Score

Practice Questions 1
1. A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a patient with venous insufficiency. A recent entry in the
medical record indicates that the physician ordered diagnostic testing in an attempt to rule out deep venous
thrombosis. Which diagnostic test would be most beneficial to accomplish the physician’s objective?
1. Doppler ultrasonography
2. hematocrit
3. partial thromboplastin time
4. pulmonary function tests
2. A physical therapist reviews the results of a complete blood count taken on a 65-year-old male recently admitted to
the hospital. Which of the following lab values may be considered a precaution for therapeutic exercise?
1. white blood cell count: 5,500 x 103 mm3
2. hematocrit: 46 ml/dL
3. hemoglobin: 8 gm/dL
4. platelet count: 250,000 mm3
3. A patient diagnosed with low back pain is referred to physical therapy. During the examination the physical
therapist asks if the patient had any formal diagnostic screening. The patient states that she had an x-ray and a test
where dye was injected into the spinal canal. This description most closely resembles:
1. arthrography
2. Myelography
3. computed tomography
4. magnetic resonance imaging
4. A physical therapist obtains the past medical history of a patient recently referred to physical therapy after being
diagnosed with adhesive capsulitis. Which medical condition is associated with an increased incidence of adhesive
capsulitis?
1. diabetes mellitus
2. hemophilia
3. peripheral vascular disease
4. osteomalacia
5. A physical therapist working on an oncology unit reviews the medical chart of a patient prior to initiating an
exercise program. The patient’s cell counts are as follows: hematocrit 24 ml/dL, white blood cells 2,500 x 10 3
mm3, platelet 80,000 mm3, hemoglobin 7 gm/dL. Based on the patient’s blood counts, which of the following
would be the most accurate statement regarding the patient’s allowable exercise level?
1. no exercise is allowed
2. light exercise is allowed
3. active exercise is allowed
4. resistive exercise is allowed
6. A physical therapist receives a referral for a 48-year-old female diagnosed with lung cancer. The patient reports
smoking three packs of cigarettes a day for the last 25 years. Assuming the patient was diagnosed with cancer two
years ago, which of the following pieces of data would provide the therapist with the most valuable information
when establishing the plan of care and the associated goals?
1. premorbid lifestyle
2. staging of cancer
3. past medical history
4. motivation level
7. A physical therapist employed in an outpatient clinic discusses the daily treatment program with a patient three
weeks status post medial meniscectomy. During the discussion the patient indicates that she is able to exercise,
however, did experience a low-grade temperature three days ago. Assuming the therapist measures and records the
patient’s temperature as 98.90F, the most appropriate therapist action would be to:
1. continue with treatment as planned
2. continue with treatment, however, avoid active exercise
3. refer the patient to her primary care physician
4. contact the patient’s surgeon to discuss the situation
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2 Practice Questions
8. A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a 46-year-old female diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. A
recent physician entry indicates that the patient is currently taking immunosuppressive medication. Which
laboratory test should be the most frequently monitored based on the patient’s medication?
1. hematocrit
2. hemoglobin
3. platelet count
4. while blood cell count
9. A physical therapist examines a 27-year-old female with lower leg pain. The patient was referred to physical
therapy after diagnostic imaging rules out the possibility of a stress fracture. Which imaging technique would be
the most appropriate when attempting to identify a stress fracture?
1. arthrography
2. bone densitometry
3. bone scan
4. x-rayhttps://www.medicinenet.com/script/main/hp.asp
10. A physical therapist examines a patient with an acute grade II lateral ankle sprain. The most common mechanism
for an anterior talofibular ligament sprain is
1. inversion and dorsiflexion
2. inversion and plantarflexion
3. inversion
4. eversion and dorsiflexion
11. A physical therapist reviews a laboratory report for a patient recently admitted to the hospital. The patient
sustained burns over 25 percent of her body in a fire. Assuming the patient exhibits hypovolemia, which of the
following laboratory values would be the most significantly affected?
1. hematocrit
2. hemoglobin
3. oxygen saturation rate
4. prothrombin time
12. A physical therapist participates in a community based screening program designed to identify individuals with
osteoporosis. Which group would have the highest risk for developing osteoporosis?
1. white females over the age of 60
2. black females over the age of 60
3. white females over the age of 40
4. black females over the age of 40
13. A 46-year-old male with high blood pressure is placed on diuretics in an attempt to lower his blood pressure. What
is the most serious complication of diuretic therapy?
1. hypernatremia
2. hypokalemia
3. hypercalcemia
4. hypocythemia
14. A physical therapist employed in an outpatient orthopedic clinic works with an 18-year-old female diagnosed with
iliotibial band syndrome. After treating the patient for several weeks, the therapist suspects that the patient is
bulimic. The most appropriate therapist action is to:
1. discuss the situation with the patient
2. request an immediate meeting with the patient’s family
3. schedule the patient for a dietary consultation
4. continue to monitor the patient’s behavior during scheduled therapy sessions
15. A patient with coronary artery disease is placed on medication in order to control severe hypertension. Which
antihypertensive drug category functions by decreasing myocardial force and rate of contraction?
1. diuretics
2. vasodilators
3. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
4. calcium channel blockers
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16. A patient employed in a machine shop is referred to physical therapy with a diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome.
The patient indicates that he is scheduled for a diagnostic test that may help to confirm the diagnosis. Which of the
following electrodiagnostic tests would be the most appropriate?
1. electroencephalography
2. evoked potentials
3. nerve conduction velocity
4. electromyography
17. A patient complains of sharp pain in the abdomen that has been present for at least eight hours. Physical
examination reveals tenderness in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. Which structure is located within this
region?
1. appendix
2. gallbladder
3. liver
4. spleen
18. A physical therapist interviews a 21-year-old football player referred to physical therapy after sustaining a grade II
acromioclavicular sprain. Which of the following patient descriptions best describes the injury mechanism
associated with an acromioclavicular sprain?
1. “I was being tackled and landed directly on my shoulder.”
2. “I fell with my arm extended and another player fell on top of me.”
3. “My arm was hit with a helmet while I was throwing the ball.”
4. “My arm was stepped on while I was lying on the ground.”
19. A patient diagnosed with an anterior cruciate ligament injury is examined in physical therapy. During the
examination, the patient asks the physical therapist why the physician would order x-rays after already diagnosing
the ligament injury. The primary purpose for ordering the radiographs would be to:
1. confirm the physician’s diagnosis
2. check for possible meniscal involvement
3. examine the patient’s skeletal maturity
4. rule out the possibility of a fracture.
20. A self-referred patient is examined in physical therapy. The physical therapist asks the patient a variety of
questions in an attempt to rule out systemic involvement. Which of the following questions would provide the
most direct information on the presence of a brain tumor?
1. Have you had any unusual headaches or changes in your vision?
2. Can you think of any time during the next week when you may have fallen or been injured?
3. Have you had any sudden weight loss in the last three weeks without dieting?
4. Have you noticed any change in your bowel movements or flow of urination?
21. A physical therapist attempts to place a patient’s hip in the resting position prior to assessing joint play. Which
position would be most consistent with the therapist’s objective?
1. 100 flexion, 150 abduction, slight medial rotation
2. 300 flexion, 300 abduction, slight lateral rotation
3. 300 flexion, 300 adduction, 200 lateral rotation
4. 100 extension, 200 adduction, 200 medial rotation
22. A physical therapist completes a manual muscle test on a patient that sustained a laceration in the anterior surface
of the forearm. When performing a test on the flexor pollicis brevis, the therapist should direct the force:
1. along the volar aspect of the proximal phalanx of the thumb
2. along the volar aspect of the distal phalanx of the thumb
3. along the dorsal aspect of the proximal phalanx of the thumb
4. along the dorsal aspect of the distal phalanx of the thumb
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23. A physical therapist examines a patient referred to physical therapy with sacroiliac pain. As part of the
examination, the therapist assesses the position of the sacrum by palpating the inferior lateral angles. Which spinal
level is most consistent with the inferior lateral angles?
1. S1
2. S3
3. S4
4. S5
24. A physical therapist performs a manual muscle test on a patient with bilateral upper extremity weakness. The
therapist should test the patient’s scapular adductors with the patient positioned in:
1. prone
2. sidelying
3. standing
4. supine
25. A physical therapist completes an upper extremity goniometric examination. The therapist records right elbow
range of motion as 15-0-150 degrees. The total available range of motion for this patient is:
1. 135 degrees
2. 150 degrees
3. 165 degrees
4. 180 degrees
26. A physical therapist classifies a patient’s end-feel as soft after completing a specific passive movement. Which of
the following joint motions would typically produce a soft end-feel?
1. hip flexion with the knee extended
2. knee flexion
3. elbow extension
4. forearm supination
27. A physical therapist completes a series of special tests designed to examine the ligamentous integrity of a patient’s
knee. After completing the tests, the therapist is unsure if the laxity is normal or if it is indicative of a ligamentous
injury. The most appropriate step to gather more information is to:
1. attempt to quantify the millimeters of laxity and compare the values with established norms
2. contact the physician and suggest a referral for magnetic resonance imaging
3. directly compare the laxity in the involved knee to the laxity in the uninvolved knee
4. attempt to identify other special tests that can offer more information on the ligamentous integrity of the knee
28. A physical therapist records grip strength measurements on a patient diagnosed with bilateral carpal tunnel
syndrome. Which description does not accurately describe typical results when using a handheld dynamometer?
1. a bell curve is seen when charting multiple recordings from adjustable hand spacings in consecutive order
2. 20 to 25 percent differences in grip strength may be observed between the dominant and non-dominant hand
3. discrepancies of more than 25 percent is a test-retest situation may indicate the patient is not exerting maximal
force.
4. an individual who does not exert maximal force for each test will not show the typical bell curve
29. A physical therapist examines the motor component of the trigeminal nerve by observing a patient open and close
his mouth repeatedly. Which clinical finding would be most indicative of weakness of the right pterygoid muscles?
1. right deviation of the jaw during opening of the mouth
2. left deviation of the jaw during opening of the mouth
3. difficulty depressing the mandible during opening of the mouth
4. audible crepitation during opening of the mouth
30. A physical therapist assesses kinesthesia in a 61-year-old male patient with Parkinson’s disease. Which of the
following patient responses would be the most appropriate during the testing?
1. my arm is moving up toward the ceiling
2. my arm is parallel with the floor
3. my arm just started moving
4. my arm is in approximately the same position as my other arm
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31. A physical therapist performs a test to measure the strength of a patient’s lower abdominal muscles. The most
appropriate technique to examine the strength of the abdominals is
1. partial sit-up
2. full sit-up with rotation
3. single leg lowering test
4. double leg lowering test
32. A physical therapist performs a manual muscle test of the peroneus tertius on a patient diagnosed with anterior
compartment syndrome. When providing resistance to the peroneus tertius, the physical therapist should direct
pressure towards
1. dorsiflexion and eversion
2. dorsiflexion and inversion
3. plantarflexion and eversion
4. plantarflexion and inversion
33. A patient diagnosed with right bicipital tendinitis performs upper extremity resistance exercises using a piece of
elastic tubing. What muscle is emphasized when laterally rotating the involved extremity against resistance?
1. teres minor
2. pectoralis major
3. teres major
4. subscapularis
34. A physical therapist examines a patient diagnosed with a C5 disc herniation. During the examination the therapist
identifies a diminished deep tendon reflex response. The most likely reflexes affected would be the
1. biceps and brachioradialis reflex
2. biceps and triceps reflex
3. brachioradialis and supinator reflex
4. triceps and brachioradialis reflex
35. A physical therapist examines a 40-year-old female referred to physical therapy after spraining her ankle playing
volleyball. During the examination, the patient exhibits extreme tenderness to palpation over the sinus tarsi. What
ligament is most often associated with tenderness in this case?
1. anterior talofibular
2. calcaneofibular
3. deltoid
4. posterior talofibular
36. A physical therapist completes a sensory examination on a patient with incomplete T7-T8 paraplegia. The therapist
examines the patient’s sensation using a piece of cotton. The therapist applies the cotton in a random fashion and
the patient is asked to indicate when she feels the stimulus. This method of sensory testing is used to examine
1. kinesthesia
2. light touch
3. proprioception
4. superficial pain
37. A physical therapist determines that a patient has a one half-inch leg length discrepancy. The therapist suspects the
patient’s leg length discrepancy may be due to tibial shortening. The most appropriate measurement to confirm the
therapist’s suspicion is from the
1. anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleolus
2. iliac crest to the lateral malleolus
3. medial knee joint line to the medial malleolus
4. lateral knee joint line to the medial malleolus
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38. A physical therapist examines a patient with limited cervical range of motion. As part of the examination, the
therapist attempts to screen the patient for possible vertebral artery involvement, but is unable to position the
patient’s head and neck in the recommended test position. The most appropriate action is to
1. complete the vertebral artery test with the head and neck positioned in approximately 50 percent of the
available cervical range of motion
2. complete the vertebral artery test as far into the available cervical range of motion as tolerated
3. avoid completing the vertebral artery test until the patient has full cervical range of motion
4. avoid all direct cervical treatment techniques until the vertebral artery test can be assessed at the limits of
normal cervical range of motion
39. A physical therapist positions a patient in prone on a plinth and passively flexes her knee. As the knee flexes, the
patient’s hip on the same side also begins to flex. This clinical finding is most indicative of a
1. tight iliopsoas
2. tight rectus femoris
3. tight tensor fasciae latae
4. tight hamstrings
40. A physical therapist assesses a patient’s lower extremity deep tendon reflexes using a reflex hammer. Which of the
following reflexes would provide the therapist with the most information on the L3-L4 neurologic level?
1. patellar reflex
2. lateral hamstrings reflex
3. posterior tibial reflex
4. Achilles reflex
41. A physical therapist monitors a patient’s blood pressure using the brachial artery. What effect would you expect to
see on the measured blood pressure value if the therapist selects a blood pressure cuff that is too narrow in relation
to the circumference of the patient’s arm?
1. systolic values will be higher and diastolic values will be lower
2. systolic values will be lower and diastolic values will be higher
3. systolic and diastolic values will be higher
4. systolic and diastolic values will be lower
42. A physical therapist assesses a one-month-old infant. During the treatment session the therapist strokes the cheek
of the infant causing the infant to turn its mouth towards the stimulus. This action is utilized to assess the
1. Moro reflex
2. rooting reflex
3. startle reflex
4. righting reflex
43. A patient with cardiac disease rates the intensity of exercise as a 12 using Borg’s Original Rate of Perceived
Exertion Scale. What percentage of the patient’s age-adjusted maximum heart rate best corresponds to a rating of
12 on the exertion scale?
1. 50
2. 60
3. 75
4. 85
44. A physical therapist completes a gait analysis on a patient diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. As part of the
examination the therapist measures the distance between right heel strike and the next consecutive left hell strike.
This measurement is used to measure
1. left stride length
2. right stride length
3. left step length
4. right step length
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45. A physical therapist attempts to assess the dorsal pedal pulse of a patient diagnosed with peripheral vascular
disease. To locate the dorsal pedal pulse the therapist should palpate
1. between the extensor hallucis longus and the extensor digitorum longus tendons on the dorsum of the foot
2. between the flexor digitorum longus and the flexor hallucis longus tendons on the dorsum of the foot
3. immediately posterior to the medial malleolus
4. immediately posterior to the lateral malleolus
46. A patient with an irregular heart rate is monitored using a single lead electrocardiogram during exercise. Which of
the following techniques would provide the physical therapist with the most accurate measurement of heart rate?
1. count the number of QRS complexes that occur in sixty seconds
2. count the number of R waves that occur in thirty seconds and multiply by two
3. count the number of P waves that occur in fifteen seconds and multiply by four
4. count the number of T waves that occur in six seconds and multiply by ten
47. A physical therapist examines a patient diagnosed with an acute posterior cruciate sprain. The most common
mechanism of injury for the posterior cruciate is
1. a forceful landing on the anterior tibia with the knee hyperflexed
2. an anteriorly directed force applied to the tibia when the foot is fixed
3. a valgus force applied to the knee when the foot is fixed
4. hyperextension and medial rotation of the leg with lateral rotation of the body
48. A 56-year-old female diagnosed with emphysema is referred to physical therapy. As part of the examination the
physical therapist assesses tactile fremitus by asking the patient to repeat the term ”ninety-nine” several times in
succession. The most appropriate method when assessing tactile fremitus is
1. examine voice sounds through auscultation
2. examine vibration using the ulnar border of the hand
3. examine chest excursion with tape measure
4. examine the intensity and clarity of spoken words using a recording device
49. A physical therapist examines the viscosity and color of a sputum sample after completing postural drainage
activities. The sputum is yellowish-greenish color and is very thick. The therapist can best describe the sputum as
1. fetid
2. frothy
3. mucoid
4. purulent
50. A physical therapist enters the room of a patient in an acute care hospital and observes that the patient is having a
formal diagnostic test. The patient was admitted to the hospital three days ago after being diagnosed with
peripheral arterial disease. Based on the supplied picture, the diagnostic testing was most likely being administered
to determine the patient’s
1. rate of arterial perfusion
3. prothrombin time
4. maximum oxygen consumption
51. A physical therapist works with a patient status post stroke on a mat program. The therapist assists the patient in
lateral weight shifting activities while positioned in prone on elbows. Which therapeutic exercise technique would
allow the patient to improve dynamic stability with this activity?
1. alternating isometrics
2. approximation
3. rhythmic initiation
4. timing for emphasis
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Formatted: Bullets and Numbering
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52. A physical therapist performs a capillary refill test on a patient diagnosed with bronchitis by applying direct
pressure to the nailbeds of the fingers. Which finding would be most indicative of a normal response after releasing
the direct pressure?
1. blanching should appear in less than two seconds
2. blanching should appear in less than four seconds
3. blanching should resolve in less than two seconds
4. blanching should resolve in less than four seconds
53. A physical therapist presents a community inservice on risk factors associated with coronary artery disease. Which
of the following individuals would be at greatest risk?
1. a 45-year-old male with a cholesterol level of 260 mg/dL.
2. a 39-year-old female with a cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL and a family history of cardiac disease
3. a 42-year-old male with a cholesterol level of 200 mg/dL and hypertension
4. a 47-year-old female with a cholesterol level of 170 mg/dL, moderate hypotension, and a family history of
cardiac disease
54. A physical therapist performs auscultation on a patient with known cardiac pathology. When attempting to assess
the pulmonic valve the therapist should position the stethoscope
1. in the second right intercostal space at the right sternal margin
2. in the second left intercostal space at the left sternal margin
3. in the fifth left intercostal space in line with the middle of the clavicle
4. in the fourth left intercostal space along the lower left sternal border
55. A patient with known cardiac involvement performs upper extremity active range of motion exercises on a tilt
table. The patient’s medical record indicates he is currently taking beta-blockers. Which of the following is the
most appropriate subjective measure to monitor the patient’s response to exercise?
1. heart rate
2. respiration rate
3. blood pressure
4. perceived exertion
56. A physical therapist assesses a patient’s voice sounds as part of a respiratory examination. The therapist positions
the stethoscope over the thorax and asks the patient to say “ninety-nine”. Which type of voice sound is assessed
using this technique?
1. bronchophony
2. egophony
3. pectoriloquy
4. pneumophony
57. A physical therapist prepares to initiate an exercise program for a patient with diabetes mellitus. Which objective
measure would be the most appropriate to examine in order to avoid significant complications from exercise?
1. systolic blood pressure
2. respiratory rate
3. blood glucose values
58. A physical therapist observes the electrocardiogram of a patient during exercise. Which of the following ECG
changes would be considered abnormal during exercise?
1. increase in amplitude of P wave
2. shortening of PR interval
3. ST segment depression of greater than 1 mm
4. decrease in amplitude of T wave
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59. A physical therapist reviews the medial record of a patient recently diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease. A
note in the medical record indicates that the patient’s ankle-brachial index (ABI) was within normal limits. The
value most consistent with this measure is
1. .5
2. .7
3. 1.0
4. 1.3
60. A 32-year-old female is admitted to the hospital after sustaining extensive burns to her trunk and right upper
extremity. Which of the following burn classifications would most likely require the use of a graft?
1. superficial burn
2. superficial partial thickness burn
3. deep partial thickness burn
4. full thickness burn
61. A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a patient admitted to the hospital. A recent entry in the medical
record indicates the patient has a lesion affecting the facial motor nucleus. Based on the patient’s diagnosis, the
most probable clinical presentation is:
1. facial muscle weakness ipsilateral to the lesion
2. facial muscle weakness contralateral to the lesion
3. impaired facial sensation ipsilateral to the lesion
4. impaired facial sensation contralateral to the lesion
62. A physical therapist completes an examination on a 14-year-old male with a genetic disorder caused by a
chromosomal abnormality. The patient appears to be quite tall with a slender build and proportionately long arms.
He is alert and oriented, however, appears to possess below average intelligence. This type of clinical presentation
is most consistent with:
1. Down syndrome
2. Edward’s syndrome
3. Klinefelter’s syndrome
4. Turner’s syndrome
63. A physical therapist is growing increasingly concerned about a patient that is demonstrating symptoms that are
consistent with neoplastic activity. What is the most significant symptom of a rapidly growing neoplasm?
1. fatigue
2. swelling
3. tenderness to palpation
4. pain
64. A physical therapist employed in a rehabilitation hospital performs an examination on a 52-year-old male
diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Which of the following signs and symptoms is not consistent with
this disease?
1. mental deterioration
2. hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
3. weakness of the forearms and hands
4. impaired speech
65. A physical therapist examines a patient with T1 paraplegia. As the therapist and patient perform balance activities
in sitting, the patient begins to complain of a pounding headache. The patient exhibits profuse sweating above the
T1 lesion, and blotching of the skin. The therapist should immediately identify this as
1. orthostatic hypotension
2. autonomic dysreflexia
3. Lowe’s syndrome
4. homonymous hemianopsia
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66. A physical therapist reviews the results of a patient’s arterial blood gases. The report indicates the following: PaO2
= 45 mmHg, PaCO2 = 55 mmHg, HCO3 = 24 mEq/L, pH = 7.20. These values are most indicative of:
1. respiratory acidosis
2. respiratory alkalosis
3. metabolic acidosis
4. metabolic alkalosis
67. A physical therapist reviews the results of a pulmonary function test for a patient with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease. Which of the following results is typical with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
1. decreased functional residual capacity
2. increased vital capacity
3. increased residual volume
4. increased forced expiratory volume in one second
68. A physical therapist examines a 28-year-old male with burns covering 30 percent of his body. The patient
sustained the burns approximately 24 hours earlier in a house fire. The medical record indicates an unremarkable
medical history with the exception of a benign cardiac arrhythmia. Which of the following emergent conditions is
the patient most susceptible to?
1. aortic aneurysm
2. autonomic dysreflexia
3. diabetic coma
4. shock
69. A physical therapist administers a series of cranial nerve tests to a patient with a confirmed lower motor neuron
disease. Assuming the patient has a lesion impacting the left hypoglossal nerve, which clinical presentation would
be most likely?
1. right-sided tongue atrophy and deviation toward the left with tongue protrusion
2. right-sided tongue atrophy and deviation toward the right with tongue protrusion
3. left-sided tongue atrophy and deviation toward the left with tongue protrusion
4. left-sided tongue atrophy and deviation toward the right with tongue protrusion
70. A physical therapist examines a five-year-old child’s gait. The therapist notes that the child is unsteady and uses a
wide base of support. The child appears to lurch at times with minimal truncal bobbing in an anterior and posterior
direction. The child cannot maintain a standing position with the feet placed together for more than five seconds.
The area of the brain most likely affected is the
1. corticospinal tracts
2. basal ganglia
3. substantia nigra
4. cerebellum
71. A 28-year-old male diagnosed with a medial meniscus injury is referred to physical therapy following arthroscopic
surgery. During the examination the physical therapist identifies decreased range of motion in the involved knee.
This objective finding is best termed a/an:
1. pathology
2. impairment
3. functional limitation
4. disability
72. A physical therapist examines a patient with low back pain. Diagnostic imaging reveals the patient has a mild disk
protrusion at the L4-L5 level. Physical examination reveals a diminished lumbar curve and the presence of a lateral
shift. The most appropriate treatment intervention is
1. instruct the patient in active extension exercises
2. instruct the patient in passive extension exercises
3. attempt to correct the lateral shift
4. apply palliative modalities
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73. A 13-year-old boy is referred to physical therapy after being diagnosed with an injury to the proximal tibial
epiphysis. The boy was hit by a car and sustained a severe hyperextension force applied to the left knee. What is
the most serious complication of this injury?
1. lesion of the common peroneal nerve
2. tear of the posterior cruciate ligament
3. damage to the popliteal artery
4. patellar instability
74. A physical therapist examines the gait of a 62-year-old male with peripheral neuropathy. The therapist observes
that the patient’s right foot has a tendency to slap the ground during the loading response. The observation can best
be explained by weakness of the
1. iliopsoas
2. tibialis anterior
3. tibialis posterior
4. gastrocnemius
75. Documentation from an orthopedic surgeon’s report indicates that a patient sustained damage to several structures
that provide anterolateral stability to the knee. Which of the following structures would most likely be involved?
1. anterior cruciate ligament, posterior oblique ligament, iliotibial band
2. anterior cruciate ligament, medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus
3. anterior cruciate ligament, lateral collateral ligament, iliotibial band
4. posterior cruciate ligament, lateral collateral ligament, biceps femoris tendon
76. A patient rehabilitating from a CVA is referred to physical therapy. The medical record indicates the CVA
primarily involved the right hemisphere of the brain. Which of the following objective findings would be least
likely when examining the patient?
1. diminished motor control of the left side of the body
2. impaired awareness of the right side of the body
3. impaired spatial ability
4. diminished awareness of disability
77. A physical therapist discusses a patient care plan with a physical therapist assistant in preparation for treatment.
The physical therapist indicates that the patient has ideomotor apraxia. This condition is most consistent with
1. difficulty performing sequenced motor acts
2. inability to carry out purposeful movement on command
3. failure to recognize familiar objects
4. inability to respond to stimuli presented contralateral to the side of a brain lesion
78. A physical therapist examines a patient who complains of occasional difficulty maintaining her balance when
walking and frequent episodes of vertigo. The most likely cause of the patient’s difficulty is a disorder of the
1. visual system
2. proprioceptive system
3. auditory system
4. vestibular system
79. A physical therapist determines that a patient has diminished calf sensation and an absent Achilles reflex on the
right lower extremity. Earlier the patient had communicated to the therapist that she experienced difficulty
controlling her bowel movement. The neurologic level of most concern is
1. L2
2. L4
3. L5
4. S2
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80. A physical therapist receives a referral for a patient who is one week status post CVA. When observing the patient
lying in bed, the therapist notes that the patient’s calf and foot are edematous. The patient reports that the area is
somewhat painful. The therapist should
1. discontinue the examination and hope the patient’s leg is better tomorrow
2. consider ordering compression stockings for the patient
3. continue with the examination and disregard the patient’s condition.
4. inform the physician of the situation and discontinue the examination
81. A physical therapist completes a family training session with a patient rehabilitating from a spinal cord injury.
During the training the family asks a question regarding the functional ability of the patient following
rehabilitation. The most appropriate therapist response is to
1. explain to the family that it is difficult to predict since all patients progress differently
2. provide information on the expected prognosis based on the nature and severity of the injury
3. refer the family to the director of rehabilitation
4. refer the family to the patient’s physiatrist
82. A 32-year-old male of Portuguese descent is referred to physical therapy for instruction in a home exercise
program. The physician referral indicates that the patient is approved for one visit. What is the likelihood that the
patient will comprehend the home exercise program in the allotted time?
1. the patient will require external assistance such as the use of an interpreter to comprehend the home exercise
program
2. the patient will comprehend the home exercise program
3. the patient will not be able to comprehend the home exercise program
4. the physical therapist cannot take a prediction based on the supplied information
83. A physical therapist determines that a patient rehabilitating from an anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction is not
ready to return to athletic competition. Which of the following best supports the therapist’s decision?
1. a 20 percent quadriceps peak torque deficit at 60 degrees per second
2. trace effusion in the knee after a therapy session
3. a 5 degree limitation in knee flexion
4. inability to complete a functional progression
84. A physical therapist develops a chart detailing expected functional outcomes for a variety of spinal cord injuries.
Which is the highest spinal level at which independent transfers with a sliding board would be feasible?
1. C4
2. C6
3. T1
4. T3
85. A patient rehabilitating from a grade I medial collateral ligament injury questions a physical therapist about his
expected functional activity level following rehabilitation. The most accurate predictor of the patient’s expected
functional activity level is the
1. patient’s age and past medical history
2. patient’s previous functional activity level
3. duration of physical therapy services
4. patient’s compliance with the established home exercise program
86. A patient with anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency, who elects not to have surgical reconstruction, could
probably expect to reach which minimal functional level?
1. able to participate in all sports
2. able to participate in light recreational sports
3. cannot play any type of sport
4. problems with normal walking
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87. A physical therapist treats a patient referred to physical therapy after sustaining a comminuted Colle’s fracture.
The fracture was stabilized with an external fixator device. Which post-operative time frame best represents the
amount of time the external fixator device will be utilized?
1. 2-4 weeks
2. 6-8 weeks
3. 10-12 weeks
4. 14-16 weeks
88. A patient demonstrates dizziness and nausea during vertebral artery testing. The physical therapist should pay
particular attention when treating the patient to avoid positioning the neck in
1. extension and extreme of rotation
2. flexion and slight rotation
3. flexion and extreme sidebending
4. extension and slight sidebending
89. A physical therapist treats a patient status post surgical repair of the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb. The
patient injured the thumb approximately three weeks ago while skiing. Which of the following would be the most
realistic post-operative time frame for the patient to resume unrestricted activity?
1. 6 weeks
2. 12 weeks
3. 18 weeks
4. 24 weeks
90. A physical therapist treats a patient rehabilitating from a chemical burn sustained in a work-related injury. The
patient has been in the hospital for nearly a month and as a result the therapist is concerned about the patient’s
cardiovascular status. Which of the following would serve as the best indicator that the patient does not need to
participate in a formal cardiovascular rehabilitation program?
1. arterial blood gas analysis within normal limits
2. functional capacity greater than 10 metabolic equivalents
3. oxygen saturation rate greater than 90 percent
4. resting heart rate of 58 beats per minutes
91. A physical therapist treats a 32-year-old female rehabilitating from a closed head injury presently functioning at
Rancho Los Amigos Level IV. The therapist treats the patient in her home for 60 minute sessions, three times per
week. Recently the therapist has noticed that the patient becomes increasingly combative as the session progresses
and believes the deterioration in behavior is linked to the patient becoming fatigued. The most appropriate
treatment modification is
1. reduce the treatment sessions to 30 minutes three times per week
2. reduce the frequency of the treatment sessions to two times per week
3. increase the rest periods during existing treatment sessions
4. increase the treatment sessions to 90 minutes, two times per week
92. A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a patient with Hodgkin’s disease. The patient is a 45-year-old
male who recently began chemotherapy treatment. What effect will chemotherapy have on the patient’s ability to
participate in a rehabilitation program?
1. the patient may be susceptible to infection
2. the patient may experience excessive fatigue
3. the patient may demonstrate cardiac anomalies
4. the patient may exhibit signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal distress
93. A physical therapist that recently returned from maternity leave reviews her daily patient schedule. Her first patient
is a 46-year-old male that is referred to physical therapy for wound debridement. The patient’s medical record
indicates that he is HIV positive. The most appropriate therapist action is
1. have support personnel complete the treatment under direct supervision
2. ask another therapist to treat the patient
3. treat the patient
4. contact the referring physician to discuss the treatment orders
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94. A patient in a rehabilitation hospital returns to physical therapy after a meeting with his physiatrist. The patient
indicates that during the meeting the physiatrist discussed the effect of his spinal cord injury on sexual function.
Which of the following statements is typically NOT accurate for a male patient with complete T7 paraplegia?
1. The patient will be able to achieve an erection
2. The patient will be able to ejaculate
3. The patient’s fertility will be diminished
4. The patient’s medications may affect his sexual function
95. A patient diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease is examined in physical therapy. Which of the following
objective findings would result in an ambulation exercise program being contraindicated?
1. decreased peripheral pulses
2. resting claudication
3. increased resting systolic blood pressure
4. decreased lower extremity strength
96. A physical therapist treats a patient rehabilitating from total hip replacement surgery. As part of the session, the
therapist discusses the importance of preventing deep venous thrombosis. Which finding is the best indicator that
the patient is at a reduced risk for acquiring a deep venous thrombosis?
1. ability to perform ankle pumps and muscle setting exercises
2. ability to achieve full hip range of motion within the allowable limits
3. ability to utilize pneumatic compression devices and elastic stockings
4. ability to ambulate on a frequent schedule
97. A physical therapist examines a 72-year-old female four weeks status post CVA. The therapist informs the patient
that she could benefit from having physical therapy services to improve her ambulatory status. The patient explains
that she is no longer able to drive and does not have access to any other form of transportation. The patient lives
alone, however, is currently receiving some assistance from a neighbor. The most appropriate setting for continued
therapy would be
1. outpatient rehabilitation
2. skilled nursing facility
3. home health services
4. inpatient rehabilitation
98. A patient successfully advance through a series of short-term goals, but is unable to attain the associated long-term
goal. The therapist’s most appropriate response is to
1. develop another more attainable long-term goal
2. develop additional short-term goals that facilitate achievement of the established long-term goals
3. contact the referring physician to discuss the patient’s lack of progress
4. discharge the patient since he is no longer making progress toward the established long-term goal
99. A patient originally referred to physical therapy for six weeks of treatment has achieved all of the established short
and long-term goals in less than three weeks. The patient is completely asymptomatic and has returned to all
previously performed activities of daily living. The physical therapist’s most appropriate action is to
1. continue to treat the patient three times a week for the remaining three weeks
2. reduce the frequency of the patient’s appointments to twice a week
3. reduce the frequency of the patient’s appointments to once a week
4. discharge the patient and send a copy of the discharge summary to the referring physician
100. A physical therapist treats a patient with C5-C6 tetraplegia. During the treatment session the patient’s spouse asks
a question regarding the patient’s ability to transfer independently following rehabilitation. The most appropriate
therapist response is to
1. refer the spouse to the director of rehabilitation
2. refer the spouse to the patient’s primary physician
3. refer the spouse to the patient’s primary nurse
4. answer the spouse’s question
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101. A work site examination is scheduled for a patient rehabilitating from a closed head injury eight weeks ago. The
patient presents with mild dysarthria and right-sided hemiparesis with moderate upper extremity involvement. The
patient’s job duties are secretarial including answering phones, filing and organizing the office. The most
appropriate provider to participate in the work and examination is a/an
1. physical therapist
2. occupational therapist
3. speech therapist
4. social worker
102. A physical therapist works on bed mobility exercises with a patient recently diagnosed with terminal cancer. The
patient is extremely upset and tells the therapist “I know I will nerve get better”. The therapist’s most appropriate
response would be
1. “Radiation treatments will make you feel much better”.
2. “Many people have overcome larger obstacles”.
3. “Having cancer must be very difficult for you to deal with”.
4. “Physical therapy can improve your condition”.
103. A physical therapist suspects a patient may be under the influence of alcohol during a treatment session. The
therapist has been treating the patient for over five weeks and during that time has failed to recognize any signs or
symptoms of substance abuse. The therapist’s most immediate action would be to
1. contact the referring physician and discuss the patient’s problem
2. ask the patient if they have been drinking
3. discharge the patient from physical therapy
4. refer the patient to a local Alcoholics Anonymous group
104. A physical therapist prepares a presentation on presession conditioning for a group of high school athletes. To
maximize the effectiveness of the presentation the therapist should
1. develop specific learning objectives
2. utilize a variety of audiovisual equipment
3. assess the needs of the target audience.
4. provide an outline
105. A physical therapist treats a patient one day status post posterior hip dislocation. The injury was treated using
closed reduction. As part of the treatment session the therapist educates the patient on hip precautions to avoid the
recurrence of dislocation and implements an exercise program including gluteal sets, quadriceps sets, hamstrings
sets, ankle pumps, upper extremity exercises, and bed mobility. Which activity would be the most essential for the
physical therapy session the following day?
1. review the exercise program
2. initiate straight leg raises
3. begin ambulation activities
4. start active-assisted range of motion
106. A physical therapist treats a 61-year-old male at home following thoracic surgery. As part of treatment, the
therapist designs a general exercise program for the patient. The patient is extremely eager to begin the exercise
program, however his spouse expresses serious doubt about the program’s importance. The most appropriate
therapist action is to
1. explain to the patient and spouse why the exercise program is an essential part of rehabilitation
2. redesign the exercise program to address the spouse’s concerns
3. ask the spouse to leave the room during treatment sessions
107. An orthopedic surgeon instructs a patient to remain non-weight bearing for three weeks following a medial
meniscus repair. During the examination it becomes obvious that the patient has not adhered to the prescribed
weight bearing status. The most immediate physical therapist action is to
1. contact the orthopedic surgeon
2. explain to the patient the potential consequences of ignoring the weight bearing restriction
3. draft a letter to the patient’s third party payer
4. complete an incident report
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108. A physical therapist treats a five-year-old with cerebral palsy. Initially the therapist was frustrated by the child’s
poor participation in therapy and as a result developed a reward system that enables the child to earn a sticker for
good behavior. Since the therapist initiated the reward system the child has earned a sticker in each of the last five
treatment sessions. This type of associated learning is termed
1. classical conditioning
2. operant conditioning
3. procedural learning
4. declarative learning
109. A five-year-old patient is examined in physical therapy. The patient seems very uncomfortable during the
examination and offers little useful information concerning her injury. The most appropriate physical therapist
action is to
1. speak loudly and directly to the patient
2. request that the patient’s parents come into the treatment room
3. explain to the patient the importance of physical therapy
4. inform the patient that effective communication involves more than one individual
110. A patient with osteoarthritis in the right knee is referred to physical therapy. Examination reveals moderate
inflammation in the involved knee and significant muscle weakness particularly in the quadriceps. The patient
rates the intensity of pain in the knee as a 4 on a scale of 0 to 10. The most appropriate activity to address the
muscle impairment is
1. isometric quadriceps contraction
2. straight leg raises with ankle weights
3. limited range active knee extension in short sitting
4. avoid strengthening exercises until the patient is pain free
111. A physical therapist treats a 15-year-old female of Spanish descent. The patient speaks only a few words of
English and has significant difficulty understanding the therapist’s instructions. The most appropriate therapist
action is to
1. speak strongly and directly to the patient
2. encourage frequent feedback from the patient
3. utilize an interpreter
4. emphasize nonverbal communication
112. A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital returns to work after a brief vacation and finds a number of
items that require her immediate attention. Which of the following items should be given the highest priority?
1. a message to call a physician
2. a patient referral from two days ago
3. a laboratory test report
4. a patient record that has not been completed
113. A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a patient rehabilitating from knee surgery. A recent entry in the
medical record uses the term effusion. Which description most appropriately defines this term?
1. increased volume of fluid
2. increased volume of fluid within the joint capsule
3. increased volume of fluid in the soft tissue external to the joint
4. increased volume of fluid in the joint capsule and the soft tissue external to the joint
114. A patient diagnosed with impingement syndrome is referred to physical therapy. During the examination the
physical therapist identifies several clinical findings that indicate the possibility of a small rotator cuff tear. The
therapist’s most appropriate action would be to
1. contact the referring physician to discuss the clinical findings
2. treat the patient as diagnosed on the referral
3. refer the patient back to the physician
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115. A female diagnosed with a cervical spine injury reports to physical therapy for a scheduled treatment session.
While walking with the patient to the treatment area the physical therapist notices that the patient’s cervical orthosis
is very loose. The most appropriate therapist action is
1. document the observation in the medical record
2. reapply the orthosis correctly at the conclusion of the treatment session
3. remind the patient of the donning instructions for the orthosis
4. contact the referring physician
116. A physical therapist examines a 43-year-old female diagnosed with a nondisplaced fracture of the humerus. During
the examination the patient tells the therapist she has kept her arm in a sling sporadically, but would like the
therapist’s permission to stop using it. An appropriate course of action would be to
1. instruct the patient to wear the sling at all times
2. instruct the patient not to use the sling because it will inhibit her range of motion
3. use their best judgment based on how the referring physician usually treats humerus fractures
4. contact the physician and ask what instructions were given to the patient.
117. A physical therapist prepares a presentation on proper body mechanics for a group of 100 autoworkers. Which of
the following media would be most effective to maximize learning during the presentation?
1. lecture, handouts
2. lecture, charts, statistics
3. lecture, handouts, demonstration
4. lecture, statistics
118. A physical therapist prepares an inservice on repetitive use injuries for a group of administrative assistants. As part
of the presentation, the therapist develops learning objectives. Which of the following objectives would be
considered in the cognitive domain?
1. List three potential consequences of all improperly designed workstation
2. Correctly adjust the level of a computer keyboard
3. Devote five minutes in the morning and afternoon for stretching exercises
4. Demonstrate proper posture when sitting at a desk
119. A physical therapist receives an order to devise a home program for a nine-year-old boy diagnosed with
chondromalacia patella. As the therapist starts to explain the exercise instructions, it becomes obvious that the boy
is not interested. Which of the following would be the most appropriate action to improve compliance with the
home exercise program?
1. Tell the boy he can leave because it is very difficult to help someone who does not want to be helped
2. Continue with the instructions hoping that the boy is a better listener than he appears to be
3. Lecture the boy on the importance of compliance with the home program
4. Ask a family member to come into the room while you explain the home program
120. A physical therapist transports a patient with a brain injury to the physical therapy gym. Each day after arriving in
the gym, the patient asks the therapist, “Where am I”? Recognizing the patient for short-term memory loss, the
therapist’s most appropriate response should be
1. You know where you are.
2. You are in the same place you were yesterday at this time.
3. You are in the physical therapy gym for your treatment session.
4. You are in the hospital because of your injury
121. A physical therapist treats a 47-year-old female with diminished lower extremity range of motion due to hamstring
tightness. As part of the treatment program, the therapist attempts to identify an appropriate active exercise
technique to improve range of motion. Which objective finding would result in contract-relax being an undesirable
treatment option?
1. the limitation of movement is accompanied by pain
2. the limitation of movement is greater than 50% of the normal available range
3. the limitation of movement involved multiple planes
4. the limitation of movement occurs in a non-capsular pattern
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122. A physical therapist administers a submaximal exercise test using the YMCA Cycle Ergometry Protocol. The test
consists of a variable number of three minute stages of continuous exercise and requires the examiner to raise the
patient’s steady state heart rate to 110-150 beats per minute for two consecutive stages. Which of the following
would be the most accurate guideline for terminating a submaximal exercise test?
1. the subject reaches 75% of their age-predicted maximal heart rate
123. A patient diagnosed with right shoulder adhesive capsulitis is limited to 25 degrees of lateral rotation. Which
mobilization technique would be indicated based on the patient’s limitation?
1. lateral distraction and anterior glide
2. medial distraction and posterior glide
3. lateral distraction and posterior glide
4. medial distraction and inferior glide
124. A 12-year-old female that became anoxic in a near drowning performs dynamic activities in quadruped. The next
posture to attain in the developmental sequence would be
1. half kneeling
2. tall kneeling
3. plantigrade
4. standing
125. A physical therapist implements an aquatic program for a patient rehabilitating from a total hip replacement.
During the treatment session the patient indicates how much easier it is to walk in the water compared to on land.
what factor is responsible for the patient’s ability to walk in water?
1. buoyancy
2. pressure
3. cohesion
4. viscosity
126. A patient is limited to 55 degrees in an active straight leg raise. When using the contract-relax technique to
improve the patient’s active range of motion, the therapist should emphasize contraction of the
1. abductors and hip flexors
2. hamstrings and hip extensors
3. quadriceps and hip flexors
4. adductors and hip extensors
127. A physical therapist designs an exercise program for a patient rehabilitating from a prolonged illness. Which of the
following exercises is indicated for coordination training?
1. Buerger-Allen exercises
2. Codman’s exercises
3. DeLorme’s exercises
4. Frenkel’s exercises
128. A physical therapist prepares a home exercise program for a patient rehabilitating from a disk protrusion in the
lumbar spine. Assuming the patient successfully completes the pictured exercises (prone on hands), which activity
would be next to occur in the extension progression?
1. single knee to chest
2. double knee to chest
3. prone on elbows
4. extension exercises in standing
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129. A physical therapist employed in a rehabilitation hospital works with a patient diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease
on perambulation activities. As part of the program the physical therapist focuses on improving the patient’s lower
trunk rotation. The most appropriate patient position accomplish this goal is
1. bridging
2. hooklying
3. prone on elbows
4. quadruped
130. A physical therapist discusses how to perform pelvic floor muscle strengthening exercises with a 36-year-old
female diagnosed with stress incontinence. The patient describes involuntary leakage of urine when she coughs,
sneezes or exercises. The most appropriate ratio of rest to hold time when initiating pelvic floor muscle
strengthening is
1. 1:2
2. 1:5
3. 2:1
4. 5:1
131. A physical therapist treats a patient status post CVA. Which action would be most likely to facilitate elbow
extension in a patient with hemiplegia?
1. turn the head to the affected side
2. turn the head to the unaffected side
3. extend the lower extremities
4. flex the lower extremities
132. A physical therapist administers a submaximal exercise test using a cycle ergometer. The test consists of a warm-
up followed by three stages of increasing increments of work each lasting three minutes, and a cool down. During
the second stage of the exercise test the therapist records the patient’s heart rate as 122 beats per minute after two
minutes and 134 beats per minute after three minutes. Which of the following would be the most appropriate
therapist action?
1. administer a rating of perceived exertion scale
2. maintain the present work rate for an additional minute
3. progress to the specified work rate for the third stage
4. discontinue the submaximal exercise test
133. A physical therapist administers a submaximal exercise test on a patient using a cycle ergometer. The test consists
of four stages, each lasting three minutes in duration at increasing exercise intensities. The exercise intensities for
the stages were recorded as 50, 75, 100 and 125 watts respectively. If the therapist elects to have the patient cool
down using the cycle ergometer, which exercise intensity would be the most appropriate to select?
1. 40 watts
2. 60 watts
3. 80 watts
4. 100 watts
134. A patient two weeks status post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction using a patellar tendon autograft is
examined in physical therapy. When designing the patient’s rehabilitation program the physical therapist focuses
on avoiding activities that place shearing stress on the reconstructed ligament. Which exercise would be the least
desirable to include in the exercise program?
1. straight leg raises in supine from 0-60 degrees of hip flexion
2. standing hamstrings curls from 0-90 degrees of knee flexion
3. supine short arc quadriceps exercises using a bolster
4. gravity assisted knee extension in supine
135. A patient with patellar tracking dysfunction is examined in physical therapy. Physical examination reveals
diminished vastus medialis obliquus activity. The most appropriate method to selectively train the vastus medialis
obliquus is
1. quadriceps setting exercises and biofeedback
2. full arc terminal extension with manual resistance
3. straight leg raises with leg weights
4. multiple angle isometric exercises
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136. A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital prepares to perform suctioning on a patient that is
intubated. What type of protective equipment would be necessary in order for the therapist to administer
suctioning?
1. non-sterile gloves
2. sterile gloves
3. sterile gloves, gown
4. sterile gloves, gown, mask
137. Which of the following goals is NOT realistic upon discharge from a phase I cardiac rehabilitation program for a
patient status post coronary artery bypass graft?
1. ambulate 100 feet on level surfaces
2. walk up and down a flight of stairs
3. locate and recognize changes in pulse rate
4. range of motion and exercise at 6 metabolic equivalents
138. A physical therapist is treating a patient with a diagnosis of chronic arterial insufficiency. Assuming the patient
does not demonstrate pain at rest, which of the following treatment techniques would be contraindicated for this
patient?
1. ambulation with an assistive device
2. patient education regarding proper skin care
3. stationary cycling
4. ankle pumps with legs elevated
139. A physical therapist determines that a patient is limited in right hip range of motion in a capsular pattern. If the
therapist elects to focus on increasing hip flexion, which mobilization techniques would be indicated?
1. anterior glide
2. posterior glide
3. lateral glide
4. medial glide
140. A physical therapist utilizes joint mobilization techniques for pain control and muscle relaxation at the shoulder. If
the therapist begins by mobilizing the glenohumeral joint in this resting position, the limb should be positioned in
1. 55 degrees of abduction, 30 degrees of horizontal adduction
2. 30 degrees of abduction, 10 degrees of horizontal adduction
3. 25 degrees of abduction, 5 degrees of horizontal abduction
4. 10 degrees of adduction, 5 degrees of horizontal abduction
141. A physical therapist orders a wheelchair for a patient with T9 paraplegia. Which wheelchair option would NOT be
necessary for the patient?
1. detachable legrests
2. pneumatic tires
3. removable arms
4. wheel rim projections
142. A 58-year-lld female diagnosed with peripheral neuropathy return from an appointment with an orthotist wearing a
posterior leaf spring ankle-foot orthosis. Which of the following clinical descriptions would most warrant the use
of this particular type of orthosis?
1. foot drop without medial or lateral instability
2. weak plantarflexors during swing phase
3. diminished knee stability
4. foot drop with multi-plane instability
143. A patient rehabilitating from a tibial plateau fracture is referred to physical therapy for instruction in gait training.
The patient has been cleared by his physician for weight bearing up to 10 lbs. Assuming the patient has no
significant balance or coordination deficits, which gait pattern would be the most appropriate?
1. two-point
2. four-point
3. three-point
4. swing through
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144. A physical therapist examines a patient seated in a wheelchair. After completing the examination the therapist
determines the wheelchair has inadequate seat width. Which of the following is the most likely consequence?
1. excessive pressure under the distal thigh
2. excessive pressure under the ischial tuberosities
3. excessive pressure in the popliteal fossa
4. excessive pressure on the greater trochanters
145. A patient five days status post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction using a patellar tendon autograft is referred
to physical therapy. The patient uses a postsurgical rehabilitative brace that consists of a metal offset hinge with
medial and lateral plastic supports. It is applied directly over the skin and is secured using a series of velcro straps.
The brace has a flexion and extension setting and comes in six different sizes based on a series of circumferential
measurements. the primary purpose of the brace is to
1. reduce post-operative edema
2. increase anterior and posterior stability
3. enhance quadriceps activation time
4. limit knee flexion and extension
146. A 26-year-old male involved in a motorcycle accident sustains a T10 vertebral fracture. The patient’s physician
attempts to restrict forward thoracic flexion by using an externally applied device. Which of the following would
be the most appropriate selection?
1. Minerva cervical thoracic orthosis
2. Philadelphia collar
3. sternal-occipital-mandibular immobilizer
4. thoraco-lumbar-sacral orthosis
147. A 50-year-old male rehabilitating from a recent stroke has good strength in the affected lower extremity with the
exception of trace to poor strength in the right ankle joint. The patient’s sensation is severely impaired for deep
pressure, light touch, and sharp stimuli. The patient also has severe fluctuating edema at the ankle. the most
appropriate orthosis for the patient is
1. metal upright ankle-foot orthosis
2. polypropylene solid ankle-foot orthosis
3. prefabricated posterior leaf orthosis
4. metal upright knee-ankle foot orthosis
148. A physical therapist receives orders for a patient that was recently injured in a motor vehicle accident. The
patient’s injuries include a Colle’s fracture and a right tibial plateau fracture. The patient is mentally alert and does
not exhibit any balance or coordination deficits. Assuming the patient is touchdown weight bearing, the most
appropriate assistive device for the patient is
1. Lofstrand crutches
2. rolling walker with platform attachments
3. axillary crutch and a straight cane
4. walker with a platform attachment
149. A physical therapist instructs a 62-year-old female rehabilitating from an ankle sprain in the use of a straight cane.
The patient is confused as to why it is necessary to use the cane in the left hand since it is her right ankle that is
injured. The most appropriate explanation would be
1. using the cane in the left hand will increase your base of support
2. using the cane in the left hand will improve your coordination and balance
3. using the cane in the left hand will reduce the pressure over your injured ankle
4. using the cane in the left hand will allow more weight bearing on your injured ankle and will therefore
accelerate your rehabilitation time
150. A physical therapist examines a small area of redness over the lateral portion of the lower leg of a patient diagnosed
with peripheral neuropathy. The therapist is concerned that the skin irritation may have been caused by the leather
calf band of the patient’s metal upright ankle-foot orthosis. The most appropriate location for the calf band is
1. immediately inferior to the fibular head
2. immediately superior to the fibular head
3. immediately inferior to the tibial plateau
4. immediately superior to the tibial plateau
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151. A physical therapist employed in a rehabilitation hospital examines a patient prior to ordering a wheelchair. After
completing the examination the therapist concludes that the patient would receive the greatest benefit from a tilt-in
space wheelchair. Which patient would be the best suited for this type of wheelchair?
1. a 37-year-old male incapable of independent pressure relief
2. a 42-year-old female with contractures at the hips and knees
3. a 57-year-old male with poor upper extremity strength
4. a 75-year-old female with significant impaired sitting balance
152. A physical therapist selects an assistive device for a patient rehabilitating from an ankle injury. Which of the
following would serve as the most significant obstacle to independent ambulation with axillary crutches?
1. cognitive impairment
2. weight bearing restrictions
3. architectural barriers
4. unilateral lower extremity weakness
153. A physical therapist observes a patient with a transfemoral amputation during gait training. The therapist identifies
marked lateral rotation of the prosthesis at heel strike. Which of the following would NOT be a contributing factor
to the patient’s gait deviation?
1. weak hip medial rotators
2. inadequate suspension
3. excessive toe-out built into the prosthesis
4. prosthesis is too short
154. A patient diagnosed with T5 paraplegia is discharged from a rehabilitation hospital following 16 weeks of therapy.
Assuming a normal recovery, which of the following most accurately describes the status of the patient’s bathroom
transfers?
1. independent with the presence of an attendant
2. independent with adaptive devices and a sliding board
3. independent with bathroom adaptation
4. independent
155. A physical therapist orders a wheelchair with anti-tip tubes for a patient in preparation for discharge from a
rehabilitation hospital. Which patient would most significantly benefit from this option?
1. a patient with Guillain-Barre syndrome
2. a patient with C5 tetraplegia
3. a patient with hemiparesis
4. a patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
156. A physical therapist instructs a patient who is unable to perform a standing transfer how to utilize a sliding board.
When using the sliding board to transfer from a wheelchair to a bed, which wheelchair option is most desirable?
1. swing-away detachable legrests
2. elevating legrests
3. full length detachable armrests
4. adjustable height armrests
157. A 16-year-old patient with a complete C5 spinal cord injury is two weeks status post injury. The patient presently
tolerates only 30 degrees on the tilt table secondary to orthostatic hypotension. Which transfer would be the most
appropriate tot utilize when moving the patient from bed to the tilt table?
1. hydraulic lift
2. sliding transfer with draw sheet
3. two person lift
4. dependent standing pivot transfer
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158. A physical therapist begins gait training with a patient who recently received an ankle-foot orthosis to assist with
foot drop and sensory loss. A reddened area over the lateral malleolus persists after ambulating sixty feet. The
most appropriate therapist response is to
1. direct the patient to wear the orthosis at all times because the body will eventually get used to it
2. direct the patient to make an appointment with the orthotist and continue to wear the orthosis until that time
3. direct the patient not to wear the orthosis until modifications are made
4. direct the patient to make an appointment with the physician
159. A patient in a work hardening program is required to lift packages weighing approximately 30 pounds overhead to
a conveyor belt. The patient can complete the task, but is unable to prevent excessive lumbar hyperextension while
reaching for the conveyor belt. Which of the following assumptions is most accurate?
1. additional weight should be added to the packages that will promote lumbar stability
2. the patient should continue lifting the 30-pound packages because he will gradually become stronger
3. the task is too easy for the patient
4. the task is too difficult for the patient
160. A physical therapist instructs a patient how to rise from a chair before beginning ambulation activities with a
walker. Which of the following instructions would be helpful to the patient?
1. place both hands on the walker and pull yourself to a standing position
2. push up on the chair with one hand and place the other hand on the edge of the walker for balance
3. push up on the chair with both hands and reach for the walker once your are standing
4. push up on the chair with both hands and reach for the walker while rising
161. A physical therapist treats a patient with emphysema. As part of the treatment session the therapist teaches the
patient to perform diaphragmatic breathing exercises. The primary goal for diaphragmatic breathing is to
1. decrease tidal ventilation
2. increase respiration rate
3. decrease accessory muscle use
4. decrease oxygenation
162. A patient status post spinal fusion is referred for chest physical therapy. The physical therapist instructs the patient
in diaphragmatic breathing exercises. Instructions are given to the patient to place his dominant hand over the
midrectus abdominis area and his non-dominant hand over the midsternal area. As the patient inhales slowly
through the nose the therapist encourages the patient to
1. direct air so that the non-dominant hand rises during inspiration
2. direct air so that the dominant hand rises during inspiration
3. direct air so that both hands rise equally during inspiration
4. direct air so that both hands do not move during inspiration
163. A physician refers a patient rehabilitating from an intertrochanteric fracture to physical therapy. On the referral
form the physician specifies the use of continuous ultrasound at 2.4 W/cm2 over the fracture site. The most
appropriate physical therapist action is to
1. treat the patient as indicated on the referral form
2. request that the patient obtain a new referral from the physician
3. use another more acceptable modality
4. contact the referring physician
164. A 55-year-old female diagnosed with a right hip intertrochanteric fracture is eight weeks status post open reduction
and internal fixation with a plate and pinning. The patient has pain with active hip flexion and abduction.
Acceptable modalities for the patient include all of the following EXCEPT
1. hot packs
2. whirlpool
3. pulsed ultrasound
4. shortwave diathermy
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165. A patient that sustained a lower extremity burn three months ago is treated in an outpatient physical therapy clinic.
The patient’s burns appear to be fully healed, however, the patient exhibits decreased knee flexion due to the scar
tissue. As part of the treatment program the physical therapist performs passive stretching activities in an attempt
to promote collagen extensibility. Which thermal agent would be the most beneficial to enhance the effectiveness
of the treatment session?
1. pulse ultrasound
2. continuous ultrasound
3. hydrotherapy
4. fluidotherapy
166. An 18-year-old male six weeks status post open reduction of a Colle’s fracture is referred to physical therapy.
Examination reveals mild swelling on the dorsum of the hand and limited flexion of the metacarpophalangeal joints
in all digits. The most appropriate heating agent for the patient is
1. paraffin
2. hot packs
3. vapocoolant sprays
4. ultrasound
167. A physical therapist applies electrical stimulation to a patient rehabilitating from an Achilles tendon rupture.
Which of the following types of current has the lowest total average current?
1. low-volt
2. high-volt
3. Russian
4. interferential
168. A physical therapist explains the benefits of using electrical stimulation for muscle re-education. The patient
appears to understand the therapist’s explanation, however, seems extremely frightened and asks the therapist not
use the electrical device. The most appropriate therapist action is to
1. reassure the patient that the electrical stimulation will not be harmful
2. use only small amounts of current
3. select another appropriate treatment technique
169. A physical therapist prepares to treat a patient using ultraviolet light by determining the patient’s minimal
erythemal dose. The most common location for testing is
1. on the posterior aspect of the upper arm
2. on the anterior aspect of the forearm
3. on the anterior aspect of the thigh
4. on the posterior aspect of the lower leg
170. A physical therapist administers ultrasound to a patient rehabilitating from a burn in an attempt to increase range of
motion and decrease joint stiffness in the foot. When applying ultrasound to the dorsum of the foot, the patient
complains of significant discomfort from the soundhead contacting the skin. The most appropriate treatment
modification is
1. decrease the intensity of the ultrasound beam
2. reduce the size of the area being sonated
3. utilize an underwater technique
4. select another thermal agent
171. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease receives two liters per minute of supplemental oxygen using a
nasal cannula. The most relevant indicator for the use of supplemental oxygen for the patient would be
1. arterial saturation = 85%
2. partial pressure of arterial oxygen = 70 mmHg
3. partial pressure of carbon dioxide = 40 mmHg
4. pH = 7.40
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172. A physical therapist positions a patient in prone with two pillows under the hips in preparation for bronchial
drainage. If the therapist’s goal is to perform bronchial drainage to the superior segments of the lower lobes, where
should the therapist’s force be directed?
1. between the clavicle and nipple on each side
2. over the area between the clavicle and top of the scapula on each side
3. over the lower ribs on each side
4. over the middle of the back at the tip of the scapula on each side
173. A 64-year-old male diagnosed with chronic bronchitis was admitted to the hospital three days ago after
experiencing an acute exacerbation. While assessing the patient’s vital signs the physical therapist determines the
respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute. Which breathing technique would be the most appropriate to decrease the
patient’s respiratory rate?
1. glossopharyngeal breathing
2. diaphragmatic breathing
3. segmental breathing
4. pursed-lip breathing
174. A patient with a low back injury rings a call bell and informs the physical therapist that the hot pack is too intense.
Assuming the patient has had the hot pack on for three minutes, the most appropriate initial action is to
1. check the patient’s skin
2. add additional towel layers
3. select another superficial heating agent
4. document the incident in the medical record
175. A physical therapist administers neuromuscular electrical stimulation to the quadriceps using a bipolar electrode
configuration. After observing the muscle contraction, the therapist decides to modify the treatment set up in order
to increase the depth of current penetration. The most appropriate action is to
1. utilize carbon-rubber electrodes
2. increase the size of the electrodes
3. utilize additional electrodes using a bifurcated lead
4. increase the distance between the electrodes
176. A home assessment is performed for a patient that will utilize a wheelchair. The patient’s home presently does not
possess a ramp and therefore is inaccessible. The distance from the ground to the front doorway is approximately
three feet. In order for the patient to enter and exit the home safely and independently, the ramp should be at least
1. 27 feet long
2. 30 feet long
3. 36 feet long
4. 45 feet long
177. A patient who is comatose due to a recent head injury receives chest physical therapy. When performing this
treatment, the physical therapist should avoid placing the patient in
1. partial sitting using the head of the bed for support
2. sidelying
3. Trendelenburg position
4. prone
178. A physical therapist receives a referral to instruct a patient diagnosed with peroneal tendonitis in a home exercise
program. As part of the home exercise program, the therapist would like the patient to apply superficial heat to the
injured area before beginning a stretching regimen. Which of the following modalities would be the most effective
for the patient to incorporate into the program?
1. diathermy
2. paraffin
3. pulsed ultrasound
4. warm water bath
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179. An order for chest physical therapy is received for an 82-year-old female. The patient recently underwent surgery
for a hip fracture and has been taking Coumadin post-operatively. She has a history of multiple compression
fractures of the thoracic vertebrae. The greatest amount of caution should be taken in the administration of
1. diaphragmatic breathing exercises
2. postural drainage
3. therapeutic percussion
4. pursed-lip breathing
180. A patient who sustained a deep laceration in the antecubital fossa is treated in physical therapy. The patient’s
wound has been healing poorly secondary to motion occurring at the elbow joint. Which type of dressing would be
the most appropriate to facilitate wound healing?
1. wet
2. dry
3. occlusive
4. rigid
181. A group of physical therapy students presents a research project entitled “Effects of Ultrasound on Blood Flow and
Nerve Conduction Velocity”. The dependent variables in the students’ study is/are
1. ultrasound
2. ultrasound and blood flow
3. ultrasound and nerve conduction velocity
4. blood flow and nerve conduction velocity
182. A physical therapist receives orders to design an exercise program for a 13-year-old boy recovering from thoracic
surgery. The therapist explains the purpose and inherent risks of the exercise session as outlined in an informed
consent from to the boy and his parents. After asking several additional questions the boy and his parents indicate
that they would like to move forward with the session. The most appropriate therapist action is
1. ask the boy to sign the informed consent form
2. ask one of the boy’s parents to sign the informed consent form
3. initiate the exercise program
4. confirm the parameters of the exercise session with the referring physician
183. A patient in rehabilitation hospital confides to a physical therapist that she has been physically abused by her
husband in the past and is concerned about returning home following discharge. The most appropriate therapist
action is to
1. report the findings to a law enforcement agency
2. contact the patient’s physician
3. ask the patient to leave her husband
4. question the patient’s spouse
184. A physical therapist observes a patient in the physical therapy waiting room that appears to experiencing a heart
attack. The most significant sign of a heart attack is
1. shortness of breath
2. chest pain
3. sweating
4. nausea
185. A physical therapist working in an acute care hospital attempts to determine the effectiveness of treating psoriatic
lesions with ultraviolet. The most appropriate initial action is to
1. design a research study which examines the effectiveness of treating psoriatic lesions with ultraviolet
2. determine if the current patient population would allow for an adequate sample size for a research study
3. submit a research proposal to the hospital’s institutional review board
4. conduct a literary search for research related to treating psoriatic lesions with ultraviolet
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186. A physical therapist treating a patient overhears two of his colleagues discussing another patient’s case in the
charting area. The therapist is concerned that patients may overhear the same conversation. The most appropriate
action is to
1. discuss the situation with the director of rehabilitation
2. discuss confidentiality issues at the next department meeting
3. move the patient away from the charting area
4. inform the physical therapists that their conversation may be audible to patients
187. A patient completing an exercise program starts to demonstrate signs of an insulin reaction including dizziness,
vision difficulties, and a change in the level of consciousness. The most appropriate response for a conscious
victim would include
1. give the patient sugar, candy or juice
2. monitor airway, breathing, and circulation
3. treat the patient for shock
4. continue to supervise the patient, however, do not intervene
188. While performing high-level balance activities, a patient falls into a piece of equipment that causes a deep
laceration to the calf. Immediate first aid includes direct pressure to the area and elevation, however, the bleeding
does not stop. The physical therapist should continue to administer first aid by providing
1. heat to the laceration site
2. ice to the laceration site
3. pressure to the dorsalis pedis artery pressure point
4. pressure to the femoral artery pressure point
189. A physical therapy department designs a study examining rehabilitation outcomes in patients who have undergone
anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction. The study will include a sample of patient from 25 orthopedic surgeons
in the local region. If the physical therapists compile a list of all eligible patients and select every third patient to
participate in the study, what type of sampling was used?
1. simple random sampling
2. stratified sampling
3. systematic sampling
4. cluster sampling
190. A physical therapist examines a six-month-old infant with spina bifida. The infant suddenly begins to act strangely
at the conclusion of treatment. A primary survey reveals the infant is not breathing, but does have a pulse. The
most immediate response would be to
1. begin chest compressions
2. begin mouth to mouth breathing
3. begin mouth to nose breathing
4. begin mouth to mouth and nose breathing
191. A physical therapist prepares to administer a dressing change on a patient rehabilitating from a deep partial-
thickness burn over the dorsal surface of the forearm and hand. The patient’s current regiment consists of dressing
changes twice daily and reapplication of a topical antibiotic. When sequencing the activities associated with the
dressing change, which activity would occur second?
1. gentle debridement in a hydrotherapy tank
2. reapplication of the topical antibiotic
3. application of gauze wraps in a distal to proximal pattern
4. removal of current dressings
192. A patient begins to demonstrate signs and symptoms of a seizure including uncontrollable muscular movements,
convulsions, and confused behavior. Appropriate intervention would include
1. attempt to check airway, breathing, and circulation
2. place a soft object between the patient’s teeth
3. hold or restrain the patient
4. protect the victim from injury, but do not restrain
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193. A physical therapist conducts a home health visit for a patient status post transtibial amputation that lives in a two-
room efficiency. The therapist treats the patient for a small would on the anterior surface of the residual limb.
After completing the treatment session, the therapist would like to wash her hands. Which of the following actions
would be the most inappropriate?
1. wash hands thoroughly in the kitchen sink
2. utilize liquid soap instead of bar soap
3. use paper towels to turn the faucets on and off
4. rub hands together under flowing water with soap for at least 10 seconds
194. A patient that collapsed in the physical therapy gym fails to exhibit a pulse. Upon viewing the patient’s mouth it
becomes obvious that the patient has dentures. The physical therapist is hesitant to remove the dentures since they
seem secure, however, does not want them to interfere with rescue breathing. The most appropriate action is to
1. leave the dentures in place
2. loosen the dentures
3. remove the dentures
4. remove the dentures and utilize a mask to limit direct pressure on the patient’s mouth
195. A patient who recently tested positive for hepatitis B has a one-inch diameter wound on the anterior surface of her
forearm. Upon inspection, the borders of the wound are slightly raised and a small amount of drainage is visible.
When changing the dressing on the wound the most appropriate protective equipment to utilize would be
1. gloves
2. gloves, gown
3. gloves, gown, mask
4. gloves, gown, mask, protective eyewear
196. A physical therapist enters a remote storage area to retrieve a piece of equipment and observes flames and smoke
throughout the room. The most appropriate immediate action is
1. attempt to extinguish the fire
2. remove patients from the physical therapy area
3. announce the code for fire over the facility’s public address system
4. attempt to contain the fire to the storage room
197. A physical therapist attempts to obtain consent to participate in a formal aquatic exercise program from a patient
rehabilitating from multiple lower extremity injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident. The therapist’s action is
most representative of the ethical principle termed
1. autonomy
2. beneficence
3. nonmaleficence
4. justice
198. A physical therapist and a physical therapist assistant employed in an acute care hospital are responsible for
providing weekend therapy coverage. After examining the patient treatment list, the therapists attempt to develop
an action plan. Which of the following activities would be the least appropriate for the physical therapist assistant?
1. instruct a patient in prosthetic donning and doffing
2. assist a patient with ambulation activities
3. examine a patient referred to physical therapy for instruction in a home exercise program
4. perform goniometric measurements on a patient two day status post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction
199. A patient rehabilitating from a fractured humerus has completed six weeks of physical therapy and is ready to be
discharged with a home exercise program. The patient is extremely pleased with his progress in therapy and gives
the physical therapist a check for $50.00 as a token of his appreciation. The most appropriate therapist action is to
1. accept the gift
2. accept the gift and donate it to charity
3. accept the gift and donate it to the department’s general expense fund
4. explain to the patient that you are not permitted to accept the gift
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200. A physical therapist awaiting the arrival of her next patient observes another patient ambulating independently in
the parallel bars. The patient appears to lack the necessary strength and coordination required to complete the
activity independently. The therapist’s most appropriate response would be to
1. inform the patient’s therapist of her observations
2. assist the patient back to a chair and contact the patient’s therapist
3. ask the patient if she is having difficulty or needs any assistance
4. continue to observe the patient, but do not interfere
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1. 1. Doppler ultrasonography is a diagnostic technique that uses ultrasound to produce an image or photograph of an
organ or tissue. The non-invasive test is commonly used to evaluate blood flow in the major veins and arteries of
the upper and lower extremities as well as in the extracranial cerebrovascular system.
2. 3. Hemoglobin refers to an iron based pigment that binds and transports oxygen in blood. The typical reference
range for a male is 14-18 gm/dL, therefore a value of 8 gm/dL may result in decreased exercise tolerance, fatigue
and tachycardia
3. 2. Myelography can be used to detect disk herniation, nerve root entrapment, spinal stenosis, and tumors of the
spinal cord.
4. 1. Adhesive capsulitis refers to an inflammation and adherence of the articular capsule resulting in limited joint
play and restricted active and passive movement. The condition is more common in women than in men and tends
to appear in the fourth, fifth, and sixth decades of life. Patients with diabetes mellitus are particularly susceptible to
this condition and often experience a longer duration of symptoms and greater limitation of motion.
5. 1. The patient’s lab values for hematocrit, white blood cells, platelet, and hemoglobin are significantly below
acceptable ranges. As a result exercise is not indicated.
6. 2. The TMN Classification System (T=tumor, M=metastasis, N=node) is a commonly used cancer classification
system. This type of staging offers guidance to health care professionals when determining treatment options, life
expectancy, and prognosis for complete resolution. The physical therapy plan of care may vary significantly based
on the results of the staging.
7. 1. A temperature of 98.9 degrees Fahrenheit represents a slightly elevated temperature when compared to the
average temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit. Since the patient reports being able to exercise and the elevated
temperature is within the accepted normal range (96.8 OF – 99.5OF), the most appropriate action is to continue with
treatment as planned.
8. 4. Immunosuppressive pharmacological agents are desirable when the body loses its ability to differentiate
between the body’s own tissues and pathogenic tissues. While blood cell count provides valuable information
related to the degree of immunosuppression.
9. 3. A bone scan can identify bone disease or stress fractures with as little as 4-7% bone loss. Traditional
radiographs are far less sensitive than bone scans, requiring 30-50% bone loss.
10. 2. The anterior talofibular ligament runs from the anterior portion of the lateral malleolus to the lateral aspect of
the talar neck. The ligament is placed under stress with inversion and plantarflexion. The anterior talofibular,
calcaneofibular, and posterior talofibular ligaments make up the lateral collateral ligaments of the ankle complex.
11. 1. Hematocrit is the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. The hematocrit rises immediately after a
severe burn and gradually decreased with fluid replacement.
12. 1. Osteoporosis is a metabolic bone disease characterized by increased bone resorption resulting in a reduction in
bone mass. Osteoporosis is more prevalent in females than in males, in older more than younger individuals, and in
whites more than in blacks.
13. 2. Diuretics function by increasing the formation and excretion of urine and as a result serve to decrease the
volume of fluid in the vascular system. Sodium depletion (hyponatremia) and potassium depletion (hypokalemia)
are serious side effects of diuretics.
14. 1. The patient is 18 years ole and is therefore considered to be an adult. As a result, the most appropriate physical
therapist action would be to discuss the situation with the patient. It would be inappropriate to schedule a dietary
consult prior to discussing the information with the patient and since the patient has been treated for “several
weeks” it would be of little benefit to continue to monitor the patient.
15. 4. Calcium channel blockers selectively block calcium entry into vascular smooth muscle. This action serves to
inhibit the contractile process resulting in vasodilation and decreased peripheral resistance.
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16. 3. Carpal tunnel syndrome results from repetitive compression of the median nerve where it passes through the
carpal tunnel at the wrist. Nerve conduction velocity can be extremely useful in diagnosing the condition. Less
formal methods to assist in identifying carpal tunnel syndrome include Phalen’s test and Tinel’s sign.
17. 4. The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen while the appendix, gallbladder, and liver are
located on the right side of the body.
18. 1. The injury mechanism associated with an acromioclavicular injury is a direct blow to the tip of the shoulder that
serves to displace the acromion inferior to the clavicle.
19. 4. Although x-rays can be used to assess skeletal maturity, the primary purpose would be to rule out a fracture.
20. 1. Headaches occur in 30%-50% of patients with brain tumors. Visual changes can be caused by space occupying
tumors.
21. 2. The hip is a ball and socket joint whose resting position is 30 degrees flexion, 30 degrees abduction, and slight
lateral rotation. The close packed position is extension and medial rotation.
22. 1. The flexor pollicis brevis inserts on the volar aspect of the base of the proximal phalanx of the thumb. The
muscle flexes the metacarpophalangeal and carpometacarpal joints of the thumb and assists in opposition.
23. 4. The inferior lateral angles of the sacrum are formed by the transverse processes of S5
24. 1. Scapular adductors including the rhomboids, middle trapezius, and the lower trapezius are tested with the patient
in a prone position.
25. 3. Since the “15” is to the left of the “0”, it is indicative of hyperextension. Therefore total available range of
motion is determined as follows: 15 + 150 = 165
26. 2. The end-feel associated with knee flexion is typically described as soft due to contact between the posterior calf
and thigh or between the heel and buttocks.
27. 3. Performing ligamentous testing on an uninvolved joint provides a physical therapist with a valuable baseline that
can then be compared to the involved joint.
28. 2. Grip strength my vary by 5-10% when comparing the dominant and non-dominant hands
29. 1. The trigeminal nerve innervates the primary muscles of mastication including the pterygoids. The pterygoids on
one side function to open the jaw and cause the jaw to deviate to the opposite side. As a result, if the right
pterygoids are weak, the jaw will deviate to the right with opening.
30. 1. Kinesthesia refers to the ability to perceive the extent of direction of movement. An appropriate patient
response must include an indication of the direction of movement while the physical therapist actively moves the
patient’s extremity.
31. 4. The double leg lowering test assesses the strength of the lower abdominals. The test is performed by slowly
lowering the legs from a vertical position with the knees extended.
32. 4. The peroneus tertius acts to dorsiflex the ankle joint and evert the foot. As a result, resistance should be applied
against the lateral side of the dorsal surface of the foot in the direction of plantarflexion and inversion. The deep
peroneal nerve innervates the peroneus tertius.
33. 1. The teres minor is a lateral rotator of the shoulder while the pectoralis major, teres major, and subscapularis are
medial rotators of the shoulder.
34. 1. The biceps is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve via C5-C6 and the brachioradialis reflex is innervated
by the radial nerve via C5-C6
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35. 1. The sinus tarsi area is located immediately anterior to the lateral malleolus. The soft tissue depression consists
of a tunnel between the calcaneus and talus. The anterior talofibular ligament is often the first ligament affected by
an inversion ankle injury.
36. 2. Sensory testing for light touch, is performed by applying the piece of cotton to selected dermatomes and asking
the patient when the sensation is perceived.
37. 3. Measuring from the medial knee joint line to the medial malleolus allows for an independent assessment of tibial
length and also avoids any potential asymmetries due to leg girth.
38. 2. The therapist should perform the test and clear the patient’s vertebral artery for their available range of motion.
As the patient gains additional range of motion, the test can be readministered. It is possible to observe findings
such as nystagmus and slurring of speech prior to achieving full rotation, extension and lateral flexion.
39. 2. This scenario describes Ely’s test which, if positive, is indicative of tightness of the rectus femoris (two joint hip
flexor).
40. 1. Patellar, L3-L4, lateral hamstrings S1-S2, posterior tibial L4-L5, Achilles S1-S2.
41. 3. A blood pressure cuff that is too narrow in relation to a patient’s arm will tend to artificially increase measured
values. The width of the bladder should be 40% of the circumference of the midpoint of the limb. An average size
adult requires a bladder that is 5-6 inches wide.
42. 2. The rooting reflex is a primitive reflex that is normally present from 28 weeks gestation through three months of
age. The reflex assists the mother when feeding an infant.
43. 2. Rating on a perceived exertion scale provides a subjective measure of exercise intensity. A rating of 12 on
Borg’s Rate of Perceived Exertion Scale corresponds to roughly 60 percent of the age-adjusted maximum heart
rate.
44. 3. Step length is defined as the distance between two successive points of contact of opposite extremities.
45. 1. The dorsal pedal artery is located between the tendons of the extensor hallucis longus and the extensor digitorum
longus. The pulse can be absent in up to 15% of the population.
46. 1. Measurement error decreases as the time associated with data collection increases.
47. 1. The posterior cruciate ligament is responsible for preventing posterior displacement of the tibia on the femur.
The ligament is most often injured by a direct force on the tibia, which displaces it in a posterior direction in
relation to the femur.
48. 2. Tactile fremitus is often examined by using a hand or portion of a hand to assess the vibration associated with
spoken words. The examination technique can be used to provide information on the density of the lungs and
thoracic cavity.
49. 4. A sputum sample classified as purulent is described as a viscous fluid exudate that is often yellow or green and
may be associated with acute or chronic infection.
50. 1. The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is a common diagnostic test used to assess the rate of vascular perfusion. The
ABI is determined by dividing the systolic pressure of the lower extremity by the systolic pressure of the upper
extremity.
51. 2. Approximation is a therapeutic exercise technique designed to facilitate contraction and stability through joint
compression.
52. 3. Blanching or whitening of the nailbeds occurs due to the interruption in circulation caused by the physical the
52.rapist’s direct pressure. The capillary refill test is often used as a gross indicator of vascular perfusion. Formatted: Indent: Left: 0.45", No bullets or numbering
Formatted: Bullets and Numbering
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53.3. Positive risk factors for coronary artery disease include age, male gender, family history, current cigarette
smoking, hypertension, Hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus, and sedentary lifestyle. Hypertension combined
with borderline cholesterol levels places the 42-year-old male at the greatest risk for coronary artery disease.
54.53. 2. The pulmonic valve is located between the right ventricle and the opening of the pulmonary artery.
Auscultation should be performed in the second left intercostal space at the left sternal margin.
55.54. 4. Heart rate and perceived exertion are the most appropriate measures to monitor the patient’s response to
exercise, however, perceived exertion is the only subjective measure. In addition, the patient’s heart rate response
would be diminished due to the effect of the beta blockers.
56.55. 1. Bronchophony can be assessed by asking the patient to say “ninety-nine” while the therapist auscultates over the
entire chest. Consolidated tissue will typically yield stronger, louder sounds while hyperinflation results in softer
sounds.
57.56. 3. Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism that results from inadequate production or uptake of
insulin. Signs and symptoms of diabetes mellitus include polyuria, polydipsia, rapid weight loss, polyphagia, and
elevation of blood glucose levels. A normal blood glucose level is 80-100 mg/dL.
58.57. 3. ST segment depression of less than 1 mm may occur in a healthy individual during exercise, however, changes
of greater than 1 mm would be considered abnormal.
59.58. 3. The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is a ratio that is calculated by dividing the lower extremity pressure by the upper
extremity pressure. Normal values for the ABI are 1.0 or slightly higher. Values less than .50 are indicative of
severe arterial disease.
60.59. 4. Full-thickness burns are characterized by complete destruction of the epidermis and dermis with or without
damage to the subcutaneous fat layer. Since new tissue is only generated from the periphery of the burn site, grafts
are necessary.
61.60. 1. A lesion involving the motor component of the facial nerve from damage to the nucleus is considered a lower
motor neuron lesion. The most likely clinical presentation is facial muscle weakness ipsilateral to the lesion.
62.61. 3. Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome. Individuals with this
syndrome are characterized by small testes, abnormally long limbs, and below average intelligence. The syndrome
is estimated to occur in one of 700 live male births.
63.62. 4. A rapidly growing neoplasm often results in pain due to direct pressure displacement of specific nerves. Pain
can also occur due to interference with blood supply or from blockage within an organ. Symptoms are magnified
as the neoplasm continues to grow.
64.63. 1. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is a progressive syndrome marked by muscular weakness and atrophy with
spasticity and hyperreflexia due to degeneration of the motor neurons of the spinal cord, medulla, and cortex. The
disease is commonly referred to as Lou Gehrig’s disease and is not associated with mental deterioration.
65.64. 2. Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition that occurs in patients with spinal cord injuries above the T6 level. The
condition is triggered when a noxious stimuli is present followed by an increase in autonomic responses.
Symptoms include headache, blotching of the skin, dilation of the pupils, nausea, and a dangerous increase in blood
pressure.
66.65. 1. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by decreased pH, increased PaCO2 and HCO3 that is within normal limits.
67.66. 3. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is characterized by progressive reduction in expiratory flow rates.
Hyperinflation of the lungs results in an increase in residual volume.
68.67. 4. The primary cause of shock related to burns is hypovolemia or less of circulating fluid. Symptoms of shock
include a drop in blood pressure, increased pulse rate, and decreased urine output.
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69.68. 3. The hypoglossal nerve innervates the primary muscles of the tongue. As a result, a lower motor neuron disease
affecting the left hypoglossal nerve will cause weakness and resultant deviation of the tongue to the left (toward the
side of weakness). Muscle atrophy is a common finding in lower motor neuron lesions.
70.69. 4. The cerebellum is the area of the brain responsible for modulation of movement. Lesions to the cerebellum may
produce hypotonia, tremor, impaired reflexes, ataxic gait, and nystagmus.
71.70. 2. An impairment is defined as a loss or abnormality of physiological, psychological or anatomic structure or

function.
72.71. 3. If possible, the lateral shift should be corrected prior to any form of active and passive exercise.
73.72. 3. Damage to an artery can create a life threatening emergency that requires immediate medical attention. The
term epiphysis refers to a center for ossification at the end of a long bone.
74.73. 2. The tibialis anterior acts to dorsiflex the ankle joint and invert the foot. Injury to the deep peroneal nerve (L4,
L5, S1) may produce dramatic weakness in dorsiflexion and resultant foot drop.
75.74. 3. The anterior cruciate ligament, lateral collateral ligament, and iliotibial band provide anterolateral stability to the
knee.
76.75. 2. A patient rehabilitating from a CVA with right hemisphere involvement and resultant left hemiplegia would
most likely exhibit impaired awareness of the left side of the body. Other characteristics of this patient may include
poor attention span, left hemianopsia, and impulsive behaviors.
77.76. 2. Ideomotor apraxia refers to an inability to perform movements necessary to use objects properly on command,
although in some instances automatic movement may occur.
78.77. 4. Abnormalities of the vestibular system result in dizziness and impaired balance. The vestibular system itself is
stimulated by the position of the head in space and changes in the direction of movement of the head.
79.78. 4. The Achilles reflex is from the S1 spinal level. Sensation on the posterior calf is from the S1-S2 level while the
bowel is associated with the sacral segments of the spinal cord (S2-S4).
80.79. 4. The patient’s signs and symptoms are consistent with the presence of a deep venous thrombosis. Referral for
additional medical examination is necessary.
81.80. 2. The physical therapist should answer questions asked by the family as long as they are within the therapist’s
scope of practice. A therapist should possess a basic understanding of expected functional outcomes of patients
with spinal cord injuries.
82.81. 4. The cultural background of a patient without additional information offers little indication as to the patient’s
ability to comprehend a home exercise program.
83.82. 4. A functional progression is a series of progressive active movements designed to simulate a selected sport or
activity. Failure to successfully complete a functional progression often indicates that a patient is not ready to
return to competition.
84.83. 2. Key muscles that are partially or fully innervated at the C6 level include the brachialis, biceps, trapezius,
deltoids, rhomboids, latissimus dorsi, rotator cuff, serratus anterior, and extensor carpi radialis.
85.84. 2. The patient should return to his previous functional activity level in a matter of weeks following a grade I medial
collateral ligament sprain.
86.85. 2. Although there is a wide range of outcomes with non-operative anterior cruciate ligament injuries, most
individuals are able to return to a minimum level of light recreational sports. Therapeutic management of an
anterior cruciate ligament injury includes range of motion, progressive resistive exercises, functional activities, and
bracing.
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87.86. 2. The rate and amount of bone healing as determined through radiographs determines the actual amount of time an
external fixation device is applied. A general estimate of the necessary time would be at 6-8 weeks.
88.87. 1. Positioning the neck in extension and extremes of rotation places the vertebral artery in a compromised position.
Extension, sidebending, and rotation are components of the vertebral artery test.
89.88. 2. Surgical repair of the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb requires a pin to be inserted into the
metacarpophalangeal joint of the thumb. The pin may remain in place for 3-6 weeks followed by the application of
a wrist and thumb splint. Progressive strengthening typically commences at eight weeks and a return to
unrestricted activity may occur at approximately 12 weeks.
90.89. 2. Many patients on extended bed rest following a burn experience significant cardiovascular complications. A
functional capacity of 10 or more metabolic equivalents is a good indication that a formal cardiovascular
rehabilitation program is not necessary. An intensity of 10 METs corresponds to running at six miles per hour.
91.90. 3. A patient functioning at Rancho Los Amigos Level IV, confused agitated, may be particularly susceptible to
changes in behavior based on fatigue. Ideally the physical therapist should attempt to maintain the integrity of the
current treatment regimen, however, if increased rest periods do not produce an observable change in the patient’s
behavior it may be appropriate to modify other parameters such as the frequency or length of treatment.
92.91. 2. Chemotherapy uses toxic chemicals to destroy cancerous cells in an attempt to reduce the size of a tumor for
resection or palliative care. Chemotherapy is a systemic intervention usually administered by an intravenous line.
Excessive fatigue caused by chemotherapy can considerably limit the patient’s ability to participate in a formal
exercise program.
93.92. 3. Therapists should treat all patients as if they have a potentially transmissible or infectious disease. Therapists
have the responsibility to treat patients regardless of their particular medical diagnosis.
94.93. 2. A patient with complete paraplegia would likely be able to achieve a reflexogenic erection, but would be less
likely to ejaculate.
95.94. 2. A patient with peripheral vascular disease that presents with resting claudication is not a candidate for an
ambulation exercise program.
96.95. 4. Activities requiring increased circulation through muscle pumping can significantly reduce the incidence for
acquiring a deep venous thrombosis. Although ankle pumps and muscle setting exercises are commonly prescribed
following surgery, higher level activities such as ambulation on a frequent schedule will be more effective to
achieve the stated objective. Signs and symptoms of a deep venous thrombosis include a positive Homans’ sign,
swelling, redness, and warmth in the calf. Physical therapy treatment should not continue until a physician
evaluates and clears the patient.
97.96. 3. Home health services are warranted based on the patient’s homebound status and present functional level.
98.97. 2. The patient appears to bea making progress through the established short-term goals and by developing
additional, perhaps more appropriate, short-term goals it may facilitate achievement of the established long-term
goal. Not enough information is given to assume the long-term goal is unrealistic particularly since the patient is
making progress.
99.98. 4. The patient has achieved all established short and long-term goals and has returned to his previous lifestyle.
There is no longer a need for physical therapy services.
100.99. 4. The question asked by the spouse falls within the therapist’s scope of practice and should therefore be answered
directly.
101.100. 2. Occupational therapists focus on activities of daily living, work and leisure skills, and as a result may be best
suited to address the obstacles that impact the patient’s ability to return to work.
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102.101. 3. The statement “having cancer must be very difficult for you to deal with” acknowledges the patient’s present
condition without providing a false sense of hope. This type of approach is particularly important with patients
who have recently been diagnosed with a terminal disease.
103.102. 2. A physical therapist should attempt to determine if a patient is under the influence of alcohol. Alcohol
consumption can significantly influence a patient’s ability to tolerate treatment. Asking the patient directly is an
immediate step that can be used to gather additional information.
104.103. 3. It is essential to assess the needs of the target audience prior to designing a formal or informal presentation.
105.104. 1. It is often advisable to review an exercise program with a patient. It is particularly essential in the given
scenario since failure to perform the exercises correctly could have a detrimental effect on the patient’s condition.
Although some of the other presented options may be appropriate, they would not offer the same degree of benefit
for the patient.
106.105. 1. A supportive spouse can be extremely helpful to a patient completing a home exercise program. In order for
the spouse to be an asset, she must first recognize the value of the program.
107.106. 2. By addressing the issue directly with the patient, the physical therapist may improve compliance with the
weight bearing restrictions and therefore promote a better environment for tissue healing.
108.107. 2. Operant conditioning is a form of learning where a particular action or behavior is followed by the
administration of a reward (positive reinforcement). B. F. Skinner first publicized this learning approach.
109.108. 2. The presence of parents can often be reassuring to a young child when confronted with a new experience.
110.109. 1. Isometric exercises are often the strengthening exercise of choice for patients with acute osteoarthritis. This
form of exercise limits muscle atrophy while avoiding unnecessary stress on the joint. Avoiding strengthening
exercises until the patient is pain free is unrealistic given the diagnosis of osteoarthritis.
111.110. 3. The patient’s inability to communicate using the English language necessitates the use of an interpreter.
112.111. 2. Although each of the options is a viable answer, the therapist’s primary responsibility is direct patient care.
Failure to provide physical therapy services to a patient for this period of time in an acute care environment could
pose a serious problem.
113.112. 2. Effusion is defined as an increased volume of fluid within the joint capsule. Edema is defined as an increased
volume of fluid in the soft tissue external to the joint.
114.113. 1. The therapist’s hypothesis necessitates contact with the referring physician, however, does not indicate the need
to discontinue physical therapy services.
115.114. 3. Reminding the patient of the donning instructions for the orthosis provides the patient with the best opportunity
to learn the correct technique. Although reapplying the orthosis correctly at the conclusion of the treatment session
is appropriate, the action does not provide any specific feedback to the patient.
116.115. 4. The physician is responsible to determining when the sling can be discontinued.
117.116. 3. Lecture, handouts, and demonstration provide not only verbal and written information, but provide the target
audience with the opportunity to observe an actual demonstration. This multi-tiered approach accommodates for a
variety of learning styles.
118.117. 1. Domains of learning include cognitive, affective, and psychomotor. Bloom’s Taxonomy of Education
Objectives identifies six levels of cognitive domain: knowledge, comprehension, application, analysis, synthesis,
and evaluation. Listing potential complications of improperly designed workstation requires knowledge and is
therefore considered to be in the cognitive domain.
119.118. 4. Due to the patient’s age it would be appropriate to ask a family member to come into the room. To reprimand
the boy in any form may only serve to diminish compliance.
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38 Answers
120.119. 3. A patient’s question should be answered in a direct and forthcoming manner whenever possible. Frequent
repetition is a component of any treatment plan for patients with short term memory loss.
121.120. 1. In contract-relax the build up of tension is immediate and may therefore be problematic when the limitation in
movement is accompanied by pain. In contrast, hold-relax requires a radial build up of tension over a period
several seconds and is therefore often the treatment of choice when pain is present.
122.121. 3. Termination guidelines for submaximal exercise testing indicate that a subject should not exceed 85% of
his/her age-predicted maximal heart rate.
123.122. 1. The glenohumeral joint is a ball and socket joint consisting of the convex head of the humerus articulating with
the concave glenoid fossa of the scapula. Lateral distraction and anterior glide of the glenohumeral joint can be
utilized to increase lateral rotation and extension.
124.123. 2. Tall kneeling follows the quadruped position in the developmental sequence. Tall kneeling emphasizes hip
extension in combination with knee flexion and serves to promote stability.
125.124. 1. Archimedes’ principle of buoyancy states that a body immersed in a liquid experiences an upward force equal
to the weight of the displaced liquid. In aquatic therapy, a patient may experience greater ease of movement due to
the buoyant force of the water.
126.125. 2. Contract-relax is a therapeutic technique designed to increase range of motion in muscles on one side of a joint.
Tightness of the hamstrings and hip extensors would serve to limit a straight leg raise.
127.126. 4. Frenkel’s exercises are designed to improve coordination by emphasizing the use of vision and hearing to
compensate for altered or impaired proprioception.
128.127. 4. The traditional progression from lowest to highest level is: lie in prone on a firm surface, prone on elbows,
prone press-up, extension exercises in standing.
129.128. 2. Hooklying is a term used to describe a position where a patient is in supine with the hips and knees flexed and
the feet in contact with the floor. In this position the physical therapist can facilitate lower trunk rotation by
moving the lower extremities across the midline.
130.129. 3. Since the pelvic floor muscles are weak and the patient is “initiating” the strengthening exercises, it is desirable
for periods of rest to exceed the periods of exercise. Weak pelvic floor muscles generally require twice as much
rest time as hold time.
131.130. 1. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex may produce extension of the affected upper extremity by turning the
patient’s head toward the affected side.
132.131. 2. Submaximal exercise testing protocols usually consist of a number of three minute stages with increasing
increments of work. Heart rate should be formally measured at least two times during each stage. Heart rate
should reach “steady-state” (two heart rate should reach 6 beats per minute) before the work rate is increased.
133.132. 1. A cool down or recovery period should occur at an intensity equal to or lower than the intensity of the first
stage of the exercise test protocol.
134.133. 3. The amount of muscle force generated by short arc quadriceps exercises causes and anterior gliding force on
the tibia and may plan an undesirable amount of stress on the patient’s reconstructed ligament given his post-
operative status.
135.134. 1. Quadriceps setting exercises and biofeedback provide an excellent opportunity for the patient to selectively
train the vastus medialis obliquus (VMO). Biofeedback can offer the patient auditory or visual feedback that can
assist the patient to enhance VMO activity.
136.135. 2. Insertion of the catheter into the patient’s trachea necessitates the use of sterile gloves.
137.136. 4. Activities in a phase I cardiac rehabilitation program typically progress up to 3 METs.
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138.137. 4. Patients with chronic arterial insufficiency typically have diminished blood flow and resultant ischemia.
Positioning with the legs elevated will serve to exacerbate the patient’s symptoms.
139.138. 2. A posterior glide of the femur on the acetabulum is indicated to increase hip flexion and medial rotation.
140.139. 1. The glenohumeral joint is a ball and socket joint that has three axes and three degrees of freedom. The close
packed position is full abduction and lateral rotation, while the open packed or resting position is 55 degrees of
abduction and 30 degrees of horizontal adduction.
141.140. 4. A patient with paraplegia does not require the use of projection wheel rims due to full innervation of the upper
extremities. Patients with C5-C6 tetraplegia utilize projection handrims in order to assist with normal wheelchair
propulsion.
142.141. 1. A posterior leaf spring ankle-foot orthosis is a plastic insert with a semirigid posterior upright that yields
slightly at heel contact and recoils when the brace is unloaded during the swing phase. It is used to assist with
dorsiflexion, however, does not promote medial or lateral stability.
143.142. 3. The patient would likely utilize a three-point gait pattern using axillary crutches. A three-point gait pattern can
accommodate different levels of weight bearing.
144.143. 4. Inadequate seat width results in difficulty changing positions, pressure on the greater trochanters, and difficulty
wearing bulky clothing or orthoses.
145.144. 4. Rehabilitative braces with flexion and extension settings are designed to allow controlled motion within a
specified range of motion. The braces function to protect the injured limb during the early phases of rehabilitation.
146.145. 4. Thoraco-lumbar-sacral orthoses limit spinal motion of the lower thoracic and upper lumbar spine and are
commonly used following surgery or as a result of an injury to the spine.
147.146. 1. Minimal contact with the skin allows a metal upright ankle foot orthosis to accommodate for fluctuating edema
while providing the appropriate support to the ankle joint.
148.147. 4. A walker provides the necessary stability for a patient that is touchdown weight bearing. The platform
attachment permits weight bearing through the involved arm without placing undue stress on the distal radius. A
rolling walker may not provide enough stability given the patient’s weight bearing status.
149.148. 3. Using the cane in the left hand will allow the patient to shift her center of gravity away from the involved lower
extremity and therefore reduce the pressure on the injured ankle.
150.149. 1. The calf band of an ankle-foot orthosis should be placed immediately inferior to the fibular head. A calf band
superior to the level of the fibular head may interfere with the normal function of the knee, while placement directly
over the fibular head may result in impingement of the peroneal nerve.
151.150. 1. A tilt-in-space wheelchair is designed to provide pressure relief without shearing forces. The wheelchair has a
fixed seat to back angle even when reclined and as a result is often able to accommodate customized seating
systems. The wheelchair is commonly prescribed for patients unable to perform independent pressure relief.
152.151. 1. A significant cognitive impairment may result in a patient being unable to safely use axillary crutches.
153.152. 4. A prosthesis with insufficient length would not be responsible for excessive lateral rotation of the prosthesis
upon heel strike. The deviation may be caused by weak hip medial rotators, poor suspension of the prosthesis or
excessive toe-out of the prosthesis.
154.153. 3. A patient with T5 paraplegia should be able to complete bathroom transfers using adaptive devices such as
grab bars. The patient would possess full upper extremity innervation and limited trunk control.
155.154. 2. Anti-tip tubes are designed to prevent a patient from tipping over while in a wheelchair during activities of
daily living. A patient with C5 tetraplegia would be the most likely candidate to benefit from this option based on
the patient’s expected level of function following discharge from the rehabilitation hospital.
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40 Answers
156.155. 3. Detachable armrests will make it easier for the patient to correctly position the sliding board and successfully
transfer from the wheelchair to the bed.
157.156. 2. A sliding transfer with draw sheet is the only transfer that will allow the patient to maintain a position of less
than 30 degrees of upper body elevation.
158.157. 3. Since the patient has a sensory alteration and ambulating a distance of only sixty feet created irritation, it is
advisable to avoid utilizing the orthosis until modifications are made.
159.158. 4. The packages may be too heavy or the conveyor belt may be too high. In both cases the task is too difficult for
the patient.
160.159. 3. Pushing up on the chair with both hands provides the most stable base to achieve a standing position. It is
important not to reach for the walker while standing since the action may have a tendency to move the patient’s
center of gravity outside their base of support.
161.160. 3. Diaphragmatic breathing is often used as a method to increase activity of the diaphragm during inspiration,
while diminishing the reliance of accessory muscles.
162.161. 2. In diaphragmatic breathing, the patient’s hand placed over the midrectus area should rise during inspiration and
fall during expiration.
163.162. 4. Continuous ultrasound at 2-4 W/cm2 over a fracture site is excessive and can be potentially dangerous to the
patient.
164.163. 4. Internal or external metallic objects, including surgical metal implants, are contraindications for shortwave
diathermy. Failure to recognize the presence of a surgical metal implant may result in excessive heat production
and subsequent tissue damage.
165.164. 2. Continuous ultrasound is commonly used to treat patients with healed burns due to its ability to increase the
extensibility of collagen and decrease pain.
166.165. 1. Paraffin is a superficial heating agent that is commonly used to treat the distal extremities. Due to the number
of joints involved, immersion in paraffin is an appropriate and practical selection.
167.166. 2. High-voltage current is characterized by monophasic waveform usually delivered in spike pulse pairs. High-
voltage current utilizes an extremely short pulse duration and voltage greater than 150 volts; as a result the total
average current is quite low. High-voltage current is most often used to provide sensory level stimulation.
168.167. 3. A physical therapist should not administer any form of treatment without patient consent.
169.168. 2. The anterior aspect of the forearm is a common site utilized for determining the minimal erythemal dose since
it is relatively easy to determine mild reddening of the skin in this area. It may at times, however, be more
appropriate to determine the minimal erythemal dose on the area to be treated.
170.169. 3. Ultrasound using the underwater technique eliminates the need for contact between the soundhead and the area
being sonated.
171.170. 1. Supplemental oxygen is often warranted when the partial pressure of arterial oxygen is less than 60 mmHg or
when arterial saturation is below 90%. A partial pressure of arterial oxygen of 70 mmHg corresponds to arterial
saturation of 92-93%. Normal pH is 7.35-7.45.
172.171. 4. The supplied description accurately describes the position and technique associated with bronchial drainage to
the superior segments of the lower lobes.
173.172. 4. Pursed-lip breathing is a technique designed to improve ventilation and oxygenation. Studies indicate that
pursed-lip breathing decreases respiratory rate, increases tidal volume, and improves cardiac tolerance.
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174.173. 1. A physical therapist should always check the patient’s skin prior to adjusting the number of towel layers
utilized with a hot pack.
175.174. 4. The greater the distance between the electrodes the deeper the current can penetrate. When electrodes are
placed in close proximity the current will flow superficially and current density will be greatest to the skin between
the electrodes.
176.175. 3. For each inch of vertical rise a properly constructed ramp will have 12 inches of length.
177.176. 3. The Trendelenburg position is an inclined position in which the body and legs are elevated in relation to the
head. This position is not recommended for patients with a known or suspected head injury secondary to an
increase in intracranial pressure.
178.177. 4. A warm water bath is the most appropriate superficial heating agent to incorporate into the home program since
it is readily available and easily applied to the lower leg and foot.
179.178. 3. Percussion is a technique that can be used to mobilize retained secretions. The technique involves direct
contact over a given segment of the lung and should therefore be used with caution based on the patient’s past
medical history.
180.179. 4. A rigid dressing will serve to immobilize the injured area and offer protection from outside contaminants.
181.180. 4. The dependent variable is defined as the conditions or characteristics that appear, disappear or change as the
experimenter introduces, removes or changes the independent variable. In this particular study ultrasound is the
independent variable, while blood flow and nerve conduction velocity are the dependent variables.
182.181. 2. A legal guardian or parent must sign the informed consent form for a minor.
183.182. 1. Physical therapists are required to report known or suspected abuse to enforcement agencies. These agencies
include, but are not limited to, adult protective services and local state law enforcement.
184.183. 2. All of the presented options are signs of a heart attack, however, chest pain is considered the most significant.
In addition to chest pain, patients may experience pain in the arm, neck, and shoulder.
185.184. 4. It is essential to ascertain if research exists on the effectiveness of treating psoriatic lesions with ultraviolet
prior to initiating a formal research project.
186.185. 4. The physical therapist must take immediate action to resolve the situation by speaking directly to the involved
therapists. Patient information should not be discussed in or around a public area.
187.186. 1. An insulin reaction is often associated with hypoglycemia or low blood sugar. Treatment for hypoglycemia
includes the administration of food or drink containing sugar.
188.187. 4. Pressure applied to an artery proximal to an injury site may be helpful to control bleeding.
189.188. 3. A systematic sample is often used in place of random sample when a population can be accurately listed or is
finite. Members of the sample are automatically selected once the first subject has been chosen.
190.189. 4. Mouth to mouth and nose breathing is appropriate for an infant (less than one year old).
191.190. 1. The correct sequence is as follows: removal of current dressings, gentle debridement in a hydrotherapy tank,
reapplication of the topical antibiotic, application of gauze wraps in a distal to proximal pattern.
192.191. 4. A seizure occurs as a result of abnormal stimulation of brain cells. Intervention should be initially limited to
protecting the patient from injury. A seizure typically lasts less than two minutes.
193.192. 1. The kitchen sink is often the site for food preparation and other essential functions of daily living. As a result,
it is an inappropriate site for hand washing due to the potential to spread infectious material.
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194.193. 1. Dentures that are not loose should not be removed during rescue breathing since then can assist the therapist to
form an appropriate seal around the patient’s mouth.
195.194. 1. The location and size of the wound combined with a limited amount of drainage make gloves the most
appropriate form of medical asepsis when changing the dressing.
196.195. 3. A physical therapist will be much more efficient and effective in responding to an emergency with the
assistance of other trained professionals. The question provides little information on the number of patients within
the treatment area or the size of the health care facility; as a result the most appropriate response is to seek
assistance by using the public address system. Although attempting to contain the fire through a specific action
such as closing the door is very appropriate, other methods of containment such as attempting to extinguish the fire
could further jeopardize the safety of the therapist and patient.
197.196. 1. Autonomy is defined as independent functioning. As an ethical term it refers to the patient’s freedom to decide
or freedom to act.
198.197. 3. Physical therapist assistants perform procedures and related tasks that have been selected and delegated by the
supervising physical therapist. It is not appropriate to delegate an examination.
199.198. 4. The Code of Ethics states that physical therapists seek reimbursement for their services that is deserved and
reasonable. Accepting a check from a patient, regardless of its use, is unacceptable.
200.199. 2. The therapist has made a judgment that the patient “lacks the necessary strength and coordination required to
complete the activity independently”. The only method to resolve the situation and be sure the patient is unharmed
is to become directly involved.
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Practice Questions 1

71.70. 2. An impairment is defined as a loss or abnormality of physiological, psychological or anatomic structure or

137.136. 4. Activities in a phase I cardiac rehabilitation program typically progress up to 3 METs.

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