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MANIPAL EXAM.
UPSC CMS 2007 Paper 2
manipal exam

post graduation UPSC CMS 2007 Exam Paper 2

Contributed by Ashish Kumar Sinha
Regarding wrong
Post New Topic Directions:
Main Menu
Home The following five (5) items consist of two statements, one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as
AIIMS 2009 Nov using the code given below:
Mcqs Code:
Academies (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Associations (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Boards (c) A is true but R is false
Book Store (d) A is false but R is true
Career Options
Colleges 1. Assertion (A):
Conferences When ABO and Rh incompatibilities coexist, the baby is likely to have more severe haemolytic disease.
Courses Reason (R)
Exams (New)
Both ABO and Rh antibodies cause haemolysis of foetal red blood cells.
Foundations
Answer: A
Hospitals
India
MBBS 2. Assertion (A) :
Mcqs (New Section) In category III contact with a cat or dog, both antirabies immunoglobulin and vaccine are given immediatel
Mcqs (Old Section) Reason (R) :
MD/MS Exam It takes at least 30 days to achieve a maximum level of immunity after vaccination.
Calendar
Medical Jokes 3. Assertion (A) :
Mnemonics As long as baby is less than six months old, a woman can rely on exclusive breast-feeding alone for contr
Quotations Reason (R) :
Research Awards Exclusive breast-feeding alone is the only safe method of contraception during six months after delivery.
Research Fellowships Answer: C
Societies
Study (New)
4. Assertion (A) :
Study
One of the pathological conditions of acquired coagulopathy is abruptio placentae.
Welcome, Guest Reason (R) :
Login In abruptio placentae, thromboplastin is liberated from the retroplacental clot and damaged decidua.
Answer: A

******** 5. Assertion (A) :

Hypocalcemia is more common among babies fed with cow's milk.
Reason (R) :
Register | Lost Cow's milk contains less concentration of calcium than that of human milk.
Password Answer: C
Mcq of The Day
Menu 6. Guidelines for handling of / Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule, 1998 are laid down by
Anatomy a. Ministry of Social-Welfare
Biochemistry b. Directorate of Medical Education and Research
Community Medicine c. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Gynaecology d. Ministry of Environment and Forests (ANS)
Medicine
Microbiology
 Obstetrics
7 Which one of the following is not a target disease under 'Vision 2020 : The Right to Sight'?
Ophthalmology
Orthopaedics
a.) Refractive error
Otorhinolaryngology b) Trachoma (ANS)
Paediatrics c) Corneal blindness
Pathology (d) Diabetic retinopathy
Pharmacology
Physiology 8. What is Berkesonian bias?
Psychiatry (a) Mis-classification bias (ANS)
Surgery b) Recall bias
AIPGMEE Menu c) Selection bias
AIPGMEE 2011 (d) Non-response bias
AIPGMEE 2010
AIPGMEE 2009 9. The WHO definition for blindness is the inability of counting fingers in daylight at a minimum distance of
AIPGMEE 2008 (a) 3 feet (b) 6 feet
AIPGMEE 2007 (c) 3 metres (d) 6 metres (ANS)
AIIMS MD MS EE
Menu 10. Which one of the following is the category 1 of biomedical waste in India?
AIIMS MD MS 2010 (a) Human anatomical waste (ANS)
Nov (b) Microbiological and biotechnological waste
AIIMS MD MS 2010 (c) Discarded medicines and cytotoxic drugs
May
(d) Animal waste
AIIMS MD MS 2009
Nov
AIIMS MD MS 2009 11. What is the average number of fleas of each species per rodent called?
May (a) General Flea Index
AIIMS MD MS 2008 b) Specific Flea Index (ANS)
Nov c) Incidence of Flea Species
AIIMS MD MS 2008 (d) Flea Infestation Rate
May
AIIMS MD MS 2007 12. Which one of the following is not a viral haemorrhagic fever?
Nov (a) Yellow fever
AIIMS MD MS 2007 b) Rocky Mountain spotted fever (ANS)
May c) Kyasanur Forest disease
WBPGMAT Menu (d) Dengue fever
WBPGMAT 2007
UPSC CMS EE 13. What is the method of sampling in which the units are picked up at regular intervals from the universe?
Menu a) Simple random sampling
UPSC CMS 2011 b) Systematic random sampling (ANS)
UPSC CMS 2010 c) Stratified random sampling
UPSC CMS 2009 (d) Snow- ball sampling
UPSC CMS 2008
UPSC CMS 2007
14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists
Admissions
MH-SSET 2010 List-I List-II
SGPGI MDEE 2010 May (State) (Retinol as vitamin)
Delhi PGMET 2010 Not
COMEDK PGET 2010 NOT A. Pregnancy 1. 600 mcg
CIP Ranchi 2010 Noti B, Lactation 2, 950 mcg
C, Infant 3. 350 mcg
Recent Updates D, Children (1-6 4. 400 mcg
MH-SSET 2010 years age)
MH-SSET
SGPGI MDEE 2010 May Code:
Madhya Pradesh PPG 2 (a) A B C D (ANS)
NBE FMG Screening Te 1324
Admissions b) A B C D
4231

DNB Gynae (c) A B C D

Obs &am 4321
d) A B C D
DNB Anae 1234
Surg ENT
15. Which one of the following will be affected by inter-observer variation?
a) Sensitivity (ANS)
 b) Predictive value of the positive test
DNB Obs c) Specificity
Gynae AND (d) Reliability

16. Intrauterine foetal growth retardation may be associated with the following except
DNB (a) maternal drug addiction
Admissions No b) maternal smoking
c) foetal viral infection
Delhi SET (d) regular maternal aspirin intake (ANS)
2006 D.
17. Face to pubes delivery is possible with which cephalic presentation?
a) Mento-anterior
Scholarships b) Mento-posterior
c) Occipito sacral (ANS)
A* STAR (d) Brow presentation
INDIA YOU
18. With reference to meningococcal meningitis, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Fatality in untreated cases is 60 percent (ANS)
AusAID (b) Disease spreads mainly by droplet infection
Australian (c). Treatment of cases has no significant effect on epidemiological pattern of disease
(d) Mass chemoprophylaxis causes immediate drop in the incidence rate of cases
RHODES
SCHOLARSHI 19. With reference to the epidemiology of Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), which one of the f
(a) Patient is most infectious during the first five days of illness
b) No evidence of mother to child transmission is observed
JNU d) Children are rarely affected
Scholarships (d). No evidence of child to child

K C Mahindra 20. Consider the following diseases:

Scho 1. Trench fever
2. Q fever
3. Weil's disease
Results 4. Brill-Zinsser disease
Which of the above is / are caused by rickettsial infection?
results of afmc a) 1 only
p b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only(ANS)
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
AIIMS 2006
May Re 21. Which one of the following is not a strategy under Roll Back Malaria?
(a) Strengthening of health system
Jharkhand b) Use of insecticide treated bed nets' (ANS)
PGMAT 2 (c) Anti-larval measures
(d) Development of new antimalaria drugs

SGPGI MDEE 22. An epidemiological hypothesis should specify the following except
2006 J a) population
b) Time response relationship
WBPGMEE
c) Geographical trends
2006 RESU d) Expected outcome (ANS)

23. Under DOTS chemotherapy, which one of the following is not a correct dose for an adult patient weigh
Books (a) Rifampicin 600 mg
(b) Isoniazid 600 mg(ANS)
AIPGE Books (c) Pyrazinamide 1500 mg
Recom (d) Ethambutol 1200 mg

24. What is the approximate penetrating ability of alpha particle radiation at tissue level?
Mnemonics a) 0. 05 mm (ANS)
b) 0. 10 mm
Lymphoedema c) 1. 50 mm
: Cau d) 2. 00 mm

25. The criteria for 'at risk' infant include the following except
 (a) Artificial feeding
Types of (b) Grade 11 malnutrition(ANS)
Imperfor (c) Working mother
(d) Birth order 4 and more

Indications for 26. How is the Protein Energy Ratio (PER) in diet expressed as?
L
a) Energy in diet x 100
Hepatocellular Protein in diet
Ca (b) Energy from protein x 100 (ANS)
Total energy from diet
c) Total protein in diet x 100
LARP Total energy in diet
(d) Total energy consumed x 100
Mock Tests Total protein consumed

27. In which one of the following conditions is sling operation done?

AIIMS MD/MS (a) Multiparous prolapse
Mock Series (b) Nulliparous prolapse (ANS)
(c) Cystocoele.
Happy B'days (d) Rectocele
Today (5)
28. Match List-l with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists
List-I List - II
Khalidmram (Drug for induction (Daily dose)
of ovulation)
Xszilch A. Clomiphene 1. 2.5 mg BDS
B. Metformin 2. 50 mg OD
C. Bromocriptine 3. 75 IU OD
Suhail D. Gonadotrphin 4. 500 mg TDS

a) A B C D
Nbu
3142

Faiz786 b) A B C D
3412
Newest Member
c) A B C D
2143
Thecontess
d) A B C D (ANS)
2413

29. The following conditions are associated with molar pregnancy except
a) Pregnancy induced hyper tension
b) Thyrotoxicosis
(c) Gestational diabetes (ANS)
(d) Hyperemesis gravidarum

30. The current imaging technique of choice for the diagnosis of hydatidiform mole is
(a) Computed tomography
(b) ultrasonography (ANS)
(c) plain X-ray abdomen
(d) magnetic resonance imaging

31. Poor prognostic factors in the management of cancer cervix are the following except
(a) Young age
(b) Well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma (ANS)
c) hydroureter
(d) adenocarcinoma

32. Which one of the following drugs is not used in endometriosis?

(a) Danazol
(b) Progestins
c) GnRH agonists
d) Misoprostol (ANS)

33. What is the most common ovarian tumour to undergo torsion?

a) Mucinous cystadenoma (ANS)
b) Serous, cystadenoma
c) Dermoid
d) Brenner tumour

34. Which one of the following is not a correct statement regarding the use of condom?
(a) Air should be squeezed out of the tip(ANS)
(b) It should be tested by inflating
c) It should be unrolled on erect penis
d) K-Y Jelly may be used for lubrication

35. The levonorgestrel IUD prevents the pregnancy primarily by

(a) Suppressing ovulation
(b) Making endometrium unreceptive (ANS)
c) Making cervical mucus thick
(d) 'Making inflammatory changes within endometrium

36. The 'highest incidence of ectopic pregnancy amongst contraceptive users is observed with
(a) Combined contraceptive pills
(b) Cu-T intrauterine contraceptive device
c) Progestasert intrauterine device
(d) Lippes loop intrauterine device (ANS)

37. Which one of the following is the most suitable situation for prescribing the progestin only pill?
(a) Perimenopausal patients
(b) Emergency contraception (ANS)
c) Lactational mother
(d) Diabetic mother

38. The drug of choice for the treatment of chlamydial infection is

(a) ampicillin
(b) third generation cephalosporins
c) metronidazole
(d) doxycycline (ANS)

39. Return to fertility is delayed after cessation of oral contraception by

(a) 2 weeks
(b) 3 weeks
c) 4 weeks
d) 6 weeks (ANS)

40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List – I Type-II
(type of vaccine) (Example)
A. Purified protein antigen 1. Acellular pertussis vaccine
B. Subunit 2. Hib vaccine
C. Conjugated capsular 3. Hepatitis A vaccine
Polysaccharide
D. Inactivated whole cell 4. Influenza vaccine
Code:
a) A B C D
1423

b) A B C D
1243

c) A B C D (ANS)
3421
d) A B C D
3241

41. Yearly data pertaining to deliveries and their outcome in a community is as follows:
Total number of births: 12600
Total number of stillbirths: 114
Total number of deaths –
(i) During first week after birth: 410
(ii) During second to fourth weeks
after birth : 280

Which one of the following formulae is used to calculate perinatal mortality rate?
(a) 114+410 x 1000 (ANS)
12600

b) 114 + 410 + 280 x 1000

12600

c) 114+410 x 1000
12600 -114

d) 114 + 410 + 280 x 1000

12600 -114

42. Which of the following are the first incisors to erupt in an infant?
a) Lower central (ANS)
(b) Lower lateral
c) Upper central
(d) Upper lateral

43. A 50-hour old full-term breast-fed newborn boy weighing 3100 g 'presents with clinically evident jaundi
dl. What would be the correct treatment?
a) Continue breast feeds review after 48 hours (ANS)
b) Stop breast feeds and review after 24 hours
c) Continue breast feeds and start blue-light phototherapy
d) Arrange for a double-volume exchange transfusion

44. An infant can sit with leaning forward on his hands. He bounces actively when made to' stand. He laug
(a) 12 weeks
b) 16 weeks
c) 22 weeks (ANS)
d) 28 weeks

45. Birth weight of a baby doubles at the age of 5 to 6 months. At what age does his birth length double?
(a) One year
(b) Two years
c) Three years
(d) Four years (ANS)

46. Which one of the following is not a feature of combined immunodeficiency in children?
(a) Decreased total immunoglobulin level
(b) Neutropenia and eosinophilia (ANS)
c) Defective T-cell function
(d) Recurrent pulmonary infection

47. Which one of the following is not a pyridoxine dependent disorder?

a) Homocystinuria
(b) Methyl-malonic-acidemia (ANS)
c) Cystathioninuria
d) Xanthurenic aciduria

48. A four-year old child presents with mild fever, malaise, purpura, arthritis, abdominal pain and microsco
(a) Thrombasthenia
b) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
c) Systemic lupus erythematosus
(d) Henoch-Schonlein purpura (ANS)

49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List –I List-II
(Drug taken by a (Adverse effect on foetus)
Pregnant woman)
A. Sodium valproate 1. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
B. Vitamin D 2. Cleft lip and palate
C. Prednisolone 3. Deafness
D. Chloroquine 4. Spina bifida

Code:
a) A B C D
3124

b) A B C D
3214

c) A B C D (ANS)
4123

d) A B C D
4213

50. Straining and dribbling of urine in a male infant with recurrent urinary infection should lead to the suspi
a) vesico-ureteric reflux
b) posterior urethral valve (ANS)
c) pelvic ureteric junction obstruction
d) phimosis

51. Which one of the following is an autosomal dominant type of genetic disorder?
(a) Colour-blindness
b) Haemophilia
c) Phenylketonuria
d) Tuberous sclerosis (ANS)

52. With reference to bronchiolitis, consider the following statements:

1. It is more common among boy.
2. RSV immunoglobulin does not have any role in acute episode.
3. It is common around the age of six months.
4. Mortality is high in it.
Which of the statements above are given correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only (ANS)
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

53. A two-year old boy presented "with episodes of becoming dusky. On examination, there was central cy
parasternal heave. A systolic thrill was palpable over the left middle sternal border. First heart sound was
would be the most likely diagnosis?
a) Congenital methemoglobinemia
b) Eisenmenger syndrome
c) Aortic stenosis
d) Tetralogy of Fallot (ANS)

54. What would be the minimum calorie requirement of a normal sedentary lactating mother of a eight mon
a. 1900 kcal b. 2100 kcal
c. 2300 kcal(ANS) d. 2600 kcal

55. A woman with Body Mass Index of 20 is

a) Undernourished
b) Normal (ANS)
c) Overweight
d) Obese

56. Which one of the following is not a test for pasteurized milk?
(a) Methylene blue reduction test (ANS)
(b) Standard plate count
(c) Coliform count
(d) Phosphatase test

57. What is the percent of total energy ratio supplied by fish protein (PE% kcal)?
a) 20 (ANS)
b) 40
c) 60
d) 80

58. With a birthrate of 30 per thousand, in a subcentre of 5000 population, what would be the number of p
a) 150 (ANS)
b) 155
c) 160
d) 165

59. Among the following, which one is the absolute contraindication .for combined oral contraceptive pills?
(a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Migraine
c) Previous history of thromboembolism (ANS)
(d) Heart disease

60. Which one of the following is an ideal example of recurrent disinfection?

(a) Boiling infected clothing for 30 minutes
(b) Pasteurization of milk (ANS)
c) Autoc1aving of infected gloves and syringes
(d) Disinfection of urine and sputum of patients with 5% cresol

61. Systematic observation and recording of activities of one or more individuals at random interval is don
a) Systems analysis
b) Network analysis
(c) Work sampling (ANS)
d) Input-output analysis

62. Latent infection occurs in the following except:

a) Mumps
b) Herpes simplex
c) Brill-Zinsser disease (ANS)
d) Ancylostomiasis

63. Which one of the following intervention studies on coronary artery disease did not observe significant c
a. Stanford- three-community study
b. The north kerala project
c. Multiple risk factor intervention trial
d. Lipid research clinic study

64. Consider the following statements:

The features of cholera that differentiate it from food poisoning are
a. onset with purging
b. no nausea or retching
c. no tenesmus
d. leukocytosis

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4, only
c) 1 and 4 only (ANS)
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
65. What is the proportion of daily rate wages payable as periodic cash payment under Sickness Benefit o
a) 5 of the average monthly wages
12
b) 7 of the basic monthly wages (ANS)
12

c) 8 of the average daily wages

12

d) 10 of the average daily wages

12

66. A 32-year old woman with two live children was brought in emergency with the history of missed perio
15 days, spotting since 7 days and pain abdomen since 6 hours. Her pulse was 120-I min, pallor ++, and s
was seen through external os on per speculum examination. On p/v examination, cervical movements wer
suffering from
(a) pelvic inflammatory disease
(b) missed abortion with infection
c) ruptured ectopic pregnancy (ANS)
(d) Threatened abortion

67. Immediately after third stage, of labour in a case of full-term delivery, the fundus of the uterus is
(a) at the level of Xiphisternum
(b) at the level of umbilicus
(c) just below the level of umbilicus (ANS)
(d) just above the symphysis pubis

68. Oxytocin sensitivity test is used to assess the

(a) foetal well-being (ANS)
(b) period of gestation
(c) cervical ripening
(d) uterine response for induction

69. The Kleihauer test for detecting foetal erythrocytes is based on the fact that
(a) adult erythrocytes are larger than those of foetus
(b) HbA has higher oxygen affinity than HbF
c) HbF is more resistant acid elution than HbA (ANS)
(d) HbA takes up erythrosin stain less than HbF

70. What is the most common type of conjoined twin?

(a) Craniopagus (ANS)
(b) Thoracopagus
(c) Ischiopagus
(d) Pygopagus

71. \What is the treatment of choice of unruptured tubal pregnancy with serum beta hCG titre of 2000 IV/m
a) Single dose of methotrexate
(b) Variable doses of methotrexate
(c) Expectant management
(d) Laparoscopic salpingostomy (ANS)

72. Which one of the following causes the greatest risk of ectopic pregnancy?
(a) Pelvic inflammatory disease(ANS)
(b) Intrauterine contraceptive devices' use
(c) Previous ectopic pregnancy
(d) Previous medical termination of pregnancy

73. Consider the following statements:

A woman suffering from gestational diabetes is likely to develop
1. PIH
2. Macrosomia (foetal)
3. IUD
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 (ANS)

74. Which one of the following is not a sign of early pregnancy?

(a) Goodell's sign
(b) Hegar's sign
(c) Cullen's sign (ANS)
(d) Palmer sign

75. Consider the following:

1. A reactive non-stress test
2. Absence of decelerations
3. A sinusoidal pattern
Which of the above findings in an antepartum cardiotocography indicate foetal well being?
a) 1 and 2 only (ANS)
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

76. A 20-year old primigravida is admitted with full-term pregnancy and labour pains. At 4: 00 AM she goe
clear liquor. A repeat p/v examination after 4 hours of good uterine conditions reveals a cervical dilatation
(a) Reassess after 4 hours
(b) Immediate cesarean section
(c) Oxytocin drip
(d) Reassess for occipitoposterior position and cephalopelvic disproportion (ANS)

77. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List –I List-II
(Condition of delivery) (Procedure of delivery)
A. Hand prolapse 1. Lovset technique
B. Placental 2. Decapitation
C. Extended arms of 3. Brandt-Andrews procedure
breech at delivery
D. Deep transverse arrest 4. Vacuum extraction
Code:
a) A B C D (ANS)
2314

b) A B C D
2134

c) A B C D
4312

d) A B C D
4132

78. A primigravida with full-term pregnancy in labour for one day is brought to casualty after dai handling.
100 minutes, BP 120/80 mm Hg. Abdominal examination reveals a fundal height of 36 weeks, cephalic pre
head is at plus one station, caput with moulding present, pelvis is adequate.
Dirty, infected discharge present. What would be the best management option after initial work-up?
a) Cesarean section
b) Oxytocin drip (ANS)
c) Ventouse delivery
(d) Craniotomy and delivery

79. Which one of the following is not an epithelial tumour of the ovary?
a) Serous cystadenoma
b) Brenner tumour
(c) Clear cell tumour
(d) Endodermal sinus tumour (ANS)
80. An elderly multiparous woman with intrauterine foetal death was admitted with strong labour pains. Th
likely clinical diagnosis is
(a) Rupture of uterus
(b) Congestive heart failure
(c) Amniotic fluid embolism (ANS)
(d) Concealed accidental haemorrhage

81. G2 P1 A0 presents with full-term pregnancy with transverse lie in the first stage of labour. On examina
appropriate management in this case?
(a) Wait for spontaneous evolution and expulsion
b) External cephalic version
c) Internal podalic version
d) Cesarean section (ANS)

82. A patient has just delivered a live baby and is referred to in a state of shock. On abdominal examinatio
likely diagnosis?
(a) Cervical fibroid polyp
b) Third degree uterine prolapse
c) Acute inversion of uterus (ANS)
d) Rupture of uterus

83. Following delivery, uterus becomes a pelvic organ after

a) 2 weeks (ANS)
b) 4 weeks
c) 6 weeks
d) 8 weeks

84. Match list –I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Foetal tests) (Indications)
A. Non-stress test 1. Neural tube defect
B. Lecithin/ 2. Foetal well-being
sphingomyelin ratio
C. Estimation of alpha- 3. Downs syndrome
fetoprotein in liquor amni
D. Triple test 4. Lung maturity

Code:
a) A B C D
2143

b) A B C D (ANS)
2413

c) A B C D
3142

d) A B C D
3412

85. McDonald stitch is applied in the following condition except:

a. Incompetent os
b. Septate uterus
c. Placenta previa (ANS)
d. Bad obstetrical history

86. On Doppler, the most ominous sign indication foetal compromise is:
a. Increased pulsatility index in umbilical artery
b. Increased systolic-diastolic blood flow ratio
c. Increased cerebral artery flow
d. Absent diastolic flow (ANS)
87. Which one of the following medical disorders leads to delayed foetal lung maturity?
a. Heart disease
b. Diabetes (ANS)
c. Thalassemia minor
d. Epilepsy

88. What is the incidence of chromosomal abnormality per 1000 live births?
a. 1.6 b. 3.6
c. 5.6 (ANS) d. 7.6

89. Which one of the following is the method in the context of health education in which four to eight qualif
a. Group discussion
b. Panel discussion (ANS)
c. Symposium
d. Brainstorming

90. As per WHO classification, what is the IQ score for moderate mental retardation?
a. 20 – 34
b. 35 – 49 (ANS)
c. 50 – 60
d. 60 – 65

91. Absorption of vitamin A can be enhanced by giving the child a diet rich in:
a. fat (ANS)
b. Protein
c. minerals
d. carbohydrates

92. If a new sputum smear positive patient of tuberculosis continues to be smear positive at the end of inte
(a) start category treatment again
(b) treat him as failure and start category II treatment under DOTS
(c) continue the intensive phase of V treatment for one more month (ANS)
(d) start continuation phase under category I

93. What is the index for measuring operational efficiency of the Malaria Control Programme?
(a) Annual Parasite Index
b) Annual blood examination rate (ANS)
c) Slide Positive Rate
(d) Infant Parasite Rate

94. Exposure to 90 db and 4000 Hz noise results in

(a) auditory fatigue (ANS)
(b) temporary hearing loss
c) permanent hearing loss
(d) rupture of tympanic membrane

95. Under National Cancer Control Programme, oncology wings were sanctioned to
a) Regional Cancer Institutes
b) District Hospitals
c) Medical College Hospitals (ANS)
(d) Voluntary Agencies treating cancer patients

96. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding National Leprosy Eradication Programm
(a) Multibacillary leprosy treatment is recommended for one year
(b) Skin smear examination is done for classification into (ANS)
paucibacillary and multi bacillary
c) Special Action Project for Elimination of Leprosy is for rural areas
(d) Surveillance for two years for a treated case of paucibacillary leprosy to be carried out

97. Under Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) programme, which one of the following interventions is do
a. Medical termination pregnancy at PHC level
(b) High quality of training at all levels (ANS)
c) Screening and treatment of RTI at district level
(d) Transport facility for referral of pregnant women during emergency

98. Which one of the following is not a special incidence rate?

(a) Attack rate
b) Secondary attack rate (ANS)
c) Hospital admission rate
(d) Standardized mortality rate

99. For the prevention of parent to child transmission of HIV, the NACO's recommendation is to give
a) niverapine 200 mg in active labour to mother
(b) niverapine 200 mg, four hours after rupture of membranes, to mother
(c) niverapine 200 mg in active labour to mother and niverapine 2 mg/kg weight to newborn 72 hours of de
(d) Syrup niverapine 2 mg/kg body weight to newborn within 72 hours of birth

100. During Pomeroy's method of female sterilization, which portion of tube is ligated?
(a) Isthmus (ANS)
(b) Ampullary
c) Isthmo-ampullary
(d) Cornual

101. With reference to vasectomy, consider the following statements:

1. Non-scalpel vasectomy and conventional vasectomy have complication rates of 0.4% and 3% respectiv
2. When sperms are absent from two consecutive samples of semen, the vasectomy is considered comple
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (ANS)

102. A 20-year old girl was raped around 13th day of her regular cycle. The best possible emergency cont
(a) centchroman tablets
(b) Cu - T insertion
(c). levonorgestrel tablets (ANS)
(d) ethinylestradiol tablets

103 . Consider the following characteristics of vaginal discharge .

1. Green and thick
2. PH < 4.5.
3. Clue cells
4. Whiff test positive
Which of the above characteristics are present in bacterial vagueness ?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only (ANS)

104 Laparoscopic approaches are usually performed.

A Immediately post – partum
B > 4-week post – partum
C > 6 week post – partum(ANS)
D any time

105 Ultrasound of 36 year old gravida reveals small grape like cystic structures without the evidence of co
a genotype of the mole is 46XX and os completely paternal in origin . (ANS)
b genotype of the mole is triploid
c hCG levels are , markedly decreased
d serum levels of alpha-fetoproteinsare elevated

106. With reference to vagina, which one of the following statement is not correct?
A. it has mucus secreting glands
B it is supplied by uterine artery(ANS)
C it is lined by stratified squalors epithelium.
D its posterior wall is covered by peritinium
107 with reference to syndromes approach in reproductive tract infection consider the following statement
1. single drug can be used foe treatment
2. the diagnosis of exact disease is not relevant
3. the management is disease specific .
4. The is an important part of family health awareness campaign
which of the statements given above are correct?
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 4 only(ANS)
D 1 2 3 and 4

108. The risk of mongolism in a mother at the age of 20 year is 1: 3000. what would be this ratio when she
A . 1: 6000
B . 1:3000
C . 1: 1040
D . 1: 50(ANS)

109 which one of the following is not a measure of dispersion ?

A . Mean(ANS)
B . Range
C. Mean deviation
D . Standard deviation

110. Match list –1` with list II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List I List II
(IUD ) (expulsion rate per 100 women year )

A cut – T 200 1. 3.1

B. Progestasert 2.2.1
C. Nova –T 3.7.8