Book-1OBJECTIVEQUESTIONBANKINAGRICULTURALENTOMOLOGY CLUB

OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK IN AGRICULTURAL ENTOMOLOGY
OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK

IN
AGRICULTURAL ENTOMOLOGY
Dr. (Mrs) Kumud Singh

Entomologist,Deptt. Of Entomology
ANDUAT, Kumarganj, Faizabad, UP, India
Dr. Nagendra Kumar

Assistant Professor
Department of Entomology, RPCAU, Pusa, samastipur, Bihar
Dr. Arvind Kumar Singh

Senior Scientist & Head ,Krishi Vigyan Kendra ,Sant Kabir Nagar ,
ANDUAT, Kumarganj, Faizabad, UP, India
Dr. Deepak Jaiswal

Assistant Professor,Birsa Agriculture University,Ranchi
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© Copyright with the Authors/Editors/Contributors
Edition: March,2021
Note: Due care has been taken while editing and printing of the book. So far as
possible, due care has been taken for any copyright issues. Even then, any
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only published on the written assurance of the authors, that the contents are free
from copyright issues laws prevailing in India. In the event of any mistake crept
in, or printing error happens, Publisher or Authors will not be held responsibile
Printed and bound in India
Not for Sale
ISBN: 978-81-927825-5-3
Published by:
Mr.Gajendra Parmar, Proprietor,
Parmar Publication
854, KG Ashram,Bhuinphod, Govindpur Road,
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Cover Page Design,Page Setting, Layout and Limted Copies Printing at

Hyderabad by Shri N Suresh Babu
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PREFACE
Competitive examinations in the field of Agriculture is quite tough and of routine

nature for recruitment in ICAR, Civil services, State service commission, banking
sectors and other related fields. Certain agri business management courses also
test aspirants for their objective knowledge in the relevant field of agriculture for
Post graduate admissions in educational institutions. The questions in these
exams mostly are of objective type, large in number and varied in nature. Quick
answering in a specified time brings success to the aspirants/students. It is even
tougher for the question setters who frame such a question paper. The present
deliberation has been an attempt to develop model answers for several objective
type questions in the field of Agricultural Entomology which are usually a part
of all the agricultural universities. Due consideration is also given on difficulty
levels while compiling the question bank. The sustained effort on coaching
students for competitive examinations over years expanded our knowledge of
this book. The questions are set in such a way that the student can learn and
also test their subject knowledge.
The authors also feel that all questions may not be up to the mark and further
there might be some mistakes in spite of the best efforts of careful proof
readings. Hence, the readers are requested that if they find anything not correct
or unrelated and not worthy, plz bring it to the notice of the authors and publisher.
We collected information from various sources and suitable updating was carried
out. We hope that the present book will serve as a ready reference for students
as well as graduates preparing for competitive examinations like ASRB, UGC,
SLET, UPSC, IRMA and students appearing for interviews. This book will also be
of immense help for the students preparing for several competitive examination
such as ARS,IARI entrance examination, Civil services and all the agricultural
universities examinations.
The help rendered by Dr. Brajendra, Pr. Scientist, ICAR-IIRR, Hyderabad in

framing of the book is thankfully acknowledged. We take this opportunity to
thank our teachers, colleagues and students who provided valuable
advice, criticism and assistance during writing of the book. We
acknowledge all the sources from which the key facts and concepts have been
drafted. We express our sincere thanks to our publisher for bringing this book in
an appreciable manner.
We welcome suggestions for improvement from readers and scholars.
March,2021 Authors
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CONTENT
S.No. CHAPTERS PAGES
1 OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK 1
2. MODEL QUESTION PAPER – I 110
3 MODEL QUESTION PAPER – II 131
4. MODEL QUESTION PAPER – III 140
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Chapter 1
OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK
1. Insecticide „Act‟ was passed by the Government of India is

a) 1968
b) 1977
c) 1971
d) 1551
2. the concentration at which 50% of growth or activity is inhibited

a) LC50
b) LD50
c) IC50
d) EC50
3. concentration at which 50% of the predicted effect is observed

a) LC50
b) LD50
c) IC50
d) EC50
4. the concentration at which the lowest effect is seen is called as

a) LOEC
b) NOEC
c) Both
d) None
5. the maximum concentration at which no effect is observed is

called as
a) LOEC
b) NOEC
c) Both
d) None
6. Deuterotoky
1) When males not only develop from unfertilized eggs but are
parasitoids of females of their own species is called as
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2) when progeny are produced by mated or unmated females, but

fertilized eggs produce diploid female offspring whereas unfertilized
eggs produce haploid male offspring by
3) When all progeny are uniparental and females are diploid and
produce diploid female offspring and haploid males that are
biologically nonfunctional
4) when only diploid female progeny are produced
7. Thelytoky
8. Native; indigenous is called as

1) Autochthonous
2) Zymogenous
3) Allocthonous
4) None
9. Which of the following is a form of parthenogenesis

1) Deuterotoky
2) Thelytoky
3) Deuterotoky
4) Arrhenotoky
10. Which pesticides is usually considered to be chemical control

not biological control
1) Biopesticide
2) Biorational pesticide
3) Botanical pesticide
4) All

11. Which of the following institute responsible for developing the

Bt. cotton in India
a) NDRI
b) IARI
c) CAZRI
d) NBPGR
12. The import of agricultural commodities is presently regulated

through the
a) New Policy on Seed Development, 1988
b) Plant Quarantine (Regulation of Import into India) Order, 2003
c) DIP Act of 1914
d) PFS (1989)
13. Which of the following insect which is the natural enemy of leaf
folder in rice
a. Ophionea indica
b. Nabis capsiformis
c. Paederus fuscipes
d. All
14. When pesticide active ingredient dissolves readily in water

a. Emulsifiable Concentrate (EC)
b. Wettable Powder (WP)
c. Soluble concentrates(S)
d. Concentrate
15. When pesticide active ingredient is not readily soluble in water or

organic solvent
a. Flowables (F)
b. Granules (G)
c. Adjuvants
d. Safeners
16. Cleptobiont
1) An organism that obtains its food by robbing another organism
of the food that it has collected)
2) An organism that feeds on animals

3) two or more organisms of distant phylogeny use the same food

resource without competition
4) An organism that competes with others for resources (noun) .
5) An organism that feeds on detritus
17. Carnivore
1) An organism that obtains its food by robbing another organism of the
food that it has collected)
18. Strategy of control to prevent the spread of pests and diseases

which covers all regulatory actions taken to exclude animal or
plant pests or pathogens from a site, area, country or group of
countries
a) Exclusion
b) Prevention
c) Quarantine
d) All
19. Commensalism
20. Competitor
4) An organism that competes with others for resources .


1) Biopesticide
4) All
22. Adelphoparasitoidism is defined as

23. Detritivore
24. Which of following chemical is sulfur containing hydrocarbon

a) Endosulfan
b) Diuran
c) Rogar
d) Metacid
25. Direct pest is

1) a pest that damages the marketable part of a plant
2) A parasite that lives on the external surface of its host

3) A parasitoid that lives on the external surface of its host, feeding on it

and killing it in the process
4) An organism that feeds on the outside of another
26.Ectoparasite is
27. Ectoparasitoid is
3) A parasitoid that lives on the external surface of its host, feeding
on it and killing it in the process
28. Entomopathogenic
1) A parasitoid that lives in another organism, feeding on it and killing it
in the process
2) An organism that feeds inside another animal
3) Reproducing within insects
4) An organism that feeds on insects
5) Producing disease in insects.
29. Ectophage is
30. Ectophagous
1) An organism that feeds on (on the outside of) another organism
2) An organism that feeds on plants.
4) Feeding upon a single kind of food

31. Endoparasitoid
1) A parasitoid that lives in another organism, feeding on it and
killing it in the process
32. Endophage
a) parasitoid that lives in another organism, feeding on it and
33. Entomogenous
in the process
34. Insect pests, plant pathogens, weeds, other crop plants, small
animals, and human beings make up the biotic environment
a) Biosynthesis
b) Biotic environment
c) Biotic/abiotic stresses
d) None
35. Limitations imposed on development which occur because of

biological (biotic) or physical (abiotic) factors
a) Biosynthesis
b) Biotic environment
c) Biotic/abiotic stresses
d) None

36. Insectivore
137.Arrhenotoky
fertilized eggs produce diploid female offspring whereas
unfertilized eggs produce haploid male offspring by
37. Pesticides include

a) Herbicides
b) Insecticides
c) Fungicides
d) All
38. Triazine herbicides include

a) Atrazine
b) Limozine
c) Cyannizine
d) All
39. Carbamate fungicides include

a) Carboryl, Methomyl and Carbofuron
b) Carbedazim, Benomyl and Thiophanate
c) Phorate, Chlorpyrifos and Isophos
d) All
40. Organophosphates includes


d) All
41. Carbamate based insecticides include

d) All
42. Nematicides include

a) D-D
b) Metham-sodium
c) Methyl bromide
d) All
43. Entomophage
in the process
in the process
45. Occurring constantly in an area in small numbers, but allowing a

switch to large numbers
1) Endemic
2) Epidemic
3) Sporadic
4) None
46. Occurring in unusually large numbers

1) Endemic

2) Epidemic
3) Sporadic
4) None
47. The number of eggs that a female of a species can produce

during her lifetime
1) Fecundity
2) Fertility
3) Both
4) None
48. The number of viable offspring that a female of a species can

produce during her lifetime
1) Fecundity
2) Fertility
3) Both
4) None
49. Ectophagous
50. Herbivore
51. Insectivore
52. Monophagous


53. Necrophagous
1) Feeding upon dead animals
2) Feeding on few kinds of food
3) The habit of feeding upon plants or vegetable matter
4) Feeding upon many kinds of food
54. Oligophagous
55. Phytophagy
56. Polyphagous
57. Saprophagous
1) Feeding upon decomposing matter
2) Feeding upon a narrow range of foods
3) Feeding upon animals
4) None
58. Stenophagous
4) None

59. Zoophagous
4) None
60. Applied biological control can be

1) Augmentative
2) Classical
3) Neo classical
4) All
61. Some of the more desirable characteristics of natural enemies in

a biological control is:
1) Good searching ability
2) Host specificity
3) High reproduction rate
4) All

1) Short life cycle
2) Adaptability
3) Host synchrony
4) Sustainability
5) All
63. Which of the following insect genera which is the natural enemy
of yellow stem borer
1) Tetrastichus
2) Telenomus
3) Trichogramma
4) All
64. Which of the following insect which is the natural enemy of gall
midge in rice
1) Platygaster oryzae
2) Neanastatus grallarius
3) Both

4) None
65. Which of the following insect which is the natural enemy of leaf
folder in rice
1) Ophionea indica
2) Nabis capsiformis
3) Paederus fuscipes
4) All
66. Which of the following insect which is the natural enemy of

hoppers in rice
1) Coccinella arcuata
2) Micraspis discolor
3) Menochilus sexmaculatus
4) Brumoides suturalis
5) Harmonia octomaculata
6) All
67. Which of the spiders is useful in rice

1) Pardosa
2) Tetragnatha
3) Oxyopes.
4) All
68. Salinity stress makes the plants conducive for survival of

1) white-backed plant hopper
2) BPH
3) YSB
4) ALL
69. Increased N levels have linked to insect pest problems in rice

like
1) BPH
2) leaf folder
3) gall midge
4) All
70. Deficient P levels have linked to in rice

1) BLB

2) BPH
3) leaf folder
4) gall midge
71. Increased Mg levels have linked to problems in rice like

1) BLB
2) BPH
3) leaf folder
4) gall midge
72. Increased S levels have linked to problems in rice like

1) Akiochi
2) BPH
3) leaf folder
4) gall midge
73. A pesticide that kills mites and ticks

a) Acaricide
b) Rodenticide
c) Pesticide
d) Insecticide
74. Action Threshold for Stem borer insect pest of rice is

a) 5% dead heart
b) 1 egg mass / 1 moth per m2
c) Both
d) None
75. Action Threshold for BPH/WBPH insect pest of rice is

a) 5% dead heart
b) 10 hoppers/hill at tillering stage
c) 15-20/hill at heading stage
d) all
76. Action Threshold for Green leaf hopper insect pest of rice is
a. 10-20 insects/hill
b. 15-20/hill (heading stage)
c. 2 freshly damaged leaves/hill
d. 5-10% damaged leaves

77. Action Threshold for Leaf folder insect pest of rice is

a. 2 freshly damaged leaves/hill
b. 5-10% damaged leaves
b) Both
c) None
78. Common natural Parasitoid /Predator of rice in India for

Scirpophaga incertulas
a) Telenomus dignoides
b) Trichogramma japonicum
c) Tetrastichus schoenobii
d) all

Scirpophaga incertulas
a) T. ayyari
b) Bracon chinensis
c) Conocephalus longipennis
d) All
80. Brown plant hopper in rice affects as nymphs and adults suck the
sap
a) During early stage of plant growth reduces height
b) general vigour and plants turn yellow and dry up
c) At later stages, crop dries up in patches known as hopper burn
d) all
81. Brown plant hopper in rice also transmit virus disease called
a) grassy stunt
b) shooty mould
c) Tungro
d) all
82. Common natural Parasitoid /Predator of rice in India for Chilo

suppressalis
a) T dignoides
b) Cotesia flavipes,
c) B) chinensis

d) Xanthopimpla spp
e) all
83. Common natural Parasitoid /Predator of rice in India for Sesamia

inference
a) Telenomus sp.
b) Trichogramma sp.
c) C) flvipes
d) B) chinensis
e) All
84. Armyworm in rice is done with
(i) Flooding or making drains in between the fields
(ii) Spray endosulfan 35EC @ 2ml/lit or chlorpyriphos 20Ec @ 1ml/lit of
water at 45 DAT
(iii) Both
(iv) None
85. Common natural Parasitoid /Predator of rice in India for Orseolia

oryzae
a) Platygaster oryzae
b) Neanastatus gracillius
c) Obtusiclava oryzae
d) all

Nilaparvata lugens
a) Anagrus sp
b) Oligosita yasumastui
c) Pseudogonatopus sp
d) Elanchus yasumatsui
e) all

Nephotettix spp
a) Gonatocerus spp.
b) O. yasumastui
c) Tomosvyaryelia spp
d) all

88. Common natural Parasitoid /Predator of rice in India for Leaf and
planthoppers
a) Cyrtorhinus lividipennis
b) Lycosa pseudoannulata
c) Paederus fuscipes
d) all

Cnaphalocrocis medinalis and Marasmia sp
a) T.japonicum
b) T.chilonis
c) Goniozus triangulifer
d) All
90. management of caseworm problem in rice is done with

a) Clipping off the tips of seedlings
b) Spray endosulfan 35EC @ 2ml/lit or chlorpyriphos 20Ec @ 1ml/lit of
water at 45 DAT
c) Both
d) None

a) Cotesia cypris
b) Cardiochiles philippinesis
c) Macrocentrus philippinesis
d) Apanteles cypris
e) all
92. Army worm in rice has following symptoms

a) Caterpillars feed on leaves in night
b) in severe infestation entire seed beds and fields are destroyed
c) the field appears as if it has been grazed by animals/cattle
d) all

a) Xanthopimpla flavolineata
b) Brachymeria excarinata

c) Conocephalus sp
d) All
94. which of the following diseases is considered as leaf damaging

a) bacterial leaf blight
b) narrow brown spot
c) bacterial leaf streak
d) all
95. which of the following diseases is considered as tiller- or

panicle-damaging
a) sheath blight
b) stem rot
c) sheath rot
d) all
96. Phalugna, Vikram, Mahamaya, Kavya, Pavitra of rice varieties are

resistant to which insect pest
a) Gall midge
b) BPH
c) Multiple pest resistance
d) Rice Tungro virus
e) BLB
97. Management of stem borer in rice is done with

(i) Clipping off the tips of seedlings
(ii) Over night seedling root dip with chlorpyriphos @ 1ml/lit of water.
(iii) Release Trichogramma @ 50,000/ha at 30 DAT
(iv) All
98. Sonasali, Chaitanya, Vajram, Jyoti, Gauri of rice varieties are

resistant to which insect pest
a) BPH
b) Multiple pest resistance
c) Rice Tungro virusa
d) BLB

99. Spiders of family Araneida is a biological control of

a) Aphids
b) Thrips and spider mites
c) Caterpillars and beetle
d) Living insects and small anthropods
100. Leaf folder in rice

a) Make folded leaf
b) damage appears as white feeding areas
c) Both
d) None
101. were the first to show that there were filterable agents, which
could be transmitted from one infected animal to another
a) Iwanowski
b) Beijerinck
c) Loeffler and Frosch
d) W.M. Stanley and J.H. Northrup
102. uraksha, Shaktiman of rice varieties are resistant to which

insect pest
a) BPH
c) Rice Tungro virus
d) BLB
103. Management of leaf folder in rice is

a) Clipping off the tips of seedlings
b) Spray endosulfan 35EC @ 2ml/lit or chlorpyriphos 20EC @ 1ml/lit of
water at 45 DAT
c) All
104. Vikramarya, Nidhi of rice varieties are resistant to which

a) BPH
d) BLB

105. Case worm in rice

a) make tubular cases
b) feed inside
c) float while moving plant to plant.
d) All
106. Ajaya,Improved Samba Mahsuri of rice varieties are resistant to

which
a) BPH
d) BLB
107. Stem borers in rice Cause

a) dead heart
b) white ear head
c) Both
d) None
108. A pesticide that kills mites and ticks is called as

a) Acaricide
b) Miticide
c) Both
d) None
109. Where is the headquarter situated for AICRP on Biological

Control,
a) Kanpur
b) Jabalpur
c) Bangalore
d) Hisar
e) Mau
110. Where is the headquarter situated for AICRP on Honey Bee

Research & Training,
a) Kanpur
b) Jabalpur
c) Bangalore
d) Hisar

e) Mau

during her lifetime
1) Fecundity
2) Fertility
3) Both
4) None
112. Monophagous
113. Hunting wasps of family Sphecidae is a biological control of

a) Aphids
114. Where is the headquarter situated for AICRP on Pesticides

Residues
a) New Delhi
b) Hyderabad
c) Kanpur
d) Jodhpur
115. Where is the headquarter situated for AICRP on Nematodes

a) New Delhi
b) Hyderabad
c) Kanpur
d) Jodhpur
116. Faster absorption of form of 2-4D-

a) Ethylester
b) Dimethylamine
c) sodium salt

d) all
117. which of the following is mollusca

a) millipedes
b) centipedes
c) slighs
d) earthworms
118. Necrophagous
119. Minute pirate bugs of family Anthocoridae is a biological control

of
a) Aphids
120. Nilaparvata lugens Stal is popularly known as

a) Green leaf hopper
b) Brown planthopper
c) White-backed planthopper
d) All

1) Fecundity
2) Fertility
3) Both
4) None
122. . Lance nematode
a. Meloidogyne graminicola
b. Pratylenchus spp.
c. Hoplolaimus indicus
d. Aphelenchoides besseyi

123. Important nematode pests of Tomato,

a. Meloidogyne incognita
b. M. javanica
c. Rotylenchulus reniformis
d. All
124. Which of the following target species of nematode is managed

through the PGPR such as Bacillus licheniformis, Alcaligenes
faecalis
a) Globodera pallida
b) M. incognita
c) M. javanica
d) M. incognita race3
e) Panagrellus sp.
125. Spiral nematode

1) Heterodera oryzicola
2) Helicotylenchus spp.
4) Ditylenchus angustus
126. Which of the following cover crops with non-host leguminous

trees or shrubs can be a control strategy against nematode
a) Crotalaria spp.
b) Dhaincha
c) Bgreen manure
d) all

through the PGPR such as B. cereus
b) M. incognita
c) M. javanica
d) M. incognita race3
128. Which of the following nematodes are disseminated with crop

seeds
a) Anguina tritici on wheat
b) Ditylenchus dipsaci on alfalfa

c) Both
d) None
129. Major strategies of nematode management of Biological

includes which of the following measures
a) Natural
b) Introduced
c) Engineered
d) All
130. common antagonistic crops which either reduce the nematode

populations in soil or do not encourage their multiplication
include
a) Cosmos
b) horse gram
c) linseed
d) All
131. Cyst nematode

132. Reduction of Initial Nematode Population Densities includes

which of the following principles
a) crop eradication
b) rotation
c) vertical resistance
d) All

through the PGPR such as Agrobacterium radiobacter
b) M. incognita race3
c) Panagrellus sp.

134. Which of the following companion plants with nematicidal root

exudates have been widely used growing alongside susceptible
crops for controlling nematodes
a) Species of Tagetes
b) Crotalaria
c) castor bean (Ricinus communis)
d) all
135. Ufra nematode

136. Important nematode pests of Wheat

1) Heterodera avenae
2) Pratylenchus spp
3) Heterodera zeae
4) None
137. common antagonistic crops which either reduce the nematode

populations in soil or do not encourage their multiplication
include
a) Tagetes spp.,
b) Mustard
c) Sorghum
d) All

through the PGPR such as Bacillus thuringiensis
a) C. elegans,R. reniformis,P. penetrans
b) R. reniformis
c) M. incognita race3
139. Crotalaria spectabilis, cowpea, English pea, periwinkle, „Sree

Bhadra‟ variety of Yam act as a trap crop for which of the
following plant-parasitic nematodes
a) Meloidogyne spp.
b) Heterodera avenae

c) H. schachtii
d) Globodera spp.
140. Where is the headquarter situated for AICRP on Nematodes

a) New Delhi
b) Hyderabad
c) Kanpur
d) Jodhpur

through the PGPR such as Pseudomonas solanacearum
b) R. reniformis
142. Reduction of Initial Nematode Population Densities includes

which of the following principles
a) chemical nematicides
b) biological control
c) physical treatments
d) All
143. Important nematode pests of Corn

1) . Heterodera avenae
2) Pratylenchus spp
3) Heterodera zeae
4) Both 2&3
144. strategy in carefully developed IPM systems includes

a) Selection of site
b) Deep summer ploughing/Soil solarization
c) Timely sowing
d) All
145. Oat act as a trap crop for which of the following plant-parasitic
nematodes
a) Meloidogyne spp.
c) H. schachtii

d) Globodera spp.
146. Which of the following are the Fundamental Options for

Nematode Management
a) Regulatory measures
b) Physical measures
c) Cultural measures
d) all

through the PGPR such as B. subtilis
b) R. reniformis
148. Important nematode pests of Peanut

1) Meloidogyne arenaria
2) Pratylenchus zeae
3) Meloidogyne spp.
4) Hoplolaimus indicus
149. Which of the following are the Fundamental Options for

Nematode Management
a) Chemical measures
b) Host resistance
c) Biological approach
d) Biointensive integration of measures

through the PGPR such as Endophytic bacterial stains
a) H. cajani
b) M. incognita
c) M. javanica
d) R. similis, Meloidogyne spp.
151. Hesperis matronalis act as a trap crop for which of the following
plant-parasitic nematodes
a) Meloidogyne spp.

c) H. schachtii
d) Globodera spp.
152. Important nematode pests of Sugarcane

1) Pratylenchus zeae
2) Meloidogyne spp.
3) Hoplolaimus indicus
4) All
153. Major tactics for controlling root-knot nematodes include

a) sterilization of the soil by starvation
b) the potential of trap crops
c) composts
d) all

through the PGPR such as P. fluorescens
a) H. cajani
b) M. incognita
c) M. javanica
155. Important nematode pests of Tobacco

1) Meloidogyne incognita
2) M. javanica
3) Both
4) None
156. Major strategies of nematode management of Cultural includes

which of the following measures
a) Crop rotation
b) Inter- and intracropping
c) Cover/trap crops
d) All
157. Potato act as a trap crop for which of the following plant-
parasitic nematodes
a) Meloidogyne spp.

c) H. schachtii
d) Globodera spp.
158. Major tactics for controlling root-knot nematodes include

a) Nematicides
b) hardwood ash
c) potash
d) all

through the PGPR such as P. putida, P. fluorescens
a) H. cajani
b) M. incognita
c) M. javanica
160. Important nematode pests of Cotton

1) Meloidogyne incognita,
2) M. javanica
3) Rotylenchulus reniformis
4) All
161. For eradication of root-knot nematodes which measures may be

taken up
1. Burning of residues two or three times if possible, each preceded by
digging or ploughing.
2. Dry fallow with frequent ploughing.
3. One or two well-irrigated trap crops, completely destroyed two or
three weeks after sprouting
4. all
162. Important nematode pests of Tomato,

2) M. javanica
4) All

163. For eradication of root-knot nematodes which measures may be

taken up
a) Moist fallow during warm weather, without weeds.
b) Resistant crops in rotation, kept free of weeds
c) Both
d) None
164. Important nematode pests of brinjal,

2) M. javanica
4) All
165. Root-knot nematodes enhance the susceptibility of crops to

Which of the following diseases
a) as cotton wilt
b) black shank of tobacco
c) Rhizoctonia disease of groundnuts
d) all
166. Important nematode pests of chillies

2) M. javanica
4) All
167. S. carpocapsae an entomopathogenic nematodes is useful in

pest control of
1) Black vine weevil,
2) Sciarid flies, Stem borers, weevil
3) Mint weevil, root borer
4) Sciarid flies
168. Important nematode pests of Banana

1) Radopholus similis,
2) Meloidogyne graminicola
3) Pratylenchus spp
4) All

169. Who wrote the book Silent Spring

a) Rachel Carlson
b) Barker
c) Cobb
d) None
170. S. feltiae an entomopathogenic nematodes is useful in pest

control of
4) Sciarid flies
171. Integrated Nematode Management approach to limit pest

damage to tolerable levels through a combination of tactics and
techniques includes
a) parasites and predators
b) host resistance
c) cultural practices
d) all
172. H. bacteriophora an entomopathogenic nematodes is useful in

pest control of
4) Sciarid flies
173. Integrated Nematode Management approach to limit pest
damage to tolerable levels through a combination of tactics and
techniques includes
a) environmental modification
b) pesticides
c) Both
d) None
174. S. feltiae an entomopathogenic nematodes is useful in pest

control of


4) Sciarid flies
175. INM comprises a number of components in an operational

framework including:
1. Biological monitoring,
2. Environmental monitoring,
3. The decision-maker,
4. The decision-support system,
5. The decision,
6. Procedure implementation,
all
176. S. riobrave an entomopathogenic nematodes is useful in pest

control of
1) Citrus root weevil (Diaprepes abbreviatus)
2) Black vine weevil
3) strawberry root weevil,
4) cranberry girdler
177. are the most effective AM species that have been evaluated and
found effective in managing plant parasitic nematodes
a) Glomus fasciculatum
b) G.mosseae
c) Both
d) None

pest control of

2) strawberry root weevil,
3) cranberry girdler
4) All
179. Glomus fasciculatum and G.mosseae are the most effective AM

species that have been evaluated and found effective in
managing plant parasitic nematodes like
a) Meloidogyne incognita on tomato/brinjal

b) Radopholus similis on banana

c) Tylenchulus semipenetrans on citrus
d) All
180. H. Bacteriophora an entomopathogenic nematodes is useful in

pest control of
2) white grubs
3) Both
4) None
181. Which of the following Bacterial bioagents has been used as an

effective nematode control measures
a) Paesturia penetrans
b) Pseudomonas fluorescens
c) Both
d) None

pest control of
1) Mint weevil,
2) root borer,
3) flea beetle,
4) cutworms
5) All
183. Which of the following fungal bioagents have been successfully

evaluated against several plant parasitic nematodes on various
crops
184. Trichoderma viride
a) T. harzianum
b) Paecilomyces lilacinus
c. All
185. Native of somewhere place is called as

1) Alien
2) exotic
3) Both
4) None

186. Native; indigenous is called as

5) Autochthonous
6) Zymogenous
7) Allocthonous
8) None
187. Which of the following is a form of parthenogenesis

5) Deuterotoky
6) Thelytoky
7) Deuterotoky
8) Arrhenotoky

pest control of
1) Billbugs,
2) cutworms,
3) army worms
4) All
189. Which of the following fungal bioagents have been successfully

evaluated against several plant parasitic nematodes on various
crops
a) Pochonia chlamydosporia
b) Verticillium lecani
c) Catenaria anguillulae
d) Arthrobotrys conoides,
All
190. S. Riobrave an entomopathogenic nematodes is useful in pest

control of
1) Mole crickets
2) Billbugs,
3) cutworms,
4) army worms

191. botanicals prepared from which of the following have been

found effective in successfully minimizing the populations of
nematodes parasites of crop plants
a) Plant parts/extracts of neem (Azadirachta indica)
b) castor (Ricinus communis)
c) Datura (Datura stramonium)
d) All

pest control of
1) Cat fleas of Dogs
2) Cat fleas of Cats
3) All

a) Pudina (Mentha piperita)
b) Subabool (Leucaena leucocephala)
c) Bhang (Cannabis procera)
d) Aak (Calotropis procera)
e) All
194. Which insecticide is known as cholinesterase inhibitors

1) Organophosphate
2) carbamate insecticides
3) Both
4) None

a) Bathu (Chenopodium album)
b) Safeda (Eucalyptus naundina)
c) Paper flower (Bougainvillia spectabilis)
d) Kandal (Cirsium arvense)
e) All

196. Which insecticide is known as Acetylcholine Receptor

Stimulation
1) Neonicotinoid
2) Spinosad
3) Both
4) None
197. Major factors that influence the seasonal fluctuations of

nematode populations include the following
a) The biology (especially reproductive and survival characteristics)
b) Environmental parameters
c) Management practices.
d) All
198. Which insecticide is known as Sodium Channel Modulators

1) Pyrethrins
2) Pyrethroids
3) Both
4) None
199. bioassays utilizing suitable host plants have been used in

managing successfully for
a) Heterodera avenae on wheat
b) as cotton wilt
c) black shank of tobacco
d) Rhizoctonia disease of groundnuts
200. Which insecticide is known as Chloride Channel Regulation

1) Organochlorine
2) Avermectins
3) Both
4) None
201. Acting as non-host or poor hosts plants useful in crop rotation

for controlling which of the following nematode problem
a) B. gracilis
b) Dolichodorus heterocephalus
c) Helicotylenchus dihystera
d) Heterodera glycines

202. Crotalaria spp., Crotalaria spectabilis hairy indigo, marigold,

tobacco Acting as non-host or poor hosts plants useful in crop
rotation for controlling which of the following nematode
problem
a) B. gracilis
203. Crotalaria spp., tobacco, watermelon Acting as non-host or poor
hosts plants useful in crop rotation for controlling which of the
following nematode problem
a) B. gracilis
204. Crotalaria spectabilis Acting as non-host or poor hosts plants

useful in crop rotation for controlling which of the following
nematode problem
a) B. gracilis
205. Alfalfa, maize, fescu Acting as non-host or poor hosts plants

nematode problem
a) Belonolaimus longicaudatus
b) H. schachtii
c) H. zeae3
d) Globodera rostochiensis
206. Maize, cotton, cowpea, potato, small grains, grains, tobacco,

most vegetables Acting as non-host or poor hosts plants useful
in crop rotation for controlling which of the following nematode
problem
b) H. schachtii

c) H. zeae3
207. Alfalfa, bean, clover, maize, Hesperis matronalis, onion Acting

as non-host or poor hosts plants useful in crop rotation for
controlling which of the following nematode problem
b) H. schachtii
c) H. zeae
208. Maize, green beans, red clover Acting as non-host or poor hosts
plants useful in crop rotation for controlling which of the
b) H. schachtii
c) H. zeae3
209. Cabbage, chili, eggplant Acting as non-host or poor hosts

a) Hoplolaimus indicus
b) Meloidogyne javanica
c) M. hapla
d) M. incognita
210. Andropogon, Crotalaria spp., cotton, groudnut, sorghum, velvet

bean Acting as non-host or poor hosts plants useful in crop
problem
c) M. hapla
d) M. incognita

211. Maize, cotton, grasses, lettuce, onion, radish Acting as non-host

or poor hosts plants useful in crop rotation for controlling which
of the following nematode problem
c) M. hapla
d) M. incognita
212. Fescue, orchard grass Acting as non-host or poor hosts plants

nematode problem
c) M. hapla
d) M. incognita
213. Crotalaria spectabilis, Indigolera hirsuta, millet, oats, wheat

Acting as non-host or poor hosts plants useful in crop rotation
for controlling which of the following nematode problem
a) Meloidogyne spp.
b) Paratrichodorus minor
c) Pratylenchus leiocephalus
d) P. penetrans
214. Maize,2 Crotalaria spectabilis Acting as non-host or poor hosts

a) Meloidogyne spp.
d) P. penetrans
215. Groundnut Acting as non-host or poor hosts plants useful in

crop rotation for controlling which of the following nematode
problem
a) Meloidogyne spp.
d) P. penetrans

216. Alfalfa, beet, fescue, marigold, oats, Sudan grass, rye Acting as
non-host or poor hosts plants useful in crop rotation for
controlling which of the following nematode problem
a) Meloidogyne spp.
d) P. penetrans
217. Lettuce, onion, radish Acting as non-host or poor hosts plants

nematode problem
a) Pratylenchus spp.
b) Radopholus similis
c) Tylenchorhynchus mirzal
d) T. brassicae
e) Xiphinema americanum
218. Crotalaria spectabilis Acting as non-host or poor hosts plants

nematode problem
d) T. brassicae
219. Wheat Acting as non-host or poor hosts plants useful in crop

problem
d) T. brassicae

220. Potato, tomato Acting as non-host or poor hosts plants useful in

crop rotation for controlling which of the following nematode
problem
d) T. brassicae
221. Alfalfa, maize, fescue, tobacco Acting as non-host or poor hosts

d) T. brassicae

5) Biopesticide
8) All
223. Cleptobiont
1) An organism that obtains its food by robbing another organism
of the food that it has collected.
224. Carnivore
food that it has collected.


225. Commensalism
226. Competitor
9) An organism that competes with others for resources .
227. Detritivore
228. Direct pest is


229. Ectoparasite is
230. Ectoparasitoid is
7) A parasitoid that lives on the external surface of its host,
feeding on it and killing it in the process
231. Ectophage is
232. Endoparasitoid
6) A parasitoid that lives in another organism, feeding on it and
233. Endophage
A parasitoid that lives in another organism, feeding on it and killing it
in the process

234. Entomogenous
in the process
235. Entomophage
in the process
in the process
237. Occurring constantly in an area in small numbers, but allowing a

switch to large numbers
5) Endemic
6) Epidemic
7) Sporadic
8) None
238. Occurring in unusually large numbers

5) Endemic
6) Epidemic
7) Sporadic
8) None
during her lifetime
5) Fecundity

6) Fertility
7) Both
8) None

5) Fecundity
6) Fertility
7) Both
8) None
241. Ectophagous
242. Herbivore
243. Insectivore
244. Monophagous
245. Necrophagous

246. Oligophagous
247. Phytophagy
248. Polyphagous
249. Saprophagous
8) None
250. Stenophagous
8) None
251. Zoophagous
8) None

252. Applied biological control can be

5) Augmentative
6) Classical
7) Neo classical
8) All

5) Good searching ability
6) Host specificity
7) High reproduction rate
8) All
254. Some of the more desirable characteristics of natural enemies

in a biological control is:
6) Short life cycle
7) Adaptability
8) Host synchrony
9) Sustainability
10) All
255. A NASSCOM study of 2019 has suggested that Indian farmers

face post-harvest losses amounting to a whopping
a) Rs 93,000 crore
b) Rs893,000 crore
c) Rs 63,000 crore
d) Rs 53,000 crore.
256. The chemical used to control Colorado potato beetle in USA

a) Lead acetate, 1897
b) Paris green, 1867
c) Lead acetate, 1767
d) Paris green, 1767
257. Drooping of tender shoots in brinjal is due to the damage of

a) Stem borer
b) Shoot and fruit borer
c) Epilachna beetle
d) Mealy bugs

258. Sweet potato weevil belongs to the family

a) Apionidae
b) Aphididae
c) Chrysomelidae
d) Cerambicidae
259. „Mustard as trap crop in cabbage is against

a) Head borer
b) Cabbage butterfly
c) bug
d) Diamond back moth
260. Caterpillar which feed on pericarp of chilli fruit leaving seed

intact
a) Spdoptera litura
b) Utethesia pulchella
c) Helicoverpa armigera
d) Spodoptera exigua
261. Numbers of spots on elytra of epilachna beetle is

a) 5-10
b) 12-28
c) 4-8
d) 6-10
262. Eupterote mollifera is a specific pest of

a) Castor
b) Groundnut
c) Linseed
d) Drumstick
263. Turmeric – Brown leaf spot disease is caused by

a) a) Uromyces fabae
b) b) Taphrina deformans
c) c) Taphrina maculans
d) d) Both a & b

264. The pink mealy bug (hibiscus mealy bug = grapevine mealy bug)
is a serious pest of grapevine and citrus in India
a. Spodoptera litura
b. Maconellicoccus hirsutus
c. Cryptolaemus montrouzieri
d. All
265. Which one of the following insecticides banned for use in

vegetable crops?
a) Endosulfan
b) DDT
c) Cypermethrin
d) Monocrotophos
266. Which of the following could be considered as biological

invader?
(a) Lantana
(b) Gossyoium
(c) Shorearobusta
(d) Tectonagrandis
267. Sugar beet cyst nematode reported by

a) Needham
b) Cobb
c) Schacht
d) Spallanzani
268. Root knot of vegetables is caused by

a) Meloidogyne
b) Heterodera
c) Pratylenchus
d) Xanthomonas (a)
269. Margosa is a highly effective product in reducing root-knot

nematode population belongs to
a) Acacia arabica
b) Azadirachta indica
c) Citrullus colosynthes
d) Pongamia glabra

270. Potato cyst nematode, Globodera rostochiensis was first

reported from India by FGW Jones in the year
a) 1951
b) 1961
c) 1971
d) 1965
271. The nematode Heterodera avenae is confined to the graminae

family except one single legume
a) Pisum sativum
b) Cajanus cajan
c) Vigna mungo
d) Senebiera pinnatifolia
272. Lesion nematodes of almost all crop plants and trees is caused
by
(a) Radopholus
(b) Pratylenchus
(c) Nacobbus
(d) Anguina
273. Sting nematode of cucurbits is caused by

(a) Belonolaimus
(b) Tylenchulus
(c) Paratylenchus
(d) None
274. Stubby-root nematode of vegetables is caused by

(a) Longidorus
(b) Aphelenchoides
(c) Paratrichodorus
(d) None
275. The final counting days for knol khol is

a. 10 days
b. 4 days
c. 6 days
d. 8 days

276. Potato tuber rot nematode is caused by

(a) Globodera restochiensis
(b) Tylenchulus sp.
(c) Ditylenchus destructor
(d) None of these
277. Potato cyst nematode is caused by

(a) Tylenchulus semipenetrans
(b) Radopholus similis
(c) Pratylenchus
(d) Globodera rostochiensis
278. Root knot nematode of tobacco & cucumber is caused by

(a) Ditylenchus dipsaci
(b) B. cocophilus
(c) Anguina tritici
(d) Meloidogyne incognita
279. Round cyst nematode of potato is caused by

(a) Heterodera
(b) Globodera
(c) Hemicycliophora
(d) Rotylenchus
280. Stubby-root nematode of potato is caused by

(a) Trichodorus
(b) Hoplolaimus
(c) Anguina
(d) Radopholus
281. Bulb nematode of onion is caused by

(a) Nacobbus
(b) Ditylenchus
(c) Belonolaimidae
(d) Pratylenchus

282. “Vein clearing” disease of bhendi transmitted by

a) Aphids
b) Thrips
c) Leaf hopper
d) Whitefly
283. Aquatic, free floating, rootless, small herbaceous insectivorous

plant is
a) Drosera
b) Dionea
c) Utricularia
d) Pinguicula
284. The import of agricultural commodities is presently regulated

through the
a. New Policy on Seed Development, 1988
b. Plant Quarantine (Regulation of Import into India) Order, 2003
c. DIP Act of 1914
d. PFS (1989)
285. Important nematode pests of Banana

a. Radopholus similis,
b. Meloidogyne graminicola
c. Pratylenchus spp
d.a) ll
286. the most effective and adapted species or strain for the specific
crop / pest situation for Trichogramma chilonis is
a. Pomegranate fruit borer
b. Virachola isocrates
c. Rice leaffolder
d. Cnaphalocrocis medinalis
e.a) ll
287. The pink mealy bug (hibiscus mealy bug = grapevine mealy bug)
is a serious pest of grapevine and citrus in India
a. Spodoptera litura
b. Maconellicoccus hirsutus
c. Cryptolaemus montrouzieri

d. all
288. Which one of the following insecticides banned for use in

vegetable crops?
a) Endosulfan
b) DDT
c) Cypermethrin
d) Monocrotophos
289. Which of the following Bt transgenic crops is commercialized in

India
(a) Cotton
(b) Brinjal
(c) Soybean
(d) Rice
Ans. a
290. raits for genetically modified crops could be
(a) Cry1Ab
(b) Herbicide tolerance
(c) Protease inhibitors
(d) All the above
Ans. d
291. Ti plasmid from Agrobacterium is used as vector for genetic
(a) Conjugation
(b) Transformation
(c) Transduction
(d) None
Ans. b
292. A molecular marker is located
(a) Outside the gene
(b) Within a gene
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans. c
293. Cry toxins are
(a) Stomach active
(b) Cuticle active
(c) Nerve active
(d) All of the above

Ans. a
294. A molecular vector should contain
(a) Origin of replication
(b) Multiple cloning site
(c) selection marker
Ans. d
295. Molecular weight of Cry1 type protoxin is approximately
(a) 130 kDa
(b) 200 kDa
(c) 68 kDa
(d) None
Ans. a
296. Quantification of a particular gene can be done by
(a) PCR
(b) Real time PCR
(c) ELISA
(d) Southern hybridization
Ans. d
2
297. Autoclaving is usually done at 15lb/inch for 30 min at
(a) 72.80C
(b) 1210C
(c) 85.40C
(d) 1000C
Ans. b
298. Who among the following is a famous gene campaigner
(a) M.S. Swaminathan
(b) Suman Sahai
(c) Norman Borlaug
(d) Ingo Potrykus
Ans. b
299. Which among the following is entomopathogenic bacteria
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Bacillus cereus
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans. c
300. Who named the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis
(a) Ishiwata

(b) Berliner
(c) Philip Fitz-James
(d) None
Ans. b
301. Who observed the presence of inclusion bodies for the first time
(a) Mattes
(b) Christopher Hannay
(c) Thomas Angus
(d) Berliner
Ans. a
302. Who coined the phrase „parasporal crystals‟
(a) Ishiwata
(b) Christopher Hannay
(c) Thomas Angus
(d) Ishiwata
Ans. b
303. Insecticidal activity of the inclusion bodies was demonstrated
for the first time by
(a) Thomas Angus
(b) Philip Fitz-James
(c) Ishiwata
(d) Berliner
Ans. a
304. Who discovered that the toxic parasporal crystals are composed
of protein
(a) Thomas Angus
(b) Ishiwata
(c) Philip Fitz-James and Hannay
(d) None
Ans. c
305. Bacillus thuringiensis subsp. israelensis is toxic to
(a) Termite
(b) Aphids
(c) Mites
(d) Housefly
Ans. d
306. In India what was the approximate area under Bt. cotton in the
year 2010
(a) 7.0 Mi.ha

(b) 10.0 Mi.ha

(c) 14 Mi.ha
(d) 18 Mi.ha
Ans. b
307. Bt. cotton occupies approximately what percentage of total area
under cotton
(a) 85%
(b) 95%
(c) 90%
(d) 75%
Ans. b
308. What is the specialty of rice varieties Huahui No. 1 and Bt
Shanyou 63
(a) Herbicide tolerant
(b) Draught resistance
(c) Thermal resistance
(d) These are Bt Rice
Ans. d
309. Huahui No. 1 expresses which Bt gene
(a) cry1Ab
(b) cry1Ab/Ac
(c) cry1Ab/Ac fusion gene
(d) None
Ans. c
310. Which of the following statements are correct
(a) Crystals are formed during vegetative cells
(b) Crystals are formed much after vegetative cells
(c) Crystals are formed before spore formation
(d) Both (b) & (c)
Ans. d
311. What are the molecular basis of diversity in Bt toxins
(a) Heterogenous plasmids population
(b) Bt encoding genes on conjugational plasmids
(c) Occurrence of Insertion sequences and transposons
Ans. d
312. The nematicidal toxins belong to which Cry family
(a) Cry4 class
(b) Cry5 class

(c) Cry6 class

(d) Cry7 class
Ans. c
313. Bt Subsp kurstaki acts mostly against
(a) Lepidopterans
(b) Coleopterans
(c) Dipterans
Ans. a
314. Markers can generally be used
(a) To assess genetic diversity
(b) Allele mining
(c) Association mapping
Ans. d
315. Bt Biopesticides accounts for what percent of total global
biopesticide market
(a) 46%
(b) 75%
(c) 63%
(d) 25%
Ans. a
316. Midgut of insects are important for
(a) Food digestion
(b) Enzyme secretion
(c) Regulation of ion balance
Ans. d
317. Gut epithelium of Lepidopteran insects possess
(a) Columnar cells
(b) Goblet cells
(c) Stem cells
Ans. d
318. Peritrophic membrane contains
(a) Chitin
(b) Proteoglycans
(c) Proteins

Ans. d
319. Various mechanisms for insect‟s adaptation to overcome Bt

infection are
(a) Enhanced /reduced midgut protease activity
(b) Production of antimicrobial agents
(c) Mutation in receptor sites
Ans. d
320. Disruption of Peritrophic membrane may occur by
(a) Enhance in proteins from Bt and virus
(b) Plant proteases
(c) Fungal and bacterial chitinases
Ans. d
321. What are the various midgut immunity factors
(a) Antimicrobial peptides
(b) Peptidoglycan receptors on epithelial surface
(c) Immune priming
Ans. d
322. Different antibacterial enzymes that act as midgut immunity
factors
(a) Polyphenol oxidase
(b) Lysozyme
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans. c
323. What are the different Antibacterial peptides that act as midgut
immunity factors
(a) Cecropins
(b) Defensins
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans. c
324. What are the insect gut immune inhibitors
(a) Insect pathogens
(b) Photorhabdus toxins that weakens insect immune system
(c) Both

(d) None
Ans. c
325. Which bacterium induces apoptosis in the midgut of
lepidopteran insect?
(a) Klebsiella sp.
(b) Photorhabdus sp.
(c) Citrobacter sp.
(d) Brucella sp.
Ans. b
326. Avoidable crop losses due to insect pests in India in rice is
(a) 26.3 mt
(b) 40 mt
(c) 54 mt
(d) 19 mt
Ans. a
327. Important procedures for evaluation of GM crops are
(a) Cut leaf bioassays or detached leaf bioassays (in lab)
(b) Whole plant bioassays (glasshouse/ screen house)
(c) Field evaluation
Ans. D
328. Is a protein hormone secreted by the b– cells of islets of
Langerhans
(a) Silk fibroin
(b) Keratin
(c) Myosin
(d) Insulin
Ans. d
329. 196.10 % phospholipids of brain and muscle is composed of
(a) Plasmalogens
(b) Cardiolipin
(c) Cephalin
(d) All
Ans. a
330. Protein found in silk
(a) Keratin
(b) Fibroin
(c) Zein
(d) oryzenin

Ans. b
331. Nematophagous fungi is related to
(a) Lentinus lepidius
(b) Amanita sp
(c) Pleurotus sp
(d) Dactyllella sp
Ans. d
332. Bt transgenics is related to
(a) Inbred lines
(b) Rice
(c) wheat
(d) cotton boll worm
Ans. d
333. The branch of zoology that deals with the study of insect is
known as
a) Geology
b) Entomology
(c) Etymology
d) Nematology
334. Studies of external structure of body of insect fauna is termed

as.
a) External Entomology
(b) Insect Morphology
(c) Insect Embryology
(d) Anatomy
(e) None of these
335. The studies of classification of insects and the rules of their

nomenclature is called
a) Insect historology
(b) Insect taxonomy
c) Insect Ecology
(d) Insect behaviour
336. The study of insects in relation to their environment is called:

a) Insect Ecology
(b) Insectology

c) Insect Morphology
(d) Insect diversity
337. Studies of internal organs of insect species is called :

a) Insect Entomology
(b) Insect Anatomy
c) Insect ecology
(d) Insect Bio-diversity
338. The branch of entomology dealing with tissue under micrisope

or microscapic studies of tissues of insect is called:
a) Insect Histology
(b) Insect cytology
(c) Microscopic Entomology
(d) Insect tissueology
339. The branch of entomology principally dealing with functions of

insects cells, tissues and organs is nothing but it is :
a) Insect physiology
(b) Insect anatomy
c) Insect internal morphology
(d) Ecology
340. The branch of entomology dealing with growth and development

of insects‟ embryo is called :
a) Insects reproduction science
b) Insects embryology
c) Ecology
d) Etymology
341. The entomological branch which provides studies of fossils of

insects is called :
a) Fossliology
b) Paleo- Entomology
c) Paleo Insects
d) Paleo-Etymology
342. The entomological branch dealing with the studies of insects

concerning with forest plantation.

a) Timber insectology
(b) Forest entomology
c) Forest Etymology
(d) Forest Zoology
343. The studies of insect life in relation to agriculture, crops and

stored commodities is generally termed as :
a) Agricultural Entomology
(b) Agricultural Insectolgy
c) Storage Entomology
(d) Domestic Entomology
344. The entomological branch dealing with insects, which are

responsible for transmitting human diseases is commonly
known as :
a) Human Entomology
(b) Medical Entomology
c) Insect anthropology
(d) Insect behaviorolgy
345. The science dealing with cells and their constituents of insect
life is called :
a) Insect cytology
(b) Insect anatomy
c) Insect cytobiolgy
(c) Cryobiology
346. The entomological branch which deals with beneficial insects

like honey bee, lac insects and silk worm and the insect related
with wood, wool, cloth and other industrials materials is called:
a) Industrial Entomology
b) Productive Insectology
c) Reproductive Entomology
d) Insect Ecology
347. Studies of insects in relation to domestic and pet animals may

be known as:
a) Domestic entomology
b) Veterinary Parasitology

c) Veterinary entomology
d) Parasitic Entomology
348. Studies of parasites in relation to animals is termed as ;

a) Parasitology
b) Entomology
c) Veterinary
d) Toxicology
349. Studies of toxic materials in relation to insects for their

m2anagement is termed as :
a) Insect toxicology
b) Insect physiology
c) Pestology
d) Insectology
350. Specialized branch of zoology dealing with various/ different

aspects of insect life is :
a) Etymology
b) Entomology
c) Acarology
d) Zoology
351. The treacheate arthropod organism in which the body in their

adult stage is divided into three distinct regions and bears three
pairs of legs, two pairs of wings and one pair antennae the
organisms are:
a) Mites
b) Scorpions
c) Insects
d) Arachnids
352. Crustacean includes :

e) Insect, mites and spiders
f) Crabs, prawns and lobsters
g) Millipeds and centipeds
h) Hexapods and tetrapods
353. Onychora includes.

i) Crabs, prawns, lobsters

j) Peripatus
k) Insects and spiders
l) Millipeds
354. Arachnids includes

m) Crabs and prawns
n) Spiders, scorpion, ticks and mites
o) Centipedes and millipedes
p) Ants and white flies
355. Myriapods includes :

q) Insect, caterpillars, nymphs
r) Millipedes and Centipeds,
s) Adults and nymphs
t) Lobsters and mites
356. Hexapods includes :

u) Insect species
v) Non insect species
w) Pest species
x) Rodent species
357. Diplopods includes :

a) Millipeds
(b) Scorpions
(c) Mites
d) Insects
(e) None of the above
358. Chilopoda includes :

a) Centipeds
(b) Rodents
(c) Mosquitoes
d) Insects
359. Crustaceans are characterized by the possession of two paris of

antennae and at least five pairs of legs and they includes :
a) Shirmp,s crobs, lobsters, shrimps

b) White and black ants, mites

c) Rats and moles
d) Pest and non – pest species
360. Any living organisms which is capable of causing economic

damage and loss to crop plants is termed as :
a) Crop pests
b) Insects
c) Mites
d) Crop pests
361. Any living organisms (flora or fauna) which can cause

injuries or damage to crop plants which, in turn, cause
economic loss, the organisms are called broadly as :
a) Pests
(b) NES of pest
(c) Predators
d) Parasites
362. Any living organisms, other than insect species, capable of

causing economic damage / loss to crop (s) is termed as :
a) Non- insect pests
(b) Insect pests
c) Pathogienic pests
(d) Grass hoppers
363. The toxicants capable of causing killing, hindering growth,

suppressing the incidence of pest species is broadly termed as :
a) Weedicide
(b) Pesticides
c) Insecticides
(d) Rodenticides
364. The toxicants or substances which are used to kills fungal

pathogens of plants/ crops is termed as :
a) Fungicides
b) Pesticides
c) Rodenticides
d) Miticides

365. The Tioxicants or the substance which are used to kill mite
pests are called :
a) Acaricides
(b) Nematicides
c) Pesticides
(d) Weedicides
366. The toxicants or the substances which are used to control weed
flora is called :
a) Weedicides
(b) Pesticides
(c) Nematicides
(d) Acaricides
367. The toxicants or the substances which are used to kill nematode
pests are termed as:
a) Rodenticides
(b) Nematicides
(c) Weedicides
(d) Biocides
368. The living organisms which are used to control pest species are
called
a) NE‟s of pests
(b) Synthetic pesticides
c) Insecticides
(d) Autocidial Control
369. The living organisms which are capable of causing death of the
insect pests by parasitizing them is called
a) Parasitoids
(b) Pesticides
c) Toxicants
(d) Predators
370. The living organisms which are capable of causing death of the
pest species through devouring them is called:
a) Parasites

(b) Predators
(c) NE’s
(d) Parasitoids
371. The organisms belonging to class insecta and are capable of

causing economic loss or damage to crop plants is termed as :
a) Insect pests
(b) Weed pests
(c) Harmful pests
(d) Nematodes
372. The insecticides derived from Bacillus Thuringiensis is effective

against the insect pest species belonging mainly to the insect
order :
a) Lepidoptera
(b) Thysnoptera
(c) Diptera
(d) Odonata
e) None of these.
373. The microbial insecticides viz. Delfin, Biolep, Biobit and Dipel
are the derivatives of :
a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Lactobacillus spp
c) Nuclear bacillus
(d) Protozoic spp.
374. Nuclear polyhedrosis virus (NPV) is :

a) Species specific insecticide
b) Broad spectrum insecticide
c) Multi host insecticide
d) Spices specific fungicide
375. HaNPV is highly effective against :

a) Spodoptera litura
(b) Spilarctia abliqua
c) Grass hopper
(d) Helicoverpa armigera

376. So NPV is effective against :

a) Tobacco caterpillar
(b) Grampod borer
c) Lucern caterpillar
(d) Spilarctia obliqua
377. Sl NPV is effective against :

a) Tobacoo caterpillar
(b) Grampod borer
c) Luncern caterpillar
(d) Insect
378. So NPV is effective against

a) Bihar hairy caterpillar
b) Gram pod borer
c) Tobacco caterpillar
d) Tea caterpillar
379. Trichoderma spp is an antagonistic fungus used against :

a) Insect pest of crops
b) Mite pest of crops
c) Redent pest of crops
d) Fungal pathogens of plant disease of crops
380. Trogoderma spp. Is

a) An insects egg parasitoid
b) A storage pest of grains
c) An antagonistic against fungal pathogens
d) An antagonistic against fungal pathogens of diseases of crop.
381. The body of Arachnids is usually divided into :

a) Head, thorax and abdomen
b) Cephalothorax and abdomen
c) Head and abdomen
d) Thorax and Abdomen
382. The body of Arachnids usually bears :

a) Six pairs of legs and one pair of antennae
b) Four pairs of legs and one pairs of antennae

c) Three pairs of legs and antennae are absent

d) Four pairs of legs and two pairs of wings
383. The body of Arachnids usually bears :

a) Three pairs of legs and one pair of antennae.
b) Four pairs of legs and in place of antennae, it has chelicerae.
c) Four pairs of legs, one pair of antennae and chelicerae
d) Two pairs of wings, 4 pairs of legs and one pair of antenne.
384. The crustacean arthropods are characterized by the possession

of :
a) Five pairs of legs and two pairs of antennae.
b) Four pairs of legs and one pair of antennae
c) Three pairs of legs and one pair of antennae
d) Six pairs of legs one pair of antennae
385. The body of the tracheate arthropods bears the head bearing a
pair of antennae, thorax bears three pairs of legs, usually one or
two pairs of wings in the adult stage, the organisms are :
a) Insect
(b) Mite
(c) Garden centipede
d) Crabs, lobsters and shrimps
386. The head of arthropods possesses one pair of antennae, one

pair of jaws and two pairs of maxiale. The organism is :
a) Chilopods
(b) hexapods
(c) Tetrapods
(d) Pentapods
387. The insect pest species which is capable of causing damage to

the crop lants belonging to only one botanical family, it is called
:
a) Monophagous
(b) Oligophagous
(c) Polyphagous
d) Phytophagous

388. The insect pest species which usually feeds on plants

belonging to few limited botanical families and is called :
a) Monophagous
(b) Oligophagous
(c) Phytophagous
d) Polyphagous
389. The insect pest species which usually feeds on plants

belonging to various botanical families and is called :
a) Polyphagous
(b) Monophagous
(c) Oligophagous
d) Phytophagous
390. The insect species which usually feed on several plant species
belonging to various botanical families, is termed as :
a) Phytophagous
(b) Polyphagous
(c) Monophagous
(d) Oligophagous
391. The living organisms, whether flora of fauna, capable of

causing economic injuries or losses or damages to the crop
plants is broadly termed as :
a) Crop pests
(b) None insect pests
(c) Pathogens
(d) Polyphagous pests
392. The living organisms, especially flora, which is/are capable of

competing for space, nutrients and solar energy with crop
plants is termed as :
(a) Weeds
(b) Diseases
(c) Insect pests
(d) Flora pest
393. The micro- organisms, which are capable of causing diseases

in crop plants is known as :-

(a) Weeds
(b) Pathogens
(c) Vectors
(d) Carrier
394. The organisms, which are capable of transmitting diseases in

healthy crop plants from the diseased plants is termed as :
(a) Vector of the diseases
(b) Insect pests
(c) Disease – conveyance
(d) Non insect pests
395. The living organisms which is capable of causing potential

injuries to the pests of crop plants is commonly termed as :
e) Bio- agents of pest control
f) Parasites
g) (c) Predators
h) (d) Parasitoids
396. The individual terms, weedicides fungicides, insecticides,

acaricides and rodenticides etc. broadly comes under the terms
:
a) Pesticides
(b) Toxicants
(c) herbicides
(d) Phytocides
(e) None of these
397. The living organisms flora of fauna which are capable of

causing economic losses, injuries or damages to crop plants
are termed as:
a) Pests
(b) Weeds
(c) Insect
d) Non- insects
398. Any method(s) or procedure(s) which is used to

suppress the pest population or incidence is usually known as :
a) Pest control

(b) Forecasting
(c) Monitoring
d) Pesticides
399. The pest control methods(s) involving manipulation of

agronomic practices in order to lowering down the pest
population / incidence is termed as :
a) Natural pest control
(b) Cultural method of pest control
c) Bio- logical method of pest control
(d) IPM
400. The pest control methods (s) involving physical means
such as utilization heart, cold, humidity, sound and energy for
the purpose of suppression or reduction of pest incidence is
termed as :
i) Cultural method of pest control
j) Physical method of pest control
k) Biological method of pest control
l) Natural pest control
401. Employment or application of mechanical means for the

purpose of lowering down the pest incidence or population is
called:
m) Mechanical method of pest control
n) Mechanics of pest management
o) Metallurgical pest control
p) Physical method of pest control
402. Employment or application or utilization of naturally occurring

natural enemies or bio-agents of pest species for the purpose of
pest control is known as :
q) Natural pest control
r) Biological method pest control
s) Living pest control
t) Integrated pest control
403. The utilization or application of chemical toxicants for the

purpose of pest control is known as:
u) Chemical method of pest control

v) Organic pest control

w) IPM
x) Chemigation
404. Employment of more than one or more and more methods of

pest control in compatible manner for lowering down the pest
population below economic injure level (EIL) is called :
a) IPM
(b) ICM
(c) IDM
(d) IWM
405. Employment or utilization or release of genetically incompatible

or sterile pests for suppression of population of insect pests is
called :
a) Genetic method of pest control
b) Biological method of pest control
c) Biotic pest control
d) Natural pest control
406. The methods involving quarantine measures for the purpose of
restricting movement of crop plants / seed materials/ planting
materials form one state to another states or from one county to
another countries in to check spread or expansion of pests,
diseases or weeds are called :
a) Regulatory or legal method of pest control.
b) Physical method of pest control
c) Political method of pest control
d) Socio- political method of pest control
407. Use of HPR for pest management may also comes under :
a) Cultural method of pest control
b) Biological pest control.
c) Genetic pest control
d) Nutritional pest control
408. The method(s) of lowering down the pest population/

incidence through employment of eco-friendly tools in such a
way that they do not harm the ecosystem is known as :
a) Ecological pest management

b) Cultural method of pest management

c) Biological method of pest control
d) Toxicological pest control
409. Use of botanicals, natural enemies of pests, bacterial, viral or

fungi based products for suppression of pest incidence/
population is known as :
a) Eco- friendly tools of pest management
b) Cultural tools of pest management
c) Chemical method of pest management
d) Pesticide method of pest management
410. Pest control procedures comprising of tools or methods, other

than chemical pesticides, for lowering down the pest population
below EIL known as
a) Eco- friendly pest management
b) Socio- economic pest management
c) Cultural method of pest control
d) Integrated crop management
411. Trichogramma spp. Is used as egg parasitoid for the
managements of certain :
a) Lepidopteron insect pests of crops
b) Coleopteran insect pests of crops.
c) Dipterans insect pests of crops
d) Hemipteran insect pests of corps
412. Microbial insecticicde derived from Bacillus thuringiensis is

used for management of certain insect pests mainly belonging
to the insect order:
a) Hemiptera
(b) Odonata
(c) Hmoptera
d) Lepidoptera
413. Delifin, Biobit, Dipel and Biolep etc are the commercial names
of the insecticide which are derived from:
e) Bacillus thuringinesis.
f) Nucelar polyhedrosis virus
g) Granulosis virus

h) Metarhygeum spp.
414. Thorax of a typical insect is usually differentiate into :

i) Endothaorax, Exothorax and Endo- exothorax
j) Prothorax, Mesotharax and Matathorax.
k) Enternal thorax, external thorax and Exo- internal thorax
l) Anterior thorax, posterior thorax and median thorax
415. The eriophyid mites bears :

a) Two pairs of legs
(b) One pair of legs
c) Three pairs of wings
(d) Four pairs of wings
416. Tetranychild mite bears, usually :

a) Two pairs of legs
(b) Four pairs of legs
c) Three pairs of legs
(d) Six pair of legs
417. Larval stage of red spider mite bears usually :

a) Four pairs of legs
(b) Three pair of legs
c) Two pairs of legs
(d) One pair of legs
418. The “Lakshagriha” was constructed by Kauravas, during the era

of Mahabahrata to destroy the their cousins, the Pandavs. The
said house was made up of :
a) Bricks and Mortar
(b) Bricks and muds
c) Lac
(d) Strong metallic items
419. In India scientific study of insects was undertaken as per

scientific documents only from:
a) 18th century
b) 8th century
(c) 17th century

d) 19th century
420. As per the earliest scientific record in the 10th edition of

Systema, Nature, in 1758, Linnaeus had included only :
a) 10 Indian insets
(b) 12 Indian insects
c) 24 Indian insects
(d) Innumerable Indian Insects
421. Fabricius, an European taxonomist, in his Entomologia,

systematica (1792-98) included over :
a) One thousand Indian insect species
b) One lakh Indian insect species
c) Five hundred Indian insect species
d) Ten thousand Indian insect species
e)
422. The first regular work on Indian Insects on scientific lines
appears to have been initiated in 18th century by:
f) Dr. J.G. Koenig.
g) Dr. S. Pradhan
h) Dr. P.K. Sen sharma
i) Dr. Cramer
423. In 1779, A special Account of the termites of Thanjavur district

was published by :
j) Dr. J.G. Koenig
k) Dr. Linnaeus.
l) Dr. Dury
m) Dr. S. Pradhan
424. The “Account of Lac Insect” was published, in 1782, by :

a) Dr. Kerr.
(b) Dr. T.PS. Teotia
(c) Dr. S. Pradhan
(d) Dr. J.G. Koenig.
425. In 1790, A Detailed account of lac insect was published in the

Asiatic Researches by the botanist named;

a) Mr. Rexburgh,
(b) Mr. Linnaeus
(c) Dr. S. Pradhan
(d) Dr. A.C. Dutta
(e) None of these
426. The Asiatic Society of Bengal was started in Kolkata (Caluctta)

in :
a) 1782
(b) 1779
(c) 1788
d) 1905
427. Dr. J. Anderson was associated with the East India company in
the capacity of :
n) Physician General
o) General Surgeon
p) Entomologist
q) Chemist
428. A monograph of the cochineal scale insects was issued in 1791

by :
a) Dr. Kerr
(b) Dr. J. Anderson
(c) Dr. Pradhan
(d) Dr. J.G. Koenig
429. The famous traveler Mr. Buchanan (1800) prepared a write

up on ;
r) The cultivation of lac in India and on sericulture in some part of
South India.
s) The cultivation of crops in India.
t) The cultivation of coffee in India crops
u) The cultivation of plantation crops
430. The important write up on the cultivation of lac in India and on

sericulture in some parts of South India was written in 1800 by :
a) Mr. Buchanan
(b) Mr. Lefroy

(c) Mr. Cramer

d) Mr. Fox
431. The Natural History of Insects, the first contribution on the

insects of Asia was published in 1800 by:
a) Donavan
(b) Hall and Stivans
c) OXFORD
(d) Lefory
432. The revised edition of the Natural History of Insects was made
in:
a) 1842 by Westwood
(b) 1905 by Lefroy
c) 1742 by J.G. Koenig
(d) 1942 by MS Mani
433. In 1847, Westood contributed :

v) Cabinet of Oriental Entomology and Aracana Entomolgica
w) Taxonomy of Insects
x) Physiology of Insects
y) Toxicology
434. In 1840, Rev. Hope published a paper on Entomology of

Himalyas and India in
z) Madras Journal of Literature & Science
aa) Madras Journal of Agril. Science
bb) Entomologica
cc) Entomon
435. The Indian Museum at Kolkata was started in :

a) 1875
(b) 1785
(c) 1775
(d) 1885
436. The Bombay Natural History Society was started in :

a) 1883
(b) 1783

(c) 1908
d) 1783
2. The Indian ants was published in :

a) 1783
(b) 1893
(c) 1883
(d) 1793
(e) None of these
437. The Indian ants was published by :

a) Rothney
(b) Maxwell
(d) Ros & Ros
d) Dr. Koenig
438. Four volumes on Moths of India was publissued in 1892 by :

a) Hampson
(b) Koenig
(c) Ros & Ros
d) Kerr
439. The first document on Hymenoptera was published in 1897 by:

a) Bingham
(b) Hampson
(c) Maxwell
d) Ros & Ros
(e) None of these
440. The 1st catalogue of Indian Insects belonging to group

Tetrigidae (Acrictae) was published in :
(a) 1921
(b) 1916
(c) 1919
(d) 1905
441. Indian Museum Notes in five volumes comprising of realization
of importance of applied aspects Entomology by the Indian
Museum Kolkata between :
a) 1889 and 1903

(b) 1779 and 1803

(c) 1899 and 1912
(d) 1826 and 1857
442. The birth of Applied Entomology in India took place between :

a) 1889 and 1903
(b) 1826 and 1857
(c) 1899 and 1912
(d) 1826 and 1836
443. The first Entomolgist to the Govt. of India for agril entomology
was appointed in 1901 and he was:
a) Lionel de Nicevelle
(b) Maxwell Lefroy
(c) Ros & Ros
d) S. Pradhan
444. The 1st Imperial entomologist was :

a) Prof. Maxwell Lefroy
(b) Nicevelle
(c) Ros and Ros
(d) Cramer
445. The books Indian Insect Pests was published in 1906 and Indian
Insect Life in 1909 as the monumental contributions on Indian
Insects by :
a) Prof. Maxwell Lefroy
(b) Nicevelle
c) Ross and Ross
d) Snod gross
(e) None of these
446. The Book Some South Indian Insects was published in 1914 by
T.B. Fletcher, and he was first Govt. Entomologist of :
a) Mysore state
(b) Bombay State
c) Madras state
(d) Punjab State

447. The Zoological Survey of India was formed in:

a) 1926
(b) 1916
(c) 1936
(d) 1905
448. The book, the “Hand Book of Economic Entomology for South
India” was written in 1940 by :
a) T.V. Ramakrishna Ayyar
b) Maxwel Lefroy
c) Ross and Ross
d) S. Pradhan
449. The “Text Book of Agricultural Entomology” was published in

1963 by:
a) M.S. Mani
(b) H.S. Pruthi
(c) Lefroy
d) Ross and Ross
450. The “Text Book of Agricultural Entomology” was authored by

a) M.S. Mani
(b) HS. Pruthi
(c) Lefroy
d) Ros and Ros
451. The Book “General Entomology” was written in 1968 by:

a) H.S. Pruthi
(b) MS. Mani
(c) S. Pradhan
d) Maxwell Lefroy
452. Elements of Economic Entomology “ was first written in by :

e) B. Vasantharaj David and T,. Kumaraswami
f) H.S. Pruthi
g) (c) Maxwell Lefroy
d) Ross and Ross

453. The book “General and Applied Entomology “ was written in

1976 by
h) B.V David and T.N. Anatha Krishanan
i) HS. Prutihi
j) Maxwell Lefroy
d) M.S. Mani
454. The 1st edition of the book entitled, “Elements of Economic

Entomology” was written in 1975 by
a) B.V. David and T. Kumaraswami
b) T.N. Anantha Krishnan
c) K.K. Ayyar
d) H.S. Pruthi
455. The book “Tropical Forest Insect Pests, Ecology, Impact and
Management” was written in 2007 by :
a) K.S.S. Nair
b) B.V. David
c) S. Pradhan
d) Umashankar
456. The severe and remarkable locust plague (out break) took
place in India during :
a) 1926 -1932
b) 1966 – 67
c) 1939 – 40
d) 1949 – 50
457. “Locust Warning Organistion “ was established in India in :

a) `1939
b) 1926 – 1932
c) 1966
(d) 1947
458. The Government of India started the “Directorate of Plant

Protection, Quarantine and Storage” in :
a) 1946
b) 1966
c) 1950

d) 1932
459. The Plant Protection Directorate, Government of India

established 14 Central Plant Protection Stations in different
regions of the country by the year:
a) 1947
b) 1957
c) 1967
d) 1942
460. In which year, the insecticidal properties of DDT was discovered

by Mr. Paul Muller ? the correct answer is :
a) 1939
b) 1929
c) 1919
d) 1949
461. The book, The “Indian Insect Pests” was written by Prof.
Maxwell Lefroy in the year :
a) 1806
b) 1906
c) 1916
d) 1921
462. The book entitled, “Indian Insect Life “was written by Prof.
Maxwell Lefroy in the year :
a) 1909
b) 1906
c) 1916
d) 1896
463. Punjab was the first state to take initiative work on Agricultural
Entomology in the year :
a) 1903
b) 1916
c) 1905
d) 1920

464. Madras (Tamil Nadu) State ranked 2nd among the Indian
States to take initiative work on Agricultural Entomology in the
year :
a) 1906
b) 1916
c) 1903
d) 1920
465. Who was the 1st Government Entomologist of the then Madras
State Government? The correct person was :
a) T.B Fletcher
b) Maxwell Lefroy
c) S. Pradhan
d) Ross and Ross
466. The book, “Some South Indian Insects” was written in 1914 by :
a) T.B. Fletcher
b) Snodgrass
c) Maxwell Lefroy
d) S. Pradhan
d) B.V. Davide
467. The Indian Tea Association took its first initiative to start work
on “Entomological Investigation on Tea” in the year :
a) 1915
b) 1905
c) 1906
d) 1913
468. The 1st initiative on Entomological work on Tea was taken up in

1905 at
a) Tocklai
b) Kannykorrien (Assam)
c) Darjeeling
d) Jorhat
469. The Natural History Section of the Indian Museum” was re-
organised in the form of “the Zoological Survey of India” in the
year:

a) 1906
b) 1916
c) 1920
d) 1926
54 Who was the author of two significant entomological

monumental books, Indian Insect pests (1906) and Indian
Insect life (1909) ? The said author was :
a) T.B. Fletcher
b) Prof. Maxwell Lefroy
c) M.S. Mani
d) Snodgross
470. In which year the “Indian Central Cotton Committee” sponsored

the schemes for the investigations on the major insect pests of
cotton e.g. spotted and pink poll worms at Surat, UP and
Punjab? The correct year is :
a) 1906
b) 1921
c) 1916
d) 1925
471. The 1st initiative for publication of the Catalogues of Indian

Insects” was taken up in the year :
a) 1916
b) 1921
c) 1925
d) 1906
472. More than 30 “Catalogues of various Indian Insects groups”

were published between the years :
a) 1921 – 1925
b) 1906 – 1910
c) 1910 – 191 6
d) 1925 – 26
473. The Apex Research Institute on Lac Insect in India (i.e. ILRI)
was started in 1925 at :
a) Ranchi

b) Pusa
c) Delhi
d) Madras
474. The “Imperial Agricultural Research Institute” was established

at Pusa (Bihar) in the year :
a) 1905
b) 1906
c) 1916
d) 1926
475. Who was the 1st Imperial Entomologist in India? The correct
answer is :
a) Prof Lionel de Nicevelle
b) Prof. Maxwell Lefroy
c) Prof S. Pradhan
d) Prof. M.S. Mani
476. Later on the Imperial Agricultural Institute was redesignated as :

a) Indian Agricultural Research Institute
b) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
c) Agricultural Research Institute of India
d) Agricultural Research Council of India
477. Later on the post of Imperial Entomologist (of India) was re-
designated as the :
a) Head, Division of Entomology at the then IARI
b) Agricultural Entomologist at the then IARI
c) Economic Entomologist at the then IARI
d) Entomological Scientist at the then IARI
478. E.P. Stebbing was appointed as the 1st Forest Entomologist in

the British India in :
a) 1800
b) 1900
c) 1906
d) 1857

479. The Imperial Forest Research Institute was established in British

India in 1914 at :
a) Lucknow
b) Dehradun
c) Kanpur
d) New Delhi
480. The 1st monumental book on forest entomology entitled “ Indian

Forest Insects of Economic Importance: Coleopteran” was
written in 1914 by:
a) E.P. Stebbing
b) Maxwell Lefroy
c) P.K. Sen Sharma
d) A. D. IMMS
481. The third and long term appointee as the Forest Entomologist at
IFRI of British India at Dehradun, joined on the post in 1913 and
the said person was :
a) P.K. Sen Sharma
b) C.F.C. Beeson
c) M.K. Roonwal
d) R.N. .Mathur
482. The 3rd Forest Entomologist, at IFRI of British India , Mr C.F.C.

Beeson at Dehra Dun remained on the post during :
a) 1913 – 1941
b) 1900 – 1914
c) 1900 – 1906
d) 1941 – 1961
483. The 2nd monumental book on Forest Entomology “The Ecology

and Control of the Forest Insects of India and the Neighbouring
Countries” was written in 1941 by :
a) C.F.C. Beeson
b) P.K. Sen Sharma
c) R.N. Mathur
d) M.L. Roonwal

484. The recently written book on forest entomology entitled

“Tropical Forest Insect Pests : Ecology, Impact and
Management 2007” was authored by ;
a) P..K. Sen Sharma
b) K.S.S. Nair
C) R.N. Mathur
d) M.L. Roonwal
70. The text book “A Text Book of Medical Entomology” was written
in 1913 by a) Patton and Craigg
b) R. N. Mathur
c) M.L. Roonwal
d) Max well Lefroy
485. The book “ Entomology (Medical and Veterinary) including

Insecticide and Insect and Rat Control “ was written in 1954 by :
a) Roy and Brown
b) Maxwell Lefroy
c) R.N. Mathur
d) T.B. Fletchor
486. The book “Veterinary Entomology and Acarology for India” was
written in 1962 by :
a) R.N. Mathur
b) Sen and Fletcher
c) M.. Roonwal
d) Max well Lefroy
487. The interesting book, “Insect Pests of Farm Animals” was
written in 1963 by :
a) M.L. Roonwal
b) R.P. Chaudhary
c) Maxwell Lefroy
d) Sen and Flethar
488. The Book “Agricultural and Forest Pest and Their Management”
was written in 1995 by :
a) R.N. Mathur
(b) Prem Chand
(c) G.S. Dhaliwal

d) BV. David
489. Prof. Perm Chand was Prof. and Head, of Department of

Entomology at
a) BA.U. Ranchi
(b) BAU, Sabour,
(c) TNAU, Combatore
d) HAU, Hissar
490. Some renowned Entomologists viz. K.K. Nayar, V.K.K. Prabhu

and K.N. Mehrotra are considered as :
a) Pioneer Insect Physiologist
b) Pioneer Insect Toxicologist
c) Pioneer Insect Morphologist
d) Pioneer General Entomologist
491. The Entomological Society of India” was in inaugurated at

Calcutta (Kolkata) on :
a) 1st January, 1937
b) 26th Jan 1946
c) 1st June, 1939
d) 25th Aug, 1939
492. The book entitled “Entomology : Medical and Veterinary” was

authored by Dr. Roy in the year :
a) 1946
b) 1935
c) 1906
d) 1926
493. The book entitled “Hand Book of Malaria: Disease, its Vectors
and Management” was authored by C.J. Babu, A.S. Nair and B.V.
David in the year :
a) 2004
(b) 1904
(c) 2006
d) 1996
494. The discovery of the malarieal parasite in a dissected anopheles

mosquito was made at Begumpet (Secunderabad) on :

a) August , 20, 1957

b) August 25, 1897
c) Feb, 18 1857
(d) March, 1956
495. Sri Ronald Ross an I.M.S. Officer, Incharge of Madras Regiment,

stationed at Scunderabad (Begumpet) made the discovery of
the malarial parasite through the dissected mosquito,
Anopheles in the year:
a) 1857
(b) 1897
(c) 1890
d) 1899
496. Entomological investigations in connection with Kalaazar was

commenced at Madras (Guindy) by the King Institute of
Preventive Medicine in the year :
a) 1900
(b) 1904
(c) 1909
d) 1926
497. A Professor of Medical Entomology was appointed at Calcutta

(Kolkatta) by School of Tropical medicine in the year :
a) 1922
(b) 1926
(c) 1939
d) 1903
498. The “Indian Journal of Entomology” was first of all got

published in the year :
a) 1939 onwards
(b) 1937 onwards
(c) 1947 onwards
d) 1956 onwards
499. The highly informative book, “Entomology in India” was

published by the Entomological Society of India in the year :
a) 1964

(b) 1956
(c) 1974
d) 1939
500. Silver Jubilee of the „Entomological Society of India‟ had been

celebrated in the year :
a) 1964
(b) 1974
(c) 1956
d) 1939
501. The Journal, “Oriental Insect” have been published since :

a) 1967
(b) 1957
(c) 1977
d) 1957
502. The publication , the “Entomologist News Letter” has been

published since :
a) 1970
(b) 1960
(c) 1870
d) 1957
503. The „Indian Bee Journal‟ regularly been published by the All
India Bee keepers Association, Pune since :
a) 1937
(b) 1939
(c) 1946
d) 1961
504. The „Entomological Society of India (ESI) ‟ came in

existence since :
a) 1937
(b) 1939
(c) 1947
d) 1962

505. The Indian Journal of Entomology has been published by ESI

since :
a) 1939
(b) 1937
(c) 1947
d) 1951
506. „Cecidological Society of India‟ was formed at Allahabad in the

year :
a) 1996
b) 1966
(c) 1956
d) 2001
507. The „Indian Academy of Entomology‟ was formed at Madras

(Chennai) in the year :
a) 1987
(b) 1996
(c) 1956
d) 1937
508. The publication of the research journal namely “Bulletin of

Entomology” was published from Madras (Chennai) since :
a) 1960
(b) 1965
(c) 1956
d) 1939
509. The “Bulletin of Entomology” has been taken over by the

Entomological Society of India since :
a) 1967
(b) 1956
(c) 1965
d) 1986
510. From which century, in India, the scientific study of insect was
undertaken? The correct answer is :
a) 18th century
(b) 8th century

(c) 20th century

d) 17th century
511. In the earliest record, how many Indian insects had been
included in the 10th edition of Systema Nature of Linnaeus?
a) Twelve
(b) Two dozens
(c) Fifty
d) One hundred fifty
512. By whom was the Indian insects were collected and sent to
various European taxonomists in the 18th century for their
identification ?
a) The early Christian Missionaries
b) The employee of the East India Company
c) The both of items (a) and
d) (b)
e) The South Indian Scientists
513. How many insect species were included in the Entomologia

Systematica by Fabricius during 1792 to 1798?
a) Over two dozens Indian species
b) Over two dozens Indian species
c) Over one dozens Indian species
d) Over one lakh Indian species
e) None of these
f)
514. Dr. J.G Koenig, was a medical officer to the Traquenbar Mission,
who published a Special account termites of Thanjavur district
in the year:
a) 1779
(b) 1789
(c) 1857
d) 1700
515. Who was the person, who collected Indian Insect Species at
Coromandal Coast and sent them to the then renowned
systematists for their identification and documentation?
a) Dr. J.G. Koenig

(b) Prof. Maxwell

(c) Lefroy
f) R.N. Mathur
516. By whom was, the 1st account of lac insect was published in
1782?
a) Dr. J.G. Koenig
(b) T.B. Fletcher
(c) Dr. Kerr
d) Cramer
(e) None of these
517. By whom was a detailed account of lac insect was published in

1790 in the Asiatic societies publication, Asiatic Researches?
a) The Botanist Roxburgh
b) The Taxonomist Linnaeus
c) The Medical Officer J.G. Koenig
d) The Systematist Fabricius
518. The head quarter of the Indian Tea Association was shifted from
Kannykorrien (Assam) to Tocklai in the year.
a) 1905
(b) 1913
(c) 1906
(d) 1920
519. The resistance of san jose scale, infesting apple, against lime
sulphur was reported in the year :
a) 1914
(b) 1941
(c) 1949
(d) 1924
520. First of all amongst insect species, san jose scale, infesting
apple developed insecticidal resistance against :
a) DDT
(b) Lime sulphur
(c) BHC
(d) HCH

521. The first report on resistance of the house fly, Musca domestica
against the then miracle insecticide, DDT came in the year :
a) 1946
(b) 1964
(c) 1941
(d) 1914
522. The first report on resistance of the mosquito against DDT came
in the year :
a) 1974
(b) 1947
(c) 1954
(d) 1941
523. The first report on resistance of housefly to pyrethrum came in

the year:
a) 1947
(b) 1974
(c) 1964
(d) 1937
524. The Common Wealth Institute Biological Control (CIBC) has

it‟s global head quarter located at :
a) London
(b) Trinidad (west Indies)
c) New York
d) Chicago
525. The CIBC had its Indian head quarter located at :

a) Bombay
(b) Bangalore
(c) Kolkatta
(d) Delhi
526. The Indian Station of the CIBC, located at Bangalore, was

started in the year :
a) 1965
(b) 1956

(c) 1966
(d) 1974
527. The pioneer scientist on natural enemies of insect pests of

crops, posted at CIBC, Bangalore was none other than :
a) T. Sankaran
(b) S. Pradhan
(c) S. Kumar
(d) Fox
528. dr. T. Sakaran of CIBC, Bangalore, provided the list of two

dozens species of the exotic natural enemies in the year :
a) 1964
(b) 1974
(c) 1965
(d) 1947
529. The natural enemy of the cottony cushion scale (Icerya
purchasi) by the use of vadalia beetle, Rodolia caridnatlis
has been brought to California (USA) in 1888, from :
a) Australia
(b) England
(c) America
(d) Japan
530. Califonia (USA) received the natural enemy, vadalia beetle

(Rodolia cardinalis) from Australia for the control of cottony
cushion scale insect pest in the year :
a) 1988
(b) 1888
(c) 1898
(d) 1905
531. Bassi in 1835 demostrated the infectious nature of the fungus,

Beauveria bassiana in respect of the :
a) Bombyx mori
(b) Apis melifera
(c) Lacifer laca
d) Trichogramma

532. First idea generated for controlling insect pest control in the
year, 1893 through use of disease causing pathogens was given
by :
a) S. Pradhan
(b) Le conte
(c) Cramer
d) M.S. Mani
533. The term “microbial control” for controlling pest species

through use of disease causing pathogens was coined by :
a) Steinhaus
(b) Le conte
(c) M.S. Mani
d) S. Pradhan
534. When micro – organisms or their products (toxins) are

employed by man for the control of insets, animals and plants in
a particular are a , it is referred to as :
a) Mocribial control
(b) Physical control
(c) Chemical control
d) Biological control.
535. The bacteria, Bacillus polillae responsible for causing milky

disease in Japanese beetle (Popillia japonica) was isolated and
described by Dutky in the year:
a) 1947
(b) 1937
(c) 1957
(d) 1927
536. a) professor of the University of Maryland and in-charge of

the control program of Japanese beetle (Popillia japonica) , for
the first time, opined that entomophilic bacterial is not harmful
for mammals during the period of middle nineties, the person
was non other than:
a) Dr. Langford
(b) Dr. Stern
(c) Dr. Smith

(d) Dr. Fox
537. The idea of controlling insect pest by sterilizing technique was

first conceived in 1937 in Taxas by :
a) Dr. Langfrod
(b) Dr. E.F. Knipling
(c) Dr. Bhattacharya
d) Dr. Mitlin
538. The mustard (or nitrogen) gas could be able to produce sterility
in the fruit fly (Drosophila) . This fact referring certain chemical
could interfere with insects‟ reproduction. This fact, for first
time, was reported in 1942 by :
a) C. Auerbach and G.M Robson
(b) Dr. Langford
c) E.F. Knipling
(d) Goldsmith
539. dr. C. Auerbach and J.M. Robson (1942) could be able to

produce sterility in the fruifly , Drosophila through use of
mustard (or nitrogen) gas. Both the scientists were:
a) Geneticists
(b) Entomologists
c) Agronomists
(d) Pathologists.
540. The new field of research, pertaining to insect pest control

through sterilizing technique, was opened up by the pioneer
work on sterilizing Drosophila by use of mustard (or nitrogen)
gas in 1942 by :
a) Gold smith
b) Cramer
c) C. Auerback and J.M. Robson
d) S. Pradhan.
541. Sterility in male of Drosophila could be produced by rearing the

insect on the food containing „ethylene glycol‟ was revealed by :
a) S. Bhatacharya
(b) S. Pradhan

c) S. Smith
(d) Dr. S. Fox
542. The publication of the Journal “Cecidological Indica” have been

published since the year:
a) 1956
(b) 1966
(c) 1936
(d) 1979
543. The publication of the Journal Entomologist Newsletter have

been published since:
a) 1960
(b) 1950
(c) 1970
(d) 1988
544. The „Indian Journal of Plant Protection‟ have been published

since:
a) 1963
(b) 1973
(c) 1943
(d) 1953
545. The Journal „Entomon‟ have been published since:

a) 1946
(b) 1936
(c) 1966
(d) 1976
546. The „Journal of Entomological Research‟ has been published

since the year:
(a) 1927
(b) 1977
(c) 1917
d) 1997
547. The Entomological Society of India on, its silver jublee year,
released an excellent publication, in 1964, namely:

(a) Entomology in India

(b) Indian Bee Journal
(c) Entomon
(d) Entomology at a Glance
548. 12. D.D.T was first synthesized by ---------

a. Jetro Tull
b. Artur Young
c. Pall Mulher
d. None of these
49. The major pest of Sorghum is

(a) Atherigona
(b) Spodoptora
(c) Holitricha
(d) Helicoverpa
549. 50. Pressure at MSL is ______ mb

(a) 103.13
(b) 1013.25
(c) 1011.0
(d) 1010.25
550. Which of the following Bt transgenic crops is commercialized in

India
(e) Cotton
(f) Brinjal
(g) Soybean
(h) Rice
Ans. a
551. Traits for genetically modified crops could be
(e) Cry1Ab
(f) Herbicide tolerance
(g) Protease inhibitors
(h) All the above
Ans. d
552. Ti plasmid from Agrobacterium is used as vector for genetic
(e) Conjugation
(f) Transformation

(g) Transduction
(h) None
Ans. b
553. A molecular marker is located
(e) Outside the gene
(f) Within a gene
(g) Both
(h) None
Ans. c
554. Cry toxins are
(e) Stomach active
(f) Cuticle active
(g) Nerve active
(h) All of the above
Ans. a
555. A molecular vector should contain
(e) Origin of replication
(f) Multiple cloning site
(g) selection marker
Ans. d
556. Molecular weight of Cry1 type protoxin is approximately
(e) 130 kDa
(f) 200 kDa
(g) 68 kDa
(h) None
Ans. a
557. Quantification of a particular gene can be done by
(e) PCR
(f) Real time PCR
(g) ELISA
(h) Southern hybridization
Ans. d
558. Autoclaving is usually done at 15lb/inch2 for 30 min at
(e) 72.80C
(f) 1210C
(g) 85.40C
(h) 1000C
Ans. b

559. Who among the following is a famous gene campaigner

(e) M.S. Swaminathan
(f) Suman Sahai
(g) Norman Borlaug
(h) Ingo Potrykus
Ans. b
560. Which among the following is entomopathogenic bacteria
(e) Bacillus thuringiensis
(f) Bacillus cereus
(g) Both
(h) None
Ans. c
561. Who named the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis
(e) Ishiwata
(f) Berliner
(g) Philip Fitz-James
(h) None
Ans. b
562. Who observed the presence of inclusion bodies for the first time
(e) Mattes
(f) Christopher Hannay
(g) Thomas Angus
(h) Berliner
Ans. a
563. Who coined the phrase „parasporal crystals‟
(e) Ishiwata
(f) Christopher Hannay
(g) Thomas Angus
(h) Ishiwata
Ans. b
564. Insecticidal activity of the inclusion bodies was demonstrated
for the first time by
(e) Thomas Angus
(f) Philip Fitz-James
(g) Ishiwata
(h) Berliner
Ans. a
565. Who discovered that the toxic parasporal crystals are composed
of protein

(e) Thomas Angus

(f) Ishiwata
(g) Philip Fitz-James and Hannay
(h) None
Ans. c
566. Bacillus thuringiensis subsp. israelensis is toxic to
(e) Termite
(f) Aphids
(g) Mites
(h) Housefly
Ans. d
567. In India what was the approximate area under Bt. cotton in the
year 2010
(e) 7.0 Mi.ha
(f) 10.0 Mi.ha
(g) 14 Mi.ha
(h) 18 Mi.ha
Ans. b
568. Bt. cotton occupies approximately what percentage of total area
under cotton
(e) 85%
(f) 95%
(g) 90%
(h) 75%
Ans. b
569. What is the specialty of rice varieties Huahui No. 1 and Bt
Shanyou 63
(e) Herbicide tolerant
(f) Draught resistance
(g) Thermal resistance
(h) These are Bt Rice
Ans. d
570. Huahui No. 1 expresses which Bt gene
(e) cry1Ab
(f) cry1Ab/Ac
(g) cry1Ab/Ac fusion gene
(h) None
Ans. c
571. Which of the following statements are correct

(e) Crystals are formed during vegetative cells

(f) Crystals are formed much after vegetative cells
(g) Crystals are formed before spore formation
(h) Both (b) & (c)
Ans. d
572. What are the molecular basis of diversity in Bt toxins
(e) Heterogenous plasmids population
(f) Bt encoding genes on conjugational plasmids
(g) Occurrence of Insertion sequences and transposons
Ans. d
573. The nematicidal toxins belong to which Cry family
(e) Cry4 class
(f) Cry5 class
(g) Cry6 class
(h) Cry7 class
Ans. c
574. Bt Subsp kurstaki acts mostly against
(e) Lepidopterans
(f) Coleopterans
(g) Dipterans
Ans. a
575. Markers can generally be used
(e) To assess genetic diversity
(f) Allele mining
(g) Association mapping
Ans. d
576. Bt Biopesticides accounts for what percent of total global
biopesticide market
(e) 46%
(f) 75%
(g) 63%
(h) 25%
Ans. a
577. Midgut of insects are important for
(e) Food digestion
(f) Enzyme secretion

(g) Regulation of ion balance

Ans. d
578. Gut epithelium of Lepidopteran insects possess
(e) Columnar cells
(f) Goblet cells
(g) Stem cells
Ans. d
579. Peritrophic membrane contains
(e) Chitin
(f) Proteoglycans
(g) Proteins
Ans. d
580. Various mechanisms for insect‟s adaptation to overcome Bt
infection are
(e) Enhanced /reduced midgut protease activity
(f) Production of antimicrobial agents
(g) Mutation in receptor sites
Ans. d
581. Disruption of Peritrophic membrane may occur by
(e) Enhance in proteins from Bt and virus
(f) Plant proteases
(g) Fungal and bacterial chitinases
Ans. d
582. What are the various midgut immunity factors
(e) Antimicrobial peptides
(f) Peptidoglycan receptors on epithelial surface
(g) Immune priming
Ans. d
583. Different antibacterial enzymes that act as midgut immunity
factors
(e) Polyphenol oxidase
(f) Lysozyme
(g) Both

(h) None
Ans. c
584. What are the different Antibacterial peptides that act as midgut
immunity factors
(e) Cecropins
(f) Defensins
(g) Both
(h) None
Ans. c
585. What are the insect gut immune inhibitors

(e) Insect pathogens
(f) Photorhabdus toxins that weakens insect immune system
(g) Both
(h) None
Ans. c
586. Which bacterium induces apoptosis in the midgut of
lepidopteran insect?
(e) Klebsiella sp.
(f) Photorhabdus sp.
(g) Citrobacter sp.
(h) Brucella sp.
Ans. b
587. Avoidable crop losses due to insect pests in India in rice is
(e) 26.3 mt
(f) 40 mt
(g) 54 mt
(h) 19 mt
Ans. a
588. Important procedures for evaluation of GM crops are
(e) Cut leaf bioassays or detached leaf bioassays (in lab)
(f) Whole plant bioassays (glasshouse/ screen house)
(g) Field evaluation
Ans. d
589. Most commonly limiting amino acids are
(a) methionine & lysine
(b) threonine
(c) tryptophan

(d) all
Ans. d
590. Haemoglobin is
(a) Globular protein
(b) Fibrous protein
(c) Silk fibroin
(d) Milk protein
Ans. a
591. Collagen is
(a) Globular protein
(b) Fibrous protein
(c) Silk fibroin
(d) Milk protein
Ans. b
592. More than 50% of protein in mammalian cell is
(a) Fibrous protein
(b) Silk fibroin
(c) Milk protein
(d) Collagen
Ans. d
593. Protein found in human hairs is
(a) Keratin
(b) Fibroin
(c) Zein
(d) oryzenin
Ans. a
594. Protein found in silk
(e) Keratin
(f) Fibroin
(g) Zein
(h) oryzenin
Ans. b
595. Protein found in maize
(a) Keratin
(b) Fibroin
(c) Zein
(d) oryzenin
Ans. c
596. Protein found in rice

(a) Keratin
(b) Fibroin
(c) Zein
(d) Oryzenin
Ans. d
597. Conjugated protein are linked with separable non protein
portion called as
(a) Prosthetic group
(b) Co factor
(c) Apoenzyme
(d) None
Ans. a
598. Monosaccharides (simple sugars) example
(a) Glucose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Lactose
(d) Starch
Ans. a
599. Disaccharides (composed of two monosaccharides) example
(a) glucose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Lactose
(d) Both b & c
Ans. d
600. Polysaccharides (consisting of more than 10 monosaccharides)
, example
(a) glucose
(b) Starch
(c) Glycogen
(d) Both b & c
Ans. d
601. Atamine was first isolated from
(a) Silk fibroin
(b) Milk casein
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans. a
602. Chitin is related to
(a) DNA

(b) Hormone
(c) Dahlia
(d) polysaccharide
Ans. d
603. Miller is related to
(a) Inborn metabolic disorder
(b) Physiologic races
(c) Phytoalexin
(d) Fertilization
Ans. c
604. Nematophagous fungi is related to
(e) Lentinus lepidius
(f) Amanita sp
(g) Pleurotus sp
(h) Dactyllella sp
Ans. d
605. Entomophily is related to
(a) Pollination by wind
(b) Pollination of water
(c) Pollination of brids
(d) Pollination by insects
Ans. d
606. Fly trap is related to

(a) Pollination by wind
(b) Pollination of water
(c) Pollination of brids
(d) Insectivours plant
Ans. d

MODEL QUESTION PAPER – I
1. Insect head consist of

a) 5 segments
b) 3 segments
c) 7 segments
d) 6 segments
2. Technical term of head capsule is

a) Vertex
b) Epicranial
c) Cranium
d) Frons.
3. The line of weakness is present in /on

a) Head region
b) Abdomen region
c) Thoracic region
d) ________
4. The line of weakness is called as

a) Epistomal suture
b) Frontal suture
c) Clypeus
d) Epicranial suture
5. Below clypeus we find

a) Labium
b) Labrum

c) Maxillae
d) Mandibles
6. Labrum is modified for

a) Horizontal movement
b) Vertical movement
c) Lateral movement
7. Lateral side of head is called

a) Gena
b) Frons
c) Cranium
d) Clypeus
8. Compound eyes are consist of smaller eyes called as
a) Facets
b) Ommatidia
c) Ocelli
d) Fenestral
9. Ocelli in cockroach are called as

a) Ommatidia
b) Fenestrae
c) Simple eye
d) ________
10. Among these one which is got Auditory organ

a) Scape
b) Pedicel
c) Flagellum

d) __________
11. Primitive or Basic type of mouth part is

a) Piercing and sucking
b) Sponging type
c) Rasping and sucking
d) Biting &chewing
12. A pair of upper jaws present in mouth parts these are called as
a) Labrum
b) Maxillae
c) Mandibles
d) Labium
13. Modified organ for chewing of food

a) Incisor
b) Molar
c) Glossa
d) Lacinia
14. Thorax is made up of how many segments

a) 4
b) 3
c) 6
d) 5
15. Segmental plate which is present on dorsal side of thorax is

called as
a) Pleuron

b) Sternum
c) Tergum
d) Sclerite
16. Lateral plate of thorax is called as

a) Pleuron
b) Sternum
c) Notum
d) Sclerite
17. Between the terga and pleuron region which parts are attached to
the body?
a) Wings
b) Legs
c) cerci
d) styli
18. Leg consist of primitively how many segments?

a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 4
19. First tarsal segment is called as

a) Pre tarsus
b) Basi tarsus
c) Peri tarsus
d) Epi tarsus

20. Fore wings of cockroach are called as

a) Elytra
b) Jegmina
c) Hemyletra
21. Cerci are present on which segment?

a) 10
b) 11
c) 9
d) 8
22. Male cockroach contain how many appendages on the abdomen?

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) only one
23. Instar is
a) Number of Moults –1
b) Number of Moults + 1
c) Number of Moults – 2
d) Number of Moults + 2
24. The Instar period in technical term called as

a) Moulting period
b) Ecdysis
c) Moulting interval
d) Stadium

25. Insects which do not undergo metamorphosis are come under the
group
a) Holometabola
b) Ametabola
c) Paurometabola
d) Hemi metabola
26. Among these which are undergo Ametabolous development

a) Pterygota
b) Brachypterans
c) Apterygota
d) Macropterygota
27. Hemimetabolous development is also called as

a) complete metamorphosis
b) Indirect metamorphosis
c) Complex metamorphosis
d) Incomplete metamorphosis
28. Some immature insect are able to reproduce is called

a) Polembryony
b) Parthenogenesis
c) Paedogenesis
d) Oviparous
29. The shape of eggs of Bugs is

a) Cylindrical
b) Round
c) Barrel

d) Spherical
30. All Moths and butterflies lay eggs in

a) Singly
b) Groups
c) Inside the egg case
d) Soil
31. Immature stages lives in aquatic condition

a) Nymphs
b) Maggots
c) Grubs
d) Naiads
32. Moths and butterfly larvae are

a) Proto pod
b) Podous
c) Apodous
d) Oligopodous
33. Larvae of which adult insects are have thoracic legs Abdominal /
prologs
a) Moths & butterfly
b) Flies
c) Bugs
d) Beetles
34. Larvae which got „c‟ shape body

a) Nymphs of Bugs

b) Niads of dragon fly

c) Larvae of flies
d) Larvae of beetles
35. Vermiform larvae are

a) Apodous larvae
b) Podous larvae
c) Protopod larvae
d) Oligopodous
36. Puparium is nothing but

a) Co-arctate
b) Exarate pupae
c) Obtect
d) Chrysalis
37. Butterfly pupae are called as

a) Cocoons
b) Puparium
c) Chrysalis
d) Obtect
38. Puparium is nothing but

a) Saliva
b) Fiber
c) Body hair
d) Larval skin
39. Typical antennae contain how many parts?

a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d) 2
40. Johnston‟s organ present in

a) Scape
b) Pedicel
c) Flagella
d) Tympanum
41. Cockroaches have type of antennae called

a) Setaceous type
b) Capitate
c) Filiform
d) Mouiliform
42. Male Mosquitoes contain

a) Pilose antennae
b) Filiform
c) Plumose type of antennae
d) Serrate
43. Aristate type of Antennae is present in

a) Butterfly
b) Tachiinidfly
c) House fly
d) Robberfly

44. Which is the thickest part of the leg?

a) Trochanter
b) Femur
c) Tarsal segments
d) Coxa
45. Last part / segment of leg is called

a) Peri tarsi
b) Basi tarsi
c) Pre tarsi
d) Claw
46. Fossorial type of legs means

a) Digging type
b) Swimming type
c) Walking type
d) Running type
47. In grass hopper which legs are modified for jumping purpose?
a) Fore legs
b) Find legs
c) Middle legs
d) All
48. In Antennae cleaner type of legs the modified parts are

a) Pre Tarsus
b) Tibia and Basitarsus
c) Tibia and pre tarsus
d) Tibia

49. In walking and running type of legs the legs are modified as
a) Fore and Middle legs are larger and hind legs are shorter
b) Fore legs are modified because they are short
c) Hind legs are short
d) All the 3 pairs are similar size
50. Jumping organs is modified by

a) Coxa of hind leg
b) Femora of hind leg
c) Tibia of front leg
d) Femora of front leg
51. In pollen carrying type the modified parts of legs are

a) Tibia and femur
b) Coxa and Femur
c) Tibia and Basitarsi
d) Tibia and pre tarsi
52. Plume moth have

a) Tegmen wings
b) Lobed wings
c) Hemelytron wings
d) Elytron wings
53. Fringed wings present in

a) Moths and Butterflies
b) Mosquitoes
c) Thrips

d) Housefly
54. Example for insect which is having sound making type of wings
a) Grass hopper
b) Bees
c) Wasps
d) Crickets
55. Elytron type of wings present in

a) Bugs
b) House fly
c) Beetles
d) Cockroach and grass hopper
56. Insects which contain hairs on their wings

a) Moths
b) Butterflies
c) Caddis flies
d) Bumble bees
57. Eyes which are involve in only regulation of light intensity

a) Compound eyes
b) Simple eyes
c) Ommatidia
d) Both a and c
58. Eyes which acts as visual organs because they perceive and
focus the image
a) Fenestrae

b) Ommetidia
c) Ocelli
d) Compound eyes
59. Compound eyes which are separate each other condition is called
as
a) Holoptic eyes
b) Non-contiguous
c) Contiguous
d) Dicoptic
60. For construction of comb, honey bees uses

a) Labium
b) fore legs
c) Mandibles
d) Maxillae
61. Roya jelly is secreted by

a) Maxillary glands
b) Labial glands
c) Mandibular glands
d) Hypopharyngeal glands
62. In honey bees the meta thorax is fused with the I abdominal
segment called
a) Gaster
b) Propodium
c) Petiole
d) Sting

63. Poison glands are associated with

a) Thoracic glands
b) Stinging organ
c) Cephalic glands
d) None
64. Housefly have which type of antennae?

a) Filiform
b) Geniculate
c) Setaceous
d) Aristate
65. Rasping and sucking type of mouth parts present in

a) Honey bees
b) Mosquitoes
c) Thrips
d) Housefly
66. Insects which jump without using any legs.

a) Maggots of flies
b) beetle
c) Fleas
d) Grass hopper
67. Corbiculum is modified for

a) Antenna cleaning
b) Pollen basket
c) Jumping purpose

d) Clinging purpose
68. Example for Brachypterous insects

a) Housefly
b) Butterfly
c) Brown plant hopper
d) Bugs
69. Pterothorax made up of

a) Pro and Meso thorax
b) Meso and Meta thorax
c) Meta thorax and I abdominal segment
d) none of the above
70. Wing flexion mechanism well developed in

a) Paleoptera
b) Neoptera
c) Thysanura
d) Odonata
71. Jugate and frenate type of wing coupling mechanism is seen in

a) Beetles
b) Moths
c) Bugs
d) Flies
72. Amplexiform type of wing coupling mechanism is seen in

a) Bees
b) Wasps

c) Bugs
d) Butterflies
73. Frequency of wing beat is expressed in terms of

a) Hz/ sec
b) Hz/ mt
c) Hz/ cm
d) Hz/ mt2
74. Wing loading is expressed in

a) Kg/ mt2
b) gm/ mt2
c) gm/ cm2
d) gm/ cm
75. In entomological term the insect body wall is called as

a) Outer skeleton
b) Skeleton wall
c) Integument
d) Exoskeleton
76. Outermost layer of body wall is

a) Epidermis
b) Cuticle
c) Wax layer
d) Exocuticle
77. Among these layers of body wall which is the cellular layer
a) Basement memberane

b) Epidermis
c) Cuticle
d) Epicuticle
78. Expansion of cuticle is determined by

a) Wax layer
b) Cuticulin layer
c) Inner protein layer
d) Cement layer
79. Cement layer is the part of

a) Basement membrane
b) Cuticle
c) Epidermis
d) Hypodermis
80. Layer which determines the surface property (Hydrophilic and

Hydrophobic property) of cuticle
a) Inner protein layer
b) Cement layer
c) Cuticulin layer
d) Wax layer
81. The protein which is involved in hardening of cuticle

a) Glycoprotein
b) Chitin
c) Sclerotin
d) Resilin

82. For wing articulation and for musule attachment the protein
involved is
a) Arthopodins
b) Glycoproteins
c) Resilin
d) Sclerotins
83. Moulting fluid is produce from

b) Epidermis
c) hypodermis
d) Cuticle
84. Among these which are incapable of movement

a) Setae
b) Bristles
c) Spines
d) Spurs
85. In the process of moulting the insect shed

a) Exocuticle and Endo cuticle
b) Exocuticle and Epicuticle
c) Whole cuticle
d) Epicuticle and Endo cuticle
86. Pheramones are used for

a) Intra specific communication
b) Inter specific communication
c) Both

87. In poly Embryonic Eggs, one of the character is

a) Absence of chorian
b) Thick chorian
c) Absence of yolk
d) Large size eggs
88. In thrips, asymmetrical type of mouth part is because of

a) Maxilla are absent
b) Left Mandibles stylets are absent
c) Right mandibles are absent
d) All mouth parts are reduced type
89. Some insects do not have malpighian tubules like

a) Dragon flies
b) Stone flies
c) Collembolans
d) Butterflies
90. Nephrocytes are the

a) Muscular cells
b) Urate cells
c) Tracheal cells
d) Kidney cells
91. Hair less adhesive pads ______________

a) Arolium
b) Arolia
c) Tenent hairs

d) pulvillus
92. Leg contain typically _______________ segments

a) 5
b) 6
c) 4
d) 7
93. Number of recurrent veins present in Ichneumohidae ________

a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 2
94. Short term color changes in insects arealsocalled

a) Reversible changes
b) Physiological changes
c) Both a & b
d) Morphological changes
95. In most of the members of order Neuroptera, grubsareof

_________________ type
a) Protopod
b) Scarabaeiform
c) Campodaeiform
d) Polypod
96. Tecto cuticle is thenamefor layer oftheepicuticle

a) Cement layer

b) Wax layer
c) polyphenollayer
d) cuticulin layer
97. The type of head which is deflexed backwards so that proboscis

slopes betweenthe front legs is knownas
a) Entognathous
b) Opisthognathous
c) Hypognathous
d) None of the above
98. In the superfamily Papilionoidea wing pattern in forewings of

butterflies having three rows of markings that differ between
each other and same within the row is knownas
a) Interference
b) Nymphalid ground plan
c) Homochromy
d) Eye spots
99. The coronal suture in the insect head divides the epicranium into
two lateral plates knownas
a) Frons
b) Occiput
c) Parietals
d) Post Occiput
100. The type of antenna devoid of muscles is

a) Annulated
b) Flagellated
c) Segmented
d) None of the above

MODEL QUESTION PAPER – II
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER

1. In embioptera silk glands are present on _____________
a) Tibia
b) Femur
c) Pretarsus
d) basitarsus
2. The region behind claval furrow of hind wing is ____________

a) Clavus
b) Vannus
c) Alula
d) Jugum
3. Pterostigma present in both wings of ________________

a) Hymenoptera
b) Psocoptera
c) Mecoptera
d) Odonata
4. Trabeculae is found in _________________part of the wing

a) Elytra
b) Scales
c) both
d) basal fracture
5. Similar form of wings are fond in _______________

a) Isoptera

b) Odonata
c) both
d) Orthoptera
6. In strepsiptera _________________wings are reduced

a) Fore wings
b) Hind wings
c) Both
d) None
7. Corium is present in ________________________

a) Alimentary canal
b) Leg
c) Wing
d) Egg
8. The wing coupling associated with lepidoptera

__________________
a) Jugate
b) Jugoftrenate
c) Frenate
d) Hamulate
9. In dermaptera reproductive openings present on

________segment of abdomen
a) 9
b) 8 or 9
c) 7
d) 10

10. ___________ system is responsible for Homeostatic

a) Excretory
b) Digestive
c) Nevous
d) Circulatory
11. Malpighian tubules absent in ____________

a) Aphids
b) Collembola
c) Both
d) Protura
12. Wide spread excitatory transmitter is __________________

a) Serotonine
b) Histamine
c) Dopamine
d) Acetylcholine
13. Compound ganglion present is _____________

a) Rhodinus bug
b) Cyclorrhapun flies
c) Both
d) None
14. Juvenile hormone present in lepidoptera eggs _______________

a) JH-III
b) JH-I
c) JH-II

d) JH-0
15. Juvenile hormone present in most of insects is ____________

a) JH-I
b) JH-III
c) JH-I & JH-II
d) JH-0
16. Prothoracic glands are present in ________________

a) Larva
b) Adults
c) Both
d) None
17. Carpora cardiaca absent in _________________

a) Protura
b) Collembola
c) Lepidoptera
d) Psocoptera
18. In scarab beetle tympanal organ present on

_____________________
a) Neck membrane
b) Foretibia
c) Mesothorax
d) Metathorax
19. Pigment present in eyes is _______________________

a) Melanine

b) Xanthopterin
c) Ommochrome
d) Quinone
20. Pairs of pregenital appendages present in

________________order
a) Collembola
b) Mecoptera
c) Psocoptera
d) None
21. Retinaclum present on __________ abdominal segment in

collembola
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 3
22. Anamorphosis is seen in _________________ order

a) Collembola
b) Archaeognatha
c) Ephemeroptera
d) Plecoptera
23. Adults live for few hours in _________________

a) Ephemeroptera
b) Strepsiptera
c) Zoraptera
d) None

24. Male genetalia in odonata present on _____________abdominal

sterna
a) 2&3
b) 4&5
c) 9&10
d) 9&2
25. Mark is formed by modification of _______________

a) Labium
b) Labrum
c) Mandibles
d) Maxillae
26. Fenestrae present in ______________

a) Cockroaches
b) Silver fish
c) May flies
d) Collembola
27. Semicircular hind wings are seen in

_____________________onsets
a) Store flies
b) Rock crawlers
c) Book lice
d) Ear wigs
28. In Ensitera Tympanum present on ____________

a) Hind tibia

b) Fore tarsus
c) Fore tibia
d) Hind femur
29. In Nepidae hind legs modified for _____________

a) Swimming
b) Running
c) Jumping
d) Walking
30. Hind legs modified like oars in _________________

a) Belostomatidae
b) Nepidae
c) Water striders
d) water boatmen
31. Carinae is present in ___________________

a) Aphidae
b) Pryllidae
c) Eurybrachidae
d) Lophopidae
32. Protrasibleversicle present on____________ part of the leg in

thrips
a) Tarsi
b) Femur
c) tibia
d) trochomter

33. Dobson flies belongs to ______________________ sub order

a) Raphidioidea
b) Planipennia
c) Megaloptera
d) None
34. Hypostigmal cell is present in _____________________

a) Ascalpidae
b) Hyrmeleontidae
c) Chrysopidae
d) Hemerobidae
35. Trochantor absent in _________________

a) Strepsiptera
b) Mecoptera
c) Siphonoptera
d) Zonoptera
36. Shot hole symptom produced by _____________________ insects

a) Brachids
b) flea beetles
c) Blister beetles
d) Ambrosia beetles
37. Food habit of male Horse flies is ________________

a) Blood sackers
b) phytophoyous
c) Pollen and nectorfeeders
d) none

38. In Hover flies spurious vein present between ____________

a) C &Sc
b) M & Cu
c) R &Sc
d) R& M
39. In Hymenopteran larva crochets ______________

a) Present
b) absent
c) modified
d) vestigial
40. According to the Comstock and Needham the medianveinhas

____________ branches
a) Two
b) Six
c) Three
d) Five

MODEL QUESTION PAPER – III
1. Dipteran insects have ______________________ type of head

orientation
a) Hypognathous
b) Prognathous
c) Opisthognathous
d) None
2. ________________type of mouth part is found in honey bees.

a) Piecing and sucking
b) chewing and biting
c) Siphoning
d) chewing and lapping
3. Ants have __________________type of legs.

a) Clasping
b) Fussorial
c) Ambulatory
d) Cursorial
4. Corbiculate type of legs are present in ____________________

a) Tiger beetles
b) Cicadas
c) Worker bees
d) moths & butterflies
5. Forewings are present in __________________.

a) Prothorax
b) Mesothorax
c) Metathorax
d) Pterothorax
6. A median muscular pod present in between a pair of lateral claws in

the foot of insects is called as____________________
a) Trochanter
b) Corbicula
c) Arolium
d) Spur
7. Maximum number of abdominal segments found in insects are

________.
a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13
8. Paired penis is found in ___________________ order of class insecta.

a) Neuroptera
b) Hymenoptera
c) Ephemeropterad) Odonata
9. External insect organs associated with adult insect respiration are

_________________
a) Tracheae
b) Stemmata
c) Spiracles
d) None

10. Hemimetabolan insects have __________________ type of tracheal

system
a) Holopneustic
b) Hemipneustic
c) Peripneustic
d) Amphipneustic
11. Hyper pneumatic type of tracheal system is found in

___________________
a) Mallophaga
b) Diplura
c) Siphunculata
d) Lepidoptera
12. Naiads of Anisoptera have __________________.

a) Caudal gills
b) Blood gills
c) Rectal gills
d) none
13. Johnston’s organs are present in _______________ part of the

antenna.
a) Scape
b) Pedicel
c) Flagellum
d) meriston
14. Meriston is present in _________________ part of the insect

antennae.

a) Flagellum
b) Scape
c) Pedicel
d) None of these
15. Sub genual organs in insects are present in ___________

a) Antenna
b) Femur
c) Tibia
d) Tarcus
16. In cicadidae, tympanal organs are present in __________________

a) Forelegs
b) 1st abdominal segment
c) 2nd abdominal segment
d) hind legs
17. Gustatory receptors are associated with _______________

a) Touch
b) Smell
c) taste
d) visual
18. In male cicada, tymbal is present in ________________________

a) 1st abdominal segment
b) metathorax
c) 2nd abdominal segment
d) foreleg femur

19. In fireflies, light is produced due to oxidation of ________________

a) Chitin
b) Luciferin
c) Fattyacids
d) Haemolymph
20. Neuropteran larvae are ___________________ in nature

a) Apodous
b) polypodous
c) Oligopodous
d) Prolegged
21. The only cellular layer of integument is __________________

b) Cuticle
c) Epidermis
d) None of these
22. The cells which constitute the dust of the dermal gland are
_______________.
a) Trichogen cells
b) Tormogen cells
c) Pore canals
d) None of these
23. Moulting fluid during moulting is secreted by

_______________________.
a) Epidermis
b) basement membrane

c) Cuticle
d) All of these
24. Non-chitinous part of the cuticle is ______________

a) Exocuticle
b) Endocuticle
c) Epicuticle
d) Mesocuticle
25. The layer which serves as a water proof layer of the integument is
_______________.
a) Poly phenol layer
b) Wax layer
c) Cuticulin layer
d) Cement layer
26. Nitrogenous polysaccharide present in insect integument is

__________________.
a) Lactose
b) Chitin
c) Cuticulin
d) Cholesterol
27. Adjacent chitin chains are held together by _______________

linkages to form microfibrils.
a) Halfa – glycosidic
b) β- glycosidic
c) Y- glycosidicd) diphosphate
28. The precursor of chitin synthesis is ____________

a) Glucose
b) Lactose
c) Trihalose
d) Fructose
29. Abundantly found chitin polymorph in the insect integument is

________________.
a) alfa-chitin
b) β- chitin
c) Y- chitin
d) Both
30. It has been estimated that insects had existed on this earth for at least
______million year
a) 100
b) 150
c) 200
d) 250
31. The insect belongs to the subphyllum ______________________

a) Hexapoda
b) Chelicerata
c) Hyriapoda
d) Mandibulata
32. The closest relatives of Arthropods are ________________

a) Onychopora
b) Pisces
c) Hammdia

d) None
33. Number of developmental stages in Ametabola __________

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 5
34. Hemimetamorphosis is seen in _________________

a) Endopterygota
b) Exopterygota
c) Apterygota
d) All the above
35. Larvae possess wing pads in _________________ type of

metamorphosis
a) Ametabola
b) Hemimetamorphosis
c) Holometamorphosis
d) Hypemetamorphosis
36. Hypermetamorphosis is seen in ____________________

a) Stone flies
b) Flies
c) Bees
d) Strepsiptera
37. Chorion is present in insects _________________

a) Wing

b) Leg
c) Antenna
d) Egg
38. Anopheles mosquito eggs are ___________________

a) Singly floating
b) Minute rafts
c) Fixed
d) Oothecal
39. Nonchitinous layer of integument in insects is

______________________
a) Procuticle
b) Endocuticle
c) Exocuticle
d) None
40. The layer of Epicuticle, which prevents water loss is

________________
a) Cement layer
b) Lipid layer
c) Polyphenol layer
d) Cuticulin
41. Pore canals are present in which layer of the insect integument
_____________________
b) Epicuticle
c) Procuticle
d) None

42. Thickest layer of the integument is ______________

a) Exocuticle
b) Endocuticle
c) Epicuticle
d) None
43. Nitrogenous polysacharide, which constitutes (25-60%) is

__________________
a) Chitin
b) Resilin
c) Sclerotine
d) Arthropodine
44. Moulting fluid is produced by _____________ layer of the integument

b) Hypodermis
c) Cuticle
d) Epidermis
45. Macrotrichia is ______________________ type of external process

a) Multicellular
b) Non cellular
c) Unicellular
d) None
46. Glandellar setae is present in ____________________ larvae

a) Diptera
b) Hemiptera

c) Ephemeraptera
d) Lepidoptera
47. Microtrichia is _____________________ type of External process

a) cellular
b) Unicellular
c) Multicellular
d) Non-cellular
48. Microtrichia is found on wings of __________________

a) Lepidoptera
b) Hymenoptera
c) Ephemeraptera
d) Mecoptera
49. Foramen magnum is opening found on ___________________

a) Abdomen
b) Thorax
c) Digestive system
d) Head
50. Upper lip of the mouth parts of insects is ____________________

a) Mandible
b) Maxilae
c) Epipharnyx
d) Labrum
51. Which is the gnathal segment of the head ________________

a) Labral

b) Ocular
c) Antennal
d) Labial
52. Cibarium is founds __________________

a) Head
b) Leg
c) Antenna
d) Wing
53. The non-insect an hexapoda, do not have antenna

is_________________
a) Collembola
b) Diplura
c) Protura
d) none
54. Chordotonal organ of the antenna is _________________

a) Scape
b) Flagella
c) Jhonston’s organ
d) none
55. Entognathus mouth parts is found in _____________________

a) Diplura
b) Dictyoptera
c) Plecoptera
d) Mecoptera

56. Moncondylic mandibles are found in ___________________

a) Entognatha
b) Ectognatha
c) Hypognatha
d) Prognatha
57. Pseudotracheae is found in which suborder of Diptera

_________________
a) Nematocera
b) Brachycera
c) Cyclorrhapha
d) none
58. In siphoning type of Mouthparts galea is formed by

_________________
a) Labium
b) Labrum
c) Mandible
d) Maxillae
59. Pterothorax is found in ____________________

a) Protura
b) Collembola
c) all of these
d) Mecoptera
60. In Acridids the fergum of thorax is known as _____________

a) Sternum
b) Pluran

c) notum
d) none
61. The number of spiracles found on thorax are____________

a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
62. In Hymenoptera stigma is present in which margin of the wing

_________________
a) Anal
b) Apical
c) Coastal
d) none
63. In Thysanura wings with ______________

a) Hairs
b) Scales
c) Spines
d) Stigma
64. Pterostigma is found in both wings of _________________

a) Plecoptera
b) Odonata
c) Hymenopterad) Diptera
65. Concave veins are found on ______________ of the wing

a) Ridges

b) Furrows
c) Morgin
d) Base
66. Corium is a part of ___________________

a) Egg
b) Wing
c) Leg
d) Mouth parts
67. Embolium is a part of _________________

a) Mouth parts
b) Abdomen
c) Wing
d) Head
68. Walking legs of bugs are called as ______________

a) Cursorial
b) Saltatorial
c) Ambulatorial
d) Fossorial
69. Scansorial legs are commonly known as______________

a) Jumping
b) Swimming
c) Running
d) Clinging
70. Tympoanum is present in 1st segment of ___________________

a) Gryllidae
b) Tettigoniida
c) Gryllotalpidae
d) Acrididae
71. In male, Genital apparatus found on __________ segment

a) 8 and 9th
b) 7
c) 10
d) 9
72. Pair of paramers are found in ______________genitalia

a) Male
b) Female
c) Both
d) none
73. The function of Hepatic caecae is ______________

a) Digestion
b) Absorption
c) Secretion
d) Ingestion
74. Terminal part of the stomdaeum is________________________

a) Crop
b) Oesophagous
c) Ventriculus
d) Proventriculus

75. Chewing stomach of Alimentary canal is ___________________

a) Ventriculus
b) Crop
c) Oerophagous
d) Proventriculus
76. The pouches on midgut, which kills the foreigh 3 bacteria

_________________
a) Hepatic Caecae
b) Ventriculus
c) Caecal diverticula
d) none
77. Maximum Digestion and secretion of Enzymes take place in

_______________
a) Stomodaeum
b) Mesenteron
c) Proctodaeum
d) foregut
78. In silks worms, silks production is by ______________________

a) Maxillary glands
b) Mandibular glands
c) Salivary glands
d) labial glands
79. Pharyngeal glands found in _________________________

a) workers
b) Queen

c) Drones
d) All
80. Extra oral digestion seen in larvae of _________________________

a) Lepidoptera
b) Hymenoptera
c) Neuroptera
d) Dermaptera
81. Female blood sucking insect is ______________

a) Bed bug
b) Mosquito
c) Rat flea
d) Cat flea
82. Intima is secreted by cells of _____________

a) Hind gut
b) Mid gut
c) hindgut
d) Pylorus
83. In Hemiptera rostrum is formed by _______________

a) Labium
b) Labrum
c) maxillae
d) galea
84. Pseudo trachea is present in ________________ sub order of Diptera

a) Nematocera

b) Braclycera
c) Cyclorrhapha
d) none
85. Posterior part of the ilium is _____________

a) Rectum
b) Colon
c) Anus
d) Pylorus
86. Chloride cells present in ________________________ insects

a) Terrestrial
b) Fresh water
c) soil inhabiting
d) Blood sucking
87. Hypopharyngeal glands well developed in_______________

a) Workers
b) Queen
c) Males
d) Drones
88. Lipids are digested by the enzymes __________________

a) Amylase
b) Esterases
c) carboxypeptidases
d) Aminopeptidases
89. In carabid beetles much digestion take place in ____________

a) Hind gut
b) Mid gut
c) Fore gut
d) none
90. Energy source amino acid in insect ________________

a) Tyrosine
b) Tryptophan
c) proline
d) Glutane
91. One of the function of Vit-E is _______________

a) Reproduction
b) Pigmentation
c) Visual
d) none
92. Ecto symbiotic fungus of termites is ___________________

a) Fussarium
b) Ambrosiellae
c) Termitomyces
d) Ceratocystis
93. Haemocoel has ______________ sinuses

a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5

94. In insects heart is restricted to _______________

a) Thorax
b) Head
c) Abdomen
d) whole body
95. Malpighian tubules absent in __________

a) Collembola
b) Trichoptera
c) Plecoptera
d) Diptera
96. Articulation of femur is ________________

a) monocondylic
b) Dicondylic
c) none
d) Double
97. Two trochanters found in __________________

a) Odonata
b) Isoptera
c) Phasmida
d) Mantodea
98. Largest part of the leg is ______________

a) Coxa
b) Femur
c) Tarsus
d) Patela

99. Family of diptera having aroliam is ______________

a) Muscidae
b) Cimicidae
c) Tabanidae
d) Tipulidae
100. Pulvillus is found in ______________

a) Diptera
b) Lepidoptera
c) Coleoptera
d) Diplura

ANSWER KEYS FOR MODEL PAPERS

MODEL QUESTION PAPER – I
1. d 35. a 69. b
2. c 36. a 70. b
3. a 37. c 71. b
4. d 38. d 72. d
5. b 39. b 73. a
6. b 40. b 74. c
7. a 41. a 75. c
8. c 42. c 76. c
9. b 43. c 77. b
10. b 44. b 78. c
11. d 45. c 79. c
12. c 46. a 80. d
13. b 47. b 81. c
14. b 48. b 82. c
15. c 49. d 83. b
16. a 50. b 84. c
17. a 51. c 85. a
18. a 52. b 86. a
19. b 53. c 87. a
20. b 54. d 88. c
21. b 55. c 89. c
22. c 56. c 90. b
23. a 57. b 91. a
24. c 58. b 92. a
25. b 59. b 93. d
26. c 60. b 94. c
27. d 61. d 95. c
28. c 62. b 96. a
29. c 63. b 97. b
30. b 64. d 98. b
31. d 65. c 99. c
32. b 66. c 100. a
33. a 67. b
34. d 68. c

MODEL QUESTION PAPER – II
I. Choose the correct answer

1. c 15. b 29. a
2. d 16. a 30. d
3. d 17. a 31. c
4. a 18. a 32. a
5. a 19. c 33. c
6. a 20. a 34. c
7. c 21. d 35. a
8. b 22. b 36. b
9. c 23. a 37. c
10. a 24. d 38. d
11. c 25. a 39. b
12. d 26. a 40. b
13. b 27. d
14. d 28. c

MODEL QUESTION PAPER – III
1. b 35. b 69. d
2. d 36. d 70. d
3. d 37. d 71. a
4. c 38. b 72. a
5. a 39. b 73. b
6. c 40. b 74. c
7. b 41. d 75. d
8. d 42. a 76. a
9. c 43. a 77. b
10. a 44. d 78. c
11. b 45. c 79. a
12. c 46. b 80. b
13. b 47. d 81. b
14. a 48. d 82. c
15. a 49. d 83. a
16. b 50. d 84. c
17. c 51. d 85. b
18. d 52. a 86. a
19. b 53. c 87. a
20. c 54. c 88. b
21. c 55. a 89. b
22. b 56. b 90. c
23. a 57. c 91. a
24. c 58. d 92. c
25. b 59. d 93. a
26. b 60. c 94. c
27. b 61. b 95. a
28. a 62. c 96. b
29. a 63. a 97. a
30. d 64. c 98. b
31. d 65. b 99. a
32. a 66. b 100. a
33. b 67. c
34. b 68. a

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OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK IN AGRICULTURAL ENTOMOLOGY

OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK

Dr. (Mrs) Kumud Singh

Dr. Nagendra Kumar

Dr. Arvind Kumar Singh

Dr. Deepak Jaiswal

PARMAR PUBLICATION Page i

© Copyright with the Authors/Editors/Contributors

Printed and bound in India

Not for Sale

Cover Page Design,Page Setting, Layout and Limted Copies Printing at

PARMAR PUBLICATION Page ii

Competitive examinations in the field of Agriculture is quite tough and of routine

The help rendered by Dr. Brajendra, Pr. Scientist, ICAR-IIRR, Hyderabad in

We welcome suggestions for improvement from readers and scholars.

PARMAR PUBLICATION Page iii

PARMAR PUBLICATION Page iv

S.No. CHAPTERS PAGES

1 OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK 1

2. MODEL QUESTION PAPER – I 110

3 MODEL QUESTION PAPER – II 131

4. MODEL QUESTION PAPER – III 140

PARMAR PUBLICATION Page v

PARMAR PUBLICATION Page vi

1. Insecticide „Act‟ was passed by the Government of India is

2. the concentration at which 50% of growth or activity is inhibited

3. concentration at which 50% of the predicted effect is observed

4. the concentration at which the lowest effect is seen is called as

5. the maximum concentration at which no effect is observed is

PARMAR PUBLICATION Page 1

2) when progeny are produced by mated or unmated females, but

8. Native; indigenous is called as

9. Which of the following is a form of parthenogenesis

10. Which pesticides is usually considered to be chemical control

PARMAR PUBLICATION Page 2

11. Which of the following institute responsible for developing the

12. The import of agricultural commodities is presently regulated

14. When pesticide active ingredient dissolves readily in water

15. When pesticide active ingredient is not readily soluble in water or

PARMAR PUBLICATION Page 3

3) two or more organisms of distant phylogeny use the same food

18. Strategy of control to prevent the spread of pests and diseases

PARMAR PUBLICATION Page 4

5) An organism that feeds on detritus

21. Which pesticides is usually considered to be chemical control

22. Adelphoparasitoidism is defined as

24. Which of following chemical is sulfur containing hydrocarbon

25. Direct pest is

PARMAR PUBLICATION Page 5

3) A parasitoid that lives on the external surface of its host, feeding on it

PARMAR PUBLICATION Page 6

35. Limitations imposed on development which occur because of

PARMAR PUBLICATION Page 7

37. Pesticides include

38. Triazine herbicides include

39. Carbamate fungicides include

40. Organophosphates includes

PARMAR PUBLICATION Page 8

41. Carbamate based insecticides include