CommunityHealthNursing 15853 12074 2051435

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING
INDEX
S.NO. TOPIC LIST

1. HEALTH & DISEASE
2. EPIDEMIOLOGY
3. LEVELS OF PREVENTION
4. IMMUNITY AND IMMUNIZATION
5. FAMILY PLANNING AND CONTRACEPTIVE METHODS
6. DEMOGRAPHY
7. COMMUNICABLE DISEASE
8. HEALTH PROGRAMME & ENVIRONMENTAL HEALTH
9. PRIMARY HEALTH CARE
10. DISASTER
11. OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH & Health committee
12. BIOMEDICAL WASTE MANAGEMENT
13. HEALTH CARE DELIVERY SYSTEM AND KITS
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10. Who discovered tuberculin skin test?
HEALTH AND DIESEASE (a) Von Pirquet
1. Quality and quantity of an individual's inter- (b) Louis Pasteur
personal lies and extent of involvement with (c) Ronald Ross
the continuity is known as (d) Edward Jenner
(a) Mental dimension of health 11. Limit for registration of birth is
(b) Physical dimension of health (a) 7 days (b) 14 days
(c) Spiritual dimension of health (c) 21 days (d) Any of the above
(d) Social dimension of health 12. Census population count is in reference to
2. The functions of community are: (a) 1st march (b) 1st July
A. It provides space for socialize and recreation (c) 30th June (d) 1st January
B. It provides safety and security 13. Census is conducted in every_____ years.
C. Socialization and Education for its members (a) 10
D. Provides opportunity for interaction among (b) 25
members (c) 15
(a) A, B, C (d) 20
(b) B, C, D 14. First census in India was done in
(c) A, C, D (a) 1861
(d) A, B, C, D (b) 1871
3. In demographic stages "when birth rate (C) 1881
begins to decline and death rate further (d) 1891
decreases" is said to be: 15. WHO established in the year of...........
(a) High stationary stage (a) 1920
(b) Early expansion stage (b) 1948
(c) Late expansion stage (c) 1954
(d) Low stationary stage (d) 1960
4. WHO 2000 report, India's health expenditure 16. Which of the following is true about Global
was- Warming?
(a) 3.2% of GDP (b) 4.3% of GDP (a) CO2 is a major greenhouse gas
(c) 6.7% of GDP (d) 7.2% of GDP (b) Stratosphere ozone layer is harmful
5. Father of Indian Surgery is (c) CFC increases Stratosphere ozone layer
(a) Dhanvantari (b) Charak (d) Kyoto protocol called for 20% reduction in
(c) Sushruta (d) Atreya Greenhouse emission.
6. Entomology is the science that studies: 17. Air velocity is measured by:
(a) Behavior of human beings (a) Hygrometer
(b) Insects (b) Psychrometer
(c) Behavior of ants (c) Anemometer
(d) Formation of rocks (d) Wet bulb thermometer
7. Head Quarters of World Health Organization 18. According to WHO, a child with 10 level and IQ
(WHO) situated at between 35-50. which of the following
(a) New York, United States of America category of mental retardation?
(b) London, England (a) Mild
(c) Geneva, Switzerland (b) Moderate
(d) Paris, France (c) Severe
8. UNICEF was established in .................. year (d) Profound
(a) 1946 (b) 1948 ANSWER KEY
(c) 1952 (d) 1955 1. [d] 2. [d] 3. [c] 4. [b] 5. [c]
9. The germ theory of disease was propounded 6. [b] 7. [c] 8. [a] 9. [c] 10. [a]
by 11. [c] 12. [a] 13. [a] 14. [c] 15. [b]
(a) Robert Koch 16. [a] 17. [c] 18. [b]
(b) Hippocrates ❑❑❑
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) August Weismann
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8. The continuous, systematic collection,
EPIDEMIOLOGY
analysis and interpretation of health-related
1. Outbreak of disease in the community in data needed for the planning,
excess than normal expectation is: implementation, and evaluation of public
(a) Epidemic health practice is known as:
(b) Pandemic (a) Incidence
(c) Sporadic (b) Monitoring
(d) Endemic (c) Surveillance
2. The agent/factor responsible for the (d) Community assessment
occurrence of a disease includes- 9. Submerged portion of the iceberg represents:
(A) Biological and physical agents (a) Undiagnosed cases
(B) Mechanical and chemical agents (b) Clinical cases
(C) Vertical and inoculation agents (c) Dead cases
(D) Nutrient and living agents (d) Treated cases
(a) A, B, C 10. Blood banks get permission to operate from
(b) B, C, D (a) NACO
(c) A, B, D (b) ICMR
(d) A, C, D (c) DGHS, Ministry of health
3. The following are the data collection (d) Drug controller general of India
techniques in community assessment, EXCEPT 11. Father of epidemiology is:
(a) Making appropriate judgments (a) John Snow
(b) Organization and comparisons of problem (b) Joseph Lister
(c) Effective communication (c) Karl Landsteiner
(d) Investigation and measurements (d) Endemic
4. Providing health education about the 12. Sentinel surveillance is used to.............
environment to the community people is an (a) Know the total number of affected people
example of (b) Know the hidden cases in the community
(a) Social communication (c) Compare the incidence
(b) Structural communication (d) Measure incidence and prevalence
(c) Therapeutic communication 13. The constant presence of the disease or
(d) Formal communication infection within a given geographic area is
5. The constant presence of infection in a given called as:
geographic area without any external input is (a) Pandemic
known as........ . (b) Sporadic
(a) Epidemic (c) Epidemic
(b) Endemic (d) Endemic
(c) Pandemic 14. The screening of the immigrants for infectious
(d) Sporadic disease is:
6. Sporadic means: (a) Mass screening
(a) Sudden outbreak of disease in given an area. (b) Prescriptive screening
(b) Infectious disease that has spread through (c) Prospective screening
human populations across a large region; for (d) Selective screening
instance multiple continues, or even worldwide 15. Tear out by roots is the literal meaning of:
(c) Disease occurs at irregular intervals or only in (a) Elimination
few places in scattered or isolated manner (b) Eradication
(d) Constant presence of infection in a given (c) Isolation
geographical area without any external input (d) Transmission
7. Missed cases are identified by… 16. Robert Koch discovered the etiologic agent of
(a) Active surveillance (a) Typhoid
(b) Passive surveillance (b) Small pox
(c) Sentinel surveillance (c) Tuberculosis
(d) Prevalence rate (d) Polio
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17. Constant presence of a disease within a 26. The number of new cases occurring in a
geographic area: defined population during a specified period of
(a) Epidemic time is known as….
(b) Endemic
(a) Incidence
(c) Sporadic
(b) Point prevalence
(d) Pandemic
18. A person with no sign of disease but may (c) Period prevalence
transmit, it is called: (d) Current prevalence
(a) An allergic person 27. Time interval between primary and secondary
(b) Immune person case is known as…
(c) A resistant person (a) Extrinsic incubation period
(d) A carrier person
(b) Intrinsic incubation period
19. Following is a contagious disease
(a) Filaria (c) Serial interval
(b) Tuberculosis (d) Window period
(c) Malaria 28. Epidemiological triad comprise of all expect:
(d) Hookworm infestation (a) Host
20. Decrease in the incidence of disease to a level (b) Environmental factor
where it censes to be a public health problem
(c) Agent
is
(d) Investigator
(a) Elimination
(b) Control 29. Which of the following is the most logical
(c) Surveillance sequence?
(d) Eradication (a) Impairment-Disease-Disability - Handicap
21. Basic unit of the society (b) Disease-Impairment-Disability - Handicap
(a) Individual (c) Disease-Impairment- Handicap - Disability
(b) Family
(d) Disease-Handicap-Impairment– Disability
(c) PHC
30. "Silent epidemic' of the century is
(d) Country
22. HIV prevalence can be assessed by (a) Coronary artery disease
(a) Sentinel surveillance (b) Chronic liver disease
(b) Active surveillance (c) Chronic obstructive lung disease
(c) Central register (d) Alzheimer's disease
(d) State register 31. Time between infection and maximum
23. All are true about incidence EXCEPT
infectivity is known as
(a) Denominator includes population at risk
(b) Numerator includes number of new cases (a) Incubation period
(c) Does not include unit of time (b) Serial interval
(d) It is a rate (c) Generation time
24. Number of current cases (new and pre- (d) Communicable period
existing) at a specified point in time divided by ANSWER KEY
population at the same specified point in time
1. [a] 2. [c] 3. [b] 4. [b] 5. [b]
is referred as
6. [c] 7. [c] 8. [c] 9. [a] 10. [d]
(a) Point prevalence
11. [a] 12. [b] 13. [d ] 14. [c] 15. [b]
(b) Period prevalence
(c) Lifetime prevalence 16. [c] 17. [b] 18. [d] 19. [b] 20. [b]
(d) Prevalence estimate 21. [b] 22. [a] 23. [c] 24. [a] 25. [b]
25. Number of current cases (new and 26. [a] 27. [c] 28. [d] 29. [b] 30. [d]
preexisting) over a specified period of time 31. [c]
divided by average or mid-interval population ❑❑❑
(a) Point prevalence (b) Period prevalence
(c) Lifetime prevalence (d) Total prevalence
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10. When you immunize a child for measles what
Level of Prevention type of prevention are you doing?
1. Prevention of risk factors is known as: (a) Primordial prevention
(a) Primordial prevention (b) Health promotion
(b) Primary prevention (c) Specific protection
(c) Secondary prevention (d) Secondary Prevention
(d) Tertiary prevention 11. Monitoring of blood pressure is which level of
2. Which of the following is NOT an example of prevention?
primary prevention- (a) Primordial (b) Primary
(a) Breast self-examination (c) Secondary (d) Tertiary
(b) Smoking cessation 12. Pap smear test for detection of carcinoma of
(c) BCG vaccination Cervix is which level of prevention?
(d) Vitamin A supplementation (a) Primordial (b) Primary
3. Which of the following is considered as (c) Secondary (d) Tertiary
secondary prevention strategies 13. Patient is on psychotherapy, what is the level
(a) Physiotherapy for arthralgia of prevention
(b) Surgery for cataract (a) Primordial (b) Primary
(c) DOTS therapy for a tuberculosis patient (c) Secondary (d) Tertiary
(d) All of the above 14. Screening of the disease is which type of
4. Early diagnosis of disease is known as --- prevention?
strategy. (a) Primordial prevention
(a) Primary prevention (b) Primary prevention
(b) Secondary prevention (c) Secondary prevention
(c) Tertiary prevention (d) Tertiary prevention
(d) Rehabilitation prevention 15. Target group for secondary prevention
5. Example of primary prevention strategies (a) Healthy individuals (b) Patients
include (c) Animals (d) Children
(a) Colonoscopy at age 50. 16. Disability limitation is which mode of
(b) Avoidance of tobacco products. prevention?
(c) Intake of a diet low in saturated fat in a patient (a) Primordial prevention
with high cholesterol. (b) Primary prevention
(d) Teaching the importance of exercise to a (c) Secondary prevention
patient with hypertension. (d) Tertiary prevention
6. Prevention of emergence of risk factor is: 17. Primordial prevention is done in population
(a) Primary prevention (b) Secondary prevention (a) With risk factor
(c) Tertiary prevention (d) Disability limitation (b) Without risk factors
7. Immunization is: (c) Whole population with low prevalence of
(a) Primordial prevention disease
(b) Primary prevention (d) Population with disease
(c) Secondary prevention 18. Which of the following is primordial prevention?
(d) Tertiary prevention (a) Action taken prior to the onset of disease
8. Iodized salt in iodine deficiency control (b) Prevention of emergence of development of risk
programme is: factors
(a) Primary prevention (c) Action taken to remove the possibility that a
(b) Secondary prevention disease will ever occur
(c) Tertiary prevention (d) Action that halts the progress of a disease
(d) Disability limitation ANSWER KEY
9. Level of prevention that includes Specific
1. [a] 2. [a] 3. [d] 4. [b] 5. [b]
protection is
6. [a] 7. [a] 8. [b] 9. [b] 10. [c]
(a) Primordial prevention
11. [c] 12. [c] 13. [c] 14. [c] 15. [b]
(b) Primary prevention
16. [d] 17. [b] 18. [b]
(c) Secondary prevention
❑❑❑
(d) Tertiary prevention
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10. Anti-rabies vaccine is made from:
Immunity and Immunization (a) Wild viruses (b) Live attenuated viruses
1. A clinic nurse prepares to administer an MMR (c) Mixed viruses (d) Killed viruses
(Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine to a five- 11. Which of the following vaccine is most sensitive
year-old. The nurse administers this vaccine: to heat?
(a) Intramuscularly in the anterolateral aspect of (a) Pertussis vaccine (b) Typhoid vaccine
the thigh (c) Polio vaccine (d) BCG vaccine
(b) Intramuscularly in deltoid muscle 12. In cold chain process, the walk in cold rooms
(c) Subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the stores vaccine up to ..........months
upper arm (a) 4 months (b) б months
(d) Subcutaneously in the gluteal muscle (c) 3 months (d) 1 month
2. All of the following are the role of community 13. Route of administration of Hepatitis B Vaccine
nurse in school health program, except is.....
(a) Assist in school medical examination and (a) Intradermal (b) Subcutaneous
follow up (c) Intramuscular (d) Intravenous
(b) Assist in screening physical, mental and other 14. Expansion of BCG vaccine is:
special examination of children in school (a) Bacillus Calmette-Guerin
(c) Assist in communicable disease control (b) Bacillus Calmette-Guereo
(d) To provide immunization to the children (c) Bacilli Calmette-Guerreror
3. Immunity acquired through natural infection (d) Bacilli Calmette-Guerin
is: 15. BCG vaccine is available in powder form. It is
(a) Artificial active immunity reconstituted with
(b) Herd immunity (a) Distilled water (b) Normal saline
(c) 5% Dextrose solution (d) Ringer lactate solution
(c) Natural Active immunity
(d) Specific human immunity 16. Measles vaccine are stored in........ part of
4. BCG is........ refrigerator.
(a) Live attenuated vaccine (a) Chilled tray
(b) Inactivated vaccine (b) Deep freezer
(c) Killed vaccines (c) Tray below the freezer
(d) Tools (d) Shelves in the door
17. Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is............
5. The vaccine that leaves permanent scar in
(a) Zinc phosphate (b) Aluminum phosphate
babies is
(c) Aluminum hydroxide (d) Both (b) and (c)
(a) Measles (b) Pentavalent
18. Which of the following vaccine is
(c) DPT (d) BCG
contraindicated during pregnancy?
6. Influenza-A (H1N1) vaccine was approved in
(a) MMR (b) Hepatitis B
the year:
(c) DPT (d) DT
(a) 2009 (b) 2010
19. Herd immunity is not useful in prevention
(c) 2012 (d) 2004
of.................
7. Smallpox was eradicated from the world in the
(a) Polio (b) Rubella
year...........
(c) Tetanus (d) Measles
(a) 1980 (b) 1981
20. Administration of readymade antibody
(c) 1982 (d)1983
creates:
8. Frozen DPT vaccine should be
(a) Active acquired immunity
(a) Discarded
(b) Passive acquired immunity
(b) Rolled between palms until it reaches room
(c) Active natural immunity
temperature
(d) Passive natural immunity
(c) Immersed in hot water
21. Measles vaccine is:
(d) Kept out until it reaches room temperature
(a) Live viral vaccine
9. Polyvalent vaccine means....................
(b) Live bacterial vaccine
(a) Single strain of single microorganism
(c) Killed vaccine
(b) Two or more strains of same microorganism
(d) Toxoid
(c) Antibody of single microorganism
(d) None of the above
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22. All the vaccines are in national immunizations 33. Viral proteins called interferon’s helping
schedule EXCEPT innate immunity are classified under:
(a) BCG (b) Pentavalent (a) Physical barriers
(c) Pneumococcal (d) OPV (b) Physiological barriers
23. Universal immunization program (UIP) was (c) Cytokine barriers
launched in the year of............. (d) Cellular barriers
(a) 1974 (b) 1978 34. Which among the following vaccines is stored
(c) 1985 (d) 1992 in the freezer?
24. Live vaccine is: (a) Measles (b) Typhoid
(a) DPT (b) Hepatitis-B (c) DPT (d) TT
(c) TT (d) BCG 35. Salk vaccine is given for the prevention of:
25. Which of the following vaccine is (a) Measles (b) Mumps
contraindicated in pregnancy? (c) Polio (d) Rabies
(a) Rubella (b) Measles 36. Immunization of DPT should be administered
(c) Varicella (d) All of the above by:
26. Measles vaccine is administered by: (a) Intradermal (b) Intramuscular
(a) Intradermal route (C) Subcutaneous (d) Intravenous
(b) Intravenous route 37. The age of administration of measles vaccine
(c) Oral route is:
(d) Subcutaneous route (a) 18 months (b) 6 months
27. A killed vaccine is: (c) 3 months (d) 9 months
(a) OPV (b) BCG 38. Dose of BCG vaccination is
(c) MMR (d) Rabies (a) 0.5 mL s/c (b) 0.5 mL I/D
28. Which of the following disease are known as (c) 0.1 mL I/D (d) 1 mL I/M
six killer diseases in children? 39. B.C.G. Vaccine is given to protect the child
(a) Whooping cough, Yellow fever, Hepatitis, T.B. against:
Smallpox, Tetanus (a) Diphtheria (b) Tuberculosis
(b) Diphtheria, Whooping cough, Measles, Polio, (c) Tetanus (d) Typhoid
TB, Tetanus 40. Example of a live vaccine is?
(c) Diphtheria, Yellow fever, TB, Leprosy, Malaria, (a) Hepatitis B (b) Rabies
Cholera (c) Measles (d) Typhoid vaccine
(d) Whooping cough, Diphtheria, Malaria, 41. Varicella vaccine is a
Smallpox, TB, Chickenpox. (a) Killed vaccine
29. Cold Chain System is the process of (b) Live attenuated vaccine
preserving................................. (c) Immunoglobulin
(a) Blood specimen for malarial parasite (d) None
(b) Chemotherapeutic agents 42. Smallpox vaccine was invented by?
(c) Sputum specimen (a) Louis Pasteur
(d) Vaccines (b) Edward Jenner
30. Which is the recommended site of (c) Paul Eugene
administration of DPT in infants? (d) John Snow
(a) Gluteal muscles 43. Cold Chain System is the process of
(b) Deltoid muscles (a) Storing blood specimen for MP and MF
(c) Lateral aspect of mid-thigh (b)Refrigerating chemotherapeutic agents
(d) Forearm
(c) Storing sputum specimens
31. What reaction might occur due to Tetanus
(d) Preserving vaccines
vaccine?
(a) Febrile seizures (b) Brachial neuritis 44. ILR is designed for
(c) Hypotonic (d) Encephalopathy (a) Storing vaccines
32. The polio vaccine should be preserved at: (b) Incubating culture medias
(a) 2 to 8°C (b) Below 0°C (c) Sterilization of rubber gloves
(c) -2 to -8°C (d) 0 to 4°C (d) Disinfection of sharp materials
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45. ILR is a part of 57. Which of the following disease are known as
(a) Sterilization procedure six killer diseases in children?
(b) Disinfection procedure (a) Whooping cough, Yellow fever, Hepatitis, T.B.,
(c) Cold chain Smallpox, Tetanus
(d) Drug transport (b) Diphtheria, Whooping cough, Measles, Polio,
46. Which of the following is a diarrheal T.B. Tetanus
preventive vaccine? (c) Diphtheria, Yellow fever, TB, Leprosy, Malaria,
(a) DPT vaccine (b) Rotavirus vaccine Cholera
(c) MMR vaccine (d) Hepatitis B (d) Whooping cough, Diphtheria, Malaria,
47. Salk vaccine is a Smallpox, TB, Chickenpox.
(a) Live vaccine (b) Live attenuated vaccine 58. Test used to identify the immunity status
(c) Killed vaccine (d) Toxoid against diphtheria is
48. OPV is a (a) Schick test (b) Widal test
(a) Live vaccine (b) Live attenuated vaccine (c) Mantoux test (d) Allen's test
(c) Killed vaccine (d) Toxoid 59. A child is vaccinated for MMR at what age?
49. Which of the following is a live attenuated (a) At birth (b) 6 month
vaccine? (c) 9 months (d) 12-15 months
(a) BCG (b) DPT 60. Which of the following vaccines can result a
(c) Hepatitis B (d) Tetanus Toxoid Thrombocytopenia
50. At what temperature should polio vaccine be (a) MMR vaccine (b) Typhoid vaccine
stored? (c) Influenza vaccine (d) HiB vaccine
(a) 0 °C (b) 2-5 °C 61. MMR vaccine provide protection against all,
(c)15 °C (d) -20 °C EXCEPT
51. Which vaccine must be stored in the freezer (a) Mumps (b) Meningitis
compartment? (c) Rubella (d) Measles
(a) DPT (b) Polio 62. At the Primary Health Center (PHC) level,
(c) BCG (d) TT vaccines are stored in the
52. Which of the following vaccine should be (a) Cold box (b) Deep freezer
stored in the freezer compartment? (c) Ice lined refrigerator (d) Walk in cold room
(a) Polio (b) Measles 63. Under VIP programme which of the following
(c) DPT (d) Both a and b vaccines administered at 9 months of age?
53. The route of administration of live attenuated (a) DPT-1 (b) BCG
polio vaccine is (c) Measles (d) Hepatitis B-1
(a) Intradermal route (b) Intramuscular 64. Zero dose of polio vaccine is given..........
(c) Oral route (d) Subcutaneous route (a) Before giving DPT
54. First dose of measles vaccine is administered (b) At birth
at (c) When child is having diarrhea
(a) 6 weeks (b) 3 months (d) When child is having polio
(c) 6 Months (d) 9 months 65. Which of the following statements regarding
55. Site recommended for administration of live vaccine false:
infants is (a) Two live vaccines cannot be administered
(a) Deltoid simultaneously
(b) Booster doses are not required when
(b) Lateral aspect of thigh
administered
(c) Anterior thigh
(c) Single dose gives lifelong immunity
(d) Forearm (d) Live vaccine contains both major and minor
56. Which vaccine is contraindicated in antigens
pregnancy? 66. All of following are true about Herd immunity
(a) Rubella for infectious diseases except:
(b) Diphtheria (a) Herd immunity is constant
(b) Depends on clinical and sub clinical infections
(c) Tetanus
(c) Influenced by immunization
(d) Hepatitis B (d) Depend on presence of alternative host
-:: 8 ::-
67. Which of the following is true about BCG 78. The neurological complication of DPT is due to
vaccination? (a) Pertussis (b) Diphtheria
(a) Distilled water is used as diluent. (c) Tetanus (d) All
(b) The site of injection should be cleaned with
79. Dose of OPV given at birth in case of
spirit.
institutional deliveries
(c) Mantoux test becomes positive after 48 hours
of vaccination. (a) Primary dose
(d) WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for (b) Initial dose
vaccine production. (c) First dose
68. Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is: (d) Zero dose
(a) Zinc (b) Aluminum 80. Killed vaccine of polio is:
(c) Copper (d) Magnesium
(a) Salk
69. True about polio vaccination is all except
(a) Follow up of AFP every 30 days (b) Sabin
(b) Salk contains three types of polio virus (c) Both (a) & (b)
(c) Pulse polio virus are extra and supplemental (d) None of the above
(d) Oral polio vaccine provides intestinal 81. Most heat sensitive vaccine is:
immunity also (a) Measles
70. The following is NOT true about Oral Polio
(b) DPT
Vaccine
(c) OPV
(a) Induces both local and systemic immunity
(b) Maternal antibody is completely protective (d) Hepatitis B
(c) Live attenuated vaccine 82. Reconstituted measles vaccine should be used
(d) Requires subzero temperature for long term within:
storage (a) 1 hour
71. All are true about SALK vaccine except: (b) 3 hours
(a) OPV can be given as booster dose
(c) 6 hours
(b) Injections during epidemic prevents paralysis
(d) 12 hours
(c) Can be given to immune compromised pt
(d) Easily transported 83. All are true about measles vaccine except:
72. The following vaccine if contaminated can (a) Freeze dried live attenuated vaccine
cause Toxic Shock Syndrome: (b) Single in dose 0.5 mL
(a) Measles Vaccine (b) DPT (c) Occasionally associated with TSS
(c) Hepatitis (d) Typhoid (d) Contraindicated in pregnancy
73. Following is a live attenuated vaccine:
84. Active immunization following exposure is
(a) BCG
(b) Hepatitis B given most commonly for:
(c) Japanese encephalitis (a) Rabies
(d) Salk (b) Polio
74. Vaccine preventable neonatal disease is: (c) Plague
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Measles (d) Measles
(c) Pertussis (d) Tetanus
85. "Tear out by root is the literal meaning of
75. BCG vaccine is:
(a) Elimination
(a) Killed (b) Live attenuated
(c) Toxoid (d) Cellular fraction (b) Eradication
76. BCG is given: (c) Quarantine
(a) Intramuscular (b) Intradermal (d) Isolation
(c) Subcutaneous (d) Intravenous 86. Target Group for pulse polio immunization is
77. Frozen DPT vaccine should be - (a) 0-1 years
(a) Shaken thoroughly before use
(b) 0-3 years
(b) Allowed to melt before use
(c) 0-5 years
(c) Discarded
(d) Brought to room temperature before use (d) 0-10 years
-:: 9 ::-
87. Pulse polio immunization covers:
(a) 0-5 yr. children Family planning and
(b) 0-1 yr. children contraceptive methods
(c) 1-5 yr. children
(d) 0-2 yr. children 1. Commonest side effect of copper-T is….
88. One of the reported side effects of Rotavirus (a) Pain
(b) Bleeding
vaccination is:
(c) Vaginal discharge
(a) Pain (d) Pelvic inflammation
(b) Aphthous ulcers 2. Which of the following ATT drug is absolutely
(c) Gastritis contra-indicated in pregnancy?
(d) Intusussception (a) Pyrazinamide (b) Rifampicin
89. Pulse Polio Immunization was introduced in: (c) Streptomycin (d) Ethambutol
3. Best response from a nurse to the women who
(a) 1995
missed single dose of oral contraceptive pill?
(b) 1999
(a) Take the missed pill now and continue the
(c) 2000 course.
(d) 2001 (b) Take 2 pills the next day and continue with the
90. System of storage and transport of vaccines at course.
low temperature from the manufacturer to (c) Discontinue the course because OCP has no
the vaccination site is called: more effect.
(d) Restart the course from next MC.
(a) Deep small freezers
4. Absolute contraindication to the OCP includes
(b) Cold room
(a) Thromboembolism
(c) Cold chain (b) Liver disease
(d) Deep freezers (c) Ca breast
ANSWER KEY (d) All of the above
5. On prescription of oral pills to the user, the
1. [c] 2. [d] 3. [c] 4. [a] 5. [d]
health worker will ask about the following
6. [a] 7. [a] 8. [a] 9. [b] 10. [d]
EXCEPT
11. [c] 12. [c] 13. [c] 14. [a] 15. [b] (a) Number of live children
16. [b] 17. [d] 18. [a] 19. [c] 20. [b] (b) Calf tenderness
21. [a] 22. [c] 23. [c] 24. [d] 25. [d] (c) Headache
26. [d] 27. [d] 28. [b] 29. [d] 30. [c] (d) Swelling of feet
6. Chemical components of Mala-D are
31. [b] 32. [a] 33. [c] 34. [a] 35. [c]
(a) D-norgestrel and Ethinyl estradiol
36. [b] 37. [d] 38. [c] 39. [b] 40. [c] (b) D-norgestrel and progestogen
41. [b] 42. [b] 43. [d] 44. [a] 45. [c] (c) Progestogen
46. [b] 47. [c] 48. [b] 49. [a] 50. [d] (d) Northinetone Acetate
51. [b] 52. [d] 53. [c] 54. [d] 55. [b] 7. Which of the following is the terminal method
of contraceptive in male?
56. [a] 57. [b] 58. [a] 59. [d] 60. [a]
(a) IUD
61. [b] 62. [c] 63. [c] 64. [b] 65. [a]
(b) Chemical methods
66. [a] 67. [d] 68. [b] 69. [a] 70. [b] (c) Vasectomy
71. [b] 72. [a] 73. [a] 74. [d] 75. [b] (d) Condom
76. [b] 77. [c] 78. [a] 79. [c] 80. [a] 8. Eligible couple represents which age group of
81. [c] 82. [b] 83. [b] 84. [a] 85. [b] woman?
(a) 12-45 years
86. [c] 87. [a] 88. [d] 89. [a] 90. [c]
(b) 15-45 years
❑❑❑
(c) 14-45 years
(d) 18-45 years
-:: 10 ::-
9. The metal which is commonly used for family 20. Which of the following parameter is the best
planning is: indicator for nutritional status of child?
(a) Copper (b) Aluminum (a) Head circumference
(c) Iron (d) Silver (b) Mid-arm circumference
10. Still birth rate includes fetus dies after: (c) Chest circumference
(a) 20 weeks (b) 24 weeks (d) Rate of increase of height and weight
(c) 28 weeks (d) 32 weeks 21. Small for gestational age newborns are at risk
11. Which of the following method of for difficulty maintaining body temperature
contraception can prevent sexually because
transmitted disease? (a) They have less fat storage than other infants
(a) Oral pills (b) Condom (b) They are relatively small in size which reduces
(c) Copper-T (d) Cervical cap the body surface area
12. Which of the following neoplasm has been (c) They are more active
associated with the use of oral contraceptives? (d) Their skin is more susceptible to cold
(a) Breast cancer 22. Medical termination of pregnancy can be done
(b) Ovarian cancer by a registered medical practitioner if the
(c) Endometrial cancer gestation period is less than
(d) Hepatic adenoma (a) 8 weeks (b) 12 weeks
13. Which one of the following is not an oral (c) 20 weeks (d) 24 weeks
contraceptive pill? 23. What are the amounts of calories and proteins
(a) Estrogen only, mini pill received by a pregnant woman from the
Anganwadi worker?
(b) Estrogen and progesterone, combined pill
(a) 300 cals, 15 gm protein
(c) Estrogen followed by progesterone, sequential
(b) 500 cals, 15 gm protein
pill (c) 300 cals, 25 gm protein
(d) Cortisol only pill (d) 500 cals, 25 gm protein
14. Eligible couple is maintained at 24. Eligible couples are those couple whose wife is
(a) Sub center (b) CHC in the age group of
(c) PHC (d) District headquarters (a) 18-35 years (b) 18-40 years
15. Best indicator of fertility? (c) 15-45 years (d) 20-45 years
(a) GER (General fertility rate) 25. Natural method of contraception is...........
(b) TER (Total fertility rate) (a) Coitus interruptus (b) Breastfeeding
(c) CBR (Crude birth rate) (c) Both a and b (d) Condom
(d) NRR (Net reproductive rate) 26. The emergency contraceptive for women
16. Data indicate the optimum time for (a) Mala-D (b) Mala-N
termination of pregnancy is (c) Levonorgestrel (d) Progesterone
(a) 20weeks (b) 12 weeks 27. Which of the below is a natural contraceptive
(c) 28 weeks (d) 24 weeks method?
17. Mean birth weight in India is (a) Breast feeding (b) Condom
(a) 2.0-2.3 kg (b) 2.3-2.5 kg (c) Copper-T (d) IUD
(c) 2.5-2.9 kg (d) 3.0 – 3.5 kg 28. Which of the following is a common side effect
of Intrauterine Device?
18. Road-to-Health chart was given by
(a) Vaginal Bleeding
(a) David Morley (c) Koch Darwin (b) Pelvic Inflammatory disease
(b) John Snow (d) Dukes (c) Uterine perforation
19. The best parameter for assessment of chronic (d) Ectopic pregnancy
malnutrition is 29. Conventional Contraceptives are
(a) Weight for age (a) Condom (b) IUD
(c) Coitus Interrupts (d) OCP
(b) Weight for height
30. Which of the following is the terminal method
(c) Height for age
of contraceptive in male?
(d) Mid upper arm circumference (a) IUD (b) Barrier method
(c) Vasectomy (d) Condom
-:: 11 ::-
31. Spermicide in Contraceptive TODAY is: 42. IUD associated most commonly with expulsion
(a) Norethisterone (b) 9-Nonoxynol is
(c) Prostaglandin F2 (d) MPA (a) Lippes loop (b) Cu-T 200
32. Barrier methods are all Except: (c) Cu -T 380 (d) LNG IUD
(a) Diaphragm (b) Foam tablets 43. Radiopaque material in copper T is
(c) Vaginal-sponge (d) Lippes loop (a) Silicon (b) BaSO4
33. Non medicated Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs) (c) Carbon (d) None
are called as 44. CuT is preferably inserted postnatal after
(a) 3rd generation IUD (a) 2 weeks (b) 4 weeks
(b) 2nd generation IUD (c) 5 weeks (d) 8 weeks
(c) 1st generation IUD 45. Best contraceptive for a newly married
(d) Multi - load devices healthy couple is-
34. CuT-380A IUD should be replaced once in (a) Barrier method
(a) 4 years (b) 6 years (b) IUCD
(c) 8 years (d) 10 years (c) Oral contraceptive pills
35. IUCD of choice in a woman with menorrhagia (d) Natural methods
is - 46. A packet of oral contraceptive pills consists.....
(a) Lippes loop (a) 21 contraceptive and 7 iron pills
(b) Cu T 200 (b) 28 contraceptive pills and 5 iron pills
(c) Cu T 380A (c) 23 contraceptive pills and 5 iron pills
(d) Progesterone containing IUCD (d) 14 contraceptive and 14 iron pills
36. Multiload device refers to? 47. Which of the following is not an absolute
(a) 1st generation IUCD contraindication for OCP?
(b) 3rd generation IUCD (a) Nursing mother
(c) 2nd generation IUCD (b) Breast cancer
(d) Barrier contraceptive (c) Cardiac abnormality
37. Most effective Cu T is? (d) H/O Thromboembolism
(a) Cu T 380 (b) Cu T 220 48. Serious complication of oral contraceptive is:
(c) Cu T 200 (d) ML-Cu-250 (a) Leg vein thrombosis
38. In Cu T 200, the number denotes (b) Headache
(a) Weight in microgram (c) Break through bleeding
(b) Weight in milligram (d) Breast tenderness
(c) Surface area 49. The dose of Ethinyl estradiol in Mala-N is:
(d) Volume of device (a) 20 ugm (b) 30 ugm
39. The following statements are true about IUD (c) 50 ugm (d) 100 ugm
except: 50. Mala- N oral contraceptive pill differs from
(a) Multiload Cu-375 is a 3rd generation IUD Mala-D in terms of
(b) The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and CuT- (a) Norgestrel dosage
200 are similar
(b) Estradiol dosage
(c) IUD can be used for Emergency Contraception
(c) Sold under social marketing scheme
within 5 days
(d) Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective (d) Supplied free of cost
life of 5 years. 51. Hormonal contraceptive of choice in lactating
40. Which IUCD acts for 10 years? woman is
(a) Cu-T 200 (b) Nova 1 (a) Combined pill (b) Multiphasic pill
(c) Cu-T 380 (d) Multiload (c) Mini pill (d) Centchroman
41. Characteristics of an Ideal candidate for Cu-T
52. Minipills are contraceptive of choices for
include all of the following except -
(a) Has borne at least one child (a) Elderly females
(b) Is willing to check IUD (b) Lactating females
(c) Has a history of ectopic pregnancy (c) Obese women
(d) Has normal menstrual periods (d) Menstruating women
-:: 12 ::-
53. Schedule of administration of mini pill 61. Most cost effective family planning method is
containing 75 microgram of Desogestrel of (a) Vasectomy
contraception is (b) Tubectomy
(a) Once a day pill for 3 month + 7 day pill free
(c) Copper T
interval
(d) Oral pills
(b) Once a day pill for 2 month + 7 day pill free
interval 62. Which of the following method is most
(c) Taken for 21 days with 7 day pill free interval suitable for the couple who is already having
(d) Taken for 28 days with no pill free interval two children?
54. Minipills contain: (a) Condom and Contraceptive pills
(a) Only progestin in small quantity (b) Tubectomy
(b) Progesterone and estrogen in small quantity
(c) Contraceptive pills and IUDS
(c) Estrogen in small quantity and progesterone
in large (d) Condom and Diaphragm
(d) None of the 63. Following vasectomy for family planning, A
55. DMPA is an injectable contraceptive given patient should be advised to use some other
every: method of contraception, till:
(a) 2 weeks (a) Removal of all sutures
(b) 2 months
(b) Pain completely subsides
(c) 2 years
(c) Two weeks
(d) 3 months
56. Safe period is calculated by (d) Eight weeks
(A) Length of menstrual period 64. In emergency contraception, which
(b) Duration and date of ovulation progesterone is used
(C) Length of ovulation (a) Northisterone
(d) Length of luteal phase (b) Medroxyprogesterone
57. Which of the following Natural method of
(c) Desogestrel
contraception is most effective
(d) Levonorgestrel
(a) Calendar method
65. The MTP Act does not allow termination of
(b) Billing method
pregnancy after......
(c) Symptothermic method
(a) 20 weeks
(d) BBT (Basal body temperature) method
(b) 24 weeks
58. "Persona" is a method of -
(c) 28 weeks
(a) Natural contraceptive
(d) 30 weeks
(b) Hormonal contraceptive
(c) Barrier contraceptive ANSWER KEY
1. [b] 2. [c] 3. [b] 4. [d] 5. [a]
(d) IUCD
6. [a] 7. [c] 8. [b] 9. [a] 10. [c]
59. Most common method of sterilization
11. [b] 12. [a] 13. [d] 14. [a] 15. [d]
practiced in India
16. [d] 17. [c] 18. [a] 19. [b] 20. [b]
(a) Female sterilization 21. [d] 22. [c] 23. [c] 24. [d] 25. [c]
(b) Male sterilization 26. [c] 27. [a] 28. [a] 29. [a] 30. [c]
(c) Both equally common 31. [b] 32. [d] 33. [c] 34. [d] 35. [d]
(d) None 36. [b] 37. [a] 38. [c] 39. [c] 40. [c]
60. in which year, a nationwide family planning 41. [c] 42. [a] 43. [b] 44. [d] 45. [c]
programme was launched in India 46. [a] 47. [a] 48. [a] 49. [b] 50. [d]
(a) 1948 51. [c] 52. [b] 53. [d] 54. [a] 55. [d]
56. [a] 57. [d] 58. [a] 59. [a] 60. [c]
(b) 1950
61. [a] 62. [b] 63. [d] 64. [d] 65. [b]
(c) 1952 ❑❑❑
(d) 1955
-:: 13 ::-
11. Measuring the occurrence of particular event
DEMOGRAPHY in a population during given period of time:
(a) Proportion (b) Ratio
1. If birth rate is high and death rate is declining
(c) Rate (d) Frequency
the country will be in which stage of
demographic cycle 12. The poorest sex ratio among the Indian states
(a) High stationary (b) Late expanding is found in............
(c) Early expanding (d) Low stationary (a) Assam (b) Bihar
2. In the demographic cycle, at which stage does (c) Rajasthan (d) Haryana
India stands at present? 13. The tools of measurement include all, except:
(a) High stationary (b) Late expanding
(a) Rate (b) Frequency
(c) Early expanding (d) Low stationary
3. Sex ratio is used to describe the......... (c) Proportion (d) Ratio
(a) Number of males per 1000 females 14. If birth rate is low and death rate is low, the
(b) Number of females per 1000 males country will be in which stage of demographic
(c) Number of males per 1000 births cycle
(d) Number of females per 1000 births (a) High stationary (b) Late expanding
4. The highest child sex ratio among the Indian
(c) Early expanding (d) Low stationary
states, as per the 2011 census is found in
15. If birth rate and death rate is declining the
(a) Haryana (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Kerala (d) Arunachal Pradesh country will be in which stage of demographic
5. The poorest child sex ratio among the Indian cycle
states, in 2011 census is found in….. (a) High stationary (b) Late expanding
(a) Haryana (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Early expanding (d) Low stationary
(c) Gujarat (d) Bihar 16. The important sources of vital statistics in
6. Census is taking usually in every.........
India are.............
(a) 2 years (b) 5 years
(a) Population census
(c) 1 year (d) 10 years
7. The first complete census of India was (b) Civil registration system
conducted in...... (c) Sample registration system
(a) 1911 (b) 1901 (d) All of the above
(c) 1891 (d) 1881 17. In Sample registration system, the survey will
8. Both birth and death are to be registered be conducting in every..................
within...............
(a) 6 months
(a) 1 Month (b) 1 Year
(c) 45 Days (d) 21 days (b) 1year
9. ....... is the surveillance where reports are (c) 5 years
awaited and no attempts are made to seek (d) 3 months
reports actively from the participants in the 18. Central Birth and Death Registration Act was
system? passed in.......
(a) Passive surveillance
(a) 1969
(b) Active surveillance
(b) 1881
(c) Sentinel surveillance
(d) None of the above (c) 1950
10. ....... is the surveillance which is based on the (d) 1947
collection of data from a sample (random or 19. Where is the Central Surveillance Unit of IDSP
non-random) of collecting sites as indicator located?
data for the rest of the population, in order to (a) NCDC
identify cases of a disease early?
(b) ICMR
(a) Passive surveillance
(c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(b) Active surveillance
(c) Sentinel surveillance (d) AIIMS
-:: 14 ::-
20. ..... analysis is based on quality or attribute and
not on precise measurement. Communicable Disease
(a) Interpretation of data
1. During cholera outbreak, the best emergency
(b) Qualitative
sanitation measures to be adopted will be
(c) Quantitative
(a) Chemoprophylaxis
(b) Mass vaccination
21. Which state has lowest infant mortality rate:
(c) Disinfection of stool
(a) Kerala
(d) Provision of chlorinated water
(b) West Bengal
2. Mass drug administration is related to which
(c) Tamil Nadu
disease?
(d) Madhya Pradesh (a) Malaria (b) Filaria
22. Approximately how many people in the world (c) Polio (d) Chickenpox
are affected by iron deficiency? 3. Glucose is added to antidiarrheal solution
(a) 50 million because:
(b) 250 million (a) It tastes sweet
(b) Increases absorption of amino acids
(c) 750 million
(c) Increases absorption of sodium
(d) 2 billion (d) All of above
23. One of the following is a universally accepted 4. Which of the following is Zoonotic disease?
indicator of health status and socio economic (a) Chikungunya (b) Malaria
condition of a country: (c) Rabies (d) AIDS
(a) Maternal mortality rate 5. The effective preventive measures for AIDS
(b) Life expectancy are use of condom, which provides protection
(c) Under 5 proportionate rate against:
(d) Infant mortality rate (a) Inhibition of sperm action
24. The most universally accepted indicator of (b) Spermicidal action
health status is: (c) Agglutination of spermatozoa
(a) Crude death rate (d) All of the above
(b) Case fatality rate 6. Characteristic feature of a zoonotic infection
is:
(c) Infant mortality rate
(a) Swimming pool granuloma
(d) Adult mortality rate
(b) Carbuncle
25. All of the following are vital health statistics (c) Malignant pustule
which de termines community health status (d) Vincent's angina
except: 7. Zinc phosphide is an efficient:
(a) Death rate (a) Rodenticide (b) Insecticide
(b) Birth rate (c) Bactericide (d) Disinfectant
8. The following diseases can be transmitted by
(c) Life expectancy
water and food, except:
(d) Migration rate
(a)Hepatitis C (b) Hepatitis A
ANSWER KEY (c) Cholera (d) Poliomyelitis
1. [c] 2. [b] 3. [b] 4. [d] 5. [a] 9. Which of the following infection of animal’s
6. [d] 7. [d] 8. [d] 9. [a] 10. [c] primary transmitted through milk?
11. [c] 12. [d] 13. [b] 14. [d] 15. [b] (a) Tuberculosis (b) Dengue
16. [d] 17. [a] 18. [a] 19. [a] 20. [b] (c) Plague (d) Leptospirosis
21. [a] 22. [d] 23. [b] 24. [c] 25. [d] 10. "Chikungunya' species belongs to which
❑❑❑ family?
(a) Togaviridae (b) Flaviviridae
(c) Bunyaviridae (d) Reoviridae
-:: 15 ::-
11. Scabies is a 19. Negri bodies are found in which disease
(a) Non-communicable disease condition?
(b) Contagious disease (a) Rabies
(c) Bacterial infection (b) Measles
(d) Fungal infection (c) Mumps
12. The obligate refers to the ............ (d) Pertussis
(a) Host in which the parasite remains asexual 20. The other name of pertussis is:
(b) Temporary host (a) Rubella
(c) Only host (b) Whooping cough
(d) Multiple hosts (c) Rubella
13. Transport host is one in which....... (d) Diphtheria
(a) Parasite passes its sexual stage 21. Symmetrical unilocular rashes firstly
(b) Parasite remains asexual appearing from trunk and then on face, arms
(c) Organism remain alive but does not undergo and legs is a characteristic of ......................
development disease.
(d) Life cycle is not complete (a) Smallpox
14. Incubatory carrier is.... (b) Measles
(a) A person capable of transmitting an infectious (c) Chickenpox
agent to others during the incubation period of (d) Rubella
the disease 22. Koplik's spot are the clinical feature of.....
(b) A person who is continue to shed disease (a) Measles
causing agent during the period of recovery (b) Pertussis
(c) A person or other organism that has (c) Chickenpox
contracted an Infectious disease, but who (d) Rubella
displays no symptoms. Although unaffected by 23. What type of toxin is produced by Clostridium
the disease themselves, carriers can transmit it to tetani?
others. (a) Exotoxin
(d) A person who carry micro organism (b) Endotoxin
15. Mode of spread of whooping cough is: (c) Organic toxin
(a) Direct contact (d) Inorganic toxin
(b) Droplet infection 24. Rabies is caused by a virus called:
(c) Fomite (a) Filaria
(d) Water borne (b) Lyssavirus type 1
16. Chain of spread of malaria is................ (c) Myxovirus
(a) Man-arthropod-man (d) Adenovirus
(b) Man-pig-man 25. Boiling water helps in killing all organisms:
(c) Mammal-bird-man EXCEPT
(d) Bird-arthropod-man (a) Fungi
17. Which of the following is the method of (b) Bacteria
transmission of infection by vector? (c) Protozoa
(a) Biting (d) Spores
26. ............................disease has received
(b) Regurgitation
maximum social stigma in India.
(c) Scratching in-of infective feces
(a) Tuberculosis
(d) All of the above (b) Leprosy
18. The maximum size of droplet nuclei that can (c) Polio
be inhaled into alveoli of lungs is- (d) Cholera
(a)1-2 microns 27. The another name for leprosy is
(b) 1-5 microns (a) Hansen's disease
(b) Anderson's diseases
(c) 5-7 microns
(c)Chagas disease
(d) 7-10 microns (d) Slim of disease
-:: 16 ::-
28. The last known natural case of smallpox was 35. Mode of transmission of leprosy is.........
reported in the word in: (a) Breast milk (b) Insect bite
(a) 1977 (c) Droplet infection (d) Both b and c
36. Intervention used under prevention of
(b) 1978
spreading STDs include
(c) 1979
(a) Treating STD
(d) 1980 (b) Providing condoms
29. Which of the following viral infections is (c) Behavior change communication
transmitted by tick? (d) All of the above
(a) Japanese encephalitis 37. Tuberculin test denotes:
(b) Dengue fever (a) Previous or present sensitivity to tubercle
(c) Kyasanur forest disease proteins
(d) Yellow fever (b) Patients is resistant to tuberculosis
30. Strategies of leprosy eradication program (c) Patients is susceptible to tuberculosis
includes all of the following EXCEPT (d) Protective immune status of individual against
(a) Early detection and complete treatment of tuberculosis.
new leprosy cases. 38. The size of respirable dust is:
(a) 10 microns (b) 15 microns
(b) Early diagnosis and prompt MDT, through
(c) 10 microns (d) 5microns
routine and special efforts 39. Which of the following viral infections is
(c) Strengthening of Disability Prevention and transmitted by tick?
Medical Rehabilitation (DPMR) services. (a) Japanese encephalitis
(d) Centralized leprosy services through (b) Dengue fever
dedicated hospitals for leprosy treatments (c) Kyasanur forest disease
(d) Yellow fever
31. Mumps presents with a clinical feature
40. Kala-azar is transmitted by -
of.............................
(a) Aedes mosquito (b) Tsetse fly
(a) Fever with enlargement of thyroid glands (c) Sand fly (d) Mice
(b) Fever with non-supportive enlargement of the 41. Which disease condition is transmitted by
both parotid glands Aedes mosquito?
(c) Fever with supportive enlargement of parotid (a) Dengue fever (b) Chikungunya
glands (c) Yellow fever (d) All of the above
42. Koplik's spots are seen in:
(d) Fever, cough and enlargement of
(a) Rubella (b) Measles
submandibular glands.
(c) Chikungunya (d) Chickenpox
32. An infection which is present in an individual 43. Causative organism of AIDS:
but, not sufficient to result in a disease is (a) Rabies virus (b) CMV
called as............................... (c) Retro virus (d) Adenovirus
(a) Latent infection 44. DOTS is for ............condition
(b) Clinical infection (a) Tuberculosis (b) Leprosy
(c) Subclinical infection (c) Malaria (d) HIV
(d) Secondary infection 45. Oral rehydrated solution does not contained:
33. Dehydrated child will have................ (a) Sodium chloride (b) Calcium lactate
(a) Skin pinch goes back slowly (c) Bicarbonate (d) Glucose
(b) Depressed fontanelle 46. Rabies free zone in India........................
(c) Sunken eyes (a) Goa (b) Lakshadweep
(d) All of the above (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
34. Most potential agent that can be used in 47. Among the following identify the most
bioterrorism: complicated with mumps
(a) Viral encephalitis (a) Aseptic meningitis
(b) Brucellosis (b) Mastitis
(c) TB (c) Orchidites
(d) Clostridium Botulinum (d) Oopheritis
-:: 17 ::-
48. among the following is the secondary 59. Mass prophylaxis is used in all EXCEPT
prevention of TB – (a) Rabies (b) Lymphatic filariasis
(a) BCG vaccination (c) Trachoma (d) Malaria
(b) Sputum testing 60. Identify the sexually transmitted disease
(c) Health education among the following:
(d) DOTS treatment (a) HIV/AIDS
49. Which of the following is the early sign of (b) Herpes simplex-2
leprosy? (c) Human papilloma virus infection
(a) Loss of sensation (d) All of the above
(b) Lesions over the skin 61. Window period means.....
(c) Thickened painful nerves (a) Time period between infection and detection
(d) Sinking of the nose bridge of antibodies
50. Amebiasis is transmitted through…. route. (b) Time period between infection and first sign
(a) Feco-oral (b) Parenteral and symptom
(c) Vector borne (d) Airborne (c) Time period between diagnosis and treatment
51. Lepromin test is used to diagnose......... (d) None of the above
(a) Leprosy (b) Malaria 62. Schick's test is used to diagnose...
(c) TB (d) HIV/AIDS (a) Diphtheria (b) Pertussis
52. International health regulation is subjected (c) Measles (d) Mumps
to........... 63. Disease which is also known as barometer of
(a) Plague (b) Yellow fever social welfare is...........
(c) Cholera (d) All of the above (a) TB (b) Typhoid
53. Staining technique used to diagnose TB is (c) Cholera (d) HIV/AIDS
known as: 64. Most common complication associated with
(a) Ziehl-Neelsen stain (b) Gram stain chickenpox in children is
(c) Giemsa stain (d) PAS (a) Secondary bacterial infection
54. Spread of communicable disease across (b) Meningitis
country to country is referred to: (c) Orchitis
(a) Endemic (b) Epidemic (d) Otitis media
(c) Episodic (d) Pandemic 65. Complications of chickenpox include
55. Diseases which are transmitted by water and (a) Rey's syndrome
food are called as: (b) Pneumonia
(a) Vector-borne (c) Cerebellar ataxia
(b) Air -borne (d) All of the above
(c) Fomite-borne 66. Isolation required in salmonellosis until…
(d) Vehicle-borne (a) 3 days after initiating antibiotic therapy
56. Which is the full form of DOTS chemotherapy? (b) 3 consecutive blood become negative
(a) Directly Observed Treatment Short course (c) 3 consecutive blood culture become negative
(b) Digitally Operated Treatment Service (d) Rashes disappear
(c) De-oxygenated Tetracycline-Streptomycin 67. Drug of choice for cholera is
(d) Doxycyclin-Omaprazole-Tetracycline Short (a) Tetracycline
course (b) Penicillin
57. DOTS is a comprehensive strategy to cure. the (c) Chloramphenicol
line element of DOTS is: (d) Co-trimoxazole
(a) Sputum microscopy services 68. Congenital rubella is diagnosed in infant with
(b) Regular drug supply to the patients the help of........... antibodies in infant
(c) Health workers counsel and observe their (a) IgM (b) IgG
patients swallow each anti-TB medications and (c) IgE (d) IgA
monitor progress until cured 69. Fifth disease is also known as....
(d) Political will in terms of manpower (a) Erythema infectiosum
58. The mosquito that lays eggs singly: (b) Mumps
(a) Aedes (b) Anopheles (c) Rubella
(c) Culex (d) Mansonia (d) Measles
-:: 18 ::-
70. Chemoprophylaxis of choice in case of 82. Malaria infection can be transmitted by: (a)
meningococcal meningitis is: Blood transfusion
(a) Rifampicin (b) Tetracycline (b) Bite of infected female anopheles mosquito
(C) Chloroquine (d) Penicillin (c) Vertical transmission through placental defect
71. Lepromin test is usually read after: (d) All of the above
(a) 1 week (b) 2 weeks 83. Malarial transmission occurs by:
(C) 3 weeks (d) 4 weeks (a) Vector
72. Infectivity of whooping cough is during: (b) Food and water
(a) During the entire period of illness (c) Air borne
(b) After the onset of whoop (d) Fomite (inanimate object)
(c) 10 days before and 10 days after the onset of 84. Which of the following disease is transmitted
whoop through dog bite?
(d) None of the above (a) Influenza (b) Yellow fever
73. Refrigerated blood for more than 48 hours (c) Herpes (d) Rabies
cannot transmit: 85. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of
(a) HIV (b) Hepatitis B (a) Enteric fever (b) Malaria
(c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhea (c) Cholera (d) Plague
74. Classification of leprosy is based upon: 86. Which among the following disease is not due
(a) Bacteriological status to Aedes mosquitoes?
(b) Immunological status (a) Filariasis (b) Yellow fever
(c) Histological status (c) Dengue fever (d) Chikungunya fever
(d) All of the above 87. World AIDS day is celebrated every year on:
75. Diphtheria carrier is identified through (a) July 11th (b) December 25th
(a) Throat swab culture (c) December 1st (d) June 5th
(b) Ziehl-Neelsen stain 88. Which among the malarial parasite is
(c) Gram stain responsible for cerebral malaria?
(d) Albert stain (a) P. vivax (b) P. ovale
76. Time period between infection and detection (c) P. falciparum (d) P. quartan
of antibodies against HIV is known as: 89. Incubation period of Chikungunya fever is:
(a) Acute Infection (a) 10-13 days (b) 1-2 days
(b) Chronic Infection (c) 14-16 days (d) 4-7 days
(c) Active HIV 90. Causative organism of yellow fever is:
(d) Window Period (a) Myxovirus (b) Rhabdovirus
77. Which one of the following disease is not (c) Enterovirus (d) Arbovirus
transmitted by Fecal-Oral route? 91. Incubation period of chicken pox ranges from:
(a) Enteric fever (a) 20-25 days (b) 30-40 days
(b) Measles (c) 6-10 days (d) 14-16 days
(c) Cholera 92. The characteristic fever found in typhoid is:
(d) Hepatitis - A (a) Relapsing fever (b) Step ladder fever
78. WHO declared global eradication of small pox (c) Intermittent fever (d) Continuous fever
on? 93. Mode of spread of polio infection is:
(a) 26th October 1977 (b) 5th July 1975 (a) Through vectors (b) Droplet infection
(c) 17th May 1975 (d) 8th May 1980 (c) Fecal-oral route (d) Through blood
79. Dengue fever is transmitted by: 94. Causative agent of mumps is:
(a) Culex fatigues (b) Culex vishnui (a) Bordetella (b) Paramyxovirus
(c) Aedes Aegypti (d) Glossina palpalis (c) Toga virus (d) H. influenza
80. The infection which is acquired from animals 95. First AIDs case in India was reported in the
to human is: year?
(a) Plague (b) Polio (a) 1987 (b) 1982
(c) Pertussis (d) Malaria (c) 1992 (d) 2002
81. Syphilis is caused by: 96. Which part of body is affected in typhoid?
(a) HIV (b) Papilloma (a) Lungs (b) Intestines
(c) Neisseria (d) Treponema (c) Liver (d) Pancreas
-:: 19 ::-
97. Malaria is caused by a: 110. Which among the following is the most
(a) Protozoa (b) Virus important treatment of patients with Dengue
(c) Bacteria (d) Fungi H-fever?
(a) Aspirin for fever
98. Most common cause of post measles death is
(b) Apply ice cap over abdomen to prevent
(a) SSPE (b) RTI
melena
(c) Weakness (d) Diarrhea (c) Replace body fluids
99. Congenital varicella is related with which (d) Use NSAIDs to control fever
diseases? 111. Who found the link between cholera and
(a) Mumps (b) Germen measles contaminated water?
(c) Measles (d) Chicken pox (a) Louis Pasteur (b) Ronald Ross
(c) Edward Jenner (d) John Snow
100. Drug of choice for leprosy?
112. Malaria parasite was discovered by?
(a) DEC (b) Dapsone (a) Robert Koch
(c) Streptomycin (d) Ivermectin (b) Louis Pasteur
101. Which of the following diseases is known as (c) Dr. Alphonse Laveran
"Barometer of social welfare"? (d) Ronald Ross
(a) Leprosy (b) Tuberculosis 113. Which of the following is also called as
(c) Cholera (d) Malaria epidemic parotitis?
102. The procedure of 'Quarantine' was introduced (a) Measles (b) Chicken Pox
to protect against (c) Mumps (d) Pertussis
(a) Yellow fever (b) Cholera 114. Which among the following is an airborne
(c) Leprosy (d) Plague disease?
103. Scarlet fever is caused by (a) Typhoid (b) Kala-Azar
(a) S. pyogenes (b) Gonococci (c) Tuberculosis (d) Malaria
(c) Meningococci (d) S. Typhi 115. Example of water borne disease is
104. Which of the following communicable disease (a) Malaria (b) Cholera
has been eradicated from the world? (c) Tuberculosis (d) Rabies
(a) Chickenpox (b) Smallpox 116. Which of these diseases is NOT a Water Borne
(c) German measles (d) Poliomyelitis Disease?
105. Which of the following disease has been (a) Typhoid fever (b) Cholera
eradicated from India? (c) Hepatitis A (d) Tuberculosis
(a) Measles (b) Mumps 117. Which of the following disease can be
(c) Guinea worm disease (d) Leprosy diagnosed by Mantoux test?
106. Vector responsible for Japanese encephalitis is (a) Diphtheria (b) Tuberculosis
(a) Anopheles (b) Culex (c) Pertussis (d) Mumps
(c) Aedes (d) Mansonoides 118. Which of the following chain of infection is in
107. Life cycle from egg to a complete adult the correct order?
mosquito takes (a) Mode of transmission → Source/reservoir →
(a) 2-6 days (b) 7-10 days Host
(c) 10-15 days (d) 14-21 days (b) Mode of transmission → Host →
108. Maximum permissible chloride level in a litre Source/reservoir
of water is (c) Host → source/reservoir → Mode of
(a) 200 mg (b) 400 mg Transmission
(c) 600 mg (d) 800 mg (d) Source/reservoir→ Mode of Transmission →
109. Insecticide used for ultra-low volume fogging Host
is 119. Quarantine period should be
(a) Pyrethrum (b) DDT (a) Minimum incubation period
(c) Fenthion (d) Malathion (b) Maximum incubation period
(c) Period of communicability
(d) Median incubation period
-:: 20 ::-
120. Which is the main agent of Typhoid fever? 131. Incidence of TB in a community measured by:
(a) Salmonella Typhi (a) Sputum smear positivity
(b) Salmonella paratyphi A (b) Positive Tuberculin test
(c) Salmonella paratyphi B (c) Sputum culture
(d) Shigella (d) Mantoux test positive
121. Chemoprophylaxis can be done for the 132. Nosocomial infection developed:
following EXCEPT (a) Within 24 hours after hospitalization
(a) Meningitis (b) Typhoid (b) Within 48 hours of hospitalization
(c) Cholera (d) Diphtheria (c) After 48 hours of hospitalization
122. Which of the following disinfectant is used for (d) After 7 days of hospitalization
blood spill? 133. Sputum examination for AFB is an example of
(a) Glutaraldehyde (b) Phenol (a) Primordial prevention (b) Primary prevention
(c) Ethanol (d) Sodium hypochlorite (c) Secondary prevention (d) Tertiary prevention
123. Which is the causative organism of 134. Which of the following drug in DOTS therapy
Diphtheria? can cause deafness?
(a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (a) Ethambutol (b) Isoniazid
(b) Treponema pallidum (c) Rifampicin (d) Streptomycin
(c) Corynebacterium Diphtheria 135. Which of the following infection of animals
(d) Myxovirus parotitis primarily can be transmitted through milk?
124. Which of the following is the mode of (a) Tuberculosis (b) Dengue
transmission of Hepatitis A? (c) Plague (d) Leptospirosis
(a) Sexual contact 136. Which of the following test is done to test the
(b) Use of contaminated needles and syringes efficiency of pasteurization of milk
(c) Vertical transmission (a) Coliform count (b) Methylene blue
(d) Contaminated food and water (c) Reduction test (d) Indicator test
125. Hydrophobia is the clinical feature of 137. Which of the following test is done to check
(a) Mumps (b) Pertussis the presence of tuberculosis in human being?
(c) Rabies (d) Tetanus (a) Western Blot (b) Widal test
126. Small pox eradication was NOT due to: (c) Mantoux test (d) ELISA test
(a) Highly effective vaccine 138. Case finding in RNTCP is based on:
(b) Cross-immunity with animal pox virus (a) Sputum culture (b) Sputum microscopy
(c) Subclinical infection does not transmit the (c) X-ray chest (d) Mantoux test/ PCR
disease 139. All among the following are bacteriocidal ATT
(d) Lifelong immunity drugs except
127. Characteristic rashes present in measles is (a) Rifampicin (b) Ethambutol
known as: (c) Streptomycin (d) Pyrazinamide
(a) Koplik spots (b) Pleomorphic 140. Dehydration in a child with diarrhea, thirst
(c) Vesicular rashes (d) Flushing present, tears absent is:
128. Most serious complication of measles is: (a) Mild (b) Moderate
(a) Koplik spots (b) Parotitis
(c) Severe (d) None
(c) Meningoencephalitis (d) Nephritis
141. During a home visit, a community health nurse
129. In measles, Koplik spots are seen in
found a child who is suffering from diarrhea
(a) Prodromal stage
and vomiting. What would be the nurse teach
(b) Post measles stage
the mother to prepare first?
(c) Eruptive Stage
(a) Oral dextrose solution
(b) Oral rehydration solution
130. the most appropriate test to assess the
(c) Oral saline solution
prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a
(d) Semi solid food
community is:
142. New WHO ORS Osmolarity is:
(a) Mass miniature Radiography
(b) Sputum examination (a) 270 (b) 245
(c) Tuberculin test (c) 290 (d) 310
(d) Clinical examination
-:: 21 ::-
143. Which of the following is NOT present in ORS? 157. Kala-azar is transmitted by:
(a) Glucose (a) Phlebotomus sergenti
(b) Calcium gluconate (b) Phlebotomus argentipes
(c) Potassium chloride (c) Phlebotomus papatassi
(d) Sodium chloride (d) All
144. ORS should be discarded after………of 158. Strategy for prevention of neonatal tetanus
preparation include all except:
(a) 4 hours (b) 6 hours (a) TT to all females in reproductive age group.
(c) 12 hours (d) 24 hours (b) Giving penicillin to all neonates.
145. Drug of choice for cholera chemoprophylaxis (c) 2 doses of TT to all unimmunized pregnant
is: women.
(a) Erythromycin (b) Ampicillin (d) Three clean's techniqes
(c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Tetracycline 159. In Tetanus communicable period is:
146. Malaria is transmitted by: (a) 7 day (b) 10 day
(a) Female anopheles (b) Male anopheles (c) 14 day (d) None
(c) Culex (d) Aedes 160. What reaction might occur due to tetanus
147. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease vaccine?
(a) Hydatid cyst (b) Malaria (a) Febrile seizures (b) Brachial neuritis
(c) Filariasis (d) Dengue fever (c) Hypotonic muscles (d) Encephalopathy
148. All are anthropozoonotic disease EXCEPT 161. Lepromin test is used for all of the following except:
(a) Plague (b) Hydatid disease (a) Classify the lesions of leprosy patients
(c) Dracunculiasis (d) Rabies (b) Determine the prognosis of disease
(c) Assess the resistance of individuals to leprosy
149. Zoonotic disease transmitted by arthropods
(d) Diagnosis of leprosy
is/are.
162. Which of the following communicable diseases
(a) Plague (b) Melioidioses
is treated by the drug Dapsone?
(c) Rabies (d) Leptospirosis
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Hepatitis B
150. Rabies free country is?
(c) Leprosy (d) Syphilis
(a) China (b) India
163. Scabies is caused by:
(c) Australia (d) France
(a) Trichophyton (b) Dermatophyton
151. Rabies is also known as....
(c) Mycobacterium (d) Sarcoptes scabiei
(a) Hydrophobia
164. HIV virus was discovered in the year
(b) MiniMata disease
(a) 1981 (b) 1996
(c) Leptospirods
(c) 1986 (d) 1983
(d) Kawasaki disease
165. HIV post exposure prophylaxis should be
152. Which is not transmitted by Aedes aegypti?
started within-
(a) Yellow fever
(a) 24 hours (b) 72 hours
(b) Dengue
(c) 48 hours (d) 6 hours
(c) Japanese encephalitis
166. HIV transmission from mother to child can be
(d) Chikungunya
reduced by all except:
153. Chikungunya is transmitted by?
(a) Caesarean section
(a) Aedes (b) Culex
(b) Vitamin A supplementation
(c) Mansonoides (d) Anopheles
(c) Stopping breastfeeding
154. An example of epidemic disease is
(d) Nevirapine to antenatal mother and newborn
(a) Plague (b) Fracture
after delivery
(c) AIDS (d) Hypertension
167. In which of the of the following condition
155. Plague is transmitted by:
breastfeeding is contraindicated?
(a) Hard tick (b) Soft tick
(a) Hepatitis C (b) Leprosy
(c) Rat flea (d) Louse
(c) Tuberculosis (d) Typhoid
156. The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in
168. First country in in South East Asia to report
contacts of a patient of plague is:
AIDS was:
(a) Penicillin (b) Rifampicin
(a) Sri Lanka (b) India
(c) Erythromycin (d) Tetracycline
(c) Thailand (d) Bangladesh
-:: 22 ::-
169. Window period for HIV infection is: 182. In Tuberculosis combination of antimicrobial
(a) 3-12 Week (b) 8-20 Week is used to:
(c) 6-24 Week (d) None (a) Delay development of resistance
170. HIV is NOT transmitted by: (b) To reduce toxicity
(a) Eating with a person having HIV (c) To broaden antibacterial spectrum
(b) Unprotected sex (d) To prevent liberation of toxins from organism.
(c) Use of unsterile syringes 183. Anti-tubercular drug contraindicated in
(d) Transfusion of HIV infected blood pregnancy is
171. Which of the following is a sexually (a) Ionized (b) Rifampicin
transmitted diseases? (c) Streptomycin (d) Ethambutol
(a) Fibroid uterus (b) Gonorrhea 184. Which type of sample use to collect poliovirus
(c) Ovarian cancer (d) SLE earliest:
172. High prevalence of Tuberculosis found in (a) Stool (b) Blood
which of the following group of people? (c) CSF (d) Throat swab
(a) Smokers (b) Diabetics 185. Which of the following virus is secreted
(c) Asthmatics (d) HIV positive through faeces
173. Commonest mode of transmission of AIDS in (a) Hepatitis b (b) HIV
India is: (c) Poliomyelitis (d) Hepatitis C
(a) Trans placental/mother to child 186. Food poisoning within 6 hours of Intake of milk
(b) Use of unsterile syringes and needles is caused by:
(c) Sexual (a) Staphylococcus aureous
(d) Blood transfusion (b) Bacillus Cereus
174. Which of the following disease was declared (c) Clostridium
eradicated from world? (d) Salmonella
(a) Small pox (b) Guineaworm 187. Food poisoning is caused by all except:
(c) Polio (d) Diphtheria (a) Clostridium
175. True about Measles is (b) Bacillus cereus
(a) Incubation period is 10 days (c) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
(b) Infectious 4 days before the rash (d) Staphylococcus aureus
(c) Koplik spots are seen 188. Chikungunya virus is transmitted through
(d) All of the above (a) Aedes mosquito
176. Chicken pox rashes first appear in which body (b) Chikungunya mosquito
part? (c) Culex mosquito
(a) Trunk and face (b) Trunk and legs (d) Marsh mosquito
(c) Trunk and arms (d) Arms and legs 189. Incubation period of Plasmodium vivax is:
177. Measles (Rubeola) rashes first appear in which (a) 5-7 day
body part? (b) 7-10 day
(a) Trunk (b) Face (c) 10-14 day
(c) Hands (d) Legs (d) 15-30 day
178. Rubella (German measles) rashes first appear 190. the most effective way of preventing tetanus
in which body part? is:
(a) Trunk (b) Face (a) Surgical debridement and toilet
(c) Hands (d) Legs (b) Hyperbaric oxygen
179. Keratomalacia is associated with: (c) Antibiotics
(a) Diarrhea (b) Measles (d) TT
(c) Chickenpox (d) Both a and b 191. "Five clean practices under strategies for
180. Commonest complication of Mumps elimination of neonatal tetanus include all
(a) Pneumonia (b) Encephalitis except:
(c) Aseptic meningitis (d) Pancreatitis (a) Clean surface for delivery
181. Multi drug therapy (MDT) is treatment for (b) Clean hand of attendant
(a) T.B. (b) Leprosy (c) New blade for cutting the cord
(c) HIV (d) All of the above (d) Clean airway
-:: 23 ::-
192. A person received complete immunization 201. Anti-tubercular drug contraindicated during
against tetanus 10 years ago; now he presents pregnancy
with a clean wound without any lacerations (a) Isoniazid (b) Rifampicin
from an injury sustained 2.5 hours ago; He (c) Streptomycin (d) Ethambutol
should be given: 202. In acute silicosis clinical manifestation is -
(a) Full course of TT (a) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
(b) Single dose of TT (b) Hypersensitivity pneumonia
(c) Human Tetanus globulin. (c) Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
(d) Human Tetanus globulin & Single dose of TT (d) Forms nodules and causes pneumoconiosis
193. The true statement regarding tetanus is: 203. Q fever is transmitted by
(a) 5 dose immunization provides lifelong (a) Mosquitos (b) Mites
immunity. (c) Ticks (d) Flea
(b) TT affords no protection in the present injury 204. Japanese encephalitis is transmitted by:
(c) TT serves no use once 12 hours have elapsed (a) Mosquito
following injury (b) Tick
(d) TT and Ig may both be given in suspected (c) Mite
tetanus. (d) Rat flea
194. Drug of choice for Scabies is- 205. Chikungunya is transmitted by
(a) 5% Permethrin (a) Aedes (b) Culex
(b) 25% Benzyl benzoate (c) Mansonoides (d) Anopheles
(c) Ivermectin 206. Which of the following disease is transmitted
(d) 5 % Sulfur ointment by mosquitoes?
195. Drug used to prevent vertical transmission of (a) Dengue
HIV infection in a child of HIV positive (b) Kala-azar
pregnant mother is: (c) Trypanosomiasis
(a) Single dose of Nevirapine to newborn (d) Listeriosis
(b) Nevirapine for 6 weeks to 3 months to 207. Transovarian transmission is seen in:
newborn (a) Rickettsial disease
(c) Single dose of Zidovudine to newborn (b) Malaria
(d) Zidovudine for 3 months to newborn (c) Filariasis
196. Following are major criteria of Jones in (d) None
Rheumatic Fever except: 208. All are "Water-Washed Diseases" except-
(a) Carditis (b) Polyarthritis (a) Trachoma
(c) Chorea (d) Elevated ESR (b) Scabies
197. Why a TB patient is recommended a regimen (c) Conjunctivitis
of 4 drugs at Ist visit (d) Yellow fever
(a) To avoid emergence of resistance 209. Scabies, an infection of the skin caused by
(b) To avoid side effects Sarcoptes scabiei, is an example of
(c) To cure disease early (a) Water borne Diseases
(d) None of the above (b) Water washed Diseases
198. DOTs is the treatment of....................... (c) Water based Diseases
(a) Typhoid (b) Cholera (d) Water related Diseases
(c) Dengue (d) Tuberculosis 210. Mosquito is not associated with transmission of-
199. Multidrug resistance in TB is defined as (a) Malaria
resistance to - (b) Typhus
(a) Streptomycin, Rifampicin and Isoniazid (c) Dengue fever
(b) Streptomycin and Rifampicin (d) Japanese encephalitis
(c) Isoniazid and Rifampicin 211. Diseases transmitted by water and food are
(d) Streptomycin and Isoniazid called as
200. Anti-tubercular drug not given in children (a) Vector borne diseases
below 6 years age is (b) Air bone diseases
(a) Isoniazid (b) Rifampicin (c) Fomite borne diseases
(c) Streptomycin (d) Ethambutol (d) Vehicle borne diseases
-:: 24 ::-
212. Which of the following vector causes Scabies? ANSWER KEY
(a) Mosquito 1. [d] 2. [b] 3. [c] 4. [c] 5. [a]
(b) Itch mite 6. [c] 7. [a] 8. [a] 9. [a] 10. [a]
(c) Louse 11. [b] 12. [c] 13. [c] 14. [a] 15. [b]
16. [a] 17. [d] 18. [b] 19. [a] 20. [b]
(d) Sand-fly
21. [c] 22. [a] 23. [a] 24. [b] 25. [d]
213. Which of the following is the carrier of Plague
26. [b] 27. [a] 28. [a] 29. [c] 30. [d]
virus?
31. [b] 32. [c] 33. [d] 34. [d] 35. [d]
(a) Dogs and carnivores 36. [d] 37. [a] 38. [d] 39. [c] 40. [c]
(b) Rats and rodents 41. [d] 42. [b] 43. [c] 44. [a] 45. [b]
(c) Snakes and Reptiles 46. [b] 47. [a] 48. [b] 49. [c] 50. [a]
(d) Frogs and amphibians 51. [a] 52. [d] 53. [a] 54. [d] 55. [d]
214. What is the cause of Kala-azar? 56. [a] 57. [c] 58. [b] 59. [a] 60. [d]
(a) Housefly (b) Mosquito 61. [a] 62. [a] 63. [a] 64. [a] 65. [d]
66. [b] 67. [a] 68. [a] 69. [a] 70. [a]
(c) Sand-fly (d) Ticks
71. [d] 72. [c] 73. [c] 74. [d] 75. [a]
215. Which of the following would be the right
76. [d] 77. [b] 78. [d] 79. [c] 80. [a]
method of choice of discarding the blood
81. [d] 82. [d] 83. [a] 84. [d] 85. [a]
soaked-dressing removed from a HIV patient? 86. [a] 87. [c] 88. [c] 89. [d] 90. [d]
(a) Pour 1% hypochlorite on the dressing material 91. [d] 92. [b] 93. [c] 94. [b] 95. [a]
and send it for incineration in an appropriate bag. 96. [b] 97. [a] 98. [b] 99. [d] 100. [b]
(b) Pour 5% hypochlorite on the dressing material 101. [b] 102. [d] 103. [a] 104. [b] 105. [c]
and send it for incineration in an appropriate bag. 106. [b] 107. [b] 108. [c] 109. [d] 110. [c]
(c) Pour 5% Lysol on the dressing material and 111. [d] 112. [c] 113. [c] 114. [c] 115. [b]
116. [d] 117. [b] 118. [d] 119. [b] 120. [a]
send it for incineration in an appropriate bag
121. [b] 122. [d] 123. [c] 124. [d] 125. [c]
(d) Pour 1% Lysol on the dressing material and
126. [b] 127. [a] 128. [c] 129. [a] 130. [c]
send it for incineration in an appropriate bag.
131. [a] 132. [c] 133. [c] 134. [d] 135. [a]
216. ART stands for? 136. [a] 137. [c] 138. [b] 139. [b] 140. [b]
(a) Antiretroviral Therapy 141. [b] 142. [b] 143. [b] 144. [d] 145. [d]
(b) Antiretroviral Treatment
146. [a] 147. [a] 148. [c] 149. [a] 150. [c]
(c) Anti rhesus Treatment
151. [a] 152. [c] 153. [a] 154. [a] 155. [c]
(d) All retroviral Therapy
156. [d] 157. [b] 158. [b] 159. [d] 160. [b]
217. Which of the following is not true about Zika
161. [d] 162. [c] 163. [d] 164. [d] 165. [b]
Disease?
166. [b] 167. [c] 168. [c] 169. [a] 170. [a]
(a) Causes Microcephaly in newborn 171. [b] 172. [d] 173. [c] 174. [a] 175. [d]
(b) Caused by a virus and spreads sexually 176. [a] 177. [b] 178. [b] 179. [d] 180. [c]
(c) Caused by bacteria and spreads by 181. [d] 182. [a] 183. [c] 184. [a] 185. [c]
contamination 186. [a] 187. [c] 188. [a] 189. [c] 190. [d]
(d) Mosquitoes are the vectors 191. [d] 192. [b] 193. [d] 194. [a] 195. [b]
218. The following infection is transmitted by Tick 196. [d] 197. [a] 198. [d] 199. [c] 200. [d]
(a) Japanese encephalitis 201. [c] 202. [c] 203. [c] 204. [a] 205. [a]
(b) Dengue Fever 206. [a] 207. [a] 208. [d] 209. [b] 210. [b]
(c) Kyasanur Forest Disease 211. [d] 212. [b] 213. [b] 214. [c] 215. [a]
(d) Yellow Fever 216. [a] 217. [c] 218. [c] 219. [c]
219. Nosocomial infection occurs in: ❑❑❑
(a) Agricultural fields
(b) Crowded place
(c) Hospital
(d) Working place
-:: 25 ::-
9. Viruses are named by?
Covid-19 (a) International Committee on Taxonomy of
Viruses (ICTV)
1. In COVID treatment unit, high touch surface (b) WHO
should be disinfected every. (c) CDC
(a) 1-2 hourly (d) UNICEF
(b) 3-4 hourly 10. First Case of COVID-19 seen in outside of the
(c) 2-4 hourly China?
(d) 6-8 hourly (a) Italy
2. On which date World Health Organization (b) America
(WHO) recognized novel coronavirus as a
(c) Spain
pandemic?
(d) Thailand
(a) 11 March 2020
(b) 12 February 2020 11. Nucleic Acid found in Novel CORONA Virus-2
(c) 24 February 2020 is?
(d) 05 March 2020 (a) Positive sense Single stranded RNA
3. SARS virus was spread in 2003 in which (b) Negative sense Single stranded RNA
country? (c) Negative sense Double stranded RNA
(a) China
(d) Positive sense Double stranded DNA
(b) Saudi Arabia
12. From Where Corona virus got its name?
(c) Vietnam
(d) Iran (a) due to their crown-like projections.
4. Which of the following is/are symptoms of (b) Due to their leaf-like projections.
novel coronavirus? (c) Due to their Surface Structure of bricks
(a) Fever (d) None of the above
(b) Cough 13. Coronavirus is a type of..?
(c) Shortness of breath
(a) Enveloped RNA virus
(d) All of these
5. Coronavirus outbreak was originated in which (b) Enveloped DNA virus
province of China? (c) Non – enveloped DNA Virus
(a) Hubei (d) Single stranded DNA virus
(b) Shandong 14. A nursing officer given a Covishield vaccine
(c) Wuhan against the cov19, which of the following
(d) Henan
recombinant virus injected in this
6. In which state of India reported the first death
vaccination..?
due to COVID-19?
(a) Kerala (a) Coronavirus
(b) Karnataka (b) Adenovirus
(c) Maharashtra (c) Ribovirus
(d) Delhi (d) Paramyxovirus
7. When was the first case of COVID 19 reported 15. Covishield is type of vaccine..?
in India?
(a) Live vaccine
(a) January 30, 2020 (b) March 1st, 2020
(b) Killed vaccine
(c) December 31st, 2019 (d) February 10, 2020
8. Which of the following antibodies develop first (c) Both A & B
against during COVID 19 and helps to identify (d) Toxoid
recent exposure? 16. Identify aerosol generating procedures
(a) IgA performed in ICU setting.
(b) IgM (a) Endotracheal intubation
(c) IgD
(b) Open suctioning endotracheal tube
(d) IgG
(c) Giving prone position to a ventilated Patient
(d) All of the above
-:: 26 ::-
17. Which of the following solution is used to 24. Inhibitor of TMPRSS-2, being tested for
disinfect the surfaces in treatment units. treatment of covid-19 is -
(a) 1% Hypochlorite solution (a) Remdesivir
(b) 2% chlorohexdine solution
(b) Hydroxychloroquine
(c) Hydrogen peroxide solution
(c) Camostat
(d) 7.5% povidone iodine
(d) Ivermectin
18. Janta curfew was held on?
(a) 21 March 2020
25. All of the following are RNA dependent
(b) 22 March 2020 RNA polymerase (RdRp) inhibitor tested
(c) 24 March 2020 for treatment of COVID-19 except:
(d) 25 March 2020 (a) Aribidol
19. Aarogya setu app launched on? (b) Remdesivir
(a) 25 March 2020 (c) Favipiravir
(b) 1 April 2020 (d) Ribavirin
(c) 2 April 2020
26. COVID-19 tracking mobile app developed
(d) 10 April 2020 by national informatic centre, under
20. Privileged communication is made ministry of electronic & information
between technology, govt. of India is known as.
(a) Patient & doctor (a) Nikshay
(b) Doctor & Court of law (b) Aarogya setu.
(c) Doctor & Concerned authority (c) COVA
(d) Doctor & Relatives (d) Ayush COVID kavach/Ayush sanjivani app
21. All are true Regarding HCQ 27. False statement regarding SARS – COV2 is:
(Hydroxychloroquine) except: (a) Enveloped virus
(a) HCQ should be avoided if QTc>500ms (b) SARS – CoV2 name is given by
(b) It is also tried for treatment COVID19 infection international Committee on taxonomy of
(c) An ECG should ideally be done before virus on 11 Feb.2020
prescribing the drug to measure QTc (c) Segmented, Non-enveloped virus
interval (d) May cause ARDS
(d) HCQ is also useful for treatment of
psoriasis ANSWER KEY
22. All of the following are adverse effects of
1. [a] 2. [a] 3. [a] 4. [d] 5. [c]
Hydroxychloroquine except: 6. [b] 7. [a] 8. [b] 9. [a] 10. [d]
(a) Black water fever
11. [a] 12. [a] 13. [a] 14. [b] 15. [a]
(b) QTc prolongation
16. [d] 17. [a] 18. [b] 19. [c] 20. [c]
21. [d] 22. [a] 23. [a] 24. [c] 25. [a]
(c) Mental disturbances
26. [b] 27. [c]
(d) Retinopathy
23. All of the following drugs act by inhibiting
entry of SARS-COV2 in the cell except:
(a) Remdesivir
(b) Hydroxychloroquine (HCQ)
(c) Camostat
(d) Arbidol
-:: 27 ::-
Mucormycosis Health Programme
1. Which of the following is an international

1. Which statement said by nurse is considered
agency which assist in Programme that
wrong about mucormycosis?
(a) It is opportunistic infection benefit child health most?
(b) It is fungal infection (a) UNDP (b) WHO
(c) It is chronic reversible localized infection (c) UNICEF (d) Red Cross
(d) It associated with covid 19 2. One basic health worker (multipurpose
2. Most common causative organism responsible worker) for 10000 populations was
for mucormycosis is recommended by:
(a) Rhizopus (b) Mucor (a) Chadha committee
(c) Rhizomucor (d) Liethemia (b) Mukherjee committee
3. What is mode of transmission of (c) Bhore committee
mucormycosis? (d) Mudaliar committee
(a) Inhalation of spores 3. All are true about Anganwadi workers except:
(b) Ingestion of spores (a) Part time worker
(c) Direct contact of injured skin with (b) Covers population of 5000
contaminated soil (c) Supply Nutrition and educate about
(d) All of them vaccination
4. What assessment finding does not expect (d) Under controls ICDS
during history collection of patient having 4. All are true about midday meal Programme
mucormycosis? except:
(a) DKA patient (a) Should supply one-third daily calories and half
(b) Renal transplant patient of daily protein
(c) Thalassemia patient (b) Substitute for regular food
(d) None of them (c) Locally available foods are used
(e) all of them (d) Cheap and easy to prepare
5. Most common type of mucormycosis? 5. Mid-day Meal Programme the meals served
(a) Pulmonary mucormycosis should supply at least.........of the total energy
(b) Disseminated mucormycosis requirement:
(c) Rhino-cerebral mucormycosis (a) 1/3rd (b) 1/4th
(d) cutaneous mucormycosis (c) 1/6th (d) 3/4th
6. Confirmatory diagnosis test for 6. The WHO initiative "Right to Sight" is named
mucormycosis? as:
(a) RT-PCR (b) CT/MRI (a) Vision 2015 (b) Vision 2020
(c) Tissue biopsy (d) None of the above (c) Vision 2030 (d) Vision 2025
7. Which assessment seen in HRCT of patient 7. The diseases that comes under National vector
having mucormycosis? borne disease control program are EXCEPT
(a) Homan sign (a) Filariasis (b) Japanese encephalitis
(b) Reverse halo sign (c) Malaria (d) Swine flu
(c) Ground glass opacity 8. National malaria eradication program was
(d) Blue botter launched in the year:
8. Drug of choice in mucormycosis? (a) 1953 (b) 1958
(a) Fluconazole (b) Amphotericine B (c) 1970 (d) 2002
(c) Remdesivir (d) Corticosteroid 9. Management of area with Annual Parasite
Index (API) less than 2 include EXCEPT
ANSWER KEY (a) Regular insecticidal spray
1. [c] 2. [a] 3. [d] 4. [d] 5. [c] (b) Passive surveillance
6. [c] 7. [b] 8. [b] (c) Detected cases gets radical treatment
❑❑❑ (d) Follow-up blood smears are to be collected
-:: 28 ::-
10. Case finding in RNTCP is based on: 22. Which of the following day is celebrated as
(a) Sputum culture (b) Sputum microscopy world environment day?
(c) X-ray chest (d) Mantoux test/PCR (a) May 1 (b) September 5
11. Beti bachao beti padhao programme was first (c) December 1 (d) June 5
launched in which state? 23. Which of the following is an activity of under-
(a) Haryana (b) Bihar five clinics?
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Delhi (a) Mid-day meal program
12. JSY stands for: (b) Child education
(a) Janani Swetchath Yojana (c) Growth monitoring
(b) Jan suraksha Yojana (d) School health services
(c) Janani Suraksha Yojana 24. Which of the following is observed as anti-
(d) Jan Sulabh-sauchalay Yojan malaria month?
13. The act that is recommended for provision of (a) December (b) May
crèches for Women In factory: (c) June (d) January
(a) ESI Act 1948 25. The Goal of Health for all by 2000 AD" was
(b) The Indian Mines Act 1923 proposed in world health assembly in the year:
(c) The Factories Act 1976 (a) 1966 (b) 1948
(d) CGHS (c) 1957 (d) 1978
14. ESI ACT, 1948 was last amended in the year 26. Alma Ata Declaration was made in:
(a) 2008 (b) 1998 (a) 1948 (b) 1978
(c) 1989 (d) 2010 (c) 1967 (d) 2002
15. International labor organization is situated in: 27. National tuberculosis control program was
(a) Geneva (b) Denmark adopted in India in the year:
(c) Scotland (d) United states of America (a) 1960 (b) 1966
16. An employer contributes.......percentage of (c) 1962 (d) 1964
water of wages for the benefit of employee in 28. Which day is celebrated as Labor Day?
every wage period under ESI Act. (a) 1st June (b) 30th May
(a) 1.75% (b) 4.75% (c) 1st May (d) None of the above
(c) 2.35% (d) 3.75% 29. MTP Act (1971) in India specifies all of the
17. Midday meal program started in .......year? following except
(a) 1960 (b) 1995 (a) Persons who should perform abortion
(c) 1961 (d) 2001 (b) Conditions for abortion
18. Health survey and development committee is (c) Techniques of abortions
also known as..................? (d) Place for conducting abortions
(a) Bhore committee 30. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana is a
(b) Chadah committee Government run insurance scheme for
(c) Srivastava committee (a) Poor people
(d) Mukherjee committee. (b) Older persons
19. Bhore Committee was appointed by the Govt. (c) Girl children
of India in the year: (d) All women
(a) 1933 (b) 1953 31. Which of the following is the Beti Padhao
(c) 1943 (d) 1963 Scheme?
20. Child Survival and Safe Motherhood (CSSM) (a) Financial help for girl child until her 14 years of
programme was replaced by which program in age
India? (b) Celebrate girl child help and enable her
(a) MCH (b) NRHM education
(c) RCH (d) ICDS (c) Government of employment for girl child
21. In India the target disease included in vision (d) All of the above
2020 is: 32. in which state Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
(a) Cataract Scheme was launched?
(b) Refractive errors (a) Rajasthan (b) Haryana
(c) Childhood blindness (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Bihar
-:: 29 ::-
33. Name the special deposit account under Beti 43. Recent Mental Health Act in India is
Bachao Beti Padhao scheme? designated as
(a) Suraksha Samriddhi Account (a) Mental Health Act (2011)
(b) Sukanya Samriddhi Account (b) Mental Healthcare Act 2017
(c) Beti Samriddhi Account (c) Mental Health and Lunatics Act (2011)
(d) Janani Samriddhi Account (d) Mental Health and Illness Act (2011)
34. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana will 44. National family health survey done in
cover every………
(a) Death due to accident (a) 6 months (b) 1 year
(b) Disablement due to accident (c) 5 years (d) 10 years
(c) Both disablement and death due to accident 45. National tuberculosis control programme was
(d) Death due to communicable diseases launch in the year of.............
35. What is the cover amount for full disability in (a)1962 (b) 1992
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana? (c) 1995 (d) 1997
(a) 1 lakh (b) 2 lakhs 46. Revised national tuberculosis control program
(c) 4 lakhs (d) 5 lakhs Launched in the year of............
36. Which of the following is NOT induced as a (a) 1962 (b) 1997
target disease in Vision 2020, a global initiative (c) 1995 (d) 1992
to reduce avoidable blindness by the year 2020 47. First round of pulse polio immunization
(a) Cataract program launched in the year of............
(b) Refractive error (a) 1962 (b) 1997
(c) Childhood blindness (c) 1995 (d) 1993
(d) Diabetic retinopathy 48. NRHM was started in:
37. Components of RCH 1 include all of the (a) 2005 (b) 2006
following EXCEPT (c) 2007 (d) 2008
(a) Family planning 49. The main objective of Janani Suraksha Yojana
(b) CSSM is
(c) Prevention of STD (a) Tetanus immunization
(d) Emergency obstetric care (b) Institutional deliveries
38. Component of RCH II include all EXCEPT (c) Iron supplementation
(a) Emergency obstetric care (d) Nutritional supplementation
(b) Essential obstetric care 50. Full form of ASHA is
(c) Family planning (a) Accredited Social Health Activist
(d) Strengthening of referral system (b) Accredited School Health Act
39. Vande Mataram scheme is included in (C) A specific health agent
(a) RCH program (d) Association of School Health Activist
(b) JSY program 51. All are included in National Rural Health
(c) IMNCI program Mission except:
(d) ICDS program (a) Strengthening of JSY (Janani Suraksha Yojana)
40. Urban malaria scheme is based on (b) Formation of family health and social welfare
(a) Epidemiological survey (c) State and district health mission
(b) Anti-adult mosquito measure (d) Recruitment and training of ASHA
(c) Anti-larval measures 52. "JSY' stands for:
(d) Chemoprophylaxis (a) Janani Suraksha Yojana
41. RNTCP case finding is (b) Janani Samriddhi Yojana
(a) Active (b) Passive (C) Janani Swarojgar Yojana
(c) Active and Passive (d) None of the above (d) Janani Sampooma Yojana
42. As per RCH, the community health centres are 53. All are correct statement about ASHA except:
(a) First referral unit (a) Female trained village guide
(b) Secondary referral unit (b) One for per village
(c) Tertiary referral unit
(c) One for per 1000 population
(d) Female untrained guide
-:: 30 ::-
54. ASHA scheme is associated with: 63. Kishori Shakti Yojana has been designed to
(a) ICDS improve nutritional status of
(b) Rural health mission (a) Adult men
(c) 20 points programme (b) Adolescent girls
(d) Minimum needs programme (c) Under five children
55. Under NRHM, lowest level at which Health (d) Senior citizens
Action prepared is: 64. According to IMNCI, fast breathing in 5
(a) State level months child in defined as
(b) District level (a) >30/min
(c) Village level (b) >40/min
(d) Sub center level (c) >50/min
56. Under National Rural Health mission, who will (d) >60/min
be person between community and health 65. IMNCI differs from IMCI in all except:
care services? (a) Malaria and Anemia are included
(a) Anganwadi worker (b) TBA (b) 0-7 days infants are included
(c) ASHA (d) ANM (c) Sick neonates are preferred over sick older
57. What is the aim of swajal dhara? children
(a) Providing safe drinking water (d) Treatment is aimed at more than one disease
(b) Promotion of institutional delivery (condition) at a time
(c) Providing irrigation facilities for barrel lands 66. Integrated Management of Neonatal and
(d) Interlinking of river project Childhood Illness (IMNCI) includes the
58. IMNCI refers to following except:
(a) Integrated mother and neonatal critical illness (a) Malaria
(b) Integrated mother and newborn clinical (b) Respiratory infections
interventions (c) Diarrhea
(c) Integrated management of neonatal and (d) Tuberculosis
childhood illness 67. Integrated Management of Childhood Illness
(d) Integrated management of metal and clinical (IMCI) initiative was taken to prevent
illness morbidity and mortality from all of the
59. A patient treated at home allotted which color following except:
code according to IMNCI coding (a) Malaria
(a)Pink (b) Red (b) Malnutrition
(c) Green (d) Yellow (c) Otitis Media
60. RCH phase 2 does not included: (d) Neonatal tetanus
(a) Immunization of pregnant women 68. IMNCI includes all except:
(b) Treatment of STD/KTI (a) Tetanus
(b) Acute respiratory tract infection
(c) Feed to malnourished children
(a) Measles
(d) Early registration of pregnancy up to 12-16
(d) Malaria
week 69. Kishori Shakti Yojana (KSY) is
61. IMNCI target groups is (a) Empowerment of females under Maternity
(a) Up to 5 yrs
Benefit Scheme
(b) Up to 10 yrs
(b) Adolescent girl's scheme under ICDS
(c) Up to 15 yrs
(d) Up to 20 yrs (c) Free and compulsory education for girl child
62. IMNCI includes management of all of (d) Child care home scheme for female juvenile
conditions EXCEPT delinquents
(a) Diarrhea 70. RNTCP, Category II treatment comprises
(b) Measles (a) 2H3R3Z3E3 + 4H3R3
(c) Acute respiratory infections (b) 2H3R3Z3E3S3 + 1H3R3Z3E3+ 5H3R3E3
(d) Vitamin A deficiency (c) 2H3R3Z3E3 + 5H3R3Z
(d) None
-:: 31 ::-
71. RNTCP case finding is 79. National malaria control programme was
(a) Active launched in the year of...........
(b) Passive (a) 1921
(c) Both (b) 1953
(d) None (c) 1954
72. True statement regarding RNTCP includes all (d) 1960
except: 80. Red cross society established in..............
(a) Sputum microscopy (a) 1920
(b) Exclusion of private practitioners (b) 1953
(c) Participation of all health workers (c) 1954
(d) Provide latest equipment (d) 1960
73. ICDS was launched in 81. The Children's Act was passed in
(a) 1955 (a) 1969
(b) 1968 (b) 1960
(c) 1975 (c) 1971
(d) 2005 (d) 1986
74. Administrative unit of the ICDS project in rural 82. Red cross society was founded by
areas is (a) Alfred
(a) PHC (b) Henry Dunant
(b) Community development block (c) Emyllin
(c) Zila Parishad (d) William James
(d) Gram Panchayat 83. In India the ESI Act was enacted in the year
75. The Panchayati Raj consists of 3 tier (a) 1942
structures: (b) 1948
(a) Panchayat, Panchayat samiti, Municipal area (c) 1950
committee (d) 1952
(b) Panchayat, Panchayat samiti, and Zila 84. All are true of Mid day School Meal Programme
Parishad except:
(c) Panchayat, Tehsil Blocks (a) Should supply one-third daily calories and half
(d) Panchayat, Tehsil Blocks and municipal Board of daily protein.
(b) Is a substitute for regular Food
76. ICDS does not cover: (c) Locally available foods are used
(a) Nutritional supplementation (d) Cheap and easy to prepare
(b) Formal education 85. Which is the following would contribute to
(c) Health education growth monitoring of under-five children?
(d) Immunization (a) Health education
77. Which of the following disease is not included (b) Road to health chart
in "Vision 2020-Right to sight" immediate (c) Apgar Score
goals? (d) Weight Monitoring
86. In ICDS all of the following are included
(a) Cataract
except:
(b) Onchocerciasis
(a) Immunization
(c) Trachoma (b) Health Education
(d) Epidemic conjunctivitis (c) Prevention of iodine deficiency disorders
78. Vitamin A supplement administered under (d) Supplementary nutrition
"National Programme for Prevention of 87. According to ICDS programme, children should
Nutritional Blindness", contains: be supplemented with which of the following?
(a) 125,000 IU/ml (a) 200 cal + 20 g proteins
(b) 1 Lakh IU/mL (b) 300 cal + 15 g proteins
(c) 3 Lakh IU/mL (c) 500 cal + 25 g proteins
(d) 5 Lakh IU/mL (d) 300 cal + 10 g proteins
-:: 32 ::-
88. Which of the following is known as 'Heart of
ICDS system? Environmental Health
(a) Mother and children
(b) CDPO 1. True about slow sand filter is:
(a) Occupies less space
(c) Primary Health Center
(b) More expensive
(d) Anganwadi
(c) Requires longer duration
89. Guidelines for Baby friendly hospital initiative (d) Sand size 0.4-0.7mm
include following EXCEPT? 2. Slow sand filter is differentiated from rapid
(a) Mothers and infant to be together for 24 hours sand filter by
a day (a) Bacteria are removed more effectively
(b) Mother to initiate beast-feeding in 4 hours (b) Skilled person is needed
(c) Cost construction is cheaper.
normal delivery
(d) Sand particle are of bigger size
(c) Giving newborn infants no food or drink only
3. Purest water in nature is:
breast milk. (a) River water
(d) Encouraging breast-feeding on demand (b) Rain water
90. Under MCH programme: IFA tablets to be (c) Deep well
given daily to mother has (d) Impounding reservoirs
(a) 60 mg iron + 500 mcg folic acid 4. Residual Chlorine after chlorination of water
should be
(b) 100 mg iron + 500 mcg folic acid
(a) 1 mg/L after 1 hour
(c) 60 mg iron +100 mcg folic acid (b) 1 mg/L after 30 Minutes
(d) 100 mg iron +100 mcg folic acid (c) < 0.5 mg/L after 1 hour
(d) 0.5 mg/L after 45 hour
5. The minimum recommended level of residual
ANSWER KEY chlorine in the drinking water is for one hour
1. [c] 2. [a] 3. [b] 4. [b] 5. [a] (a) 0.25 mg/L
6. [b] 7. [d] 8. [b] 9. [a] 10. [b] (b) 0.5 mg/L
11. [a] 12. [c] 13. [c] 14. [d] 15. [a] (c) 1.0 mg/L
16. [b] 17. [b] 18. [a] 19. [c] 20. [c] (d) 10 mg/L
21. [d] 22. [d] 23. [c] 24. [c] 25. [d] 6. Hardness of water is expressed as:
26. [b] 27. [c] 28. [c] 29. [c] 30. [a] (a) OZ/L
31. [b] 32. [b] 33. [b] 34. [c] 35. [b] (b) mg/L
36. [d] 37. [d] 38. [c] 39. [a] 40. [c] (c) mg%
41. [b] 42. [a] 43. [b] 44. [c] 45. [a] (d) mEq/L
46. [b] 47. [c] 48. [a] 49. [b] 50. [a] 7. How much gram of chlorine tablet is required
to disinfect 20 liters of water?
51. [b] 52. [a] 53. [d] 54. [b] 55. [c]
(a) 0.2 g
56. [c] 57. [a] 58. [c] 59. [c] 60. [c]
(b) 0.3 g
61. [a] 62. [d] 63. [b] 64. [c] 65. [c]
(c) 0.5 g
66. [d] 67. [d] 68. [a] 69. [b] 70. [b]
(d) 1.0 g
71. [b] 72. [b] 73. [c] 74. [b] 75. [b]
8. Hardness of water can be removed by
76. [b] 77. [d] 78. [b] 79. [b] 80. [a]
(a) Adding sodium carbonate into water
81. [b] 82. [b] 83. [b] 84. [b] 85. [b]
(b) Base exchange process
86. [c] 87. [a] 88. [a] 89. [b] 90. [b] (c) Chlorination
❑❑❑
9. Contact time for chlorination is:
(a) 4 hour
(b) 1/2 hour
(c) 1 hour
(d) 2 hour
-:: 33 ::-
10. Disinfecting action of chlorine on water is 19. Which of the following is used as an indicator
mainly due to: for recent fecal contamination of water:
(a) Hydrogen Chlorine (a) E coli
(b) Hypochlorus acid
(b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
(c) Hypochlorite ions
(c) Pseudomonas
(d) Hydrogen
11. True statement regarding chlorination is (d) Streptococci
(a) Orthotolidine test measures free chlorine 20. Not seen In Fecal pollution is
separately (a) E.coli
(b) Chlorine acts best when pH is around 7 (b) Staphylococcus
(c) It kills bacteria, viruses and spores (c) Streptococcus
(d) Hypochlorite ions are mainly responsible for
(d) Clostridium Perfringens
disinfecting activity
12. Orthotolidine test is used to detect 21. Temporary hardness of water is due to
(a) Free residual chlorine presence of:
(b) Bound chlorine (a) Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
(c) Free and combined chlorine (b) Chlorides of calcium and magnesium
(d) Chlorine demand (c) Nitrates of calcium and magnesium
13. Fresh Bleaching powder contains:
(d) Oxides of calcium and magnesium
(a) 33% chlorine
22. Maximum permissible chloride level is:
(b) 3.3% chlorine
(a) 200 mg/L
(c) 0.33% chlorine
(b) 300 mg/L
(d) 0.033% chlorine
(c) 500 mg/L
14. Venturi meter is used for measuring
(d) 600 mg/L
(a) The bed strength in slow sand filter
23. Which among the following is regarded as the
(b) Amount required for chlorination
most widely and commonly distributed air
(c) Airflow direction
pollutant?
(d) Airflow velocity
(a) Carbon monoxide
15. Not a feature of hard water is:
(b) Carbon dioxide
(a) Increased fuel consumption
(c) Hydrocarbons
(b) Erosion of lead pipe
(d) Ozone
(c) Scaling of boiler
24. All of the following waste water contains
(d) Decreased soap consumption
human excreta except:
16. Coliform test is for
(a) Sewage
(a) Air pollution
(b) Sullage
(b) Water contamination
(c) Feces
(c) Sound pollution
(d) None
(d) None
25. Vital layer in slow sand filter is seen:
17. The best bacterial indicator of water
(a) Top of water
contamination is
(b) On the sand bed
(a) Streptococci Fecalis (c) Near filter valves
(b) E. coli (d) None
(c) Clostridium Perfringens
(d) Klebsiella ANSWER KEY
18. Fecal contamination of drinking water is 1. [c] 2. [a] 3. [b] 4. [c] 5. [b]
6. [b] 7. [c] 8. [d] 9. [b] 10. [b]
indicated by the presence of
11. [b] 12. [c] 13. [a] 14. [a] 15. [d]
(a) Klebsiella
16. [b] 17. [b] 18. [b] 19. [a] 20. [b]
(b) E.coli
21. [a] 22. [d] 23. [a] 24. [b] 25. [b]
(c) Proteus ❑❑❑
(d) Coagulase
-:: 34 ::-
10. Vitamin K at birth is administered to
Primary Health Care ...............Newborns.
(a) Prevent excessive bleeding
1. Gray baby syndrome is caused by.........
(b) Increase immunity
(a) Chloramphenicol (b) Amphotericin B
(c) Vancomycin (d) Tetracycline (c) Prevent Infection
2. A newly married healthy couple is asking for (d) Correct malnutrition
the best method of contraception and which of 11. Warm Chain means........
the following methods a nurse will advise? (a) Drying the baby
(a) Barrier method (b) Establishing skin to skin contact with mother
(b) Rhythm method
and immediate initiation of breastfeeding
(c) Intrauterine devices
(d) Combined Oral Pills (c) Warm resuscitation and warm transportation
3. The best time for insertion of IUCD in women (d) All of the above
is: 12. Apgar score helps to assess depression of:
(a) Within first week of cessation of menstrual (a) Cardiopulmonary functions
period (b) Psychomotor functions
(b) Fourteen days after menstrual period
(c) Integumentary functions
(c) One week before menstrual period
(d) Cardiopulmonary and neurologic function
(d) During menstrual period
4. Neural tube defect occurs due to lack of…..... 13. Apgar score of 4-6 of newborn indicates
(a) Folic acid (a) Severe depression
(b) Calcium (b) Mild depression
(c) Niacin (c) Moderate depression
(d) Riboflavin (d) No depression
5. Baby friendly hospital initiative was started in
14. Normal umbilical cord contains:
India in the year:
(a) 1 arteries and 2 veins
(a) 1993 (b) 1991
(c) 1996 (d) 1990 (b) 2 arteries and 1 vein
6. Rooming in practice means keeping mother (c) 1 arteries and 1 vein
and infant together (d) 2 arteries and 2 vein
(a) For 24 hours a day 15. Primary postpartum hemorrhage occurs
(b) For 8 hours within............. hours of delivery:
(c) Whenever baby demands for feeding
(a) 6 hours
(d) Whenever infant becomes hypothermic
7. Exclusive breastfeeding helps mother in, (b) 8 hours
except (c) 12 hours
(a) Prevention of cervical cancer (d) 24 hours
(b) Prevention of breast cancer 16. The management of postpartum hemorrhage
(c) Act as a contraceptive method includes all, EXCEPT:
(d) Helps in quick and early involution of uterus
(a) Bimanual uterine compression
8. Prolactin reflex in mother causes:
(b) Administration of oxytocin
(a) Ejection of milk
(b) Production of milk (c) Controlled cord traction
(c) Suppression of milk production (d) Administration of progesterone
(d) Storage of milk 17. Detection of high levels of alpha fetoprotein in
9. Baby with birth weight of 1000-2000 gm are mother's blood indicates that developing baby
termed as: has....
(a) Low birth weight babies
(a) Coarctation of aorta
(b) Very low birth weight babies
(b) Delayed skeletal development
(c) Small for date baby
(d) Extremely low birth weight babies (c) Neural tube defect
(d) Development of tumor
-:: 35 ::-
18. Kegel exercises during pregnancy helps in
strengthening of: Disaster
(a) Pelvic floor muscle
(b) Psoas muscle 1. Post disaster (earthquake) in Pakistan, which
of the following vaccines is recommended by
(c) Rectus abdominis
WHO?
(d) Quadrates lumborum
(a) Typhoid (b) Cholera
19. Punnett square is useful for.............. (C) Tetanus (d) None of the above
(a) To determine the probability of an offspring 2. Chernobyl nuclear explosion accident
having a particular genotype occurred on 26th April, 1986. It resulted in
(b) To determine the incidence of disease emission of:
condition (a) Methyl isocyanate (MIC)
(b) Union carbide
(c) To determine the surveillance of the disease
(C) Ur235, Po210
condition
(d) Cs134, Cs137, Sr90
(d) To determine the outcome of disease 3. In draughts, commonly noticed vitamin
condition deficiency is:
20. Human milk is rich in all, EXCEPT (a) Vitamin A
(a) Fat (b) Vitamin B
(b) Protein (c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
(c) Iron
4. Arrange the following phases of Disaster Cycle
(d) Carbohydrate in a logical sequence:
21. Exclusive breastfeeding refers to feeding of (a) Disaster impact-Mitigation-Rehabilitation -
infant only with breast milk for the period of Response
(a) 3 months (b) Disaster impact-Response-Rehabilitation-
(b) 6 months Mitigation
(c) Rehabilitation-Response-Disaster impact-
(c) 8 months
Mitigation
(d) 12 months
(d) Response-Disaster impact-Rehabilitation-
22. Neonatal tetanus can be prevented Mitigation
through............ 5. During a disaster, rapidly classifying the
(a) Clean surface of delivery injured on the basis of likelihood of their
(b) Clean hand of the attendant survival with prompt medical intervention, is a
(c) Clean cord cutting part of:
(a) Search, rescue and first aid
(b) Triage
(c) Tagging
ASWER KEY (d) Disaster mitigation
1. [a] 2. [d] 3. [a] 4. [a] 5. [a] 6. Most commonly reported disease in the post
6. [a] 7. [a] 8. [b] 9. [b] 10. [a] disaster period is:
11. [d] 12. [d] 13. [c] 14. [b] 15. [d] (a) Acute Respiratory Infections
16. [d] 17. [c] 18. [a] 19. [a] 20. [c] (b) Gastroenteritis
21. [b] 22. [d] (c) Tetanus
❑❑❑ (d) Malaria
7. As per the most common classification of
Triage system that is internationally accepted,
the colour code that indicates high priority
treatment or transfer is:
(a) Black (b) Yellow
(c) Red (d) Blue
-:: 36 ::-
8. Black colour in triage is: 18. In a disaster management triage, patients
(a) Death who need surgery within 24 hours, are
(b) Transfer categorized under which color category:
(c) High priority (a) Red
(d) Low priority (b) Green
9. All vaccines are NOT given in disaster, except: (C) Blue
(a) Cholera (d) Black
(b) Polio 19. In disaster management all are true except:
(c) Tetanus (a) Mitigation before a disaster strikes
(d) Measles (b) Response in pre-disaster phase
10. True about triage is: (c) Yellow color is for medium priority
(a) Yellow-least priority (d) Gastroenteritis is commonest infection after
(b) Red-morbidity disaster
(c) Green-ambulatory 20. In disaster management following are
(d) Blue-ambulatory practiced except:
11. Natural disaster causing maximum deaths: (a) Triage
(a) Hydrological (b) Rehabilitation
(b) Meteorological (c) Mass vaccination
(c) Geological (d) Disaster response
(d) Fires 21. Triage category correctly matched is:
12. Triage is: (a) Red - Deceased/ dead
(a) A concept in trauma (b) Black - Minor injuries
(b) A method of breast lump diagnosis (c) Green - Immediate intervention needed
(c) An investigation for duodenum and pancreas (d) Yellow - Stable patient, Needs observation
(d) Management of old age health problems 22. Triage means:
13. Epidemics after disaster are caused by all (a) First come first serve basis
except: (b) Treating person with better prognosis
(a) Leptospirosis (c) Labeling the death patients
(b) Rickettsiosis (d) Identifying seriously ill who needs treatment
(c) Leishmaniasis first
(d) Acute respiratory infection 23. In a Triage black color is for:
14. The gas responsible for Bhopal gas tragedy (a) Immediate resuscitation required
was: (b) Ambulatory patients
(a) Methyl isocyanate (c) Unsalvageable
(b) Potassium isothiocyanate (d) Highest priority patients
(c) Sodium isothiocyanate 24. During disaster management the following
(d) Ethyl isothiocyanate condition would be classified under
15. Which epidemic does not occur after a international code green signal:
disaster? (a) High priority treatment
(a) Leptospirosis (b) Medium priority treatment
(b) Leishmaniasis (c) Ambulatory patient
(c) ARTI (d) Dead patients
(d) Rickettsia ANSWER KEY
16. Nodal centre in case of disaster management: 1. [d] 2. [d] 3. [a] 4. [b] 5. [b]
(a) PHC (b) Sub centre 6. [b] 7. [c] 8. [a] 9. [c] 10. [c]
(c) CHC (d) District 11. [a] 12. [a] 13. [c] 14. [a] 15. [b]
17. During massive disaster what should be done 16. [d] 17. [a] 18. [b] 19. [b] 20. [c]
first? 21. [d] 22. [d] 23. [c] 24. [c]
(a) Search and rescue, first aid ❑❑❑
(b) Triage
(c) Stabilization of victims
(d) Hospital treatment and redistribution of
patients to hospital if necessary
-:: 37 ::-
10. Exposure to noise above........... Cause
OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH permanent loss of hearing.
(a) 100 dB (b) 90 dB
1. Ergonomics is a science of: (c) 85 dB (d) 160 dB
(a) Designing the job to fit to the worker 11. The level of noise that can be tolerated
(b) Training the worker to fit to the job without damage to hearing is
(c) Prevention of occupational diseases (a) Up to 60 dB (b) Up to 85 dB
(d) Recruiting the employee to fit for the job (c) Up to 95 dB (d) Up to 120 dB
2. Cutaneous vasoconstriction on exposure to 12. The 'acceptable' noise level is:
hypothermia results in: (a) 85 dB (b) 90 dB
(a) Immersion foot (c) 95 dB (d) 100 dB
(b) Frost bite 13. Unit of absorbed radiation is:
(c) Erythrocyanosis (a) Roentgen (b) Rad
(d) All of the above (c) Rem (d) Sievert like
3. Lead is widely used in variety of industries 14. Which of the following would the nurse
because of its Properties: EXCEPT reinforce after a teaching session as the most
(a) Low boiling point important lifestyle modification for the
(b) Anti-corrosive patient whose age is 59yr; Height 5'11", weight
(c) Non-oxidizing 280 pounds and is hypertensive?
(d) Mixes with other easily (a) Reduce weight
4. Appearance of Burton's line in lead poisoning: (b) Restrict salt intake
(a) Bluish purple line on gums (c) Increase potassium intake
(b) Greenish purple line on gums (d) Decrease alcohol intake
(c) Brown purple line on gums 15. DDT is a:
(d) Pale purple line on gums (a) Contact poison (b) CNS poison
5. Role of occupational health nurse includes the (c) Stomach poison (d) None of the above
following EXCEPT: 16. SAFE strategy is recommended for the control
(a) Prevention of workplace accidents and injuries of Trachoma. SAFE contain all the following
(b) Promotion of health and work ability components EXCEPT
(c) Improving environment health for (a) Surgery
occupational health workers (b) Annual eye check up
(d) Improve the productivity outcome of workers (c) Facial cleanliness
6. Continuous vomiting can lead to........ (d) Environmental hygiene
(a) Respiratory acidosis 17. Leading cause of blindness in India is........
(b) Respiratory alkalosis (a) Cataract (b) Trachoma
(c) Metabolic acidosis (c) Glaucoma (d) Vitamin A deficiency
(d) Metabolic alkalosis 18. Chronic exposure to poor lighting causes:
7. A 14-year-child having lost his father a year (a) Miner's nystagmus
ago, is caught shoplifting. The boy will be sent (b) White finger
to (c) Cataract
(a) Orphanage (d) Blurring of vision
(b) Remand Home 19. Arc welders are more prone to suffer
(c) Prison from.................occupation hazard
(d) Anganwadi (a) Glaucoma
8. Most common heavy metal poisoning in the (b) Welder' flash
world: (c) Welder's cataract
(a) Lead (b) Arsenic (d) Temporary blindness
(c) Mercury (d) Cadmium 20. Following are the diseases that comes under
9. Which of the following is non natural gas pneumoconiosis EXCEPT
causing greenhouse effect? (a) Silicosis
(a) Carbon Dioxide (b) Methane (b) Asbestosis
(c) Ozone (d) CFCs (c) Siderosis
(d) Psittacosis
-:: 38 ::-
21. Anthracosis is caused due to inhalation of: 34. Temporary hardness of water is removed by
(a) Coal particles (b) Sugarcane dust (a) Boiling
(c) Cotton dust (d) Silicon dust particles (b) Filtration
22. Bagassosis is caused by inhalation of: (c) SODIS method
(a) Sugarcane dust (b) Cotton dust (d) Addition of chlorine
(c) Jute dust (d) Coal dust 35. Optimum level of fluoride in drinking water
23. Strategies to prevent occupational dermatitis per liter is:
include: (a) 1-2 mg/L
(a) Pre selection examination (b) 0.05 -0.08 mg/L
(b) Application of barrier creams (C) 0.7 – 1.2 mg/L
(c) Use of protective equipment and periodic (d) 0.5 - 0.8 mg/L
health check up 36. "Monday morning fever' is common name for:
(d) All of the above (a) Asbestosis (b) Bagassosis
24. Which is the best test to detect iron deficiency (c) Byssinosis (d) Mad Hatter's disease
in a client? 37. The most effective method of well disinfection
(a) Ferrous sulfate (b) Serum Ferritin is done by:
(c) Serum Iron (d) Hemoglobin
(a) Chlorine tablets (b) KMnO4
25. Name the classification developed by WHO for
(c) Per chlorine (d) CaOCl2
disability:
(a) International classification of functioning, 38. Vitamin D resistant rickets is a (an)
disability and health (a) X-linked recessive disorder
(b) Kuppuswamy classification (b) X-linked dominant disorder
(c) NYHA classification (c) Autosomal recessive disorder
(d) FAB classification (d) Autosomal dominant disorder
26. Monday fever is also known as......... 39. The diagram that is word to predict possible
(a) Bagassosis (b) Byssinosis genotypes in an offspring is known as
(c) Asbestosis (d) COPD (a) Genogram
27. Which of following agent is responsible for (b) Punnett square
Bagassosis? (c) Pedigree chart
(a) Smoke (b) Silica (d) All of the above
(c) Sugarcane dust (d) Coal 40. The most characteristic and specific signs of
28. Scotch tape swab is used to identify........ Vitamin A deficiency is/are
(a) Tape worm (b) Pinworm (a) Eye lesion (b) Color blindness
(c) Anglostoma (d) Cryptosporidium (c) Blurring of vision (d) Double Vision
29. As per WHO, blindness is if visual acuity less 41. The most common congenital lesbian in North
than India
(a) 6/18 (b) 6/24 (a) Cleft lip and cleft palate
(c) 3/60 (d) 6/60 (b) Club foot
30. Occupational exposure that may cause (c) Neural tube defect
sterility in females: (d) Congenital heart diseases
(a) Aniline (b) Lead 42. which of the following is the major risk factor
(c) Radon (d) Nickel of candidiasis of oral cavity?
31. the most common cause of Urinary Tract (a) Poor personal hygiene
Infection (UTI) in community is: (b) Alcoholism
(a) E.coli (b) Klebsiella (c) Thiamine deficiency
(c) Citrobacter (d) Proteus Vulgaris (d) Smoking
32. Hookworm penetrates into the body by 43. While teachings patient with COPD regarding
penetrating the skin cardiac failure, community health nurse
(a) Hand (b) Foot should emphasize
(c) Ear (d) Head (a) Rest in between exercise
33. Filariasis is caused by (b) Avoid exercise
(a) Bacteria (b) Protozoa (c) Exercise strenuously
(c) Fungus (d) Virus (d) Take medication in between exercise
-:: 39 ::-
44. Childhood obesity prevention is a type of 55. Modifiable risk factors for hypertension is
(a) Primordial prevention (a) Ethnicity (b) Age
(b) Primary prevention (c) Sex (d) Obesity
(c) Secondary prevention 56. Not included among major criteria in acute
(d) Tertiary prevention rheumatic fever is?
45. Screening of the immigrants for infectious (a) Erythema marginatum
disease is referred as (b) Polyarthralgia
(a) Primordial screening (c) Chorea
(b) Prospective screening (d) Pancarditis
(c) Prescriptive screening 57. Not a dietary modification to high risk
(d) Quarantine screening Cardiovascular Disease group is?
46. RDA of iodine for an adult is (a) LDL Cholesterol less than 100 mg/dl
(a) 50 g/day (b) 75 g/day (b) Avoidance of alcohol
(c) 100 g/day (d) 150 g/day (c) Saturated fat intake limited to 7% of total
calories
47. Vitamin A prophylaxis is an example of
(d) Salt Intake less than 5 gm/day
58. Modifiable risk factor in CHD are all except:
(b) Health protection
(c) Specific protection (a) Smoking (b) Obesity
(d) Disability limitation (c) Personality (d) Hypertension
48. Highest source of vitamin A is 59. Ideal cholesterol level should be less than:
(a) Cod liver oil (b) Green leafy vegetable (a) 200 (b) 220
(c) Amla (d) Guava (c) 300 (d) 350
49. Which of the following disease is caused by
60. The most common cancer, affecting both
deficiency of Thiamine?
males and females worldwide is:
(a) Wernicke's encephalopathy
(a) Cancer of the pancreas
(b) Cheilosis
(b) Buccal mucosa cancer
(c) Pellagra
(c) Lung cancer
(d) Colorectal cancer
50. Deficiency of............. causes Wernicke's
61. Most common cancer affecting Indian females
encephalopathy?
is:
(a) Niacin (b) Phosphorus
(a) Cervical cancer (b) Ovarian cancer
(c) B12 (d) Thiamine
(c) Breast cancer (d) Colonic cancer
51. Deficiency of which of the following vitamin
62. Most common cancer among women
causes beriberi?
worldwide is
(a) Vitamin B1 (b) Vitamin B2
(c) Vitamin B6 (d) Vitamin B12 (a) Lung cancer (b) Oral cancer
52. In India, goiter is found commonly in (c) Breast cancer (d) Gastric cancer
(a) Southern region (b) Himalayan region 63. Glycosylated hemoglobin reflects the mean
(c) Western region (d) Coastal region blood glucose level of previous:
53. While teaching "survival skills” to newly (a) 15 days (b) 1 month
diagnosed type-I diabetic patient, the
(c) 3 months (d) 6 months
community nurse should include information
about 64. A patient is called obese if BMI is:
(a) Foot care (a) 20-30 (b) >25
(b) Eliminating sugar from diet (c) >30 (d) >40
(c) Prevention of hypoglycemia 65. BMI for normal weight:
(d) Need to increase rest (a) 18.5-27.99 (b) 18.5-24.99
54. Which of the following term refers to a fungal
(c) 23.0-24.99 (d) >30
infection of foot?
66. BMI is also known as:
(A) Tinea corporis (b) Tinea pedis
(a) Quetelet Index (b) Lorentz Index
(c) Tinea capitis (d) Tinea cruris
(c) Broca Index (d) Corpulence Index
-:: 40 ::-
67. BMI is defined as: 78. "Guthrie Test" is done in neonates for mass
(a) Weight (kg)/Height (meters)2 screening of-
(b) Weight (kg)/Height (cm)2 (a) Neonatal Hypothyroidism
(c) Midarm circumference (cm) /Head (b) Phenyl ketonuria
circumference (cm) (c) Hemoglobinopathies
(d) Midarm circumference (cm) between ages 1-5 (d) Congenital Dislocation of Hip
years 79. Most common neonatal disorder screened is -
68. Most common type of blindness in India is: (a) Neonatal hypothyroidism
(a) Cataract (b) Trachoma (b) Phenylketonuria
(c) Vit A deficiency (d) Glaucoma (c) Hemoglobinopathies
69. Which vitamin deficiency causes night (d) Congenital dislocation of Hip
blindness 80. Benzene is associated with cancer of:
(a) Vitamin A (a) Vitamin B (a) Skin cancer (b) Lung cancer
(a) Vitamin C (a) Vitamin D (c) bladder cancer (d) Leukemia
70. Vitamin A is also known 81. All are disease manifestation associated with
(a) Thiamine (b) Cholecalciferol low temperature except:
(c) Tocopherol (d) Retinol (a) Frost bite (b) Trench foot
71. Which of the following is the micro nutrient? (c) Prickles (d) Chill blains
(a) Proteins (b) Zinc 82. The most common early manifestation of
(c) Vitamins (d) Calcium chronic bronchitis
72. What is the normal range of BMI (Body Mass (a) Frequent productive cough
Index)? (b) Dyspnea on exertion
(a) 0-8 (b) 8-15 (c) Cyanosis at feet
(c) 18-25 (d) 25-30 (d) Blood in sputum
73. Pellagra is characterized by 83. Following are chemical agent, that cause
(a) Diarrhea, Dermatitis, Dementia occupational dermatitis by local irritation
(b) Delusion, Diarrhea, Dementia except:
(a) Rubber (b) X-ray
(c) Deformity, Delusion, Deviated septum
(c) Lime (d) Ether
(d) Dementia, Delusion, Disarticulation
84. Occupational cancer involve following organs
74. Most common cause of stroke in India is- except:
(a) Cerebral thrombosis (a) Lung (b) Breast
(b) Cerebral embolism (c) Bladder (d) Liver
(c) Cerebral hemorrhage 85. Most common mode of lead poisoning is:
(d) Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (a) Ingestion (b) Skin
(c) Inhalation (d) Faeco-oral
75. Best method of screening for early detection
86. Asbestosis is
of breast carcinoma in women aged above 40
(a) A water borne disease
years is:
(b) An occupational disease
(a) Regular X-rays (b) Self-examination
(c) An airborne disease
(c) Mammography (d) Regular biopsy
(d) A food borne disease
76. Which is not a predisposing factor for
87. Which occupational disease is caused by
Carcinoma of cervix?
(a) Early marriage (b) Early coitus extreme cold climate?
(c) Early child bearing (d) Single child birth (a) Occupational cataract
77. Following is not a risk factor for development (b) Miner's nystagmus
of diabetes mellitus: (c) Pancytopenia
(a) Sedentary life style (d) Frost bite
(b) Protein energy malnutrition in infancy 88. Which of the following disease is caused by
(c) Excessive intake of alcohol inhalation of sugarcane dust?
(d) High intake of vitamin-A (a) Asbestosis (b) Bagassosis
(c) Byssinosis (d) Silicosis
-:: 41 ::-
89. A lung disease caused by prolonged inhalation
of cotton fiber dust is
(a) Bagassosis
(b) Byssinosis
(c) Farmers lung
(d) Pneumonia
90. 'Snow storm appearance’ in X-ray of an adult
male suggests
(a) Asbestosis
(b) Siderosis
(c) Anthracosis
(d) Silicosis
91. Diffuse Mesothelioma is seen with -
(a) Asbestos
(b) Tobacco
(c) Arsenic
(d) TB
92. "Farmers lung" is due to inhalation of-
(a) Cotton fiber
(b) Sugarcane dust
(c) Hay dust
(d) Coal dust
93. Main cause of Farmer's lung is:
(a) Pneumococcus
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) Micropolyspora Faeni
(d) Staphylococcus aureus
ANSWER KEY
1. [a] 2. [d] 3. [c] 4. [a] 5. [d]
6. [d] 7. [b] 8. [a] 9. [d] 10. [c]
11. [b] 12. [a] 13. [b] 14. [a] 15. [a]
16. [b] 17. [a] 18. [a] 19. [c] 20. [d]
21. [a] 22. [a] 23. [d] 24. [b] 25. [a]
26. [b] 27. [c] 28. [b] 29. [c] 30. [c]
31. [a] 32. [b] 33. [b] 34. [a] 35. [c]
36. [c] 37. [d] 38. [b] 39. [b] 40. [a]
41. [c] 42. [a] 43. [a] 44. [a] 45. [b]
46. [d] 47. [c] 48. [a] 49. [a] 50. [d]
51. [a] 52. [b] 53. [c] 54. [b] 55. [d]
56. [b] 57. [a] 58. [c] 59. [a] 60. [c]
61. [c] 62. [c] 63. [c] 64. [c] 65. [b]
66. [a] 67. [a] 68. [a] 69. [a] 70. [d]
71. [c] 72. [c] 73. [a] 74. [a] 75. [c]
76. [d] 77. [d] 78. [b] 79. [b] 80. [d]
81. [c] 82. [a] 83. [a] 84. [b] 85. [c]
86. [b] 87. [d] 88. [b] 89. [b] 90. [d]
91. [a] 92. [c] 93. [c]
-:: 42 ::-
Health committee Biomedical waste management
1. Other name of multipurpose worker's 1. Best method for disposal of refuse where land
committee is is available is:
(a) Bhore committee (a) Burial (b) Dumping
(b) Kartar Singh Committee (c) Manure pit (d) Controlled tipping
(c) Mudaliar committee 2. Waste water without human excreta is called
(d) Mukherji committee (a) Sewage (b) Humus
2. Other name of 'health survey and develpment (c) Sullage (d) Effluent
committee' is 3. What is the first step in sewage treatment?
(a) Bhore committee (a) Aeration (b) Chlorination
(b) Kartar Singh Committee (c) Precipitation (d) Sedimentation
(c) Mudaliar committee 4. Most hazardous pesticide color coding is:
(d) Mukherji committee (a) Red (b) Green
3. Health survey and planning committee is also (c) Yellow (d) Black
known as 5. Sputum can be disinfected by all of the
(a) Bhore committee following EXCEPT
(b) Kartar Singh Committee (a) Autoclaving (b) Boiling
(c) Mudaliar committee (c) Chlorhexidine (d) Cresol
(d) Mukherji committee 6. Best disinfectant of cholera stool is
4. Chadha committee was appointed in the year (a) Bleaching powder (b) Lime
------------------ (c) Phenol (d) Cresol
(a) 1960 (b) 1963 7. Best indication of air pollution is:
(c) 1965 (d) 1968 (a) SO2 (b) CO2
5. Drug-kit B is given at (c) Smoke index (d) Suspended particle
(a) PH 8. Which of the following methods is safe for
(b) Subcenter disposal of mercury?
(c) CHC (a) Bury under earth
(d) FRU level
(b) Collect carefully and reuse
6. All of the following are the functions of PHC
(c) Autoclaving and discard
except
(a) Providing medical care (d) Treat with chemical
(b) Performing surgeries 9. Universal precautions are applied to:
(c) Health education (a) Blood (b) Semen
(d) Referral services (c) Amniotic fluid (d) All of the above
7. Community mental health services does not 10. Color coded bag not to be incinerated as it
involve contains Cadmium is:
(a) Early diagnosis (a) Black bag (b) Yellow bag
(b) Treatment with modern psychoactive drugs (c) Blue bag (d) Red bag
(c) Psychosurgery
11. Sharp Waste are disposed in:
(d) Referral services
(a) Black bag (b) Yellow bag
8. Primordial prevention means
(c) Blue bag (d) Red bag
(a) Prevention of complications
12. Most satisfactory method of Refuse disposal
(b) Prevention of infections
is-
(c) Prevention of emergence
(a) Dumping (b) Controlled tipping
(c) Incineration (d) Manure pits
ANSWER KEY
13. If land is available the ideal method of disposal
1. [b] 2. [a] 3. [c] 4. [b] 5. [b]
is:
6. [b] 7. [c] 8. [c]
(a) Composting (b) Icineration
❑❑❑❑
(c) Controlled tipping (d) None
-:: 43 ::-
14. Discarded and expired medicines are to be 26. Which of the following can be incinerated?
thrown into: (a) Human waste
(a) Green bag (b) Black bag (b) Radiographic waste
(c) Yellow bag (d) Red bag (c) PVC
15. Not true about screw feed technique is: (d) Pressurized gas container
(a) 80% volume reduction 27. Safe disposal of mercury is by:
(b) Pathological waste are removed (a) Collect carefully and recycle
(c) Weight is decreased by 20-30% (b) Controlled combustion
(d) Based on non-burn thermal treatment (c) Chemical treatment
16. Blood spills in Indian Hospitals are disinfected by (d) Deep burial
compounds 28. Outdated cytotoxic drug are disposed of by:
(a) Quaternary ammonium (b) Phenol based (a) Disposal in municipal waste
(c) Chlorine based (d) Alcohol based (b) Destruction and dumping in secured landfill
17. Which of the following waste is disposed (c) Store for months and then burial
through incineration? (d) Autoclave
(a) Anatomical waste 29. Method for waste disposal in small camps is
(b) Sharp waste (a) Burial (b) Land filling
(c) Cytotoxic waste (c) Incineration (d) Dumping
(d) Radioactive waste 30. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to
18. True about incineration is dispose of human anatomical wastes such as
(a) Red bag can be incinerated body parts?
(b) Yellow bag must be incinerated (a) Yellow (b) Black
(c) Pretreatment required (c) Red (d) Blue
(d) Sharps must be incinerated 31. "Inertization" deals with:
19. Animal waste is disposed by (a) Mixing biomedical waste with cement and
(a) Autoclaving (b) Incineration other substance before disposal
(c) Chemical treatment (d) Microwave (b) Incineration of biomedical waste with cement
20. Incineration is done for and other substance before disposal
(a) Waste sharps (c) Dumping of Biomedical waste in sanitary
(b) Human anatomical waste landfills
(c) Radiographic waste (d) Screw feed technology to disinfect sharps
(d) Used batteries 32. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to
21. What is the best method to dispose hospital dispose off human anatomical wastes such as
waste? appendix:
(a) Composting (b) Dumping (a) Yellow (b) Black
(c) Chemical treatment (d) Incineration (c) Red (d) Blue
22. Incineration is not done for 33. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to
(a) Cytotoxic drugs dispose off waste sharps?
(b) Waste Sharp (a) Yellow (b) Black
(c) Human Anatomical Waste (c) Red (d) Blue
(d) Both a and b 34. Which of the following Categories of
23. Incineration is: Biomedical wastes in India do not require
(a) High temperature reduction process
containers/bags for disposal?
(b) High temperature oxidation process
(a) Category 1 (Human anatomical waste)
(c) Low temperature reduction process
(d) Low temperature oxidation process (b) Category 4 (Waste sharps)
24. Sharp waste should be disposed in (c) Category 5 (Discarded drugs and Cytotoxic
(a) Black (b) Blue/White translucent medications)
(c) Yellow (d) Red (d) Category 8 (Liquid waste)
25. "3-D" means in hospital waste management is: 35. Incineration is:
(a) Disinfection, Disposal, Drainage (a) High temperature reduction process
(b) Discard, Disinfection, Drainage (b) Low temperature reduction process
(c) Destruction, Deep burial, Drainage (c) High temperature oxidation process
(d) Destruction, Deep burial, Disposal (d) Low temperature oxidation process
-:: 44 ::-
36. Which of the following Biomedical wastes can be 45. Biomedical wastes not to be discarded in Yellow
incinerated? Bag:
(a) Pressurized gas containers (a) Waste sharps
(b) Radiographic wastes (b) Animal waste
(c) PVC (c) Microbiological waste
(d) Human anatomical wastes (d) Human anatomical waste
46. Incineration is done for:
37. Which of the following Biomedical wastes cannot
(a) Waste sharps
be disposed off Yellow Bags?
(b) Human anatomical waste
(a) Reactive chemical wastes
(c) Radiographic waste
(b) Human anatomical wastes
(d) Used batteries
(c) Microbiology and Biotechnology wastes
47. Not safe disposal but good for soil building:
(d) Dressings soiled with blood (a) Incineration (b) Controlled tipping
38. A known HIV positive patient is admitted in an (c) Composting (d) Dumping
isolation ward after an abdominal surgery 48. Plastic cover of syringes are disposed in:
following an accident. The resident doctor who (a) Red bag (b) Yellow bag
changed his dressing the next day found it to be (c) Black bag (d) Blue bag
soaked in blood. Which of the following would be 49. Biomedical waste mixing with cement is known as:
right method of choice of discarding the (a) Incineration (b) Inertization
dressing? (c) Shredding (d) Autoclaving
(a) Pour 1% hypochlorite on the dressing material 50. True about Inertization all except.
and send it for incineration in an appropriate bag (a) Mixing biomedical waste with cement
(b) Pour 5% hypochlorite on the dressing material (b) Used for pharmaceutical waste
and send it for incineration in an appropriate bag (c) Contaminates water sources
(c) Put the dressing material directly in an (d) Not useful for infectious waste
appropriate bag and send for incineration 51. Incineration is done for BMW categories:
(d) Pour 2% Lysol on the dressing material and send (a) 1 only (b) 3, 6, 7
it for incineration in an appropriate bag (c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 6
39. Yellow plastic bags containing biomedical wastes 52. Waste disposal of placenta after delivery is
are treated by: done by
(a) Autoclaving (b) Incineration (a) Disposing it in blue bags (b) Autoclaving
(c) Microwaving (d) Shredding (c) Incineration (d) Microwaving
40. Hospital waste product accounts: 53. All are incinerated except:
(a) Paper 40% (b) Plastic 30% (a) Human anatomical waste
(c) Infectious waste 30% (d) Rage 30% (b) Animal waste
41. True about composition of Indian hospital waste (c) Infected solid waste
products: (d) Broken thermometers
(a) Metal 1% (b) Paper 15% 54. Urine bags and catheters biomedical waste
(c) Glass 55% (d) Infectious waste 3% will be disposed in:
42. All of the following statements regarding (a) Yellow bag (b) Red bag
Biomedical Waste management are true except: (c) White container (d) Blue bag
(a) Human Anatomical waste is thrown in Yellow bag ANSWER KEY
(b) Blue bag waste is disposed by Landfill 1. [d] 2. [c] 3. [d] 4. [a] 5. [c]
(c) Incineration ash is discarded in Black bag 6. [d] 7. [a] 8. [b] 9. [d] 10. [d]
(d) Material in Red bag could be a source of 11. [c] 12. [b] 13. [c] 14. [c] 15. [b]
contamination
16. [c] 17. [a] 18. [b] 19. [b] 20. [b]
43. Incineration not done for:
21. [d] 22. [b] 23. [b] 24. [b] 25. [a]
(a) Cytotoxic drugs
26. [a] 27. [a] 28. [b] 29. [a] 30. [a]
(b) Waste sharps
(c) Human anatomical waste 31. [a] 32. [a] 33. [d] 34. [d] 35. [c]
(d) Cotton contaminated by blood 36. [d] 37. [a] 38. [a] 39. [b] 40. [b]
44. Advantage of Single chamber incinerator: 41. [a] 42. [b] 43. [b] 44. [d] 45. [a]
(a) Low pollutant emissions 46. [b] 47. [c] 48. [a] 49. [b] 50. [c]
(b) Effective for thermally resistant articles 51. [d] 52. [c] 53. [d] 54. [b]
(c) Good efficiency ❑❑❑
-:: 45 ::-
9. Which of the following is not content of Drug Kit
Health care delivery system and kits A provided sub center?
(a) Oral rehydration salt (b) Tab co-trimoxazole
1. Philosophy of Primary Health Care are as (c) Tablet Paracetamol (d) Vitamin A solution
follows EXCEPT? 10. Following are the elements of primary health
care: EXCEPT
(a) Equity and justice
(a) Health education
(b) Intersectoral approach
(b) Intersectoral coordination
(c) Primary prevention
(c) Cost effectiveness
(d) Inter-relationship of health and development
(d) Provision of essential drug
2. Secondary prevention is: 11. Primary health care is:
(a) Safe water supply, Vector and animal reservoir (a) Health for all
control (b) Health for those who are in need
(b) Early detection (diagnosis) of disease and (c) Health for an area of 30,000 population
Prompt treat (d) Health for children attending primary school
(c) Good living and working condition 12. ASHA (Accredited social health activist) workers
(d) Nutritional counseling are functioning at:
3. Population covered by sub-center is hilly area (a) Community level (b) Village level
(a) 5000 population (c) PHC level (d) District level
(b) 3000 population 13. Prevention of risk factors related to a disease
(c) 10,000 population condition is known as-
(d) 30,000 population (a) Primordial prevention
4. Which of the following is NOT a content of (b) Primary prevention
Drug Kit A provided at sub center? (c) Secondary prevention
(a) Oral rehydration salt (d) Tertiary prevention
14. ASHA workers performance is monitored
(b) Tab Co-trimoxazole
through:
(c) Tablet Paracetamol
(a) Number of deliveries attended
(d) Vitamin A Solution
(b) Number of home visits done
5. One PHC covers a population of:
(c) Reduction in IMR
(a) 150,000 (b) 30,000
(d) Number of training hours attended
(c) 10,000 (d) One lakh 15. The human resource available in sub center is:
6. The principles of primary health care include (a) Multipurpose health worker
A. Equitable distribution (b) Physician
B. Community participation (c) Anganwadi worker
C. Coverage and accessibility (d) Medical officer
D. Appropriateness and continuity 16. In health care delivery system grass root level
(a) A, B, C (b) B, C, D workers includes........
(c) A, C, D (d) A, B, C, D (a) Anganwadi workers (b) ASHA
7. The following are the functions of Male health (c) Village health guide (d) All of the above
workers as a health Team member "Except" 17. An example of Primary Prevention strategies is:
(a) Conduct survey of the Sub center and maintain (a) Early diagnosis
record of all families. (b) Hospitalization and treatment
(b) Provide nutrition advice and Immunization to (c) Rehabilitation
mothers and Children. (d) Health Education
18. The Multipurpose Worker in generally serves a
(c) Maintain information of all vital events.
rural population of:
(d) Promote health education activities.
(a) 500 (b) 1000
8. In India, which one is the following is the first
(c) 3000 (d) 5000
referral unit? 19. Which one of the health services is not
(a) Sub center available in rural health unit?
(b) Primary health centers (a) Maternal and child health work
(c) Community health center (b) Communicational disease control work
(d) Regional hospital (c) Environmental sanitation work
(d) Cancer treatment facility
-:: 46 ::-
20. In the prevention of communicable disease, the
primary results from
(a) Immunizations (b) Early diagnosis
(c) Strict isolation (d) Treatment of disease
21. Population covered by an Anganwadi worker is
(a) 200 (b) 3000
(c) 1500 (d) 1000
22. The three tier system of local self-government at
block level
(a) Panchayat Samiti (b) Grame Sabha
(c) Nyaya Panchayat (d) Zilla Parishad
23. The backbone of public health nursing is:
(a) Home visit (b) Recording
(c) Health education (d) Immunization
24. Main Intervention in primordial prevention is
(a) Health education (b) Immunization
(c) Early diagnosis (d) Early screen
25. Pap smear screening is an example of:
(b) Primary prevention
(c) Secondary prevention
(d) Tertiary prevention
26. Which of the following action by a public health
is likely to encourage community participation?
(a) Invite people from NGOs
(b) Refer to the physician for prescription
(c) Listen to people when they relate their problem
(d) Encourage sponsorship for participation
27. All of the following are the essential elements of
health care, EXCEPT:
(a) Multi-sectoral Approach
(b) Qualification of health providers
(c) Community participation
(d) Appropriate technology
28. The focus of secondary health care is
(a) Early detection
(b) Early diagnosis and treatment
(c) Prevention of risk factors
(d) Immunization for preventable diseases
29. All of the following are principles of primary
health EXCEPT:
(a) Accessibility
(b) Inequitable distribution
(c) Appropriate use of technology
(d) Intersectoral collaboration
ANSWER KEY
1. [c] 2. [b] 3. [b] 4. [c] 5. [b]
6. [a] 7. [b] 8. [c] 9. [c] 10. [c]
11. [a] 12. [b] 13. [a] 14. [c] 15. [a]
16. [d] 17. [d] 18. [d] 19. [d] 20. [a]
21. [d] 22. [a] 23. [a] 24. [a] 25. [c]
26. [c] 27. [b] 28. [b] 29. [b]
❑❑❑
-:: 47 ::-
-:: 48 ::-
-:: 49 ::-

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COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

S.NO. TOPIC LIST

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

4. IMMUNITY AND IMMUNIZATION

5. FAMILY PLANNING AND CONTRACEPTIVE METHODS

8. HEALTH PROGRAMME & ENVIRONMENTAL HEALTH

9. PRIMARY HEALTH CARE

11. OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH & Health committee

12. BIOMEDICAL WASTE MANAGEMENT

13. HEALTH CARE DELIVERY SYSTEM AND KITS

Mucormycosis Health Programme

1. Which of the following is an international

Health committee Biomedical waste management

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