Jee Adv Paper-1

JEE ADVANCED REVISION TEST # 4
JEE-Advanced - 2024
Batch : Master Stroke Paper - I Date : 12.05.2024
FULL SYLLABUS
Time : 3 hours Max. Marks : 180
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Kindly check you question paper before starting.
2. Write your Name and Roll Number on Test Booklet.
3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
4. The question paper consists of 3 parts. (PART– I : PHYSICS, PART- II : CHEMISTRY, PART- III : MATHS)
5. There are 19 questions in each part and total number of question are 76.
6. Question Paper Format & Marking Scheme :
SECTION-I (i)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of
these four options is the correct answer. For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 if ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 if none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 in all other cases.
SECTION-I (ii)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct answer(s). For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct
answer(s) Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both of which
are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Section : II (i)
This section contains THREE (03) question stems. There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question
stem. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value
corresponding to the answer in the designated place. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the
following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Section : II (ii)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER. For each
question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the answer. For each
question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories.
Full Marks : +4 If only the correct answer is given.
7. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile Phone,
electronic device or any other material inside the examination hall/ room.
Name of The Candidate (in Capital letters) ________________________________________________
Roll No. : in figures
in words____________________________________________________
Candidate signature : ____________________ Invigilator signature : ______________________

SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS
Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,
· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1
1
· Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 pe0
· Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m 2 kg–2
· Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
· Stefan–Boltzmann constant s = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2 –K–4
· Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
· Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4p × 10–7 NA–2
1
· Permittivity of vacuum Î0 =
m0 c2
· Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s
Space for Rough Work
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PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. A heavy but uniform rope of length L is suspended from a ceiling. A particle is dropped from the ceiling at
the instant when the bottom end is given a transverse wave pulse. Where will the particle meet the pulse?
2L L
(A) At a distance from the bottom (B) At a distance from the bottom
3 3
3L
(C) At a distance from the bottom (D) None of the above
4
2. A sound detector is moving with a constant velocity towards a stationary sound source. The source emits
a beep of sound of frequency ƒ0 = 262 Hz, that propagates with speed c = 330 m/s. The detector detects
beep of sound over a distance Δx = 78 m and registers a frequency ƒ = 275 Hz. The duration of beep
emitted by source is :
(A) 10 sec (B) 4 sec (C) 5 sec (D) 8 sec
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PART-1 : PHYSICS
3. A long glass capillary is dipped in water. It is known that water wets glass completely. The water level
rises by h in the tube whose length outside water is more than h. The tube is now pushed down so that only
–h
a length 3 is outside the water surface. The angle of contact of the water surface at the upper end of
√
2
the tube will be
(A) 30° (B) 45° (C) tan–12 (D) 60°
4. Light of wavelength λ is incident normally on a thin film. The reflected light shows a minima for
reflection. The thickness of film is minimum possible. Now the same film is placed in front of upper
slit of the YDSE apparatus. The fringe pattern shifts up by 7.5 mm, then the refractive index of
material is: (Take : D = 5m, d = 0.1 mm, λ = 500nm).
(A) 1.25 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.75
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PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)

This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.
5. A positive point charge q is located inside a neutral hollow spherical conducting shell. The shell has inner
radius a and outer radius b ; b – a is not negligible. The shell is centred on the origin. Which of the
following is correct graph of electric field vs radial distance x or electric potential vs radial distance x? The
point charge can be located anywhere inside shell on x-axis.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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PART-1 : PHYSICS
6. An ideal gas is taken from state A (pressure P, volume V) to the state B (pressure P/2, volume 2V) along a
straight line path in P-V diagram. Select the correct statement from the following
(A) The work done by the gas in the process A to B exceeds the work that would be done by it if
the system were taken from A to B along an isotherm
(B) In T-V diagram, the path AB becomes a part of a parabola
(C) In P-T diagram, path AB becomes a part of a hyperbola
(D) In going from A to B, the temperature T of the gas first increases to a maximum value and then
decreases
7. In the given a.c. circuit, choose the correct statement(s).
(A) Impedance of circuit is 2Ω

1
(B) Power factor of circuit is –
√ 2
–
(C) Peak value of current through resistance is 50 √ 2A
(D) Average power supplied by source is 2500 W.

8. In a hydrogen like atom in which every atom is in a particular excited state. Now a stream of photons of
64
energy E bombarded into it and is absorbed by the hydrogen like atom and subsequently its emission
225 0
64
spectrum shows 10 different lines in which some lines have energy less than E and some lines have
225 0
64 64
energy more than E0 and some lines have energy equal to E . (Where E0 is ionization energy of
225 225 0
hydrogen atom in ground state).
(A) The final quantum no. of electron in the atom is 5
(B) The initial quantum no. of electron in the atom is 3
(C) Atomic no. of the atom is 2
(D) None of these
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PART-1 : PHYSICS
9. When a point light source of power W emitting monochromatic light of wavelength λ is kept at a distance 'a'
from a photo-sensitive surface of wave function ϕ and area S then
W λS
(A) Number of photons striking the surface per unit time is
4πhca 2
1
(B) The stopping potential needed to stop the most energetic emitted photoelectrons is (hc − λϕ)
eλ
hc
(C) Photo emission occurs only if λ lies in the range 0 < λ⩽
ϕ
1
(D) The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photo electron is hc − λϕ)
(
λ
10. From a cylinder of radius R, a cylinder of radius R/2 is removed, as shown. Current flowing in the remaining
cylinder is I. Magnetic field strength is :
(A) zero at point A (B) zero at point B

μ0I μ0I
(C) at point A (D) at point B
3πR 3πR
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PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-II (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)

This section contains THREE (03) question stems.
There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated
place.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal
places.
Paragraph for Questions 11 and 12
A calorimeter of water equivalent 250 g contains a block of ice at –10°C in which there is a solid
conducting ball where water equivalent is 50 g. The mass of ice is 800 g. 150 g of steam at 100°C is
added to the calorimeter and the system is isolated from surroundings.
Given
Specific heat of water = 1 cal/g/°C
Specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/g/°C
Latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/g
Latent heat of vaporization = 540 cal/g
.11. Amount of water (in gm) in the container, when equilibrium has been established, is
.
12. The density of the material of the ball at 0°C is [ρB(0°C)] is equal to density of water. Also ρB varies with
θ
temperature as ρB(θ°C) = ρB(0°C) × ( 1− ) . Ignore the expansion of water and any pressure
200
changes with temperature. After thermal equilibrium has been reached, the fraction of volume of the ball
in air in the calorimeter equals.
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PART-1 : PHYSICS

A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm is divided into two parts and separated by 2 mm. A point object
at a distance of 20 cm starts moving at t = 0 with 1mm/s as shown.
13. Distance (in mm) between images formed by two part at t = 0 is:
14. Rate of change of distance (in mm/s) between images formed by two parts at t = 0, is
The spring of constant k = 50 N/m is unstretched when the slider of mass m = 2 kg passes through
position B. The slider is released from rest in position A. There is friction between slider and guide
whose work done from A to B is –11 J and from B to C is – 4 J. (Radius of circular portion of guide is
R = 3m & acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2)
vC⃗ |
|
15. If speed of slider at position B and C are vB and vC respectively then (in m/s) will be :
vB⃗ |
|
16. If the normal force at position B and C are NB and NC respectively then |N C | − |N B | will be in (N) :-
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PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-II (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)

This section contains THREE (03) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER
For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
17. If an imaginary planet is suddenly stopped in its orbit supposed to the circular, it would fall onto the Sun
–
√ 2
in a time T, where T is the time period of planet's revolution. Find the value of β.
β
18. The figure shows a RC circuit with a parallel plate capacitor. Before switching on the circuit, plate A of
the capacitor has a charge –Q0 while plate B has no net charge. Now, at t = 0, the circuit is switched on.
How much time (in second) will elapse before the net charge on plate A becomes zero
2 × 106
(Given C = 1μF, Q0 = 1mC, ε = 1000 V and R = Ω)
ln 3
19. A 10 kg solid sphere of radius R = 0.8 m is rolling without slipping on a horizontal rough surface with 8 m/s.
The force applied by the right half of the sphere on the left half is 30x N. The value of x is
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PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
1. A solution of 0.1 M Cl– and 10–4 M CrO42–. If solid AgNO3 is gradually added to this solution, what will
be the concentration of Cl– when Ag2CrO4. begins to precipitate ?
[Ksp(AgCl) = 10–10M2 ; Ksp(Ag2CrO4) = 10–12M3]
(A) 10–6 M (B) 10–4 M (C) 10–5 M (D) 10–9 M
2. Which of the following reaction is incorrect ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
3. Select incorrect statement from the following -

(A) CH3–CHO & HCHO can be distinguished by iodoform test
(B) CH3–CHO & CH3COOH can be distinguished by NaHCO3
(C) CH3–COOH & HCOOH can be distinguished by Tollen's reagent
(D) HCHO & HCOOH can be distinguished by Tollen's reagent
4. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(Elements) (Properties)
(a) Li (I) Show blue colour in flame test
(b) Na (II) Form hydrated chloride salt
Form super oxide (when burns with
(c) K (III)
excess O2)
Peroxide is used as oxidizing agent widely
(d) Cs (IV)
in inorganic chemistry
Choose correct option.
(A) (a–I) , (b–III) , (c–IV) , (d–II) (B) (a–II) , (b–IV) , (c–III) , (d–I)
(C) (a–II) , (b–III) , (c–IV) , (d–I) (D) (a–III) , (b–I) , (c–III) , (d–II)
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PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

answer(s).
correct option.
5. A galvanic cell is composed of two hydrogen electrodes one of which is a standard hydrogen electrode.
Identify correct option(s) if other electrode is immersed in :
Use : = 0.06
(I) 0.1 M HCl(aq.) ,
(II) 0.1 M CH3COOH(aq.) [Ka = 10–5],
(III) 0.1 M NaOH(aq.)
(IV) 0.1 M NH4OH(aq.) [Kb = 10–5].
(A) For case III cell EMF is of maximum magnitude among given options
(B) For case - IV : Ecell = 0.66 volts
(C) For case - I : cell EMF is of minimum magnitude
(D) For case - II : Ecell = 0.18 volts
6. Which of the following processes are spontaneous
(A) Melting of ice at 2 atm and 273 K (B) Melting of ice at 1/2 atm and 273 K
(C) Boiling of water at 1/2 atm and 373 K (D) Boiling of water at 2 atm and 373 K
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PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
7. Which of the following deduction regarding basic strength of the following base is / are true ?
(A) Nitrogen–I is protonated first during its stepwise neutralization.

(B) Nitrogen–II is protonated first during its stepwise neutralization.
(C) Conjugate acid of given base has a resonance structure in which all atoms (except H) has complete octet.
(D) Methoxy group from position-IV will increase the basic strength while the same from position-III
will decrease the basic strength.
8. Correct statement(s) for the product(s) of following reaction.
(A) Four different products are formed

(B) Two optically active products are formed
(C) The optically active compound formed here can also be made by the reaction of HCl
(D) The reaction path is free radical substitution
9. Which property given in bracket is unchanged if C atom is replaced by S?
(A) CO 32
−
(Non polar) (B) CO2 (Planar)
(C) COCl2 (Polar) (D) CF4 (Non planar)
10. Which of the following is the CORRECT match in the following -
Processes Nature of environment
(a) Smelting Reducing nature
(b) Roasting Oxidising nature
(c) Calcination Oxidising nature
(d) Bessemerization Oxidising nature
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
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PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

place.
places.
Vapour pressure of C6H6 (B) and C7H8 (T) mixture at 50ºC is given by
P = 200 – 100
= mole fraction of C7H8
156 gm of C6H6 and 736 gm of C7H8 are mixed together in a container. The vapours formed in this
container is then collected, condensed to form liquid and send to 2nd container and second container is
also maintained at 50°C.
11. What is the mole fraction of benzene in vapaur phase in 2nd container ?
[Assuming negligible change in the mole fraction of liquid solution]
12. What is the value of vapour pressure of liquid in 2nd container if it is maintained at 50°C ?
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PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

13. A solution containing 2.665 g of complex CrCl3.6H2O (Molecular wt. 266.5g/mole) is passed through a
cation exchanger resin. The chloride ions obtained in solution were treated with excess of silver nitrate to
give 2.87g of AgCl. [Atomic weight : Ag = 108, Cl = 35.5]
14. Fraction of Cl– ions precipitated when one mole of the complex is treated with AgNO3 is
Calculate magnetic moment (µm) in unit B.M. shown by the given complex.
Product mixture.
15. Number of alcohols formed in product mixture as major product.

16. Number of fraction(s) obtained after fractional distillation of the product mixture?
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PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

answer.
17. How many of the following respond positive in external magnetic field.
RbO2 , Na3[Cu(CN)4] , ClO3 , O3 , KMnO4
18. The molecular weight of the organic product Q in the given reaction is :
(Atomic weight Cl = 35.5)
( ) i O3 PCl5
CH3–CH=CH–CH3−−−−−−−→ (P) −−−→ (Q)
(ii) H 2 O/Zn
Fill your answer as sum of digits (excluding decimal places) till you get the single digit answer.
19. How many of the following can be oxidised by KMnO4 ?
1
I −
, C 2 O 4 2, H 2 S, SO 42
− −
, N O 3 1, Br
− 1
−
, SO 2
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PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
1. There are eight circles Si(i = 1,2,3,.....8) of radius 1,2,3.......8 respectively and all the circles are passing
through (8,8) and (9,9) then the arithmetic mean of the length of tangents drawn from (0,0) to these circles is-
(A) 12 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 1
t
2. If f(x) = ex , g(x) = x, x > 0 and F(t) = ∫ f(t – x) g(x) dx, then

0
(A) F(t) = 1 – e–t (1 + t) (B) F(t) = et – (1 + t)

(C) F(t) = tet (D) F(t) = te–t
3 1 1
3. If A and B are two events such that P A) =
( , P (B̄ ) = , P (A ∩ B̄ ) = , then P (Ā /A ∪ B̄ ) is equal to -
5 2 5
2 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 2 3
2
z − z̄ −
−− –
4. Let A z:(
: { ) ⩽ 2 (z + z̄ )}, where i = √− 1 and B : {z : |z| ⩽ √5} . Number of points with
2i
integral real and imaginary parts of z lying in A ∩ B is –
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9
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answer(s).
correct option.
5. If M be a non-singular matrix of order 3 such that , then choose the correct option(s) –
(where |X| represent determinant of matrix X, adj(X) denotes adjoint of matrix X and Tr(X) denotes trace of
matrix X)
1
(A) Absolute value of (15Tr(adjM)) is 5 (B) M| = −
|
36
(C) (D)
6. If A = diag (d1,d2,d3) where di > 0 (where i = 1,2,3) is diagonal matrix of order 3 such that d1 + 3d2 + 9d3 = 18
the value of determinant of A can be-
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 10
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3√–
7. A cyclic quadrilateral ABCD of area 3 is inscribed in an unit circle. If one of its sides AB = 1. And
4
–
the diagonal BD = 3 then which of the following is/are true ?
√
A = 60
(A) |–– ∘
(B) length of AD is 2
(C) BC = CD = 1 (D) BC > CD
8. Let f(x) be a non-negative continuous and bounded function for all x ≥ 0. If (cos x) f '(x) ≤ (sin x – cos x) f(x);
∀ x ≥ 0, then which of the following is / are correct ?
(A) f(6) + f(5) > 0

(B) x2 – 3x + 2 + f(7) = 0 has 2 distinct solutions
(C) f(5)f(7) – f(6)f(5) = 0
f (x) − sin(πx)
(D) lim = 1
x→6 (x − 6)
9. If x1 and x2 are the points of local minima of the function f(x) = (x – 2)2 (x2 – 3x + 2) (x2 – 5x + 6), then
the value of x 1 x 2 is greater than
([ ]+[ ])
[Note : [ ] denotes greatest integer function]

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
10. Let a |⃗ = 2, ∣∣b∣∣⃗ = 1
| and a ⃗ ⊥ b⃗ . If c^ is unit vector inclined at an angle 60° to both a⃗ and b⃗ such that
c ⃗ = xa ⃗ + yb⃗ + z (a ⃗ × b)
⃗
, then -
1 1
(A) y = 2x (B) z2 = 1 – 2x2 (C) z2 = (D) y2 =
8 4
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place.
places.
Consider three planes
P1 ≡ 2x + y + z = 1
P2 ≡ x – y + z = 2
P3 ≡ αx – y + 3z = 5
The three planes intersects each other at point P on XOY plane and at point Q on YOZ plane. O is the
origin.
11. The value of α is
12. If the co-ordinates of point R situated at a minimum distance from point 'O' on the line PQ are (a, b, c),
then value of 7a + 14b + 14c is
A bag initially contains 1 red ball and 2 blue balls. A trial consists of selecting a ball at random, noting
its colour and replacing it together with an additional ball of the same colour. If three trials are made.
13. Probability of At least one blue ball is drawn
14. Probability of Exactly one blue ball is drawn
Let g(x) = be a continuous function on x ∈ [0, ∞) and x = c is a point at
which drawn tangent is parallel to the chord joining A(0, 3) and B(1, a).
15. The absolute value of b is
16. The value of c is
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answer.
17. Square matrices B of second order are formed using some or all the possible values of k, when system of
linear equations kx + 4y + z = 0, 4x + ky + 2z = 0 & 2x + 2y + z = 0, has infinite solution, then number of
singular matrices B is
18. The chord of the hyperbola x2 – y2 = 25, touches the parabola y2 = 20x. If the locus of middle point of the
chords can be expressed as x3 = y2 (x – a), then a is
x y−1 z−1 x y−1 z−1
19. The projection of line = = on a plane 'P' is = = . If the plane P passes
2 2 1 1 1 −1
through (k, –2, 0), then value of k is :-

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JEE ADVANCED REVISION TEST # 4

Batch : Master Stroke Paper - I Date : 12.05.2024

Candidate signature : ____________________ Invigilator signature : ______________________

Space for Rough Work

SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)

(A) Impedance of circuit is 2Ω

(D) Average power supplied by source is 2500 W.

(A) zero at point A (B) zero at point B

Space for Rough Work

SECTION-II (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)

Paragraph for Questions 13 and 14

Space for Rough Work

SECTION-II (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

3. Select incorrect statement from the following -

Space for Rough Work

SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)

(A) Nitrogen–I is protonated first during its stepwise neutralization.

(A) Four different products are formed

SECTION-II (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)

Paragraph for Questions 13 and 14

15. Number of alcohols formed in product mixture as major product.

SECTION-II (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)

Space for Rough Work

2. If f(x) = ex , g(x) = x, x > 0 and F(t) = ∫ f(t – x) g(x) dx, then

(A) F(t) = 1 – e–t (1 + t) (B) F(t) = et – (1 + t)

SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)

(A) f(6) + f(5) > 0

[Note : [ ] denotes greatest integer function]

Space for Rough Work

SECTION-II (i) : (Maximum Marks: 12)

Let g(x) = be a continuous function on x ∈ [0, ∞) and x = c is a point at

SECTION-II (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 12)

through (k, –2, 0), then value of k is :-

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