Practice Test For Ab Psy 100 Items
Practice Test For Ab Psy 100 Items
Practice Test For Ab Psy 100 Items
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11. The individual will probably recover: source. In popular language, this shared
_______; the probable outcome doesn’t response is sometimes referred to as__.
look good: _____. a. Emotion contagion
a. Good prognosis; bad prognosis b. Conformity
b. Good prognosis; guarded c. Mob hysteria
prognosis d. Mob psychology
c. Positive prognosis; negative
prognosis 17. If someone nearby becomes
d. None of the above frightened or sad, chances are that for
the moment you also will feel fear or
12. The study of changes in abnormal sadness. This is a demonstration of
behavior. ____.
a. Psychopathology a. Emotion contagion
b. Developmental pathology b. Hysteria
c. Developmental psychopathology c. Mass hysteria
d. Developmental psychology d. Conformity
13. The study of origins, has to do with 18. He assumed that normal brain
why a disorder begins (what causes it) functioning was related to four bodily
and includes biological, psychological, fluids or humors: blood, black bile,
and social dimensions. yellow bile, and phlegm.
a. Causality a. Galen
b. Nosology b. Hippocrates
c. Epidemiology c. Philippe Pinel
d. Etiology d. Socrates
14. Biological, psychological, and social 19. The theory that asserts that
influences contribute to the _____ of abnormal brain functioning was related
disorders. to four bodily fluids or humors: blood,
a. Etiology black bile, yellow bile, and phlegm.
b. Factors a. Galenic theory
c. Causes b. Hippocratic theory
d. Process c. Humoral theory
d. Fluid approach
15. Patients were shocked back to their
senses by applications of ice-cold water. 20. Which is/are correct pair
a. Water dunking i. Phlegmatic: phlegm
b. Hydrotheraphy ii. Sanguine: blood
c. Hydrotherapy iii. Melancholic: black bile
d. None of the above iv. choleric person: yellow bile
a. i only
16. People are suggestible when they b. i and iii
are in states of high emotion. Therefore, c. i, ii, and iv
if one person identifies a “cause” of the d. all of the above
problem, others will probably assume
that their own reactions have the same
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21. Dorothea Dix campaigned endlessly 27. Patients come to relate to the
for reform in the treatment of insanity. therapist: ______; Therapists project
Her work became known as the ______. some of their own personal issues and
a. Moral therapy feelings, usually positive, onto the
b. Mental hygiene movement patient: _______.
c. Moral movement a. Countertransference; transference
d. Psychological reform movement b. Positive regard; unconditional
positive regard
22. The therapeutic technique of c. Transference; countertransference
recalling and reliving emotional trauma d. unconditional positive regard;
(that has been made unconscious) to Positive regard
release the accompanying tension.
a. Catharsis 28. The complete and almost
b. Insight unqualified acceptance of most of the
c. Free association client’s feelings and actions.
d. Rational Emotive technique a. Empathy
b. Positive regard
23. The energy or drive within the id. c. Unconditional positive regard
a. Thanatos d. Transference
b. Libido
c. Pleasure principle 29. Edward Titchener (1867–1927)
d. Sex emphasized the study of _____.
a. Introspection
24. Source of psychic energy according b. Structuralism
to Freud. c. Gestalt psychology
a. Eros and Thanatos d. Behaviorism
b. Libido
c. Tension 30. Skinner’s process of reinforcing
d. Creative power successive approximations to a final
behavior or set of behaviors.
25. Anna Freud: _______; Heinz Kohut: a. Modeling
________. b. Shaping
a. Ego psychology; self- psychology c. Conditioning
b. Self-psychology; ego psychology d. Reinforcement
c. Self-psychology; object relations
d. Ego psychology; attachment 31. Skinner preferred the term _____ to
theory “reward” because it connotes the effect
on the behavior.
26. According to _______, you tend to a. Modeling
see the world through the eyes of the b. Shaping
person incorporated into yourself. c. Conditioning
a. object relations theory d. Reinforcement
b. psychoanalysis
c. self-psychology 32. Person-centered therapy with
d. attachment theory unconditional positive regard.
a. Behavioral model
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b. moral therapy 38. This neurotransmitter regulates our
c. psychoanalytic theory behavior, moods, and thought
d. humanistic theory processes. Also, patients with OCD
have concentrated amount of this
33. The _________ processes all neurotransmitter in the part of the frontal
information received from our sense lobe of the cerebral cortex called the
organs and reacts as necessary. orbital surface (Chamberlain et al.,
a. Brain 2008; Harrison et al., 2013).
b. Hypothalamus a. Dopamine
c. HPA axis b. Serotonin
d. Central nervous system c. Cortisol
d. Norepinephrine
34. Transmit information throughout the
nervous system. It contains a central 39. Which neurotransmitter seems to be
cell body with two kinds of branches involved in our emergency reactions or
namely dendrites and axon. alarm responses?
a. Neurotransmitter a. Dopamine
b. Neuron b. Serotonin
c. Myelin sheath c. Cortisol
d. Hormones d. Norepinephrine
35. A small space through which the 40. First described the concept of
impulse must pass to get to the next learned helplessness.
neuron. a. Martin Seligman
a. Clef b. Ivan Pavlov
b. Synaptic cleavage c. Albert Bandura
c. Synaptic clef d. BF Skinner
d. Nerve space
41. Short-lived, temporary states lasting
36. Each endocrine gland produces its from several minutes to several hours,
own chemical messenger, called a ___. occurring in response to an external
a. Neurotransmitter event.
b. Serotonin a. Mood
c. Hormone b. State
d. Cortisol c. Affect
d. Emotion
37. Is an excitatory transmitter that
“turns on” many different neurons, 42. A more persistent period of affect or
leading to action: _______; an inhibitory emotionality.
neurotransmitter: ______. a. Mood
a. GABA; cortisol b. State
b. Cortisol; GABA c. Affect
c. GABA; glutamate d. Emotion
d. Glutamate; GABA
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43. Refers to the momentary emotional a. Predictive validity
tone that accompanies what we say or b. Face validity
do. c. Concurrent validity
a. Mood d. Internal validity
b. State
c. Affect 49. If you go to a clinician on Tuesday
d. Emotion and are told you have an IQ of 110, you
should expect a similar result if you take
44. The systematic evaluation and the same test again on Thursday. This
measurement of psychological, is an example of ______.
biological, and social factors in an a. interrater reliability
individual presenting with a possible b. reliability
psychological disorder. c. test–retest reliability
A. Clinical Assessment d. consistency
B. Diagnosis
C. Psychological testing 50. The process by which a certain set
D. Clinical evaluation of standards or norms is determined for
a technique to make its use consistent
45. The process of determining whether across different measurements.
the particular problem afflicting the a. Standardization
individual meets all criteria for a b. Consistency
psychological disorder. c. Utility
A. Clinical Assessment d. Normalization
B. Diagnosis
C. Psychological testing 51. Mental Status exam covers
D. Clinical evaluation i. Appearance and behavior
ii. Thought processes
46. Is the degree to which a iii. Mood and affect
measurement is consistent. iv. Intellectual functioning
a. Validity v. Sensorium
b. Standardization a. iv only
c. Reliability b. iv and ii
d. Consistency c. iv, iii, and ii
d. all of the above
47. Measures what it is designed to
measure. 52. Refers to our general awareness of
a. Validity our surroundings.
b. Standardization a. Thought processes
c. Reliability b. Mood and affect
d. Consistency c. Intellectual functioning
d. Sensorium
48. If the results from a standard, but
long, IQ test were essentially the same 53. Are made up of questions that have
as the results from a new, brief version, been carefully phrased and tested to
you could conclude that the brief version elicit useful information in a consistent
had _______. manner so that clinicians can be sure
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they have inquired about the most found even though some difficulty is
important aspects of particular disorders present; _______.
(Summerfeldt, Kloosterman, & Antony, a. False negative, false positive
2010). Clinicians may also depart from b. False positive, false negative
set questions to follow up on specific c. Validity; reliability
issue. d. Reliability; validity
A. Structured interview
B. Unstructured interview 58. When Lisa was brought to Dr.
C. Semistructured interview Miller’s office, he asked if she knew the
D. Follow up interview date and time, her identity, and where
she was.
54. To use the example of the violent a. Sensorium
boy, an observer would note that the b. Thought processes
sequence of events was (1) his mother c. Mood and affect
asking him to put his glass in the sink, d. Intellectual functioning
(2) the boy throwing the glass, and (3)
his mother’s lack of response. 59. Dr. Swan listened carefully to
Using ABC observation, the first Joyce’s speech pattern, noting its
sequence of event is called _____, the speed, content, and continuity. He
second event is _____, and the last one noticed no loose association but did
is _____. hear indications of delusional thoughts
and visual hallucinations.
a. Antecedent, Behavior,
a. Sensorium
Consequence
b. Thought processes
b. Antecedent, Behavior, Conduct
c. Mood and affect
c. Behavior, Antecedent,
d. Intellectual functioning
consequence
d. Consequence, Behavior,
60. An IQ score of 72.
antecedent
a. Border Line
b. Low average
55. Herman Rorschach: ___________;
c. Average
Morgan & Murray: _______.
d. Mild mental retardation
a. Inkblot Test; TAT
b. Rorschach inkblot test; TAT
61. idiographic strategy: _______;
c. Rorschach inkblot test; MMPI
nomothetic strategy: _______.
d. Rorschach inkblot test; Projective
a. determine what is unique about an
Test
individual’s personality, cultural
background, or circumstances; name or
56. IQ score is calculated by ___.
classify the problem
a. 100
b. name or classify the problem;
b. 100
determine what is unique about an
c. 100
individual’s personality, cultural
d. 100
background, or circumstances
c. determine what is common about
57. The test shows a problem when
an individual’s personality, cultural
none exists: ________; no problem is
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background, or circumstances; name or 65. A valid diagnosis tells the clinician
classify the problem what is likely to happen with the
d. treat the problem; determine what prototypical patient.
is unique about an individual’s a. Predictive validity
personality, cultural background, or b. Content validity
circumstances c. Construct validity
d. Criterion validity
62. If someone were to ask you to
describe a dog, you could easily give a 66. Judge the usefulness of the
general description (the essential, diagnostic category.
categorical characteristics), but you a. Predictive validity
might not exactly describe a specific b. Content validity
dog. Dogs come in different colors, c. Construct validity
sizes, and even species (the d. Criterion validity
nonessential, dimensional variations),
but they all share certain doggish 67. If you create criteria for a diagnosis
characteristics that allow you to classify of, say, social phobia, it should reflect
them separately from cats. This is a/an the way most experts in the field think of
example of _______. DSM-5 is also social phobia, as opposed to, say,
based on this approach. depression.
A. categorical approach a. Predictive validity
B. dimensional approach b. Content validity
C. prototypical approach c. Construct validity
D. none of the above d. Criterion validity
63. The following are DSM-5 criteria for 68. Allowed the clinician to gather
Major Depressive Episode, except; information about the individual’s
A. Depressed mood most of the day, functioning in a number of areas rather
nearly every day than limiting information to the disorder
B. Markedly diminished interest or itself. This framework is used in the
pleasure in all, or almost all, activities previous version of DSM.
most of the day, nearly every day. a. Dimension system
C. Significant weight loss when b. Categorical system
dieting or weight gain. c. Multiaxial system
D. Insomnia or hypersomnia nearly d. Biological framework
every day.
69. Former axes I, II, and III of DSM-IV
64. This means the signs and symptoms have been combined into the
chosen as criteria for the diagnostic _________ in DSM-5.
category are consistently associated or a. descriptions of the disorders
“go together” and what they identify b. severity of the disorders
differs from other categories. c. global assessment functioning
a. Predictive validity (GAF)
b. Content validity d. dimension of the disorders
c. Construct validity
d. Internal validity
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70. Individuals who have all the independent variable may also affect the
symptoms but do not cross _______ of dependent variable.
impairment could not be diagnosed with a. Independent variable
a disorder. Example, Frank has been b. g-factor
positive with MDD symptoms according c. Q-factor
to DSM – 5 criteria. However, he is not d. Confounding variable
depressed most of the day.
a. Threshold 75. The process of assigning people to
b. Criteria different research groups in such a way
c. Dimension that each person has an equal chance
d. Social aspect of being placed in any group.
a. Randomization
71. Refers to the values, knowledge, b. Normalization
and practices that individuals derive c. Standardization
from membership in different ethnic d. Classification
groups, religious groups, or other social
groups, as well as how membership in 76. In the basic components of a
these groups may affect the individual’s research study, which is/are correct
perspective on their experience with i. Research design - The plan for
psychological disorders (American testing the hypothesis. Affected by the
Psychiatric Association, 2013). question addressed, by the hypothesis,
A. Beliefs and by practical considerations
B. Habits ii. Dependent variable - Some aspect
C. Norm of the phenomenon that is measured
D. Culture and is expected to be changed or
influenced by the independent variable.
72. The individual is diagnosed with iii. Independent variable - The aspect
more than one psychological disorder at manipulated or thought to influence the
the same time. change in the dependent variable.
a. Onset iv. External validity - The extent to
b. Course which the results of the study can be
c. Compatibility attributed to the independent variable.
d. Comorbidity v. Internal validity -The extent to
which the results of the study can be
73. In DSM-5 the term “mental generalized or applied outside the
retardation” has been dropped in favor immediate study.
of the more accurate term “_________,” a. i, ii, and iii
a. Intellectually incapacitated b. i and ii
b. intellectual disability c. ii and iii
c. mental disability d. all of the above
d. intellectual retardation
77. The study of the incidence,
74. Any factor occurring in a study that distribution, and consequences of a
makes the results uninterpretable particular problem or set of problems in
because a variable other than the one or more populations.
a. Epidemiology
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b. Incidence 81. In cross-sectional designs, the
c. Prevalence participants in each age group are
d. Etiology called ___
a. Participant
78. In _________ design, researchers b. Cross-sectional participant
take a ______ of a population across c. Cohorts
the different age groups and compare d. Subjects
them on some characteristic.
a. Longitudinal; longitude 82. _____ is a negative mood state
b. Sequential; sequence characterized by bodily symptoms of
c. Correlational; correlation physical tension and by apprehension
d. Cross-sectional; cross-section about the future (American Psychiatric
Association, 2013). In humans it can be
79. Involves repeated study of different a subjective sense of unease, a set of
cohorts over time. behaviors or a physiological response
a. Longitudinal design originating in the brain and reflected in
b. Sequential design elevated heart rate and muscle tension.
c. Correlational design Lastly, it is a future- oriented mood
d. Cross-sectional design state.
a. Anxiety
80. Which of the following statement b. Fear
is/are true; c. Phobia
i. Afer participants are told the nature d. Panic
of the experiment and their role in it,
they must be allowed to refuse or agree 83. As an immediate alarm reaction to
to sign an informed consent form. danger.
ii. If the participant is in the control a. Anxiety
group or taking a placebo, informed b. Fear
consent is not needed. c. Phobia
iii. Research in universities or medical d. Panic
settings must be approved by the
institution’s review board regarding 84. Is defined as an abrupt experience
whether or not the participants lack the of intense fear or acute discomfort,
cognitive skills to protect themselves accompanied by physical symptoms that
from harm usually include heart palpitations, chest
iv. Participants have a right to pain, shortness of breath, and, possibly,
concealment of their identity on all data dizziness.
collected and reported a. Fear
v. When deception is essential to the b. Anxiety
research, participants do not have to be c. Generalized anxiety
debriefed regarding the true pose of the d. Panic attack
study.
a. I and ii 85. Panic attack in fixed situations:
b. I only ______; Varying panic attacks with no
c. I, iii, and iv clue when or where it will occur:
d. All of the above ______.
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a. Unexpected; expected 89. ________ are most ofen prescribed
b. Fixed; varied for generalized anxiety, and the
c. Expected; unexpected evidence indicates that they give some
d. Varied; fixed relief, at least in the short term.
a. Benzodiazepines
86. Raj is unable to speak whenever he b. Antipsychotic drugs
faces women. However, he converses c. Venlafaxine
well with his friends Sheldon, Leonard, d. Paroxetine
and Howard. Raj is suspected to have
_____. 90. The following are not interoceptive
a. specific phobia daily activities typically avoided by
b. social anxiety disorder people with Agoraphobia except;
c. panic disorder a. Watching an aquarium
d. Selective mutism b. Walking in a very fine weather
c. Dancing
87. Samantha was a 20-year-old college d. Having a polite conversation with a
student with an engaging personality but friend
not many friends. She came to the clinic
complaining of excessive anxiety and 91. Most patients with panic disorder
general difficulties in controlling her life. and agoraphobic avoidance display an
Samantha is diagnosed with ____. avoidance of internal physical sensation
a. agoraphobia called ____.
b. social anxiety disorder a. interoceptive avoidance
c. generalized anxiety disorder b. interceptive avoidance
d. Selective mutism c. external avoidance
d. exteroceptive avoidance
88. Sheldon Cooper is a very intelligent
person with strict morning bathroom 92. An interruption of breathing during
routine. He and Leonard lived together sleep that may feel like suffocation.
in a nice apartment. Leonard observed a. Gagging
that Sheldon keeps on sitting on a b. Snoring
specific couch. Whenever someone tries c. Sleep apnea
to sit in this couch, Sheldon fidget d. Night terror
uncomfortably and argue “that’s my
spot”. Sheldon’s behavior annoyed most 93. One hypothesis that panic disorder
of the people around him. Despite of and agoraphobia evolve from
this, Sheldon seems to notice no wrong psychodynamic causes suggested that
about him. Sheldon could be diagnosed early object loss and/or separation
with ________ due to the presence of anxiety might predispose someone to
______. develop the condition as an adult. These
a. Narcissistic PD; ego-syntonic concepts are from the theory of ____
b. Obsessive-compulsive; ego- and ____ respectively.
syntonic a. Melanie Klein; Mary Ainsworth
c. Narcissistic PD; ego-dystonic b. Melanie Klein; John Bowlby
d. Obsessive-compulsive PD; ego- c. Melanie Klein; Heinz Kohut
syntonic d. Melanie Klein; Anna Freud
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94. The following are not highly effective suddenly a fatal accident occurred.
psychological treatments for treating Before the accident, while on the phone,
panic disorder EXCEPT; his friend heard his scream. Doctor
a. Systematic desensitization Strange’s friend was diagnosed with a
b. Moral therapy specific phobia 6 months afer the
c. Cognitive therapy accident. His phobia was acquired
d. Cognitive behavioral therapy through ____
a. Direct experience
95. Is an irrational fear of a specific b. Vicarious experience
object or situation that markedly c. Communicative experience
interferes with an individual’s ability to d. being told about danger
function.
a. Agoraphobia 99. Billy had no friends. He was
b. Phobia unwilling to attend social or sporting
c. Object phobia activities connected with school, even
d. Specific phobia though most of the other kids in his
class went to these events His teachers
96. Anthropophobia is a fear of ___. had difficulty getting anything more than
a. Human history a yes or no answer from him. More
b. Humanity troublesome was that he had been
c. Human society found hiding in a stall in the boy’s
d. Human study restroom during lunch, which he said he
had been doing for several months
97. Ron Weasley experiences an instead of eating. Billy has a ______
extreme anxiety whenever he is close a. General anxiety disorder
with Hemione Granger. He fidgets and b. Phobia
can’t function properly when Hermione c. Social anxiety disorder
is around. He has been experiencing d. Separation anxiety disorder
this for about a year. Despite of being
friends with both Hermione and Harry, 100. From the psychological point of
Ron endured this intense anxiety view, most clinicians agree that victims
whenever the three are into adventures. of PTSD should face the original
Ron might be diagnosed with ___. trauma, process the intense emotions,
a. Nothing, this is just a simple crush. and develop effective coping procedures
The anxiety he felt is an outburst of his in order to overcome the debilitating
feelings effects of the disorder (Beck & Sloan,
b. Love syndrome. Ron is in love with 2012; Najavits, 2007; Monson, Resick,
Hermione & Rizvi, in press). The psychoanalytic
c. Panic disorder, because of his therapy would use ____, in reliving
extreme anxiety emotional trauma to relieve emotional
d. Specific phobia, Ron has a suffering.
mysterious hermionephobia – a fear of a. Word association
Hermione. b. CBT
c. Catharsis
98. Doctor Stephen Strange is driving d. Free association
his car while talking to a friend when
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Answer Key 21. B
81. C
23. B
19. C 83. B 20. D 84. D
22. A 86. D 25. A
24. A 88. D 26. A
30. B 94. D
27. C
1. D
28. C
2. C
29. A
3. C
31. D
4. B
32. D
5. A
33. D
6. D
34. B
7. B
35. C
8. A
36. C
9. A
37. D
10. B
38. B
11. B
39. D
12. C
40. A
13. D
41. D
14. A
42. A
15. C
43. C
16. D
44. A
17. A
45. B
18. B
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46. C 95. D 96. C 97. D 98. B
99. C 100.
47. A C
48. C
49. C
50. A
51. D
52. D
53. C
54. A
55. B
56. A
57. B
58. A
59. B
60. A
61. A
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