Physics Answers From Book Esqs
Physics Answers From Book Esqs
Physics Answers From Book Esqs
questions
Unit 1
[σ ]2 × [d] ( Nm ) × m
−2 2
so, [γ ] = [k 2 ] × [ E ] = Nm −2 = Nm −1 = (Nm ) × m −2 = Jm −2
3 100
Mass of runner ≈ 80 kg; top speed ≈ = 10 m s−1
10
1 1 B[1]
E k = mv 2 = × 80 × 102 = 4000 J
2 2
= 4kJ
4 The only vector (having both magnitude and direction) is momentum. C[1]
5 –b
a
C[1]
a + (–b)
7
6 1 year ≈ 3 × 10 s
1 light-year = dist. travelled by light in 1 year
D[1]
= (3 × 108) × (3 × 107) = 9 × 1015 m
diameter of Milky Way galaxy = 105 light-years = 105 × (9 × 1015) ≈ 1021 m
5
7 (a) (i) 470 kΩ = 4.7 × 10 Ω [1]
−6 −3
(ii) 1000 μF = 1000 × 10 = 1.0 × 10 F [1]
(iii) 0.05 nm = 0.05 × 10−9 = 5.0 × 10−11 m [1]
6
(b) (i) 6.4 × 10 m = 6400 km = 6.4 Mm [1]
1
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
(ii) 0.0075 A = 7.5 mA [1]
8 −1 −1 −1
(iii) 3.0 × 10 m s = 300 Mm s = 0.3 Gm s [1]
8 (a) A scalar quantity only has magnitude. A vector quantity has both magnitude and
[1]
direction.
(b) The vector quantities are weight and acceleration. Stress is not strictly a vector as
[2]
it does not add up in the same way as vectors − it is a tensor.
9 (a) (i) F cos θ [1]
(ii) T sin θ [1]
(iii) W sin θ [1]
(b) Resolving forces along the slope: T = F + W sin θ [1]
10 (a) A mole is the quantity of a substance consisting of identical particles that
23 [1]
contains NA particles of the substance, where NA is Avogadro’s constant: 6.02 × 10
2
Answers to exam-style questions 2
Unit 2
3
Unit 3
Distance / m
200
320 m
150 D[1]
100
50
16 s
0
0 10 20 30
Time / s
3 The upwards direction is taken as the positive direction for displacement, velocity
and acceleration.
Applying s = ut + ½at2 from the moment the stone is released until the stone hits
the ground: A[1]
2
−H = 20 × 6.0 + ½ × (−9.8) × 6.0
H = ½ × 9.8 × 6.02 − 20 × 6.0 = 56.4 m
4 (a) A scalar quantity only has magnitude; a vector quantity has both magnitude and
[1]
direction.
(b) speed displacement acceleration velocity [1]
(c) (i) Let the time for the ball to reach the net be t.
a = g = 9.81 m s−2
A –1
60 m s
1.40m
11.90m
4
Answers to exam-style questions 3
1.40 m
11.90 m x
5
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
Applying s = ut + ½at2 vertically upwards (displacement, velocity and acceleration
are positive in the upwards direction):
y = 9.0 sin 70° × 1.56 + ½ × (−9.81) × 1.562 = 1.26 m ✓ [1]
height h of basket = 1.80 + 1.26 = 3.06 m ✓ [1]
(b) The velocity of the basketball when it reaches the basket has two components:
horizontal component of velocity, vx = 3.08 m s−1 (horizontal component is constant)
The vertical component vy can be found by applying v = u + at vertically upwards
(displacement, velocity and acceleration are positive in the upwards direction):
vy= 9.0 sin 70° + (−9.81) × 1.56 = −6.85 m s−1 ✓ [1]
The negative sign indicates that the velocity is downwards.
The resultant velocity v is found by adding the two vectors vx and vy.
vx
θ
vy v
6
Answers to exam-style questions 4
Unit 4
a=
( 4.2 × 10 ) 7 2
= 5.9 × 1016 m s −2
C[1]
−3
2 × 15 × 10
Using F = ma:
force on the electron = 9.11 × 10−31 × 5.9 × 1016 = 5.4 × 10−14 N
2 Let T be the tension in the cables. Applying F = ma:
T
T − 1.4 × 103 × 9.81 = 1.4 × 103 × 1.6
T = 1.4 × 103 × 1.6 + 1.4 × 103 × 9.81
1.4 × 103 kg 1.6 m s–2 D[1]
T = 16.0 kN
1.4 × 103 g N
3 Applying F = ma horizontally:
40 × 9.81
600 cos 40° − = 40 a, where a is the acceleration of the box
2
B[1]
263.4
a= = 6.6 ms −2
40
4 Let the speed of 0.7 kg mass be v after the collision. Using the principle of
conservation of momentum:
7
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
(c) (i) Using the principle of conservation of momentum in a direction perpendicular to
the original direction of travel of the first stone:
18 × (v/2)sin 60° = 18 × v sin θ ✓ [1]
sin θ = 0.433 ⇒ θ = 25.7° ✓ [1]
(ii) Using the principle of conservation of momentum in the original direction of
travel of the first stone:
⇒ 18 × 4.0 = 18 × v cos θ + 18 × (v/2) cos 60° ✓ [1]
Re-arranging:
cos 60°
18v (cos θ + ) = 18 × 4.0
2
substituting θ = 25.7°:
4.0
v= = 3.5 m s −1 ✓ [1]
cos 25.7° + cos 60°
2
8
Answers to exam-style questions 5
Unit 5
170 N
12.0 N
1.0 m
50°
4.8 kN
T
9
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
6 T1 T2
20°
20° 30° T1
50°
3.0 × 104 N
T2
30°
3.0 × 104 N
The triangle of forces should be drawn to a suitable scale (e.g. 1.0 cm represents
2.0 × 103 N). The forces can then be found by measuring the lengths of T1 and T2
in the triangle of forces.
✓ suitable scale; ✓triangle drawn correctly; ✓ T1 and T2 correct to 2 sig. figs. [3]
10
Answers to exam-style questions 6
Unit 6
A[1]
(20 − 4) = 16 cm
D[1]
4 (a) Gravitational potential energy is the energy of a mass due to its position in a [1]
gravitational field. ✓
Electrical potential energy is the energy of an electrically-charged object due to [1]
its position in an electric field. ✓
−3
(b) (i) ΔEp = mgΔh = 60 × 10 × 9.81 × 4.0 = 2.35 J ✓ [1]
2 × 2.35
(ii) ½mv2 = 2.35 ⇒ v = = 8.9 m s−1 ✓ method [2]
60 × 10−3
✓ calculation
11
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
2 −3 2
(c) (i) Ek after hitting the ground = ½ mv = ½ × 60 × 10 × 6.2 = 1.15 J ✓ [1]
2.35 − 1.15
(ii) Fraction of energy lost in collision = = 0.51 (51%) ✓ [1]
2.35
Applying the conservation of energy: ΔEp = Ek after hitting the ground
mg × H = ½ mv2
v2 6.22
H= = = 1.96 m ✓ [1]
2 g 2 × 9.81
5 work done
(a) (i) Power is the rate of doing work power = ✓ [1]
time taken
(ii) Work done = F × s ✓
work done F × s [2]
Power = = = F × v ✓
time taken t
(b) (i) Applying F = ma:
3
F − 2.4 × 10 = 3000 × 0.50 ✓ method
F = 1500 + 2400 = 3900 N (3.9 kN) ✓ calculation [2]
12
Answers to exam-style questions 7
Unit 7
π π 180°
(b) (i) rad = × = 30°
6 6 π [1]
3π 3π 180°
(ii) rad = × = 135° [1]
4 4 π
9π 9π 180°
(iii) rad = × = 231.4° [1]
7 7 π
2 (a) 800 × 2 × π
ω= = 83.8 rad s −1 [1]
60
(b) v = rω = 30.0 × 83.8 = 25.1 m s−1 [1]
3 (a) ½mv2 = mgΔh ⇒ v = 2 g ∆h = 2 × 9.81 × 0.05 = 0.99 m s−1 ✓ method
[2]
✓ calculation
(b) Maximum tension in the string occurs when the ball is moving fastest.
Applying F = ma:
v2
T − mg = m T
r
v2
v2 r
T = mg + m
r
−3 −3
0.992 mg
= 80 × 10 × 9.81 + 80 × 10 × ✓ method
0.6
= 0.92 N ✓ calculation [2]
rω
2
4 (a) (i) [1]
13
Q Worked solution Answer
5 (a) Let the velocity of the ball be u at the bottom and v at the top, and the difference
in height be Δh. From the principle of conservation of energy:
mgΔh + ½mv2 = ½ mu2 ✓ method [1]
v2 = u2 − 2gΔh
Δh = 0.8 m, u = 6.0 m s−1: v2 = 6.02 − 2 × 9.81 × 0.8
v = √(36.0 − 15.7) = 4.5 m s−1 ✓ calculation [1]
(b) mv 2
(i) T − mg =
r v2
T r
mv 2
T= + mg ✓ method
r
v = 6.0 m s−1
0.2 × 6.02
= + 0.20 × 9.81
0.40
= 20.0 N ✓ calculation mg [2]
mv 2
(ii) T + mg =
r
v = 4.5 m s−1
mv 2
T= − mg
r
v2
0.2 × 4.52 T + mg
= − 0.20 × 9.81 r
0.40
= 8.2 N ✓ calculation [1]
2 2
(c) Ek at the lowest point = ½mv = 0.5 × 0.2 × 3.0 = 0.9 J
ΔEp in moving from the lowest point to the highest point = mgΔh
= 0.2 × 9.81 × 0.8
= 1.6 J ✓ [1]
As 1.6 > 0.9 the ball does not have enough kinetic energy at the bottom to reach
the highest point. The string would become slack at some point and the ball
would fall freely under gravity. ✓ [1]
mv 2
Alternative arguments possible, e.g. at top point T = − mg > 0, so v > √gr at
r
the top.
6 (a) (i) W = mg = 250g = 2.45 kN [1]
(ii) R = W = 2.45 kN [1]
(b) v 2 202
(i) centripetal acceleration = = = 8.0 m s−2 ✓ method ✓ calculation + units [2]
r 50.0
2
v
(ii) F=m = 250 × 8.0 = 2000 N (2.00 kN) ✓ [1]
r
(c) Friction ✓ between the wheel and the ground ✓ [2]
(d) Assumption: the line of action of the force from the
ground must pass through the centre of gravity of the R
motorcyclist + motorcycle (the torque about the centre
of gravity must be zero). ✓ [1]
2.45 kN
2.45
tan θ = = 1.23
2.00
θ = tan−11.23 = 51° ✓ θ
[1]
2.00 kN
14
Answers to exam-style questions 8
Unit 8
F 3 × 10−7
(c) a= = = 4 × 10−9 m s −2 [1]
m 70
2 Applying F = ma: m
R = 3.8 × 105 km T = 27.3 days
Mm mv 2
G 2 =
R R
GM
M
⇒ v= ✓ [1]
R
2π R R3
Time for one orbit T = = 2π ✓ [1]
v GM
4π 2 × ( 3.8 × 108 )
3
4π 2 R3 24 [1]
Re-arranging: M = = = 5.8 × 10 kg ✓
GT 2 6.67 × 10−11 × (27.3 × 24 × 60 × 60)2
3
gR2 9.81 × (6.37 × 10 )
6 2
(a) GM
g= 2 ⇒ M= = = 5.97 × 1024 kg ✓ method
R G 6.67 × 10−11
✓ calculation [2]
(b) g, R and G (the ‘raw data’) are all expressed to three significant figures, so M can [1]
be calculated to three (or four) significant figures.
4 (a) Let the mass of the planet be m. Applying F = ma:
Mm mv 2
G =
R2 R
GM
⇒ v= ✓ [1]
R
2π R R3
(b) T= = 2π ✓ [1]
v GM
R3
Squaring this equation: T 2 = 4 π 2
GM
R3 GM [1]
= (a constant) ✓
T 2 4π 2
R3
( =constant for all the planets is one of Kepler’s laws)
T2
15
Q Worked solution Marks
6 2πR 2π × 6.7 × 108
(a) v= = = 1.38 × 10 4 m s−1 (13.8 km s−1) ✓ [1]
T 85 × 60 × 60
Rv 2 6.7 × 10 × (1.38 × 10 )
8 4 2
Mm mv 2
(b) G = ✓ ⇒ M = = = 1.91 × 1027 kg ✓ [2]
R2 R G 6.67 × 10−11
7 (a) The gravitational potential at a point is the work done in moving unit mass (1 kg)
[1]
from infinity to the point.
GM 6.67 × 10−11 × 6.0 × 1024
(b) (i) g= = = 9.2 N kg −1 ✓ [1]
R2 (6.4 × 106 + 200 × 103 )2
−1
(ii) Δϕ = −5.8 × 10 − (− 6.1 × 10 ) = 3 × 10 J kg ✓
7 7 6
16
Answers to exam-style questions 9
Unit 9
σ 4.36 × 107
(iii) E= = = 1.22 × 1011 Pa ✓ [1]
ε 3.58 × 10-4
(b) The ‘raw data’ used to calculate E (the length and diameter of the wire, the
extension of the wire and the load) are recorded to two, three or four significant
figures. The significant figures of E are determined by the least precise data − the
value(s) given to the lowest number of significant figures. In this example, the
diameter of the wire and the extension of the wire are both given to two
significant figures, so E can be stated to the same number of significant figures,
or one more i.e. two or three significant figures. [1]
stress
7 (a) Young modulus, E = [1]
strain
(b) (i) Mass of a man ≈ 70 kg ✓ [1]
F 70 × 9.81
(ii) σ= = = 1.1 × 106 Pa ✓ [1]
A π × (1.4 × 10−2 )2
σ 1.1 × 106
(iii) ε= = = 1.3 × 10−4 ✓
E 8.5 × 109
compression x = εl0 = 1.3 × 10−4 × 0.50 = 6.5 × 10−5 m (0.07 mm) ✓ [2]
(c) Overestimate. The diameter, and hence the cross-sectional area of the bone will be
greater than the minimum value for much of the length of the bone, so the stress [1]
will be less and the compression will be smaller than calculated.
17
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
8 Control of variables:
In this experiment, different loads are applied to a long nylon thread and the
extension of the thread is recorded. The independent variable is the load applied
to the thread and the extension of the thread is the dependent variable.
Procedure:
The experimental set-up is shown in the diagram.
Wooden blocks Nylon thread Small mark on thread 30 cm ruler
G–clamp
Pulley
Mass hanger +
slotted masses
As long a length of thread as practicable should be used (e.g. 2.0 m). The
longer the thread the greater the extension, and hence the smaller the
percentage uncertainty in the measurement of the extension.
The diameter d of the thread is first measured, using a micrometer. Using a
marker pen, a small mark can be made on the thread some distance from the
G-clamp. The thread is held so that it is just taut and the distance l0 between
the wooden blocks and the mark is measured using a metre rule.
A small 30 cm ruler can be placed behind the mark (as close as possible to the
thread to minimise parallax errors) so that the extension of the thread can be
measured. Measurements from the ruler can be read using a hand lens for
greater accuracy; alternatively, a travelling microscope can be used to measure
the extension.
A mass hanger of 50 g is hung on the thread and the distance the mark moves is
recorded. The procedure is repeated, adding a 50 g slotted mass each time and
recording the total load and extension. (It is useful to occasionally remove the
loads to see if the thread ‘springs back’ to its original length − i.e. is still elastic).
Masses can be added until the thread breaks.
Measurements to be taken:
The measurements should be recorded in a table. The stress applied to the thread
and the strain produced can be calculated from the results.
d = …mm l0 = …m
18
Answers to exam-style questions 9
The steeper the graph the stiffer the material. The maximum stress is a measure
of the strength of the material. If, up to a certain load, the graph is a straight line
passing through the origin, the material obeys Hooke’s law. The Young modulus
σ
of the nylon can be calculated using the equation E = (the gradient of the
ε
straight-line graph).
Safety precautions:
Safety goggles should be worn throughout the experiment.
A sand tray, or a block of foam rubber, should be placed underneath the slotted
masses.
Going further:
If the experiment is repeated but with a maximum load less than that needed to
break the thread, the loads can then be gradually removed and the extension of
the thread re-measured. The unloading stress−strain graph can then be plotted
and compared with the loading graph. [15]
19
Unit 10
20
Answers to exam-style questions 10
(b) The piston will rise until the pressure of the gas again balances the downward
pressure of the piston.
pV1 pV2
=
T1 T2
T2 × V1 (80 + 273)
V2 = = × V1 = 1.2 V1 ✓ method [1]
T1 (20 + 273)
As the cross-sectional area of the piston has not changed, the piston will rise by a
factor of 1.2.
new height = 1.2 × 8.0 = 9.6 cm ✓ [1]
8 pV 1.01 × 105 × 2.50 × 10−4
(a) n= = = 0.01mole ✓ method ✓ [2]
RT 8.31 × (20 + 273)
21
Q Worked solution Marks
p2 p1
(b) (i) As the volume of the gas does not change: =
T2 T1
p1 1.01 × 105
p2 = × T2 = × (80 + 273) = 1.22 × 105 Pa ✓ correct method + value [1]
T1 (20 + 273)
22
Answers to exam-style questions 11
Unit 11
2. The triple point of water (273.16 K or 0.01 C°) − the point at which ice, water
and water vapour co-exist. ✓ [1]
(ii) The thermodynamic or absolute temperature scale does not depend on the
properties of any particular substance, e.g. the expansion of mercury or alcohol
in a liquid-in-glass thermometer. [1]
(b) No object can have a temperature below absolute zero. The atoms and molecules of
a substance at absolute zero do not necessarily have zero internal energy, but they [1]
do have zero kinetic energy and the minimum possible potential energy.
(c) (i) Rise in temperature = 37.5 − 19.7 = 17.8 K [1]
(ii) 273.2 + 37.5 = 310.7 K [1]
5 (a) 1.21 × 10−3
(i) ∆T = = 220 °C Temperature of hot junction = 20 + 220 = 240 °C ✓ [1]
5.5 × 10−6
(ii) ΔT = 1200 − 20 = 1180 °C e.m.f. = 1180 × 5.5 × 10−6 = 6.5 × 10−3 V (6.5 mV) ✓ [1]
(b) The calculations assume that the relationship between temp. difference and e.m.f.
[1]
(5.5 μV / 1.0 °C) remains linear for all values of the temp. difference.
6 32.8 − 16.3
(a) T= × 100 = 44.8 °C ✓ method ✓calculation with unit [2]
53.1 − 16.3
3.663 − 2.875
(b) T= × 100 = 45.1°C ✓ method ✓calculation with unit [2]
4.621 − 2.875
(c) The change of resistance of the platinum wire with temperature is not exactly linear
(or the expansion of the mercury with temperature change is only approximately [1]
linear).
23
Q Worked solution Marks
7 (a) Melting point of wax − mercury thermometer. Cheap, easy-to-use, portable and
[1]
melting point of wax in range of most mercury thermometers.
(b) Bunsen − thermocouple. Robust and can measure very high temperatures. [1]
(c) Air temperature in the Antarctic − thermistor. Wide range, fast response not required. [1]
8 Control of variables:
In this experiment, the resistance of a platinum resistance wire is measured at
different temperatures. The temperature is the independent variable and the
resistance of the wire is the dependent variable. The length and diameter of the
wire used remain constant throughout the experiment.
Ohmmeter
Oil
Procedure to be followed:
A length of platinum resistance wire is placed in a beaker of oil which has previ-
ously been heated to a high temperature using a Bunsen burner. (Oil is preferable
to water as the oil can be heated to a higher temperature, giving a greater range of
temperatures.) The wire can be supported by a piece of cardboard, as shown, or
with a clamp and stand.
After a couple of minutes to allow the temperature of the platinum wire to reach the
temperature of the oil, the temperature is measured using a mercury thermometer
and the resistance of the wire is measured using a digital ohmmeter, as shown.
Alternatively, a low voltage d.c. supply (e.g. a 1.5V cell) can be connected to the
two ends of the wire. An ammeter is then connected in series to measure the electric
current in the wire, and a voltmeter is connected between the two ends of the wire
to measure the p.d. across the wire. The resistance of the wire is then calculated
V
using R = .
I
The oil is allowed to slowly cool and the temperature and resistance of the wire are
recorded at regular intervals (e.g. every time the temperature has fallen by 5 °C).
24
Answers to exam-style questions 11
Temperature / °C Resistance / Ω
146
139
Analysis of the data:
A graph should be plotted of the resistance R of the wire against temperature, T. If
the suggested relationship is correct, the graph will be a straight line. The gradient
and y-intercept of the graph should then be found. R0 is the y-intercept (in Ω) and
αR0 is the gradient, from which α (in °C−1) can be calculated.
Safety precautions:
Great care should be exercised when heating the oil, and safety goggles should be
worn. [15]
25
Unit 12
Much of this energy is converted to heat and sound energy at the bottom of the
waterfall.✓ [1]
(b) g ∆h 9.81 × 980
mcΔθ = 0.7 × mgΔh ⇒ ∆θ = 0.7 × = 0.7 × = 1.6 °C [1]
c 4200
4 (a) Energy gained by liquid per second +
heat lost to surroundings per second (Q) = power of heater
1.4 × 10−3 × c × (26.3 − 17.8) + Q = 37.4 (1)
−3
2.8 × 10 × c × (26.3 − 17.8) + Q = 66.7 (2) ✓ method [1]
equation (2) − equation (1):
1.4 × 10−3 × c × (26.3 − 17.8) = 29.3
29.3
c=
1.4 × 10−3 × 8.5
= 2.46 × 103 J kg−1 °C−1 ✓ calculation [1]
(b) Substituting for c in equation 1:
−3 3
Q = 37.4 − [1.4 × 10 × 2.46 × 10 × (26.3 − 17.8)] ✓ method
= 8.1 W ✓ calculation [2]
5 The internal energy of a system is the sum of the random distribution✓ of kinetic
[2]
and potential energies of the atoms/molecules/particles of the system.✓
6 (a) The first law of thermodynamics for any system: ΔU = q + w ✓
ΔU is the internal energy of the system; q is the heat energy supplied to the system;
w is the work done on the system. ✓✓ [3]
(b) The air in the balloon is expanding against the atmosphere, so is doing work on the
atmosphere (w is negative). [1]
The internal energy (and the temperature) of the gas decreases. [1]
(c) (i) Ice is less dense than water, so as ice melts it is effectively being compressed − i.e.
work is done on the ice. [1]
(ii) The external work done, w, on the ice is small compared to the heat energy, q, [1]
supplied to the ice to melt it (both are positive).
The change in internal energy ΔU is much greater than w − most of the change in [1]
internal energy is due to the heat energy supplied to the ice.
7 (a) (i) q is positive as heat energy is supplied to the cube. [1]
(ii) w is negative − the cube is expanding, doing work against the atmosphere. [1]
26
Answers to exam-style questions 12
× (2.0 × 10 )
−2 3
work done on atmosphere = pΔV = −1.0 × 105 ×
100
= −5.6 × 10−5 J ✓ [1]
(negative as work is done by the cube, but insignificant compared to q)
ΔU = q + w = 8400 J ✓ [1]
27
Unit 13
Alternative method: 2
0
−1 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4
where ω = 2πf = 7π rad s .
–2
dx
v= = − 7ω sin ω t –4
dt
= −7 × 7π × sin (7π × 0.2) –6
(c) 1 1 4
(i) T = 0.02 s, f = = = 50 Hz ✓, ω = 2πf = 100π rad s−1 A
[1]
T 0.02
2
(ii) max. speed = max. gradient
0
From the graph; 0.015 0.02 0.025 0.03
∆s 12.0
max. speed = = = 2.4 × 103 cm s−1 (24 m s−1) –2
∆t 0.005 B
✓ method ✓ calculation –4 [2]
−1
check: vmax = Aω = 7.0 × 100π = 2.2 × 10 cm s
3
–6
Δt = 0.005 s
28
Answers to exam-style questions 13
2g 2g ω 1 2g 1 l [2]
a =− x, ✓so ω = , f= = , and T = = 2π ✓
l l 2π 2π l f 2g
6 (a) (i) Forced vibrations − A system undergoes forced oscillations (vibrations) when a [1]
periodic force is applied to it.
(ii) Resonance − When the frequency of the periodic driving force is equal to the natural [1]
frequency of oscillation of a system, the system is said to be in resonance.
(b) Resonance is useful:
• Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
• Tuned circuits (e.g. for receiving TV and radio signals)
• Music (e.g. organ pipes) [1]
Resonance is not useful:
• Cross-winds on a bridge creating eddy currents which cause the bridge to
oscillate. At a particular wind speed resonance can occur, leading to large
oscillations and possible collapse of the bridge (e.g. Tacoma Narrows bridge
in 1940)
• Resonant oscillations of buildings during earthquakes
[1]
• Vibrations of car mirrors at certain speeds
29
Unit 14
5.0 Hz
B[1]
Points are 1.00 m apart in ‘antiphase’/ ½ a cycle out of phase/ π radians out of
phase.
2 microwaves, ultraviolet, gamma rays D[1]
3 Lowest frequencies have the longest wavelengths.
lowest frequency:
λ
= 0.500 m
4
λ = 2.000 m
v 330 λ 3λ
f= = = 165 Hz 4 4
λ 2.000
B[1]
second lowest frequency:
3λ
= 0.500 m
4
λ = 0.667 m
v 330
f= = = 495 Hz
λ 0.667
Remember: for pipes, open ends are displacement antinodes;
closed ends are displacement nodes.
4 For the sound waves moving towards the stationary observer:
v
fo = f
v −u
where f is the frequency of sound of the source and fo the frequency detected by
the observer. For a source of sound waves travelling away from the observer: B[1]
v
fo = f
v +u
v v 2fuv
The change in frequency = f −f =
v−u v + u (v 2 − u 2 )
1.0 × 10−4
5 (a) (i) Intensity = = 8.8 × 10−7 W m−2 s−1 [1]
4 π × 3.0 2
1.0 × 10−4
(ii) Intensity = = 9.8 × 10−8 W m−2 s−1 [1]
4 π × 9.02
30
Answers to exam-style questions 14
6 (a) (i) Amplitude: the maximum displacement from the equilibrium position. [1]
(ii) Wavelength: the minimum distance between two points moving in phase,
or the distance between neighbouring or consecutive peaks or troughs,
or the distance moved by a wavefront in one period of oscillation (of the source). [1]
(b) (i) amplitude = 3.0 mm [1]
(ii) 3λ = 5.4 cm ⇒ λ = 1.8 cm [1]
v 9.0
(iii) = f= = 5.0 Hz [1]
λ 1.8
π
(iv) ¼ of a cycle / radians / 90° out of phase [1]
2
(c)
3
2
Displacement/mm
0
0.05 0.1 0.15 0.2 0.25 0.3 0.35 0.4 0.45 0.5 Time/s
–1
–2 amplitude = 3.0 mm
–3 period = 0.2 s
31
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
(b) Purpose of the gel:
Air between the probe and the body will cause most of the ultrasound to be
reflected back ✓ (the reflection coefficient is almost 1 as the acoustic impedance [1]
−2 −1
of air (430 kg m s ) is much smaller than the acoustic impedance of soft tissue
6 −2 −1
(1.63 × 10 kg m s ). To avoid trapped air, a gel (coupling medium) is applied
between the probe and the surface of the body. The gel has a similar acoustic
impedance to soft tissue ✓, so that almost all the ultrasound is transmitted into the [1]
body (the reflection coefficient is almost zero).
(c) Lower frequency ultrasound waves have longer wavelengths, so diffraction ✓
effects would be more significant. (For medical imaging, ultrasound frequencies [1]
in the range 1 to 10 MHz are used.)
9 Piezo-electric crystal
32
Answers to exam-style questions 15
Unit 15
C[1]
33
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
nλ 3 × 460 × 10−9
(c) (i) nλ = d sin θ ⇒ d = = = 4.54 × 10−6 m ✓ [1]
sin θ sin17.7°
1
no. of lines / m = = 2.2 × 105 lines / m = 220 lines / mm ✓ [1]
d
(ii) For red light: 2 × λ = 4.54 × 10−6 × sin 17.7° ⇒ λ = 6.90 × 10−7 m (690 nm) ✓ [1]
34
Answers to exam-style questions 16
Unit 16
35
Q Worked solution Marks
3 (a) Advantages of digital transmission:
• The receiving system only has to be able to recognise the separate ‘1’s and
‘0’s of the signal to reconstruct the original signal accurately.
• ‘Noisy’ signals can be ‘cleaned’ by regenerator amplifiers placed at regular
intervals along a transmission link.
• Many separate signals can be transmitted at the same time (multiplexing).
• Digital systems are also more secure (difficult to intercept) and can be
encrypted.
✓✓ Any two relevant statements [2]
(b) (i) The higher the sampling rate, the more accurate the received signal is compared to
the original signal. [1]
(ii) Increasing the number of bits increases the number of possible quantisation levels;
small changes in the original signal can be encoded, again leading to more accurate [1]
transmission of the original signal.
(c) (i) The frequency of the sampling process must be at least twice the highest frequency
of the analogue signal if the signal is to be accurately transmitted. ✓ The highest [2]
frequency that can be heard by the human ear is 20 kHz, ✓ so a sampling frequency
of 44 kHz satisfies this requirement.
16
(ii) 16 bits ⇒ 2 = 65 536 [1]
(in practice, some of the bits are used to check for transmission errors)
(d) Each channel uses 2 gigabits. ✓ [1]
5
Number of bits/sec. = 44 000 × 16 = 7.04 × 10 ✓ [1]
2 × 10 9
playing time= = 2.84 × 103 s=47 minutes ✓ [1]
7.04 × 105
4 (a) (i) attenuation = 200 × 0.3 = 60 dB [1]
P 500 × 10 −3
(ii) 10 log in = 60 ✓ ⇒ Pout = = 5.0 × 10−7 W ( 0.5 µW ) [2]
Pout 106
(b) (i) Repeaters are amplifiers used at intervals to amplify the signal strength. ✓ [1]
(Note: they amplify the noise as well as the signal.)
Transmitter Repeater Receiver
(ii)
100 km Pout 100 km
500 mW 10 log = 20 dB Preceiver
Pin
Attenuation = 30 dB Attenuation = 30 dB
500 × 10−3
Input to repeater, Pin = = 5.0 × 10−4 W
103
Output from repeater, Pout = Pin × 102 = 5.0 × 10−4 × 102 = 5.0 × 10−2 W ✓
5.0 × 10−2
Output power at the receiver, Pout = = 5.0 × 10−5 W ✓
103 [2]
(Attenuation of the whole system = 30 − 20 + 30 = 40 dB)
5 (a) Microwaves:
• Spread out much less than longer wavelength electromagnetic waves so they
weaken less.
• Have a larger bandwidth so can carry more channels.
• Pass straight through the atmosphere.
✓ any one valid statement [1]
36
Answers to exam-style questions 16
37
Unit 17
V 5.0 × 103
2 E= = == 25 000 N C−1 (2.5 × 104 N C−1) C[1]
d 20.0 × 10−2
V 1
3 F = qE = q ⇒ F∝ C[1]
d d
4 (a)
− − [1]
(b) The field lines would be more closely packed together near the double charge, ✓
[2]
compared to the single charge. ✓
kQ −6.0 × 10−9
5 (a) (i) E= = 8.99 × 10 9
×
(2.0 × 10−2 )
2
r2
Note: The direction of the electric field is radially inwards towards the centre of
the sphere.
kQ 8.99 × 109 × ( − 6.0 × 10−9 )
(b) (i) V= =
r 2.0 × 10−2
= ( − )2.7 × 103 JC −1 ✓ method ✓ calc. + units [2]
−9
kQ 8.99 × 10 × ( −6.0 × 10 )
9
(ii) V= = = ( − )540 JC −1 ✓ [1]
r 10.0 × 10−2
Note: The potential is negative because work would be done moving a unit
positive charge from point P to infinity (i.e. moving a positive charge further away
from a negative charge). Electrical potential is defined as the work done in moving
unit positive charge from infinity to the point P.
−12
(c) Total work done = qΔV = 4 × 10 × (2.7 × 103 − 540)
= 8.6 × 10−9 J ✓ method ✓ calc. + units [2]
6 (a) kQ Vr 3.0 × 10 × 500 × 10 3 −3
V= ⇒ Q= =
r k 8.99 × 109
= 1.67 × 10−7 C ✓ calc. ✓units [2]
(b) kQ kQ 8.99 × 10 × 1.67 × 10 9 −7
V= ⇒ r= =
r V 5.0 × 103
= 0.300 m (30 cm)
✓ method ✓ calc. [2]
−7
kQ 8.99 × 10 × 1.67 × 10
9
(c) V= =
r 800 × 10−3
= 1.88 kV ✓ method ✓ calc. [2]
38
Answers to exam-style questions 17
39
Unit 18
600 μF
(ii) The three capacitors are equivalent to two 1000 μF capacitors in series. Capacitors in
series add up like resistors in parallel:
1 1 1 2
= + = ⇒ CT = 500 µF [1]
C T 1000 1000 1000
(b) 10 V
1000 μF
5V
1000 μF
capacitor 600 μF
5V
−6 −3
(i) Charge on 400 μF capacitor = CV = 400 × 10 × 5 = 2 × 10 C (2000 μC) [1]
−6 −3
(ii) Charge on 600 μF capacitor = CV = 600 × 10 × 5 = 3 × 10 C (3000 μC) [1]
(c) p.d across 1000 μF capacitor = 5 V [1]
3 1 1
(a) Energy stored = CV 2 = × 500 × 10−6 × (300)2 ✓ = 22.5 J ✓ [2]
2 2
energy 22.5
(b) average power = = ✓ = 7500 W (7.5 kW) ✓ [2]
time 3 × 10−3
4 (a) (i) The largest capacitance is made by 20 μF
+ joining the capacitors in parallel.
(ii) CT = C1 + C2 + C3
= 20 + 47 + 82 47 μF
= 149 μF ✓
82 μF
✓ [2]
40
Answers to exam-style questions 18
1000 μF
– 2 × 10–3C + 2 × 10–3C
After connection
(c) Q 1 × 10−3
(i) p.d across 500 µF capacitor = = = 2.0 V [1]
V 5000 × 10 −6
Q 2 × 10−3
(ii) p.d across 1000 µF capacitor = = = 2.0 V [1]
V 1000 × 10−6
(d) 1 1
(i) Energy stored = CV12 + CV22
2 2
1 1
= × 1000 × 10−6 × 22 + × 500 × 10−6 × 22
2 2
= 3.0 × 10−3 J (3.0 mJ) [1]
(ii) Some charge moves from one capacitor to the other (there is an electric current).
The energy is lost as heat due to the resistance of the connecting wires. [1]
41
Unit 19
1.6 × 10−−19
19
Q 25
2 I= = = 0.417 A
t 1.0 × 60 C[1]
P = I R = 0.417 × 720 = 125 W
2 2
I 30 × 10−6
3 I = nAqv ⇒ v = = = 0.63 m s −1 B[1]
nAq 6.0 × 1020 × (0.2 × 10−3 × 2.5 × 10−3 ) × 1.6 × 10−19
ρ L 4ρ L 1
4 R= = ⇒ R∝ 2 C[1]
A πd 2 d
5 A wire three times as long has three times the resistance.
A wire twice the diameter has four times the cross-sectional area, so ¼ of the
resistance. B[1]
3
R→ R
4
V2 V 2 122
6 P= ⇒ R= = = 2.88 Ω
R P 50
C[1]
ρL 2.88 × π × (0.28 × 10−3 )2
R= = 2.88 Ω ⇒ L = = 1.4 m
A 4.9 × 10−7
ρ L 1.7 × 10−8 × 1.0 × 103
7 R= = =2.5 Ω C[1]
A 6 × π × (0.6 × 10−3 )2
πd 2l
8 (a) Volume of wire = = 10−6 m 3 (1)
4
ρl RA 5.0 × π × d 2
R= ⇒ l= = (2)
A ρ 4 × 1.7 × 10−8
Combining equations (1) and (2): l
−6
5.0 10
l= × d
1.7 × 10−8 l
5.0 × 10−6
⇒ l= = 17.1m ✓ method ✓calculation [2]
1.7 × 10−8
(b) Substituting this value into equation 1:
4 × 10−6
d2 = ⇒ d = 2.73 × 10−4 m ✓ method ✓calculation [2]
π × 17.1
9 (a) The top of the beam is being stretched (is under tension) ✓ so the wire strain
[2]
gauge gets longer (and thinner) ✓, increasing its resistance.
42
Answers to exam-style questions 19
43
Unit 20
Ι1 Ι1 − Ι2 Ι2
I1 (8 + 4) = 24
I1 = 2.0 A A Ι1 A Ι2
24 V 4 Ω 24 V 4 Ω
With the switch closed:
A[1]
I2 × 8 + 2I2 × 4 = 24
S Ι2
I2 = 1.5 A
8Ω 8Ω
The change in the
ammeter reading = 2.0 − 1.5 = 0.5 A
4 When R = 1 Ω:
V
E − ir = i × 1 = 3
E r
⇒ i = 3 A and E − 3r = 3 (1)
i
When R = 3 Ω:
E − ir = i × 3 = 6
R
⇒ i = 2 A and E − 2r = 6 (2) D[1]
r=3Ω
Substituting this value into equation (1):
E−3×3=3
E = 12 V
5 (a) This ensures that the p.d. across the resistance wire is small (approx. 20 mV),
and the output p.d. from the thermocouple will therefore be a significant fraction [1]
of the p.d. across the resistance wire.
44
Answers to exam-style questions 20
To thermocouple
ℓ i2 = 0
(ii) When the galvanometer reads zero, the p.d. across the 12 Ω resistance wire Vwire is
found from:
Vwire 12 3.0 × 12
= ⇒ Vwire = = 1.79 × 10−2 V( ∼ 18mV) ✓
3.0 2012 2012
Vtherm 68.3 68.3
= ⇒ Vtherm = × 1.79 × 10−2 = 1.23 × 10−2 V ( ∼ 12 mV) ✓ [2]
Vwire 99.6 99.6
45
Unit 21
V+ < Vp , so the output will be the negative of the saturation voltage; the LED will be
off. [1]
3 (a) An ideal operational amplifier has:
• infinite open-loop gain
• infinite input impedance
• zero output impedance
• infinite bandwidth
• infinite slew rate. Any three [3]
(b) (i) An inverting amplifier [1]
+ − + −
(ii) V is earthed (connected to the 0 V rail) and V ≈ V i.e. V = VQ ≈ 0 V (‘virtually [1]
earth’).
46
Answers to exam-style questions 21
Rin Ι
−
Ι
+
Vin
Vout
4 (a) The voltage gain G is the ratio of the output voltage to the input voltage.
Vout [1]
G =
Vin
5 (a) (i) Two diodes, a relay switch and a heater. The heater and switch are connected in [1]
series to a 230 V a.c. supply.
(ii) The processor is being used as a comparator. When the temperature drops below
a certain value, V − becomes less than Vp and so the difference Vp − V − becomes
positive. The output from the processor then becomes the (positive) saturation
voltage , closing the relay and switching on the heater in the external circuit. [2]
(b) Vp 18 kΩ
= = 0.60 ⇒ Vp = 15 × 0.6 = 9.0 V [1]
15 (18 + 12) kΩ
(c) From the graph, when T = 0 °C, the resistance of the thermistor is 30 kΩ.
To ‘switch on’ at 0 °C, the resistance R of the fixed resistor is found from: [1]
R 18 18
= ⇒ R = × 30 = 45 kΩ
30 12 12
(d) At higher temperatures the resistance of the thermistor is smaller. To ‘switch’ at this
higher temperature, the resistance of the fixed resistor R must also be smaller, so
that the ratio of the two is still 12 : 18 (1 : 1.5). [1]
47
Unit 22
(ii) Again using the left-hand rule, this time the force is upwards. [1]
−2 −2
(b) (i) F = BIl = 0.50 × 2.4 × 8.0 × 10 = 9.6 × 10 N [1]
(ii) F = 0 N The directions of the magnetic field and the current are the same. [1]
(c) Total torque = Fd [1]
F
−2 −2
= 9.6 × 10 × (10.0 × 10 )
d
F
= 9.6 × 10−3 Nm [1]
2 (a) (i) Downwards (the direction of the force on a unit positive charge). [1]
(ii) Into the paper (the × symbol indicates a magnetic field in a direction away from you). [1]
(b) V 300
E= = = 6000 Vm −1 [2]
d 5.0 × 10−2
(c) Force down on electron due to magnetic field = force up on electron due to the
electric field.
E 6 × 103
Bev = Ee ⇒ v = = = 2.4 × 107 m s −1 [3]
B 0.25 × 10−3
(d) The magnetic force (Bev) would increase, but the electric force (Ee) would stay [2]
constant so the β-particle would be deflected down.
3 (a) Upwards, out of the paper (using Fleming’s left-hand rule: the current is
[1]
right-to-left, as the electron is moving left-to-right).
(b) (i) F = Bev [1]
(ii) The force at any instant is perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the [2]
instantaneous direction of travel of the electron.
(c) (i) The force is always perpendicular to the direction of travel, so only alters the [1]
direction, not the speed of the charged particle.
(ii) v2 mv [2]
Using F = ma: Bev = m ⇒ r=
r Be
(iii) From the previous equation, if v decreases, r will decrease − the charged particle [1]
would move in a smaller circle.
4 (a) Downwards, into the paper (use Fleming’s left-hand rule, remembering that the [1]
current is going anticlockwise as the negatively charged particles are moving
clockwise).
(b) The charged particles are gradually losing energy (they ionise air molecules as [1]
they pass through the cloud chamber).
(c) v2
Bqv = m ⇒ mv = Bqr [2]
r
48
Answers to exam-style questions 23
Unit 23
dφ dA
E= =B = 6.4 × 10−5 × 1.5 × 10 4 = 0.96 V [1]
dt dt
(b) The wires connecting the voltmeter to the wing tips will cut the same field lines
at the same rate so there will be an equal and opposite e.m.f. cancelling out the [1]
e.m.f. induced between the wing tips. [1]
Another way of thinking about this is to consider the ‘loop’ comprising the wing
span and the wires from the voltmeter. As the aeroplane travels through the air, the
amount of flux (field × area) linking with the loop remains constant, so no e.m.f. is
induced.
2 (a) (i) Area ‘swept’ per second = 0.4 × 3.0 = 1.2 m2 s−1 [1]
dA −3 −1
[1]
(ii) Flux ‘cut’ per second = B = 50 × 10 × 1.2 = 0.06 Wb s
dt
dφ [2]
(iii) Induced e.m.f. = rate of change of flux = = 0.06 V
dt
(b) (i) The current is from B towards A so that the force on the wire is towards the left, [2]
opposing the motion of rod AB (Lenz’s law).
(ii) The total length of the loop ABCD is decreasing, so the resistance of the loop is
also decreasing. [1]
3 (a) (i) From Faraday’s law, the induced e.m.f. is proportional to the rate of change of flux
linkage . As the magnet enters the coil, the magnetic flux linking the coil is [1]
increasing ( dφ is positive), so the induced e.m.f. acts in one direction; as the
dt dφ
magnet leaves the coil the magnetic flux linking the coil is decreasing ( is
negative) so the induced e.m.f. is in the opposite direction. dt [1]
(ii) The magnet is falling freely under gravity, so is accelerating. The magnet will be [1]
moving faster when it leaves the coil compared to when it entered the coil so, from
d
Faraday’s law E = − ( N φ ), the induced e.m.f. will be greater when the magnet is
dt
leaving the coil. [1]
(b) Larger max. e.m.f.s
Max e.m.f. when leaving coil still
larger than max e.m.f. when magnet
Induced e.m.f.
entering coil
Time
Shorter time for magnet to enter and
leave coil. [3]
49
Q Worked solution Marks
(c) The area under the graph represents the total flux -linkage. [2]
(The areas above and below the x-axis are the same − the net flux-linkage is zero).
From Faraday’s law:
d
E=− ( Nφ )
dt
Area under graph = ∫ Edt = − N φ
4 (a) Magnitude of induced e.m.f.= rate of change of flux linkage
∆( N φ ) 200 × (5.0 − 2.0) × π × (15.0 × 10−2 )2
= =
∆t 600 × 10−3
= 71 V [3]
(b) V 71
(i) I=
= = 3.6 A [1]
R 20
(ii) Viewed from above, the induced current is anticlockwise , in order to create a
magnetic field which opposes the change in magnetic field which induced the
current (see (c) below). [2]
(c) The magnetic field induced by the current in the
coil acts upwards. The diagram shows a
cross-section of the coil, with the current flowing
into the paper on the right-hand side and out of
the paper on the left-hand side. Because of
Lenz’s law, the direction of this magnetic field
is opposite to the increasing downward-acting
magnetic field – it tries to reduce the change in
magnetic field which produced it. [2]
50
Answers to exam-style questions 24
Unit 24
4 × 100 × 10−6
period T = 1 wave in = 1.33 × 10−4 s [1]
3
1 1
(ii) frequency = = = 7500 Hz (7.5kHz) [1]
T 1.33 × 10−4
(c) V = V0 sin 2πft = 0.14 sin 15 000 πt [2]
2 (a) Vr.m.s. = Vmax/√2 = 325/√2 = 230 V [1]
Vr.m.s. 230
(b) (i) I r.m.s. = = = 2.3 A [1]
100 100
(ii) Iaverage = 0 [1]
all positive
600
2 complete cycles of [3]
400
a.c.
200
0
0.005 0.01 0.015 0.02 0.025 0.03 0.035
Time/s
51
Q Worked solution Marks
Vs 300 Ιp 1200 : 300 Ιs
3 (a) =
Vp 1200
240 V 48 Ω Vs
[1]
300
Vs = × 240 = 60 V
1200
Vs 60
(b) Is = = = 1.25 A [1]
R 48
(c) VpIp = VsIs
Vs 60 [1]
Ip = × Is = × 1.25 = 0.313 A
Vp 240
(d) P = VsIs = 60 × 1.25 = 75 W [1]
4 (a) Section 1 of the circuit is a transformer which steps down (decreases) the voltage
[2]
from 230 V to a lower a.c. voltage.
(b) (i) A single diode only provides an output for half of each a.c. cycle. [1]
Vout
4 1
(ii)
Vin
(a.c. supply)
3 2
R Vout [1]
When Vin is positive, current flows through diode 1, downwards through resistor
R and returns via diode 3; when Vin is negative, current flows through diode 2,
downwards through resistor R and returns via diode 4. In both halves of the a.c.
cycle the current is passing downwards through R. [1]
Vout
t [1]
(c) (i) The ‘bouncy’ output from the bridge rectifier can be made to more closely resemble [1]
a d.c. output by ‘smoothing’, ironing out the bumps in the output.
(ii) The addition of a capacitor in parallel with the load can achieve smoothing of the
output. When the p.d. across the load resistor is rising, the capacitor charges up.
As the p.d. across the load resistor starts to fall, the capacitor maintains the output
p.d. by only discharging slowly. When the p.d. from the rectifier rises again, the [2]
capacitor will charge up again and the process is repeated.
52
Answers to exam-style questions 24
• The amount of ripple depends on the value of CR (called the time constant) –
the larger the value of CR, the smoother the output.
• The value of the time constant CR should be much greater than the time
period of the a.c. supply.
• If the load resistance is quite small, the smoothing capacitor must be larger.
53
Unit 25
c 3.0 × 108
f2 = = = 1.00 × 1015Hz ✓ [1]
λ2 3.0 × 10−7
(b) E1 = hf1 − Φ
E 2 = hf2 − Φ
⇒ E 2 − E1 = h( f2 − f1 )
E 2 − E1 2.63 × 10−19 − 4.2 × 10−20
⇒h= = ✓ = 6.64 × 10−34Js ✓ [2]
( f2 − f1 ) 1.00 × 1015 − 6.67 × 1014
2 (a) (i) E k(max) = hf − Φ = 6.63 × 10−34 × 2.5 × 1015 − (3.68 × 1.6 × 10−19 ) = 1.07 × 10−18 J [1]
(ii) The threshold frequency is the frequency which will just release photoelectrons
from the surface, with no ‘spare’ kinetic energy. The energy of each photon (hf ) is
just equal to the minimum energy needed to remove an electron from the surface of
the metal (the work function Φ ).
54
Answers to exam-style questions 25
f= =
h 6.63 × 10−34
f
= 2.76 × 1015 Hz ✓
c 3.0 × 108
λ= = = 1.09 × 10−7 m ✓ [3]
f 2.76 × 1015 E2 = −13.6 eV
−7
(c) 1.09 × 10 m = 109 nm ultraviolet ✓
[1]
(visible range is approx. 400 nm−700 nm)
5 (a) n=∞→n=1
−19
ΔE = 13.59 × 1.6 × 10 = 2.17 × 10−18 J
∆E c ch
∆E = hf ⇒ f = ⇒ λ= = ✓
h f ∆E
3.0 × 108 × 6.63 × 10−34
=
2.17 × 10−18
= 9.2 × 10−8 m (92 nm) ✓
n=2→n=1
c ch
λ= =
f ∆E
3.0 × 108 × 6.63 × 10−34
=
(13.59 − 3.39) × 1.6 × 10−19
= 1.22 × 10−7 m (122 nm) ✓ [3]
(b) There are six possible spectral lines.
[1]
6 (a) The two electromagnetic waves are identical. Their difference is where they come
from – the source of the waves. Gamma rays are emitted during the radioactive [1]
decay of a substance; X-rays are produced by an X-ray machine.
55
Q Worked solution Marks
(b) X-rays are produced by bombarding a metal target with high-energy electrons – the
rapid deceleration of the electrons causes the emission of X-rays.
0V + 200 kV
Anode
Vacuum tube Motor
– 6V a.c.
Cathode
filament
Electron Lead
beam shield
X-rays
Electrons are emitted from the hot filament (the cathode) by thermionic emission.
They are then accelerated towards the anode by a p.d. of up to 200 kV. The anode is
a small target made of tungsten (or other metal with a high melting point).
(ii) The intensity of X-rays (the energy passing through unit area in one second) is
principally controlled by the number of electrons emitted per second, which in turn [1]
is controlled by the current in the cathode in the filament. However, increasing the
accelerating voltage will also increase the intensity as the same number of electrons
will be producing X-ray photons with higher energy.
(b) When using X-rays to produce an image of an internal body structure, the ‘soft’, or
longer wavelength, X-rays are more easily absorbed ✓.
This increases the exposure of the patient to hazardous radiation ✓.
It is often preferable to use hard, shorter wavelength, X-rays, employing a metal
filter to absorb the longer wavelength X-rays ✓.
56
Answers to exam-style questions 25
ln 2
x1/2 =
µ
ln 2 0.693
(b) (i) x1/2 = = = 1.16 cm ✓
µ 0.60 [1]
(ii) If 90% of the X-rays are absorbed, 10% of the X-rays pass through the bone.
0.1 I 0 = I 0 e − µ x ✓
e µ x = 10
calculating natural logs of both sides: μx = ln 10
2.30
x= = 3.8 cm ✓ [2]
0.60
57
Unit 26
protons increasing by 1.
4 The nucleus contains 11 protons, 23 − 11 = 12 neutrons, i.e. a total of 23 nucleons
C[1]
(particles in the nucleus).
+
5 In β decay, a proton changes into a neutron, a positron and an electron
neutrino, the positron and the electron neutrino being emitted from the nucleus: B[1]
86
41 Nb → 86
40 Zr + +1 e + v
0
6 quark charge/e
d −1/3
d +1/3
u +2/3 C[1]
u −2/3
Each up quark u has a charge of +2/3 e, so the third quark must also have a
charge of +2/3 e to make a total charge of +2e. The third quark is an up quark.
7 A proton is not a fundamental particle as it consists of two up quarks and one
down quark (uud). The other three particles are all believed to be fundamental
D[1]
particles, and are part of the ‘standard model’ of fundamental particles and
forces.
8 (a) Different isotopes of an element have the same chemical properties. Their nuclei
[2]
have the same number of protons ✓, but different numbers of neutrons ✓.
(b) The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time taken for the number of
undecayed atoms in a sample of the isotope to fall by half. ✓
As the activity of a sample (the number of decays per second) is proportional to [2]
the number of undecayed atoms present, the half-life is also the time taken for
the activity of the sample to halve. ✓
ln 2 0.693
(c) λ= ✓= ✓ = 4.28 × 10−4 per year [2]
T1/2 1620
58
Answers to exam-style questions 26
9 (a) Thermal neutrons are relatively slow-moving neutrons − they have energies
similar to their surroundings. This gives them a better chance of colliding with [1]
uranium nuclei and causing nuclear fission.
(b) Large (or ‘heavy’) atomic nuclei splitting into smaller nuclei ✓, with the release
[2]
of energy. ✓
(c) (i) Note: mass of a neutron = 1.00866 u
−27
1 u (atomic mass unit) = 1.66054 × 10 kg
Mass defect = 235.04393 + 1.00866 − (92.91399 + 139.92162 + 3 × 1.00866)✓
= 0.1910 u ✓ [2]
−27 −28
(ii) Mass defect = 0.1910 × 1.66054 × 10 = 3.172 × 10 kg ✓
ΔE = c2(Δm) = (3.0 × 108)2 × 3.172 × 10−28 = 2.85 × 10−11 J ✓
2.85 × 10−11
= = 178 MeV ✓ [3]
1.6 × 10−13
87
10 Let the number of atoms of Ru be N0 when the rock was first formed.
Number of atoms of 87Ru remaining after time t = N 0 e − λ t ✓
Number of 87Sr atoms present at time t = N 0 (1 − e )✓
− λt
=
number of Ru atoms N 0e− λt
1 − e − λ t = 0.0060 × e − λ t
e λ t = 1.0060
λ t = In 1.0060
ln1.0060 ln1.0060
t= × T1/2 = × 4.9 × 109 = 4.2 × 107 years ✓ [4]
ln 2 ln 2
59
Unit 27
Exam-style questions, page 228
= 1 + (2 × 5) + 2
= 13% ✓ [1]
4 Systematic errors: Errors which cause all the measurements to be ‘shifted’ in
one direction relative to the ‘true’ value, or measurements that are all a multiple [1]
of the true answer. If the systematic errors are small, the measurement is
accurate.
Random errors: Errors which lead to values which are evenly distributed
(scattered) around the ‘true’ value. Random errors usually occur because the
experimenter is unable to take the same measurement in exactly the same way [1]
each time. Random errors can be reduced by reading instruments from the
correct position and taking repeated measurements to obtain an average value.
If the random errors are small the measurements are precise.
✓ correct values of √h
60
Answers to exam-style questions 27
0.65
0.6
0.55
0.5
T −1/2 (s−1/2)
0.45
0.4
0.35
0.3
0.25
0.2
1 1.2 1.4 1.6 1.8 2 2.2 2.4 2.6
x (cm)
+
(b) 100 35.4 10.0
220 19.0 4.54
330 14.4 3.03
470 13.7 2.13
560 10.7 1.79
820 9.0 1.22
61
Q Worked solution Marks
40
35
30
l / mA
20
15
0
0 0.002 0.004 0.006 0.008 0.01 0.012
1/R /Ω−1
✓ points plotted correctly [1]
(c) 35.0 − 5.0
Gradient = = 3.0 × 103 A Ω (V) ✓ [1]
0.010 − 0
From the graph, y-intercept = 5.0 mA ✓ [1]
8 (a) T1 323
k1 = = = 0.904 ✓
η12 18.92
T2 373
k2 = = = 0.830 ✓ [2]
η2 21.22
2
Relationship supported as the % difference between the two values of k is less [1]
than 10%.
62
Answers to exam-style questions 27
Exam-style questions, pages 237–38
x y lg x lg y
1.0 3.0 0 0.477
1.7 6.6 0.230 0.820
2.1 9.0 0.322 0.954
2.8 14.1 0.447 1.15
3.5 19.5 0.544 1.29
3.9 23.1 0.591 1.36
1.20
1.00
lg y
0.80
0.60
0.40
0 0.20 0.40 0.60 0.80
lg x
63
Q Worked solution Marks
(b) Suitable axes and scales chosen ✓
Points plotted correctly ✓
Good best fit straight line drawn ✓
∆y 1.340 − 0.670
n = gradient = = = 1.49(1.5) ✓
∆x 0.580 − 0.130
[3]
y-intercept = 0.477 ⇒ A = 100.477 = 3.00
In this experiment, the independent variable is the distance d between the source
and the GM tube. The dependent variable is the count-rate C. The radioactive
source used should not be changed.
To begin with, the background count is measured, recording the count rate without
the γ-ray source present. The count rate should be recorded for, say, 5 minutes and
repeated twice. An average value for the count rate per minute (C0) should then be
calculated.
The gamma-ray source should be held in a suitable holder (an electrical plug
connector is suitable for this) and clamped to a clamp stand. It should then be
placed 10 cm from the GM tube. The source and the ‘window’ of the GM tube
should be aligned so that they are at the same height and placed along the same
straight line.
The count rate for 1 minute should be recorded 3 times and an average taken.
The experiment should be repeated, increasing the distance between the γ-ray
source and the GM tube by 10 cm each time, up to a distance of 2.00 m.
1
d / cm / cm −2 C1 / min−1 C2 / min−1 C3 / min−1 C / min−1 C = C − C0 / min−1
d 2
The background count can be subtracted from the average count rate to find the
count rate due to the γ-ray source alone. The table should include values of 1/d2.
A graph of adjusted count rate C against 1/d2 should be plotted. If the suggested
relationship is correct, the graph will be a straight line through the origin. The
constant A in the equation is then the gradient of the graph.
(Alternative: plot log C against log d. If the relationship is correct, the graph will be
a straight line, with a gradient of 2. The value of the y-intercept is then log A from
which A can be calculated.)
Safety precautions
The radioactive source should only be handled with tongs and kept away as far as
possible from all present. When not being used, the source should be stored in a
lead-lined box.
64
Answers to exam-style questions 27
Correct axes/scales
[2]
In (C /counts /min−1)
7.20
7.00
6.80
0 2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0
x /mm
Line with maximum or minimum gradient that still passes through the error bars of
all the data points. ✓ [2]
7.63 − 6.98
(iii) gradient of line of best fit = = −0.171 ✓
1.60 − 5.40
7.70 − 6.93
gradient of worst acceptable straight line = = −0.160
1.00 − 5.80
gradient = −0.17 ± 0.01 ✓ [2]
65
Q Worked solution Marks
(d) (i) gradient = −μ = −0.17 ⇒ μ = 0.17 ✓
7.90 3
y-intercept = ln C0 = 7.90 ⇒ C0 = e = 2.70 × 10 ✓ [2]
absolute uncertainty 0.01
(ii) percentage uncertainty in µ = × 100% ✓ = × 100 = 6% ✓ [2]
mean value 0.17
6 (a) x = kdn
lg x = lg k + nlg d [1]
0.80
0.60
lg (x /cm)
Worst acceptable
straight line
0.40
Straight line
of best fit
0.20
0.0
0.80 0.85 0.90 0.95 1.00
lg (d /mm)
Line with maximum or minimum gradient that still passes through the error bars of
all the data points. ✓ [2]
∆y 0.640 − 0.140
(iii) gradient of line of best fit = = = − 4.0 ✓
∆x 0.835 − 0.960
∆y 0.510 − 0.080
gradient of worst acceptable straight line= = = −3.7 ✓ [2]
∆x 0.8725 − 0.990
66
Answers to exam-style questions 27
67
Unit 28
Paper 1 style questions: Multiple choice
p C[1]
p–q
3 1
% uncertainty in R = × 100 = 2.0%
49
0.4
% uncertainty in l = × 100 = 0.4%
99.5 D[1]
0.01
% uncertainty in A = 2 × % uncertainty in d = 2 × × 100 = 5.3%
0.38
% uncertainty in ρ = 2.0 + 0.4 + 5.3 = 7.7 %
2 2
4 Using v = u + 2as:
11.02 = 7.02 + 2 × 9.81 × h C[1]
h = 3.7 m
5 ‘Taking moments’ about the pivot: 15 Connecting
cos 30° link
15
F× = 120 × 30 F
cos 30°
B[1]
F = 208 N (210 N to 2 s.f.) 120 N
60°
30°
30 cm 15 cm
68
Answers to exam-style questions 28
ℓ= λ
2
B[1]
λ
l= = 67 − 42 = 25cm
2
λ = 50 cm
v 330
f= = = 660 Hz
λ 0.50
9 For the charged oil drop to be stationary, the gravitational force on the drop must be equal to
the electrical force on the drop:
V
mg = q
d D[1]
qV
m=
gd
69
Q Worked solution Marks
12 Let the e.m.f. of the cell be E.
For the 5 Ω resistor:
E r
E = 2.0 × (5 + r) = 10 + 2r
For the 7 Ω resistor:
B[1]
E = 1.5 × (7 + r) = 10.5 + 1.5r 5Ω
A
Combining these two equations:
10 + 2r = 10.5 + 1.5r
r = 1.0 Ω
−
13 In β decay the nucleon number stays constant and the proton number increases by 1
(a neutron changes into a proton and an electron - the β particle - and an electron
antineutrino are emitted from the nucleus).
In alpha decay, 2 protons and 2 neutrons are emitted (the alpha particle is identical to a C[1]
helium nucleus), so the nucleon number decreases by 4 and the proton number decreases
by 2.
83 Bi → 84 Po →
214 214 210
82 Pb
14 The standard model of fundamental particles consists of 6 quarks (up, down, charm, strange,
top and bottom) and 6 leptons (electron, muon and tau particles and their associated D[1]
neutrinos) together with their equivalent antiparticles.
70
Answers to exam-style questions 28
Paper 2 style questions: AS structured questions
= 2050 N ✓ [2]
(c) (i) Applying F = ma along the slope: ✓ 20 m s–1
7.2 kN
(ii) −(7200 + 2050) = 2000 a ✓ [2]
−2 6°
a = −4.63 m s 19.6 kN
Using v2 = u2 + 2as: ✓
02 = 202 + 2 × (−4.6) × s
s = 43 m ✓ [2]
(d) 1
(i) 1. ∆Ek = × 2000 × ( 202 − 02 ) = 4.0 × 105 J [1]
2
2. Work done by braking force = 7200 × 43 = 3.1 × 105 J [1]
(ii) Some of the kinetic energy lost by the lorry has become gravitational potential
energy ✓ of the lorry (the lorry is higher up the slope). [1]
2 (a) (i) Principle of conservation of momentum:
For a system of interacting objects, the total momentum remains constant ✓,
provided no external resultant force ✓ acts on the system. [2]
(ii) A perfectly elastic collision is one in which there is no overall loss in kinetic energy. [1]
(b) 1
(i) 1. mu 2 [1]
2
2
1 u 1
2. m = mu 2 [1]
2 2 8
1
3. mv 2 [1]
2
u 3
v=
2 [1]
71
Q Worked solution Marks
(c) Using the conservation of momentum in the original direction of travel of the first
ball before the collision: ✓
u
m cos 60° + mv cos θ = mu
2
3 u 3
but v = u ⇒ m cos 60° + mu cos θ = mu ✓
2 2 2
3 1 3 3 [3]
cos θ = 1 − = ⇒ cos θ = ⇒ θ = 30° ✓
2 4 4 2
(The value of θ can also be found by applying the principle of conservation of
momentum in a direction perpendicular to the original direction of the first ball.)
3 (a) force
(i) tensile stress = [1]
cross-sectional area of wire
extension of wire
(ii) tensile strain = [1]
original length
tensile stress
(iii) Young modulus = [1]
tensile strain
(b) F 3.5
(i) σ= = = 5.68 × 107 Pa(N m −2 ) ✓ [2]
A π × (0.14 × 10−3 )2
x 1.24 × 10−3
(ii) ε= = = 8.27 × 10−4 ✓ [1]
l0 1.50
σ 5.68 × 107
E= = = 6.9 × 1010 ✓ N m−2 ✓ [2]
ε 8.27 × 10−4
Note: the ‘raw data’ used in this question (the length and diameter of the wire, the
load applied and the extension it causes) are recorded to two or three significant
figures. This means that the values of σ, ε and E can all be expressed to two or three
significant figures.
(c) Halving the diameter decreases the cross-sectional area by a factor of 4, so the stress
on the wire would be 4 times as large and the extension produced would be 4 times
as great. ✓ [1]
However, this assumes that the aluminium has not reached its Hooke’s law limit/
elastic limit/ultimate tensile strength.✓ [1]
(The ultimate tensile strength of aluminium is approximately 100 MPa, so a stress of
4 × 5.7 × 107 = 2.3 × 108 Pa would cause the aluminium to break.)
4 (a) (i) Diffraction: when waves spread out, after passing through a gap or round an
obstacle, ✓ beyond the ‘geometric shadow’.✓ [2]
(ii) Interference: when two or more waves meet, their amplitudes add up (constructive
interference) if they are in phase, or cancel out (destructive interference) if they are [1]
out of phase.
(b) (i) The light waves emerging from the two slits have a fixed phase difference. [1]
(ii) Consider the case when the light waves emerging from the two slits are in phase
with each other. In general, the light from one slit reaching a point P on the screen
will have travelled a different distance to the light reaching point P from the other
slit.✓ [1]
72
Answers to exam-style questions 28
2. 60 − 28 = 32 neutrons [1]
73
Q Worked solution Marks
(b) (i) 60
Co → 60
Ni+ −10 e+v
27 28
74
Answers to exam-style questions 28
Paper 3 style questions: Advanced practical skills
1.20
[4]
1/V
1.00
0.80
0.60
0 25 50 75 100
x
75
Q Worked solution Marks
(f) d 8 × 10−3
(i) k= ⇒ k1 = = 1.4(5) × 10−2 m −2
P 0.552
17 × 10−3
k2 = = 1.4(2) × 10−2 m −2 [1]
1.20
(ii) The two values of k differ by less than the percentage uncertainty in d (13%)
calculated in (d)(ii), so the two values of k can be considered the same (k1
and k2 are equal to 2 significant figures). The results are consistent with the [1]
suggested relationship between P and d.
(iii) P = x2(3L − x) = (65)2 × [(3 × 89.7) − 65] = 8.62 × 105 cm3 (0.862 m3)
d = kP = 1.4 × 10−2 × 0.862 = 0.012 m (12 mm) [1]
(g) (i) 1. Only two sets of data have been collected – not enough to be able to draw a [1]
valid conclusion.
2. The deflection d of the beam is small, leading to a large percentage [1]
uncertainty in the value of d.
3. Difficult to hold the 1.0 m ruler steady and vertical when measuring the [1]
deflection.
4. The wooden beam is not horizontal without any load applied (it has a small [1]
deflection due to its own weight) so it is difficult to judge the deflection of the
beam from its starting position.
(ii) 1. Repeat the experiment for other values of x, collecting at least 6 sets of data, [1]
and then plot a graph of d against P. (If the suggested relationship is correct,
the graph should be a straight line passing through the origin.)
2. Use a longer length L of wooden beam. [1]
3. Clamp the ruler vertically (using a base clamp). Check the ruler is vertical
[1]
using a set square held against the ruler (see diagram).
Metre rule
Bench
4. Mount a second beam (without a load) next to the original beam. Measure [1]
the difference in deflection between the two beams.
76
Answers to exam-style questions 28
Paper 4 style questions: A level structured questions
F 2.17 × 10 4
(ii) F = ma ⇒ a = = = 8.68 m s −2 ✓ [1]
m 2.5 × 103
(d) v2
(i) Centripetal acceleration = = 8.68 ✓
r
(ii)
Energy
0 T/2
77
Q Worked solution Marks
3 (a) Capacitance: The capacitance C of a capacitor is the charge stored (on one plate)
[1]
per unit potential difference.
(b) • One plate of a charged capacitor will be positively charged; the other will have
an equal amount of negative charge. [2]
• The overall charge ‘stored’ in the capacitor is zero.
(c) (i) 2 capacitors in parallel = 60 μF ✓
V1 + V2 = 12 ✓
Q Q
+ = 12
60 µF 30 µF 60 μF 30 μF
–Q +Q –Q +Q
Q = 240 μC
V1 V2
240 µC
V2 = = 8.0 V ✓ [2]
30 µF
= 80 μC ✓
12.0 V
[1]
20 μF
–Q +Q
3 3
30 μF
–Q +Q
40 μF
–2Q +2Q
3 3
(d) (i) Energy stored = ½CV2 = ½ × (40 × 10−6) × 4.02 ✓ = 3.2 × 10−4 J (0.32 mJ) ✓ [2]
(ii) A charged capacitor stores energy in the form of electrical potential energy in the [1]
electric field between the two plates.
(iii) One of: camera flash/ insect ‘zappers’/ pulsed lasers, etc. [1]
4 (a) The resistance of the thermistor decreases as the temperature increases. [1]
(b) (i) Potential divider [1]
Rth 4
(ii) = ✓ ⇒ 6 Rth = 4 ( Rth + 20 )
Rth + 20 6
2 Rth = 80
Rth = 40 kΩ ✓ [2]
78
Answers to exam-style questions 28
5 (a) (i) Faraday’s law: The induced e.m.f. in a circuit is proportional to the rate of change of [1]
flux linkage through the circuit.
(ii) The magnetic flux, Φ, through an area A is defined as:
Φ = BA ✓
where B is the component of magnetic flux density (magnetic field strength) [2]
perpendicular ✓ to the area A.
(b) (i) ‘Area swept’ per second (= dA/dt) = lv [1]
(ii) dΦ d ( BA ) dA [1]
E = (−) = (−) = (−) B = ( − ) Blv
dt dt dt
(The minus sign indicates that the induced voltage acts in a direction that opposes
the change causing the induced e.m.f.)
(c) E Blv
(i) I= = [1]
R R
(ii) The current is going away from the reader/ into the paper. [1]
(iii) The electromagnetic force F on the bar is towards the left, opposing the motion that
is inducing the e.m.f. ✓
Blv B 2l 2v
F = BIl = B l = ✓ [2]
R R
(d) The current induced in the bar would also be in the opposite direction (out of the
paper/ towards the reader). Since both magnetic field and electric current have
[1]
reversed direction, the force on the bar would still be towards the left (i.e. still
opposing the motion).
(e) The bar is moving at constant speed, so the forces are balanced. ✓
B 2l 2v
=W ✓
R
RW
v= 2 2 ✓ [3]
Bl
79
Paper 5 style questions: Planning, analysis and evaluation
Spring
Rod of clamp
l
Clamp stand
Slotted
masses
Measurements to be taken:
diameter of spring d = .......
original length of the spring l0 = .......
80
Answers to exam-style questions 28
A 2
lg t = lg + n lg h
a g
Comparing this equation with the graph for a straight line (y = mx + c):
A 2
gradient, m = n ✓ y -intercept, c = lg ✓ [2]
a g
81
Q Worked solution Marks
(c) (i)
and 2.0
(ii) (c)(i) Points plotted correctly
Error bars drawn correctly [2]
1.9
lg (t/s)
1.8
1.7
1.6
1.2 1.4 1.6 1.8 2.0
lg (h/cm)
82