Airbus A320 MOCK EXAM

1. In Alternate Law, how do indications change on the speed scale?

a) Alpha protection is replaced by an extended Vʟꜱ.
b) There are no changes: it is possible to stall the aircraft.
c) V ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replaces Vʟꜱ
d) V ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replaces Alpha prot: it is possible to stall the aircraft

2. What does the sidestick control between neutral and full aft in alpha prot?
a) Alpha
b) Altitude
c) Airspeed
d) G

3. Should both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after the ______
are extended.
a) Slats
b) Gear
c) Spoilers
d) Flaps

4. When the flaps are extended, the ailerons:

a) Drop 5 degrees.
b) Go to the centering mode.
c) Pitch up 5 degrees.

5. If electrical power to SEC 1 fails:

a) All spoilers automatically retract.
b) The affected spoilers remains in the last commanded position.
c) The affected spoilers automatically retract.
d) SEC 2 takes over the spoiler command

6. Two control surfaces that have mechanical backup are:

a) Horizontal stabilizer and rudder.
b) Elevator and rudder.
c) Speed brakes and rudder.

7. Four hydraulically-operated wing tip brakes are installed to lock the flaps or slats in
case of:
a) Asymmetry and over speed only
b) Asymmetry, over speed, symmetrical runaway and uncommanded movement
c) Asymmetry, over speed and slow movement
d) All of the above

1|Page
Air-Conditioning / Ventilation

8. In normal flight in closed circuit configuration, the avionics ventilation system

controls the temperature of the cooling air by:
a) Adding avionics bay air
b) Extracting air overboard
c) Adding air-conditioned air to the flow
d) Passing air through a skin heat exchanger.

9. During the exterior preflight on a warm day, in what position would you expect to
find the avionics ventilation system INLET and EXTRACT valves to be in?
a) Closed or open regarding of the APU bleed valve.
b) Closed.
c) Closed or open
d) Open.

10. To enable Ram air to the mixer unit, The Ram air switch should be used:
a) To remove smoke from the cockpit and cabin if both packs fail.
b) At any time
c) Only after outflow valve is fully opened.
d) When pressure is greater than 1 psi diff.

11. Pack controller, primary and secondary channel failure

a) The packs deliver a fixed temperature of 20 deg.C
b) The pack is lost
c) Pack outlet temperature is controlled to between 5 and 30 deg.C by the anti-ice valve

12. Bleed air supplied from the APU (APU bleed valve open), the pack flow is
automatically selected:
a) Econ. Flow
b) Normal
c) High
d) Low

13. The Avionics Vent System has two "conditions" - GROUND and FLIGHT. When
does the transition from GROUND to FLIGHT occur?
a) After the second engine start.
b) At lift-off.
c) At 100 knots. on the take-off roll.
d) When the thrust is set for take-off.

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE….

2|Page
Pressurization

14. What are the different sources of air for air conditioning and pressurization?
a) Engine bleed air and recirculated air.
b) Engine bleed air and recirculated air, or if selected, APU bleed air and recirculated air.
c) Engine bleed air and recirculated air (only on ground)
d) Engine bleed air only.

15. Engine flow demand, when the heating or cooling demand in one zone cannot be
satisfied:
a) In any case, flight idle is sufficient
b) The minimum idle is increased automatically
c) The minimum idle must be increased manually
d) The APU must be used to supply additional air.

16. What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine start?
a) They must be selected off on hot days only.
b) They automatically close.
c) They must be selected off.
d) They must be selected off on cold days only.

17. What is the Norm. Max. cabin altitude?

a) 8,000 ft
b) 800 ft
c) 9,550 ft +/- 350 ft
d) 14,000 ft

18. What is the Max. Negative Diff. pressure for the cabin?
a) -1 psi.
b) 0 psi.
c) 2 psi.
d) 8.6 psi.

Communications

19. Which ACP switch configuration is correct for communication with other cockpit
crew members while wearing your Oxygen Mask?
a) ACP INT/RAD switch selected to INT, INT reception knob on, loudspeaker volume up.
b) INT transmission key to on, INT reception knob on, use the sidestick push-to-talk when
speaking, loudspeaker volume up.
c) Both are correct.

20. RMP #1 can control which VHF radios?

a) VHF 1 and 2.
b) VHF 2 and 3.
c) VHF 1 and 3.
d) All radios.
CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE….

3|Page
21. How can you get the mechanics attention when he is outside the aircraft?
a) Use the MECH pushbutton on the CALLS panel which sounds an external horn.
b) Hold the PA button
c) Select the MECH transmission key on the ACP and hold the pushbutton for 2 seconds
d) Select the MECH transmission key on the ACP

22. The audio management system allows the flight crew to use:
a) All the radio communication and radio navigation facilities installed on the aircraft in
transmission and reception mode.
b) The interphone system.
c) The call systems and Passenger Address (PA) system.
d) All of the above.

23. For the ACP, which is true?

a) The PA TRANSMISSION key operates like other transmission keys.
b) The ON VOICE key enables audio to be heard on the loudspeakers.
c) The RESET key transfers associated ACP (1 or 2) operation to ACP3
d) The RESET key cancels all CALL lights.

Indicating and Recording

24. The DFDR automatically starts recording:

a) On the ground when both engines are operating
b) In-flight only with one engine operating
c) On the ground, during the first 5 minutes after the electrical network is energized
d) All of the above

25. The DFDR records which of the following parameters:

a) Inputs from SDACs, DMCs and FWCs
b) Inputs from FCDCs, BSCU and GND CTL pushbutton
c) DFDR Event button
d) All of the above

26. What does a pulsing green engine parameter indicate?

a) An ADVISORY, the parameter is about to reach the limit.
b) An ADVISORY, the parameter is out of the limits
c) A MEMO, the parameter has a faulty indication.
d) A level 3 failure requiring immediate crew action.

27. When should the EMER CANC push button be used?

a) At the completion of an ECAM procedure for an abnormal procedure.
b) Whenever a LEVEL 3 warning or LEVEL 2 caution occurs.
c) Whenever a repetitive visual or aural warning, or caution is received that the crew has
determined to be false.

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE…

4|Page
28. If the radar on the ND sweeps from the center outwards, what does it mean?
a) Weather radar picture is offset due to a fault.
b) Weather radar is being used to show EGPWS terrain.
c) Nav. Database is being used to show EGPWS terrain.
d) It is giving a TEST pattern.

Fire Protection

29. If there is an APU fire in flight the APU:

a) Will automatically shut down and the fire bottle will discharge
b) Must be shut down manually and the agent manually discharged.
c) Must be shut down manually but the fire bottle will discharge automatically.

30. The engine extinguishing agent switch is armed when:

a) The DISCH light is on.
b) The engine fire switch illuminates.
c) The engine fire switch is released out.

31. When the APU FIRE SWITCH is released out:

a) The Fire bottle is discharged.
b) The Fuel HP valve is closed.
c) The APU bleed and cross-bleed valves are closed.

32. If a break in both engine fire loops occurs within _____ seconds of each other a
_____ will occur.
A: 8 sec./ a FIRE warning:
B: 7 sec./ a FIRE DET FAULT message on ECAM
C: 10 sec./ a FIRE DET FAULT message on ECAM
D: 5 sec./ a FIRE warning

33. The avionics compartment has no fire extinguishing system installed.

a) True
b) False

Fuel

34. Fuel transfer from the outer compartment to the inner compartment of the wing
tanks occurs when the inner compartment quantity decreases to
a) 250 kilograms
b) 450 kilograms
c) 750 kilograms
d) 5000 kilograms

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE

5|Page
35. An amber line appears across the last two digits of the ECAM FOB indication when:
a) Fuel quantity is unreliable.
b) The center tank pumps are switched off.
c) The center tank pumps have failed.

36. Where are the transfer valves located?

a) at the refuelling point at the RH wing leading edge
b) in each outer cell
c) on the sealed rib of each wing tank (i.e. between each inner and outer cell)
d) in each inner cell

37. With all tanks full and the MODE selector in AUTO, which is correct?
a) The center tank pumps will stop when the slats are extended.
b) The center tank pumps will stop when the flaps are extended
c) All pumps will run continuously
d) The wing pumps will stop when the slats are extended.

38. What happens automatically when the aircraft is being refueled?

a) The transfer valves close
b) The Fuel Used (engine S.D.) goes to zero.
c) The Cross-feed valve opens
d) The booster pumps stop running

Lights

39. Which lights go off when the gear is retracted?

a) Turn Off and Wing
b) Nose and Turn Off
c) Nose and Logo
d) Logo and Land

40. If the STROBE switch is in AUTO, the strobes will operate ___________________.
a) when the main gear struts are compressed
b) when the main gear struts are extended

41. Which electrical bus provides the power to charge the Internal Batteries for the
Emergency Light System?
a) AC Bus 1
b) DC SHED ESS BUS

Electrical

42. The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC busses is:
a) External power, engine generators then APU
b) External power, APU, then engine generators
c) APU, external power then engine generators
d) Engine generators, external power then APU

6|Page
43. The RAT is connected directly (mechanically) to the Emergency Generator
a) True
b) False

44. Before an engine is started, it is normal for the amber FAULT light in the
respective Generator switch to be on.
a) True
b) False

45. What is the effect of selecting the GEN1 LINE to OFF? (select the correct two
answers)
a) Fuel pump operation is transferred to AC ESS BUS.
b) GEN 1 is fed directly onto the AC ESS BUS.
c) GEN 1 is de-energized.
d) GEN 1 is line contactor opens.

46. After both engines have been started, the APU voltage and frequency information
continue to display on the ECAM ELEC page until _________________.
a) Both Engine Generators are online
b) The APU is shut down

Ice and Rain Protection

47. Electrical heating is provided for the protection of:

A: Pitots and Angle Of Attack (AOA) probes
B: Pitots, static ports and TAT probes
C: Pitots, static ports, AOA probes, and TAT probes.
D: Pitots and static ports

48. Probe heat comes on automatically when:

A: The AC ESS bus is powered.
B: Electrical power is applied to the aircraft.
C: When at least one engine is running.

49. Pitot heating operates:

a) only when switched on by flight crew
b) on the ground above 80kts
c) at a low level on the ground and at normal power in flight
d) in flight only

50. What is the failsafe situation if Wing and Engine Anti-ice are lost?
a) Wing Anti-ice OFF, Engine anti-ice ON.
b) Wing Anti-ice ON, Engine anti-ice OFF.
c) Both ON.
d) Both OFF.

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE…

7|Page
51. Which parts of the aircraft are anti-iced?
a) Outboard wing L.E., stabilizer L.E., and engine nacelles.
b) Outboard wing L.E., and engine nacelles.
c) Outboard wing L.E., stabilizer L.E., fin L.E. and engine nacelles.
d) All of the wing L.E. and engine nacelles.

EIS / ECAM

52. Which computer processes red warnings?

a) SDAC
b) FWC
c) DMC
d) SEC

53. What is the primary role of the DMC`s?

a) Compute and elaborate displays
b) Generate audio warnings
c) Generate amber warnings
d) Generate synthetic voice messages

54. On the PFD heading scale, what does the green diamond represent?
a) Ground Roll guidance command bar
b) The ILS course
c) Aircraft present heading
d) The actual track of the aircraft

55. What information is given at top right of the NAV Display in ARC mode?
a) Raw Data from a tuned VOR
b) Computed data concerning the TO Waypoint.
c) Flight plan TRACK to the TO Waypoint.
d) Track and Groundspeed.

56. Regarding the PFD, which of the following statements is true?

a) The bottom left corner of the PFD displays the MACH NO. at all times.
b) On the IAS, a split magenta triangle indicates a managed climb.
c) Selected heading can be displayed as a triangle or digits.
d) An excess rate of descent will cause the IVSI to go RED.

Landing Gear

57. The braking modes are:

a) Green with anti-skid, Yellow without anti-skid, Parking brake.
b) Green or Yellow with anti-skid, Yellow without anti-skid, parking brake
c) Green with or without anti-skid, Blue without anti-skid

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE…

8|Page
58. If the brake system automatically transitions to alternate brakes with the A/SKID &
N/W STRG switch in the ON position, which of the following will be available?
a) Auto brakes and anti-skid.
b) Only auto brakes.
c) Brakes, auto brakes, anti-skid.
d) Anti-skid.

59. If the landing gear was gravity extended using the hand crank on the center
pedestal, landing gear position must be verified through
a) The landing gear viewers.
b) The landing gear indications depicted on the ECAM and, if available, the center panel
LDG GEAR indicator panel lights.
c) Both are correct.

60. The Anti-Skid and NWS is set to off:

a) NWS only is deactivated
b) Anti-skid and NWS are deactivated
c) Anti-skid only is deactivated
d) Anti-skid provides a fixed aircraft deceleration

61. What does a red UNLK light indicate on the Landing Gear indicator panel?
a) LGCIU 1 and 2 failure
b) Associated door is not locked/closed
c) Associated gear leg is in transit
d) Associated gear leg is not locked in selected position

Oxygen

62. What is indicated by a missing green thermal plug during an exterior prefight?
a) An oxygen system overpressure or thermal discharge.
b) This is normal indication; the green thermal plug only appears if the oxygen cylinder is
low.
c) The crew oxygen bottle is empty.
d) An external fire discharge has been activated.

63. At approximately what cabin altitude should the passenger oxygen masks drop?
a) 10,000 feet (+100, - 500 ft)
b) 12,500 feet (+ or - 500 ft)
c) 14,000 feet (+0, - 500 ft)
d) 15,000 feet.

64. What is the duration of the Passenger Oxygen supply?

a) Between 15 and 20 minutes, depending on cabin altitude.
b) 20 minutes.
c) 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat.
d) 15 minutes after oxygen compartment door activation.

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE…

9|Page
APU

65. The Electronic Control Box (ECB) is primarily a full authority digital electronic
controller that performs the APU system logic for all modes of APU operation such as:
a) Sequence and monitoring of start.
b) Speed and temperature monitoring.
c) Monitoring of bleed air and shut down.
d) All the above.

66. The APU has an integral independent lubrication system for lubrication and cooling.
a) True
b) False

67. When the APU MASTER SW is selected ON:

a) The APU computer automatically completes a self-test, opens the air intake flap and
supplies fuel pressure.
b) The APU computer automatically starts the APU.
c) Connects the APU generator to the aircraft electrical system.
d) The APU door opens.

68. The APU may be started up to what altitude?

a) The APU can be started at any altitude using normal aircraft electrical power.
b) The APU can be started up to 35,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries.
c) The APU can be started up to 30,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries.
d) The APU can be started up to 25,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries.

69. The APU has been switched off, but it has not stopped . Why is this?
a) The APU Fuel Pump continuing to run.
b) The Air Intake Flap failing to close.
c) A cooling period, which occurs on all APU shutdowns.
d) A cooling period (following use of APU Bleed).

Engines

70. Continuous ignition is automatically provided during the following:

a) Flex or TO/GA thrust is selected on the ground.
b) ENG ANTI ICE switch is ON
c) Engine surge on stall occurs in flight.
d) Any of the above.

71. If a throttle is set between two detents; the FADEC selects the rating limit:
a) Determined by the throttle position.
b) Corresponding to the higher mode.
c) Corresponding to the lower mode.

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE

10 | P a g e
72. During a manual start, what does the MAN START pushbutton do?
a) It controls the FUEL VALVE
b) It controls the START VALVE and the FUEL VALVES
c) It opens the start valve and must be selected OFF to close the start valve.
d) It opens the start valve: the start valve will close automatically

73. Which is true of the FADEC system?

a) It is continuously powered from when the aircraft receives A.C. power.
b) It is a dual channel unit that is self-powered with the engine running.
c) It is not available until the engine MODE SEL is set to IGN/START.
d) It is self-powered above 5% N1

74. Regarding an Auto Start, which of the following is a correct statement?

a) Loss of the N2 grey background signifies start valve closure
b) Engine No.2 normally uses igniter B
c) Loss of the N2 grey background signifies end of the start sequence.
d) Putting the MODE SEL to START closes the bleed valve

Doors

75. How is it determined that the cockpit sliding window is closed and locked?
A: The pin is engaged.
B: The red ring below the release button should not be in view.
C: The locking pin was placed in the forward position when the window was closed.
D: The red ring below the release button should be in view.

76. Opening a passenger door from the outside disarms the door and the escape slide.
a) True
b) False

77. What does illumination of the red cabin pressure light represent on the main cabin
door?
a) This indicates that the evacuation slide is armed.
b) This indicates that the aircraft cabin is still pressurized and the cabin door should not be
opened.
c) Both are correct

78. The cargo doors are powered by:

a) The blue electric pump.
b) The yellow hydraulic system before engine start and the green hydraulic system after
engine start.
c) The yellow hydraulic system.
d) The blue hydraulic system before engine start and the green hydraulic system after
engine start.

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE…

11 | P a g e
79. On the ECAM DOOR/OXY page, the SLIDE indication appears _____ when the slide
is not disarmed.
a) White
b) Amber
c) Green
d) Red

Navigation

80. One A/P can be engaged on the ground if the engines are not running.
a) This A/P will disengage when both engines are started.
b) This A/P will disengage when one engine is started.
c) This A/P will disengage when speed is sensed at > 10 kts.

81. When the thrust levers are moved to the takeoff position, the FMGS updates its
position at takeoff using:
a) IRS/DME/DME positioning.
b) IRS/ILS/DME positioning.
c) The navigation database and the takeoff runway entered into the MCDU by the pilot.
d) The VOR/DME currently tuned.

82. How does the FMGS derive Vapp?

a) Vapp=Vls+5+(1/3 surface headwind component).
b) Vapp=Vls+10+1/3 surface headwind component.
c) Vapp=Vls+5+1/2 surface headwind component.
d) Vapp=Vls+10+1/2 surface headwind component.

83. When and how is a rapid alignment carried out?

a) On all transit stops, if the accuracy is LOW, by recycling IR selectors.
b) If residual groundspeed > 5 kts, by setting the Rotary Selectors OFF and to NAV within 5
seconds
c) If residual groundspeed < 5 kts, by setting the Rotary Selectors OFF and to NAV after
more than 5 seconds
d) On all transit stops, by recycling the NAV and ADR switches OFF / ON

Hydraulics

84. What happens if, in flight, with the hydraulic Blue System inoperative (fluid loss),
the MAN ON switch (on the EMER ELEC PWR panel) is pressed?
a) The Emergency Generator will be driven by the Blue Hydraulic System.
b) The Emergency Generator will be driven directly by the RAT.
c) The RAT will not deploy.
d) The RAT will extend, but the Emergency Generator will not operate.

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE…

12 | P a g e
85. The power transfer unit is
a) one way between green and yellow
b) reversible between green and yellow
c) reversible between blue and yellow
d) reversible between all three systems

86. Which hydraulic system have fluid shutoff valves and why?
a) G and Y (operated by the engine fire switches) to isolate fluid from fire
b) G and Y (operated by switches on the OHP) in case of PTU failures
c) All systems; to isolate the systems in event of fluid loss.
d) All systems; for use by maintenance.

87. With the BLUE switch at AUTO, when will the pump operate?
a) After the first engine has been started.
b) After the both engines have been started.
c) For 5 minutes after electrical power-up.
d) After engine No. 1 has been started.

Auto flight

88. How long does a normal IR alignment take?

A: Approximately 3 minutes.
B: Approximately 2 minutes.
C: Approximately 10 minutes.
D: Approximately 13 minutes.

89. What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost:

a) Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.
b) Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.
c) Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3.
d) Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1.

90. If both pilots push and hold the take-over pushbuttons on the sidesticks, which of
the following statements is true?
a) The last pilot to press a button has priority.
b) They cancel each other out, and the aircraft flies normally.
c) Sidestick priority is locked out until the end of the flight.
d) After 40 seconds, the first person to press a button loses use of sidestick.

91. If (autopilot / autothrust off) a bank angle of 45° is exceeded; what happens?
a) The Flight Director (only) is no longer displayed
b) The FMA lateral and vertical modes (only) are no longer displayed.
c) The Flight Director and its associated FMAs are partially displayed.
d) The Flight Director and its associated FMAs are no longer displayed.

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE…

13 | P a g e
92. If both FMGC's fail, how is VOR 2 tuned?
a) Using ACP 2.
b) It cannot be tuned.
c) Using RMP2 only.
d) Using RMP1 or RMP2

Pneumatics

93. High-pressure air is supplied from:

a) Engine 1 and 2 bleed systems, APU load compressor, and HP ground connection
b) Engine 1 and 2 bleed systems and APU load compressor
c) Engine 1 and 2 bleed systems
d) Engine 1 and 2 bleed systems and the Ram Air Turbine

94. If GROUND H.P. AIR is connected, which of the following is true?

a) Do not use the PACKS.
b) Do not mix with ENG. BLEED AIR.
c) Do not use the PACKS or mix it with ENG. BLEED AIR.
d) The GD. H.P. AIR can be used without restrictions.

Limitations

95. What is the minimum fuel for take-off?

a) 2000 kg
b) 1800 kg
c) 1500 kg
d) 1500 kg and WG TANK LO LVL not displayed

96. What is the maximum cabin pressure differential?

a) Positive 8.4 psi., Negative 1.0 psi.
b) Positive 8.6 psi., Negative 1.2 psi
c) Positive 8.5 psi., Negative 0.4 psi.
d) Positive 8.6 psi., Negative 1.0 psi.

97. What is the maximum speed for the use of windscreen wipers?
a) Green Dot.
b) 230 kts
c) 240 kts
d) 250 kts

98. What is the maximum wind speed for door operation?

a) 70 kts
b) 65 kts
c) 55 kts(gusting 60 kts)
d) 52 kts

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE…

14 | P a g e
99. What is the limiting speed for selecting the gear down?
a) 220 kts
b) 250 kts
c) 260 kts
d) Green Dot

100. What is the minimum speed for use of full reverse thrust?
a) 50 kts
b) 60 kts
c) 70 kts
d) 75 kts

15 | P a g e