Hypertension NCLEX Quiz Questions: A. I Will Make Sure I Consume Foods High in Potassium

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Key takeaways from the passages include risk factors for hypertension like obesity, smoking, and family history. The passages also discuss medications used to treat hypertension and their common side effects like dry cough. Additionally, it discusses how hypertension can affect organs like the heart, brain, and kidneys.

Risk factors for hypertension include obesity, smoking, family history of hypertension or diabetes. A healthy diet, exercise, weight control, and avoiding smoking can help reduce risk.

Common side effects of medications used to treat hypertension include dry cough (from diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide) and swelling of tissues (from calcium channel blockers). Close monitoring for side effects is important.

Hypertension NCLEX Quiz Questions

1. A patient is being discharged home on Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for treatment of


hypertension. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates they understood your
discharge teaching about this medication?

A. I will make sure I consume foods high in potassium.

B. I will only take this medication if my blood pressure is high.

C. I understand a dry cough is a common side effect with this medication.

D. I will monitor my glucose levels closely because this medication may mask symptoms of
hypoglycemia.

2. Which of the following patients does not have a risk factor for hypertension?

A. A 25 year old male with a BMI of 35.

B. A 35 year old female with a total cholesterol level of 100.

C. A 68 year old male who reports smoking 2 packs of cigarettes a day.

D. A 40 year old female with a family history of hypertension and diabetes.

3. A patient with hypertension is started on a new medication for treatment and is reporting a
continuous dry cough. Which of the following medications do you suspect is causing this
problem?

A. Lisinopril

B. Labetalol

C. Losartan

D. Hydrochlorothiazide

4. Which of the following patients is not a candidate for a beta blocker medication?

A. A 45 year old male with angina.

B. A 39 year old female with asthma.

C. A 25 year old female with migraines.

D. A 55 year old male with a history of two heart attacks.

5. Which family of drugs are the following medications considered: Amlodipine, Verapamil,
Diltiazem?

A. Beta blockers (BB)

B. ACE Inhibitors (ACEI)

C. Angiotension Receptor Blockers (ARBs)

D. Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs)


Hypertension NCLEX Quiz Questions

6. Which of the following systems of the body are affected by hypertension?

A. Cardiovascular, brain, kidney, eyes

B. Cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, reproductive, and kidney

C. Brain, respiratory, kidney, cardiovascular

D. None of the above

7. Non-pharmacological techniques can help lower blood pressure. Which of the following is not
considered one of these types of techniques?

A. Dietary changes

B. Multivitamins

C. Smoking cessation

D. Limiting caffeine

8. Which of the following drugs is NOT considered an Angiotension Receptor Blocker (ARBs)
medication used in hypertension?

A. Catapres

B. Losartan

C. Benicar

D. Valsartan

9. A patient is scheduled to take Captopril. When is the best time to administer this medication?

A. 30 minutes after a meal

B. At bedtime

C. In the morning

D. 1 hour before a meal

10. True or False: Most patients with hypertension are asymptomatic.


Hypertension NCLEX Quiz Questions

QUESTIONS:
1. A patient with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 25%. What does this information
indicate to the nurse about the patient's health status?

1. Ventricular function is severely impaired


2. Cardiac output is greater than normal, which overtaxes the heart
3. The amount of blood being ejected from the ventricles is within normal limits
4. Twenty-five percent of the blood entering the ventricle remains in the ventricle after systole

1. Normal ejection fraction is 60%. An ejection fraction of 25% indicates severe impairment of
ventricular function; CO is decreased.

2. A patient admitted 24 hours ago previously with heart failure has lost 1 kg of weight, has a
heart rate of 88, which was 105 on admission, and now has crackles only in the bases of the
lungs. How should the nurse interpret these assessment findings?

1. More aggressive treatment is needed


2. The patient's condition unchanged from admissions
3. The treatment regimen is achieving the desired effect
4. No further treatment is required at this time because the failure has resolved

3. The main goals for care of heart failure are to slow its progression, reduce cardiac workload,
improve cardiac function, and control fluid retention. A weight loss of 1 kg and crackles in the
lung bases indicate control of fluid retention. A HR of 88 indicates reduced cardiac workload
and improved cardiac function. The patient's condition has improved since admission. Because
the patient continues to have crackles in the lungs, heart failure has not completely resolved.

3. A patient is diagnosed with left ventricular failure. Which findings should the nurse
recognize as being consistent with this diagnosis? (Select all that apply)

1. Fatigue
2. Substernal chest pain during exercise
3. 5 cm jugular vein distention at 30 degrees
4. Bilateral inspiratory crackles to midscapulae
5. Complaints of shortness of breath with minimal exertion

1,4,5

In left ventricular failure, the CO falls and pressure in the pulmonary vascular system increases.
Fatigue is a common early manifestation. Pulmonary congestion causes shortness of breath
with minimal exertion. On auscultation of the lungs, inspiratory crackles may be heard in the
lung bases. Jugular vein distention is a manifestation of right ventricular failure. Chest pain with
exercise can be due to angina pectoris or valvular disease.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient undergoing pulmonary artery pressure monitoring. What
should the nurse include when caring for this patient? (Select all that apply)

1. Maintain flush solution flow by gravity


2. Calibrate and level the system every shift
3. Secure the IV line to the bed linens
4. Change tubing to the insertion site every 72 hours
5. Report waveform dampening during wedge pressure measurements

2,4
Hypertension NCLEX Quiz Questions

Calibrating and leveling the system ring each shift ensures accuracy and consistency of
measurements. To prevent infection, the tubing to the insertion site should be changed every
72 hours. There should be 300 mmHg of pressure on the flush solution at all times to prevent
clot formation and catheter occlusion. The IV lines should not be secured to the bed linens. This
could lead to accidental dislodging. Pressure trends and not individual readings should be
monitored. Individual readings may not reflect the patient's true status.

5. A patient experiencing acute pulmonary edema is prescribed morphine sulfate 2-5 mg IV as


needed for pain and dyspnea. What action should the nurse take with this prescribed
medication?

1. Administer the drug as ordered, monitoring respiratory status


2. Withhold the drug until the patient's respiratory status improves
3. Questions the order because no time intervals have been specified
4. Administer the drug only when the patient complains of chest pain

1. Morphine is administered IV to relieve anxiety and improve the efficacy of breathing. It also
is a vasodilator that reduces venous return and lowers left atrial pressure. The nurse should
provide the medication and monitor the patient's respiratory status. The medication should not
be withheld to wit for the patient's respiratory status to improve. The medication order is
correct as written and does not need to be questioned. The medication is not being used to
treat chest pain.

6. The nurse notes a grating heart sound when auscultating the apical pulse of a patient with
pericarditis. What should the nurse do with this assessment data?

1. Obtain an ECG
2. Initiate resuscitation measures
3. Immediately notify the physician
4. Note the finding in the patient's medical record

4. A pericardial friction rub, a grating sound, is a characteristic sign of pericarditis so it is


expected, but should be documented in the patient's record. An electrocardiogram is not
needed after auscultating this sound. The patient does not need to be resuscitated.

7. The nurse is planning care for a patient with acute infective endocarditis. What would be
an appropriate goal of nursing care for this patient?

1. Resume usual activities within 1 week of treatment


2. Relate the benign and self-limiting nature of the disease
3. Consider cardiac transplantation as a viable treatment option
4. State the importance of continuing IV antibiotic therapy as ordered

4. Antibiotic therapy effectively treats infective endocarditis in most cases. The goal of therapy
is to eradicate the infecting organism from the blood and vegetative lesions in the heart. Since
microorganisms may have a fibrin covering that protects them from antibiotic therapy, an
extended course of multiple IV antibiotics is required.

8. The nurse is assessing heart sounds of a patient scheduled for mitral valve replacement
surgery. Which sound should the nurse expect to auscultate in this patient?

1. Cardiac heave
2. Muffled heart sounds
3. S3 and S4 heart sounds
4. Diastolic murmur heard at the apex
Hypertension NCLEX Quiz Questions

4. The murmur of mitral valve stenosis would be heard during diastole when blood is flowing
through the stenotic valve from the atrium to the ventricle at the apex of the heart. A cardiac
heave and S3 and S4 heart sounds are associated with aortic regurgitation. Muffled heart
sounds are associated with cardiac tamponade.

9. A patient considering heart valve replacement asks if a biologic or mechanical valve is


better to use. How should the nurse respond?

1. Biologic valves tend to be more durable than mechanical valves.


2. The need to take drugs to prevent rejection of biologic tissue is a major consideration
3. Clotting is a risk with mechanical valves, necessitating anticoagulant drug therapy after
insertion
4. Endocarditis is a risk following valve replacement that is more easily treated with mechanical
valves

3. Lifetime anticoagulant therapy to prevent clot formation is necessary following insertion of a


mechanical valve. Biologic valves are prone to deterioration. Drugs to prevent tissue rejection
are not needed after biologic valve replacement surgery. Infections are easier to treat after
biologic valve replacement surgery

10. The parents of a young athlete who collapsed and dies due to hypertrophic
cardiomyopathy ask how it is possible that their son had no symptoms of this disorder before
experiencing sudden cardiac death. How should the nurse respond to the parents?

1. It is likely that your son had symptoms of the disorder before he died, but he may not have
thought them important enough to tell someone about.
2. In this type of cardiomyopathy, the ventricle does not fill normally. During exercise, heart
may not be able to meet the body's needs for blood and oxygen
3. Cardiomyopathy results in destruction and scarring of cardiac muscle cells. As a result, the
ventricle may rupture during strenuous exercise, leading to sudden death
4. Exercise causes the heart to contract more forcefully, and can lead to changes in the heart's
rhythm or the outflow of blood from the heart in people with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

4. In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, manifestations may not develop l the demand for oxygen
increases, such as with athletes during activity, causing sudden death due to a ventricular
dysrythmia. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by eased compliance of the left
ventricle and hypertrophy of the ventricle muscle mass. This impairs ventricular filling, leading
to small end-diastolic volumes and low cardiac output. It may be asymptomatic for many years,
but symptoms typically occur when increased oxygen demand causes increased ventricular
contractility. They may develop suddenly during or after physical activity; in children and young
adults, sudden cardiac death may be the first sign of the disorder. This type of cardiomyopathy
does not lead to ventricular dysrythmia.

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