ATA 70-80 (IAE V2500-A5 POWERPLANT)

1 How is flexible takeoff power selected?:

(a) Enter an assumed temperature through the MCDU and move throttle levers to TO/GA position.

(b) Enter an assumed temperature through the MCDU and move throttle levers to FLEX/MCT position.

(c) Move the throttle levers to FLEX/MCT position.

2 On the Engine Warning Display (upper ECAM), a white circle on the EPR scale indicates:

(a) EPR actual.

(b) EPR throttle.

(c) EPR limit.

3 Red over-temperature and over-speed indications of on the EWD are reset:

(a) manually through MCDU.

(b) automatically at the next engine start.

(c) Both (a) and (b) are true.

4 The V2500-A5 engine has a

(a) four stage LP turbine.

(b) single stage Fan and a three stage booster.

(c) two stage HP turbine.

5 Which of the following best describes the construction of a V2500 combustion chamber?:

(a) One-piece annular combustion chamber.

(b) Two-piece can-annular combustion chamber with segment liners.

(c) Two-piece annular combustion chamber with segment of liners.

6 EPR on V2500 engine is a ratio of:

(a) P3/P2

(b) P4.5/P2

(c) P4.9/P2

7 Which of the following bearings are thrust bearings?:

(a) 1B on LP rotor and 3B on HP rotor

(b) 1B on LP rotor and 4R on HP rotor

(c) 2R on LP rotor and 3B on HP rotor

8 Zone 2 ventillation is provided by:

(a) exhaust air from Active Clearance Control (ACC) system around the turbine area.

(b) ram air entering through an inlet located on the upper LH side of the air intake cowl.

(c) fan discharge air.

9 To facilitate HP Compressor borescope inspections, an HP shaft rotation tool is fitted by removal of an access cover:

(a) on the engine de-oiler.

(b) in the forward face of the external gearbox.

(c) in the rear face of the external gearbox.

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10 Where is the access panel for engine oil servicing located?:

(a) Fan cowl door left hand side.

(b) Thrust reverser C duct right hand side

(c) Fan cowl door right hand side

11 How is the –A5 LP compressor stages numbered?:

(a) 1, 2, 3

(b) 1, 1.5, 2, 2.3, 2.5

(c) 1, 1.5, 2, 2.5

12 Where is the fan blade data recorded?:

(a) On the fan module data plate

(b) On the base of the fan blade.

(c) On the fan blade retaining plate.

13 In the event of single input loss to an EEC channel, the EEC will:

(a) switch over to the opposite channel.

(b) go to a fail safe condition for that input.

(c) use valid information from the opposite channel.

14 The FADEC system includes the:

(a) Engine Electronic Controller (EEC) and the Engine Interface Unit (EIU).

(b) EEC and the peripheral sensors and components on the engine.

(c) EEC and the Flight Management Guidance System (FMGS).

15 When the aircraft is on the ground, the EEC will be automatically depowered:

(a) at aircraft power up.

(b) as soon as the engine is shutdown.

(c) 5 minutes after engine shutdown.

16 The dedicated generator will supply the EEC:

(a) when the N2 is above 10%.

(b) as soon as the engine reaches idle on start.

(c) only if the aircraft power supply to the EEC fails.

17 How is movement of the thrust lever sensed by the EEC?

(a) Electrical signals from a dual output resolver.

(b) A push pull cable input to the resolvers in the EEC.

(c) By dual thrust lever rod input to the mechanical box.

18 When is the autothrust system available?

(a) At all power settings.

(b) Between idle and climb detent (2 engine operation).

(c) Between forward idle and TOGA detent (1 engine operation).

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19 If the thrust lever is selected between two detent points, the thrust limit will be set by the:

(a) upper detent position.

(b) lower detent position.

(c) actual thrust lever position.

20 How many torque motors are installed in the FMU?

(a) Two plus one solenoid.

(b) Three.

(c) Four.

21 The sequence of fuel flow in the engine fuel system is:

(a) LP pump - HP pump - FCOC - FMU - fuel flow meter - spray nozzles.

(b) LP pump - FCOC - HP pump - FMU - fuel flow meter - spray nozzles.

(c) LP pump - fuel flow meter - FCOC - HP pump - FMU - spray nozzles.

22 FMU is mounted on the:

(a) front face of the accessary gear box.

(b) aft face of the accessary gear box.

(c) Fuel pump assembly.

23 The fuel filter differential pressure switch actuation indicates:

(a) partial clogging of the fuel filter.

(b) opening of the filter bypass valve.

(c) low fuel pressure.

24 How many scavenge pumps in the oil system?:

(a) Five

(b) Six

(c) Seven

25 Which filters in the oil system can have associated “ filter clog” messages on ECAM?

(a) Pressure and scavenge.

(b) Pressure only.

(c) Scavenge only.

26 The total number of magnetic chip detectors in the oil system are:

(a) 5

(b) 6

(c) 7

27 The engine oil temperature indicated in the ECAM is measured:

(a) at the entry to the HP filter.

(b) at the entry to the scavenge filter.

(c) in the oil tank.

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28 Oil system primary cooling is carried out by:

(a) Air Cooled Oil Cooler (ACOC).

(b) Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler (FCOC).

(c) IDG Oil Cooler.

29 The Engine Electronic Control (EEC) ensures adequate cooling of the engine oil by controlling the:

(a) fuel cooled oil cooler.

(b) IDG oil cooler.

(c) fuel diverter and return valve.

30 When the engine ia at low power, the no. 4 bearing scavenge valve is:

(a) at low flow position.

(b) at high flow position.

(c) at resitricted flow position.

31 The Master MCD is accessed from a dedicated panel on the:

(a) LH Fan cowl.

(b) RH Fan cowl.

(c) RH C-Duct.

32 How is the air-oil mixture inside the no. 4 bearing compartment scavenged?:

(a) Returns directly to oil tank via an anti-siphon tube.

(b) Relies upon air pressure bulidup inside the bearing compartment to force it out.

(c) Suction by its own scavenge pump.

33 The oil vent system includes the following components:

(a) A de-aerator in the oil tank, and a de-oiler on the external gearbox.

(b) A de-oiler in the oil tank, and a de-aerator in the external gearbox.

(c) A de-oiler and de-aerator in the gearbox.

34 The Air Cooled Oil Cooler (ACOC) Air Control valve is positioned by:

(a) a fuel servo operated actuator.

(b) a pneumatic servo control valve.

(c) solenoids.

35 Which compressor bleed valve is fully modulating?:

(a) Stage 10

(b) Stage 2.5

(c) Stage 7

34 The handling bleed valves fitted to HP compressor are operated by means of:

(a) Fuel pressure.

(b) Servo air – Burner pressure.

(c) Servo air - Stage 10 HPC.

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35 During engine start, all handling bleed valves would be at:

(a) full close position.

(b) full open position.

(c) intermediate position.

36 The Variable Stator Vane (VSV) system consists of VIGVs at the inlet to HP Compressor and:

(a) 3 stages of Variable Stator Vanes (VSVs).

(b) 4 stages of Variable Stator Vanes (VSVs).

(c) 5 stages of Variable Stator Vanes (VSVs).

37 Air is supplied to the Active Clearance Control system from:

(a) the LP Compressor stage 2.5.

(b) the Fan bypass air.

(c) the HP Compressor stage 7.

38 Engine is operating at idle. What is the position of HPT ACC and LPT ACC valves?:

(a) Both are fully closed.

(b) Both are fully open.

(c) HPT ACC starts to open and LPT ACC stays close.

39 The ‘buffer air’ for the No. 4 bearing compartment’s cooling and sealing is supplied from:

(a) 10th stage of HP compressor.

(b) 12th stage of HP compressor.

(c) fan discharge.

40 The N1 speed signal is sensed from:

(a) speed probes interacting with a phonic wheel in the front bearing compartment.

(b) a tachometer generator fitted to the accessory gearbox.

(c) speed probes located in the LP turbine.

41 Which engine parameters are displayed on the ECAM upper display?:

(a) EPR, N1 & N2

(b) EPR, N1, N2, oil pressure & oil temperature

(c) EPR, EGT, N1& N2.

42 Where are the thermocouples for the EGT system located?:

(a) in the support struts of turbine exhaust case.

(b) in the HP turbine case.

(c) in the LPT nozzle guide vanes.

43 The EEC is capable of aborting engine start during:

(a) automatic and manual start.

(b) automatic start only.

(c) manual start only.

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44 Continuous ignition will be automatically selected when:

(a) wing anti ice has been selected to ON.

(b) ground idle is selected by the EIU.

(c) the EIU has failed.

45 Ignition system can be operationally tested on the ground:

(a) only with engine is running.

(b) with engine shutdown through CFDS.

(c) with engine shutdown and selection of MODE SELECT sw. to IGN.

46 During engine start (either manual or automatic), the chosen ignition system is displayed at ECAM:

(a) BLEED page only.

(b) ENGINE page only.

(c) both BLEED and ENGINE pages.

47 With the engine is running and IGN START is reselected,:

(a) continuous ignition is initiated with one igniter.

(b) continuous ignition is initiated with both igniters.

(c) changeover automatically between the igniters will take place.

48 In case of an engine interface unit failure,:

(a) engine start on the ground is not possible.

(b) the FADEC reverts to the N1 control mode.

(c) the engine runs at minimum fuel flow because of Engine Electronic Controller input loss.

49 To initiate a dry cranking sequence, the correct selection of the following components should be:

(a) Mode selector to IGN START and MAN START pushbutton selected ON.

(b) Mode selector to CRANK and MAN START pushbutton selected ON.

(c) Mode selector to CRANK, master switch ON, and MAN START pushbutton selected ON.

50 What maintains the Thrust Reverser in stow position for normal forward flight?:

(a) Hydraulic pressure to the stow side of the actuator.

(b) Mechanical locks on the piston of the lower actuators.

(c) Lockout pins inserted into the translating cowls.

51 During reverser deployment, which side of the linear motion actuator(s) is pressurized?:

(a) Deploy side only.

(b) Stow side only.

(c) Both Deploy and Stow sides.

52 The thrust reverser movement is sensed by:

(a) the LVDTs on the upper actuators.

(b) the hydraulic pressure switch.

(c) proximity sensors.

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 53 The thrust reverser inhibition relay is energized by:

(a) the Engine Electronic Controller.

(b) the Engine Interface Unit.

(c) a throttle resolver deploy signal.

54 Each thrust reverser translating cowl has

(a) 2 actuators; a lower locking actuator and an upper non-locking actuator.

(b) 2 actuators; a lower non-ocking actuator and an upper locking actuator.

(c) 2 actuators; both are locking actuators.

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