypothesis which S.L. Miller tried to prove in the laboratory.
38. When the reptiles came down, mammals took over the earth. There were mammals
in South America, which resembled some of the modern day mammals. But due to
continental drift, they disappeared whereas the pouched mammals of Australia
flourished and evolved into the various forms of pouched mammals that we see today.
(a) What is Coelacanth?
(b) What is the name given to fish like reptiles? Mention the biggest dinosaur.
(c) Mention two characteristic features that were the reasons for the successful
existence of mammals on earth.
OR
(c) Why did the continental drift affect the mammals of South America and Australia,
differently.

39. (a) Natural Selection operates when nature selects for fitness. Explain.
(b) The rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life span of an organism. Explain
with the help of a suitable example.
40. Explain the salient features of Hugo de Vries-theory of mutation. How is Darwin’s theory
of natural selection different from it? Explain.
41. (a) Name the primates that lived about 15 million years ago. List their characteristic
features.
(b) (i) Where was the first man-like animal found.
(ii) Write the order in which Neanderthals. Homo habilis and Homo erectus appeared on
earth. State the brain capacity of each one of them.
(iii) When did modern Homo Sapiens appear on this planet?
CHAPTER-7 HUMAN HEALTH

1. Hypersensitivity to an allergen is associated with
(a) aberrant functioning of the immune mechanism
(b) increase in ambient temperature
(c) age of the individual
(d) food habits
2. Small proteins produced by vertebrate cells naturally in response to viral infections and
which inhibit mutliplication of viruses are called
(a) immunoglobulins (b) interferons
(c) antitoxins (d) lipoproteins
3. LSD is
(a) hallucinogenic (b) sedative (c) stimulant (d) tranquiliser
4. Salmonella is related with
(a) typhoid (b) polio (c) TB (d) tetanus
5. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to
(a) Tonsil (b) Thymus (c) Thyroid (d) Thalamus
6. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief from
(a) Cough (b) Headache
(c) Allergy (d) Nausea
7. Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers?
(a) Radiography (X-ray)
(b) Computed tomography (CT)
(c) Histopathological studies
(d) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
8. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?
(a) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
(b) Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria
(c) Spleen of infected humans
(d) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
9. Select the correct statement with respect to disease and immunisation
(a) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation.
(b) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce
antibodies against a pathogen.
(c) Injection of dead/inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity
(d) Certain protozoans have been used to mass produce hepatitis B vaccine
10. Common cold differs from pneumonia in that
(a) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium
Haemophilus influenzae
(b) Pneumonia pathogen infect alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and
respiratory passage but not the lungs
(c) Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is nutritional
deficiency disease.
(d) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas common
cold has no affective vaccine.
11. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of
(a) Tobacco (Chewing) (b) Cocaine (c) Opium (d) Alcohol
12 Grafted kidneys may be rejected in a patient due to
(a) Innate immune response
(b) Humoral immune response
(c) Cell-mediated immune response
(d) Passive immune response.
13. Which one of the following in not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining
three are
(a) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
(b) They show contact inhibition
(c) They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients
(d) They do not remain confined in the area of formation
14. Widal Test is carried out to test
(a) HIV/AIDS (b) Typhoid fever (c) Malaria (d) Diabetes mellitus
15. Which of the following is an opiate narcotic?
(a) Barbiturates (b) Morphine (c) Amphetamines (d) LSD

16. Assertion: Majority of the drugs abused by humans are obtained from fungi.
Reason: Some of the drugs are obtained from flowering plants.
17. Assertion: Radiography, CT and MRI are very useful to detect cancer of internal organs.
Reason: They all use non-ionising radiations.
18. Assertion: In severe cases, the lips and finger nails may turn grey to bluish in colour in
common cold.
Reason: Typhoid and Pneumonia are bacterial diseases.
19. Assertion: AIDS is caused by HIV, a retrovirus.
Reason: Retroviruses have RNA genome.
20. Assertion: Symptoms of the allergic reactions include sneezing, watery eyes, running
nose and difficulty in breathing.
Reason: Allergy is caused due to chemicals like anti-histamines, adrenalines and steroids.

21. Name any two types of cells that act as 'cellular barriers' to provide innate immunity in
humans.
22. What is vaccine? Give an example of a vaccine produced by recombinant DNA
technology.
23. What is the other name of filaria? Give the scientific name of its causative germ.
24. What are oncogenes? Explain.
25. Describe the structure of immunoglobin/antibody with the help of a diagram.
26. Name one plant and the addictive drug extracted from its latex. How does this drug
affect the human body?
27. What is colostrum? Why is it important to be given to new born infants?
28. (a) Explain the property that prevents normal cells becoming cancerous.
(b) All normal cells have inherent characteristics of becoming cancerous. Explain.
29. How does spleen act as a lymphoid organ? Explain.
30. Why does a doctor administer tetanus antitoxin and not a tetanus vaccine to a child
injured in a road side accident with a bleeding wound? Explain.

31. A person has been diagnosed as HIV positive. (i) Name the test which the person
underwent. (ii) Write full name of pathogen involved and describe it. (iii) Which particular
cells of this person are likely to get destroyed.
32. Explain the role of the following in providing defence against infection in human body
(i) Histamines (ii) Interferons (iii) B-cells.
33. (i) How and at what stage does Plasmodium enter into human body?
(ii) With the help of flow chart only show the stages of asexual reproduction in the life of the
parasite in the infected human.
(iii) Why does the victim show symptoms of high fever?
34. How is innate immunity different form the immunity that you acquire through vaccines?
Describe any two ways by which innate immunity can be accomplished.
35. (a) Name the lymphoid organ in humans where all the blood cells are produced.
(b) Where do the lymphocytes produced by the lymphoid organ mentioned above migrate
and how do they affect immunity.
36. Name the bacterium that causes typhoid. Mention two diagnostic symptoms. How is this
disease transmitted to others?
37. Mention the name of the causal organism, symptoms and the mode of transmission of
the disease amoebiasis.
38. Name two types of immune system in human body. Why is cell mediated and humoral
immunity so called?
39. Write the source and the effect of the following drugs on the human body. (i) Morphine
(ii) Cocaine (iii) Marijuana.
40. Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunity. Give any one example
where passive immunization is needed.

41. Every day we are exposed to large number of infectious agents. However, only a few of
these exposures result in disease. Why? This is due to the fact that the body is able to
defend itself from most of these foreign agents. This overall ability of the host to fight the
disease-causing organisms, conferred by the immune system is called immunity.
(a) What do you understand by physiological barrier? Give two examples.
(b) Which type of barrier include interferons that protects non-infected cells from
further viral infection?
(c) What is the term given to non-specific type of defence? How is this accomplished?
OR
(c) Point out the difference between Primary and Secondary immune response.
42. Wide range of organisms belonging to bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, helminths,
etc., could cause diseases in man. Such disease causing organisms are called pathogens.
Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for the
disease pneumonia in humans.
(a) Name two other diseases caused by bacteria in man.
(b) Which organism causes common cold? Which part of the body is affected?
(c) State the reason, a healthy person can acquire pneumonia disease. Which organ in
the humans get affected by pneumonia disease?
OR
(c) What are the symptoms of Pneumonia?

43. (a) Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases. Explain 'Contact inhibition' and
'Metastasis' with respect to the disease.
(b) Name the group of genes that have been identified in normal cells that could lead to
cancer. How do these genes cause cancer?
(c) Name any two techniques that are useful in detecting cancers of internal organs.
(d) Why are cancer patients often given α-interferon as part of the treatment?
44. (a) Name and explain the two types of immune responses in humans.
(b) Name the different types of cells providing cellular barriers responsible for innate
immunity in humans.
45. Name the type of cells the AIDS virus first enters into after getting inside the human
body. Explain the sequence of events that the virus undergoes within these cells to increase
its progeny.
46. What are lymphoid organs? State the functions of primary and secondary lymphoid
organs in humans. Give examples.
47. (i) Name the two type of lymphocytes involved in the specific immune system.
(ii) Mention the two types of specific immunity they generate.
(iii) Why is specific immunity considered to be unique in its function? Write any three special
features of it.
48. (a) Name a drug used (i) as an effective sedative and pain killer (ii) for helping patients
cope with mental illness like depression but often misuse.
(b) How does the moderate and high dosage of cocaine affect the human body?
(c) Why is tobacco smoking associated with rise in blood pressure and emphysema (oxygen
deficiency in body)?
CHAPTER -8 MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE

Q 1. Bio fertilizers are living organisms that:
1. increase soil nutrients;

2. optimize ecological advantages.
3. reduce the risks to the environment.
4. all of these
Q 2. Statins, which reduce blood cholesterol levels, are made by
1. bacteria,
2. viruses,
3. algae,
4. yeast.
Q 3. What do we refer to as the bacteria that produce biogas as a whole?
1. Archaebacteria,
2. Cyanobacteria,
3. Eubacteria,
4. Methanogens.
Q 4. What is IARI’s full name?
1. Indian Ayurveda Research Institute,

2. Indian Aeronautical Research Institute,
3. Indian Aerospace Research Institute, and
4. Indian Agricultural Research Institute
Q 5. Which gas listed below is not a component of biogas?
1. CH4
2. H2S
3. CO2
4. H2O
Q 6. Solid particles that settle during the first stage of sewage treatment are referred to as
1. Flocs.
2. Primary sludge
3. Activated sludge
4. Anaerobic sludge
Q 7. To turn fresh milk into curd, the inoculum is applied. By “inoculum,” we mean
1. A starter that is high in vitamin B-12,

2. A protein-rich starter,
3. A starter that has millions of LABs in it,
4. Aerobic digester.
Q 8. Which of the following actions does the Ministry of Environment and Forests do to
safeguard rivers from pollution?
1. Action Plans for the Ganga River

2. Narmada River Action Plan
3. Action Plan for Yamuna
4. Both options (1) and (3) are correct.
Q 9. Sludge produced during wastewater treatment can be handled by
1. Anaerobic digesters.
2. Chemicals
3. Floe
4. Oxidation pond.
Q10. Which one is wrongly matched?
(a) Streptomyces- Antibiotics
(b) Coliform- Vinegar
(c) Methanogens- Gobar gas
(d) Yeast- Ethanol

Q11. Assertion: Dragonflies can be useful in controlling diseases like dengue malaria etc.
Reason: Dengue and malaria are spread by mosquito vectors
Q12. ASSERTION: Use of cyanobacteria in the paddy fields increases the productivity of paddy.
REASON: Cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil.
Q13. ASSERTION: Large holes and Swiss cheese are due to the production of a large amount
of carbon dioxide by a specific microbe.
REASON: The specificity of characteristic texture, flavour and taste of Swiss cheese is due to
the use of bacterium Propionii bacterium sharmanii.

Q14. What for are Cyclosporin A and Sreptokinase bioactive molecules prescribed by doctor?
Q15.Name the microbes that help production of the following products commercially.
(a) Statin (b) Citric acid (c) penicillin (d) Butyric acid.
Q16. Micro -organisms play an important role in the biological treatment of sewage. Justify.
Q17. Name two organisms belonging to two different kingdoms that are commonly used as
bio fertilisers and how?
Q18. Many members of the genus Glomus form a mycorrhizal association with plants.
Elaborate how this association beneficial to the plants.
Q19. Name the source of statin and state its action on the human body.
Q20. Explain the different steps involved during primary treatment phase of sewage.
Q21. Explain the changes the milk undergoes when suitable starter is added to it. How does
the end product formed, proved to be beneficial for human health?
Q22. Identify (i), (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) and (vi) in the table given below:
Organism Bioactive molecule Use
1. Monascus purpureus (i) (ii)
2. (iii) (iv) antibiotic
3. (v) Cyclosporin A (vi)
Q23. The release of municipal wastewater and industrial waste into our natural water bodies
is causing disastrous effect to the aquatic life. Explain the biological treatment that should be
given to it before releasing into the natural water bodies.
Q24. a. Organic farmers prefer biological control of disease and pests to the use of chemicals
for the same purpose. Justify
b. Give an example of a bacterium, a fungus and an insect that are used as biological agents.
Q 25.a. How is activated sludge formed during sewage treatment?
b. This sludge can be used as inoculum or as a source of bio gas. Explain.
Q26. Baculovirus are good examples of biocontrol agents. Justify giving three reasons.
Q27. What are methanogens? Name the animals they are present in and the role they play
there.
Q28. Name the scientific name of methanogen bacteria. Where are these bacteria generally
found? Explain their role in bio gas production. Name the components of bio gas. All purpose.
Q29. A. A patient has suffered myocardial infarction and clothes were found in his blood
vessels. Name a clot buster that can be used to dissolve the clots and microorganism from
which it is obtained.
b. Woman had just undergone a kidney transplant. A bioactive molecular drug is
administered to oppose kidney rejection by the body. What is the bioactive molecule? Name
the microbe from which this is extracted.
c. What do doctors prescribe to lower the blood cholesterol level in patients with high blood
cholesterol? Name the source organism from which this drug can be obtained.
Q30. List the events that reduce the biological oxygen demand(BOD) of a primary effluent
during sewage treatment.

Q31. Sewage is generated in large quantities in the urban areas. It is Treated in sewage
treatment plants (STPS) to make it less polluted, before discharging into any natural water
body. Observe the flow chart below, answer questions that follows.
Primary effluent is passed into large aeration tank
>>
Effluent is passed into settling tank to form the sediment
a. What is primary effluent?

b. Why is the primary effluent passed into large aeration tanks?
c. What Technical term is given to the sediment formed in the settling tank? Where is the
sediment transfer to for further Treatment? What happens to the sediment there?
CHAPTER- 9 BIOTECHNOLOGY PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

Q1. Which of the following is not a plasmid?
a. Sal I b. YAC c. BAC d. pBR322
Q2. The DNA fragments produced by the use of restriction Endonucleases

can be separated by
a. Polymerase chain reaction
b. Gel electrophoresis
c. Density gradient certification
d. all of the above
Q3. Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (polymerase chain
reaction)?
a. Denaturation -> annealing -> extension
b. B. Denaturation -> extension -> annealing
c. C. annealing -> denaturation -> extension
d. Extension -> denaturation ->annealing
Q4. The DN a polymerase enzyme used in PCR is obtained from
a. Thermus aquaticus
b. Escherichia coli
c. Agrobacterium tumifaciens
d. Salmonella typhimurium
Q4. Introduction of an alien DNA into a plant host cell is achieved by
a. Making them competent with Bivalent cations
b. using micro injection
c. using gene gun
d. using lysosome and Chitinase
Q5. Biolistics, gene gun is suitable for
a. Introducing rDNA into plant cell
b. introducing rDNA into animal cells
c. disarming the pathogen vectors
d. DNA fingerprinting
Q6. What is the criterion for the movement of DNA fragments on agarose gel during gel
electrophoresis?
a. The larger the fragment size the farther it moves
b. The smaller the fragment size the farther it moves
c. Negatively charged fragments do not move at all
d. Positively charged fragments moved to the farther end
Q7. Which of the given statement is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by
Agarose gel electrophoresis
a. DNA can be seen in visible light
b. DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
c. Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light
d. Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light
Q8. Match the column I with the column II and select the correct option
Column I Column II
a. Competent Host 1. Separation and purification
b. Cloning vector 2. Gel electrophoresis

c. Downstream processing 3. Taq polymerase
d. PCR 4.Divalent cation Ca2+
5. pBR322
a. A -4, B–5, C-5, D- 1
b. A -4, B–5, C-1, D- 3
c. A -2, B–5, C-1, D- 3
d. A 54, B–3, C-4, D- 2

Q9. ASSERTION: Retroviruses are used efficiently as vectors in rDNA technological
experiments.
REASON: Agrobacterium tumifaciens is the most commonly used vector for transformation of
plant cells.
Q10. ASSERTION: When a recombinant DNA is ligated at Pvu I site of E coli cloning vector
pBR322 the recombinant loses resistance to ampicillin.
REASON: The Pvu I Site lies within the coding sequence of ampicillin resistance gene

Q11. What is ‘Ori’? State its importance during cloning a vector?
Q12. Explain the work carried out by Cohen and Boyer that contributed immensely to
biotechnology
Q13. How does Eco R1 specifically act on ADNA molecule?
Q14. Explain palindromic nucleotide sequence with the help of a suitable example.
Q15. Why are molecular scissors so called? Write their use in biotechnology.
Q16. All cloning vectors do have a selectable marker. Describe its role in the recombinant DNA
technology.
Q17. How is insertional inactivation of an enzyme used as a selectable marker to differentiate
recombinants from non-recombinants?
Q18. Name the source of DNA polymerase used in PCR Technique. Mention why it is used?
Q19. Name any two most common bioreactors and mention their importance in
biotechnology.

Q20. Explain with the help of a diagram the role of Eco RI, in recombinant DNA technology.
Q21. Only with the help of a labelled diagram, show the steps of formation of recombinant
DNA by the action of restriction endonuclease enzyme Eco R1
Q22. Name and explain the techniques used for separating DNA fragments and making them
available for biotechnology experiments.
Q23. Draw a diagram of a typical Agarose gel electrophoresis showing migration of undigested
and digested sets of DNA fragments and label the important parts.
Q24. Draw a schematic diagram of the E coli vector PBR322 and mark the following on it, write
their functions
a. Ori
b. rop
c. ampicillin resistant gene
d. Tetracyclin resistant gene
Q25. Why is the insertional inactivation method to detect recombinant DNA preferred to
antibiotic resistance procedure?

Q26. Describe the technique that is very effectively used to get large amount of desired DNA
for research and detailed investigation.
Q27. Describe the roles of heat and the bacterium thermus aquaticus in the process of PCR.
Q28. Explain how an antibiotic resistance gene in a cloning vector PBR322 help in selecting
the recombinants from the non recombinants.
Q29. When a gene product is Required in large quantities, the transformants with the plasmid
inside the cells are cultured in a large scale in an industrial fermenter, which then synthesize
the desired protein. This product is extracted from the fermenter for commercial use.
a. Why is the used medium drained out from one side while the fresh medium is added from
the other? Explain. what name is given to this method?
b. List any four optimum conditions for achieving the desired product in a radioactive bio
reactor.
c. What term is given to the processes that the product extracted is subjected to?
CHAPTER- 10 BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS

Q1. Bt cotton variety, the transgenic plant that was developed by the introduction of the cry
gene from Bacillus thuringiensis is resistant to
a. Fungal diseases
b. insect pests
c. viral diseases
d. nematodes
Q2. ELISA Technique is based on the principle of
a. DNA replication
b. antigen- antibody interaction
c. pathogen -Antigen interaction
d. antigen- protein interaction
Q3. Nematode specific genes are being introduced into the tobacco plants using vector
a. pBR322
b. plasmid
c. bacteriophage
d. agrobacterium
Q4. Which of the following is not the product of transgenic experiments?
a. Pest resistant crop variety
b. high nutritional value in grains
c. production of insulin by rDNA technology
d. drought resistant crops
Q5. Which of the following is used as a vector for introducing functional ADA gene in gene
therapy given for ADA deficiency
a. p BR322
b. Ti plasmid
c. Retrovirus
d. bacteriophage
Q6. Which among the following is not allowed to take place in the case of RNA interference
employed in making tobacco plants resistant to the nematode, Meloidogyne incognitia?
a. Transcription of mRNA
b. translation of mRNA
c. replication of DNA
d. maturation of hn RNA
Q7. C- Peptide of human insulin is
a. A part of mature insulin molecule
b. responsible for formation of disulphide bridges
c. removed during maturation of pro insulin to insulin
d. responsible for biological activity
Q8. Human insulin is being produced commercially using a transgenic species of
a. Saccharomyces
b. Mycobacterium
c. Escherichia
d. Salmonella

Q9. ASSERTION: Functional ADA cDNA genes must be inserted in the lymphocytes at the early
embryonic stage.
REASON: Cells in the embryonic stage are mortal, differentiated and easy to manipulate.
Q10. ASSERTION: ELISA is based on the principle of antigen- antibody interaction
REASON: ELISA can detect the proteins /glycoproteins only when present in high
concentration.
Q11. ASSERTION: A single stranded DNA or RNA labelled with a radioactive molecule, is called
a probe.
REASON: A probe is used to detect mutations in HIV infected cells.

Q12. (a) Name (i) a GM cereal crop having enhanced nutritional value and (ii) the nutrient, it
is rich in
(b) State any two benefits of genetically – modified crops.
Q13. What do ‘cry’ genes in Bacillus thuringiensis code for? State its importance for cotton
crop.
Q14. Give a schematic representation of transformation of pro insulin into Insulin.
Q15. What is gene therapy? Name the first clinical case where it was used.
Q16.Why does a patient of ADA deficiency require repeated infusion of genetically
engineered lymphocytes? Suggest a possible permanent remedy.
Q17. Genetically modified plants are considered to be superior to non- genetically modified
plants. Explain
Q18. What is ‘Biopiracy’? State the initiative taken by the Indian parliament towards it?
Q19.Name the Indian crop variety for which in 1997, an American company got patent right
through the US patent and Trade mark office. Why did the company claim it to be an invention
or novelty?

Q20. ‘Cotton boll worms enjoy feeding on cotton plants, but get killed when feeding on Bt
cotton plants’. Justify the statement.
Q21. (a) Write the scientific name of the nematode that infests the tobacco plants and the
part that it infects.
(b) How is Agrobacterium used into protect tobacco plants from its attack?
Q22. With the help of a flow chart only, explain all the stages of how human insulin is
produced through rDNA technology.

Q23. One of the potential uses of genetic engineering is in correction of gene defect that has
been diagnosed in a child /embryo. Explain how gene therapy is of help ADA- deficiency.
Q24. (a)Name three molecular diagnostic techniques for diagnosis of a disease.
(b) List three advantages of molecular diagnostic techniques over the conventional methods
of diagnosis.
Q25. (a) Write the characteristic of ‘Stem cells’
(b) From where one can obtain stem cells in humans?
(c) State any two applications of stem cells in curing human diseases.
Q26.Name the transgenic animal having the largest number amongst all the existing
transgenic animals. Name any three purposes for which these animals are produced.

Q27. The main objective of application of biotechnology in Agriculture is the production of
pest resistant crops; this would also reduce the quantity of the pesticides/ chemicals used
and decrease environmental pollution. Bt Toxins produced by the bacterium bacillus
thuringiensis kills certain insects like lepidopterans, dipterans and coleopterans. Several
nematodes parasitize a wide variety of plants. Novel strategy has been adopted to prevent
this infestation in tobacco plant.
(a)Write the scientific name of the nematode that parasites tobacco plants.
(b)Mention the source of the complementary dsRNA for the novel strategy.
(c)Write in full form the novel strategy used to control the nematode infestation in tobacco
plants.
OR
(c) How does the novel strategy work the vector and its role in the strategy mentioned above.
Q28. For effective treatment of a disease, early diagnosis and understanding of its
pathophysiology are important. Presence of a viral or a bacterial pathogen is normally
suspected only when the disease symptoms appear. By that time the concentration of the
pathogen has become very high in the body and treatment becomes difficult or even
impossible. Very low concentration of the pathogen, when it has not produced the disease
symptoms, can be detected using the molecular diagnosis.
(a)Name two model molecular diagnostics (in full form) used for early detection of viral or
bacterial pathogens
(b) How are the modern techniques advantages over the conventional methods to detect
bacteria or viral infections
(c) i. Expand ELISA
ii. Mention the principle on which it works
iii. What are the two ways in which the infection by pathogen can be detected by using
ELISA
OR
(c) How is a probe used to detect the matured gene in suspected cancer patients?
CHAPTER- 11 ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS

Q1. Important attributes to belonging to a population, but not to an individual are,
i. Birthrate and death rate
ii. Male and female
iii. Birth and death
iv. Sex ratio
a. I only
b. ii only
c. ii and iii
d. I and iv
Q2. Examples that show commensalism are are
i. An orchid growing on a mango tree
ii. Cuckoo bird and crow
iii. Cuscuta growing on Nerium plant
iv. Barnacles growing on a whale
a. I and ii
b. I and iv
c. ii and iii
d. ii and iv
Q3. Asymptote in a logistic curve obtained when
a. The value of ‘r’ approaches zero
b. the value of K ais equal to N
c. The value of K is greater than N
d. The value of K is less than N
Q4. The formula for exponential growth curve is
a. dN/dt = rN
b. dt/ dN = rN
c. dN/ rN = dt
d. rN/ dN = dt
Q5. The population which has evolved to have maximum reproductive or Darwinian fitness,
will have a
a. low ‘r’ value
b. High death rate
c. high ‘r’ value
d. low death rate
Q6. ASSERTION: The recent studies show that Gauss’s competitive exclusion principle Cannot
hold good always
REASON: The different species living in a habitat may show resource partitioning.
Q6. ASSERTION: Verhulst Pearl model is considered a more realistic one.
REASON: Any population Growing exponentially under unlimited resource conditions, can
reach enormous population densities in a very short period.
Q7. ASSERTION: In Galapagos Islands, the Abington Tortoise became extinct within a decade
after goats were introduced into the island.
REASON: Competition is the process in which the fitess of the species is significantly
reduced in the presence of another species.

Q8. What would be the best method to measure the total population density of a number of
fishes in a river and why?
Q9. Write the best method to measure the population density of a single banyan tree in
comparison to 20 parthenium weeds in a forest by an ecologist. Explain and justify your
answer.
Q10. As per a recent newspaper report, a particular country showed declining population
growth rate. According to you what would be the two most possible reasons for the decline
and why?
Q11. Given below is an equation describing the drop pattern of a population.
dN/dt = rN
a. Mention the type of growth model or growth pattern of the population described by the
given equation.
b. What does ‘r’ in the equation signify?
c. Mention the type of growth curve that will be obtained if the population density N is plotted
against time ‘t’.
d. According to you, will the resource availability be limited or unlimited for this type of
growth in the given population?
Q12. Some species of insects and folks have evolved various specific features that help them
from being detected.
a. Justify the statement giving reasons.
b. mention any to such features
Q13. When prickly pear cactus was introduced into Australia in 1920s, it caused havoc and
ecosystem instability by achieving very high population densities. Explain the reason for its
rapid spread into millions of hectares of rangeland.
ii. State the importance of prey predator relationship in a habitat.
Q14. i. What is meant by competitive release
ii. Name the mechanism that promotes the co-existence of competing species named the
scientist who showed this.
Q15. With the decline in the population of fig species, it was noticed that the population of
wasp species also started to decline. What is the relationship between the two and what
would be the possible reason for decline of wasps?
Q16. Explain the pollination mechanism involved in co-evolution of the two species, namely
Ophryus (Orchid) and its insect pollinator bees (and bumble bees).

Q16. Differentiate between parasitism and competition, giving one example of each. State
the common characteristics they share.
Q17. Core evolution is a spectacular example of mutualism which is in an animal and a plant.
Describe co-evolution with the help of an example.
Q18. a. What is a population according to you as a biologist student?
b.The size of a population for any species is not a static parameter. Justify the statement with
specific reference to fluctuations in the population density of a region in a given period of
time.
Q19. What is an age pyramid? Name three representative kinds of age pyramids for human
population and list the characteristics of each one of them.
Q20. a.Name the two growth models that represent population growth and draw the
respective growth curves they represent.
b. State the basis for the difference in the shape of these curves.
c. Which one of the curves represents the human population growth at present? Do you think
such a curve is sustainable? Give reason in support of your answer.

21. The size of a population for any species is not a static parameter. It keeps changing in time,
depending on various factors including food availability, predation pressure, adverse weather
conditions etc. Actually these changes in the population density gives us some idea of what is
happening in a population, whether it is flourishing or declining. Whatever be the ultimate
reason, the density of a population in a given habitat during a given period of time fluctuates
due to changes in 4 basic processes.
a. Name the two basic processes that contribute to an increase in the population density of a
region
b. Name the two basic processes that contribute to a decrease in the population density of a
region.
c. i. If a new habitat is being colonized, out of the four basic processes affecting the population
density which one contributes the most for an increase?
ii. If N is the population density at a time ‘t’ write the population density at time t+1 using
appropriate symbols for the processes.
OR
C. In a barn, there were 30 rats. 5 more were entered the barn and six of the rats were eaten
by the cats. If eight rats were born during the given time and seven rats left the barn, find the
resultant rat population at the time.
CHAPTER- 12 ECOSYSTEM

Q1. In the equation GPP-R= NPP, R represents
a. radiant energy
b. retardation factor
c. environmental factor
d. respiratory losses
Q2. The process of mineralization by microorganisms help in the release of
a. inorganic nutrients from humus
b. Both organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus
c. organic nutrients from humus
d. Inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus
Q3. The amount of energy transferred from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level
is
a. 10 % b. 20% c. 30 % d.50 %
Q4. The pyramid of energy in an aquatic ecosystem is
a. Always upright
b. Always inverted
c. always spindle shaped
d. Never upright
Q6. The biomass available in plants for consumption by Herbivores and decomposers is called
a. Gross primary productivity
b. net primary productivity
c. standing crop
d. secondary productivity
Q7. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in an ecosystem is
called
a. species richness
b. ecotone
c. succession
d. stratification

Q8. ASSERTION: Pyramid of energy is always upright in an ecosystem.
REASON: Producers capture the solar energy and only 10% of energy is passed on from one
trophic level to the next higher trophic level.
Q9. ASSERTION: Decomposition process is slower if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
REASON: Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process.
Q10. ASSERTION: Humus is a dark coloured amorphous substance formed during
decomposition of detritus
REASON: it serves as a reservoir of nutrients due to its colloidal nature.

Q11. a. What is stratification in an ecosystem? How is stratification represented in a forest
ecosystem?
Q12.Write the relationship between productivity, gross productivity and secondary
productivity.
Q13. Name and explain the processes earthworm and bacteria do on detritus.
Q14.What makes humus a reservoir of nutrients? Name and write about the process humus
undergoes that enriches the soil.
Q15. What is meant by PAR? Write the basis on which an organism occupies a space in its
community surroundings
Q16. The number of trophy levels in a foot chain is limited. Justify.
Q17. Justify the statement the pyramid of energy is always applied and can never be inverted.
Q18. Why is the Pyramid of biomass upright in most of the ecosystems? Compare it with the
biomass in sea.
Q19. Name the type of ecological pyramid that can exist as upright as well as inverted. Explain
how it does happen.
Q20. Draw the pyramid of numbers where a large number of insects are feeding on the leaves
of a tree. What is the shape of this pyramid?
Will the pyramid of energy we also of the same shape in this situation? Give reasons for your
answer.

Q21. Draw the Pyramid of biomass in a sea and in a forest. Explain giving raisins why the two
pyramids are different?
Q22. A. What is the detritus?
b. Name the two climatic factors that regulate decomposition
c. Why is an earthworm called a detritivore?
Q23. Name the process that makes the detritus become part of the soil in the nutrient cycle.
b. Write the factors responsible for controlling the rate of this process.
c. Mention the condition, when the rate would be faster.

Q24. How is the detritus decomposed step by step by different agents and made available as
nutrients to the plants? Explain
Q25. What is trophic levels in an ecosystem? What is standing up with reference to it. Explain
the role of the first trophic level in an ecosystem.
Q26. What is an ecological pyramid? Compare the pyramids of energy biomass and numbers.
Write any 2 limitations of ecological pyramids.
CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

Q27. Read the following passage and answer the question that follows-
An ecosystem can be visualized as a functional unit of nature where the living organisms
interact among themselves and also with the surrounding physical environment. Ecosystems
vary greatly in size from a small pond to a large forest or an ocean. Interaction of biotic and
abiotic components results in a physical structure that is characteristic of each ecosystem.
a. Give two examples of man-made ecosystems
b. Mention four functional components of an ecosystem
c. Mention any two autotrophic components in the pond ecosystem and where are the
decomposes abundant in the pond ecosystem.
CHAPTER- 13 BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION

Q1. Which of the following groups of animals has a large number of endemic species in the
western ghats?
a. Mammals
b. Reptiles
c. Amphibians
c. Birds
Q2. Which one of the following groups faces maximum threat of extinction?
a. Gymnosperms b. birds c. amphibians d. mammals
Q3. log S= log C+ Z log A
In the given equation of species-area relationship, the value of regression coefficient for a
Whole continent would be
a. 0.1 -0.2 b. 0.5 -0.7 c. 0.6- 1.2 d. 0.3 -0.5
Q4. It is observed that the species diversity decreases as we move
a. Away from the equator to the poles
b. Towards the equator from Poles
c. Along the equator
d. From desserts to rainforests
Q5. Which of the following is not a criterion for determining the biodiversity hotspots
a. High levels of species richness
b. number of endemic species
c. degree of threat in terms of habitat loss
d. species evenness
Q6. On which one among the following regions is not a hotspot of bio diversity
a. The Indo Burma region
b. Janta Hills in Meghalya
c. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
d. the Himalayas
Q7. One of the ex situ conservation methods for endangered species is
a. Biosphere reserves
b. national parks
c. cryo preservation
d. wildlife sanctuaries

Q8. ASSERTION: Biodiversity is essential for the stability of an ecosystem
REASON: communities with more species tend to be more stable than those with less species
diversity
Q9. ASSERTION: in situ conservation Refers to conservation of organisms in their natural
habitats
REASON: Zoological parts are in situ conservation areas
Q10. ASSERTION: Biologists are sure about how many prokaryotic species are living now
REASON: the conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identifying the
microbial species.

Q11. Provide two reasons that make the count of prokaryotic species difficult
Q12. Taking the example of Nile Perch, explain how introduction of an alien species in a
dynamic ecosystem may have a devastating effect on the indigenous species and may lead to
loss of biodiversity.
Q13. Explain any two most important levels of biological organization showing biodiversity
with the help of an example each.
Q.14 What is Ramsar Convention? how was it called previously?
Q.15How was in situ and ex situ Approaches of biodiversity conservation different from each
other
Q16. a. Draw a pie chart representing the global biodiversity proportionate number of species
of major taxa.
b. Extinction of species across taxa are not random. which group amongst the vertebrates is
more vulnerable to extinction?
c. Give one example of each for recent extinctions of species in Russia Mauritius and Australia.
Q17. Explain giving reasons why tropics show greatest levels of species diversity?
Q18.Explain Rivet Popper Hypothesis. Name the ecologist who proposed it
Q19. Some species and an ecosystem exert greater influence in driving major ecosystem
services than others. How did Paul Ehrlich explain this concept in the rivet popper hypothesis?
Q20. How has the introduction of Nile perch into Lake Victoria in East Africa has a devastating
effect on the indigenous species in the lake?
Name two invasive weed species which have posed a threat to existence of our native species.
Q21. Name any two conventional methods of ex situ conservation.
Write the importance of cryo-preservation in conservation of biodiversity.
Q22. Enlist two criteria that are used to identify a region for maximum protection as
biodiversity hotspot
Name any two hotspot regions in our country
Q23. Forests provide intangible benefits to us. Explain by taking three different areas.
Q24.How are advanced ex situ Techniques helping in conserving threatened species give
three examples.

Q25. Read the following passage and answer the question that follows
In the biosphere, there is immense diversity not only at the species level, but at all levels of
biological organization ranging from molecules within the cells to biomes. biodiversity refers
to the combined diversity at all levels of biological organization.
a. Name the sociobiologist, who popularized the term bio diversity.
b. Name the type level of biodiversity represented by the deserts, mangroves, wetlands, coral
reefs etc in India.
c. i. Write the scientific name of the plant that produces a chemical Reserpine
ii. How does it exhibit genetic diversity?
Or
c. What is the total number of plant and animal species on the earth according to
i. IUCN 2004 list
ii. Robert May.
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BIOLOGY WORKSHEET

CHAPTER-1 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

(a) Angiosperms and Pteridophytes

3. The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilisation is

4. Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are present in

5. Feathery stigma occurs in

(a) 10, 20, 10, 20

(c) 10, 20, 10, 10

(d) 20, 10, 20, 20

7. Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if

8. Anemophily type of pollination is found in

9. In angiosperms, male gametes are formed by the division of

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

(c) What is germ pore. State the function of germ pore.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

(c) Draw a labelled diagram of globular embryonic stage of an angiosperm.

36. Give reasons why

37. (a) Draw a diagram of an enlarged view of T.S. of one microsporangium of an

CHAPTER-2 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

1. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs

2. How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?

6. Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?

11. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

(a) What happens to placenta after parturition?

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

CHAPTER-3 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

28. Oral administration of small doses of either progestogens or progestogen–estrogen

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

CHAPTER-4 PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

(a) In phenylketonuria (PKU) disease of human being, which enzyme is deficient?

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

CHAPTER-5 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

11. What is not true for genetic code?

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

1. The concept of chemical evolution is based on:

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

CHAPTER-7 HUMAN HEALTH

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)