Physics Answers From Book Esqs

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Answers to exam-style

questions

Unit 1

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
1 The relevant base S.I. units here are kg, m and s.
Using the symbol [x] to represent ‘the units of x’:
−2 −1
[F] = N = kg m s (from F = ma) [r] = m [v] = m s
6π is dimensionless, so has no units.
Re-arranging the equation: D[1]
F
η=
6 πrv
so,
[F ] kg ms −2
[η ] = = = kg m −1 s −1
[ 6 π ] × [r ] × [ v ] m × ms−1
2 Squaring the equation:
k 2γ E
σ2 =
d
σ 2d
re-arranging this equation:     γ =
k2 E
D[1]
[σ] = N m−2   [d] = m   [E] = N m−2
k (and hence k2) is dimensionless, so has no units.

[σ ]2 × [d] ( Nm ) × m
−2 2

so, [γ ] = [k 2 ] × [ E ] = Nm −2 = Nm −1 = (Nm ) × m −2 = Jm −2

3 100
Mass of runner ≈ 80 kg; top speed ≈ = 10 m s−1
10
1 1 B[1]
E k = mv 2 = × 80 × 102 = 4000 J
2 2
= 4kJ
4 The only vector (having both magnitude and direction) is momentum. C[1]
5 –b
a
C[1]
a + (–b)
7
6 1 year ≈ 3 × 10 s
1 light-year = dist. travelled by light in 1 year
D[1]
= (3 × 108) × (3 × 107) = 9 × 1015 m
diameter of Milky Way galaxy = 105 light-years = 105 × (9 × 1015) ≈ 1021 m
5
7 (a) (i) 470 kΩ = 4.7 × 10 Ω [1]
−6 −3
(ii) 1000 μF = 1000 × 10 = 1.0 × 10 F [1]
(iii) 0.05 nm = 0.05 × 10−9 = 5.0 × 10−11 m [1]
6
(b) (i) 6.4 × 10 m = 6400 km = 6.4 Mm [1]

1
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
(ii) 0.0075 A = 7.5 mA [1]
8 −1 −1 −1
(iii) 3.0 × 10 m s = 300 Mm s = 0.3 Gm s [1]
8 (a) A scalar quantity only has magnitude. A vector quantity has both magnitude and
[1]
direction.
(b) The vector quantities are weight and acceleration. Stress is not strictly a vector as
[2]
it does not add up in the same way as vectors − it is a tensor.
9 (a) (i) F cos θ [1]
(ii) T sin θ [1]
(iii) W sin θ [1]
(b) Resolving forces along the slope: T = F + W sin θ [1]
10 (a) A mole is the quantity of a substance consisting of identical particles that
23 [1]
contains NA particles of the substance, where NA is Avogadro’s constant: 6.02 × 10

molar mass 63.5 × 10−3


(b) Molar volume of Cu = = = 7.11 × 10−6 m 3 ✓ [2]
density 8930

Volume of one cube = ( 2.55 × 10−10 ) = 1.66 × 10−29 m 3


3
(c) (i) [1]

molar volume 7.11 × 10−6


(ii) No of cubes = = −29
= 4.28 × 1023 ✓ [2]
volume of one cube 1.66 × 10
(d) Copper atoms in a crystal ‘pack together’ more tightly than this simple ‘cubic’
3 [1]
model suggests. Each copper atom occupies less space than its (diameter) .

2
Answers to exam-style questions 2
Unit 2

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
1 The zero on the sliding scale is just past the 0.9 cm mark on the main scale.
The ‘5’ line on the sliding scale is aligned with a scale marking on the main scale. B[1]
The reading is 0.90 cm + 0.05 cm = 0.95 cm
2 The reading on the barrel is just past the 0.50 mm mark.
The reading on the thimble is ‘11’ (0.11 mm). B[1]
The reading is 0.50 mm + 0.11 mm = 0.61 mm
3 The time-base is set to 0.2 ms per division (0.2 ms to travel across one square on
the screen).
The screen shows 4 complete oscillations in 8 × 0.2 ms = 1.6 ms
1.6 ms
The period T of the oscillation is = 0.4 ms
4 A[1]
1 1
The frequency f = = = 2500 Hz
T 0.4 × 10−3
The y-gain is set to 50 mV per division (50 mV to move up one square on the screen)
The amplitude is 2.5 divisions = 2.5 × 50 mV = 125 mV
4 6m
ρ=
πd 3
% uncertainty in ρ = % uncertainty in m + 3 × % in d D[1]
0.1 0.1
= × 100% + 3 × × 100 = 2.3%
19.7 16.5
5 (a) (i) Random error − the measured values are scattered around the true value. [1]
(ii) Systematic error − the measured values are all ‘shifted’ in a similar way from the
true value. There are more measurements below the true value than above the [1]
true value.
(b) Measurements are accurate if the systematic uncertainty is small. If the
measurements were more accurate they would be more equally distributed above
and below the true value.
[1]
[Measurements are more precise if the random uncertainty is small (if the range
of values − the scatter − is smaller). If the precision is improved, more of the
readings would be closer to each other.]
6 (a) F 40
p= = = 10.4 kPa ✓ calculation ✓ (consistent units) [2]
A π × (3.5 × 10−2 )2

(b) % uncertainty in p = % uncertainty in force + 2 × % uncertainty in diameter ✓ [1]


1 0.5 [1]
= × 100% + 2 × × 100% = 17% ✓
40 7.0
[An alternative method is to calculate the max. and min. values of p and then
1
(pmax − pmin )
calculate 2 × 100%.]
<p>
(c) 17% of 10.4 = 1.8 kPa ✓ p = 10.4 ± 1.8 kPa ✓ [2]

3
Unit 3

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
1 Let the distance between the two towns be d km.
d
time taken for the outward journey: t1 = hours
40
d
time taken for the return journey: t2 = hours B[1]
20
total distance 2d 2 × 40
average speed for whole journey: = = = = 27 km h −1
total time d d 1 + 2
+
40 20

2 The speed at t = 10 s is the gradient of 350


the graph at t = 10 s.
300
320 − 0
speed = gradient = = 20 ms −1
20 − 4 250

Distance / m
200

320 m
150 D[1]

100

50

16 s
0
0 10 20 30
Time / s

3 The upwards direction is taken as the positive direction for displacement, velocity
and acceleration.
Applying s = ut + ½at2 from the moment the stone is released until the stone hits
the ground: A[1]
2
−H = 20 × 6.0 + ½ × (−9.8) × 6.0
H = ½ × 9.8 × 6.02 − 20 × 6.0 = 56.4 m
4 (a) A scalar quantity only has magnitude; a vector quantity has both magnitude and
[1]
direction.
(b) speed displacement acceleration velocity [1]
(c) (i) Let the time for the ball to reach the net be t.
a = g = 9.81 m s−2
A –1
60 m s

1.40m

11.90m

4
Answers to exam-style questions 3

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
Applying s = ut + ½at2 horizontally from A to B:
11.90 = 60 × t + ½ × 0 × t2 ✓ [1]
11.90
t= = 0.20 s ✓ [1]
60

(ii) Let the distance the ball falls vertically from A to B be y.


Applying s = ut + ½at2 vertically downwards from A to B:
y = 0 × t + ½ × 9.81 × t2 = ½ × 9.81 × (0.20)2 = 0.20 m ✓ [1]
Height of net = 1.07 m; height of ball above ground = 1.40 − 0.20 = 1.20 m
1.20 > 1.07, so ball passes over the net ✓ [1]
(d) Let the time from A to C be T.
a = g = 9.81 m s−2
A 60 m s–1

1.40 m

11.90 m x

Applying s = ut + ½at2 vertically downwards from A to C:


1.40 = 0 × T + ½ × 9.81 × T 2
1.40
T= =0.534 s ✓ [1]
0.5 × 9.81

Applying s = ut + ½at2 horizontally from A to C:


11.90 + x = 60 × T + ½ × 0 × T2 = 60 × 0.534 = 32.04 m
x = 32.04 − 11.90 = 20.14 m ✓ [1]
(e) The distance moved from A to C is the total number of metres travelled by the ball
in moving from A to C (the length of the curved path). The displacement is the [1]
direct (straight line) distance between A and C, in the direction AC.
5 (a) (i) Horizontal component of velocity
= 9.0 cos 70°
= 3.08 m s−1 ✓ [1]
y
(ii) time t taken to move 4.80 m in the horizontal 9.0 m s–1 70º
direction:
4.80
t= = 1.56 s
3.08 h
✓ method 1.80 m [2]
✓ calculation
(iii) Let y be the vertical displacement of the
basketball at time t.
4.80 m

5
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
Applying s = ut + ½at2 vertically upwards (displacement, velocity and acceleration
are positive in the upwards direction):
y = 9.0 sin 70° × 1.56 + ½ × (−9.81) × 1.562 = 1.26 m ✓ [1]
height h of basket = 1.80 + 1.26 = 3.06 m ✓ [1]
(b) The velocity of the basketball when it reaches the basket has two components:
horizontal component of velocity, vx = 3.08 m s−1 (horizontal component is constant)
The vertical component vy can be found by applying v = u + at vertically upwards
(displacement, velocity and acceleration are positive in the upwards direction):
vy= 9.0 sin 70° + (−9.81) × 1.56 = −6.85 m s−1 ✓ [1]
The negative sign indicates that the velocity is downwards.
The resultant velocity v is found by adding the two vectors vx and vy.
vx
θ

vy v

v= ( v x2 + v y2 ) = (3.08 +6.85 ) = 7.51m s


2 2 −1
✓ [1]

at an angle θ below the horizontal, where:


 vy  6.85 
θ = tan −1   = tan −1   = 65.8°✓ [1]
 vx   3.08 

6
Answers to exam-style questions 4
Unit 4

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
1 Assuming the acceleration of the electron is uniform, the acceleration a of the
2 2
electron can be found by applying the equation v = u + 2as:
( 4.2 × 10 )7 2
= 02 + 2 × a × 15 × 10−3

a=
( 4.2 × 10 ) 7 2

= 5.9 × 1016 m s −2
C[1]
−3
2 × 15 × 10
Using F = ma:
force on the electron = 9.11 × 10−31 × 5.9 × 1016 = 5.4 × 10−14 N
2 Let T be the tension in the cables. Applying F = ma:
T
T − 1.4 × 103 × 9.81 = 1.4 × 103 × 1.6
T = 1.4 × 103 × 1.6 + 1.4 × 103 × 9.81
1.4 × 103 kg 1.6 m s–2 D[1]
T = 16.0 kN

1.4 × 103 g N

3 Applying F = ma horizontally:
 40 × 9.81 
600 cos 40° −   = 40 a, where a is the acceleration of the box
 2 
B[1]
263.4
a= = 6.6 ms −2
40

4 Let the speed of 0.7 kg mass be v after the collision. Using the principle of
conservation of momentum:

1.4 × 0.7 + 0.7 × (−0.2) = 1.4 × 0.3 + 0.7 × v A[1]


0.98 − 0.14 − 0.42
Re-arranging:             v = = 0.6 m s −1
0.7
5 Let the mass of trolley Q be m. The total momentum before the ‘explosion’ is 0.
Applying the principle of conservation of momentum:
m × 1.80 − 0.90 × 1.20 = 0 A[1]
0.90 × 1.20
m= = 0.60 kg
1.80
6 (a) For a system of interacting objects, the total momentum remains constant, ✓
[2]
provided no external force acts on the system.✓
−1
(b) (i) momentum = mass × velocity = 18 × 4.0 = 72.0 kg m s ✓ correct calculation [2]
✓ correct units

(ii) From the diagram,


16.5
sin ϕ = = 0.868 ⇒ ϕ = sin−1(0.868) = 60.2° ✓ 19.0 cm
19.0
[1]
16.5 cm
ϕ

7
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
(c) (i) Using the principle of conservation of momentum in a direction perpendicular to
the original direction of travel of the first stone:
 18 × (v/2)sin 60° = 18 × v sin θ ✓ [1]
sin θ = 0.433 ⇒ θ = 25.7° ✓ [1]
(ii) Using the principle of conservation of momentum in the original direction of
travel of the first stone:
⇒ 18 × 4.0 = 18 × v cos θ + 18 × (v/2) cos 60° ✓ [1]
Re-arranging:
cos 60°
18v (cos θ + ) = 18 × 4.0
2
substituting θ = 25.7°:
4.0
v= = 3.5 m s −1 ✓ [1]
 cos 25.7° + cos 60° 
 2 

8
Answers to exam-style questions 5
Unit 5

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
1 The horizontal component of F2 is 11 cos 60° = 5.5 N B[1]
2 The load is in equilibrium under three forces:
Using Pythagoras’ theorem:
T2 = 4002 + 1702 T
400 N
2 2 D[1]
T = √(400 + 170 ) = 435 N

170 N

3 The weight of the book exerts a clockwise moment


of magnitude 12.0 × 4.0 = 48.0 N cm about the point
the book is being held.
4.0 cm
To remain in equilibrium the thumb and forefinger must
exert an equal and opposite moment, i.e. 48.0 N cm
anticlockwise. B[1]

12.0 N

4 p = ρ1gh1 + ρ2gh2 = g (ρ1h1 + ρ2h2)


= 9.81 (900 × 6 × 10−2 + 1000 × 9 × 10−2) B[1]
3
= 1.41 × 10 Pa (1.41 kPa)
5 (a) The moment of a force about any point is the force × the perpendicular distance
[1]
from the line of action of the force to the point.
(b) For equilibrium:
[1]
sum of the clockwise moments = sum of the anticlockwise moments
(c) Let the tension in the cord be F.
‘Taking moments’ about the point T:
Q
P
F × 1.0 sin 60° = 4.8 × 1.5 sin 50° ✓ [1]
70° F R 50°
F = 6.4 kN     ✓ correct calculation [1]
60°
✓ correct units [1]

1.0 m
50°

4.8 kN
T

9
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
6 T1 T2

20°
20° 30° T1

50°
3.0 × 104 N

T2
30°
3.0 × 104 N

The triangle of forces should be drawn to a suitable scale (e.g. 1.0 cm represents
2.0 × 103 N). The forces can then be found by measuring the lengths of T1 and T2
in the triangle of forces.
✓ suitable scale; ✓triangle drawn correctly; ✓ T1 and T2 correct to 2 sig. figs. [3]

Alternatively, by calculation (using the sin rule):


T1 T2 3.0 × 10 4
= =
sin 60° sin 70° sin 50°

⇒ T1 = 3.4 × 104 N; T2 = 3.7 × 104 N

10
Answers to exam-style questions 6
Unit 6

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
1 work done = gravitational potential energy gained by paving stone
−2
= 30 × 9.81 × (16 × 10 )
= 47 J

A[1]

(20 − 4) = 16 cm

2 As frictional forces can be ignored:


Ek gained = Ep lost
25 m
½ mv2 = mgΔh Δh
A[1]
v = √(2gΔh)
30°
= √(2 × 9.81 × 25 sin 30°)
−1 −1
= 15.7 m s (16 m s )
3 W=F×s
As F is constant, W ∝ s (a straight-line graph passing through (0,0))
W

D[1]

4 (a) Gravitational potential energy is the energy of a mass due to its position in a [1]
gravitational field. ✓
Electrical potential energy is the energy of an electrically-charged object due to [1]
its position in an electric field. ✓
−3
(b) (i) ΔEp = mgΔh = 60 × 10 × 9.81 × 4.0 = 2.35 J ✓ [1]
2 × 2.35
(ii) ½mv2 = 2.35 ⇒ v = = 8.9 m s−1 ✓ method [2]
60 × 10−3
✓ calculation

11
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
2 −3 2
(c) (i) Ek after hitting the ground = ½ mv = ½ × 60 × 10 × 6.2 = 1.15 J ✓ [1]
2.35 − 1.15
(ii) Fraction of energy lost in collision = = 0.51 (51%) ✓ [1]
2.35
Applying the conservation of energy: ΔEp = Ek after hitting the ground

mg × H = ½ mv2
v2 6.22
H= = = 1.96 m ✓ [1]
2 g 2 × 9.81
5  work done 
(a) (i) Power is the rate of doing work  power =  ✓ [1]
 time taken 
(ii) Work done = F × s ✓
work done F × s [2]
Power = = =  F × v ✓
time taken t
(b) (i) Applying F = ma:
3
F − 2.4 × 10 = 3000 × 0.50 ✓ method
F = 1500 + 2400 = 3900 N (3.9 kN) ✓ calculation [2]

(ii) P = Fv = 3900 × 15 = 5.85 × 104 W (59 kW) ✓ [1]

12
Answers to exam-style questions 7
Unit 7

Q Worked solution Answer


1 (a) π π
(i) 60° = 60° × = rad [1]
180° 3
π 25π
(ii) 250° = 250° × = rad (4.36 rad) [1]
180° 18
π 19π
(iii) 95° = 95° × = rad (1.66 rad) [1]
180° 36

π π 180°
(b) (i) rad = × = 30°
6 6 π [1]
3π 3π 180°
(ii) rad = × = 135° [1]
4 4 π
9π 9π 180°
(iii) rad = × = 231.4° [1]
7 7 π
2 (a) 800 × 2 × π
ω= = 83.8 rad s −1 [1]
60
(b) v = rω = 30.0 × 83.8 = 25.1 m s−1 [1]
3 (a) ½mv2 = mgΔh ⇒ v = 2 g ∆h = 2 × 9.81 × 0.05 = 0.99 m s−1 ✓ method
[2]
✓ calculation
(b) Maximum tension in the string occurs when the ball is moving fastest.
Applying F = ma:
 v2 
T − mg = m   T
r 
v2
 v2  r
T = mg + m  
r 
−3 −3
 0.992  mg
= 80 × 10 × 9.81 + 80 × 10 ×   ✓ method
 0.6 
= 0.92 N            ✓ calculation [2]

2
4 (a) (i) [1]

(ii) mrω2 [1]


Applying F = ma:  T sin θ = mrω
2
(b) (i) (1)
 r  2
T=m ω q
 sin θ  r
l sin q =
l
T = mlω    ✓
2
[1]

(ii) Resolving forces ↑: T cos θ = mg (2)

Combining equations (1) and (2): r


T sin θ mrω 2
=
T cos θ mg
rω 2 [1]
tan θ = ✓
g

13
Q Worked solution Answer
5 (a) Let the velocity of the ball be u at the bottom and v at the top, and the difference
in height be Δh. From the principle of conservation of energy:
mgΔh + ½mv2 = ½ mu2 ✓ method [1]

v2 = u2 − 2gΔh
Δh = 0.8 m, u = 6.0 m s−1:      v2 = 6.02 − 2 × 9.81 × 0.8
v = √(36.0 − 15.7) = 4.5 m s−1 ✓ calculation [1]
(b) mv 2
(i) T − mg =
r v2
T r
mv 2
T= + mg ✓ method
r
v = 6.0 m s−1
0.2 × 6.02
= + 0.20 × 9.81
0.40
= 20.0 N ✓ calculation mg [2]

mv 2
(ii) T + mg =
r
v = 4.5 m s−1
mv 2
T= − mg
r
v2
0.2 × 4.52 T + mg
= − 0.20 × 9.81 r
0.40
= 8.2 N ✓ calculation [1]
2 2
(c) Ek at the lowest point = ½mv = 0.5 × 0.2 × 3.0 = 0.9 J

ΔEp in moving from the lowest point to the highest point = mgΔh
= 0.2 × 9.81 × 0.8
= 1.6 J       ✓ [1]

As 1.6 > 0.9 the ball does not have enough kinetic energy at the bottom to reach
the highest point. The string would become slack at some point and the ball
would fall freely under gravity. ✓ [1]
mv 2
Alternative arguments possible, e.g. at top point T = − mg > 0, so v > √gr at
r
the top.
6 (a) (i) W = mg = 250g = 2.45 kN [1]
(ii) R = W = 2.45 kN [1]
(b) v 2 202
(i) centripetal acceleration = = = 8.0 m s−2 ✓ method ✓ calculation + units [2]
r 50.0
2
v
(ii) F=m = 250 × 8.0 = 2000 N (2.00 kN) ✓ [1]
r
(c) Friction ✓ between the wheel and the ground ✓ [2]
(d) Assumption: the line of action of the force from the
ground must pass through the centre of gravity of the R
motorcyclist + motorcycle (the torque about the centre
of gravity must be zero). ✓ [1]
2.45 kN
2.45
tan θ = = 1.23
2.00
θ = tan−11.23 = 51° ✓ θ
[1]

2.00 kN

14
Answers to exam-style questions 8
Unit 8

Q Worked solution Marks


1 (a) ≈ 70 kg [1]
m1m2 70 × 70
(b) F =G 2
= 6.67 × 10−11 × = 3 × 10−7 N [1]
r 1.02

F 3 × 10−7
(c) a= = = 4 × 10−9 m s −2 [1]
m 70
2 Applying F = ma: m
R = 3.8 × 105 km T = 27.3 days
Mm mv 2
G 2 =
R R
GM
M
⇒ v= ✓ [1]
R
2π R R3
Time for one orbit T = = 2π ✓ [1]
v GM
4π 2 × ( 3.8 × 108 )
3
4π 2 R3 24 [1]
Re-arranging: M = = = 5.8 × 10 kg ✓
GT 2 6.67 × 10−11 × (27.3 × 24 × 60 × 60)2
3
gR2 9.81 × (6.37 × 10 )
6 2
(a) GM
g= 2 ⇒ M= = = 5.97 × 1024 kg ✓ method
R G 6.67 × 10−11
✓ calculation [2]
(b) g, R and G (the ‘raw data’) are all expressed to three significant figures, so M can [1]
be calculated to three (or four) significant figures.
4 (a) Let the mass of the planet be m. Applying F = ma:
Mm mv 2
G =
R2 R
GM
⇒ v= ✓ [1]
R
2π R R3
(b) T= = 2π ✓ [1]
v GM
R3
Squaring this equation:       T 2 = 4 π 2
GM
R3 GM [1]
= (a constant) ✓
T 2 4π 2
R3
( =constant for all the planets is one of Kepler’s laws)
T2

GM gR2 1.6 × (1.74 × 106 )2


5 (a) g= ⇒ M = = = 7.3 × 1022 kg ✓ [1]
R2 G 6.67 × 10−11
GM 6.67 × 10−11 × 7.3 × 1022
(b) ϕ=− =− = −2.8 × 106 J kg−1 ✓ method ✓ negative [2]
R 1.74 × 106
(c) For 1 kg: Ek needed to ‘escape’ = ½v2 = 2.8 × 106

⇒ v = 2 × 2.8 × 106 = 2.4 × 103 m s−1 (2.4 km s−1) ✓ [1]

15
Q Worked solution Marks
6 2πR 2π × 6.7 × 108
(a) v= = = 1.38 × 10 4 m s−1 (13.8 km s−1) ✓ [1]
T 85 × 60 × 60
Rv 2 6.7 × 10 × (1.38 × 10 )
8 4 2
Mm mv 2
(b) G = ✓ ⇒ M = = = 1.91 × 1027 kg ✓ [2]
R2 R G 6.67 × 10−11
7 (a) The gravitational potential at a point is the work done in moving unit mass (1 kg)
[1]
from infinity to the point.
GM 6.67 × 10−11 × 6.0 × 1024
(b) (i) g= = = 9.2 N kg −1      ✓ [1]
R2 (6.4 × 106 + 200 × 103 )2

GM 6.67 × 10−11 × 6.0 × 1024


(ii) φ = − =− = − 6.1 × 107 J kg −1 ✓ calculation
R (6.4 × 106 + 200 × 103 )
✓ negative [2]

GM 6.67 × 10−11 × 6.0 × 1024


(c) (i) φ = − =− = −5.8 × 107 J kg−1 ✓ [1]
R (6.37 × 10 + 500 × 10 )
6 3

−1
(ii) Δϕ = −5.8 × 10 − (− 6.1 × 10 ) = 3 × 10 J kg ✓
7 7 6

Increase in potential energy = m Δϕ = 6.0 × 104 × 3 × 106 = 1.8 × 1011 J ✓ [2]


4
8 (a) (i) 24 hours (8.6 × 10 s) ✓ [1]
7 6 7
(ii) radius of orbit, R = 3.56 × 10 + 6.4 × 10 = 4.20 × 10 ✓ [1]
2πR 2π × 4.20 × 10 7
[1]
(iii) v = = = 3.1 × 103 ms −1 ✓
T 24 × 60 × 60
Ek = ½ mv2 = ½ × 320 × (3.1 × 103)2 = 1.5 × 109 J ✓ [1]

GM 6.67 × 10−11 × 6.0 × 1024


(b) (i) φ = − =− = − 6.3 × 107 J kg −1 ✓ method ✓ calc. + units [2]
R 6.4 × 106
−11
(ii) φ = − GM = − 6.67 × 10 × 6.0 × 10 = − 9.5 × 106 J kg −1 ✓ calculation
24
[1]
R (6.4 × 106 + 3.56 × 107 )
Increase in gravitational P.E. ΔEp = mΔϕ = 320 × [−9.5 × 10 − (−6.3 × 10 )]
6 7
(c)
[1]
= 1.71 × 1010 J ✓
(d) A lot of the fuel has to be ‘lifted’ − given gravitational potential energy − and
[1]
given kinetic energy, as well as the casing for the fuel.

16
Answers to exam-style questions 9
Unit 9

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
20
1 The stiffness of 1 spring = = 5 N cm−1
4
30
For a load of 30 N the single spring will stretch = 6 cm
5 C[1]
The two springs in parallel have a combined stiffness of 2 × 5 = 10 N cm−1. Under a
30
load of 30 N they will stretch = 3 cm. Total extension = 6 + 3 = 9 cm
10
−2
2 Energy stored = area under graph = ½ × 80 × 4 × 10 = 1.6 J A[1]
 force  −2 −2 −2 −1 −2
3 [stress] =  = N m = (kg m s ) × m = kg m s A[1]
 area 
4 3 × original length ⇒ 3 × extension
2 × diameter ⇒ 4 × cross-sectional area ⇒ ¼ × extension
3x B[1]
Combining the two, the extension will be: x × 3 × ¼ =
4
Fl 80 × 9.81 × 20
5 x= = = 2.0 × 10−4 m (0.20 mm) D[1]
AE 6 × 20 × π × (1.0 × 10 ) × 2.1 × 10
−3 2 11

6 (a) F 1.30 × 9.81


(i) σ= = = 4.36 × 107 Pa ✓ calculation ✓units [2]
A π × (0.305 × 10−3 )2
x 0.43 × 10−3
(ii) ε= = = 3.58 × 10−4 ✓
l0 1.200 [1]

σ 4.36 × 107
(iii) E= = = 1.22 × 1011 Pa ✓ [1]
ε 3.58 × 10-4

(b) The ‘raw data’ used to calculate E (the length and diameter of the wire, the
extension of the wire and the load) are recorded to two, three or four significant
figures. The significant figures of E are determined by the least precise data − the
value(s) given to the lowest number of significant figures. In this example, the
diameter of the wire and the extension of the wire are both given to two
significant figures, so E can be stated to the same number of significant figures,
or one more i.e. two or three significant figures. [1]
stress
7 (a) Young modulus, E = [1]
strain
(b) (i) Mass of a man ≈ 70 kg ✓ [1]
F 70 × 9.81
(ii) σ= = = 1.1 × 106 Pa ✓ [1]
A π × (1.4 × 10−2 )2
σ 1.1 × 106
(iii) ε= = = 1.3 × 10−4 ✓
E 8.5 × 109
compression x = εl0 = 1.3 × 10−4 × 0.50 = 6.5 × 10−5 m (0.07 mm) ✓ [2]
(c) Overestimate. The diameter, and hence the cross-sectional area of the bone will be
greater than the minimum value for much of the length of the bone, so the stress [1]
will be less and the compression will be smaller than calculated.

17
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
8 Control of variables:
In this experiment, different loads are applied to a long nylon thread and the
extension of the thread is recorded. The independent variable is the load applied
to the thread and the extension of the thread is the dependent variable.
Procedure:
The experimental set-up is shown in the diagram.
Wooden blocks Nylon thread Small mark on thread 30 cm ruler
G–clamp
Pulley

Mass hanger +
slotted masses

As long a length of thread as practicable should be used (e.g. 2.0 m). The
longer the thread the greater the extension, and hence the smaller the
percentage uncertainty in the measurement of the extension.
The diameter d of the thread is first measured, using a micrometer. Using a
marker pen, a small mark can be made on the thread some distance from the
G-clamp. The thread is held so that it is just taut and the distance l0 between
the wooden blocks and the mark is measured using a metre rule.
A small 30 cm ruler can be placed behind the mark (as close as possible to the
thread to minimise parallax errors) so that the extension of the thread can be
measured. Measurements from the ruler can be read using a hand lens for
greater accuracy; alternatively, a travelling microscope can be used to measure
the extension.
A mass hanger of 50 g is hung on the thread and the distance the mark moves is
recorded. The procedure is repeated, adding a 50 g slotted mass each time and
recording the total load and extension. (It is useful to occasionally remove the
loads to see if the thread ‘springs back’ to its original length − i.e. is still elastic).
Masses can be added until the thread breaks.
Measurements to be taken:
The measurements should be recorded in a table. The stress applied to the thread
and the strain produced can be calculated from the results.
d = …mm l0 = …m

Load / g Extension / mm Stress / Nm−2 Strain


50
100

18
Answers to exam-style questions 9

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
Analysis of the data:
F
The stress is calculated using the equation: σ = where F is the force (in N)
A
applied to the thread (equal to mg, where m is the load in kg and g = 9.81 m s−2).
x
The strain is calculated using the equation ε = where x is the extension of the
l0
thread (x and l0 should be in the same units). A graph of stress against strain can
then be plotted.

The steeper the graph the stiffer the material. The maximum stress is a measure
of the strength of the material. If, up to a certain load, the graph is a straight line
passing through the origin, the material obeys Hooke’s law. The Young modulus
σ
of the nylon can be calculated using the equation E = (the gradient of the
ε
straight-line graph).
Safety precautions:
Safety goggles should be worn throughout the experiment.
A sand tray, or a block of foam rubber, should be placed underneath the slotted
masses.
Going further:
If the experiment is repeated but with a maximum load less than that needed to
break the thread, the loads can then be gradually removed and the extension of
the thread re-measured. The unloading stress−strain graph can then be plotted
and compared with the loading graph. [15]

19
Unit 10

Q Worked solution Marks


1 (a) An ideal gas is one in which all the collisions between atoms or molecules are
perfectly elastic and in which there are no intermolecular forces. Such a gas obeys
the equation: [1]
pV = nRT
(b) p1V1 p2V2
= ✓ method [1]
T1 T2
1.37 × 107 × V p ×V
=
(20 + 273) (70 + 273)
1.37 × 107 × (70 + 273)
Re-arranging:         p=
(20 + 273)
p = 1.60 × 107 Pa ✓ calculation [1]
2 (a) pV = nRT [1]
(b) (i) Temperature T at a height of 3 km = 20 − (3 × 5) = 5 °C ✓ [1]

(ii) p1V1 p2V2


= ✓ method [1]
T1 T2
1.2 × 105 × V p ×V
=
(20 + 273) (5 + 273)

1.2 × 105 × (5 + 273)


p=
(20 + 273)
= 1.1 × 105 Pa ✓ calculation [1]
3 (a) Avogadro’s constant is the number of particles (usually atoms or molecules) con-
[1]
tained in 1 mole of a substance, equal to 6.02 × 1023.
−1 −1
(b) The molar gas constant, R = 8.31 J mol K
(i) Using pV = nRT:
7 −3
(1.37 × 10 ) × (9.0 × 10 ) = n × 8.31 × (273 + 20) ✓ method
n = 51 moles ✓ calc. [2]
(ii) 1 mole of Argon has a mass of 40 g;
51 moles has a mass of 51 × 40 = 2040 g (2.0 kg) ✓ [1]
2
(c) (i) < c > is the mean of the squares of the velocities of the gas atoms. ✓ [1]
−3
(ii) 3 pV 3 × 1.37 × 10 × 9.0 × 10
7
c rms = <c 2> = = ✓ method
Nm 2.0
     = 430 m s−1 ✓ calc [2]
(Nm = no. of atoms × mass of 1 atom = mass of gas)
4 (a) A mole of a gas contains Avogadro’s number of atoms/ molecules of the gas. [1]
(b) Using pV = nRT:
pV 2.0 × 105 × 4.0 × 10−3 [2]
n= = = 0.32 moles ✓ method ✓ calculation
RT 8.31 × (25 + 273)

20
Answers to exam-style questions 10

Q Worked solution Marks


(c) p1V p2V
=
T1 T2
p2T1 2.5 × 105 × (25 + 273)
T2 = = = 373K (100 °C) ✓ [1]
p1 2.0 × 105
5 (a) (i) The internal energy of a gas is the sum of the kinetic and potential energies of the
particles in the gas. [1]
(ii) In an ideal gas there are no interactions (no forces of attraction) between particles
(except when they collide), so all their energies are in the form of kinetic energy. For
an ideal gas, the total kinetic energy of the gas is the same as the internal energy of
the gas. [1]
(b) 3 3 30
(i) Internal energy of an ideal gas = nRT = × × 8.31 × (50 + 273) ✓ method
2 2 4
= 30 kJ (30.2) ✓ calc. [2]
3 3 0.5
(ii) Internal energy of an ideal gas = nRT = × × 8.31 × (200 + 273)
2 2 84
= 35 kJ (35.1) ✓ calc. [1]
6 (a) (i) n = number of moles [1]

(ii) R = molar gas constant [1]

(iii) T = absolute temperature (in kelvin, K) [1]


(b) Using pV = nRT:
pV 20.0 × 105 × 5 × 10−4
n= = = 0.40 moles ✓ method ✓ calculation [2]
RT 8.31 × (27 + 273)
N = no of atoms of xenon = 0.40 × NA = 0.40 × 6.02 × 1023 = 2.41 × 1023 atoms ✓ [1]
7 (a) F 0.400 × 9.81
p= = = 347 Pa [1]
A π × ( 6.0 × 10−2 )2

(b) The piston will rise until the pressure of the gas again balances the downward
pressure of the piston.
pV1 pV2
=
T1 T2

T2 × V1 (80 + 273)
V2 = = × V1 = 1.2 V1 ✓ method [1]
T1 (20 + 273)
As the cross-sectional area of the piston has not changed, the piston will rise by a
factor of 1.2.
new height = 1.2 × 8.0 = 9.6 cm ✓ [1]
8 pV 1.01 × 105 × 2.50 × 10−4
(a) n= = = 0.01mole ✓ method ✓ [2]
RT 8.31 × (20 + 273)

21
Q Worked solution Marks
p2 p1
(b) (i) As the volume of the gas does not change: =
T2 T1
p1 1.01 × 105
p2 = × T2 = × (80 + 273) = 1.22 × 105 Pa ✓ correct method + value [1]
T1 (20 + 273)

(ii) Molar mass of air = 29 g mol−1


Mass of air in canister = 0.01 × 29 × 10−3 = 2.9 × 10−4 kg ✓ [1]
−4 3
Heat energy supplied to air in canister = 2.9 × 10 × 0.716 × 10 × (80 − 20)
= 12.5 J ✓ [1]
As the air does no work (the volume has not changed) all the heat energy must be
internal energy of the gas.

22
Answers to exam-style questions 11
Unit 11

Q Worked solution Marks


1 (a) (i) 373.15 K [1]
(ii) 273 K [1]
(iii) 192.5 K [1]
(b) (i) 0 °C [1]
(ii) 103.0 °C [1]
(iii) −273.2 °C [1]
(c) Two objects, in contact with each other, are in thermal equilibrium if no overall
heat transfer takes place between them. ✓
The objects are at the same temperature. ✓ [2]
2 Place the thermometer in melting ice and mark the glass at the level of liquid in the
thermometer (0 °C). ✓ [1]
Place the thermometer above boiling water and mark the new level of liquid in the
glass thermometer (100 °C).✓ [1]
Divide the distance between the two marks into 100 equal divisions (‘centigrade’).✓ [1]
3 Advantage: A thermistor can be used to measure a wide range of temperatures, and
can measure very small changes in temperature accurately. [1]
Disadvantage: Slow response times compared to a thermocouple, so cannot be used
to measure rapidly fluctuating temperatures. [1]
4 (a) (i) The two fixed points are:
1. Absolute zero (0 K) − the temperature at which all substances have the mini-
mum possible internal energy. ✓ [1]

2. The triple point of water (273.16 K or 0.01 C°) − the point at which ice, water
and water vapour co-exist. ✓ [1]

(ii) The thermodynamic or absolute temperature scale does not depend on the
properties of any particular substance, e.g. the expansion of mercury or alcohol
in a liquid-in-glass thermometer. [1]
(b) No object can have a temperature below absolute zero. The atoms and molecules of
a substance at absolute zero do not necessarily have zero internal energy, but they [1]
do have zero kinetic energy and the minimum possible potential energy.
(c) (i) Rise in temperature = 37.5 − 19.7 = 17.8 K [1]
(ii) 273.2 + 37.5 = 310.7 K [1]
5 (a) 1.21 × 10−3
(i) ∆T = = 220 °C     Temperature of hot junction = 20 + 220 = 240 °C ✓ [1]
5.5 × 10−6
(ii) ΔT = 1200 − 20 = 1180 °C    e.m.f. = 1180 × 5.5 × 10−6 = 6.5 × 10−3 V (6.5 mV) ✓ [1]
(b) The calculations assume that the relationship between temp. difference and e.m.f.
[1]
(5.5 μV / 1.0 °C) remains linear for all values of the temp. difference.
6 32.8 − 16.3
(a) T= × 100 = 44.8 °C ✓ method ✓calculation with unit [2]
53.1 − 16.3

3.663 − 2.875
(b) T= × 100 = 45.1°C ✓ method ✓calculation with unit [2]
4.621 − 2.875
(c) The change of resistance of the platinum wire with temperature is not exactly linear
(or the expansion of the mercury with temperature change is only approximately [1]
linear).

23
Q Worked solution Marks
7 (a) Melting point of wax − mercury thermometer. Cheap, easy-to-use, portable and
[1]
melting point of wax in range of most mercury thermometers.
(b) Bunsen − thermocouple. Robust and can measure very high temperatures. [1]
(c) Air temperature in the Antarctic − thermistor. Wide range, fast response not required. [1]
8 Control of variables:
In this experiment, the resistance of a platinum resistance wire is measured at
different temperatures. The temperature is the independent variable and the
resistance of the wire is the dependent variable. The length and diameter of the
wire used remain constant throughout the experiment.

Ohmmeter

Platinum wire Thermometer

Oil

Procedure to be followed:
A length of platinum resistance wire is placed in a beaker of oil which has previ-
ously been heated to a high temperature using a Bunsen burner. (Oil is preferable
to water as the oil can be heated to a higher temperature, giving a greater range of
temperatures.) The wire can be supported by a piece of cardboard, as shown, or
with a clamp and stand.
After a couple of minutes to allow the temperature of the platinum wire to reach the
temperature of the oil, the temperature is measured using a mercury thermometer
and the resistance of the wire is measured using a digital ohmmeter, as shown.
Alternatively, a low voltage d.c. supply (e.g. a 1.5V cell) can be connected to the
two ends of the wire. An ammeter is then connected in series to measure the electric
current in the wire, and a voltmeter is connected between the two ends of the wire
to measure the p.d. across the wire. The resistance of the wire is then calculated
V
using R = .
I
The oil is allowed to slowly cool and the temperature and resistance of the wire are
recorded at regular intervals (e.g. every time the temperature has fallen by 5 °C).

24
Answers to exam-style questions 11

Q Worked solution Marks


Measurements to be taken:
The results of the experiment should be recorded in a table, as shown below:

Temperature / °C Resistance / Ω
146
139
Analysis of the data:
A graph should be plotted of the resistance R of the wire against temperature, T. If
the suggested relationship is correct, the graph will be a straight line. The gradient
and y-intercept of the graph should then be found. R0 is the y-intercept (in Ω) and
αR0 is the gradient, from which α (in °C−1) can be calculated.
Safety precautions:
Great care should be exercised when heating the oil, and safety goggles should be
worn. [15]

25
Unit 12

Q Worked solution Marks


1 (a) The specific heat capacity of a substance is the heat energy required to raise the
[1]
temperature of 1 kg of the substance by 1 °C.
(b) (i) energy needed      E = mcΔθ = 8.0 × 920 × 5 = 37 kJ [1]
E 0.48 × 10 3
(ii) specific heat capacity   c= = = 130 J kg−1 °C−1 [1]
m∆θ 0.200 × 18
2 (a) 3.0 × 103 × t = 140 × 4200 × (65 − 20)
[2]
t = 8820 s (2 hours 27 minutes)                 ✓method ✓calculation
(b) An under-estimate. ✓ The tank as well as the water has to be heated, and as the
[2]
water and tank become hotter, both will lose energy to the cooler surroundings. ✓
3 (a) The water loses gravitational potential energy and gains kinetic energy as it falls.✓ [1]

Much of this energy is converted to heat and sound energy at the bottom of the
waterfall.✓ [1]
(b) g ∆h 9.81 × 980
mcΔθ = 0.7 × mgΔh ⇒ ∆θ = 0.7 × = 0.7 × = 1.6 °C [1]
c 4200
4 (a) Energy gained by liquid per second +   
heat lost to surroundings per second (Q) = power of heater
1.4 × 10−3 × c × (26.3 − 17.8) + Q = 37.4 (1)
−3
2.8 × 10 × c × (26.3 − 17.8) + Q = 66.7 (2) ✓ method [1]
equation (2) −  equation (1):
1.4 × 10−3 × c × (26.3 − 17.8) = 29.3
29.3
c=
1.4 × 10−3 × 8.5
= 2.46 × 103 J kg−1 °C−1 ✓ calculation [1]
(b) Substituting for c in equation 1:
−3 3
Q = 37.4 − [1.4 × 10 × 2.46 × 10 × (26.3 − 17.8)] ✓ method
= 8.1 W ✓ calculation [2]
5 The internal energy of a system is the sum of the random distribution✓ of kinetic
[2]
and potential energies of the atoms/molecules/particles of the system.✓
6 (a) The first law of thermodynamics for any system: ΔU = q + w ✓
ΔU is the internal energy of the system; q is the heat energy supplied to the system;
w is the work done on the system. ✓✓ [3]
(b) The air in the balloon is expanding against the atmosphere, so is doing work on the
atmosphere (w is negative). [1]

The internal energy (and the temperature) of the gas decreases. [1]
(c) (i) Ice is less dense than water, so as ice melts it is effectively being compressed − i.e.
work is done on the ice. [1]
(ii) The external work done, w, on the ice is small compared to the heat energy, q, [1]
supplied to the ice to melt it (both are positive).
The change in internal energy ΔU is much greater than w − most of the change in [1]
internal energy is due to the heat energy supplied to the ice.
7 (a) (i) q is positive as heat energy is supplied to the cube. [1]

(ii) w is negative − the cube is expanding, doing work against the atmosphere. [1]

26
Answers to exam-style questions 12

Q Worked solution Marks


−3 3 −2
(b) Mass of aluminium cube = (2.7 × 10 ) × 2.0 = 2.16 × 10 kg
Heat energy, q, supplied = mcΔθ
= 2.16 × 10−2 × 900 × (450 − 20)
= 8400 J (8360) ✓ [1]
 7 × 10 −3

 × (2.0 × 10 )
−2 3
work done on atmosphere = pΔV = −1.0 × 105 × 
 100 
= −5.6 × 10−5 J ✓ [1]
(negative as work is done by the cube, but insignificant compared to q)
ΔU = q + w = 8400 J ✓ [1]

27
Unit 13

Q Worked solution Marks


1 1 1
(a) f= = = 1.4 Hz [1]
T 0.7
1
(b) vmax = Aω = A × 2πf = 6.0 × 2π × = 54 cm s−1 [1]
0.7
2 2
 2π   2π 
a = −ω x = −   x = − 
2
2.0 = 161 cm s−2
 0.7 
(c) ✓ [1]
T
downwards (in the opposite direction to the displacement) ✓ [1]
2 (a) 1
(i) 3.5 complete ‘wavelengths’ in 1 second. T = = 0.29 s [1]
3.5
(ii) f = 3.5 Hz [1]
(iii) ω = 2πf = 2π × 3.5 = 7π rad s−1 (22.0 rad s−1) ✓calculation ✓units [2]
(b) Speed v at time t = 0.20 s is the gradient
of the displacement−time graph at t = 0.20 s. ✓
6
Δx = 16 cm
16 cm
v= = 145 cm s−1 ✓ 4
[2]
0.11s

Alternative method: 2

equation of graph: x = 7 cos ωt,


x /cm

0
−1 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4
where ω = 2πf = 7π rad s .
–2
dx
v= = − 7ω sin ω t –4
dt
= −7 × 7π × sin (7π × 0.2) –6

= −49π sin (1.4π)


180 Δt = 0.11 s
[1.4π radians = 1.4π × = 252°]
π
v = −49π sin (252°) = 146 cm s−1

3 (a) (i) ¼ of a cycle out of phase [1]


π
(ii) [1]
2
(b) amplitude of A 7.0
= = 2.33 [1]
amplitude of B 3.0 6
Δs = 12.0 cm

(c) 1 1 4
(i) T = 0.02 s, f = = = 50 Hz ✓, ω = 2πf = 100π rad s−1 A
[1]
T 0.02
2
(ii) max. speed = max. gradient
0
From the graph; 0.015 0.02 0.025 0.03
∆s 12.0
max. speed = = = 2.4 × 103 cm s−1 (24 m s−1) –2
∆t 0.005 B
✓ method ✓ calculation –4 [2]
−1
check: vmax = Aω = 7.0 × 100π = 2.2 × 10 cm s
3
–6
Δt = 0.005 s

28
Answers to exam-style questions 13

Q Worked solution Marks


(iii) Equation for SHM:   a = −ω x 2

⇒ amax = ω2A = (100π)2 × 7.0


= 6.9 × 105 cm s−2 (6.9 × 103 m s−2) ✓ [1]
4 (a) Simple harmonic motion, SHM, is motion in which the acceleration (force) is [1]
proportional to the displacement from a fixed point.
The acceleration (force) is always directed towards the fixed point / in the opposite [1]
direction to the displacement.
(b) (i) SHM: x = Acos ωt
+ Comparing this equation with the equation in the question:
(ii) ω 20
ω = 20 rad s−1 ✓ ⇒ f = = = 3.18 Hz ✓ [2]
2π 2π
(iii) maximum speed = Aω ✓ = 15 × 20 = 300 cm s−1 (3.0 m s−1) ✓ [2]
5 (a) The unbalanced force acting on the liquid at time t is proportonal to x, the
displacement of the liquid on either side. [1]
This force acts in the opposite direction to x. [1]
(b) (i) mass of liquid in tube = ρAl [1]
(ii) unbalanced force = ρA(2x)g = 2ρAxg [1]
(iii) Using F = ma: −2ρAxg = ρAla, where a is the acceleration

2g 2g ω 1 2g 1 l [2]
a =− x, ✓so ω = , f= = , and T = = 2π ✓
l l 2π 2π l f 2g
6 (a) (i) Forced vibrations − A system undergoes forced oscillations (vibrations) when a [1]
periodic force is applied to it.
(ii) Resonance − When the frequency of the periodic driving force is equal to the natural [1]
frequency of oscillation of a system, the system is said to be in resonance.
(b) Resonance is useful:
• Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
• Tuned circuits (e.g. for receiving TV and radio signals)
• Music (e.g. organ pipes) [1]
Resonance is not useful:
• Cross-winds on a bridge creating eddy currents which cause the bridge to
oscillate. At a particular wind speed resonance can occur, leading to large
oscillations and possible collapse of the bridge (e.g. Tacoma Narrows bridge
in 1940)
• Resonant oscillations of buildings during earthquakes
[1]
• Vibrations of car mirrors at certain speeds

29
Unit 14

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
v 10.0
1 v=f λ ⇒ λ= = = 2.00 m
f 5.0
λ = 2.00 m

1.00 m 10.0 m s–1

5.0 Hz
B[1]

Points are 1.00 m apart in ‘antiphase’/ ½ a cycle out of phase/ π radians out of
phase.
2 microwaves, ultraviolet, gamma rays D[1]
3 Lowest frequencies have the longest wavelengths.
lowest frequency:
λ
= 0.500 m
4
λ = 2.000 m
v 330 λ 3λ
f= = = 165 Hz 4 4
λ 2.000
B[1]
second lowest frequency:

= 0.500 m
4
λ = 0.667 m
v 330
f= = = 495 Hz
λ 0.667
Remember: for pipes, open ends are displacement antinodes;
closed ends are displacement nodes.
4 For the sound waves moving towards the stationary observer:
v
fo = f
v −u
where f is the frequency of sound of the source and fo the frequency detected by
the observer. For a source of sound waves travelling away from the observer: B[1]
v
fo = f
v +u
v v 2fuv
The change in frequency = f −f =
v−u v + u (v 2 − u 2 )

1.0 × 10−4
5 (a) (i) Intensity = = 8.8 × 10−7 W m−2 s−1 [1]
4 π × 3.0 2

1.0 × 10−4
(ii) Intensity = = 9.8 × 10−8 W m−2 s−1 [1]
4 π × 9.02

30
Answers to exam-style questions 14

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
2
(b) Intensity ∝ (amplitude) [1]
1 1
Amplitude 3.0 m  intensity 3.0 m  2  8.8 × 10−7  2
= = = 3.0 [1]
Amplitude 9.0 m  intensity 9.0 m   9.8 × 10 
−8

6 (a) (i) Amplitude: the maximum displacement from the equilibrium position. [1]
(ii) Wavelength: the minimum distance between two points moving in phase,
or the distance between neighbouring or consecutive peaks or troughs,
or the distance moved by a wavefront in one period of oscillation (of the source). [1]
(b) (i) amplitude = 3.0 mm [1]
(ii) 3λ = 5.4 cm ⇒ λ = 1.8 cm [1]
v 9.0
(iii) = f= = 5.0 Hz [1]
λ 1.8
π
(iv) ¼ of a cycle / radians / 90° out of phase [1]
2
(c)
3

2
Displacement/mm

0
0.05 0.1 0.15 0.2 0.25 0.3 0.35 0.4 0.45 0.5 Time/s
–1

–2  amplitude = 3.0 mm

–3  period = 0.2 s

2.5 cycles [3]


7 (a) The Doppler effect is the change in frequency✓ of sound, light, or other waves as [2]
the source of the waves or the observer move towards or away from✓ each other.
(b) v 330
(i) fo = f = 700 × = 770 Hz [1]
v−u 330 − 30
(ii) Frequency heard when ambulance is moving away from the observer:
v 330
f0' = f = 700 × = 642 Hz (640 Hz) [1]
v +u 330 + 30
Change in frequency = fo − f '0 = 770 − 642 = 128 Hz (130 Hz) [1]
8 (a) The specific acoustic impedance Z of a material is defined by the equation:
Z = ρc ✓
where ρ is the density of the material and c is the speed of sound in the material. ✓ [2]

31
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
(b) Purpose of the gel:
Air between the probe and the body will cause most of the ultrasound to be
reflected back ✓ (the reflection coefficient is almost 1 as the acoustic impedance [1]
−2 −1
of air (430 kg m s ) is much smaller than the acoustic impedance of soft tissue
6 −2 −1
(1.63 × 10 kg m s ). To avoid trapped air, a gel (coupling medium) is applied
between the probe and the surface of the body. The gel has a similar acoustic
impedance to soft tissue ✓, so that almost all the ultrasound is transmitted into the [1]
body (the reflection coefficient is almost zero).
(c) Lower frequency ultrasound waves have longer wavelengths, so diffraction ✓
effects would be more significant. (For medical imaging, ultrasound frequencies [1]
in the range 1 to 10 MHz are used.)
9 Piezo-electric crystal

Pulses of ultrasonic waves

Absorbing material Electrodes Thin membrane

When a piezo-electric crystal is ‘squeezed’, a potential difference is generated be-


tween the ends of the crystal. Equally, a p.d. applied across the crystal will cause
it to ‘squash’ or ‘stretch’. Ultrasonic waves are produced using a piezo-electric
transducer in the shape of a disc. An alternating voltage applied between the faces
of the disc causes it to vibrate. If the frequency chosen coincides with the natural
frequency of the disc, resonance occurs and the disc emits ultrasonic waves at the
resonant frequency.
When these ultrasound waves are reflected back to the probe, the waves cause the
disc of the probe to vibrate, generating a small p.d. across the disc. The probe thus
acts as both transmitter and receiver of the ultrasonic waves, the reflected pulses
enabling a ‘sound picture’ to be constructed. [5]

32
Answers to exam-style questions 15
Unit 15

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
1

C[1]

2 The fundamental frequency would look


like this:
λ
The distance RS is .
2 C[1]
Point R is an antinode.
The correct answer is C: Points P and Q are in phase.
3 Lowest frequencies have the longest wavelengths.
lowest frequency:
λ
= 0.500 m
4
λ = 2.000 m
λ 3λ
v 340 4 4
f = = = 170 Hz
λ 2.000 B[1]
second lowest frequency:

= 0.500 m
4
λ = 0.667 m
v 340
f = = = 510 Hz
λ 0.667

4 Diffraction: the bending of waves around the corners of an obstacle or aperture


C[1]
into the region of geometric shadow of the obstacle.
5 For diffraction gratings, the nth maximum occurs at an angle θ, where:
d sin θ = nλ
d is the distance between adjacent slits and λ is the wavelength of the light.
1.0 × 10−3 A[1]
n = 3, θ = 20°, d = = 2.5 × 10−6 m
400
dsin θ 2.5 × 10−6 × sin 20
λ= = = 285 nm
n 3
6 (a) Diffraction is the bending of waves around the corners of an obstacle or aperture [1]
✓ into the region of geometrical shadow of the obstacle.✓ [1]
(b) (i) All colours/ wavelengths of light from each slit have travelled the same distance to
the position of the zero order maximum, so all will be in phase. [1]
(ii) The wavelength of red light is longer/ different from the wavelength of green light.
(The first-order maximum for red light will be further away from the zero-order
[1]
maximum than green light, so the path difference from light travelling from
adjacent slits is greater).

33
Q Worked solution Answer/
Marks
nλ 3 × 460 × 10−9
(c) (i) nλ = d sin θ ⇒ d = = = 4.54 × 10−6 m ✓ [1]
sin θ sin17.7°
1
no. of lines / m = = 2.2 × 105 lines / m = 220 lines / mm ✓ [1]
d
(ii) For red light: 2 × λ = 4.54 × 10−6 × sin 17.7° ⇒ λ = 6.90 × 10−7 m (690 nm) ✓ [1]

34
Answers to exam-style questions 16
Unit 16

Q Worked solution Marks


1 (a) Amplitude modulation (AM): The amplitude of a carrier wave of constant
frequency ✓ is determined (‘modulated’) by the amplitude of the signal to be
carried ✓ (i.e. the amplitude of the carrier wave rises and falls in step with [2]
the signal to be carried. The amplitude of the signal must be less than half the
amplitude of the carrier wave).
(b) (i) A carrier wave of frequency fc modulated by an audio signal wave of frequency fa
is equivalent to a sinusoidal wave of frequency fc together with two other ‘sideband’
sinusoidal waves with frequencies fc + fa and fc − fa. The range of frequencies (the
difference between the largest and smallest frequencies transmitted) is called the
bandwidth.
In this example, bandwidth = 698 − 688 = 10 kHz [1]
(ii) Carrier frequency, fc = 693 kHz [1]
(iii) Max audio frequency fa = 698 − 693 = 5 kHz [1]
(c) Quality of sound:
• The quality of the sound would be quite poor for listening to music, but
would be adequate for the transmission of speech.
• Human speech requires frequencies up to about 3.5 kHz to be heard clearly
(though the human ear can detect frequencies up to 20 kHz).
• Music transmission needs up to 15 kHz for high-quality reproduction of the
original sounds (‘hi-fi, or high fidelity) so would be heard less faithfully.
✓✓ Any two relevant statements [2]
2 (a) Audible frequencies cannot be transmitted by electromagnetic waves of the same
frequency because:
• Long aerials would be needed.
• Radio stations would ‘overlap’ (it would be impossible to ‘tune in’ to one
particular radio station).
• The range of these waves would be very short.
✓✓ Any two relevant statements [2]
(b) Frequency modulation (FM):
• The frequency of a carrier wave is controlled (‘modulated’) by the amplitude
of the signal to be carried.
• At any one moment, the greater the amplitude of the signal to be carried,
the greater the frequency of the carrier wave.
• When the amplitude of the signal is negative, the frequency of the
modulated wave is less than the frequency of the carrier wave.
✓✓ Any two relevant statements [2]
(c) Advantages of FM:
• better sound quality compared to AM ✓
• less affected by noise. ✓
[2]
Disadvantages of FM:
• smaller range because of higher attenuation compared to AM ✓
[2]
• less diffraction around obstacles; requires line-of-sight. ✓

35
Q Worked solution Marks
3 (a) Advantages of digital transmission:
• The receiving system only has to be able to recognise the separate ‘1’s and
‘0’s of the signal to reconstruct the original signal accurately.
• ‘Noisy’ signals can be ‘cleaned’ by regenerator amplifiers placed at regular
intervals along a transmission link.
• Many separate signals can be transmitted at the same time (multiplexing).
• Digital systems are also more secure (difficult to intercept) and can be
encrypted.
✓✓ Any two relevant statements [2]
(b) (i) The higher the sampling rate, the more accurate the received signal is compared to
the original signal. [1]
(ii) Increasing the number of bits increases the number of possible quantisation levels;
small changes in the original signal can be encoded, again leading to more accurate [1]
transmission of the original signal.
(c) (i) The frequency of the sampling process must be at least twice the highest frequency
of the analogue signal if the signal is to be accurately transmitted. ✓ The highest [2]
frequency that can be heard by the human ear is 20 kHz, ✓ so a sampling frequency
of 44 kHz satisfies this requirement.
16
(ii) 16 bits ⇒ 2 = 65 536 [1]
(in practice, some of the bits are used to check for transmission errors)
(d) Each channel uses 2 gigabits. ✓ [1]
5
Number of bits/sec. = 44 000 × 16 = 7.04 × 10 ✓ [1]
2 × 10 9
playing time= = 2.84 × 103 s=47 minutes ✓ [1]
7.04 × 105
4 (a) (i) attenuation = 200 × 0.3 = 60 dB [1]
P  500 × 10 −3
(ii) 10 log  in  = 60 ✓ ⇒ Pout = = 5.0 × 10−7 W ( 0.5  µW ) [2]
 Pout  106
(b) (i) Repeaters are amplifiers used at intervals to amplify the signal strength. ✓ [1]
(Note: they amplify the noise as well as the signal.)
Transmitter Repeater Receiver
(ii)
100 km Pout 100 km
500 mW 10 log = 20 dB Preceiver
Pin
Attenuation = 30 dB Attenuation = 30 dB
500 × 10−3
Input to repeater, Pin = = 5.0 × 10−4 W
103
Output from repeater, Pout = Pin × 102 = 5.0 × 10−4 × 102 = 5.0 × 10−2 W ✓
5.0 × 10−2
Output power at the receiver, Pout = = 5.0 × 10−5 W ✓
103 [2]
(Attenuation of the whole system = 30 − 20 + 30 = 40 dB)
5 (a) Microwaves:
• Spread out much less than longer wavelength electromagnetic waves so they
weaken less.
• Have a larger bandwidth so can carry more channels.
• Pass straight through the atmosphere.
✓ any one valid statement [1]

36
Answers to exam-style questions 16

Q Worked solution Marks


(b) (i) Geostationary satellites orbit approximately 36 000 km above the Earth’s surface. ✓ [1]
−3
Attenuation = 5.4 × 10 × 36 000 = 194 dB ✓ [1]
PEarth station 16 × 103
(ii) 10 log = 194 ⇒ Psatellite = = 6.4 × 10−16 W ✓ [1]
Psatellite 1019.4
(c) Psignal Psignal
10 log > 40 ⇒ > 10 4 ✓
Pnoise Pnoise
Psignal 6.4 × 10−16
Pnoise < = = 6.4 × 10−20 W ✓ [2]
10 4 10 4
6 (a) Psignal Psignal
10 log > 25dB ⇒ > 102.5 ✓
Pnoise Pnoise
Psignal > 3.5 × 10−10 × 102.5 = 1.1 × 10−7 W ✓ [2]

(b) Let the maximum length of cable be l km.


Attenuation of the cable = 0.65l ✓
400 × 10−6
10 log = 0.65 l
1.1 × 10−7
0.065l = 3.56 ⇒ l = 55 km ✓ [2]

37
Unit 17

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
V mgd 5.0 × 10−15 × 9.81 × 5.0 × 10−3
1 q = mg ⇒ q = = = 4.8 × 10−19 C B[1]
d V 516

V 5.0 × 103
2 E= = == 25 000 N C−1 (2.5 × 104 N C−1) C[1]
d 20.0 × 10−2

V 1
3 F = qE = q ⇒ F∝ C[1]
d d
4 (a)
− − [1]

(b) The field lines would be more closely packed together near the double charge, ✓
[2]
compared to the single charge. ✓
kQ −6.0 × 10−9
5 (a) (i) E= = 8.99 × 10 9
×
(2.0 × 10−2 )
2
r2

= (−) 1.35 × 105 N C−1            ✓ method ✓ calc. + units [2]


kQ −6.0 × 10−9
(ii) E= = 8.99 × 109 × = 5.4 × 103 = (−) 5.4 × 103 N C−1 ✓ [1]
(10 × 10 )
−2 2
2
r

Note: The direction of the electric field is radially inwards towards the centre of
the sphere.
kQ 8.99 × 109 × ( − 6.0 × 10−9 )
(b) (i) V= =
r 2.0 × 10−2
= ( − )2.7 × 103 JC −1 ✓ method ✓ calc. + units [2]
−9
kQ 8.99 × 10 × ( −6.0 × 10 )
9
(ii) V= = = ( − )540 JC −1 ✓ [1]
r 10.0 × 10−2
Note: The potential is negative because work would be done moving a unit
positive charge from point P to infinity (i.e. moving a positive charge further away
from a negative charge). Electrical potential is defined as the work done in moving
unit positive charge from infinity to the point P.
−12
(c) Total work done = qΔV = 4 × 10 × (2.7 × 103 − 540)
= 8.6 × 10−9 J ✓ method ✓ calc. + units [2]
6 (a) kQ Vr 3.0 × 10 × 500 × 10 3 −3
V= ⇒ Q= =
r k 8.99 × 109
        = 1.67 × 10−7 C    ✓ calc. ✓units [2]
(b) kQ kQ 8.99 × 10 × 1.67 × 10 9 −7
V= ⇒ r= =
r V 5.0 × 103
= 0.300 m (30 cm)  
         ✓ method ✓ calc. [2]
−7
kQ 8.99 × 10 × 1.67 × 10
9
(c) V= =
r 800 × 10−3
= 1.88 kV ✓ method ✓ calc. [2]

38
Answers to exam-style questions 17

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
7 (a) • The electrical field strength at a distance r from a point charge varies as
2
1/r ; the gravitational field strength at a distance r from a point mass also
varies as 1/r2.
• The electrical potential at a distance r from a point charge varies as 1/r;
the gravitational potential at a distance r from a point mass also varies as
1/r.
• Outside the mass, a uniform spherical mass can be treated as if all the
mass were at the centre; outside the charged surface, a charge distributed
uniformly over the surface of a sphere can be treated as a point charge at
the centre of the sphere.
Any 2 of the above ✓✓ [2]
(b) • The electrical force can be attractive or repulsive, depending on the sign
of the charges, but the gravitational force is always attractive.
• Electrical potential can be positive or negative, depending on the sign of
the charge. Gravitational potential must always be negative as work needs
to be done to move a test mass to infinity where, by convention, it has
zero potential energy.
• As two masses are moved apart, the potential energy of the two masses
increases (work has to be done to separate the two masses). As two
positive charges are moved apart, the potential energy of the two
charges decreases (work has to be done to push the two positive charges
together).

Any one of the above ✓ [1]

39
Unit 18

Q Worked solution Marks


1 Q 800 × 10−3
(a) Q = CV ⇒ C = = = 2 × 10−3 F(2000 µF) [1]
V 400
(b) No net charge is stored in a capacitor. One plate of a capacitor is positively charged;
[1]
the other plate has an equal negative charge.
2 (a) (i) 400 μF

Capacitors in parallel add up like resistors in series:

CT = C1 + C2 = 400 + 600 = 1000 μF [1]

600 μF
(ii) The three capacitors are equivalent to two 1000 μF capacitors in series. Capacitors in
series add up like resistors in parallel:
1 1 1 2
= + = ⇒ CT = 500 µF [1]
C T 1000 1000 1000

(b) 10 V

p.d. across 400 μF capacitor


= p.d. across 600 μF capacitor
= 5V
400 μF

1000 μF

5V
1000 μF
capacitor 600 μF

5V
−6 −3
(i) Charge on 400 μF capacitor = CV = 400 × 10 × 5 = 2 × 10 C (2000 μC) [1]
−6 −3
(ii) Charge on 600 μF capacitor = CV = 600 × 10 × 5 = 3 × 10 C (3000 μC) [1]
(c) p.d across 1000 μF capacitor = 5 V [1]
3 1 1
(a) Energy stored = CV 2 = × 500 × 10−6 × (300)2 ✓ = 22.5 J ✓ [2]
2 2
energy 22.5
(b) average power = = ✓ = 7500 W (7.5 kW) ✓ [2]
time 3 × 10−3
4 (a) (i) The largest capacitance is made by 20 μF
+ joining the capacitors in parallel.
(ii) CT = C1 + C2 + C3
= 20 + 47 + 82 47 μF

= 149 μF ✓

82 μF

✓ [2]

40
Answers to exam-style questions 18

Q Worked solution Marks


(b) (i) Capacitance of series combination: 20 μF
47 × 82
= 30 µF
47 + 82
Combined with 20 μF in parallel: 47 μF 82 μF 
CT = 30 + 20 = 50 μF ✓ [2]
−6 −3
5 (a) (i) Q = CV = 1000 × 10 × 6 = 6 × 10 C [1]
1 1
(ii) Energy = CV 2 = 1000 × 10−6 × 62 = 0.018 J [1]
2 2
(b) (i) When the two capacitors are connected, some of 500 μF
the charges will cancel out, leaving +3 mC on one + 3 × 10–3C – 3 × 10–3C
side of the circuit and −3 mC on the other side. But
the p.d. across each capacitor must be the same
(they are in parallel), so the charge on the 1000 μF 1000 μF
capacitor must be twice the charge on the 500 μF – 6 × 10–3C + 6 × 10–3C
capacitor (V = Q/C must be the same for both capac-
itors). Before connection
−3
Charge on 500 μF capacitor = 1 × 10 C [1]
500 μF
−3
(ii) Charge on the 1000 μF capacitor = 2 × 10 C – 1 × 10–3C +1 × 10–3C [1]

1000 μF
– 2 × 10–3C + 2 × 10–3C

After connection

(c) Q 1 × 10−3
(i) p.d across 500 µF capacitor = = = 2.0 V [1]
V 5000 × 10 −6

Q 2 × 10−3
(ii) p.d across 1000 µF capacitor = = = 2.0 V [1]
V 1000 × 10−6

(d) 1 1
(i) Energy stored = CV12 + CV22
2 2
1 1
= × 1000 × 10−6 × 22 + × 500 × 10−6 × 22
2 2
= 3.0 × 10−3 J (3.0 mJ) [1]
(ii) Some charge moves from one capacitor to the other (there is an electric current).
The energy is lost as heat due to the resistance of the connecting wires. [1]

41
Unit 19

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
P 1000
1 I= = = 4.35 A
V 230
C[1]
4.35 × (3 × 60)
No.of electrons = = 4.9 × 1021
21

1.6 × 10−−19
19

Q 25
2 I= = = 0.417 A
t 1.0 × 60 C[1]
P = I R = 0.417 × 720 = 125 W
2 2

I 30 × 10−6
3 I = nAqv ⇒ v = = = 0.63 m s −1 B[1]
nAq 6.0 × 1020 × (0.2 × 10−3 × 2.5 × 10−3 ) × 1.6 × 10−19
ρ L 4ρ L 1
4 R= = ⇒ R∝ 2 C[1]
A πd 2 d
5 A wire three times as long has three times the resistance.
A wire twice the diameter has four times the cross-sectional area, so ¼ of the
resistance. B[1]
3
R→ R
4

V2 V 2 122
6 P= ⇒ R= = = 2.88 Ω
R P 50
C[1]
ρL 2.88 × π × (0.28 × 10−3 )2
R= = 2.88 Ω ⇒ L = = 1.4 m
A 4.9 × 10−7
ρ L 1.7 × 10−8 × 1.0 × 103
7 R= = =2.5 Ω C[1]
A 6 × π × (0.6 × 10−3 )2

πd 2l
8 (a) Volume of wire = = 10−6 m 3 (1)
4
ρl RA 5.0 × π × d 2
R= ⇒ l= = (2)
A ρ 4 × 1.7 × 10−8
Combining equations (1) and (2): l
−6
5.0 10
l= × d
1.7 × 10−8 l

5.0 × 10−6
⇒ l= = 17.1m ✓ method ✓calculation [2]
1.7 × 10−8
(b) Substituting this value into equation 1:
4 × 10−6
d2 = ⇒ d = 2.73 × 10−4 m ✓ method ✓calculation [2]
π × 17.1
9 (a) The top of the beam is being stretched (is under tension) ✓ so the wire strain
[2]
gauge gets longer (and thinner) ✓, increasing its resistance.

42
Answers to exam-style questions 19

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
Vout 0.9 R
(b) (i) = = 0.45
Vin (0.9 R + 1.1 R )
1.1 R
strain gauge A increases resistance and strain
gauge B decreases resistance ✓ Vin

method ✓calculation✓ 0.9 R [3]


Vout
(ii) As the resistance of strain gauge A increases, the
resistance of strain gauge B decreases, doubling
the change in the output p.d. (i.e. the set-up is
twice as sensitive).
The arrangement is also ‘temperature compensated’; a change in temperature will [1]
affect both gauges equally, so the output p.d. will be unchanged.

43
Unit 20

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
1 Kirchhoff’s first law: currents into a junction = currents leaving the junction
D[1]
I1 + I2 + I4 = I3 + I5 ⇒ I1 + I2 = I3 − I4 + I5

2 Kirchhoff’s second law: E1 E2

For the loop shown:


E1 = (I1 − I2) R2 + I1 R1
A[1]
R1 R2 R3

Ι1 Ι1 − Ι2 Ι2

3 With the switch open: 8Ω 8Ω

I1 (8 + 4) = 24
I1 = 2.0 A A Ι1 A Ι2
24 V 4 Ω 24 V 4 Ω
With the switch closed:
A[1]
I2 × 8 + 2I2 × 4 = 24
S Ι2
I2 = 1.5 A
8Ω 8Ω
The change in the
ammeter reading = 2.0 − 1.5 = 0.5 A
4 When R = 1 Ω:
V
E − ir = i × 1 = 3
E r
⇒ i = 3 A and E − 3r = 3 (1)
i
When R = 3 Ω:
E − ir = i × 3 = 6
R
⇒ i = 2 A and E − 2r = 6 (2) D[1]

Equation (2) − equation (1): −2r − (−3r) = 6 − 3

r=3Ω
Substituting this value into equation (1):
E−3×3=3
E = 12 V
5 (a) This ensures that the p.d. across the resistance wire is small (approx. 20 mV),
and the output p.d. from the thermocouple will therefore be a significant fraction [1]
of the p.d. across the resistance wire.

44
Answers to exam-style questions 20

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
(b) (i) The current in the 2.0 kΩ
galvanometer side circuit
is zero. Hence: Resistance wire
i1
Centre-zero galvanometer
3.0 = i1 (2000 + 12)✓ 0
−3
⇒ i1 = 1.49 × 10 A✓ [2]
3.0 V 99.6 cm

To thermocouple
ℓ i2 = 0

(ii) When the galvanometer reads zero, the p.d. across the 12 Ω resistance wire Vwire is
found from:
Vwire 12 3.0 × 12
= ⇒ Vwire = = 1.79 × 10−2 V( ∼ 18mV) ✓
3.0 2012 2012
Vtherm 68.3 68.3
= ⇒ Vtherm = × 1.79 × 10−2 = 1.23 × 10−2 V ( ∼ 12 mV) ✓ [2]
Vwire 99.6 99.6

45
Unit 21

Q Worked solution Marks


+ −
1 (a) Open-loop gain: if the two inputs to an operational amplifier are V and V the
output voltage Vout is given by:

Vout = A(V + − V −) [1]

where A is the open-loop gain. It is the amplification factor when no additional


components are added to the op-amp.
(b) Non-inverting: an op-amp circuit which amplifies a potential difference without [1]
changing the sign (‘inverting’) of the p.d.
(c) Negative feedback: feedback occurs when some of the output voltage from an [1]
operational amplifier is added to the input voltage. If the feedback is negative it
reduces the output voltage.
(d) Calibration curve: If the output voltage is not directly proportional to the output
from a sensing device (e.g. a thermistor or a light-dependent resistor) a graph needs
to be plotted of the output p.d. from the op-amp for different known values of the
sensing device (e.g. the temperature of a thermistor). [1]
By drawing a smooth (usually curved) line of best fit, (the calibration curve)
other values of the sensing device (e.g. other temperatures of a thermistor) can
be determined by recording the output from the op-amp circuit and using this to
read off the corresponding value of the sensor using the graph.
2 (a) Comparator: A comparator uses an operational amplifier as a switch, by comparing
+ − + −
the two inputs to the amplifier, V and V . If V is greater than V (and the difference
[1]
between the two is greater than approx. 150 μV) the output voltage will be ‘saturated’
(reach its maximum possible value, ∼ +15V). If V + is less than V − the output from the
op-amp will be the negative saturation p.d. (∼ −15 V).
(b) Vp 2 kΩ 2
= ⇒ Vp = V − = × 15 = 10 V
15 3 kΩ 3 [1]
(c) V+ 500 1 [1]
= ⇒ V + = × 15 = 7.5 V
15 (500 + 500) 2

V+ < Vp , so the output will be the negative of the saturation voltage; the LED will be
off. [1]
3 (a) An ideal operational amplifier has:
• infinite open-loop gain
• infinite input impedance
• zero output impedance
• infinite bandwidth
• infinite slew rate. Any three  [3]
(b) (i) An inverting amplifier [1]
+ − + −
(ii) V is earthed (connected to the 0 V rail) and V ≈ V i.e. V = VQ ≈ 0 V (‘virtually [1]
earth’).

46
Answers to exam-style questions 21

Q Worked solution Marks


(c) The circuit is an example of an inverting amplifier.
Q is at 0 V −
‘a virtual earth’ Rf

Rin Ι

Ι
+
Vin
Vout

For the loop currents shown:

Vin = IRin (1) 

IRf + Vout = 0 (2)  [2]


From equations (1) and (2):
Vin
Vout = − IRf = − × Rf
Rin

4 (a) The voltage gain G is the ratio of the output voltage to the input voltage.
Vout [1]
G =
Vin

(b) (i) Non-inverting amplifier:


Vout R 100
G = =1 + f =1 + =3 [1]
Vin Rin 50
(ii) Vout = 3 × 0.4 = 1.2 V [1]

5 (a) (i) Two diodes, a relay switch and a heater. The heater and switch are connected in [1]
series to a 230 V a.c. supply.

(ii) The processor is being used as a comparator.  When the temperature drops below
a certain value, V − becomes less than Vp and so the difference Vp − V − becomes
positive. The output from the processor then becomes the (positive) saturation
voltage , closing the relay and switching on the heater in the external circuit. [2]
(b) Vp 18 kΩ
= = 0.60 ⇒ Vp = 15 × 0.6 = 9.0 V [1]
15 (18 + 12) kΩ
(c) From the graph, when T = 0 °C, the resistance of the thermistor is 30 kΩ.

To ‘switch on’ at 0 °C, the resistance R of the fixed resistor is found from: [1]
R 18 18
= ⇒ R = × 30 = 45 kΩ
30 12 12
(d) At higher temperatures the resistance of the thermistor is smaller. To ‘switch’ at this
higher temperature, the resistance of the fixed resistor R must also be smaller, so
that the ratio of the two is still 12 : 18 (1 : 1.5). [1]

47
Unit 22

Q Worked solution Marks


1 (a) (i) Using Fleming’s left-hand rule, the force is downwards. [1]

(ii) Again using the left-hand rule, this time the force is upwards. [1]
−2 −2
(b) (i) F = BIl = 0.50 × 2.4 × 8.0 × 10 = 9.6 × 10 N [1]

(ii) F = 0 N The directions of the magnetic field and the current are the same. [1]
(c) Total torque = Fd  [1]
F
−2 −2
= 9.6 × 10 × (10.0 × 10 )
d
F
= 9.6 × 10−3 Nm  [1]

(d) The loop would be stationary.  All four sides


of the wire loop would experience a force
‘inwards’  (i.e. towards the geometric centre B-field out
of the rectangle – see diagram). of paper
[2]

2 (a) (i) Downwards (the direction of the force on a unit positive charge). [1]

(ii) Into the paper (the × symbol indicates a magnetic field in a direction away from you). [1]
(b) V 300
E= = = 6000 Vm −1  [2]
d 5.0 × 10−2
(c) Force down on electron due to magnetic field = force up on electron due to the
electric field. 

E 6 × 103
Bev = Ee  ⇒ v = = = 2.4 × 107 m s −1  [3]
B 0.25 × 10−3
(d) The magnetic force (Bev) would increase, but the electric force (Ee) would stay [2]
constant  so the β-particle would be deflected down.
3 (a) Upwards, out of the paper (using Fleming’s left-hand rule: the current is
[1]
right-to-left, as the electron is moving left-to-right).
(b) (i) F = Bev [1]

(ii) The force at any instant is perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the [2]
instantaneous direction of travel of the electron. 
(c) (i) The force is always perpendicular to the direction of travel, so only alters the [1]
direction, not the speed of the charged particle.

(ii) v2 mv [2]
Using F = ma: Bev = m  ⇒ r= 
r Be
(iii) From the previous equation, if v decreases, r will decrease − the charged particle [1]
would move in a smaller circle.
4 (a) Downwards, into the paper (use Fleming’s left-hand rule, remembering that the [1]
current is going anticlockwise as the negatively charged particles are moving
clockwise).
(b) The charged particles are gradually losing energy  (they ionise air molecules as [1]
they pass through the cloud chamber).
(c) v2
Bqv = m  ⇒ mv = Bqr  [2]
r

48
Answers to exam-style questions 23
Unit 23

Q Worked solution Marks


1 (a) The e.m.f. induced between the wing tips is caused by the (metal) wings ‘cutting’
the Earth’s magnetic field. The wingspan ‘sweeps out’ an area of:
900 × 103 dA
60 × = 1.5 × 10 4 m 2 s−1
-1
 Note: is the ‘area swept per second’ [1]
60 × 60 dt
Using Faraday’s law:

dφ dA
E= =B = 6.4 × 10−5 × 1.5 × 10 4 = 0.96 V  [1]
dt dt
(b) The wires connecting the voltmeter to the wing tips will cut the same field lines
at the same rate  so there will be an equal and opposite e.m.f. cancelling out the [1]
e.m.f. induced between the wing tips.  [1]
Another way of thinking about this is to consider the ‘loop’ comprising the wing
span and the wires from the voltmeter. As the aeroplane travels through the air, the
amount of flux (field × area) linking with the loop remains constant, so no e.m.f. is
induced.
2 (a) (i) Area ‘swept’ per second = 0.4 × 3.0 = 1.2 m2 s−1 [1]

 dA  −3 −1
[1]
(ii) Flux ‘cut’ per second  = B  = 50 × 10 × 1.2 = 0.06 Wb s
 dt 
 dφ  [2]
(iii) Induced e.m.f. = rate of change of flux  =  = 0.06 V 
 dt 
(b) (i) The current is from B towards A  so that the force on the wire is towards the left, [2]
opposing the motion of rod AB (Lenz’s law). 
(ii) The total length of the loop ABCD is decreasing, so the resistance of the loop is
also decreasing. [1]
3 (a) (i) From Faraday’s law, the induced e.m.f. is proportional to the rate of change of flux
linkage . As the magnet enters the coil, the magnetic flux linking the coil is [1]
increasing ( dφ is positive), so the induced e.m.f. acts in one direction; as the
dt dφ
magnet leaves the coil the magnetic flux linking the coil is decreasing ( is
negative) so the induced e.m.f. is in the opposite direction. dt [1]

(ii) The magnet is falling freely under gravity, so is accelerating.  The magnet will be [1]
moving faster when it leaves the coil compared to when it entered the coil so, from
d
Faraday’s law E = − ( N φ ), the induced e.m.f. will be greater when the magnet is
dt
leaving the coil.  [1]
(b) Larger max. e.m.f.s 
Max e.m.f. when leaving coil still
larger than max e.m.f. when magnet
Induced e.m.f.

entering coil 
Time
Shorter time for magnet to enter and
leave coil.  [3]

49
Q Worked solution Marks
(c) The area under the graph represents the total flux -linkage. [2]
(The areas above and below the x-axis are the same − the net flux-linkage is zero).
From Faraday’s law:
d
E=− ( Nφ )
dt
Area under graph = ∫ Edt = − N φ
4 (a) Magnitude of induced e.m.f.= rate of change of flux linkage      
∆( N φ ) 200 × (5.0 − 2.0) × π × (15.0 × 10−2 )2
= = 
∆t 600 × 10−3
= 71 V  [3]
(b) V 71
(i) I=
= = 3.6 A [1]
R 20
(ii) Viewed from above, the induced current is anticlockwise , in order to create a
magnetic field which opposes the change in magnetic field which induced the
current  (see (c) below). [2]
(c) The magnetic field induced by the current in the
coil acts upwards.  The diagram shows a
cross-section of the coil, with the current flowing
into the paper on the right-hand side and out of
the paper on the left-hand side. Because of
Lenz’s law, the direction of this magnetic field
is opposite to the increasing downward-acting
magnetic field – it tries to reduce the change in
magnetic field which produced it.  [2]

50
Answers to exam-style questions 24
Unit 24

Q Worked solution Marks


1 (a) (i) (i) Vmax = 1.4 × 0.1 = 0.14 V [1]

(ii) Vrms = Vmax/√2 [1]


= 0.10 V
(ii)

(iii) (iii) Vpeak-to-peak = 2.8 × 0.1 = 0.28 V [1]

(b) (i) (i) 3 complete waves in ‘4 divisions’ = 3 waves in 4 × 100 μs

4 × 100 × 10−6
period T = 1 wave in = 1.33 × 10−4 s [1]
3

1 1
(ii) frequency = = = 7500 Hz (7.5kHz) [1]
T 1.33 × 10−4
(c) V = V0 sin 2πft = 0.14 sin 15 000 πt  [2]
2 (a) Vr.m.s. = Vmax/√2 = 325/√2 = 230 V [1]
Vr.m.s. 230
(b) (i) I r.m.s. = = = 2.3 A [1]
100 100
(ii) Iaverage = 0 [1]

(iii) Paverage = Ir.m.s. × Vr.m.s. = 2.3 × 230 = 530 W [1]


(c)
1000
max. value = 1060 W 
800
Power/W

all positive 
600
2 complete cycles of [3]
400
a.c. 
200

0
0.005 0.01 0.015 0.02 0.025 0.03 0.035
Time/s

51
Q Worked solution Marks
Vs 300 Ιp 1200 : 300 Ιs
3 (a) =
Vp 1200

240 V 48 Ω Vs
[1]
300
Vs = × 240 = 60 V
1200

Vs 60
(b) Is = = = 1.25 A [1]
R 48
(c) VpIp = VsIs
Vs 60 [1]
Ip = × Is = × 1.25 = 0.313 A 
Vp 240
(d) P = VsIs = 60 × 1.25 = 75 W [1]
4 (a) Section 1 of the circuit is a transformer  which steps down (decreases) the voltage
[2]
from 230 V to a lower a.c. voltage. 
(b) (i) A single diode only provides an output for half of each a.c. cycle.  [1]
Vout

4 1
(ii)
Vin
(a.c. supply)
3 2
R Vout [1]

When Vin is positive, current flows through diode 1, downwards through resistor
R and returns via diode 3; when Vin is negative, current flows through diode 2,
downwards through resistor R and returns via diode 4. In both halves of the a.c.
cycle the current is passing downwards through R. [1]
Vout

t [1]

(c) (i) The ‘bouncy’ output from the bridge rectifier can be made to more closely resemble [1]
a d.c. output by ‘smoothing’, ironing out the bumps in the output.

(ii) The addition of a capacitor in parallel with the load can achieve smoothing of the
output. When the p.d. across the load resistor is rising, the capacitor charges up.
As the p.d. across the load resistor starts to fall, the capacitor maintains the output
p.d. by only discharging slowly. When the p.d. from the rectifier rises again, the [2]
capacitor will charge up again and the process is repeated.

52
Answers to exam-style questions 24

Q Worked solution Marks


(d) (i) The output p.d. is not completely smooth – it has a ‘ripple’, as shown. [1]
Vout
(ii)

• The amount of ripple depends on the value of CR (called the time constant) –
the larger the value of CR, the smoother the output.
• The value of the time constant CR should be much greater than the time
period of the a.c. supply.
• If the load resistance is quite small, the smoothing capacitor must be larger.

 Any two points [2]

53
Unit 25

Q Worked solution Marks


c 3.0 × 108
1 (a) f1 = = ✓ = 6.67 × 1014 Hz ✓ [2]
λ1 4.5 × 10−7

c 3.0 × 108
f2 = = = 1.00 × 1015Hz ✓ [1]
λ2 3.0 × 10−7

(b) E1 = hf1 − Φ
E 2 = hf2 − Φ
⇒ E 2 − E1 = h( f2 − f1 )
E 2 − E1 2.63 × 10−19 − 4.2 × 10−20
⇒h= = ✓ = 6.64 × 10−34Js ✓ [2]
( f2 − f1 ) 1.00 × 1015 − 6.67 × 1014
2 (a) (i) E k(max) = hf − Φ = 6.63 × 10−34 × 2.5 × 1015 − (3.68 × 1.6 × 10−19 ) = 1.07 × 10−18 J [1]

(ii) The threshold frequency is the frequency which will just release photoelectrons
from the surface, with no ‘spare’ kinetic energy. The energy of each photon (hf ) is
just equal to the minimum energy needed to remove an electron from the surface of
the metal (the work function Φ ).

Φ 3.68 × 1.6 × 10−19


hf0 − Φ = 0 ⇒ f0 = = ✓ = 8.9 × 1014 Hz ✓
h 6.63 × 10−34 [2]

(b) 1.07 × 10−18


eV = 1.07 × 10−18 ✓ ⇒ V = = 6.7 V ✓ [2]
1.6 × 10−19

1 2eV 2 × (1.6 × 10−19 ) × (40 × 103 )


3 (a) (i) mv 2 = eV ⇒ v = ✓= = 1.2 × 108 ms −1 ✓ [2]
2 m 9.1 × 10−31
(ii) momentum = mv = (9.1 × 10−31 ) × (1.2 × 108 ) = 1.1 × 10−22 kg m s −1 ✓ [1]
(b) A stream of particles, such as a beam of electrons, can be shown to have wave-
like properties. In particular, under the right conditions, these ‘matter waves’ can
be diffracted. A beam of electrons passing through a graphite crystal, for example,
produces a diffraction pattern similar to the diffraction patterns produced by light
passing through a diffraction grating. The wavelength λ associated with electrons,
and other moving particles, is called the de Broglie wavelength and can be found
using de Broglie’s equation:
h
λ=
mv

where mv is the momentum of each particle and h is Planck’s constant.


When electrons are detected they are detected as particles – the wavelength
associated with them provides information about where the electrons will be. [2]
−34
h 6.63 × 10
(c) λ= ✓= = 6.0 × 10−12 m ✓ [2]
mv 1.1 × 10−22
Note: this does not mean that the electrons have suddenly become γ-rays! It does
mean that the electrons passing through a suitable ‘grating’ (e.g. a crystalline
material) would appear in the same places (produce the same diffraction pattern)
as γ-rays of the same wavelength passing through the same grating.

54
Answers to exam-style questions 25

Q Worked solution Marks


4 (a) By convention, the energy of a ‘free’ electron is zero. An electron inside an atom
[1]
needs energy to ‘escape’ from the atom, so has less than zero energy.
(b) ∆E = hf ✓
E5 = −2.18 eV
∆E (13.6 − 2.18) × 1.6 × 10
−19

f= =
h 6.63 × 10−34
f
= 2.76 × 1015 Hz ✓

c 3.0 × 108
λ= = = 1.09 × 10−7 m ✓ [3]
f 2.76 × 1015 E2 = −13.6 eV
−7
(c) 1.09 × 10 m = 109 nm ultraviolet ✓
[1]
(visible range is approx. 400 nm−700 nm)
5 (a) n=∞→n=1
−19
ΔE = 13.59 × 1.6 × 10 = 2.17 × 10−18 J
∆E c ch
∆E = hf ⇒ f = ⇒ λ= = ✓
h f ∆E
3.0 × 108 × 6.63 × 10−34
=
2.17 × 10−18
= 9.2 × 10−8 m (92 nm) ✓

n=2→n=1
c ch
λ= =
f ∆E
3.0 × 108 × 6.63 × 10−34
=
(13.59 − 3.39) × 1.6 × 10−19
= 1.22 × 10−7 m (122 nm) ✓ [3]
(b) There are six possible spectral lines.

[1]

6 (a) The two electromagnetic waves are identical. Their difference is where they come
from – the source of the waves. Gamma rays are emitted during the radioactive [1]
decay of a substance; X-rays are produced by an X-ray machine.

55
Q Worked solution Marks
(b) X-rays are produced by bombarding a metal target with high-energy electrons – the
rapid deceleration of the electrons causes the emission of X-rays.
0V + 200 kV

Anode
Vacuum tube Motor

– 6V a.c.

Cathode
filament
Electron Lead
beam shield

X-rays

Electrons are emitted from the hot filament (the cathode) by thermionic emission.
They are then accelerated towards the anode by a p.d. of up to 200 kV. The anode is
a small target made of tungsten (or other metal with a high melting point).

Approximately 1% of the kinetic energy of the electrons is converted into X-rays;


the rest is converted to heat energy in the metal target. The tungsten target can be
rotated rapidly by a motor so that a much greater area of tungsten is heated. The
X-rays are emitted through a thin ‘window’ surrounded by lead shielding. Metal
tubes beyond the window collimate the beam (to make it parallel and not spread
out like a fan).

The X-rays emitted have a continuous range of frequencies up to a maximum


frequency determined by the magnitude of the accelerating potential.

✓✓✓✓ Any 4 relevant points [4]


7 (a) (i) The hardness (penetrating power) of X-rays is increased by increasing the [1]
accelerating potential.

(ii) The intensity of X-rays (the energy passing through unit area in one second) is
principally controlled by the number of electrons emitted per second, which in turn [1]
is controlled by the current in the cathode in the filament. However, increasing the
accelerating voltage will also increase the intensity as the same number of electrons
will be producing X-ray photons with higher energy.
(b) When using X-rays to produce an image of an internal body structure, the ‘soft’, or
longer wavelength, X-rays are more easily absorbed ✓.
This increases the exposure of the patient to hazardous radiation ✓.
It is often preferable to use hard, shorter wavelength, X-rays, employing a metal
filter to absorb the longer wavelength X-rays ✓.

✓✓ Any two points [2]

56
Answers to exam-style questions 25

Q Worked solution Marks


8 (a) The intensity I of X-rays passing through an absorber of thickness x is:
I = I 0e− µx
where I0 is the intensity of the X-rays without any absorber and μ is the attenuation
coefficient.
The ‘half-thickness’ of absorber x1/2 is the thickness required to halve the intensity
of the X-rays:
I0 −µx
= I 0 e 1/2 ✓
2
µx
e 1/2 = 2 ⇒ µ x1/2 = ln 2 ✓ [2]

ln 2
x1/2 =
µ
ln 2 0.693
(b) (i) x1/2 = = = 1.16 cm ✓
µ 0.60 [1]
(ii) If 90% of the X-rays are absorbed, 10% of the X-rays pass through the bone.

0.1 I 0 = I 0 e − µ x ✓

e µ x = 10
calculating natural logs of both sides: μx = ln 10
2.30
x= = 3.8 cm ✓ [2]
0.60

57
Unit 26

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
1 In the alpha-particle scattering experiment, alpha particles are fired at a thin gold
foil. Most of the alpha particles pass through undeflected, or are deflected only
by a small angle; a very small number are deflected by a large angle, suggesting A[1]
that the atom is mostly empty space, with most of the mass of an atom
concentrated in the (positively-charged) nucleus.
2 Different isotopes of an element have the same chemical properties. Their nuclei
have the same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons. For
example, C12 and C13 are both isotopes of carbon because they both have D[1]
6 protons in each nucleus, but C12 has 6 neutrons and C13 has 7 neutrons.
Note: nucleons are particles in the nucleus, i.e. protons and neutrons.
3 An alpha particle consists of 2 protons and 2 neutrons (identical to a helium
nucleus). When 21884 Po
decays by emitting an alpha particle, the proton number
decreases by 2 and the nucleon number decreases by 4, leaving the isotope 214 82 Pb
.
In β− decay, a neutron changes into a proton and an electron – the beta parti- B[1]

82 Pb decays by β decay it
cle. (An electron antineutrino is also emitted.) When 214
becomes 83 Bi, the number of nucleons remaining constant, but the number of
214

protons increasing by 1.
4 The nucleus contains 11 protons, 23 − 11 = 12 neutrons, i.e. a total of 23 nucleons
C[1]
(particles in the nucleus).
+
5 In β decay, a proton changes into a neutron, a positron and an electron
neutrino, the positron and the electron neutrino being emitted from the nucleus: B[1]
86
41 Nb → 86
40 Zr + +1 e + v
0

6 quark charge/e
d −1/3
d +1/3
u +2/3 C[1]
u −2/3
Each up quark u has a charge of +2/3 e, so the third quark must also have a
charge of +2/3 e to make a total charge of +2e. The third quark is an up quark.
7 A proton is not a fundamental particle as it consists of two up quarks and one
down quark (uud). The other three particles are all believed to be fundamental
D[1]
particles, and are part of the ‘standard model’ of fundamental particles and
forces.
8 (a) Different isotopes of an element have the same chemical properties. Their nuclei
[2]
have the same number of protons ✓, but different numbers of neutrons ✓.
(b) The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time taken for the number of
undecayed atoms in a sample of the isotope to fall by half. ✓
As the activity of a sample (the number of decays per second) is proportional to [2]
the number of undecayed atoms present, the half-life is also the time taken for
the activity of the sample to halve. ✓
ln 2 0.693
(c) λ= ✓= ✓ = 4.28 × 10−4 per year [2]
T1/2 1620

58
Answers to exam-style questions 26

Q Worked solution Answer/


Marks
(d) A = (−) λN ✓ [1]
A 6.2 × 109
N= = = 4.6 × 1020 atoms ✓ [1]
λ  4.28 × 10−4 
 7 
 3.2 × 10 

9 (a) Thermal neutrons are relatively slow-moving neutrons − they have energies
similar to their surroundings. This gives them a better chance of colliding with [1]
uranium nuclei and causing nuclear fission.
(b) Large (or ‘heavy’) atomic nuclei splitting into smaller nuclei ✓, with the release
[2]
of energy. ✓
(c) (i) Note: mass of a neutron = 1.00866 u
−27
1 u (atomic mass unit) = 1.66054 × 10 kg
Mass defect = 235.04393 + 1.00866 − (92.91399 + 139.92162 + 3 × 1.00866)✓
= 0.1910 u ✓ [2]
−27 −28
(ii) Mass defect = 0.1910 × 1.66054 × 10 = 3.172 × 10 kg ✓
ΔE = c2(Δm) = (3.0 × 108)2 × 3.172 × 10−28 = 2.85 × 10−11 J ✓
2.85 × 10−11
= = 178 MeV ✓ [3]
1.6 × 10−13
87
10 Let the number of atoms of Ru be N0 when the rock was first formed.
Number of atoms of 87Ru remaining after time t = N 0 e − λ t ✓
Number of 87Sr atoms present at time t = N 0 (1 − e )✓
− λt

number of Sr atoms N 0 (1 − e ) = 0.0060 ✓


− λt

=
number of Ru atoms N 0e− λt
1 − e − λ t = 0.0060 × e − λ t

e λ t = 1.0060
λ t = In 1.0060
ln1.0060 ln1.0060
t= × T1/2 = × 4.9 × 109 = 4.2 × 107 years ✓ [4]
ln 2 ln 2

59
Unit 27
Exam-style questions, page 228

Q Worked solution Marks


1 (a) ± 0.01 mm [1]
(b) ± 0.2 s (Although the stopwatch can read to a precision of 0.01 s, the accuracy of
the measurement is determined by the skill of the observer in judging the start
and finish of an oscillation. The uncertainty in the measurement can be reduced
[1]
by measuring the time for say 10 oscillations, repeating this measurement two
more times, then calculating the average value of the time for 10 oscillations and
hence 1 oscillation.)
2 3.28 cm [1]
3 ρL RA Rπ d 2
R= ⇒ ρ= = ✓
A L 4L [1]
% unc. in ρ = % unc. in R + 2 × % unc. in d + % unc. in L

= 1 + (2 × 5) + 2

= 13% ✓ [1]
4 Systematic errors: Errors which cause all the measurements to be ‘shifted’ in
one direction relative to the ‘true’ value, or measurements that are all a multiple [1]
of the true answer. If the systematic errors are small, the measurement is
accurate.

Examples: zero error when using a micrometer; background level of


radioactivity when measuring the activity of a radioactive source. [1]

Random errors: Errors which lead to values which are evenly distributed
(scattered) around the ‘true’ value. Random errors usually occur because the
experimenter is unable to take the same measurement in exactly the same way [1]
each time. Random errors can be reduced by reading instruments from the
correct position and taking repeated measurements to obtain an average value.
If the random errors are small the measurements are precise.

Examples: parallax error, variation in the diameter of a wire. [1]


5 h / cm t1 / s t2 / s t3 / s mean t / s √h / cm1/2
96.5 5.2 5.5 5.4 5.4 9.82
87.3 5.0 4.9 4.8 4.9 9.34
69.5 4.5 4.3 4.3 4.4 8.33
54.4 3.6 3.8 3.7 3.7 7.38
40.0 3.3 3.3 3.1 3.2 6.32
29.8 2.7 2.8 2.9 2.8 5.46

✓ correct values of mean t

✓ correct values of √h

✓ all values of √h recorded to three or four s.f. [3]

60
Answers to exam-style questions 27

Q Worked solution Marks


6 (a) Note that the question in the first impression of the book should read ‘Plot
+ a graph of T
−1/2
against x’.
(b)

x (cm) T (s) T −1/2 (s−1/2)


2.5 2.8 0.598
2.3 3.3 0.550
1.8 5.7 0.419
1.5 7.8 0.358
 [1]
1.3 10.2 0.313
1.1 14.7 0.261

0.65

0.6

0.55

0.5
T −1/2 (s−1/2)

0.45

0.4

0.35

0.3

0.25

0.2
1 1.2 1.4 1.6 1.8 2 2.2 2.4 2.6
x (cm)

✓points plotted correctly ✓good best straight line drawn [2]


(c) 0.57 − 0.30
Gradient = = 0.24 s −1/2cm −1 ✓
2.40 − 1.26 [1]
Using the point (1.60, 0.38) in y = mx + c:

c = y − mx = 0.38 − 0.24 × 1.60 = 0.004 (i.e. approx. zero) ✓ [1]


7 (a) R (Ω) I (mA) 1//R (× 10 Ω ) −3 −1

+
(b) 100 35.4 10.0
220 19.0 4.54
330 14.4 3.03
470 13.7 2.13
560 10.7 1.79
820 9.0 1.22

✓ values of 1/R calculated correctly. [1]

61
Q Worked solution Marks
40

35

30

Best line [1]


25

l / mA
20

15

Anomalous point [1]


10

0
0 0.002 0.004 0.006 0.008 0.01 0.012
1/R /Ω−1
✓ points plotted correctly [1]
(c) 35.0 − 5.0
Gradient = = 3.0 × 103 A Ω (V) ✓ [1]
0.010 − 0
From the graph, y-intercept = 5.0 mA ✓ [1]
8 (a) T1 323
k1 = = = 0.904 ✓
η12 18.92

T2 373
k2 = = = 0.830 ✓ [2]
η2 21.22
2

(b) Percentage difference between the two values of k:


0.904 − 0.830
= × 100 = 8.5%
0.867

Relationship supported as the % difference between the two values of k is less [1]
than 10%.

62
Answers to exam-style questions 27
Exam-style questions, pages 237–38

Q Worked solution Marks


1 (a) l is the independent variable; d is the dependent variable. [1]
(b) W should be kept constant. [1]
3
(c) Plot a graph of d against l . ✓
If the relationship is correct, the graph should be a straight line ✓ passing through
the origin.✓ The value of k would be the gradient of the graph. [3]
Alternatively, plot a graph of lg d against log l. ✓ If d = kl3 then:
lg d = lg k + 3lg l

The graph should be a straight line ✓ with a gradient of 3. ✓


The y-intercept is lg k from which the value of k can be calculated.
(d) Place a sand tray, or a large piece of foam rubber, underneath the weight W in case [1]
it falls to the floor.
Wear safety goggles in case the weight falls off and the beam flicks upwards. [1]
2 (a) Plot a graph of t against R (t is the dependent variable and R is the independent [1]
variable).
(b) If the graph is a straight line passing through the origin ✓, the value of the gradient [2]
of the graph is kC from which k can be found.✓
n
3 (a) If y = Ax then lg y = lg A + n lg x Plot a graph of lg y against lg x. ✓ [1]
(n is the gradient of the graph and lg A is the y-intercept.)

x y lg x lg y
1.0 3.0 0 0.477
1.7 6.6 0.230 0.820
2.1 9.0 0.322 0.954
2.8 14.1 0.447 1.15
3.5 19.5 0.544 1.29
3.9 23.1 0.591 1.36

lg x and lg y values calculated correctly ✓ to an appropriate number of sig. figs. ✓ [2]


1.40

1.20

1.00
lg y

0.80

0.60

0.40
0 0.20 0.40 0.60 0.80
lg x

63
Q Worked solution Marks
(b) Suitable axes and scales chosen ✓
Points plotted correctly ✓
Good best fit straight line drawn ✓
∆y 1.340 − 0.670
n = gradient = = = 1.49(1.5) ✓
∆x 0.580 − 0.130
[3]
y-intercept = 0.477 ⇒ A = 100.477 = 3.00

y = 3.0x1.5 = 3.0√(x3) [1]


4 Control of variables

In this experiment, the independent variable is the distance d between the source
and the GM tube. The dependent variable is the count-rate C. The radioactive
source used should not be changed.

Procedure to be followed and measurements to be taken

To begin with, the background count is measured, recording the count rate without
the γ-ray source present. The count rate should be recorded for, say, 5 minutes and
repeated twice. An average value for the count rate per minute (C0) should then be
calculated.

The gamma-ray source should be held in a suitable holder (an electrical plug
connector is suitable for this) and clamped to a clamp stand. It should then be
placed 10 cm from the GM tube. The source and the ‘window’ of the GM tube
should be aligned so that they are at the same height and placed along the same
straight line.

The count rate for 1 minute should be recorded 3 times and an average taken.
The experiment should be repeated, increasing the distance between the γ-ray
source and the GM tube by 10 cm each time, up to a distance of 2.00 m.

The results should be recorded in a table, as shown. 15

1
d / cm / cm −2 C1 / min−1 C2 / min−1 C3 / min−1 C / min−1 C = C − C0 / min−1
d 2

The background count can be subtracted from the average count rate to find the
count rate due to the γ-ray source alone. The table should include values of 1/d2.

Analysis of the data

A graph of adjusted count rate C against 1/d2 should be plotted. If the suggested
relationship is correct, the graph will be a straight line through the origin. The
constant A in the equation is then the gradient of the graph.

(Alternative: plot log C against log d. If the relationship is correct, the graph will be
a straight line, with a gradient of 2. The value of the y-intercept is then log A from
which A can be calculated.)

Safety precautions

The radioactive source should only be handled with tongs and kept away as far as
possible from all present. When not being used, the source should be stored in a
lead-lined box.

64
Answers to exam-style questions 27

Q Worked solution Marks


5 (a) C = C0 e − µ x
−µx [1]
ln C = ln C 0 + ln e = ln C 0 − µ x
A graph of ln C against x will have a gradient −μ and a y-intercept equal to ln C0.
(b) C / counts min−1 x / mm ln (C / counts / min−1)
2284 1.0 ± 0.2 7.73
1987 1.9 ± 0.2 7.59
1682 2.8 ± 0.2 7.43
1326 4.1 ± 0.2 7.19
1145 4.9 ± 0.2 7.04
982 6.0 ± 0.2 6.89

✓ values of ln C correct [1]


(c) (i) 7.80
Straight line of best fit

Worst acceptable straight line


7.60

Correct axes/scales
[2]
In (C /counts /min−1)

Points plotted correctly


7.40

7.20

7.00

6.80
0 2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0
x /mm

(ii) Good ‘best fit’ line drawn. ✓

Line with maximum or minimum gradient that still passes through the error bars of
all the data points. ✓ [2]

7.63 − 6.98
(iii) gradient of line of best fit = = −0.171 ✓
1.60 − 5.40
7.70 − 6.93
gradient of worst acceptable straight line = = −0.160
1.00 − 5.80
gradient = −0.17 ± 0.01 ✓ [2]

(iv) Using point (2.30, 7.51) in y = mx + c for line of best fit:

intercept = 7.51 − (−0.17) × 2.30 = 7.90 ✓

Using point (3.00, 7.38) in y = mx + c for worst acceptable straight line:

intercept = 7.38 − (−0.16) × 3.00 = 7.86

intercept = 7.90 ± 0.04 ✓ [2]

65
Q Worked solution Marks
(d) (i) gradient = −μ = −0.17 ⇒ μ = 0.17 ✓
7.90 3
y-intercept = ln C0 = 7.90 ⇒ C0 = e = 2.70 × 10 ✓ [2]
absolute uncertainty 0.01
(ii) percentage uncertainty in µ = × 100% ✓ = × 100 = 6% ✓ [2]
mean value 0.17
6 (a) x = kdn

lg x = lg k + nlg d [1]

The gradient is n and the y-intercept is lg k.


(b) d / mm x / cm lg (d / mm) lg (x / cm)
6.4 5.8 ± 0.2 0.806 0.76 ± 0.01
7.0 4.0 ± 0.2 0.845 0.60 ± 0.02
7.6 2.9 ± 0.2 0.881 0.46 ± 0.03
8.2 2.1 ± 0.2 0.914 0.32 ± 0.04
8.8 1.6 ± 0.2 0.944 0.20 ± 0.06
9.5 1.2 ± 0.2 0.978 0.08 ± 0.07
  [2]
(c) (i) Points plotted correctly. ✓

Error bars drawn correctly. ✓ [2]


1.00

0.80

0.60
lg (x /cm)

Worst acceptable
straight line

0.40
Straight line
of best fit

0.20

0.0
0.80 0.85 0.90 0.95 1.00
lg (d /mm)

(ii) Good ‘best fit’ line drawn. ✓

Line with maximum or minimum gradient that still passes through the error bars of
all the data points. ✓ [2]

∆y 0.640 − 0.140
(iii) gradient of line of best fit = = = − 4.0 ✓
∆x 0.835 − 0.960
∆y 0.510 − 0.080
gradient of worst acceptable straight line= = = −3.7 ✓ [2]
∆x 0.8725 − 0.990

66
Answers to exam-style questions 27

Q Worked solution Marks


(iv) gradient = −4.0 ± 0.3 ✓
Using point (0.895, 0.400) in y = mx + c for the line of best fit:
y-intercept = 0.400 − (−4.0 × 0.895) = 4.0 ✓
Using point (0.960, 0.190) in y = mx + c for the worst acceptable line:
y-intercept = 0.190 − (−3.7 × 0.960) = 3.7
[2]
y-intercept = 4.0 ± 0.3 ✓
(d) (i) n = gradient = −4.0 ✓
4
lg k = y-intercept = 4.0 ⇒ k = 1.0 × 10 ✓ [2]
10 4
x= (d in mm, x in cm)
d4
absolute uncertainty 0.3
(ii) percentage uncertainty in n = × 100% ✓ = × 100 = 7.5% ✓ [2]
mean value 4.0

67
Unit 28
Paper 1 style questions: Multiple choice

Q Worked solution Marks


1 As the Reynolds number is dimensionless:
kg m D[1]
[ µ ] = [ ρ ] [v ][ D ] = × × m=kg m −1 s −1
m3 s
2 –q

p C[1]
p–q

3 1
% uncertainty in R = × 100 = 2.0%
49
0.4
% uncertainty in l = × 100 = 0.4%
99.5 D[1]
0.01
% uncertainty in A = 2 × % uncertainty in d = 2 × × 100 = 5.3%
0.38
% uncertainty in ρ = 2.0 + 0.4 + 5.3 = 7.7 %
2 2
4 Using v = u + 2as:
11.02 = 7.02 + 2 × 9.81 × h C[1]
h = 3.7 m
5 ‘Taking moments’ about the pivot: 15 Connecting
cos 30° link
15
F× = 120 × 30 F
cos 30°
B[1]
F = 208 N (210 N to 2 s.f.) 120 N
60°
30°
30 cm 15 cm

6 Let the driving force from the 18 m s–1


engine be F N. F
6.0 kN
Since the lorry is travelling at
mg D[1]
constant speed: 10°

F = 6.0 × 103 + 3.0 × 103 × 9.81 × sin 10° = 1.1 × 104 N

Output power = Fv = 1.1 × 104 × 18 = 1.98 × 105 W (200 kW to 2 s.f.)


7 p = ρgh
p 150 × 106 B[1]
h= = = 1.5 × 10 4 m (15 km)
ρ g 1.0 × 103 × 9.81

68
Answers to exam-style questions 28

Q Worked solution Marks


8

ℓ= λ
2

B[1]

λ
l= = 67 − 42 = 25cm
2
λ = 50 cm
v 330
f= = = 660 Hz
λ 0.50
9 For the charged oil drop to be stationary, the gravitational force on the drop must be equal to
the electrical force on the drop:
V
mg = q
d D[1]
qV
m=
gd

10 For a source of sound moving away from an observer:


v
fo = fs
v + vs
where fs is the frequency of the sound emitted by the source, vs the velocity of the source, v is B[1]
the velocity of sound and fo is the frequency heard by the observer.
330
fo = 960 × = 880 Hz
(330 + 30)
11 For the first loop, using Ι1 14 V 10 V Ι2
Kirchhoff’s second law:
14 = I1 × 1 + (I1 + I2) × 1
1Ω
14 = 2I1 + I2 [1]

For the second loop: 1Ω 1Ω


D[1]
10 = I2 × 1 + (I1 + I2) × 1
10 = I1 + 2I2 [2]

Equation [1] × 2 − equation [2]:     28 − 10 = 4I1 − I1 = 3I1


⇒ I1 = 6 A and I2 = 2 A

69
Q Worked solution Marks
12 Let the e.m.f. of the cell be E.
For the 5 Ω resistor:
E r
E = 2.0 × (5 + r) = 10 + 2r
For the 7 Ω resistor:
B[1]
E = 1.5 × (7 + r) = 10.5 + 1.5r 5Ω
A
Combining these two equations:
10 + 2r = 10.5 + 1.5r
r = 1.0 Ω

13 In β decay the nucleon number stays constant and the proton number increases by 1
(a neutron changes into a proton and an electron - the β particle - and an electron
antineutrino are emitted from the nucleus).
In alpha decay, 2 protons and 2 neutrons are emitted (the alpha particle is identical to a C[1]
helium nucleus), so the nucleon number decreases by 4 and the proton number decreases
by 2.
83 Bi → 84 Po →
214 214 210
82 Pb

14 The standard model of fundamental particles consists of 6 quarks (up, down, charm, strange,
top and bottom) and 6 leptons (electron, muon and tau particles and their associated D[1]
neutrinos) together with their equivalent antiparticles.

70
Answers to exam-style questions 28
Paper 2 style questions: AS structured questions

Q Worked solution Marks


1 (a) The work done by a force is the product of the force and the distance moved in the
[1]
direction of the force.
(b) Component of weight force acting
down the slope = mg sin 6° ✓

mg
= 2000 × 9.81 × sin 6°

= 2050 N ✓ [2]
(c) (i) Applying F = ma along the slope: ✓ 20 m s–1
7.2 kN
(ii) −(7200 + 2050) = 2000 a ✓ [2]
−2 6°
a = −4.63 m s 19.6 kN

(negative because the lorry is decelerating)

Using v2 = u2 + 2as: ✓

02 = 202 + 2 × (−4.6) × s

s = 43 m ✓ [2]
(d) 1
(i) 1. ∆Ek = × 2000 × ( 202 − 02 ) = 4.0 × 105 J [1]
2
2. Work done by braking force = 7200 × 43 = 3.1 × 105 J [1]
(ii) Some of the kinetic energy lost by the lorry has become gravitational potential
energy ✓ of the lorry (the lorry is higher up the slope). [1]
2 (a) (i) Principle of conservation of momentum:
For a system of interacting objects, the total momentum remains constant ✓,
provided no external resultant force ✓ acts on the system. [2]
(ii) A perfectly elastic collision is one in which there is no overall loss in kinetic energy. [1]
(b) 1
(i) 1. mu 2 [1]
2
2
1 u 1
2. m   = mu 2 [1]
2  2 8
1
3. mv 2 [1]
2

(ii) Since the collision is elastic:


1 1 1
mv 2 + mu 2 = mu 2
2 8 2
1 2 3 2
v = u
2 8

u 3
v=
2 [1]

71
Q Worked solution Marks
(c) Using the conservation of momentum in the original direction of travel of the first
ball before the collision: ✓
u
m cos 60° + mv cos θ = mu
2
3 u 3
but v = u ⇒ m cos 60° + mu cos θ = mu ✓
2 2 2

3 1 3 3 [3]
cos θ = 1 − = ⇒ cos θ = ⇒ θ = 30° ✓
2 4 4 2
(The value of θ can also be found by applying the principle of conservation of
momentum in a direction perpendicular to the original direction of the first ball.)
3 (a) force
(i) tensile stress = [1]
cross-sectional area of wire
extension of wire
(ii) tensile strain = [1]
original length
tensile stress
(iii) Young modulus = [1]
tensile strain
(b) F 3.5
(i) σ= = = 5.68 × 107 Pa(N m −2 ) ✓ [2]
A π × (0.14 × 10−3 )2 

x 1.24 × 10−3
(ii) ε= = = 8.27 × 10−4 ✓ [1]
l0 1.50
σ 5.68 × 107
E= = = 6.9 × 1010 ✓ N m−2 ✓ [2]
ε 8.27 × 10−4

Note: the ‘raw data’ used in this question (the length and diameter of the wire, the
load applied and the extension it causes) are recorded to two or three significant
figures. This means that the values of σ, ε and E can all be expressed to two or three
significant figures.
(c) Halving the diameter decreases the cross-sectional area by a factor of 4, so the stress
on the wire would be 4 times as large and the extension produced would be 4 times
as great. ✓ [1]
However, this assumes that the aluminium has not reached its Hooke’s law limit/
elastic limit/ultimate tensile strength.✓ [1]
(The ultimate tensile strength of aluminium is approximately 100 MPa, so a stress of
4 × 5.7 × 107 = 2.3 × 108 Pa would cause the aluminium to break.)
4 (a) (i) Diffraction: when waves spread out, after passing through a gap or round an
obstacle, ✓ beyond the ‘geometric shadow’.✓ [2]
(ii) Interference: when two or more waves meet, their amplitudes add up (constructive
interference) if they are in phase, or cancel out (destructive interference) if they are [1]
out of phase.
(b) (i) The light waves emerging from the two slits have a fixed phase difference. [1]

(ii) Consider the case when the light waves emerging from the two slits are in phase
with each other. In general, the light from one slit reaching a point P on the screen
will have travelled a different distance to the light reaching point P from the other
slit.✓ [1]

72
Answers to exam-style questions 28

Q Worked solution Marks


If this path difference is a whole number of wavelengths of the light, the light waves
reaching P from the two slits will still be in phase and will interfere constructively
(add up) producing a bright fringe on the screen.✓ If the path difference were an [1]
odd number of half-wavelengths the two light waves would interfere destructively
(cancel out), appearing as a dark fringe on the screen.
If the light waves emerging from the two slits were in antiphase (180° out of phase),
the bright and dark fringes would be reversed.
(c) For Young’s double-slits experiment:
ax
λ=
D
where λ is the wavelength of light, a is the spacing between the centres of the two
slits, D is the distance from the slits to the screen and x is the distance between
adjacent bright fringes.
0.60 × 10−3 × 2.4 × 10−3 −7 [2]
λ=  = 4.8 × 10 m (480 nm) ✓
3.0
(d) Red light has a longer wavelength than blue light, so the bright fringes would be
[1]
further apart.
5 (a) (i) Kirchhoff’s first law: At any junction in a circuit, the total current leaving the [1]
junction is equal to the total current entering the junction.
(ii) Conservation of charge. [1]
(b) Let the current in the 6.0 Ω resistor be I.
The current in the 3.0 Ω resistor 9.0 V 0.5 Ω
must be 2I (because the p.d. across
the 3.0 Ω resistor and the 6.0 Ω 3Ι
resistor must be the same, as they
are in parallel). A 3.0 Ω

The current in the 2.0 Ω resistor and 2Ι 2.0 Ω


the 0.5 Ω internal resistance must
Ι 6.0 Ω
be 3I.

Applying Kirchhoff’s second law to the circuit loop shown:


9.0 = 6.0 × I + 2.0 × 3I + 0.5 × 3I ✓ (method)
⇒ 13.5 × I = 9.0
I = 0.67 A
The reading on the ammeter is 3I = 2.0 A ✓ [2]
(c) (i) Current in the 6.0 Ω resistor = I = 0.67 A [1]
(ii) Power dissipated in the 2.0 Ω resistor = i2R = 2.02 × 2.0 ✓ = 8.0 W ✓ [2]
(iii) p.d. across terminals = e.m.f. – ‘lost volts’ in cell = 9.0 − (0.5 × 2.0) ✓ = 8 V ✓ [2]
6 (a) (i) Isotope: atoms having the same number of protons ✓ but different numbers of [2]
neutrons. ✓
(ii) 1. 27 protons [1]

2. 60 − 28 = 32 neutrons [1]

73
Q Worked solution Marks
(b) (i) 60
Co → 60
Ni+ −10 e+v
27 28

X is β− radiation (beta ✓ minus ✓) [2]



(ii) β radiation is fast-moving electrons. It has a range in air of approximately 1 m,
or a few millimetres of aluminium. The radiation can be deflected by magnetic
and electric fields and ionises air molecules as it passes through air (though has a
weaker ionising effect in air than alpha radiation). Any two ✓✓ [2]
(c) Conservation of mass-energy ✓ [1]
The mass defect (the difference between the mass of the cobalt nucleus and the
combined mass of the nickel nucleus and the beta particle) has become energy [1]

(principally kinetic energy of the β particle). ✓
If the change in mass is Δm, the energy released ΔE is given by the equation:
[1]
ΔE = c2Δm ✓

74
Answers to exam-style questions 28
Paper 3 style questions: Advanced practical skills

Q Worked solution Marks


1 (c) (i)–(ii)
1.40 Axes – suitable axes chosen and labelled,
using most of the grid.
Plotting – all points plotted correctly
Quality – all points close to a straight line
Best line – straight line with good distribution
of points above and below the line

1.20

[4]
1/V

1.00

0.80

0.60
0 25 50 75 100
x

(c) ∆y 1.375 − 0.757 −3 −1 −1


(iii) Gradient =
=  = 7.85 × 10 V cm [1]
∆x 88.75 − 10.00
Using the point (53.75, 1.10) in the equation y = mx + c:
c = y − mx = 1.10 − 7.85 × 10−3 × 53.75 ✓ = 0.678 V−1 [1]
−1
(This can be checked by looking at the y-intercept on the graph: ∼0.68 V )
−3 −1 −1
(d) P = gradient of graph = 7.85 × 10 V cm
[2]
Q = y-intercept of graph = 0.678 V−1.
2 2 5 3 3
2 (c) (i) P = x (3L − x) = (50.2) × [(3 × 89.7) − 50.2] = 5.52 × 10 cm (0.552 m ) [1]
(ii) The values of L and x (the ‘raw data’) are both recorded to three significant [1]
figures. P can therefore be expressed to three or four significant figures.
(d) (ii) absolute uncertainty in d is Δd = ± 1 mm
1 [1]
% uncertainty in d = × 100% = 13%
8
2 2 6 3 3
(e) P = x (3L − x) = (79.6) × [(3 × 89.7) − 79.6] = 1.20 × 10 cm (1.20 m ) [1]

75
Q Worked solution Marks
(f) d 8 × 10−3
(i) k= ⇒ k1 = = 1.4(5) × 10−2 m −2
P 0.552
17 × 10−3
k2 = = 1.4(2) × 10−2 m −2 [1]
1.20
(ii) The two values of k differ by less than the percentage uncertainty in d (13%)
calculated in (d)(ii), so the two values of k can be considered the same (k1
and k2 are equal to 2 significant figures). The results are consistent with the [1]
suggested relationship between P and d.
(iii) P = x2(3L − x) = (65)2 × [(3 × 89.7) − 65] = 8.62 × 105 cm3 (0.862 m3)
d = kP = 1.4 × 10−2 × 0.862 = 0.012 m (12 mm) [1]
(g) (i) 1. Only two sets of data have been collected – not enough to be able to draw a [1]
valid conclusion.
2. The deflection d of the beam is small, leading to a large percentage [1]
uncertainty in the value of d.
3. Difficult to hold the 1.0 m ruler steady and vertical when measuring the [1]
deflection.
4. The wooden beam is not horizontal without any load applied (it has a small [1]
deflection due to its own weight) so it is difficult to judge the deflection of the
beam from its starting position.
(ii) 1. Repeat the experiment for other values of x, collecting at least 6 sets of data, [1]
and then plot a graph of d against P. (If the suggested relationship is correct,
the graph should be a straight line passing through the origin.)
2. Use a longer length L of wooden beam. [1]

3. Clamp the ruler vertically (using a base clamp). Check the ruler is vertical
[1]
using a set square held against the ruler (see diagram).

Metre rule

Checking the Set square


rule is vertical

Bench

4. Mount a second beam (without a load) next to the original beam. Measure [1]
the difference in deflection between the two beams.

76
Answers to exam-style questions 28
Paper 4 style questions: A level structured questions

Q Worked solution Marks


1 (a) Any two point masses ✓ attract each other with a force that is proportional to the
[2]
product of the two masses and inversely proportional to their distance apart. ✓
(b) The speed of the satellite is not changing but the direction the satellite is travelling
is constantly changing. Velocity is a vector quantity (has magnitude and direction)
so the velocity of the satellite is constantly changing ✓ i.e. it is accelerating. From
Newton’s second law, a resultant force must be acting for an object to accelerate.✓ [2]
(c) Gm1m2 6.67 × 10−11 × 6.0 × 1024 × 2.5 × 103
(i) F= =  = 2.17 × 10 N
4
[2]
r2 (6570 × 10 + 220 × 10 )
3 3 2

F 2.17 × 10 4
(ii) F = ma ⇒ a = = = 8.68 m s −2 ✓ [1]
m 2.5 × 103
(d) v2
(i) Centripetal acceleration = = 8.68 ✓
r

⇒ v = 8.68 × (6570 × 103 + 220 × 103 ) = 7.7 × 103 m s −1 ✓ [2]

2πR 2π × (6570 × 103 + 220 × 103 )


(ii) T= = = 5.5 × 103 s (∼90 minutes) ✓ [1]
v 7.7 × 103
(e) The satellite is in a ‘low Earth’ orbit (often a polar orbit) so can make detailed
observations of the whole of the Earth’s surface. It is an ideal orbit for weather
[1]
satellites and satellites used for geological surveys and military purposes. The Hubble
telescope and the International Space Station (ISS) are also in low Earth orbits.
2 (a) SHM: Simple harmonic motion is motion in which the acceleration is:

1. proportional to the displacement ✓

2. in the opposite direction to the displacement ✓ [2]


(b) 1 1 Position
(i) f= ✓= = 0.83Hz ✓ after 5.7 s [2]
T 1.2
20°
(ii) ω = 2πf = 2π × 0.83 = 5.2 rad s−1 ✓ Starting [1]
position
5.7
(iii) 5.7 s ⇒ = 4.75 complete oscillations View from
1.2
above
The bar will have completed 4 oscillations + an extra
¾ of an oscillation, so it will be passing through its [1]
equilibrium position ✓ (travelling at its maximum
speed) travelling towards the starting position.
(c) The angular displacement = ‘amplitude’ = θ0 = 20° = π/9 rads ✓
Maximum angular speed of rotation = ‘θ0ω’ = (π/9) × 5.2 = 1.82 rad s−1 ✓
Speed of end of rod = radius × angular speed of rotation
= 3.0 × 1.82
= 5.5 cm s−1 ✓ [3]
(d) (i) Total energy

(ii)
Energy

Potential energy [2]

0 T/2

77
Q Worked solution Marks
3 (a) Capacitance: The capacitance C of a capacitor is the charge stored (on one plate)
[1]
per unit potential difference.
(b) • One plate of a charged capacitor will be positively charged; the other will have
an equal amount of negative charge. [2]
• The overall charge ‘stored’ in the capacitor is zero.
(c) (i) 2 capacitors in parallel = 60 μF ✓

For the series combination:


1 1 1 3
= + =
C 60 30 60
C = 20 μF ✓ [2]
(ii) Let the charge on the 30 μF capacitor be Q. 12.0 V

V1 + V2 = 12 ✓
Q Q
+ = 12
60 µF 30 µF 60 μF 30 μF
–Q +Q –Q +Q
Q = 240 μC
V1 V2
240 µC
V2 = = 8.0 V ✓ [2]
30 µF

(iii) Charge on one plate of the 20 μF capacitor = Q/3

= 80 μC ✓
12.0 V

[1]
20 μF
–Q +Q
3 3
30 μF
–Q +Q
40 μF

–2Q +2Q
3 3

(d) (i) Energy stored = ½CV2 = ½ × (40 × 10−6) × 4.02 ✓ = 3.2 × 10−4 J (0.32 mJ) ✓ [2]
(ii) A charged capacitor stores energy in the form of electrical potential energy in the [1]
electric field between the two plates.
(iii) One of: camera flash/ insect ‘zappers’/ pulsed lasers, etc. [1]
4 (a) The resistance of the thermistor decreases as the temperature increases. [1]
(b) (i) Potential divider [1]
Rth 4
(ii) = ✓ ⇒ 6 Rth = 4 ( Rth + 20 )
Rth + 20 6
2 Rth = 80

Rth = 40 kΩ ✓ [2]

78
Answers to exam-style questions 28

Q Worked solution Marks


(c) (i) In this example, the calibration curve is a graph of the output voltage (Vout) against [1]
temperature. It can be used to find the corresponding values of Vout for different
temperatures.
(ii) From the graph, when T = 70°C, Vout = 1.7 V (±0.1V) ✓value ✓ units [2]
(iii) From the graph, when Vout = 0.8 V, T = 150 (±5) °C ✓ [1]
(d) At high temperatures, a large change in temperature corresponds to a small change
in Vout – a small error in reading Vout will mean a large error in the value of T. [1]

5 (a) (i) Faraday’s law: The induced e.m.f. in a circuit is proportional to the rate of change of [1]
flux linkage through the circuit.
(ii) The magnetic flux, Φ, through an area A is defined as:
Φ = BA ✓
where B is the component of magnetic flux density (magnetic field strength) [2]
perpendicular ✓ to the area A.
(b) (i) ‘Area swept’ per second (= dA/dt) = lv [1]

(ii) dΦ d ( BA ) dA [1]
E = (−) = (−) = (−) B = ( − ) Blv
dt dt dt
(The minus sign indicates that the induced voltage acts in a direction that opposes
the change causing the induced e.m.f.)
(c) E Blv
(i) I= = [1]
R R
(ii) The current is going away from the reader/ into the paper. [1]

(iii) The electromagnetic force F on the bar is towards the left, opposing the motion that
is inducing the e.m.f. ✓
 Blv  B 2l 2v
F = BIl = B  l = ✓ [2]
 R  R
(d) The current induced in the bar would also be in the opposite direction (out of the
paper/ towards the reader). Since both magnetic field and electric current have
[1]
reversed direction, the force on the bar would still be towards the left (i.e. still
opposing the motion).
(e) The bar is moving at constant speed, so the forces are balanced. ✓
B 2l 2v
=W ✓
R
RW
v= 2 2 ✓ [3]
Bl

79
Paper 5 style questions: Planning, analysis and evaluation

Q Worked solution Marks


1 Control of variables:
In this experiment, the independent variable is the diameter d of the spring. The
dependent variable is the stiffness k of the spring. The diameter of the wire and the
number of coils of each spring (and hence the length of each spring) should be kept
constant. The same metal should be used throughout.
Procedure to be followed:
Obtain six or more closely-coiled springs of equal length, made of the same metal
with the same diameter of wire, but of varying diameters. For each spring:
Measure the diameter d of the spring using vernier calipers.
Measure the unstretched length l0 of the spring using a 30 cm ruler. Then suspend
the spring on the rod of a clamp as shown. Add different masses to the spring and
measure the new length l of the spring using a 30 cm ruler.
A brief preliminary experiment can be conducted to establish a suitable range of
masses that produces significant extensions of the spring without exceeding the
elastic limit – use larger masses if the change in length of the spring is too small or
smaller masses if the spring is likely to extend beyond its elastic limit.

Spring

Rod of clamp
l

Clamp stand
Slotted
masses

Measurements to be taken:
diameter of spring d = .......
original length of the spring l0 = .......

80
Answers to exam-style questions 28

Q Worked solution Marks


For each spring, record the measurements in a table, as shown. Include the values of
−1
mg (the load on the spring). Take g = 9.81 N kg .

Mass m / kg Load mg / N Length l of Extension of spring


spring / cm (l − l0) / cm
0 0 l0 0
0.100 0.981
0.200 1.962

Analysis of the data:


For each spring, plot a graph of load against extension and draw the straight line of
best fit. Calculate the gradient of the graph (the stiffness k of the spring). Use the
results to compile a second table of stiffness k against diameter d. Include a column
3
in the table for calculating values of 1 / d .

k / N m−1 Diameter d / cm 1/d3 / cm−3


Plot a graph of k against 1/ d3. If the suggested relationship is valid, the graph will
be a straight line passing through the origin. The value of C can then be found by
calculating the gradient of the graph.
Alternative method: Plot a graph of log k against log d and draw the straight line of
best fit. If the suggested equation is valid, the gradient of the graph should be –3.
The y-intercept of the graph is then log C.
Safety precautions:
Wear safety goggles. [15]
2 (a) A 2 n
t= h
a g

A 2
lg t = lg + n lg h
a g
Comparing this equation with the graph for a straight line (y = mx + c):
A 2
gradient, m = n ✓ y -intercept, c = lg ✓ [2]
a g

(b) h / cm t/s lg(h / cm) lg(t / s)


75.4 98 ± 2 1.88 1.99 ± 0.01
63.6 86 ± 2 1.80 1.93 ± 0.01
51.5 74 ± 2 1.71 1.87 ± 0.01
46.9 70 ± 2 1.67 1.85 ± 0.01
37.1 59 ± 2 1.57 1.77 ± 0.01
25.7 45 ± 2 1.41 1.65 ± 0.02
   [3]

81
Q Worked solution Marks
(c) (i)
and 2.0
(ii) (c)(i) Points plotted correctly
Error bars drawn correctly [2]

1.9
lg (t/s)

1.8

(c)(ii) Line of best fit

1.7

(c)(ii) Worst acceptable straight line [2]

1.6
1.2 1.4 1.6 1.8 2.0
lg (h/cm)

(c) 1.965 − 1.675


(iii) Gradient of best fit line = = 0.725 ✓
1.840 − 1.440
2.015 − 1.625
Gradient of worst acceptable straight line = = 0.765
1.900 − 1.390
Gradient = 0.73 ± 0.04 ✓ [2]
(iv) Using the point (1.550, 1.755), on the best fit line, in the equation y = mx + c:
c = 1.755 − (0.725 × 1.550) = 0.631 ✓
Using the point (1.520, 1.725), on the worst acceptable line, in the equation
y = mx + c:
c = 1.725 − (0.765 × 1.520) = 0.562
c = 0.63 ± 0.07 ✓ [2]
(d) n = gradient = 0.73 ✓
A 2 A g 981 [2]
c = lg ⇒ = × 10 c = × 100.63 = 94.5 ✓
a g a 2 2

82

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