PHYSICS revision test

1.In a series R - C circuit, the resistance of the resistor is 4Ω and capacitive reactance is 3Ω.
Calculate the impedance of the circuit A. 1Ω B. 4Ω C.5Ω D.7Ω E.12Ω
0.25H R

50V, 100 HZ
π
2.lf the current in the resistor R
in question 41 is 0.05A, calculate
thep.d. across the inductor. A. 2.5V B. 25.0V C. 49.0V D. 50.0V E. 250.0V.
3. Calculate the amount of heat generated in an external load of resistance 80 if an alternating
current of peak value 5A is passed through for l00s. A. 20, 000J B. 10,000J C. 5,000J
D. 4,000J E.200J
4. In the diagram below, the resistor has a resistance 8 Ω while the reactances of the inductor
and the capacitor are 10Ω and 16Ω respectively. Calculate the current in the circuit A. 3.6A
B. 3.8A C. 9.2A D. 10.0A E. 13.0A
C
L R

130V, 50HZ

5. The resistance in a series R-C circuit is 5Ω. If the impedance of the circuit is 13Ω, calculate
the I reactance of the capacitor A. 65Ω B. 18Ω C. 16Ω D. 14Ω E. 12Ω
6. A capacitor of capacitance 25μF is connected an a.c. power source of frequency 200/πHz.
Calculate the reactance of the capacitor A. 0.01Ω B. 0.02Ω C. 50.00Ω D. 100.00Ω E.
150.00Ω
7. The current in a series R-L-C circuit attains its maximum value when the A. impedance is
greater than the capacitive reactance B. inductive reactance is equal to the capacitive
reactance C. inductive reactance is greater than the capacitive reactance D. capacitive
reactance is less than the resistance E. inductive reactance is greater than the capacitive
reactance.
8. The half-life of a radioactive material is 6 hours. What quantity of 1kg of the material would
decay in 24 hours? A. 15/16kg B. 1/2kg C. 1/4kg D. 1/8kg E. 1/16kg
9. In a series L-C circuit the inductance and t capacitance are 0.5Hand 20μF, respectively..
calculate the resonant frequency of the circuit A. 24.2Hz B. 367Hz C. 503Hz D.60.5Hz
E. 80.0Hz.
10. An inductor of inductance 10 H carries a current of’0.2 A. Calculate the energy stored in the
inductor A. 0.1 J B. 0.2 J C. 1.0 J D. 2.0 J.
11. Calculate the inductance of an inductor whose is one ohm at 50 Hz. A. 2.00 x.10-²H B.
6.36 x 10-³H C. 3.1.8 x-10-³H D. 4.55 x 10-4H.
12. Calculate the reactance of the inductor in the circuit diagram shown above [π = 22/7] A. 132
Ω B. 214 Ω C. 264 Ω D. 269 Ω
13. The duality of matter implies that matter A. exists as a particle of dual composition B. has
momentum and energy C. has both wave and particle properties D. is made up of dual
materials.
14. One difference between a reactance and a resistance in an alternating current circuit is A.
resistance is larger than reactance B. energy is not dissipated in a reactance C. energy is stored
in a resistance but not in a reactance D. the current in a reactance is lower than in the
resistance
15. A direct current of 5 A flows through a 0.2 H inductor. Calculate the energy stored in the
inductor. A. 0.5 J B. 1.0 J C. 2.5 J D.5.0 J.
16. An inductor of inductance 1.0 H is connected in series a capacitor of capacitance 2.0 μF in
an a.c. circuit. Calculate the value of frequency that will make the circuit to resonate. A. 112.5
Hz B. 225.0 Hz C. 353.5 Hz D. 707.1 Hz
17.Which of the following is not correct about isotopes of an element? They have A. the same
neutron number B. the same proton number C. the same 32 number of electrons D. the same
chemical properties E. different physical properties.
18. If a nucleus H1 decays, a nucleus He2 is formed accompanied with the emission of a
A. neutron B. proton C. beta particle D. gamma particle E. alpha particle
19 . The nucleon number and the proton number of a neutral atom of an element are 238 and
92, respectively. What is the number of neutrons in the atom? A. 330 B. 165 C. 146 D.
119 E. 73.
20. A radioactive substance has a half-life of 20 hours. What fraction of the original radioactive
nuclei will’ remain after 80 hours? A. 1/32 B. 1/16 C. 1/8 D. 1/4 E. 1/2.
21. A metal is illuminated with a radiation of energy 6.88eV. 1 If the kinetic energy of the
emitted electrons is 1.50eV, calculate the work function of the metal. A. 0.22Ev B. 4.59eV C.
5.38eV D. 8.38eV E. 10.32eV.
22. When the nucleus of a uranium atom is split into two fragments of nearly equal mass the
sum of the masses of the fragments is less V than the mass of the original nucleus. This
difference is a measure of the A. experimental error in calculating the separate masses
 B. change of momentum of each fragment C. potential energy lost D. nuclear energy
released E. kinetic energy lost.
23. Which of the following statements is not correct? Isotopes of an element have A. the
same number of electric charges on the nucleus B. the same chemical properties C. different
nucleon numbers D. different proton numbers E. different atomic masses.
24. Which of the following representations s correct for an atom X with 28 electrons and 30
neutrons?
A. 30 X 28 B. 28 x30 C. 58 x30 D. 58 x 28 E. 30 x2
25. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 2 seconds. Calculate the decay constant. A.
0.035s
B. 0.151s-¹ C. 0.347s D. 0.576s-¹ E. 1.386
26. A radioactive substance has a half-life of 20 hours. What fraction of the original
radioactive nuclide will remain after 80 hours? A. 1 B. 1 C. 1 D. 1 E. 1
32 16 8 4 2
27. Which of the following is used a nuclear reactor to slow down fast moving neutrons? A.
Carbon dioxide gas B. Liquid sodium metal C. Concrete shield D. Graphite rods E. Boron
rods.
28. Eight a — particles and size B — particles are emitted from an atom of 238U before 92
it achieves stability. What is the nucleon number of the final product in the chain reaction? A. 206
B. 234 C. 238 D. 240 E. 252.
29. Which of the following are emitted from a radioactive substance without altering either the
nucleon number or the proton number of the substance? A. Gamma rays B. Alpha
particles C. Beta particles D. Protons E. Neutrons.
30. In 24 days a radioactive isotope decreases in mass from 64 g to 2 g. What is the half-life of
the radioactive material? A. 0.75 day B. 2.58 days C. 4 00 days 4. 80 days E. 6.00
days.
31. A radioactive nuclide of mass 6.0g has a half-life 8 days. Calculate the time during which
5.25g of the nuclide would have decayed A. 1 day B. 2 days C. 8 days D. 24 days.
E. 42 days.
32. Which of the following is not a product of nuclear fission? A. Alpha particle B. Beta
particle C. Gamma ray D. X-ray E. Neutron.
33. What is the decay constant of a radioactive element. Whose half-life is 3 seconds A. 0.132s-¹
B. 0.23s-¹ C. 0.347s-¹ D. 0.693s-¹ E. 0.924s-¹
34. Which of the following statements is not true of nuclear fission? A. mother nucleus is broken
into two daughter nuclei roughly of equal parts. B. Neutron is normally used in bombarding
heavy nucleus C. Two light nuclei are made to combine to form a heavy nucleus
D. Very enormous energy is released E. There is an apparent loss in mass
35. Two radioactive elements X and V have half-lives of 100 and 50 years respectively. Samples
of X and V initially contain equal number of atoms. What is the ratio of the number of the
remaining atoms of X to that of Y after 200 years A. 4 :1 B. 3: 1 C.1:1 D. 1:2 E. 1:4
36. The half-life of a radioactive substance is A. its average life time B. one-half the value of its
decay constant. C. the length of time needed by the substance to decay completely D. the
length of time during which the activity of the substance reduces by 50%.
37. The half-life of a radioactive element is 5 s. Calculate its decay constant A. 0.113s-¹ B.
0.136 s-¹ C. 0.139 s-¹ D. 0.193 s-¹
38. Which of the following are the essential parts of an atomic bomb? A. Uranium and
neutrons B. Radium and polonium C. Nitrogen and neutrons D. Uranium and a -
particles.
39. Which of the following is used to control the rate of neutron production in a nuclear reactor?
A. Boron rods B. Concrete shield C. Graphite rods D. Uranium rods
40. Which of the following is usually used to cause fission in an atomic reactor? A. Alpha
particles B. Beta particles C. Electrons D. Neutrons
41. Five 80-W and three 100-W.lamps are run for 8 hours. If the cost of energy is N5.00 per unit,
calculate the cost of running the images [1 unit = 1 kWh] A. N280.00 B. N28.80 C. N
7.20 D. N 1. 44
42. Electrical energy is measured in A. ampere. B. coulomb. C. kilowatt – hour D.
kilowatt
43. Which of the following statements about the gaseous state of matter is not correct? The
molecules of a substance in gaseous state A. are in a constant state of motion B. have
different speeds C. have a temperature which is a measure of the average kinetic energy
D. have no intermolecular attractive force E. have a pressure which is determined by the
number of molecules present.
44. Which of the following is not crystal? A. Sodium chloride B. Lead C. Copper (II)
tetraoxosulphate (VI) D. Glass E. Germanium.
45. What is the difference between a crystalline and an amorphous solid? A crystalline solid A.
has cubic structure while- amorphous solid has hexagonal structure B. has regularly-
repeating pattern while an amorphous solid has not C. is white while amorphous solid is
yellow D. is always hard while amorphous solid is always soft E. melts on heating while an
amorphous sod sublimates on heating.
46. The odour of a leaking gas is perceived at a distance from the source. This is made possible
by the process of A. sublimation B. diffusion C. osmosis D. evaporation E. capillarity.
47. Which of the following statements about kinetic theory of matter is not correct?
A. The molecules of matter are always in motion
B. When a body is heated is the average kinetic energy of its molecules decreases
C. Molecules of a liquid move more freely than those of a solid
D. Matter is made up of very tiny particles called molecules
E. The molecules of a gas move more freely than those of a liquid.
48. Which of the following physical processes cannot be explained by the molecular theory of
matter? A. Evaporation B. Thermal conduction C. Radiation of heat D. Convectional
currents in fluids.
49. One common characteristic of solids, liquids and gases is that
A. all the three have fixed volume.
B. their molecules hews the same size
C. their molecules are always in motion.
D. all the three have the same inter molecular forces.
50. The energy needed to separate the nucleons against the forces which hold them together is
A. nuclear energy. B. mechanical energy. C. ionisation energy. D. binding energy.

51. The electric field between two - point charges is shown in the
diagram above. What types of charges are at X and Y? A. Both X and Y are negative B. Both X
and Y are positive C. X is positive and Y is negative D. X is negative and Y is positive
52. A positive charged rod X is brought near as uncharged metal sphere Y and is then touched by
a finger with X still in place. When the finger is removed, the result is that y has A. no charge
and a zero potential B. a positive charge and zero potential C. a negative charge and positive
potential D. a negative charge and a negative potential
53. The instrument used for securing a large number of similar charges by induction is called A.
electrophorus B. capacitor C. proof-plane D. electroscope
54. The production and type of charge of a body can only be accounted for by the?A. deficiency
or surplus of electrons B. equibrium in protons and neutrons C. deficiency or surplus of protrons
D. deficiency or surplus of neutrons
55. The production and type of charge of a body can only be accounted for by the? A. deficiency
or surplus of electrons B. equibrium in protons and neutrons C. deficiency or surplus of
protrons
D. deficiency or surplus of neutrons
56. An object of mass 80 kg is pulled on a horizontal rough ground by a force of 500 N. Find the
coefficient of static friction. [g = 10 ms-2] A. 0.8 B. 0.4 C. 1.0 D. 0.6
57. An object weighs 22 kg in water and 30kg in air. what is the upthrust exerted by the liquid on
the object. [g = 10 ms2] A. 50 N B. 520 N C. 220 N D. 80 N
58. If the leaves a positively charged electroscope collapse completely as an object is brought
near the cap of the electroscope, the objects possesses A. an equal amount of positive charge
B. less amount of negative charge C. no charge D. a positive charge E. an equal amount of
negative charge
59. An object weighs 10.0 N in air and 7.0 N in water. What is its weight when immersed in a
liquid of relative density 1.5? A. 4.50N B. 4.67N C. 5.50N D. 6.67N E. 8.50N
60. A particle starts from rest and moves with a constant acceleration of 0.5 ms-2? Calculate the
time taken by the particle to cover a distance of 25m. A. 25s B. 7.1s C. 10.0s D. 50.0s E.
100.0s.
61. The time rate of loss of heat by a body is proportional to the A. difference in temprature
between the body and its surroundings B. temperature of its surroundings C. ratio of the
temperature of the body to that of its surroundings D. temperature of the body
62. On a fairly cool rainy day when the temperature is 20oC, the length of a steel railroad track is
20m. What will be its length on a hot a dry day when the temperature is 40oC? [coefficient of
linear expansion of steel = 11 x 10-6K-1] A. 20.013m B. 20.009m C. 20.004m D. 20.002m
63. In which of the following is the expansion of solids a disadvantage? A. the fitting of wheels in
rims B. fire alarms C. the thermostat D. the bimatellic thermometer E. the balance wheel of a
watch
64. The temperature of glass vessel containing 100cm3 of mercury is raised from 10oC to 100oC.
Calculate the apparent cubic expansion of the mercury. (Real cubic expansivity of mercury =
1.82 x 10-4K-1) (Cubic expansivity of glass = 2.4 x 10-5K-1) A. 0.52cm3 B. 1.42cm3 C. 1.87cm3 D.
5.22cm3 E. 14.22cm3
65. In what range of temperature is the expansion of water anomalous? A. +208oC to +212oC
B. -80oC + -76oC C. -4oC to 0oC D. +96oC to +100oC E. 0oC to +4oC
66. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? I. When a liquid expands its density falls
II. When a mercury-in-glass thermometer is placed in a hot liquid, the mercury level first
descends and then rises. III. The apparent expansion of a liquid is greater than its real
expansion. A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II only E. II and III only
67. Heat transfer by convection in a liquid is due to the A. translatory motion of the molecules of
the liquid B. increased vibration of the molecules of the liquid about their mean positions
C. expansion of the liquid as it is heated D. latent heat of vaporization of the liquid E. ability of
the liquid to evaporate at all temperatures
68. The mode of heat transfer which does not require a material medium is A. conduction B.
radiation C. convection D. propagation
69. During a thunderstorm, lightning and thunder occurred simultaneously in the atmosphere. An
observer on the earth surface's sees the lightning flash shortly before hearing the thunder. This
is because the A. atmospheric pressure is higher at the surface than at the higher altitudes
B. speed of sound is less than that of light C. temperature of the atmosphere decreases with
altitude D. atmospheric density decreases with altitude
70. Which of the following phenomena explains the fact that a house whose roof is coated with
white paint will be cooler in the hot season than one coated with black paint ? A. conduction B.
convection C. refraction D. reflection
71. Which of the following particles or rays have the greatest penetrating power? A. Beta
particles B. Alpha particles C. Gamma particles D. Electrons E. Neutrons.
72. Two radioactive elements A and B have half-lives of 100 and 50 years respectively.
Samples of A and B initially contain equal number of atoms. What is the 32 ratio of the number
of the remaining atoms of A to that of B after 200 years. A. 4: 1 B. 2: 1 C. 1: 1 D. 1: 2
E. 1: 4.
73. The phenomenon of radioactivity was first discovere by A. Marie Curie B. Sir J. J.
Thompson C. Henri Beequeral D. Niels Bohr E. Enrico Fremi.
74. A sheet of paper is placed in the path of a beam of radiations from a radioactive source.
Which of the following radiations will pass through the paper? I. Alpha rays II. Beta rays III.
Gamma rays A. I only B. II only C. III only D. II and III only E. I, II and III.
75. Which of the following have the great penetrating power? A. Beta rays B. Alpha ray
C. Gamma rays D. Electrons E. Neutrons.
76. The phenomenon of radioactivity was first ?1discovered by A. Marie Curve
B. Sir J.J Thomson C. Henn Becquerel D. Niels Bohr E. Enrico Fermi.
77. Beta particles are A. electrons B. protons C. neutrons D. helium nuclei E.
tritium nuclei.
78. Which of the following is radioactive fall-outs? A. Plastic B. Wood C.
TextileD. Aluminum E. Lead.
79. A sheet of paper-is placed in the path of the following radiations: I. Alpha particles II.
Beta particles III. Gamma rays. Which of the radiations will pass using the sheet of paper?
A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only.
80. If a radioactive atom emits a beta particle its mass number A. increase by one B.
remains the same C. decreases by one D. decreases by two
81. Beta particles are fast-moving A. protons B. electrons C. neutrons
D. photons
82. The half life of a radioactive substance is 14 days. If 48 g of this substance is stored,
after how many days will 1.5 g of the original substance remain?A. 84 days B. 70 days
C. 56 days D. 40 days.
83. A material of mass 1.0 x 10-³kg undergoes a fission process which decreases its
mass by 0.02 percent. Calculate the amount of energy released in the process (c = 3.0 x
l08ms-¹) A. 1.8 x 10²ºJ B. 1.8 x 10¹³J C. 1.8x l0¹¹J D. 1.8x 10¹°J
84. The nucleon number and the proton number of a neutral atom of an element are 23
and 11 respectively. How many neutrons are present in the atom? A. ll B.12 C. 23
D.34
85. Nuclear fission is preferred to nuclear fusion in the generation of energy because
A. very high temperatures are required for fusion
B. the raw materials for fusion are easily obtained
C. energy obtained from fusion is relatively smaller
D. the byproducts of fusion are very dangerous.
86. Control in nuclear reactors is effected with boron rods because the rods have the ability to
A. absorb electrons B. absorb neutrons C. accelerate electrons D. slow down neutrons.
87. A radioactive element, has a decay constant of 0.077s-¹. Calculate its half-life.
A. 13.0 s B. 9.0 s C. 5.1 s D. 0.5
88. The main difference between x-rays and y-rays lies in their A. ionizing ability
B. absorption rate C. mode of production D. mode of propagation
89. Neutrons are used to induce Artificial radioactivity g because they A. are energetic B.
have no charge C. have no mass D. are ionizing
90. Uranium — 234 disintegrated to form Thorium — 230 by emitting
A. alpha particles B. gamma rays C. beta negative rays D. beta positive rays
91. The change in maps of fuel during a nuclear reaction is 2.0 x l.0 kg. Calculate the amount
of energy released. (Speed of light = 2.0 x 10 ms-¹) A. 1.8 x 10-10 J
B. 9.0 x 10-¹¹ J C. 6.0 x 10- J D. 1.2 x 10 –J
92. Nuclear fusion is not used as a source of energy because A. very high temperature is
needed for the reaction B. the fuel for the reaction is not easy to obtain
C. less energy is released D. the reaction is too slow
93. Which of the following gives rise to the line spectra observed in atoms? A. Kinetic energy
of moving atom B. Potential energy of an electron inside an atom C. Change of an electron
from a higher to a lower energy level in the atom D. Disturbed proton in the nucleus E.
Excitation of an electron in the atom.
94. Which of the following gives rise to the line spectra obtained from atoms? A.
Kinetic energy of a moving atom B. Potential energy of an electron inside an atom C. Change
of an electron from a higher to a lower energy level in the atom D. Disturbed proton in the
nucleus E. Excitation of an electron in the atom.
95. The process by which a metal, heated to high temperature, gives off electrons from its
surface is known as A. photoelectric emission B. thermionic emission C. radioactive
emission D. field emission E. secondary emission.
96. When an atom is in the ground state, it is said to be A. grounded B. excited C.
stable D. ionized E. radiating.
97. When light from a source is sent through a gas I certain wavelengths are absorbed. II an
emision line spectrum results III a dark line is left. Which of the following is/are correct? A. I
only B. III only C. I and II only D. I and III only E. II and III only.
98. The process of increasing the energy of an atom via inelastic collision with an electron is
known as A. ionization B. excitation C. field emission D. photoemission
E. thermionic emission.
99. The following statements relate to atomic spectrums. I. All elements emit and absorb
characteristic spectra. II. Spectral analysis is an important method of identifying environmental
pollutants. III. The chemical composition of stars could be determined using spectral analysis.
Which of the statements above are correct?
A. I, II and III. B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I and II only.
100. Absorption line spectra exhibited by atoms is a result of A. change in the Kinetic energy of
a moving atom B. instability of the nucleonsC. excitation of an electron in the atom D transition
of an electron from a higher to a lower energy level
101. In which of the following transitions is the largest quantum of enemy liberated by an
hydrogen atom when the electron changes energy levels? (n is the quantum number?) A. n = 2
to n = 1 B. n = 1 to n = 2 C. n = 2 to n = 3 D. n = 3 to n = 2
102. What is the effect of using split-rings in a simple d.c. motor? A. The direction of rotation of
the coil is reversed B. The current in the coil flows in the same direction C. The current in
the coil becomes alternating D. The direction of the force on the coil is reversed E. The
contact with the voltage source is cut off.
103. Which of the following reduce(s) the effect of the back e.m.f. generated in the primary coil
of an induction coil? The capacitor in the circuit II. The make and break contact in the circuit III.
The ratio of turns in the secondary to that in the primary A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II
and III only E. I, II and III
104. Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction states that:
105. A. electromotive force is induced in a circuit whenever there is a change in the magnetic
flux linked with the circuit B. the induced current in a conductor is in such a direction as to
oppose the changeproducing it C. the induced e.m.f. in a circuit is proportional to the rate of
change of number of lines of force linking the circuitD. a force is exerted on a current carrying
conductor in a magnetic field E. the induced e.m.f. is proportional to the current producing the
magnetic flux.
106. Calculate the energy stored in 20u capacitor if the potential difference between the plates is
40 V. A. 3.2 x 10-²J B. 1.6 x 10-²J C. 8.0 x 10J D. 4.0x10J E. 2.0x10J
107. A house is supplied with a 240 V a.c. mains To operate a door bell rated at 8 V, a
transformer is used If the number of turns in the primary coil of t[e transformer is 900, calculate
the number of turns in the secondary coil of the transformer. A. 30 B. 240 C. 248 D. 450
E. 1248
108. An induction coil is generally used to A. rectify an alternating current B. produce a large
input voltage C. smoothen a pulsating direct current D. modulate an incoming radio signal
E. produce a large output voltage.
109. Electric motor primarily converts A. electrical energy into chemical energy B. electrical
energy into heat energy C. kinetic energy into potential energyD. electrical energy into
mechanical energy E. mechanical energy into light energy
110. Which of the following is riot part of an a.c. generator? A. Carbon brushes B. Slip rings
C. Commutator D. Field magnet E. Armature.
111. A rectangular coil of wire can rotate in a magnetic field. The two ends of the coil are
soldered respectively to the two halves of a commutator. Two carbon brushes are made to press
lightly against the commutator and when these are connected in circuit with a battery and
rheostat, the coil rotates. This is a description of A. a moving-coil ammeter B. a d.c
generator C. a d.c. electric motor D. an induction coil E. an a c. generator.
112. A transformer with 5500 turns in its primary winding is used between a 240 V a.c. supply
and 120 V kettle. Calculate the number of turns in the secondary winding A. 11000 B. 2750
C. 460 D. 550 E. 232.
113. The main function of the mouth of a telephone is to convert sound energy into A. heat
energy B. light energy C. chemical energy D. electrical energy E. mechanical energy
114. Which of the following is not a component of a d.c. electric motor? A. Commutator B.
Field magnets C. Slip rings D. Armature E. Carbon brushes.
115. Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction states that: A. e.m.f. is induced in a circuit
whenever there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with the circuit. B. the induced current in
a conductor is in such a direction as to oppose the changeproducing it C. the magnitude of the
induced e.m.f. in a circuit is proportional to the rate of changeof the number of lines of force
linking the circuit D. a force is exerted on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field E. the
induced charge is constant for a fixed change of flux.
116. Soft iron is used in making the armature of an electric bell because it: A. retains its
magnetism for a long time B. Loses its magnetism readily C. Produces permanent magnets D. is
not easily magnetised E. decreases the magnetic effect of a direct current.
117. A magnet is being inserted into a coil of wire. Which of the following factors does the
induced e. in the coil depend? I. Number of turn in the coil Strength of the magnet Ill. Speed with
which magnet is inserted into the coil. A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II only E.
I, II and III
118. The current iii the primary coil of a transformer is 2.5A. If the coil has 50 turns and the
secondary 250 turns, calculate the current in the secondary coil. (Neglect energy losses in the
transformer) A. 0.2A B. 0.5A C. 2.5A D. 5.0A E. 12.5A.
119. Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction is essentially a statement of the: A. inverse-square
law of gravitation B. inverse-square law of magnetism C. inverse-square law of electrostatics D.
law of conservation of momentumE. law of conservation of energy
120. Len’s law of electromagnetic induction states that: A. the induced charge is constant
for a fixed change of flux B. a force is exerted on a current-carrying conductor in a
magnetic field. C. the magnitude of the induced e.m.f in a circuit is proportional to the rate of
change of the number of lines of force linking the circuit D. the induced current in a conductor is
in such a direction as to oppose the change producing it.E. e.m.f is induced in a circuit whenever
there is change in the magnetic flux linked with the circuit.
121. The material used for constructing the core of an electromagnet is A. iron B. carbon C.
copper D. steel
122. In a nuclear reactor, electricity car be generated through the following processes. Arrange
the processes in the correct order. I. The steam is used to drive turbines. II. The heat energy
released is removed by passing water through the reactor. III. The turbines in turn generate
electricity. IV. The water then passes through some form of heat exchanger to produce steam.
A. II, IV, I and III B. I, II, III and IV C. III, I, IV and II
D. IV. I, III and II
123. A transformer has 400 turns and 200 turns in the primary and secondary windings
respectively. If the current in the primary and secondary windings are 3A and 5Arespectively,
calculate the efficiency of the transformer A. 85.0% B. 83.3% C. 37.5% D. 30.0%
124. A freely suspended magnet swinging in a horizontal plane comes to rest with its axis
pointing approximately A. north-south B. south-west. C. north-east. D. south-east
125. The direction of induced current in a straight Wire placed in a magnetic field is determined
by Using A. Fleming’s right hand rule B. Maxwell’s screw rule C. Faraday’s law
D. Lenz’s law
126. Which of the following statements about an electromagnet is not correct? A. It is a
temporary magnetB. Its strength depends on the current C. Its strength depends on the
number of turns in its coil.D. It has permanent poles.
127. The main function of the mouth piece of a telephone is that it converts sound energy to A.
mechanical energy B. electrical energy C. chemical energy D. thermal energy
128. Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction states that A. a force is exerted on a current-
carrying conductor in a magnetic field B. electromotive force is induced in a circuit whenever
there is a change in themagnetic flux linked with the circuit C. the magnitude of the induced
electromotive force in a circuit is proportional to therate of change of flux linking the circuit. D.
the induced current in a coil is in such a direction that it sets up a magnetic field which oppose
the change producing it.
129. A bar magnet is placed near and lying along the axis of a solenoid connected to
agalvanometer. The pointer of the galvanometer shows no deflection when A. the magnet is
moved away from the stationary solenoid B. the solenoid is moved away from the stationary
magnet C. the magnet is moved towards the stationary solenoid D. there is no relative motion
between the magnet and the solenoid.
130. An electric motor is a machine that converts A. mechanical energy into electrical energy B.
electrical energy into mechanical energy C. high voltage to low voltage D. low voltage.to high
voltage.
131. Which of the following statements is not a reason for using soft iron in making the core of a
transformer? it A. retains its magnetism for a long time B. is easily magnetized C.
reduces energy loss due to hysteresis D. is easily demagnetized
132. Which of the following statements about the mouth piece of a telephone is correct? It
converts sound energy into A. acoustic energy B. mechanical energy C. electrical
energy D. heat energy.
133. Which of the following actions will not increase the sensitivity of a moving coil
galvanometer? A. Using a strong temporary magnet B. Increasing the area and number
of turns of the toil C. Using a weak hair spring D. Using a light pointer
134. A transformer is required to supply 12 Vms to operate a toy train set from a 240 Vmm If the
number of turns in the secondary coil is 100, calculate the number of turns required in the
primary coil. A. 5 B. 12 C. 2000 D. 2400.
135. An ideal step-down transformer steps up A. power B. energy C. current D. voltage
136. Eddy currents can be reduced by A. using coil of high resistance B. winding the coil on a
soft iron core C. creating holes in the metal plates D. using coil of low resistance
137. A wire of length 30cm is moved with a speed of 2 ms-¹ at right angles to a magnetic field of
flux density 0.4 T. Calculate the emf induced in the wire. A. 0.15 V B. 0.24 V C. 2.70 V D.
24.00 V