1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

What composes all matter whether a liquid,

solid, or gas?
A. Atoms
B. Electrons
C. Protons
D. Neutrons
ANSWER: A
Which of the following is not a basic part of
an atom?
A. Electron
B. Proton
C. Neutron
D. Coulomb
ANSWER:
D
What is the smallest element of a matter?
A. atom
B. molecule
C. crystal
D. wafer
ANSWER: A
To determine whether a material can
support the flow of electricity or not, we
need to examine its
A. atomic structure
B. physical state
C. molecular structure
D. chemical composition
ANSWER: A
Approximate diameter of an atom
A. 10-10 m
B. 10-10 m
C. 10-10 mm
D. 10-10 m
ANSWER: D
The lightest kind of atom or element
A. Helium
B. Oxygen
C. Hydrogen
D. Titanium
ANSWER: C
Known as the simplest type of atom.
A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Helium
D. Nitrogen
ANSWER: A
Approximate diameter of a Hydrogen atom
A. 1.1 x 10-10 m
B. 1.1 x 10-10 m
C. 1.1 x 10-10 mm
D. 1.1 x 10-10 m
ANSWER: B

9.

A commonly used model in predicting the

atomic structure of a material.
A. String model
B. Wave model
C. Particle model
D. Bohr model
ANSWER: D

10. Is at the center of an atomic structure in a

Bohr model.
A. electrons
B. protons
C. neutrons
D. nucleus
ANSWER: D
11. The nucleus of an atom is normally
A. neutral
B. positively charged
C. negatively charged
D. either positively or negatively
charged
ANSWER: A
12. What particles that revolve around the
positive nucleus?
A. electrons
B. protons
C. neutrons
D. electrons & protons
ANSWER: A
13. In electricity, positive electric charge refers
to ____________.
A. protons
B. neutrons
C. electrons
D. atoms
ANSWER: A
14. What is the charge of an electron?
A. 1.6022 x 10-19 C
B. 9.1096 x 10-19 C
C. 1.6022 x 10-31 C
D. 9.1096 x 10-31 C
ANSWER: A
15. The mass of a proton is approximately
A. 1.6726 x 10-19 Kg
B. 1.6726 x 10-27 Kg
C. 1.6022 x 10-19 Kg
D. 1.6022 x 10-27 Kg
ANSWER: B
16. Protons are about _________ heavier than
electrons.
A. 1,800 times
B. less than thrice

C. less
D. twice
ANSWER: A
17. Approximately, how many electrons that
could equal to the mass of a single proton
or neutron?
A. 1,863 electrons
B. 1,683 electrons
C. 1,638 electrons
D. 1,836 electrons
ANSWER: D
18. The maximum number of electrons (Ne)
that can occupy a given shell (n) is
determined by the formula
A. Ne = 2n2
B. Ne = n2
C. Ne = 2n
D. Ne = 2n
ANSWER: A
19. The discrete amount of energy required to
move an electron from a lower shell to a
higher shell.
A. negative energy
B. positive energy
C. quantum
D. quanta
ANSWER: C

C. neutrons
D. nucleons
ANSWER:
C
24. The atomic number of an element is
determined by the number of
A. electrons
B. valence electrons
C. protons
D. protons or neutrons
ANSWER:
C
25. The atomic weight of an element is
determined by the number of
A. electrons
B. valence electrons
C. protons
D. protons and neutrons
ANSWER:
D
26. If an element has an atomic number of 12,
there are how many protons and
electrons?
A. 6 protons and 12 electrons
B. 12 protons and 6 electrons
C. 12 protons and 12 electrons
D. 12 protons and 24 electrons
ANSWER:
C

20. Maximum number of orbiting electrons at

the first or K shell
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
ANSWER:
A

27. Suppose there is an atom containing eight

protons and eight neutrons in the nucleus,
and two neutron are added to the nucleus,
the resulting atomic weight is about
A. 8
B. 10
C. 16
D. 18
ANSWER:
D

21. Electron is derived from the Greek name

elektron which means
A. huge
B. tiny
C. particle
D. amber
ANSWER:
D

28. It is composed of a series of energy levels

containing the valence electrons.
A. conduction band
B. forbidden band
C. side band
D. valence band
ANSWER:
D

22. Electric charge of neutron is the same as

A. proton
B. electron
C. current
D. atom
ANSWER:
D

29. Electrons at the conduction band are called

A. free electrons
B. valence electrons
C. deep state electrons
D. shallow state electrons
ANSWER:
A

23. In an atomic structure, what particle that

has no charge and therefore has no effect
on its atomic charge
A. electrons
B. protons

30. _____________ are electrons at the outer

shell
A. Inside shell electrons
B. Conductor electrons
C. Outside shell electrons

D. Valence electrons
ANSWER:
D
31. Electrons at the outermost shell are called
A. free electrons
B. valence electrons
C. deep state electrons
D. shallow state electrons
ANSWER:
B
32. Which material has more free electrons?
A. Conductor
B. insulators
C. mica
D. dielectric
ANSWER:
A
33. Which material has the least number of
valence electrons?
A. conductor
B. semiconductor
C. insulator
D. semi-insulator
ANSWER:
A
34. What elements possess four valence
electrons?
A. Insulators
B. Semi-insulators
C. Semiconductors
D. Conductors
ANSWER:
C
35. A good conductor has how many valence
electrons?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
ANSWER:
A

38. A law of nature makes certain materials

tend to form combinations that will make
them stable. How many electrons in the
valence orbit are needed to give stability?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
ANSWER:
D
39. Determine which statement is true?
A. The
current
carriers
in
conductors are protons.
B. The
current
carriers
in
conductors
are
valence
electrons.
C. Valence and inner electrons are
the carriers in conductors.
D. Valence electrons are not the
ones
that
become
free
electrons.
ANSWER:
B
40. A material that contains an abundance of
free carrier is called
A. insulator
B. semi-insulator
C. conductor
D. semiconductor
ANSWER:
C
41. From the combined energy-gap diagram,
which material has the widest gap between
valence band and the conduction band?
A. conductor
B. semiconductor
C. super conductor
D. insulator
ANSWER:
D

36. Materials that might have eight valence

electrons
A. conductor
B. insulator
C. semiconductor
D. semi-insulator
ANSWER:
B

42. From the combined energy-gap diagram,

which material has the smallest energy gap
between valence band and the conduction
band?
A. conductor
B. semiconductor
C. super conductor
D. insulator
ANSWER:
A

37. An insulating element or material has

capability of _________.
A. conducting large current
B. storing voltage
C. storing high current
D. preventing short circuit between
two conducting wires
ANSWER:
D

43. __________ has a unit of electronvolt(eV).

A. Charge
B. Potential difference
C. Energy
D. Current
ANSWER:
C

44. The difference in energy between the

valence and conduction bands of a
semiconductor is called
A. band gap
B. extrinsict photoeffect
C. conductivity
D. energy density
ANSWER:
A
45. The energy gap between the valence band
and conduction band of a conductor is in
the order of
A. zero electron volt (0 eV)
B. one electron volt (1 eV)
C. five electron volt (5 eV)
D. ten electron volt (10 eV)
ANSWER:
A
46. The energy gap of an insulator is in the
order of
A. zero electron volt (0 eV)
B. one electron volt (1 eV)
C. five electron volt (5 eV)
D. one-tenth electron volt (0.1 eV)
ANSWER:
C
47. In materials, what do you call the region
that separates the valence and conduction
bands?
A. energy gap
B. forbidden band
C. insulation band
D. energy gap or forbidden band
ANSWER:
D
48. What do you call the potential required to
remove a valence electron?
A. valence potential
B. threshold potential
C. critical potential
D. ionization potential
ANSWER:
D
49. A factor that does not affect the resistance
of the material.
A. atomic structure
B. mass
C. length
D. cross-sectional area
ANSWER:
B
50. Copper atom has how many protons?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 29
ANSWER:
D
51. Ion is __________.

A.

an atom with unbalanced

charges
B. free electron
C. proton
D. nucleus without protons
ANSWER:
A
52. What will happen to an atom if an electron
is either taken out or taken into the same
atom?
A. Becomes negative ion
B. Becomes positive ion
C. Becomes an ion
D. Nothing will happen
ANSWER:
C
53. When an atom gains an additional
_________, it results to a negative ion.
A. neutron
B. proton
C. electron
D. atom
ANSWER:
C
54. An electrical insulator can be made a
conductor by
A. ionizing
B. electroplating
C. oxidizing
D. metalization
ANSWER:
A
55. Refers to the lowest voltage across any
insulator that can cause current flow.
A. conduction voltage
B. breakdown voltage
C. voltage flow
D. voltage drop
ANSWER:
B
56. Dielectric is another name for
A. conductor
B. semiconductor
C. insulator
D. semi-insulator
ANSWER:
C
57. When all atoms of a molecule are the
same, the substance is called
A. a crystal
B. an element
C. a compound
D. an ion
ANSWER:
B
58. An isotope
A. has a negative charge
B. has a positive charge

C.

might have either positive or

negative charge
D. is neutral
ANSWER:
D
59. Isotope means, the same element but with
different number of
A. electrons
B. neutrons
C. protons
D. atoms
ANSWER:
B

A. electrically neutral
B. physically stable
C. magnetically aligned
D. technically rigid
ANSWER:
A
66. When the charge of an atom becomes
unbalanced, the atom is said to carry
A. Electric charge
B. Magnetic charge
C. Electromagnetic charge
D. Electrical current
ANSWER:
A

60. The particles that make up the lattice in

ionic crystal
A. molecules
B. ions
C. electrons
D. neutrons
ANSWER:
C

67. A charged atom is also known as

A. ion
B. anion
C. cation
D. domain
ANSWER: A

61. A structure for solids in which the position

of atoms are predetermined
A. Crystalline
B. Polycrystalline
C. Lattice
D. Non-Crystalline
ANSWER:
A

68. An atom or group of atoms that carries a

net electric charge is called
A. ion
B. anion
C. cation
D. domain
ANSWER: A

62. A solid, which has no defined crystal

structure.
A. Crystalline
B. Non-crystalline
C. Amorphous
D. Non-crystalline or Amorphous
ANSWER:
D

69. A negative ion results when an atom

A. loss some of its inside electrons
B. loss some of its valence
electrons
C. gains additional electron
D. gains additional proton
ANSWER: C

63. States that each electron in an atom must

have a different set of quantum numbers.
A. Quantum principle
B. Fermi-Dirac principle
C. Spin principle
D. Exclusion principle
ANSWER:
D

70. A positive ion has

A. excess of electrons
B. excess of neutrons
C. lack of electrons
D. lack of protons
ANSWER: C

64. Given an atomic structure of a certain

material, what data can you determine out
from it?
A. atomic number
B. atomic mass
C. the number of protons and
electrons
D. all of the above
ANSWER:
D
65. Ideally, all atoms have the same number of
positively charged protons and negatively
charged electrons, and is therefore
considered as

71. What do you call a positively charged ion?

A. cathode
B. anion
C. cation
D. domain
ANSWER: C
72. What do you call a negatively charged ion?
A. electron
B. anion
C. cation
D. domain
ANSWER: B

73. __________ is the procedure by which an

atom is given a net charge by adding or
taking away electron.
A. Polarization
B. Irradiation
C. Ionization
D. Doping
ANSWER: C
74. Is a process by which an atom is
constantly losing and then regaining
electrons?
A. oxidation
B. passivation
C. metallization
D. ionization
ANSWER: D
75. The process in which atoms are changed
into ions.
A. oxidation
B. passivation
C. metallization
D. ionization
ANSWER: D
76. Gases with charged particles.
A. inert
B. plasma
C. conductive
D. reactive
ANSWER: B
77. One Coulomb of charge has how many
electrons?
A. 6.24 x 1018 electrons
B. 6.24 x 1019 electrons
C. 62.4 x 1018 electrons
D. 62.4 x 1019 electrons
ANSWER: A
78. Coulomb is the SI unit of charge, how
about in cgs?
A. Statcoulomb
B. electron volt
C. electron unit
D. static unit
ANSWER: A
79. Statcoulomb is also known as
A. electrostatic unit (esu)
B. electron volt
C. electron unit
D. static unit
ANSWER: A
80. An isolated body under normal condition is
always
A. neutral

B. positively charged
C. negatively charged
D. ionized
ANSWER: A
81. What is the charge magnitude, Q of a body
if it lacks 5 electrons?
A. 5 x 10-19 Coulomb
B. 5 Coulomb
C. 8 x 10-19 Coulomb
D. 19 x 10-19 Coulomb
ANSWER: C
82. The net movement of charged particles in
one direction or another.
A. flow
B. current
C. drift current
D. diffusion current
ANSWER: B
83. The rate at which electrons pass a given
point in the circuit gives the magnitude of
A. electron current
B. magnetic current
C. drift current
D. diffusion current
ANSWER: A
84. The unit of current.
A. Ampere
B. Ampere/sec.
C. Ampere-sec.
D. Ampere-hr.
ANSWER: A
85. The unit Ampere is equivalent to
A. one Coulomb/second
B. one Coulomb/min
C. one Joule/sec
D. one Joule/min
ANSWER: A
86. When one coulomb of electric charge
continuously passes a given point every
second, the electric current is said to
A. 1 A
B. 1 mA
C. 1 A
D. 10 A
ANSWER: C
87. One ampere is equal to how many
electrons per second?
A. 1 x 1018 electrons/sec.
B. 1 x 1019 electrons/sec.
C. 6.25 x 1018 electrons/sec.
D. 6.25 x 1019 electrons/sec.
ANSWER: D

88. The bigger the diameter of a wire,

A. more current can pass
B. less current can pass
C. more heat is generated when
current flow
D. the higher is the electrical
resistance
ANSWER: A
89. If in a material, current can hardly pass, it
means
A. the material is very hard
B. the material is very soft
C. the material has high resistance
D. the material has less resistance
ANSWER: C
90. The greater the diameter of a wire, the
_______ is the resistance.
A. greater
B. lesser
C. harder
D. bigger
ANSWER: B
91. The longer the wire the ________ is the
resistance
A. higher
B. lesser
C. harder
D. smaller
ANSWER: A
92. If a conductors cross-sectional area is
doubled and its length is halved, the value
of its resistance will
A. double
B. quadruple
C. decrease by a factor of two
D. decrease by a factor of four
ANSWER: D
93. The amount of resistance that a wire has
with regards to the flow of electric current
A. is less for a conductor than for
an insulator
B. is less for an insulator than for a
semiconductor
C. is less for a semiconductor than
for a conductor
D. is high for a semiconductor than
for an insulator
ANSWER: A
94. The area of a conductor whose diameter is
0.001 inch is equal to
A. one angstrom
B. one circular mil

C. one micron
D. one steradian
ANSWER: B
95. A 100m long wire with a cross-sectional
area A=10-3 m2 has a resistance of 10.
Determine the resistivity of the wire.
A. 10-2 -m
B. 10-3 -m
C. 10-4 -m
D. 10-5 -m
ANSWER: C
96. the reciprocal of resistance
A. permeance
B. elastance
C. inductance
D. conductance
ANSWER: D
97. The science of physical phenomena at
very
low temperature,
approaching
absolute zero is called ________.
A. crytanalysis
B. cybernetics
C. temperature inversion
D. cryogenics
ANSWER: D
98. What happens in the resistance of copper
wire when its temperature is raised?
A. decreased
B. steady
C. increased
D. zero
ANSWER: C
99. A wire has a resistance of 5 at room
temperature and a temperature coefficient
=4x10-3/C, calculate the wire resistance
at 75C.
A. 8.925
B. 7.925
C. 6.925
D. 6.050
ANSWER: D
100.

The
temperature
coefficient
of
resistance of a certain wire is known to
be 0.004/C at zero degrees Celsius.
What would be the temperature
coefficient at room temperature?
A. 0.00018/C
B. 0.00036/C
C. 0.00180/C
D. 0.00360/C
ANSWER: D

101. Where does practically all of the RF current

flow in a conductor?
A. along the surface
B. in the center of the conductor
C. in the electromagnetic field in
the conductor center
D. in the magnetic field around the
conductor
ANSWER: A
102. ________ is one factor that does not affect
resistance.
A. Cross sectional area
B. Resistivity
C. Mass
D. Length
ANSWER: C
103. Why is the resistance of a conductor
different for RF current than for DC?
A. Because of skin effect
B. Because conductors are nonlinear devices
C. Because the insulation conducts
current at radio frequency
D. Because of the Heisenberg
effect
ANSWER: A
104.

105.

The ability of a material to resist current

flow is called resistance. What is (are)
the factor(s) that affect its value?
A. temperature
B. length & cross-sectional area
C. atomic structure
D. all of these
ANSWER: D
Find the charge in coulombs of dielectric
that has a positive charge of 14.5 x 10
to the 18th power protons.
A. 29 x 10 to the 16th Coulombs
B. 14.5 x 10 to the 16th Coulombs
C. 14.5 x 10 to the 18th Coulombs
D. 29 x 10 to the 18th Coulombs
ANSWER: C

106. Electron volt (eV) is a unit of

A. power
B. energy
C. magnetic field
D. magnetic force
ANSWER: B
107. One electron volt (eV) is equivalent to
A. 1.0 watt-sec
B. 1.6 x 10-19 watt-sec
C. 1.0 Joule
D. 1.6 x 10-19 Joules

ANSWER: D
108.

What law that describes the force of

attraction or repulsion between two
charges is directly proportional to their
strengths and inversely proportional to
the square of the distance between
them?
A. Coulombs first law
B. Coulombs second law
C. Coulombs third law
D. Coulombs law or law of
electrostatics
ANSWER: D

109.

What is the law whereby the force of

attraction and repulsion between poles
is inversely proportional to the square of
the distance between them?
A. Newtons first law
B. Newtons second law
C. Nortons law
D. Coulombs second law
ANSWER: D

110. Is usually used to detect the presence of

electric charge.
A. experimental charge
B. unit charge
C. dipole
D. test charge
ANSWER: D
111. Test charge has a charge of
A. 0 Coulomb
B. +1 Coulomb
C. -1 Coulomb
D. Infinity
ANSWER: B
112.

Three charges of +5 C, -6 C and +7 C

are placed inside a sphere, what is the
total charge of the sphere?
A. +5 Coulomb
B. -6 Coulomb
C. -7 Coulomb
D. +6 Coulomb
ANSWER: D

113. A combination of two charges, with equal

charge magnitude but opposite signs.
A. magnetic dipole
B. static dipole
C. dynamic dipole
D. electric dipole
ASNWER: D

114.

115.

The space outside or surrounding an

electric charge where it has a force of
attraction or repulsion.
A. Electric field
B. Magnetic field
C. Electromagnetic field
D. Electric flux
ANSWER: A
Refers to a force of field that exists
between ions where they either repel or
attract each other.
A. Resisting field
B. Potential field
C. Dielectric
D. Electromotive
ANSWER: D

116. The imaginary lines representing

electric field.
A. Electric field
B. Electric flux
C. Electric flux density
D. Electric lines of force
ANSWER: D

the

117. What is true in visualizing electric field lines

of force from a charge body?
A. Field lines are continuous curve
and they never intersect.
B. The spacing between these
lines increases as they get far
from the charged body.
C. The number of field lines is
directly proportional to the
magnitude of the electric field.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: D
118. What do you call the total number of
electric lines of force in an electric field?
A. Electric field
B. Electric flux
C. Electric flux density
D. Electric lines of force
ANSWER: B
119. The number of lines per unit area in a
plane perpendicular to the electric lines of
force.
A. Electric field
B. Electric flux
C. Electric flux density
D. Electric lines of force
ANSWER: C
120. Electric lines of force leave and enter the
charge surface at what angle?
A. 15

B. 30
C. 45
D. 90
ANSWER: D
121. Find the dielectric constant of air.
A. approximately 1
B. approximately 0
C. approximately 2
D. approximately 4
ANSWER: A

D. 6 C/m2
ANSWER: D
128. The measure of density of the electric
charge
A. Electric gradient
B. Electric current
C. Electric charge
D. Electric potential
ANSWER: D
129.

122. Electric field intensity is measured in terms

of
A. Volts/meter
B. Newtons/meter
C. Watts/meter
D. Amperes/meter
ANSWER: A
123. Electric field intensity is
A. a scalar quantity
B. a vector quantity
C. an absolute value
D. a relative value
ANSWER: B
124. Electric flux is a/an ________ quantity.
A. scalar
B. vector
C. absolute
D. relative
ANSWER: A
125. Electric flux density is a/an ________
quantity.
A. scalar
B. vector
C. absolute
D. relative
ANSWER: B
126.

127.

Three charges of +5 C, -6 C, and +7 C

are inside a sphere, what is the total
electric flux passing through the surface
of the sphere?
A. 5 Coulombs
B. 6 Coulombs
C. 7 Coulombs
D. 8 Coulombs
ANSWER: B
An electric charge produces a total
electric field of 6 Coulombs, calculate
the electric flux density in an area of one
square meter (1m2).
A. 1 C/m2
B. 2 C/m2
C. 4 C/m2

The ability of the material to store

electrical potential energy under the
influence of an electric field.
A. capacity
B. permeability
C. permittivity
D. conductivity
ANSWER: C

130. The absolute permittivity of air or free

space.
A. 1/36 x 10-9 F/m
B. 36 x 10-9 F/m
C. 1/36 x 10-19 F/m
D. 36 x 10-19 F/m
ANSWER: A
131. The relative permittivity of air.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 1/36 x 10-9 F/m
D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m
ANSWER: B
132. Calculate the permittivity of a material with
relative permittivity of 5.
A. 8.854 x 10-11 F/m
B. 4.42 x 10-11 F/m
C. 1/36 x 10-9 F/m
D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m
ANSWER: B
133.

What is the term used to express the

amount of electrical energy stored in an
electrostatic field?
A. Volts
B. Watts
C. Coulombs
D. Joules
ANSWER: D

134. How does permittivity affect electric field

intensity?
A. It causes the field intensity to
increase.
B. It causes the field intensity to
decrease.

C.

It causes the field intensity to

fluctuate up and down.
D. It has no effect on field intensity.
ANSWER: B
135. Relative permittivity is also known as
A. dielectric constant
B. dielectric strength
C. isolation strength
D. permeability
ANSWER: A
136. Most materials relative permittivity lies
between
A. 0.01 1
B. 1 10
C. 10 50
D. 50 100
ANSWER: B
137.

Charge body at rest is said to exhibit

electric field, which interacts with other
bodies. The study of this phenomena is
known as
A. electricity
B. electrostatics
C. electromagnetism
D. field interactions
ANSWER: B

138. The basic law for interaction of charged

bodies at rest.
A. Charged law
B. Gauss law
C. Faradays law
D. Coulombs law
ANSWER: D
139. The force between the two electrically
charged body is called
A. electromotive force
B. electrostatic force
C. electromagnetic force
D. magnetic force
ANSWER: B
140. The force between two electrically charged
body is
A. directly proportional to the
charge
B. inversely proportional to the
charge
C. not affected by the charge
D. universally constant
ANSWER: A
141.

In 1784, who demonstrated that the

force between charges is inversely

related to the square of the distance

between them?
A. Maxwell
B. Gauss
C. Tesla
D. Coulomb
ANSWER: D
142.

143.

144.

145.

146.

147.

Determine the force in Newton between

4C charges separated by 0.1 meter in
air.
A. 1.44 N
B. 14.4 N
C. 144 N
D. 1440 N
ANSWER: B
What will happen when two opposite
charges get closer?
A. repels less
B. attracts less
C. repels more
D. attracts more
ANSWER: D
The value of k in Coulombs electrostatic
force equation ( F = kQ1Q2/r2 ) is
oftentimes expressed as 1/4. What
is ?
A. absolute permeability
B. absolute permittivity
C. relative permeability
D. relative permittivity
ANSWER: B
The measure of electric field strength
per unit length is known as electric field
intensity or simply electric intensity.
What is its unit?
A. Volt/meter (V/m)
B. Joules/Coulomb-meter (J/Cm)
C. Newton/Coulomb (N/C)
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
Calculate the electric field intensity
10cm from a charge Q=5nC.
A. 450 N/C
B. 900 N/C
C. 4.5 x 103 N/C
D. 9.0 x 103 N/C
ANSWER: C
Determine the magnitude of the electric
field inside a sphere that encloses a net
charge of 2C.
A. 0 (zero)
B. 9 x 107 N/C
C. 1.8 x 108 N/C

D. infinite
ANSWER: A
148.

Calculate the total electric field at the

surface of a sphere of radius r=1cm, and
enclosing a net charge of 2C.
A. 0 (zero)
B. 9 x 107 N/C
C. 1.8 x 108 N/C
D. infinite
ANSWER: C

149.

A 2nC point charge will produce what

potential at 2m away?
A. 4.0 Volts
B. 6.0 Volts
C. 7.5 Volts
D. 9.0 Volts
ANSWER: D

150.

A charged body in free space produces

10-V potential at a distance 25cn away.
What will be the potential at 50cm
away?
A. 5.0 Volts
B. 7.5 Volts
C. 10.0 Volts
D. 15.0 Volts
ANSWER: A

151.

What do you call the phenomenon

whereby substance attracts pieces of
iron?
A. Permeability
B. Magnetism
C. Naturalism
D. Electromagnetism
ANSWER: B

D. magnesium
ANSWER: C
155.

Group of magnetically aligned atoms.

A. Lattice
B. Crystal
C. Domain
D. Range
ANSWER: C

156.

In a magnet, what do you call the point

in which the magnetic lines of force is
maximum?
A. maximum pole
B. intensified pole
C. unit pole
D. magnetic pole
ANSWER: D

157.

152.

153.

The condition in which a substance

attracts pieces of iron is known as
A. Electromagnetism
B. Electrolysis
C. Magnetism
D. Magnetic Induction
ANSWER: C

158.

159.

A substance that attracts pieces iron is

known as
A. magnet
B. conductor
C. ferrite
D. superconductor
ANSWER: A
160.

154.

A natural magnet
A. loadstone
B. carbon
C. lodestone

Which of the following refers to a

characteristic of a magnetic line of
force?
A. Travels from south to north
through
the
surrounding
medium of a bar magnet
B. Travels back and forth between
the north and south pole of a
bar magnet
C. Travels from north to south
through
the
surrounding
medium of a bar magnet
D. Stay stationary between the
north and the south of a bar
magnet
ANSWER: C
Is believed to be the pole where the
magnetic lines of force are originating.
A. North Pole
B. South Pole
C. Unit Pole
D. Universal Pole
ANSWER: A
What do you call a pole that when place
in air with a similar and equal pole will
cause a force of repulsion of 1/4
Newtons?
A. South Pole
B. Unit pole
C. Convergence pole
D. Universal Pole
ANSWER: B
In a magnet, the straight line passing
through the two poles is called
A. real axis
B. imaginary axis
C. Cartesian axis

D. magnetic axis
ANSWER: D
161.

The phenomenon in which a substance

becomes a magnet when placed near a
magnet.
A. magnetic transfer
B. magnetic induction
C. electromagnetism
D. magnetism
ANSWER: B

162.

A force which causes a substance to

become a magnet.
A. magnetizing force
B. magnetomotive
C. creative force
D. electromagnetic force
ANSWER: A

163.

What do you call the quantity of

magnetism retained by a magnetic
material after the withdrawal of a
magnetizing force?
A. Left over magnetism
B. Coercivity
C. Hysteresis
D. Residual magnetism
ANSWER: D

164.

Is the property of magnetic materials,

which retain magnetism after the
withdrawal of magnetizing force.
A. retentivity
B. permeability
C. reluctivity
D. susceptability
ANSWER: A

165.

A substance having high retentivity is

best suited in making
A. an electromagnet
B. a temporary magnet
C. a permanent magnet
D. two pole magnet
ANSWER: C

166.

Which of the materials below that can

be easily magnetized?
A. soft magnetic materials
B. hard magnetic materials
C. low conductive materials
D. high conductive materials
ANSWER: A

167.

Materials that can be easily magnetized

in both directions
A. soft magnetic materials
B. hard magnetic materials

C. diamagnetic
D. paramagnetic
ANSWER: A
168.

169.

175.

Ability of a material to conduct magnetic

flux through it refers to
A. permittivity
B. permeability
C. reluctivity
D. conductivity
ANSWER: B
The ability to concentrate magnetic lines
of force.
A. retentivity
B. permeability
C. susceptability
D. reluctivity
ANSWER: B

176.

177.

What do you call materials, which

possess very high permeabilities?
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. antimagnetic
ANSWER: C
What is the relative permeability of
paramagnetic substance?
A. slightly greater than 1
B. very much greater than 1
C. slightly less than 1
D. very much smaller than 1
ANSWER: A
Permeability of a material means:
A. The ability of the material to
conduct electric field
B. The conductivity of the material
for electromagnetic field
C. The ability of the material to
hold magnetic flux
D. The conductivity of the material
for magnetic lines of force
ANSWER: D

170.

The permeability of free space.

A. 4 x 10-7 H/m
B. 12.56 x 10-7 F/m
C. 8.854 x 10-7 H/m
D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m
ANSWER: A

171.

The ratio of material permeability to the

permeability of air or vacuum.
A. relative conductivity
B. relative permeability
C. inverse permeability
D. inverse permittivity
ANSWER: B

178.

Nonmetallic
materials
ferromagnetic properties.
A. termites
B. ferrites
C. ferrous
D. loadstone
ANSWER: B

172.

What is the relative permeability of air?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 4 x 10-7 H/m
D. 8.854 x 10-12 F/m
ANSWER: B

179.

Cores of magnetic equipment

magnetic material which has
A. very low permeability
B. moderate permeability
C. low permeability
D. high permeability
ANSWER: D

173.

Materials with permeability slightly less

than that of free space.
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. antimagnetic
ANSWER: A

180.

Hydrogen is an example
_________ material.
A. diamagnetic
B. ferromagnetic
C. paramagnetic
D. magnetic
ANSWER: A

174.

Materials with permeability

greater than that of free space.
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. antimagnetic
ANSWER: B

that

182.

183.

184.

of

What is the unit of magnetic flux in SI

system?
A. Weber
B. Maxwell
C. Tesla
D. Gauss
ANSWER: A

190.

The unit of magnetic flux density in SI:

A. Gauss
B. Weber
C. Maxwell
D. Tesla
ANSWER: D

191.

A magnetic flux of 25,000 maxwell in an

area of 5 sqcm. results in flux density of
A. 5,000 Gauss (G)
B. 125,000 G
C. 5,000 Tesla (T)
D. 125,000 T
ANSWER: A

192.

Calculate the flux density in Gauss (G)

having a flux of 12,000 Mx through a
perpendicular area of 6cm.
A. 200 G
B. 2,000 G
C. 7,200 G
D. 72,000 G
ANSWER: B

186.

The direction of field lines outside a

magnet is
A. from north to south pole
B. from south to north pole
C. either from north to south or
south to north pole
D. dependent on the magnets
orientation with respect to the
earths magnetic pole
ANSWER: C

193.

What does a gaussmeter measure?

A. flux
B. magnetic field
C. magnetic flux density
D. mmf
ANSWER: C

194.

The capacity of a substance to become

magnetized. This is expressed as a ratio
between the magnetization produced in
a substance to the magnetizing force
producing it.
A. magnetic conductivity
B. magnetic susceptibility
C. magnetic resistivity
D. magnetic reluctivity
ANSWER: B

195.

The typical saturation flux density for

most magnetic materials.
A. 0.1 Wb/m2
B. 2 Wb/m2
C. 10 Wb/m2
D. 20 Wb/m2

Cobalt is an example of a _________

material.
A. diamagnetic
B. ferromagnetic
C. paramagnetic
D. magnetic
ANSWER: B

What do you call the total number of

magnetic lines of force in a magnetic
field?
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux
C. magnetic flux density
D. magnetic lines of force
ANSWER: B

189.

The number of lines per unit area in a

plane perpendicular to the magnetic
lines of force.
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux
C. magnetic flux density
D. magnetic lines of force
ANSWER: C

187.

slightly
181.

The imaginary lines representing the

magnetic field.
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux
C. magnetic flux density
D. magnetic lines of force
ANSWER: D

D. electromagnetic field
ANSWER: C

185.
has

use

The space outside a magnet where its

poles has a force of attraction or
repulsion on another magnetic pole.
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux
C. magnetic flux density
D. magnetic lines of force
ANSWER: A

188.

The entire group of magnetic field lines

flowing outward from the north pole of a
magnet.
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux density
C. magnetic flux
D. electromagnetic field
ANSWER: C
Magnetic lines of force are called
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux density
C. magnetic flux

ANSWER: B
196.

197.

The force between two magnetic poles

is _________ permeability of the
medium.
A. directly proportional to the
B. inversely proportional to the
C. not dependent of the
D. exponentially proportional to the
ANSWER: B
If the distance between two magnetic
poles is halve, the force between them
A. decreases two times
B. decreases four times
C. increases two times
D. increases four times
ANSWER: D

C. Maxwell (Mx)
D. Gauss
ANSWER: C
204.

205.

199.

200.

A force of 20 N is acting on a 10 Wb
magnetic pole, calculate the intensity of
the magnetic field?
A. 0.5 N/Wb
B. 2 N/Wb
C. 10 N/Wb
D. 20 N/Wb
ANSWER: B
Unit of permeability
A. Henry/meter (H/m)
B. Farad/meter (F/m)
C. Henry-meter (H-m)
D. Farad-meter (F-m)
ANSWER: A

Magnetic intensity is
A. a vector quantity
B. a scalar quantity
C. an imaginary quantity
D. either a vector or scalar
ANSWER: A

202.

The Gauss is a unit of

A. permeability
B. electromagnetic force
C. magnetic force
D. magnetic flux density
ANSWER: D

203.

What is the unit of flux in cgs?

A. Ampere-turn (At)
B. Coulomb/sec. (C/s)

212.

The equivalent of 1 x 109 Maxwells is

A. 1 Weber
B. 10 Weber
C. 100 Weber
D. 1,000 Weber
ANSWER: B
A magnetic flux of 500,000,000 lines is
equivalent to
A. 5 x 108 Maxwells
B. 5 Weber
C. 500 x 106 MAxwells
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
214.

207.

The unit of flux density in mks

A. Gauss
B. Weber/m2
C. Maxwell
D. Tesla
ANSWER: B
215.

208.

The unit of permittivity

A. Henry/meter (H/m)
B. Farad/meter (F/m)
C. Henry-meter (H-m)
D. Farad-meter (F-m)
ANSWER: B

201.

One Weber is equivalent to

A. 108 Maxwells
B. 106 Maxwells
C. 104 Maxwells
D. 102 Maxwells
ANSWER: A

213.
206.

198.

211.

209.

210.

What do you call the force that sets up

or tends to set up magnetic flux in a
magnetic circuit?
A. electromotive force
B. potential difference
C. magnetomotive force
D. dynamic force
ANSWER: C

216.

__________ capability is analogous to

permeance.
A. Admittance
B. Conductance
C. Reluctance
D. Resistance
ANSWER: B
Resistance in electrical circuits is
analogous to _________ in magnetic
circuits.
A. Conductance
B. Permeance
C. Elastance
D. reluctance
ANSWER: D
The property of a material which
opposes the creation of magnetic flux.
A. elastance
B. permeance
C. susceptance
D. reluctance
ANSWER: D
The reciprocal of reluctance
A. conductance
B. permeance
C. elastance
D. capacitance
ANSWER: B
Permeance is analogous to
A. conductance
B. resistance
C. impedance
D. elastance
ANSWER: A
Is the reciprocal of reluctance and
implies the readiness of a material to
develop magnetic flux.
A. elastance
B. permeance
C. susceptance
D. conductance
ANSWER: B

Voltage in electrical circuits is analogous

to _________ in magnetic circuits.
A. Ampere-turn
B. Magnetomotive force
C. Magnetizing force
D. Flux
ANSWER: B

217.

Electrical current is analogous

_________ in magnetic circuits.
A. Ampere-turn
B. Magnetomotive force
C. Magnetizing force
D. Flux
ANSWER: D

Magnetic circuit property that permits

flux.
A. elastance
B. permeance
C. susceptance
D. conductance
ANSWER: B

218.

It is easier to establish flux line in soft

iron than it is to establish them in air,
this is because iron has a lower

to

A. Permeance
B. Inductance
C. elastance
D. reluctance
ANSWER: D
219.

The Oersted (Oe) is the same as

A. 1 Gb/cm
B. 1 Gb/m
C. 10 Gb/cm
D. 10 Gb/cm
ANSWER: A

220.

The unit of reluctance

A. Gilbert
B. Tesla
C. At/Wb
D. Gauss
ANSWER: C

221.

It is the specific reluctance of a material.

A. resistivity
B. retentivity
C. reluctivity
D. permeability
ANSWER: C

222.

At/m is a unit of
A. magnetic field
B. reluctance
C. magnetizing force
D. magnetic power
ANSWER: C

223.

Magnetomotive force has a unit of

A. Volt (V)
B. Watt (W)
C. Joule (J)
D. Ampere-turn (At)
ANSWER: D

224.

The cgs unit of magnetomotive force

A. Volt
B. Weber
C. Gilbert
D. Ampere-turn
ANSWER: C

225.

One Gilbert is equal to

A. 0.0796 At
B. 0.796 At
C. 7.96 At
D. 79.6 At
ANSWER: B

226.

One Ampere-turn (At) is equivalent to

A. 0.126 Gilbert
B. 1.260 Gilberts
C. 12.60 Gilberts

D. 126 Gilberts
ANSWER: B
227.

228.

229.

230.

231.

232.

The current needed for a coil of 200

turns to provide a 400 ampere turn
magnetizing force is
A. 2 A
B. 4 A
C. 6 A
D. 8 A
ANSWER: A
Determine the ampere-turns when a 10
V battery is connected across a solenoid
having 100 turns and a resistance of 5
.
A. 50 At
B. 200 At
C. 100 At
D. 1,000 At
ANSWER: B
What is residual magnetism?
A. The external magnetic field
when the current is flowing
through the exciting coil.
B. The flux density, which exist in
the iron core when the magnetic
field intensity is reduced to zero.
C. The flux density, which exist in
the iron core when the magnetic
field intensity is at its maximum
value.
D. The flux density when the
magnetic core is saturated.
ANSWER: B
When you demagnetize property by
applying an AC field and then gradually
reduced it to zero, it is called
A. damping
B. decaying
C. degaussing
D. gaussing
ANSWER: C
In a magnetic circuit, a flux that drifts
away from its intended path is called
A. lost flux
B. linked flux
C. drift flux
D. leakage flux
ANSWER: D
Is the quantity of magnetizing force
needed to counter balance the residual
magnetism of a magnetic material.
A. hysteresis
B. degaussing

C. retentivity
D. coercivity
ANSWER: D
233.

234.

235.

236.

237.

238.

What do you call the loss of electrical

energy in counter balancing the residual
magnetism in each cycle?
A. hysteresis
B. magnetomotive
C. leakage
D. coercivity
ANSWER: D
The amount of magnetic field needed to
remove residual magnetism from a
transformer core during each half cycle
is called the
A. coercive force
B. residual field
C. hysteresis field
D. demagnetizing force
ANSWER: A
If a wire coil has 100 turns and carries
1.3 A of current, calculate the
magnetomotive force in Gilbert.
A. 163.3
B. 16.33
C. 1.633
D. 0.1633
ANSWER: A
An advantage of an electromagnet over
a permanent magnet
A. An electromagnet can be
demagnetized
B. An electromagnet is simpler
C. An electromagnet is cheaper
D. An electromagnet can be
switched ON and OFF
ANSWER: D
Electromagnet whose core is in the form
of a close magnetic ring
A. solenoid
B. relay
C. toroid
D. circular
ANSWER: C

A.

A force set up when current

flows through a conductor.
B. A force set up when a charged
body is at static.
C. The
space
between
two
electrically charged particles.
D. The space around a conductor.
ANSWER: A
240.

241.

The magnetic flux around a straight,

current carrying wire, is stronger
A. near the edge
B. near the wire
C. at the center
D. at both edge
ANSWER: B

242.

In what direction is the magnetic field

about a conductor when current is
flowing?
A. In a direction determined by the
left-hand rule.
B. Always in a clock wise direction.
C. Always in a counter clockwise
direction.
D. In a direction determined by the
right-hand screw rule.
ANSWER: A

243.

244.

Magnetic flux can always be attributed

to
A. static charged particles
B. motion of charge particles
C. static electric field
D. every applied potential
ANSWER: B
245.

239.

What is a magnetic field?

Which of the following determines the

strength of a magnetic field around a
conductor?
A. amount of current
B. diameter of the conductor
C. length of the conductor
D. amount of voltage
ANSWER: A

If the electrical current carried by each

of the two long parallel wire is doubled,
and their separation is also doubled, the
force between them
A. also doubles
B. increases by a factor of four
C. decreases by a factor of four
D. decreases by a factor of two
ANSWER: A
Reversing the flow of current in a circuit
A. reverses the magnetic polarity
B. increase the magnetic field
intensity
C. decreases
the
magnetic
intensity
D. enhances hysteresis
ANSWER: A
Is used to maintain strength of magnetic
field.

A. storer
B. energizer
C. gausser
D. keeper
ANSWER: D
246.

What law that describes the force of

attraction or repulsion between two
magnetic poles is directly proportional to
their strengths?
A. Coulombs first law
B. Coulombs second law
C. Amperes law
D. Gauss law
ANSWER: A

247.

What is the law whereby the force of

attraction or repulsion between poles is
inversely proportional to the square of
the distance between them?
A. Coulombs first law
B. Coulombs second law
C. Coulombs third law
D. Coulombs law
ANSWER: B

248.

The physical motion resulting from the

forces of magnetic fields.
A. motor action
B. linear motion
C. rectilinear motion
D. generator action
ANSWER: A

249.

What law in electronics where an

induced current will be in such a
direction that its own magnetic field will
oppose the magnetic field that produces
the same?
A. Electromagnetic law
B. Nortons law
C. Lenz law
D. Maxwell law
ANSWER: C

250.

A changing magnetic field

A. produces an electric field
B. induces potential
C. produces a fluctuating electric
field
D. produces a steady electric field
ANSWER: B

251.

The emf induced in a coil due to the

change of its flux linked with it is called
A. mutual emf
B. crossfire induced emf
C. self induced emf
D. virtually induced emf

ANSWER: C
252.

253.

254.

255.

256.

257.

If two coils are close enough together

for their magnetic fields to interact, a
change in current in one will induce a
corresponding voltage in the other, This
condition is known as
A. self-inductance
B. mutual inductance
C. crossfire inductance
D. linked inductance
ANSWER: B
If the magnetic flux through a coil
changes, the induced EMF acts in such
a direction as to
A. oppose that change
B. magnify that change
C. augment that change
D. amplify that change
ANSWER: A
When a conductor is moved through a
magnetic field a voltage is always
induced. The amount of voltage is
always proportional to
A. the diameter of the conductor
used
B. the length of the conductor
C. the distance of the conductor
from the field
D. the rate at which the conductor
is moved
ANSWER: D
The term of energy that is stored in an
electromagnetic or electrostatic field
A. kinetic energy
B. static energy
C. dynamic energy
D. potential energy
ANSWER: D
What is meant by back EMF?
A. A voltage that is applied in the
reverse direction.
B. An EMF that is dude to the fly
wheel effect.
C. An EMF that is generated from
the back of an electromagnet.
D. A voltage that opposes the
applied EMF.
ANSWER: D
When current in a conductor increases,
Lenz law states that the self-induced
potential will
A. produce current opposite to the
increasing current

tend to produce more magnetic

field
C. tend to augment the increase in
current
D. produce current with the same
direction to the increasing
current
ANSWER: A

B. Lenz law
C. Coulombs law
D. Faradays law
ANSWER: D

B.

258.

259.

260.

261.

262.

263.

If a magnetic flux occurs across 100

turns at a rate of 2 Wb/sec. What is the
induced voltage as per Faradays law?
A. 100 V
B. 400 V
C. 200 V
D. 800 V
ANSWER: C
The circuit element that is used
represent the energy stored in a
magnetic field.
A. resistance
B. capacitance
C. inductance
D. elastance
ANSWER: C

264.

Electromotive force (emf) is induced

whenever a conductor cuts magnetic
flux
A. Faradays first law
B. Faradays second law
C. Coulombs first law
D. Coulombs second law
ANSWER: A

265.

The magnitude of electromotive force

(emf) that is induced when a conductor
cuts
magnetic
flux
is
directly
proportional to its rate.
A.
Faradays first law
B. Faradays second law
C. Coulombs first law
D. Coulombs second law
ANSWER: B

266.

Which of the given below can produce

the most induced voltage?
A. 1 A dc
B. 1 A, 60 Hz
C. 50 A dc
D. 1 A, 400 Hz
ANSWER: D
In all cases of electromagnetic
induction, the current set-up by an
induced voltage tends to create flux
whose direction opposes any change in
the existing flux. This law is called
A. Amperes law
B. Lenz law
C. Coulombs law
D. Faradays law
ANSWER: B

267.

268.

In electromagnetism, what law that

determines the polarity of an induced
voltage?
A. Amperes law
B. Lenz law
C. Coulombs law
D. Faradays law
ANSWER: B
In electromagnetism, what law that
determines the amount of induced
voltage?
A. Amperes law

269.

The effect that describes the ability of a

mechanically stressed ferromagnetic
wire to recognize rapid switching of
magnetization when subjected to a DC
magnetic field.
A. Wiegand effect
B. Wertheim effect
C. Wiedemann effect
D. Wall effect
ANSWER: A
The concept whereby a small voltage is
generated by a conductor with current
in an external magnetic field is known as
A. Wiegand effect
B. Hall effect
C. Wiedemann effect
D. Wall effect
ANSWER: B
_________ is called the magnetic field.
A. The force that drives current
through a resistor
B. Current flow through space
around a permanent magnet
C. The force between the plates of
charged capacitor
D. A force set up when current flow
through a conductor
ANSWER: D
The natural magnet refers to
A. steel
B. soft iron
C. magnesia

D. loadstone (lodestone)
ANSWER: D
270.

The force between two magnetic poles

in relation to their pole strength is
________.
A. not related
B. inversely proportional
C. directly proportional
D. independent
ANSWER: C

1.

The total resistance of a two similar wire

conductors connected in parallel is
________.

A.

resistance of one wire multiplied

by 4

B.
C.

same resistance of one wire

one half the resistance of one
wire

D.

double the resistance of one

wire
ANSWER: C
2.

What is the value of a resistor with colors

from left: Orange, Blue, Gold, and Silver?

A.
B.
C.
D.

34 ohms 10%
3.6 ohms 10%
3.4 ohms 10%

36 ohms 10%
ANSWER: B
3.

Determine the value of a resistor with

colors from left to right; Brown, Green,
Gold, and Silver.

A.
B.
C.
D.

1.5 ohms 10%

15 ohms 10%
1.5 ohms 20%

15 ohms 20%
ANSWER: A
4.

Resistors with high value usually have

lower wattage ratings because of
_________.

A.
B.
C.
D.

varying current
lower current
bigger size

high current
ANSWER: B
5.

Smaller resistors usually have ________

resistance value.

A.
B.
C.
D.

C.
D.

small
high

An inductor
ANSWER: C

low

very small
ANSWER: B
6.

B.
C.
D.

The effective
decreased

resistance

resistance

is

49069 ohms
95800 ohms

If you need a 1.25 k resistance and you

only have resistors of 5 k, how many of
these available resistors you should
connect in parallel to get a 1.25 k value?

A.
B.
C.
D.

2
3
4

5
ANSWER: C
9.

Insulating elements or materials has a

capability of

A.
B.
C.

allowing electric current to flow

supporting charge flow

preventing short circuit between

conducting wires

D.

making electrical circuits to be

completed
ANSWER: C
10. _________ is used to store electrical
energy in an electrostatic field?

A.
B.

Area of the plates, voltage on

the plates and the distance
between the plates

C.

Area of the plates, distance

between the plates, and the
dielectric constant of the
material between the plates

D.

Area of the plates, voltage on

the
plates
and
dielectric
constant
of
the
material
between the plates
ANSWER: C

63769 ohms

39067 ohms
ANSWER: D
8.

Area of the plates, amount of

charge on the plates and the
dielectric constant of the
material between the plates

B.

The tolerance is decreased

A 33 kilo ohms resistor is connected in

series with a parallel combination made up
of a 56 kilo ohm resistor and a 7.8 kilo ohm
resistor. What is the total combined
resistance of these three resistors?

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.

is

Nothing

The effective
increased
ANSWER: D
7.

11. What factors determine the capacitance of

a capacitor?

When resistors are connected in series,

what happens?

A.

inches. What is the capacitance of the

capacitor?

A capacitor

A transformer
A battery

12. Factors that determine the capacitance of

a capacitor.

A.

area of the
proportional

B.

distance
between
inversely proportional

plate;

dielectric
constant;
proportional

directly

C.

plate;

directly

D.

all of these
ANSWER: D
13. An electronic/electrical component/device
used to store electrical energy.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Capacitor
Inductor
Resistor

lightning arrester
ANSWER: A
14. Which of the following describes the action
of a capacitor?

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

21. With the same voltage applied, which of

the following allows more current?

4.372 picofarad
43.72 picofarad

A.
B.
C.
D.

4372 picofarad

437.2 picofarad
ANSWER: C
16. Five picofarad is equivalent to ________.

A.
B.
C.
D.

5 x 10 to the -12th
5 x 10 to the -10th

17. If two micro-farad capacitors are connected

in series, what will be the total effective
capacitance?
0.0624 microfarad

18. A 20 F capacitor is charged by a 12-V

battery. What is the stored energy at the
capacitor?
2.88 x 10-3 J
1.07 x 10-3 J

2.88 x 10-2 J
ANSWER: C
characterizes

A.
B.

Tends to oppose dc

C.

Tends to oppose changes in

current

Tends to oppose changes in

voltage

D. Opposes all frequencies equally

ANSWER: C

Converts ac into dc
Stores electrical energy
Opposes change in current flow

Creates a dc resistance
ANSWER: B
15. A parallel plate capacitor has the following
values: k=81; d=0.025 inches; A=6 square

20. A coil of wire wound, with or without a

magnetic core designed to have a higher
self-inductance than a straight wire.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Inductor
Solenoid
Toroid
Inductive relay

2.5 ohms
ANSWER: C

A.

when an electrical force (called

emf) is applied

B.

when material
electrons to flow

C.
D.

when there is circuit continuity

used

allows

A.
B.
C.
D.

supply emf
load
the conducting wires

all of the above

ANSWER: B
24. An electronic device draws 300 watts from
its 24-volt power source. Find effective
resistance.

1.44 x 10-3 J

following

0.25 ohms

23. What utilizes electrical energy in electrical

circuits?

2.5 microfarad

19. Which of the

inductance?

250 ohms

all of the above

ANSWER: D

0.125 microfarad

0.50 microfarad
ANSWER: A

A.
B.
C.
D.

25 ohms

22. In electrical circuits, current is known as

the flow of charged carriers, such as
electrons. When can this happen?

50 x 10 to the -12th

500 x 10 to the -10th

ANSWER: A

A.
B.
C.
D.

ANSWER: A

A.
B.
C.
D.

1.92 ohms
19.20 ohms
1.25 ohms

12.50 ohms
ANSWER: A
25. A 50 resistor is connected in series with a
150C resistor and to a supply voltage of
20V. What is the current through the 50
resistor?

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.01 A
0.1 A
1.0 A

10 A
ANSWER: B
26. Two resistors, 10 and 100 are
connected in parallel, approximately, aht is
the total resistance?

A.
B.
C.
D.

10
50
90

100
ANSWER: A
27. A shunt resistor is used to limit the load
current to 0.5 A, if the load resistance is
100 and the original current is 1amp,
what should be the value of the shunt
resistance?

A.
B.
C.
D.

25
50
75

100
ANSWER: D
28. How many 1k resistors to be connected
in parallel are needed in order to get
100?

A.
B.
C.
D.

2
5
10

20
ANSWER: C
29. Two resistors, R1=100 and R2=200 are
connected in series, if the voltage across
R2 is 20V, what is the voltage across R1?

A.
B.
C.
D.

5V
10 V
15 V

20 V
ANSWER: B
30. Two resistors, R1=100 and R2=200 are
connected in parallel. If the current through
R1 is 1 A, what would be the current on R2?

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.125 A
0.25 A
0.35 A

0.50 A
ANSWER: D
31. A 6A current source drives a load
consisting a parallel combination of R1 =
50 and R2 = 25. Determine the current
I1 through R1.

A.
B.

1 amp
2 amps

C.
D.

3 amps

4 amps
ANSWER: B
32. A constant voltage source Vs = 60 is
delivering a power to a series combination
of R1 = 100, R2 = 200 and R3 = 300.
Calculate the voltage drop across R2.

A.
B.
C.
D.

10 V
20 V
30 V

40 V
ANSWER: B
33. If 12 V are applied to a circuit that
consumes 78 W, what is the current flow
through the circuit?

A.
B.
C.
D.

6.5 A
936 A
0.15 A

9.36 A
ANSWER: A
34. Find the current that flows through the
filament of a 400 watts flat iron connected
to a 220 Volt power line.

A.
B.
C.
D.

50 mA
5A
5 mA

500 mA
ANSWER: D
35. An electrical device has a resistance of
10 and is supplied with a 5 ampere
constant current source. If the deice is
rated 100 Vdc, determine its power
consumed.

A.
B.
C.
D.

250 W
450 W
750 W

1000 W
ANSWER: A
36. The power dissipated by a 10 load
resistor with a current rating of 5 amperes
is _________ if supplied with a 20 volt dc
potential.

A.
B.
C.
D.

40 W

ANSWER: A
37. The power in a circuit consisting of two
equal resistors in series is known to be 10
watts. If the two resistors are connected in
parallel, what would be the circuit power
dissipation?

A.
B.
C.
D.

2.5 watts
5 watts
20 watts

40 watts
ANSWER: D
38. How many nodes are needed to
completely analyze a circuit according to
kirchhoffs current law?

A.
B.
C.

all nodes in the circuit

one less than the total number
of nodes in the circuit

39. Loop currents should be assumed to flow

in which direction?
Straight
Either C or D arbitrarily selected
Counter-clockwise

Clockwise
ANSWER: B
40. What theorem we should use in solving
electrical circuits with several voltage
sources?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Norton
Thevenin

41. In a mesh, the algebraic sum of all

voltages and voltage drops is equal to
zero.
superposition theorem
Nortons law
Kirchhoffs first law

Kirchhoffs second law

ANSWER: D

80 W
160W
250 W

Kirchhoffs second law

Nortons theorem

Thevenins theorem
ANSWER: A
43. Theorem used to simplify complex circuits
wherein, the simplified circuit contains an
equivalent open circuit resistance and
open circuit voltage.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Nortons
Thevenins
Maxwells

Kirchhoffs
ANSWER: B
44. Considered as the reverse of Thevenins
theorem.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Maxwell
Superposition
Kirchhoff

Nortons
ANSWER: D
45. A certain Thevenin equivalent circuit has
parameters RTH = 10 and VTH = 20 V. If
this is converted to Nortons equivalent
circuit, RN and IN would be

A.
B.
C.
D.

10 and 2A
10 and 4A
0.10 and 2A

0.10 and 4A
ANSWER: A

superposition

Kirchhoff
ANSWER: A

A.
B.
C.
D.

Kirchhoffs first law

two

D. one
ANSWER: C

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

42. The sum of all currents entering a junction

is equal to the sum of currents leaving
away from that junction.

46. RN and IN of a Nortons equivalent circuit

are known to be 100 and 10A,
respectively. If a 400 load is connected, it
will have a load current of

A.
B.
C.
D.

1A
2A
3A
4A

ANSWER:

47. A chosen closed path of current flow in a

network. In making this current path there
should be no node nor elements that are
passed more than once.

A.
B.

node
junction

C.
D.

mesh

loop
ANSWER: C
48. A set of circuit elements that forms a
closed path in a network over which signal
can circulate.

A.
B.
C.
D.

node
junction
mesh

loop
ANSWER: D
49. In a network, what do we call a reference
point chosen such that more branches in a
circuit met.

A.
B.
C.
D.

node
junction
ground

mesh
ANSWER: A
50. A common connection between circuit
elements or conductors from different
branches.

A.
B.
C.
D.

node
junction
ground

mesh
ANSWER: B
51. The return point in a circuit, where all
voltage measurements are referred.

A.
B.
C.
D.

node
junction
ground

loop
ANSWER: C
52. Mesh analysis is best used together with
what circuit law?

A.
B.
C.
D.

KVL
KCL
VDT

CDT
ANSWER: A
53. Nodal analysis is best used together with

A.
B.

KVL
KCL

C.
D.

VDT

CDT
ANSWER: B
54. Three 100 resistors are connected in a
tee-form (T) network and is set up between
a 100 V supply and a load resistor RL. If
maximum power transfer is desired, what
should be the resistance of the load
resistor RL?

A.
B.
C.
D.

50
75
125

150
ANSWER: D
55. Theorem used in simplifying circuit
analysis by considering the effect of supply
voltages one at a time.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Thevenins theorem
Nortons theorem
Superposition

KVL
ANSWER: C
56. Three resistors, R1 = 60 , R2 = 80 and
R3 = 100 are connected in delta. If the
network is to be transformed into star, what
would be the value of the resistor opposite
of R2?

A.
B.
C.
D.

25.0
33.3
45.0

56.7
ANSWER: A
57. The description of two sine waves that are
in step with each other going through their
maximum and minimum points at the same
time and in the same direction

A.
B.
C.
D.

phased sine wave

sine waves in phase
sine wave in coordination

stepped sine waves

ANSWER: B
58. Most ac-supplies are in the form of

A.
B.
C.
D.

sine-wave
square-wave
triangular-wave
rectangular-wave

ANSWER: A

C.
D.

-110 V
ANSWER: C

59. Advantage(s) of ac over dc

A.
B.

economically produced

transmission of ac is more
efficient

C.

ac voltages
changed

can

be

easily

D.

all of the above

ANSWER: D
60. An ac-voltage has an equation v = 240
sin120t, its frequency is

A.
B.
C.
D.

60 Hz
90 Hz
120 Hz

240 Hz
ANSWER: A
61. When can an ac-voltage, v = 120sin120t
reach its first peak?

A.
B.
C.
D.

4.167 s
8.334 s
4.167 ms

8.334 ms
ANSWER: C
62. Calculate the period of an alternating
current having an equation of I =
20sin120t.

A.
B.
C.
D.

-220 V

4.167 ms
8.33 ms

65. If an alternating voltage has a magnitude of

10 V at 30, what is its maximum voltage?

A.
B.
C.
D.

20 V
30 V
40 V

50 V
ANSWER: A
66. What is the frequency of an alternating
current, if it reaches 90 within 4.167 ms?

A.
B.
C.
D.

20 Hz
30 Hz
50 HZ

60 Hz
ANSWER: D
67. At what angle does an alternating voltage
of cosine-waveform reaches its negative
peak?

A.
B.
C.
D.

45
90
135

180
ANSWER: D
68. When comparing rms voltages and
average voltages, which of the following
statement is true, assuming sine waves?

16.67 ms

A.

33.33 ms
ANSWER: C

Either the rms voltage or the

average voltage might be larger

B.

The rms voltage is always

greater than the average
voltage

C.

There will always be a very

large difference between the
rms voltage and the average
voltage

63. The time taken by an alternating voltage, v

= 100sin240t to reach 50V for the first
time

A.
B.
C.
D.

358 s
695 s
358 ms

695 ms
ANSWER: D
64. An alternating voltage of sine-wave form
has a maximum voltage of 311V. What is
its value at 225?

A.
B.

110 V
220 V

D.

The average voltage is always

greater than the rms voltage
ANSWER: B
69. What is the average voltage of an
alternating voltage, v = 100sin120t?

A.
B.
C.
D.

31.8 V
63.6 V
70.71 V
0 (zero) V

ANSWER: D

ANSWER: B

70. Determine the effective voltage of v =

100sin120t.

A.
B.
C.
D.

31.80 V
35.35 V
70.71 V

71. What do you mean by root-mean-squared

(rms) value?
it is the average value
it is the effective value
it is the value that causes the
same heating effect as a dcvoltage

D. B or C
ANSWER: D
72. The power dissipated
resistance in an AC circuit

A.
B.
C.
D.

across

the

real power
reactive power
apparent power

true power
ANSWER: D
73. In AC circuit, resistors will dissipate what
power?

A.
B.
C.
D.

reactive
passive
inductive

true
ANSWER: D
74. In an ac-circuit, if the voltage and current
are in phase, the circuit is

A.
B.
C.
D.

resistive
reactive
capacitive

inductive
ANSWER: A
75. If the current in an ac-circuit leads the
voltage by 90, the circuit is

A.
B.
C.
D.

resistive
capacitive
inductive
purely inductive

A.
B.
C.
D.

leads the voltage by 45

leads the voltage by 90
lags the voltage by 90

lags the voltage by 45

ANSWER: C

90.00 V
ANSWER: D

A.
B.
C.

76. In a purely inductive circuit the current

77. If the current and voltage in an ac-circuit

has a phase difference, it would mean the
load is

A.
B.
C.
D.

resistive
inductive

78. A resistive and a capacitive load of equal

magnitude is connected in series,
determine the phase difference between
the voltage and the current.
current leads the voltage by 45
current lags the voltage by 45
current leads the voltage by 90

current lags the voltage by 90

ANSWER: A
79. The reactance of a 25 mH coil at 500 Hz is
which of the following?

A.
B.
C.
D.

785 ohms
13 ohms

80. The impedance in the study of electronics

is represented by resistance and
________.
inductance and capacitance
inductance
reactance

capacitance
ANSWER: C
81. A series circuit consists of an 80 mH
inductor and a 150F capacitor. Calculate
the total reactance if it is connected to a
220-volt 60-cycle source.

A.
B.

47.8 capacitive
ANSWER: A
82. Ignoring any inductive effects, what is the
impedance of RC series capacitor made up
of a 56 kilo ohms resistor and a 0.33 F
capacitor at a signal frequency of 450 Hz?

A.
B.
C.
D.

66,730 ohms
57,019 ohms
45,270 ohms

10,730 ohms
ANSWER: B
83. A 220-volt, 60-Hz source is driving a series
RL circuit. Determine the current in the
circuit if R = 100 and XL = 100 .

A.
B.
C.
D.

1.10 A (lagging)
1.55 A (lagging)
2.20 A (lagging)

4.40 A (lagging)
ANSWER: B
84. How many electrical degrees a current will
lead the voltage in a series RC load with R
= 100 and XC = 50 ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

13.28
26.56
31.72

63.44
ANSWER: B

785,000 ohms

0.0013 ohms
ANSWER: A

A.
B.
C.
D.

47.8 inductive

capacitive

reactive
ANSWER: D

A.
B.
C.
D.

C.
D.

12.5 inductive
12.5 capacitive

85. What will be the current equation in a

series RC network if supplied with v =
Vmsin120t source. The circuit has a
power factor pf = 0.5?

A.
B.
C.
D.

i = Imaxsin(120t + 60)
i = Imaxsin(120t - 60)
i = Imaxsin(120t + 30)

i = Imaxsin(120t - 30)
ANSWER: A
86. The power factor (pf) of a series LC circuit
is

A.
B.
C.
D.

0
0.5
0.75

1.0
ANSWER: A

87. What is the power factor (pf) of a series RL

circuit having R = 50 and XL = 20?

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.63
0.71
0.81

0.93
ANSWER: D
88. A 200 resistor if connected in series with
a capacitive reactance of 100 will give a
total circuit impedance of

A.
B.
C.
D.

173.2
223.6
250.6

300.0
ANSWER: B
89. What will happen when the power factor of
a circuit is increased?

A.
B.
C.

reactive power increases

active power increases
both active and reactive powers
increases

D.

both active and reactive powers

decreases
ANSWER: B
90. A series RL network is supplied with a 200volt, 60-cycle source. If the voltage across
the resistor R is 100 V, what is the voltage
across the inductor L?

A.
B.
C.
D.

0V
100 V
173.2 V

200 V
ANSWER: C
91. A 6- resistor is connected in series with a
capacitive reactance of 8 . If the supply
voltage is 200 V, what is the power
consumed by the circuit?

A.
B.
C.
D.

2400 W
4000 W
5000 W

6666.67 W
ANSWER: A
92. A 6- resistor is connected in series with a
capacitive reactance of 8 . If the supply
voltage is 200 V, what is the circuit current
magnitude?

A.
B.
C.
D.

D. 30
ANSWER: A

14.28 A
20 A
25 A

33.33 A
ANSWER: B

2400 W

4000 W
ANSWER: D

3200 W

1200 W
2400 W
3200 W

4000 W
ANSWER: C
96. A network has a true power and a reactive
power of 2400 W and 3200 W respectively.
What is its apparent power?
800 W
1600 W
4000 W

5600 W
ANSWER: C
97. What is the total impedance of a series
circuit consisting of R = 6, XC = 8, and
XL = 16?

A.
B.
C.

A.
B.
C.
D.

105.

24.3
28.3
38.3
C

100. Calculate the total impedance of a parallel

RC circuit if R = XC = 50.

A.
B.
C.
D.

10
14
24.73

25 @ 45

106.

25 @ -45

A.
B.
C.
D.

2.83 45

107.

4.00 45

0.325
0.525
0.673

0.707
ANSWER: D
103. If a circuit has an admittance of Y = 0.2 +
j0.6, the circuit is

A.

purely inductive

3.56 MHz

0.027 F
0.015 F
0.15 F

What is the resonant frequency of a

circuit when L of 3 microhenry and C of
40 picofarad are in series?

A.
B.
C.
D.

4.00 -45
ANSWER: A

A.
B.
C.
D.

79.6 MHz

27 F
ANSWER: A

2.83 -45

102. What is the power factor of a circuit if the

inductive susceptance and conductance
have the same value?

7.96 MHz

If you need an LC circuit to be resonant

at 2500 Hz and use a 150 mH coil, what
should the capacitance value be?

A.
B.
C.
D.

35.35 @ 45

A 100-volt source is supplying a parallel

RC circuit having a total impedance of
35.35. Calculate the total line current.

capacitive

1.78 MHz
ANSWER: C

35.35 @ -45
ANSWER: D
101.

inductive

What is the resonant frequency of a

circuit when L is 50 microhenrys and C
is 40 picofarads are in parallel?

A.
B.
C.
D.

33.3

1.33 MHz
14.5 MHz
14.5 kHz

1.33 kHz
ANSWER: B
108.

What is the resonant frequency of a

circuit when L of 25 microhenry and C of
10 picofarad are in parallel?

A.
B.
C.
D.

109. A series circuit at resonance would mean,

the circuit is

A.
B.
C.
D.

resistive
inductive
capacitive

reactive
ANSWER: A

resistive

reactive
ANSWER: B

1200 W
2400 W

capacitive

104. The circuit admittance Y = 0.2 - j0.6, the

circuit is

it increases the safety factor

ANSWER:

95. A series RC circuit has an apparent power

of 4000 W. If R = 6, and XC = 8,
determine the reactive power.

A.
B.
C.
D.

it provides greater efficiency

A.
B.
C.
D.

4000 W
ANSWER: B

A.
B.
C.
D.

B.
C.
D.

99. A parallel RL circuit with R = 60, and XL =

40 has a total impedance of

94. The apparent power of a series RC

network is given to be 4000 W. If R = 6 ,
and XC = 8 , calculate the true power of
the network.

A.
B.
C.
D.

it makes power consumption

less

it allows independent operations

of loads
ANSWER: D

1200 W
3200 W

A.

inductive

reactive
ANSWER: C

98. What is the significance of connecting

loads in parallel?

93. A 6- resistor is connected in series with a

capacitive reactance of 8 . If the supply
voltage is 200 V, what is the apparent
power of the circuit?

A.
B.
C.
D.

B.
C.
D.

63.7 MHz
10.1 MHz
63.7 kHz

10.1 kHz
ANSWER: B

110. Characteristics of the current in a series RL-C circuit at resonance.

A.
B.
C.
D.

It is dc
It is a minimum
It is zero

It is at maximum
ANSWER: D
111. What is the cause of a minimum Q on a
single-tuned LC circuit?

A.
B.
C.
D.

decreased series resistor

decreased shunt resistor
increased shunt resistor

decreased capacitance
ANSWER: C
112. Find the half-power bandwidth of a parallel
resonant circuit, which has a resonant
frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218.

A.
B.
C.
D.

606 kHz
58.7 kHz
16.5 kHz

47.3 kHz
ANSWER: C
113. A parallel circuit at resonance would mean,
the circuit is

A.
B.
C.
D.

resistive
inductive
reactive

capacitive
ANSWER: A
114. What will happen to a parallel ac-circuit if
its line frequency is more than the
resonant frequency?

A.
B.
C.
D.

becomes purely resistive

becomes purely capacitive
becomes inductive

becomes capacitive
ANSWER: D

115. In a series ac-circuit, if the line frequency is

more than the resonant frequency, the
circuit behaves as

A.
B.
C.
D.

resistive

ANSWER: C

1.

inductive
reactive

capacitive
ANSWER: B
116. If the line frequency of a parallel ac-circuit
is less than the resonant frequency, the
circuit behaves as

A.
B.
C.
D.

2.

resistive
capacitive

purely inductive
ANSWER: B

A.
B.
C.
D.

3.

reactive
inductive
4.

118. _________ is a parallel LC circuit.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Parallel resisting circuit

Static circuit
Tank circuit

Hartley circuit
ANSWER: C

5.

119. A parallel LC network with L = 100 mH and

C = 25F will resonate at what
frequency?

A.
B.
C.
D.

25 Hz
45.5 Hz
75.6 Hz

100 Hz
ANSWER: D

6.

120. Absolutely, when can we say that the

circuit is at resonance?

A.
B.
C.

when XL = XC

D.

all of the above

insulator
elemental semiconductor

compound semiconductor
ANSWER: C

resistive

capacitive
ANSWER: D

conductor

An
example
of
an
elemental
semiconductor.
A. Germanium (Ge)
B. Gallium Arsenide (GaAs)
C. Gallium Phosphide (GaP)
D. Aluminum Arsenide (AlAs)
ANSWER A
Which of the following is an example of a
compound semiconductor?
A. Gallium Arsenide (GaAs)
B. Gallium Phosphide (GaP)
C. Aluminum Arsenide (AlAs)
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
Germanium has an atomic number of 32
and an atomic weight of approximately 72
amu. How many electrons, protons and
neutrons are there?
A. 32, 32, 40
B. 32, 32, 104
C. 40, 32, 32
D. 40, 32, 104
ANSWER: A
The chemical bond that is present in a
crystal lattice of silicon atoms.
A. covalent bond
B. electrovalent bond
C. ionic bond
D. metallic bond
ANSWER: A

when the current is minimum

when the voltage and current
are in-phase

7.

The atomic weight of a silicon atom is

approximately 28 amu. How many
electrons, protons and neutrons does the
atom consist?

B. extrinsic semiconductor
C. compensated semiconductor
D. elemental semiconductor
ANSWER: A

8.

What is the total charge at the nucleus of

silicon atom?
A. -12e C
B. 12e C
C. -14e C
D. 14e C
ANSWER: D

9.

In materials, what do you call the area that

separates the valence band and the
conduction band?
A. energy gap
B. forbidden band
C. insulation band
D. A and B are correct
ANSWER: B

Elements that has four valence electrons

are classified as

A.
B.
C.
D.

reactive

117. If an ac-series circuit is supplied with a

source whose frequency is less than
that of fr, the circuit becomes

The name of pure semiconductor material

that has an equal number of electrons and
holes
A. n-type
B. pure type
C. intrinsic
D. p-type
ANSWER: C

A. 14, 42, 14
B. 14, 14, 42
C. 42, 14, 14
D. 14, 14, 14
ANSWER: D

10. At
absolute
zero
semiconductor acts as
A. an insulator
B. a conductor
C. a semi-insulator
D. usual
ANSWER: A

temperature,

11. The electron flow in a semiconductor

material is
A. opposite in direction of hole flow
B. the same direction with hole
flow
C. the drift current
D. known as the conventional
current
ANSWER: A

15. The process of adding impurities in a

semiconductor material.
A. growing
B. diffusion
C. doping
D. depleting
ANSWER: C
16. Impurities with five valence electrons.
A. acceptor
B. donor
C. trivalent
D. pentavalent
ANSWER: D
17. Example of acceptor impurities.
A. pentavalent impurities
B. trivalent impurities
C. tetravalent impurities
D. hexavalent impurities
ANSWER: B
18. If the substance used in doping has less
than four valence electrons, it is known as
A. acceptor
B. donor
C. trivalent
D. pentavalent
ANSWER: A
19. Commonly used as donor impurities.
A. Antimony (Sb)
B. Arsenic (As)
C. Phosphorus (P)
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D

12. Typical range of the resistivity of a

semiconductor
A. 10-15 10-18 -cm
B. 10-5 10-8 -cm
C. 10 104 -cm
D. 108 1015 -cm
ANSWER: C

20. Example of trivalent impurities.

A. Boron (B)
B. Gallium (Ga)
C. Indium (In)
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D

13. Chemical bond that is significant in metals

A. ionic bonding
B. electrovalent bonding
C. covalent bonding
D. metallic bonding
ANSWER: D

21. Donor-doped semiconductor becomes a

A. N-type semiconductor
B. good conductor
C. p-n semiconductor
D. P-type semiconductor
ANSWER: A

14. A semiconductor that is free

impurities
A. intrinsic semiconductor

22. What do you call a semiconductor that is

doped with both donor and acceptor
impurities?

from

A. double doped semiconductor

B. compensated semiconductor
C. compound semiconductor
D. diffused semiconductor
ANSWER: B
23. The resistance of a semiconductor is
known as
A. bulk resistance
B. intrinsic resistance
C. extrinsic resistance
D. dynamic resistance
ANSWER: A
24. The most extensively used semiconductor.
A. silicon
B. germanium
C. gallium phosphide
D. gallium arsenide
ANSWER: A
25. Semiconductor whose electron and hole
concentrations are equal.
A. extrinsic semiconductor
B. intrinsic semiconductor
C. compensated semiconductor
D. doped semiconductor
ANSWER: B
26. Silicon is widely used over germanium due
to its several advantages, what do you
think is its most significant advantage?
A. abundant
B. cheap
C. temperature stable
D. low leakage current
ANSWER: D
27. Current flow in a semiconductor that is due
to the applied electric field.
A. diffusion current
B. conventional current
C. drift velocity
D. drift current
ANSWER: D
28. The movement of charge carriers in a
semiconductor even without the application
of electric potential.
A. diffusion current
B. conventional current
C. drift current
D. saturation current
ANSWER: A
29. Typically, how much energy is required for
a valence electron to move to the
conduction
band
for
a
doped
semiconductor?

A. 0 eV
B. 0.05 eV
C. 1.0 eV
D. 5.0 eV
ANSWER: B
30. Conduction of electrons
semiconductor happens at

A.
B.
C.
D.

ANSWER: C

in

a doped

conduction band
forbidden band
valence band

nuclei band
ANSWER: A
31. Theoretically, where does the conduction
of holes occur in a doped semiconductor?
A. conduction band
B. forbidden band
C. valence band
D. empty band
ANSWER: C
32. In energy band diagram of a doped
semiconductor, the donor level
A. is near the valence band
B. is near the conduction band
C. is exactly in between the
valence and conduction band
D. depends on the amount of
doping
ANSWER: B
33. The acceptor level in a doped
semiconductor
A. is near the valence band level
B. is near the conduction level
C. is exactly in between the
conduction and valence band
D. will depend on the concentration
of doping
ANSWER: A
34. In a semiconductor material, what will
happen to the number of free electrons
when the temperature rises?
A. increases
B. decreases exponentially
C. decreases
D. remains the same
ANSWER: A
35. The
electrical
resistance
of
a
semiconductor material will ________ as
the temperature increases.
A. increase
B. increase exponentially
C. decrease
D. not change

36. The potential required to removed a

valence electron
A. valence potential
B. threshold potential
C. critical potential
D. ionization potential
ANSWER: D
37. Among the given elements, which is
considered as nonmetal?
A. silicon (Si)
B. germanium (Ge)
C. tin (Sn)
D. lead (Pb)
ANSWER: A
38. A semiconductor that is classified as a
metalloid or semimetal
A. silicon (Si)
B. germanium (Ge)
C. tin (Sn)
D. carbon (C)
ANSWER: B
39. Semiconductor that is very rare, it only
occurs in minute quantities in many metal
sulfides
A. silicon (Si)
B. germanium (Ge)
C. tin (Sn)
D. lead (Pb)
ANSWER: B
40. Compound semiconductors are also known
as
A. compensated semiconductors
B. amorphous semiconductors
C. organic semiconductors
D. inner-mettalic semiconductors
ANSWER: D
41. What semiconductor that is mostly used in
devices requiring the emission or
absorption of lights?
A. amorphous semiconductor
B. organic semiconductor
C. compound semiconductor
D. elemental semiconductor
ANSWER: C
42. For high-speed integrated circuit, which
semiconductor material given below is best
to be used?
A. silicon
B. germanium
C. carbon
D. gallium arsenide

ANSWER: D
43. How much impurity concentration is
needed for a sample of silicon to change
its electrical property from a poor
conductor to a good conductor?
A. one part per hundred
B. one part per thousand
C. one part per million
D. one part per billion
ANSWER: C
44. The restriction of certain discrete energy
levels in a semiconductor material can be
predicted generally by using what model?
A. Bohr model
B. string model
C. wave model
D. particle model
ANSWER: A
45. Is defined as the energy acquired by an
electron moving through a potential of one
volt.
A. electron Joules (eJ)
B. electron-potential
C. oxidation potential
D. electron Volt (eV)
ANSWER: D
46. At room temperature, in a perfect silicon
crystal, the equilibrium concentration of
thermally generated electrons in the
conduction band is about
A. 1.5 x 105 per cubic cm.
B. 1.5 x 1010 per cubic cm.
C. 1.5 x 1015 per cubic cm.
D. 1.5 x 1020 per cubic cm.
ANSWER: B
47. What is the basis in operation
semiconductor photoconductors?
A. EHP generation
B. EHP degeneration
C. EHP optical degeneration
D. EHP optical generation
ANSWER: D

of

48. The semiconductor that is used

xerography
A. selenium (Se)
B. gallium phosphide (GaP)
C. cadmium compound
D. organic semiconductor
ANSWER: A

in

49. A silicon material has an intrinsic

concentration ni=1010 per cubic centimeter
at room temperature. If it is doped with 1015

antimony atoms per cubic centimeter, what

is
now
the
approximate
electron
concentration at the conduction band?
A. 105 electrons
B. 1010 electrons
C. 1015 electrons
D. 1020 electrons
ANSWER: C

56. Typical range of power dissipation for a

semiconductor to be considered as low
power or small signal
A. less than 1 watt
B. 5 < P < 10 watts
C. 10 < P < 20 watts
D. 20 watts above
ANSWER: A

50. When an electron at the conduction band

falls back to the valence band it will
recombine with the hole. This is known as
A. regeneration
B. reunion
C. combination
D. recombination
ANSWER: D

57. In the design of high power semiconductor

devices, it involves what factors?
A. making the size of the
semiconductor bigger
B. packing the device into a bigger
case
C. excellent contact between the
semiconductor and the case
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D

51. Which semiconductor is mostly used to

detect near infrared?
A. silicon
B. germanium
C. carbon
D. silicon carbide
ANSWER: D
52. What semiconductor that is good for hightemperature applications?
A. indium antimonide (InSb)
B. gallium anitmonide(GaSb)
C. silicon carbide (SiC)
D. diamond (C)
ANSWER: A
53. Among the given semiconductors below,
which has the highest mobility?
A. silicon
B. germanium
C. gallium arsenide
D. indium antimonide
ANSWER: D
54. A semiconducting glass is known as
A. isomorphous semiconductor
B. amorphous semiconductor
C. organic semiconductor
D. compound semiconductor
ANSWER: B
55. For an electroluminescent of green and red
lights, which semiconductor is best?
A. silicon carbide
B. gallium arsenide
C. indium antimonide
D. gallium phosphide
ANSWER: D

58. How to have a better high-frequency

response in designing semiconductor
devices?
A. make the chip as small as
possible
B. the leads should be made
shorter and smaller
C. smaller packaging
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
59. Before an electron can participate in the
conduction of electricity, it must leave from
the valence band and transfer to the
conduction band. Transferring to the
conduction
band
involves
energy
acquisition by an electron from external
sources and this energy must be greater
than the energy gap of the material. Which
semiconductor material has the highest
energy gap?
A. Zinc Sulfide (ZnS)
B. silicon (Si)
C. germanium (Ge)
D. Indium Antimonide (InSb)
ANSWER: A
60. Which of the following semiconductors has
the smallest energy gap?
A. ZnS
B. Si
C. Ge
D. InSb
ANSWER: D
61. The ease with which a charge carrier
(electron
or
hole)
moves
in
a
semiconductor material is known as
mobility. It is also defined as the average

drift velocity of electrons and holes per unit

electrostatic
field.
Which
of
the
semiconductor materials has the highest
value of electron-mobility?
A. InSb
B. Ge
C. Si
D. AlP
ANSWER: A
62. In semiconductor materials, electrons have
a higher value of mobility than holes, but
which semiconductor material has the
slowest electron-mobility?
A. InSb
B. GaP
C. GaAs
D. AlP
ANSWER: D
63. Solar cell is a semiconductor electricjunction device, which absorbs the radiant
energy of sunlight and converts it directly
and efficiently into electrical energy. This
device, uses what type of semiconductor
materials?
A. single-crystal silicon
B. amorphous or polycrystalline
silicon
C. GaAs, CdS, CdTe, CuS
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
64. What is formed when n-type and p-type
semiconductors are brought together?
A. pn junction
B. semiconductor junction
C. energy band gap
D. semiconductor diode
ANSWER: A
65. PN junction acts as a one way valve for
electrons because _________.
A. the circuit in which the diode is
used, only attempts to pump
electrons in one diode
B. electrons tend to follow the
direction of the hole
C. there is a little mechanical
switch inside a diode
D. when electrons are pump from
P to N, free electrons and holes
are force apart leaving no way
for electrons to cross the
junction
ANSWER: D

66. The device that is formed when an n-type

and p-type semiconductors are brought
together
A. pn junction
B. semiconductor junction
C. depletion region
D. junction diode
ANSWER: D
67. An external voltage applied to a junction
reduces its barrier and aid current to flow
through the junction
A. reverse bias
B. external bias
C. junction bias
D. forward bias
ANSWER: D
68. A device containing an anode and a
cathode or a pn junction of a
semiconductor as the principal elements
and provides unidirectional conduction.
A. diode
B. diac
C. triode
D. triac
ANSWER: A
69. Unidirectional conduction in two-electrodes
in any device other than a diode, such that
rectification between the grid and cathode
of a triode, or asymmetrical conduction
between the collector and base of a
transistor is called
A. rectification
B. diode action
C. clipping
D. clamping
ANSWER: B
70. The p-type material in a semiconductor
junction diode is technically termed as
A. positive terminal
B. negative terminal
C. cathode
D. anode
ANSWER: D
71. Cathode in a semiconductor junction diode
is referred to the
A. positive terminal
B. junction
C. p-type terminal
D. n-type terminal
ANSWER: D
72. The area in the semiconductor diode
where there are no charge carriers
A. depletion layer

B. depletion region
C. depletion mode
D. depletion area
ANSWER: B
73. Depletion region is an area in a
semiconductor device where there are no
charge carriers exist. This will be always
near the junction of n-type and p-type
materials. What causes this junction to be
depleted by charge carriers?
A. Due to the recombination of
holes and electrons at the
junction
B. Due to the cancellation of
positively charge protons and
negatively charge electrons
C. Due to the annihilation of charge
carriers
D. Due to the combination of
positively charge holes and
negatively charge electrons
ANSWER: D
74. A junction diode is said to be forwardbiased if
A. Anode is supplied more positive
than the cathode.
B. Anode
is
supplied
more
negative than the cathode.
C. A voltage greater than threshold
is applied, with cathode less
positive than anode.
D. A voltage greater than threshold
is applied, with cathode less
negative than anode.
ANSWER: C
75. What do you call the very small amount of
current that will flow in the diode when it is
reverse biased?
A. saturation current
B. reverse saturation current
C. cut-off current
D. holding current
ANSWER: B
76. When the diode is supplied with forward
direction potentials but with a magnitude
less than the threshold voltage of the
diode, still it will not turn-on and will only
allow a very small amount of current to
pass. This very small current is known
A. as leakage current
B. as forward saturation current
C. as holding current
D. as cut-off current
ANSWER: D

77. The minimum voltage required before a

diode can totally conduct in a forward
direction.
A. triggering voltage
B. breakdown voltage
C. saturation voltage
D. threshold voltage
ANSWER: D
78. What will happen to the threshold voltage
of the diode when it operates at higher
temperatures.
A. increases
B. increases exponentially
C. decreases
D. decreases exponentially
ANSWER: C
79. The forward current in a conducting diode
will ______________ as the operating
temperature increases.
A. not be affected
B. decrease
C. decrease exponentially
D. increase
ANSWER: D
80. As the operating temperature of a reversebiased diode is increased, its leakage or
reverse saturation current will
A. Increase
B. increase exponentially
C. decrease
D. decrease exponentially
ANSWER: B
81. The small value of direct current that flows
when a semiconductor device has reverse
bias
A. surge current
B. bias current
C. reverse current
D. current limit
ANSWER: C
82. Normally, diodes will not conduct when
reverse-biased, but if the reverse voltage is
increased further, a point will be reached
where the diode gives up and allowing the
current to surge. This voltage is one of the
limiting parameter of diodes and is known
as
A. breakdown voltage (VBR)
B. peak inverse voltage (PIV)
C. peak reverse voltage (PRV)
D. all are correct
ANSWER: D

83. For a silicon diode, calculate the current at

room temperature if the forward voltage VF
= 0.3 V and the reverse saturation current
IS = 100 nA.
A. 32.8 A
B. 10.8 A
C. 32.8 mA
D. 10.8 mA
ANSWER: A
84. The breakdown voltage of a junction diode
will ___________
A. Increase
as
operating
temperature rises.
B. Increase
exponentially
as
operating temperature rises.
C. Decrease
as
operating
temperature rises.
D. Not change as operating
temperature rises.
ANSWER: C
85. Calculate the new threshold voltage of a
germanium diode when it operates at 100
0
C.
A. 0.113 V
B. 0.188 V
C. 0.215 V
D. 0.513 V
ANSWER: A
86. A silicon diode has a reverse saturation
current of 50 nA at room temperature. If
the operating temperature is raised by
50C, what is now the reverse saturation
current?
A. 105.56 nA
B. 287.73 nA
C. 827.89 nA
D. 1.66 A
ANSWER: D
87. In every increase of 10C in the operating
temperature of a diode will cause its
reverse saturation current to
A. decrease
B. double
C. triple
D. quadruple
ANSWER: B
88. What do you call the resistance of the
diode when operating at a steady state
voltage?
A. dc resistance
B. dynamic resistance
C. ac resistance
D. average resistance
ANSWER: A

89. The resistance of the diode that is

significant when operating with a small ac
signal
A. dc resistance
B. static resistance
C. dynamic resistance
D. average resistance
ANSWER: C
90. When a diode is used in large ac voltages,
the resistance that is to be considered is
A. dc resistance
B. static resistance
C. dynamic resistance
D. average resistance
ANSWER: D
91. At forward bias condition, what will happen
to the diode resistance when the applied
voltage is increased?
A. will also increase
B. will increase exponentially
C. will decrease
D. will not change
ANSWER: C
92. The primary use of Zener diode in
electronic circuits.
A. resistance regulator
B. rectifier
C. voltage regulator
D. current regulator
ANSWER: C
93. What phenomenon in electronics does an
avalanche
breakdown
primarily
dependent?
A. Doping
B. Recombination
C. Ionization
D. Collision
ANSWER: C
94. When a diode is reverse biased the
depletion region widens, since it is in
between positively charge holes and
negatively charge electrons, it will have an
effect of a capacitor, this capacitance is
called what?
A. diffusion capacitance
B. storage capacitance
C. stray capacitance
D. transition capacitance
ANSWER: D
95. In a semiconductor diode, the total
capacitance, that is the capacitance
between terminals and electrodes, and the

internal voltage variable capacitance of the

junction is called
A. diffusion capacitance
B. transition capacitance
C. depletion-region capacitance
D. diode capacitance
ANSWER: D
96. What capacitance is significant when the
diode is forward biased?
A. diffusion capacitance or storage
capacitance
B. transition capacitance
C. depletion-region capacitance
D. stray capacitance
ANSWER: A
97. A diode that is especially designed to
operate as a voltage-variable capacitor. It
utilizes the junction capacitance of a
semiconductor diode.
A. varactor
B. varicap
C. varistor
D. A and B are correct
ANSWER: D
98. The capacitance of a varactor will _______
when the forward bias voltage is increased.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. exponentially decrease
D. not change
ANSWER: A
99. The time taken by the diode to operate in
the reverse condition from forward
conduction
A. reverse recovery time
B. forward recovery time
C. reverse holding time
D. reverse time constant
ANSWER: A
100.

101.

In operating a diode at high-speed

switching circuits, one of the most
important parameters to be considered is
A. ac resistance
B. diode capacitance
C. noise figure
D. reverse recovery time (trr)
ANSWER: D
The time required for forward voltage or
current to reach a specified value after
switching the diode from its reverse-toforward-biased state.
A. reverse recovery time
B. forward recovery time (tfr)

C. saturation time
D. conduction time
ANSWER: B

D. Schottky barrier diode

ANSWER: B
108.

102.

103.

104.

105.

The maximum power the diode can

handle.
A. maximum derating power
B. maximum consumption power
C. breakdown power
D. maximum dissipation power
ANSWER: D
What is the most important specification
for semiconductor diode?
A. Forward resistance
B. Reverse resistance
C. Peak inverse voltage
D. Current capacity
ANSWER: D
What will happen to the power handling
capability of the diode if it is to be operated
at a higher temperature?
A. decreases
B. increases
C. increases exponentially
D. will not be affected
ANSWER: A

109.

107.

A semiconductor device especially

fabricated to utilize the avalanche or zener
breakdown region. This is normally
operated in the reverse-region and its
application is mostly for voltage reference
or regulation.
A. varactor diode
B. zener diode
C. shockley diode

Two
terminal
switch
C. Two
terminal
switch
D. Three terminal
switch
ANSWER: C

110.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A diode whose negative resistance is

dependent on the classical effects of phase
shift introduced by the time lag between
maximum field and maximum avalanche
current, and by the transit time through the
device.
A. Read diode
B. IMPATT diode
C. TRAPATT diode
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D

tunneling

Schottky diode
IMPATT diode

tunnel diode
ANSWER: D

116. What semiconductor diode that have a fine

wire (called a cat-whisker) whose point is
in permanent contact with the surface of a
wafer of semiconductor material such as
silicon, germanium or gallium arsenide?
A. point-contact diode
B. diac
C. PiN diode
D. thyrector
ANSWER: A

A rectifying metal-semiconductor junction

A.
B.
C.
D.

Schottky barrier diode

117.

When the p-n junction of a semiconductor

diode is inserted with an intrinsic material,
the diode becomes a
A. backward diode
B. Read diode
C. Schokley diode
D. PiN diode
ANSWER: D

118.

A four layer semiconductor diode whose

characteristic at the first quadrant is similar
to that of a silicon-controlled rectifier
(SCR).
A. Shockley diode
B. thyrector
C. Schottky diode
D. diac
ANSWER: A

surface barrier diode

hot-carrier or hot-electron diode

all of the above are correct

ANSWER: D
112.

113.

bi-directional

115.

avalanche

varactor diode

unidirectional

Another name of a three-layer diode. This

is also considered as an ac diode.
A. Shockley diode
B. thyrector
C. thyristor
D. diac
ANSWER: D

Gunn

A negative resistance diode commonly

used in microwave oscillators and
detectors, it is sometimes used as
amplifiers. This device is also known as
Esaki diode.

bi-directional

114.

diffusion
ANSWER: B

Diode parameter that will inform the user

as to what factor does the power handling
capability of the diode is reduced as the
operating temperature is increased.
A. power derating factor
B. power dissipating factor
C. power reduction constant
D. all of the above
ANSWER: A
A certain diode has a maximum power
dissipation of 500 mW at room temperature
and a linear power derating factor of 5.0
mW/C. How much power the diode can
handle if operated at 50C.
A. 625 mW
B. 505 mW
C. 495 mW
D. 375 mW
ANSWER: D

The effect obtain when the electric field

across a semiconductor is strong enough
which causes the free electrons to collide
with valence electrons, thereby releasing
more electrons and a cumulative
multiplication of charge carriers occur.

A.
B.
C.
D.

111.
106.

Refers to a special type of diode which is

capable of both amplification and
oscillation.
A. Junction diode
B. Tunnel diode
C. Point contact diode
D. Zener diode
ANSWER: B

B.

Diode
whose
negative
resistance
depends on a specific form of quantummechanical bond structure of the material
A. Gunn diode
B. tunnel diode
C. TRAPATT diode
D. backward diode
ANSWER: A
One of the electronic semiconductor
devices known as diac, function as
A. Four terminal multi-directional
switch

119.

120.

121.

122.

123.

124.

A diode that is especially processed so

that its high-current flow takes place when
the junction is reverse-biased. It is a
variation of a tunnel diode.
A. Esaki diode
B. Read diode
C. zener diode
D. backward diode
ANSWER: D
A silicon diode that exhibits a very high
resistance in both directions up to certain
voltage, beyond which the unit switches to
a low-resistance conducting state. It can be
viewed as two zener diodes connected
back-to-back in series.
A. bizener diode
B. diac
C. thyristor
D. thyrector
ANSWER: D
A type of Read diode that uses a heavily
doped n-type material as its drift region
A. IMPATT diode
B. TRAPATT diode
C. TUNNETT diode
D. MITATT
ANSWER: A
A device containing more than one diode.
An example is the full-wave bridge-rectifier
integrated circuit.
A. diode array
B. diode IC
C. diode pack
D. combined diode
ANSWER: C

ANSWER: A
125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

Is the combination of the inductance of

the leads and electrodes, capacitance of
the junction, and the resistance of the
junction of a semiconductor diode.
A. diode impedance
B. diode ac resistance
C. diode reactance
D. diode ac parameter
ANSWER: A
In a reverse-biased pn junction, the
sudden large increase in current that
occurs when a particular value of reversed
voltage is reached, and which is due to
ionization by the high intensity electric field
in the depletion region.
A. Zener effect
B. Hall effect
C. breakdown voltage
D. ionization

The appearance of RF current oscillations

in a dc-biased slab of n-type gallium
arsenide in a 3.3 kV electric field
A. Gunn effect
B. Hall effect
C. Zener effect
D. avalanche
ANSWER: A

A curve showing the relationship between

the voltage and the current of the diode at
any given temperature
A. characteristic curve
B. transfer curve
C. transfer characteristic curve
D. all are correct
ANSWER: A
The line that is plotted in the diode
characteristic curve which represents the
load
A. linear line
B. operating line
C. load line
D. transfer load line
ANSWER: C

132.

A.
B.
C.
D.

133.

it will increase exponentially

is not affected by the load

ANSWER: B

136.

the supply voltage

the load resistance

134.

137.

approximately 0.3 V

138.

clipper
clamper
peak detector

A clipper circuit wherein the diode is

connected in series with the load

A.
B.
C.
D.

50 V

series clipper
parallel clipper
shunt clipper

series feed clipper

ANSWER: A

0.7 V
0.3 V
139.

What do you call a clipper circuit wherein

the diode is shunted with the load?

A.
B.
C.
D.

series clipper
parallel clipper
cascade clipper

cascade clipper
ANSWER: B

4.7 V
4.4 V

140.

0.6 V

A silicon diode is in parallel with a

germanium diode and is connected to a
load resistor having a value of 20 k and a
forward supply voltage of 10 V. What is the
approximate voltage across the silicon
diode?

A.
B.
C.
D.

10 V

level shifter
ANSWER: A

0.3 V
ANSWER: B
135.

9.3 V

Diode circuit that is used to cut a portion

of the input signal

A.
B.
C.
D.

approximately 0.7 V

Two germanium diodes are connected in

series and have a load resistance of 10 k
and a forward supply voltage of 5 V.
Calculate the voltage across the load
resistor.

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.7 V

Cant be solve, lack of data.

ANSWER: A

approximately 12 V

can not be solve, lack of data

ANSWER: A

What is the output voltage across a load

resistor if it is paralleled with a forward
biased silicon diode? The resistor network
is supplied with 10 V.

A.
B.
C.
D.

the type of diode

What is the drop across the diode when it

is connected in series to a resistor of 1.8
k and a supply voltage of 50 V. The
supply voltage causes the diode to be
reverse-biased.

A.
B.
C.
D.

quiescent point

it will increase

is

lack of data and cant be solved

ANSWER: C

operating point

it will also decrease

position

A germanium diode is connected to a

load resistance of 1.5 k and is supplied
with 12-V such that the diode will be
forward biased. What is the voltage across
the diode?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Q-point

What will happen to the magnitude of the

load-line slope when the load resistance is
decreased?

Q-point

all of the above

ANSWER: D

Diode is said to be operating at a point

where the characteristic curve and the load
line intersect. This point is technically
termed as

all are correct

ANSWER: D

Quiescent or
dependent on

A.
B.
C.
D.

The impedance presented by a junction

operating in its zener breakdown region.
A. diode impedance
B. zener impedance
C. breakdown impedance
D. critical impedance
ANSWER: B

A.
B.
C.
D.

130.

131.

10 V
1.0 V
0.7 V

0.3 V
ANSWER: D

A network with a diode and a capacitor

that is used to shift the dc-level of the input
signal

A.
B.
C.
D.

clipper
clamper
shifter

level inverter
ANSWER: B
141.

Half-wave rectifier is a good example of

A.
B.
C.
D.

a series clamper
a parallel clamper
a parallel clipper

a series clipper
ANSWER: D

142.

D. all are correct

ANSWER: A

Which of the given circuit below must

have a capacitor?

A.
B.
C.
D.

rectifier

148.

clipper
clamper

143.

How many capacitors are used in a

diode-capacitor
halfwave
voltage
doubler?

A.
B.
C.
D.

149.

1
3

3 Vmax

diode IC

A.
B.
C.

diode chopper
active chopper
junction chopper

152.

155.

RTL
DTL
HDTL

156.

half-wave bridge

C.

low power consumption and low

power dissipation

crowbar
shunted zener

all of the above

ANSWER: D
Which of the three regions/areas in a
transistor that is the smallest in
construction?

A.

emitter

alloy-transistor
alloy-diffused transistor
alloy junction transistor

A transistor whose junctions are created

by alloying

A.
B.
C.
D.

alloy transistor
alloy-diffused transistor
diffused transistor

alloy junction
ANSWER: A

SBS

D.

157.

160.

thyrector

no heater loss, low operating

voltage and therefore efficient

collector

diffused junction transistor

ANSWER: B

thyristor

B.

emitter

A transistor in which the base is diffused

and the emitter is alloyed. The collector is
provided by the semiconductor substrate
into which alloying and diffusion are
affected.

A.
B.
C.
D.

161.

Transistor replaces the old vacuum tubes

because
it
has
several
obvious
advantages, what are they?

half-bridge

current enhancer

159.

SCR

smaller, lightweight and rugged

construction

at the junction

base
ANSWER: B

triac

A.

base

The region or area in a transistor that is

heavily doped

A.
B.
C.
D.

triode

transistor
ANSWER: D

full-wave bridge

regulator

emitter to collector

An active semiconductor device, capable

of amplification, oscillation, and switching
action. It is an acronym for transfer resistor
and had replaced the tube in most
applications.

A.
B.
C.
D.

An
over-voltage
protection
circuit
employing a zener diode and an SCR
whose function is to produce high overload
by-pass current on a circuit.

A.
B.
C.
D.

158.

transistor
ANSWER: D

full bridge
ANSWER: C

diode network

A chopper, employing an alternately

biased diodes as the switching element.

series voltage regulator

What is a bridge rectifier having diodes in

two arms and resistors in the other two?

A.
B.
C.
D.

diode array

diode matrix
ANSWER: A
147.

151.

A combination of several diodes in a

single housing

A.
B.
C.
D.

zener voltage regulator

ECL
ANSWER: B

2 Vmax

collector to base

A
three
terminal,
three
layer
semiconductor device that has the ability to
multiply charge carriers. This device was
first introduced at Bell Laboratories, by
Brattain and Bardeen in 1947 and which
opens a completely new direction of
interest and development in the field of
electronics.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Logic circuitry in which a diode is the logic

element and a transistor acts as an
inverting amplifier.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Vmax

4 Vmax
ANSWER: B
146.

150.

In a diode-capacitor voltage quadrupler,

what is the voltage across the third stage
capacitor?

A.
B.
C.
D.

154.

ordinary voltage regulator

switching voltage regulator

ANSWER: B

4
ANSWER: B
145.

25 k

A simple voltage-regulator whose output

is the constant voltage drop developed
across a zener diode conducting in the
reverse breakdown region. The regulator
circuit consists of a zener diode in parallel
with the load and an appropriate limiting
resistor.

A.
B.
C.
D.

collector to base

collector

all are equal

ANSWER: C

base to emitter
ANSWER: C

An improvement of a diode-capacitor halfwave voltage doubler is the full-wave

doubler, this circuit uses how many
capacitors?

A.
B.
C.
D.

250

B.
C.
D.

The flow of electron in a NPN transistor

when used in electronic circuit is from
_______.

A.
B.
C.
D.

25

250 k
ANSWER: B

4
ANSWER: B
144.

153.

A light emitting diode (LED) is to be used

in a circuit with a supply voltage of 5 V.
What should be the value of the resistor
needed by the LED to operate normally?

A.
B.
C.
D.

all of the above

ANSWER: C

ANSWER: C

In a semiconductor device, a p-n junction

formed by alloying a suitable material such
as indium with the semiconductor.

A.
B.
C.
D.

alloy junction
diffused junction
depletion junction

storage junction
ANSWER: A
162.

A transistor in which one or both

electrodes are created by diffusion

A.
B.
C.
D.

diffused transistor
alloy transistor
planar transistor

mesa transistor
ANSWER: A

163.

A
two-junction
transistor
whose
construction takes the form of a pnp or a
npn. Such device uses both electron and
hole conduction and is current-driven.

A.
B.
C.
D.

bipolar transistor

D.

169.

unipolar transistor
bi-directional transistor

The predecessor of the junction

transistor, and is characterized by a current
amplification factor, alpha of greater than
one.

A.
B.
C.
D.

surface-charge transistor

170.

surface-barrier transistor

A.
B.
C.
D.

schottky transistor

heavily doped semiconductors

no doping at all

The ratio of the total width of the outer

layers to that of the center layer

A.
B.
C.
D.

172.

150:1

The ratio of the doping level of the outer

layers to that of the sandwiched material

A.
B.
C.
D.

from n- to the p-type material

from p- to p-type material

leakage current
emitter current

178.

cut-off current

10:2 or more
10:3

Limiting the number of free carriers will

A.

increase the conductivity but

decreases the resistance

B.

decrease the conductivity but

increases the resistance

C.

increase the conductivity as well

as resistivity

For general-purpose transistors, IC is

measured in ____, while ICO is measured in
____.

A.
B.
C.
D.

micro and nanoamperes

milliamperes and microamperes
milliamperes and nanoamperes

b and c above
ANSWER: D
174.

Is temperature sensitive, and can

severely affect the stability of the system,
when not carefully examined during design

A.

IC

common-base,
short-circuit,
amplification factor

B.

common-emitter,
factor

C.

common-collector, amplification
factor

183.

184.

A and B above
ANSWER: B

C.

Common-emitter
forwardcurrent amplification factor

It is a particularly important parameter

that provides a direct link between current
levels of the input and output circuits for a
common-emitter configuration.

A and B above

The _______ id defined as that area

below IC= ICEO.
active region
cutoff region
saturation region

It is referred to as the communication link

between the manufacturer and user
specification sheet
characteristic manual
characteristic curve

all of the above

ANSWER: D

Common-collector
forwardcurrent amplification factor

A.
B.
C.
D.

In the dc mode, the levels of IC and IB are

related by a quantity called

A.
B.
C.
D.

B.

none of the above

ANSWER: B

npn and pnp

pnp only
ANSWER: A
179.

Common-collector
reversecurrent amplification factor

A.
B.
C.
D.

Phrases not pointing in and pointing in

simply mean

npn only

A.

none of the above

ANSWER: B

amplification

pnp and npn

The formal name of ac

A.
B.
C.
D.

In the ac mode, alpha is formally called

A.
B.
C.
D.

10:3 or more
173.

182.

A.

mostly in midrange of 50 to 400

Common-emitter
reversecurrent amplification factor
ANSWER: C

alpha ()
gamma ()

less than 1

D.

D. all of the above are correct

ANSWER: A

all of the above

ANSWER: A

10:1 or less
ANSWER: D
168.

177.

The minority-current component of a

transistor is called

A.
B.
C.
D.

majority carrier flow

A and B above
ANSWER: A

100:1
150:5

181.

emitter electron flow

beta ()

from about 25 to over 400

A or C above
ANSWER: C

In the dc mode, the levels of IC and IE due

to the majority carriers are related by the
quantity

A.
B.
C.
D.

tetrode

A and B above
ANSWER: A

1:150
ANSWER: C
167.

176.

bipolar

from p- to the n-type material

leakage current flow

For practical transistor devices, the level

of typically ranges

A.
B.
C.
D.

emitter conventional current flow

ANSWER: D

unipolar

At forward-biased junction of pnp

transistor, majority carriers flow heavily

A.
B.
C.
D.

A and B above
ANSWER: B
166.

tetrode

lightly doped semiconductors

171.

IS

For the transistor, the arrow in the graphic

symbol defines the direction of _______
through the device

A.
B.
C.
D.

bipolar

pentode
ANSWER: A

For a transistor, the outer layers are

A.
B.
C.
D.

175.

unipolar

What device, that employs only electron

or hole?

180.

ICO

IE
ANSWER: B

pentode
ANSWER: B

point-contact transistor
ANSWER: D
165.

The term ________ reflects the fact that

holes and electrons participate in the
injection process into the oppositely
polarized material.

A.
B.
C.
D.

double junction transistor

ANSWER: A
164.

B.
C.
D.

decrease the conductivity as

well as resistivity
ANSWER: B

185.

The information that can be found in most

specification sheets?

A.
B.
C.

maximum ratings
thermal characteristics
electrical characteristics

D. all of the above

ANSWER: D
186.

191.

A.
B.
C.
D.

With an ohmmeter, a large or small

resistance in either junction of an npn or
pnp transistor indicates

A.
B.
C.
D.

well functioning device

192.

either A or C
ANSWER: A
187.

npn transistor

193.

pnp transistor
germanium transistor

npn transistor

194.

pnp transistor
germanium transistor

195.

medium-power devices

all of the above

ANSWER: A
190.

saturation flux
saturation value
saturation point

all of the above

ANSWER: C

active region
cutoff region
saturation region

forward and forward-biased

forward and reverse-biased

dc biasing

A.
B.
C.
D.

201.

both reverse-biased
forward and reverse-biased
both forward-biased
reverse and forward-biased

205.

cut-off region

206.

active region
saturation region

30 mA
3 mA
12 mA

0V
VCC
VCC

infinite
ANSWER: A
207.

quench

Collector-emitter resistance
transistor at cut-off

A.
B.
C.
D.

static

collector

reverse saturation current

When the transistor is saturated, VCE is

approximately

A.
B.
C.
D.

cut-off region

base

cut-off current

1.2 mA
ANSWER: A

208.

of

ideal

0
infinite
a function of the load resistance

a function
current
ANSWER: B

The transistor terminal that handles most

current

A.
B.

leakage current

Solve for the base current if collector

current is 600 mA and the current gain is
20.

A.
B.
C.
D.

saturation region

quiescent
ANSWER: D
202.

merit factor

all of the above

ANSWER: B

active region

passive

factor of safety

What best describes the transistor current

that flows between the collector and
emitter terminals when the base is open?

A.
B.
C.
D.

saturation region

In dc biasing, it means quiet, still, inactive

A.
B.
C.
D.

A and B above

At cutoff region, the collector-base and

base-emitter junctions of a transistor are

A.
B.
C.
D.

cut-off region

none of the above

ANSWER: A

none of the above

ANSWER: B
196.

204.

active region

What region the transistor should be

operating to have minimum distortion at the
output signal?

temperature coefficient

stability factor
ANSWER: D

breakdown region
ANSWER: B
200.

Which indicates the degree of change, in

operating-point
due
to
temperature
variation in the dc biasing?

A.
B.
C.
D.

both forward-biased

Under what region does the transistor

operate if both the base-emitter and basecollector junctions are reverse-biased?

A.
B.
C.
D.

reverse and reverse biased

ac biasing

203.

breakdown region
ANSWER: B
199.

emitter

collector and emitter

ANSWER: C

forward and reverse-biased

If the base-emitter junction is reverse

biased and the base-collector junction is
forward biased, the transistor will be at
what region of operation?

A.
B.
C.
D.

It is necessary, in order to establish the

proper region of operation for ac
amplification.

A.
B.
C.
D.

On a voltage-current condition curve, the

point belong to which a further increase in
voltage produces no (or very little) further
increase in current.

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.7 V

reverse and forward-biased

ANSWER: D

high-power devices
low-power devices

198.

In the active region, the collector-base

junction is ________, while the baseemitter junction is ________.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Transistors of heavy duty construction

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.55 V

both reverse-biased

C.
D.

reverse and forward-biased

ANSWER: C

capital region
ANSWER: A

silicon transistor
ANSWER: B
189.

0.3 V

In saturation region, the collector-base

and base-emitter junctions of a transistor
are

A.
B.
C.
D.

cutoff

Among the three characteristics of a

transistor amplifier, which region is
normally employed for linear (undistorted)
amplifiers?

A.
B.
C.
D.

At base-emitter junction, if the positive (+)

lead is connected to the base and the
negative (-) lead to the emitter, a high
resistance reading would indicate

A.
B.
C.
D.

active

1.7 V
ANSWER: C

silicon transistor
ANSWER: A
188.

197.

For an on transistor, the voltage VBE

should be in the neighborhood of

A.
B.
C.
D.

At base-emitter junction, using an

ohmmeter, if the positive (+) lead is
connected to the base and the negative (-)
lead to the emitter, a low resistance
reading would indicate

A.
B.
C.
D.

saturation

ANSWER: A

quiescent point
ANSWER: A

faulty device
leaky device

It is applied to any system where levels

have reached their maximum values

of

the

collector

The leakage current that flows at the

collector-base junction when the emitter is
open

A.
B.
C.
D.

C.
D.

ICO
ICBO

V(BR)CEO
ANSWER: D

ICEO

ICBE
ANSWER: B
209.

214.

A transistor with = 100 is connected as

common base, was found to have a
leakage current ICBO = 1A. If the transistor
is configured as common emitter, what is
the approximate value of its ICEO?

A.
B.
C.
D.

100 A

215.

A.
B.
C.
D.

leakage current
saturation current
reverse saturation current

How is the collector cut-off or reverse

saturation current ICBO related to the
emitter cut-off current IEBO?

A.
B.
C.
D.

ICBO
ICBO
ICBO

ICBO
ANSWER: D
212.

216.

IEBO p
IEBO/
IEBO(1-)
IEBO

B.
C.

increases
increases

as

increases
decreases

as

temperature

217.

temperature

is not affected by a temperature

change

is zero (0) mA
ANSWER: D
The maximum voltage that can be applied
across the collector-emitter terminal for a
given transistor is specified as

A.
B.

VCEO
VECO

221.

222.

218.

One
of
characteristic
base (C-B)
emitter (C-E)
amplifiers.

the
following
amplifier
refers to that of a commonas compared to commonand common-collector (C-C)

226.

common-emitter

10
50

227.

A.
B.
C.
D.

ac

all of the above

ANSWER: D

hie/(1+)
re for dynamic model

voltage source
stiff voltage source
current source

common-base
common-collector
common-emitter

emitter follower
ANSWER: B
228.

Common-base configuration has a high

voltage gain and a current gain of

A.
B.
C.
D.

for common-emitter

HFE

hie/hfe

Which transistor configuration has the

highest input resistance?

A.
B.
C.
D.

for common-collector

For
a
common-emitter
transistor
configuration, the hybrid parameter hfe
stands for forward transfer current ratio.
This parameter is approximately equal to

hi and hf

stiff current source

ANSWER: A

a combination of the three

configurations
ANSWER: C
223.

hr and hf

In most transistor input equivalent circuit

it comprises of a resistor and a

A.
B.
C.
D.

100

for common-base

hi and ho

all of these
ANSWER: D

common-base

Which transistor configuration hybrid

parameters, that is usually specified by the
manufacturers?

A.
B.
C.
D.

common base

common transistor
ANSWER: C

transistor

common-collector

usually

The input impedance of a common-base

configuration is hib, and its magnitude is
approximately equal to

A.
B.
C.
D.

200
ANSWER: C

common-base terminology

common collector

floating

Calculate
the
common-emitter
amplification factor of a transistor with a
common-base amplification factor =0.99.

A.
B.
C.
D.

common-collector terminology

common emitter

225.

connected to V+

is

hr and ho
ANSWER: D

A and C above
ANSWER: C

0 dB frequency

Which transistor configuration has the

highest input resistance?

A.
B.
C.
D.

grounded

Hybrid parameter that

neglected in circuit analysis

A.
B.
C.
D.

Has higher input resistance

Most
frequently
used
configuration for pnp and npn

A.
B.
C.
D.

all of the these

ANSWER: C

D.

213.

220.

unity gain frequency

common-emitter terminology

224.

not used as an input nor output

ANSWER: D

When base is common to both the input

and output sides of the configuration and is
usually the terminal closes to, or at ground
potential, it is called what?

A.
B.
C.
D.

ICBO of an ideal transistor

A.

250

cut-off frequency

Has lower input resistance

A transistor is said to be configured as

common emitter if the emitter terminal is

A.
B.
C.
D.

25

unity gain bandwidth product or

unity current gain bandwidth
product
ANSWER: D

cut-off current
ANSWER: C
211.

219.

2.5

The current gain of a transistor decreases

as the operating frequency increases. As
the operating frequency is increased
continuously, a point occurs where the
current gain becomes unity. This point, is
best described by what transistor
parameter?

Has larger current gain

Has larger voltage gain

ANSWER: B

350
ANSWER: A

1.0 A

The most correct technical term of the

reverse leakage current that flows between
the collector and base junctions when the
emitter is open circuited.

A.
B.
C.
D.

If the current-gain-bandwidth product of

transistor is 250 MHz and is operated at
100 MHz, what is the effective current gain
of the transistor?

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.01 A

10 mA
ANSWER: C
210.

A.
B.
C.
D.

V(BR)BEO

low
moderate
high

approximately equal to one (1)

ANSWER: D
229.

Common-collector has the lowest power

gain and a voltage gain of approximately
one. In contrast to this, what configuration
has the highest power gain?

A.
B.
C.
D.

common-base
common-collector
common-emitter
emitter follower

ANSWER: C
230.

D.

The output circuit is reversebiased for BJT while forward for

FET.
ANSWER: A

Which of the following transistor

characteristic curves that is most useful?

A.
B.
C.
D.

input characteristic curve

output characteristic curve

235.

transfer characteristic curve

The graph of the product of collectoremitter voltage VCE and collector current IC
in the transistor output characteristic curve.

A.
B.
C.
D.

saturation power curve

236.

breakdown curve
ANSWER: A
232.

The base of a transistor serves a purpose

to what element of the FET?

A.
B.
C.
D.

source
ground
substrate

237.

A.
B.
C.

voltage-controlled device and

current-controlled
device,
respectively
impedance transformed device
and conductance transformed
device, respectively

238.

Another difference between a BJT and a

FET with regards to its normal biasing.

A.
B.
C.

The input circuit is forwardbiased for BJT while reverse for

FET.
The input circuit is reversebiased for BJT while forward for
FET.
The output circuit is forwardbiased for BJT while reverse for
FET.

single polar
unipolar
242.

MOS-FET
IGFET

243.

voltage-

C.

voltage-controlled
source

current-

channel

D-G-S
244.

247.

depletion

245.

output characteristic curve

input characteristic curve
characteristic

In FET, the conduction path of the output

is controlled by the electric field as its
name implies. How does an electric field in
FET established?

A.

What will happen to the channel of a

JFET as current flows to it?

By the charges present at the

gate due to the reverse-biased
junction.

B.

By the application of reversebiased between the gate and

drain.

C.

By the charges produced due to

the applied potential between
drain and source VDS.

widens
narrows
skews

D.

By the charges present at each

terminal due to the applied
potential.
ANSWER: A

For a normal operation of an n-channel

JFET, how do you bias the gate-source
junction?
positive-negative respectively

248.

negative-positive respectively
forward-biased

threshold voltage

The current that flows into the channel of

a JFET when the gate-source voltage is
zero.

fieldistor
JFET
IGFET

MOSFET
ANSWER: A

saturation voltage
cut-off voltage

An early version of the field effect

transistor in which limited control of current
carriers
near
the
surface
of
a
semiconductor bar or film was obtained by
an
external
electric
field
applied
transversely.

A.
B.
C.
D.

The voltage across the gate-source

terminal of a FET that causes drain current
ID equal to zero.

high input resistance

high output resistance

ANSWER: C

transfer characteristic curve

current-voltage
curve
ANSWER: D

substrate

pinch-off voltage
ANSWER: D

high current gain

drain-source leakage current

drift
ANSWER: A

A.
B.
C.
D.

high voltage gain

drain-source cut-off current

The graph of the drain current ID versus

drain-source voltage VDS with VGS as the
parameter.

A.
B.
C.
D.

any of the above

ANSWER: B

D-S-G
S-G-D

246.

What do you call the area in a JFET

where current passes as it flows from
source (S) to drain (D).

A.
B.
C.
D.

One obvious advantage of a JFET over

BJT is its

A.
B.
C.
D.

voltage-controlled
source

drain-source saturation current

drain-source pinch-off current

ANSWER: A

nothing
ANSWER: C

JFET

S-D-G
ANSWER: C
239.

B.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Junction field effect transistor or JFET

has three terminals, which corresponds to
the E-B-C of the BJT?

A.
B.
C.
D.

A and C above are correct

ANSWER: A

voltage-

A.
B.
C.
D.

VMOS-FET
ANSWER: A

D.

234.

241.

Considered as the basic FET or the

simplest form of FET

A.
B.
C.
D.

current-controlled device and

voltage-controlled
device,
respectively

current-controlled
source

voltage-controlled
transconductance-source
ANSWER: C

polarized
ANSWER: B

What is the primary difference between

the BJT and the FET?

A.

D.

Due to the level of doping

unpolar

A.
B.
C.
D.

A BJT is a current-controlled currentsource device while JFET is a _________

device.

Because of the materials used.

The operation of BJT involves both the

flow of electrons and holes and is
therefore, considered as a bipolar device.
Unlike BJT, FETs operation involves only
either electrons or holes and is considered
as a _________ device.

A.
B.
C.
D.

gate
ANSWER: D
233.

The way FETs are constructed.

Due to the reverse-biased input

circuit of FETs
ANSWER: D

maximum power curve

minimum power curve

Field-effect transistors (FETs) offer high

input impedance than BJT. What makes
FETs have high input impedance?

A.
B.
C.
D.

all of the above

ANSWER: B
231.

240.

249.

A FET in which the gate electrode

consists of a pn junction

A.
B.
C.
D.

JFET
fieldistor
MOS-FET
IGFET

ANSWER: A
250.

B.
C.
D.

Which type of FET has the lowest input

resistance?

A.
B.
C.
D.

MOS-FET

256.

IGFET

VMOSFET
ANSWER: A
251.

fieldistor

CO2
SiO2

258.

An n-channel JFET has a drain-source

saturation current IDSS = 10 mA and a gatesource pinch-off voltage Vp = -4 V. If the
applied reverse gate-source voltage VGS =
2 V, calculate the drain current ID.
5.0 mA
10.0 mA

259.

A.
B.
C.
D.

maximum
minimum

zero
ANSWER: D
255.

The transconductance of a JFET is

defined as

A.

dID/dVGS

enhancement type

260.

264.

A.
B.
C.

depletion

pinch-off voltage
threshold voltage

269.

negative

265.

MOSFET depletion type

A.

The gate of a MOSFET is

insulated.

B.

MOSFET uses a substrate in its

construction.

C.

MOSFET can work in both

forward and reverse gatesource voltages.

Calculate the transconductance of a pchannel MOSFET enhancement type if the

gate-source voltage VGS = -8 V, threshold
voltage VT = -4 and a constant k = 0.3
mA/V2.
1.2 mS
2.4 mS
3.6 mS

7.2 mS
ANSWER: B

positive
270.

One drawback of JFET devices is the

strong dependence of the devices
parameters on the channel geometry.
Which parameter is an example of this?

A.
B.
C.
D.

The substrate used in a p-channel IGFET

enhancement type

A.
B.
C.
D.

IGFET

What is the difference between a JFET

and a MOSFET?

A.
B.
C.
D.

the same
negative

MOSFET enhancement type

D. all of the above

ANSWER: D

the same

either positive or negative as

long as it is greater
ANSWER: B

transverse

ON voltage

drain

To deplete a channel from a p-channel

IGFET depletion type, the gate voltage
should be ________ with respect to the
source.

A.
B.
C.
D.

enhancement

The amount of voltage needed at the

gate-source terminal for an enhancement
type MOSFET so that a channel can be
formed for the current to flow.

268.

gate

positive

drain (D)

all of the above

ANSWER: D

either positive or negative

ANSWER: B

break type

all of the above

ANSWER: B

IDSS

source

channel (C)

Which FET that has a substrate?

A.
B.
C.
D.

holding voltage

In an n-channel enhancement type

MOSFET, the gate voltage should be
________ with respect to the source in
order to produce or enhance a channel.

A.
B.
C.
D.

What type of MOSFET whose channel is

originally thick but narrows as the proper
gate bias is applied?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Base from Shockleys equation of a

JFET, what is the drain current when the
applied voltage VGS is exactly equal to the
pinch-off voltage Vp?

263.

depletion type

insulated type
ANSWER: B

2.5 mA

267.

channel
ANSWER: A

slab
source

trigger voltage

source (S)

substrate (SS)
ANSWER: D

The substrate of a MOSFET is usually

connected internally to

A.
B.
C.
D.

A type of MOSFET wherein originally

there is no channel between the drain and
the source

A.
B.
C.
D.

22.5 mA
ANSWER: A
254.

262.

substrate

base
ANSWER: A

mica

plastic
ANSWER: B

A.
B.
C.
D.

IGFET

In MOSFET, it is the foundation upon

which the device will be constructed and is
formed from a silicon base

A.
B.
C.
D.

What is the insulator used in most MOSFET?

A.
B.
C.
D.

253.

257.

pinch-off voltage

The base material of a MOSFET which

extends as an additional terminal

A.
B.
C.
D.

threshold voltage
ANSWER: A

MOS-FET

A and B above
ANSWER: C
252.

MOSFET (depletion type)

266.

To switch off the depletion type MOSFET,

the channel should be depleted. Depletion
of the channel is done by applying enough
voltage across the gate-source terminal.
What do you call this voltage?

A.
B.
C.
D.

MOSFET (enhancement type)

all of the above

ANSWER: D

JFET

261.

A field-effect transistor in which the gate

electrode is not a pn junction (as in the
junction field-effect transistor) but a thin
metal
film
insulated
from
the
semiconductor channel by a thin oxide film.

A.
B.
C.
D.

In order to increase further the input

resistance of a FET, its gate is insulated.
An example of this type is the

A.
B.
C.
D.

dIDSS/dVGS

dID/dVp
ANSWER: A

JFET

D. trigger voltage
ANSWER: C

dVGS/dID

n -type material

drain saturation current (IDSS)

pinch-off voltage (VP)
transconductance (gm)

all of the above

ANSWER: D

n -type material
p -type material

p+ -type material
ANSWER: A

271.

JFET cutoff frequency is dependent on

channel length by a factor of

A.

1/L

B.
C.
D.

1/L

1/L4
ANSWER: B
272.

MOSFET depletion type

278.

narrow and long

narrow and short

JFET

279.

MOSFET
IGFET

A type of FET wherein the channel is

formed in the vertical direction rather than
horizontal

A.
B.
C.
D.

MOSFET
IGFET

280.

FET

A.

A.

No stored charge and therefore

faster in switching action.

B.

A
negative
temperature
dependence of output current
which
eliminates
thermal
runaway.
High input impedance and
therefore high current gain.

B.
C.

25.0 mS

D.

5.

common collector

8.

class C

class B
class AB

class A
class B
class C

class AB
ANSWER: D
6.

What is the distinguishing feature of a

class C amplifier?

A.

Output is present for less than

180 degrees of the input signal
cycle

class AB
class B
class C

Which class of amplifiers that is intended

for pulse operation?

A.
B.
C.
D.

class B

class A

A full 360 sine-wave signal is applied as

an input to an unknown class of amplifier, if
the output delivers only a pulse of less than
180, of what class does this amplifier
belongs?

class D
ANSWER: C

class A

A class of amplifiers wherein the output

signal swings more than 180 but less than
360.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A triac is a bidirectional device.

An ohmmeter test across the

base-collector of a transistor
should show low resistance for
both polarities.

common emitter

class D
ANSWER: B

An ohmmeter test across the

base-collector terminal of a
transistor should show low
resistance in one polarity and
high resistance in the opposite
polarity.

Output is present for exactly 180

degrees of the input signal cycle

A.
B.
C.
D.

common base

An amplifier that delivers an output signal

of 180 only.

A.
B.
C.
D.

5.0 mS

An ohmmeter test across a

diode shows low resistance in
one polarity and high resistance
in the opposite polarity.

7.

class B
class C
class D

class S
ANSWER: C

class D
ANSWER: A
4.

C.

class A amplifier

If a transistor amplifier provides a 360

output signal, it is classified as

A.
B.
C.
D.

2.5 mS

In semiconductor application, which of the

following statement is not true?

class B amplifier

all of the above

ANSWER: D
3.

Output is present for the entire

signal cycle

Output is present for more than

180 degrees but less than 60
degrees of the input signal cycle
ANSWER: A

Class A amplifier can be built from what

transistor configuration?

A.
B.
C.
D.

JFET

Advantage or advantages of V-MOS over

BJT

C.

2.

B.

D.

class AB amplifier

class C amplifier
ANSWER: C

50.0 mS
ANSWER: B

V-MOSFET
ANSWER: D
276.

UJT

A junction field effect transistor has a

drain saturation current of 10 mA and a
pinch-off voltage of -4 V. Calculate the
maximum transconductance.

A.
B.
C.
D.

V-MOSFET
ANSWER: D
275.

UJTs

UPT
ANSWER: C

Which FET has a wide and short effective

channel?

A.
B.
C.
D.

FETs

BJT

What do you call an amplifier which has an

output current flowing during the whole
input current cycle?

A.
B.
C.
D.

BJTs

A monolithic semiconductor-amplifying
device in which a high-impedance GATE
electrode controls the flow of current
carriers
through
a
thin
bar
of
semiconductor called the CHANNEL.
Ohmic connections made to the ends of
the channel constitute SOURCE and
DRAIN electrodes.

A.
B.
C.
D.

wide and long

wide and short

ANSWER: D
274.

1.

all of the above

ANSWER: B

MOSFET enhancement type

Generally, MOSFET has low power

handling capability than BJT. To increase
MOSFET power, the channel should be
made

A.
B.
C.
D.

In general, which of the transistors is

particularly more useful in integrated-circuit
(IC) chips?

A.
B.
C.
D.

JFET

IGFET
ANSWER: C
273.

277.

Which FET operates as close as BJT in

terms of switching?

A.
B.
C.
D.

ANSWER: D

D. all of the above

ANSWER: D

1/L2

9.

How do you classify an amplifier used to

amplify either amplitude modulated (AM) or
frequency modulated (FM) signals?

A.
B.
C.
D.

class C
class BC
class D

class S
ANSWER: D
10. Which class of amplifiers that has the
highest efficiency?

A.
B.
C.
D.

class A
class B
class C

class D
ANSWER: D
11. What is the efficiency of a series-fed class
A amplifier?

A.
B.
C.

25%
50%
78.5%

D. above 90%
ANSWER: A
12. A class A amplifier has an efficiency of only
25%, but this can be increased if the output
is coupled with a transformer. Up to how
much is its efficiency will reach due to
coupling?

A.
B.
C.
D.

36.5%
50%
68.5%

78.5%
ANSWER: B
13. Class B amplifiers deliver an output signal
of 180 and have a maximum efficiency of

A.
B.
C.
D.

50%
68.5%
78.55

above 90%
ANSWER: C
14. Transistorized class C power amplifiers will
usually have an efficiency of

A.
B.
C.
D.

25%
33%
50%

78.5%
ANSWER: B
15. For pulse-amplification, class D amplifier is
mostly used. How efficient is a class D
amplifier?

A.
B.
C.

about 25% efficient

less efficient than class B
more efficient than class A but
less efficient than class B

D.

its efficiency reaches over 90%

ANSWER: D
16. An amplifier of class AB means its output
signal is between the output of class B and
A, such that it varies from 180 (class B) to
360 (class A). How about its efficiency?

A.

Efficiency of class AB is in
between the efficiency of class
A and B, that is from 25% 78.5%.

B.

It is always as efficient as class

A (25%).

C.

It is always as efficient as class

B (78.5%)

D.

The efficiency of class AB is the

average of the efficiencies of
both class A and class B (25% +
78.5%)/2 = 51.75%
ANSWER: A
17. Among the given amplifiers below, which is
the most efficient?

A.
B.
C.
D.

class A (series-fed)
class A (transformer-coupled)
class A (directly-coupled)

class A (capacitor-coupled)
ANSWER: B
18. In order to have the best efficiency and
stability, where at the loadline should a
solid state power amplifier be operated?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Just below the saturation point

At 1.414 times the saturation
point
Just above the saturation point

At the saturation point

ANSWER: A
19. In most transistor class A amplifiers, the
quiescent point is set at

A.
B.
C.
D.

near saturation
near cutoff
below cutoff

at the center
ANSWER: D
20. For a class B amplifier, the operating point
or Q-point is set at

A.
B.
C.
D.

the top of the load line

saturation
the center

cutoff
ANSWER: D
21. The Q-point for class A amplifier is at the
active region, while for class B it is at cutoff
region, how about for class AB?

A.
B.
C.
D.

it is slightly below saturation

it is slightly above cutoff
it is slightly above saturation

it is at the saturation region

ANSWER: B
22. Where does the Q-point of a class C
amplifier positioned?

A.
B.
C.
D.

at saturation region
at active region
at cutoff region

below cutoff region

ANSWER: D
23. The Q-point of a class D amplifier can be
set or positioned at what region in the load
line?

A.
B.
C.
D.

below saturation
above cutoff

24. Which of the amplifiers given below that is

considered as non-linear?
class B
class AB

25. Which amplifiers can be used for linear

amplification?
class A

class

28. A push-pull amplifier that uses npn and

pnp transistors to amplify the positive and
negative cycles respectively.

A.

transformer-coupled push pull

amplifier

B.

complementary-symmetry
amplifier

C.

quasi-complementary push-pull
amplifier

D.

transformer-coupled
amplifier
ANSWER: B

class

29. A push-pull amplifier that uses either npn

or pnp as its final stage. The circuit
configuration
looks
like
the
complementary-symmetry.

A.

transformer-coupled push pull

amplifier

B.

complementary-symmetry
amplifier

C.

quasi-complementary push-pull
amplifier

class B
class C

class A or B
ANSWER: D
26. What do you call an amplifier that is biased
to class C but modulates over the same
portion of the curve as if it were biased to
class B?

A.
B.
C.
D.

transformer-coupled
amplifier
ANSWER: A

class A

class C
ANSWER: D

A.
B.
C.
D.

quasi-complementary push-pull
amplifier

D.

at cutoff

any of the above

ANSWER: D

A.
B.
C.
D.

C.

class S
class D

D. feed-back pair amplifier

ANSWER: C
30. Amplifiers conversion efficiency
calculated using what formula?

A.
B.
C.
D.

are

ac-power/dc-power
ac-power/dissipated power
dc-power/ac-power

A or B are correct
ANSWER: D

class AB

class BC
ANSWER: D
27. Two class B amplifiers connected such that
one amplifies the positive cycle and the
other amplifies the remaining negative
cycle. Both output signals are then coupled
by a transformer to the load.

A.

transformer-coupled push pull

amplifier

B.

complementary-symmetry
amplifier

31. Basically, which class of amplifiers has the

least distortion?

A.
B.
C.
D.

class A
class B
class C

class D
ANSWER: A
32. A type of distortion wherein the output
signal does not have the desired linear
relation to the input.

A.

linear distortion

B.
C.
D.

nonlinear distortion
cross-over distortion

all of the above

ANSWER: B
33. Distortion that is due to the inability of an
amplifier to amplify equally well all the
frequencies present at the input signal.

A.
B.
C.
D.

nonlinear distortion
amplitude distortion
harmonic distortion

cross-over distortion
ANSWER: B
34. A nonlinear distortion in which the output
consists
of
undesired
harmonic
frequencies of the input signal.

A.
B.
C.
D.

amplitude distortion
frequency distortion
cross-over distortion

harmonic distortion
ANSWER: D
35. Calculate the 2nd harmonic distortion for an
output signal having a fundamental
amplitude of 3V and a 2nd harmonic
amplitude of 0.3V.

A.
B.
C.
D.

1.0%
10%
23.33%

43.33%
ANSWER: B
36. An amplifier has the following percent
harmonic distortions; D2=10%, D3=5% and
D4=1%. What is the amplifier % THD?

A.
B.
C.
D.

5.33%
11.22%
16.0%

22.11%
ANSWER: B
37. Which of the following refers to the gain of
a circuit?

A.
B.
C.

Input quantity of an amplifier

divided by the output quantity.
The difference between the
input voltage and the output
voltage of a circuit.
The ratio of the output quantity
to input quantity of an amplifier.

D.

The total increase in output

quality over the input quantity of
an amplifier.
ANSWER: C
38. The overall gain of an amplifier in cascade
is

A.
B.
C.
D.

the sum
the average of each
the product

100% the sum

ANSWER: C
39. If three amplifiers with a gain of 8 each are
in cascade, how much is the overall gain?

A.
B.
C.
D.

72
24
512

8
ANSWER: C
40. A multistage transistor amplifier arranged
in a conventional series manner, the output
of one stage is forward-coupled to the next
stage.

A.
B.
C.
D.

cascaded amplifier
cascoded amplifier
darlington configuration

feed-back pair configuration

ANSWER: A
41. A direct-coupled two-stage transistor
configuration wherein the output of the firs
transistor is directly coupled and amplified
by the second transistor. This configuration
gives a very high current gain.

A.
B.
C.
D.

cascade configuration
cascode configuration
darlington configuration

feed-back pair
ANSWER: C
42. A two-stage transistor amplifier in which
the output collector of the first stage
provides input to the emitter of the second
stage. The final output is then taken from
the collector of the second stage.

A.
B.
C.
D.

cascade configuration
cascode configuration
quasi-complementary
complementary amplifier

ANSWER: B

proportional to the difference between the

voltages applied to its two inputs.

43. Famous transistor amplifier configuration

designed to eliminate the so called Miller
effect.

A.
B.
C.
D.

cascode amplifier
differential amplifier

44. What are the transistor configurations used

in a cascade amplifier?

A.

common-base
emitter

and

common-

B.

common-base
collector

and

common-

C.

common-collector and commonemitter

D.

common-emitter and commonbase

ANSWER: D
45. Transistor configuration known to have a
super-beta (2).
cascade
cascode
darlington

differential
ANSWER: C
46. What is the approximate threshold voltage
between the base-emitter junction of a
silicon darlington transistor?

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.3 V
0.6 V
1.6 V

3.0 V
ANSWER: C
47. Transistor arrangement that operates like a
darlington but uses a combination of pnp
and npn transistors instead of both npn.

A.
B.
C.
D.

differential amplifier
cascode amplifier
complementary amplifier

quasi-complementary amplifier
ANSWER: A

darlington amplifier

complementary-symmetry
ANSWER: A

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

49. An amplifier having high direct-current

stability and high immunity to oscillation,
this is initially used to perform analogcomputer functions such as summing and
integrating.

A.
B.
C.
D.

cascode

feedback pair
ANSWER: D
48. An amplifier basically constructed from two
transistors
and
whose
output
is

parametric amplifier (par-amp)

instrumentation amplifier

DC-amplifier
ANSWER: A
50. One of the most versatile and widely used
electronic device in linear applications.

A.
B.
C.
D.

SCR
FET
UJT

op-amp
ANSWER: D
51. It is a very high-gain differential amplifier
with very high input impedance and very
low output impedance.

A.
B.
C.
D.

par-amp
op-amp
differential amp

complementary amp
ANSWER: B
52. What are the possible applications of
operational amplifiers (op-amps)?

A.
B.

ac and dc-amplifiers
oscillators
conditioning

and

C.

voltage-level
comparators

detectors

differential
common

operational amplifier (op-amp)

signal
and

D. all of the above

ANSWER: D
53. An operational amplifier must have at least
how many usable terminals?

A.
B.

3 terminals
5 terminals

C.
D.

8 terminals

14 terminals
ANSWER: B
54. The circuit at the input stage of operational
amplifiers

A.
B.
C.
D.

differential amplifier
cascaded amplifier
current mirror

complementary amplifier
ANSWER: A
55. An amplifier whose output is proportional to
the difference between the voltages
applied to its two inputs.

A.
B.
C.
D.

differencing
delta amp

56. In op-amps functional block diagram, what

follows the differential amplifier?
cascode-amplifier
complementary amplifier
level shifter

high gain amplifier

ANSWER: D
57. A good op-amp has a

A.
B.
C.
D.

very high input resistance

very low input resistance
very high output resistance

very low CMRR

ANSWER: A
58. Ideally, op-amps
resistance
and
resistance.

A.
B.
C.
D.

have infinite input

________
output

infinite
zero
variable

a highly stabilized
ANSWER: B
59. How does the input of an op-amp made
high?

A.

by using FETs at the input

differential stage

B.

to set and/or adjust the input

offset voltage to zero

C.

by connecting a very high

resistance in series with the
input differential stage

C.

to shift the input offset current to

zero

D.

A and B above
ANSWER: D
60. What type of amplifier commonly used at
the output stage of op-amps?

A.
B.
C.
D.

D. all of the above

ANSWER: A
65. Primarily, op-amps are operated with
bipolar power supply, however, we can
also use single polarity power supply by

A.

generating a reference voltage

above ground.

complementary amplifier

B.

darlington stage amplifier

ANSWER: C

floating the negative supply

terminal (V-) of the op-amp.

C.

simply connecting the negative

supply terminal (V-) of the opamp to ground.

differential amplifier
cascade-amplifier

differential amplifier

cascode-amp
ANSWER: A

A.
B.
C.
D.

B.

by using super beta transistor at

the input differential stage

61. The transistor configuration used at the

output complementary stage of most opamps

A.
B.
C.
D.

cascode configuration
common emitter

D.

isolating the negative supply

terminal (V-) by a capacitor.
ANSWER: A
66. Op-amps have two input terminals namely,
the inverting (-) and non-inverting (+)
inputs. What is the significance of its
name?

common collector

common base
ANSWER: C

A.

62. Why do most op-amps use a common

collector at the output stage?

A.
B.

to have a higher output power

C.

to have
distortion

to have a better frequency

response
a

low

B.

harmonic

D.

to have a very low output

resistance
ANSWER: D
63. The stage followed by the output
complementary in op-amps functional
block diagram.

A.
B.
C.
D.

level shifter
phase shifter
current mirror

polarizer
ANSWER: A
64. What is the purpose of a level shifter in opamps?

A.

C.

to set and/or adjust the output

voltage to zero when the input
signal is zero

If a sine-wave is applied to the

inverting (-) input, the output will
be inverted or shifted by 180,
while if applied to the noninverting (+) there will be no
phase shift at the output.
If pulses are applied to the
inverting (-) input, the positive
pulse becomes negative at the
output and vice versa, while if
applied at the non-inverting (+)
there will be no reversal of the
pulse at the output.
In dc amplifier applications,
increasing input at the inverting
(-) terminal causes the output to
decrease and vice versa, while
at the non-inverting (+) input,
the output magnitude goes with
the input.

D.

all of these are correct

ANSWER: D
67. When the same signal is applied to both
inverting and non-inverting input terminals
of an ideal op-amp, the output voltage
would be

A.
B.

zero (0) V
+VSAT

C.
D.

VSAT

offset voltage
ANSWER: A
68. The operating mode of an op-amp, when
both inputs are tied together or when the
input signal is common to both inputs.

A.
B.
C.
D.

differential mode
rejection mode
double-ended mode

common mode
ANSWER: D
69. What do you call of the gain of an op-amp
if operated in common mode input?

A.
B.
C.
D.

differential gain
common gain
double-ended gain

rejection gain
ANSWER: B
70. When one input of the op-amp is
connected to ground and the other is to the
signal source, its operation is called

A.
B.
C.
D.

single-ended output
double-ended output
single-ended input

double-ended input
ANSWER: C
71. If op-amps are operated in differential
mode, its gain is technically termed as

A.
B.
C.
D.

common-mode differential gain

differential gain
open-loop gain

closed-loop gain
ANSWER: B
72. In op-amps, which gain is the highest?

A.
B.
C.
D.

common-mode gain
differential gain
closed-loop gain

open-loop gain
ANSWER: D
73. The ratio of the differential gain and
common gain of an op-amp

A.
B.
C.

differential-common mode ratio

common-mode ratio
differential-mode rejection ratio

D. common-mode rejection ratio

ANSWER: D
74. An operational amplifier has a commonmode voltage gain of 10 and a differentialmode voltage gain of 20,000, calculate its
common-mode rejection ratio (CMRR).

A.
B.
C.
D.

200
2,000
20,000

200,000
ANSWER: B
75. Calculate the CMRR of an op-amp having
a common-mode gain of 10 and a
differential-mode gain of 100,000.

A.
B.
C.
D.

1000 dB
100 dB
80 dB

40 dB
ANSWER: C
76. The non-inverting and inverting inputs of
an op-amp have an input voltage of 1.5 mV
and 1.0 mV, respectively. If the op-amp
has a common-mode voltage gain of 10
and a differential-mode gain of 10,000,
what is its output voltage?

A.
B.
C.
D.

5.0 V
5.0125 mV
5.0125 V

25.0125 V
ANSWER: C
77. What is the maximum output voltage swing
of an op-amp?

A.
B.
C.
D.

+V to -V (supply voltage)
+VSAT to -VSAT
+V to -V

depends on the input signal

ANSWER: B
78. The A741 op-amp has a CMRR of 90dB
and
a
differential-mode
voltage
amplification of 200,000.What is the opamps common-mode voltage gain?

A.
B.
C.
D.

31,622.778
632.40
6.324

0.158
ANSWER: C

79. The current needed at the input of an opamp to operate it normally

A.
B.
C.
D.

input bias current

input offset current
input threshold current

input holding current

ANSWER: A
80. Ideal op-amp requires no input current, but
real op-amp needs a very small input
current called input bias current. At both
inputs, the bias currents have a slight
difference. What do you call this
difference?

A.
B.
C.
D.

differential input current

differential bias
input offset difference

input offset current

ANSWER: D
81. The change in input offset current due to
temperature change

A.
B.
C.
D.

delta input offset current

slew rate
input offset current drift

PSRR
ANSWER: C
82. The reason why a slight difference
between the input bias current occurs in
op-amps is due to the unsymmetrical
circuit component parameters. This
unsymmetrical condition also produces a
difference in input voltage called what?

A.
B.
C.
D.

drift voltage
differential voltage
input offset voltage

input threshold voltage

ANSWER: C
83. As electronic circuit operates, its operating
temperature changes which causes device
parameters to change. In op-amps, what
do you call the change in input offset
voltage due to the change in temperature?

A.
B.
C.
D.

input differential drift

input offset voltage drift
slew rate

PSRR
ANSWER: B

84. It is known through experiment that the

input bias currents at the non-inverting
(IB+) and inverting (IB-) inputs of a certain
op-amp is 100 nA and 80 nA, respectively.
Determine the op-amps input offset
current.

A.
B.
C.
D.

-20 nA
20 nA
90 nA

180 nA
ANSWER: B
85. Ideally, the output voltage of an op-amp is
zero when there is no input signal,
however, in practical circuits, a small
output voltage appears, this voltage is
known as

A.
B.
C.
D.

minimum output voltage

pinch-off voltage
output offset voltage

saturation voltage
ANSWER: C
86. The output offset voltage of an op-amp is
(are) due to

A.
B.
C.
D.

input offset current

input offset voltage
voltage and current drift

ANSWER: D
89. The output offset voltage of an op-amp is
due to the input offset current and voltage.
If 1 mV is due to the input offset current
and 22 mV due to the input offset voltage,
what is the total output offset voltage of the
op-amp?

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

10.0 mV

100.0 mV
ANSWER: B
88. An op-amp inverting amplifier uses a
feedback resistor of 100 k and input
resistor of 10 k. If the op-amps input
offset voltage is 2.0 mV, approximate the
amplifier output offset voltage due to this
input offset voltage.

A.
B.
C.
D.

10 mV
11 mV
20 mV
22 mV

23 mV

90. How will you minimize the output offset

voltage due to the input offset current of an
op-amp?

A.

by installing a bias-currentcompensating resistor

B.

by increasing the value of the

feedback resistor

C.

by decreasing the value of the

input resistor

D. B and C above
ANSWER: A
91. What is a bias-current
resistor in op-amp circuits?

compensating

A.

A resistor used to reduce the

undesired output offset voltage
due to the input offset current.

B.

A resistor connected between

the non-inverting terminal and
ground.

C.

A resistor used to balance both

input bias currents and therefore
eliminates the input offset
current.

0.1 mV
1.0 mV

22 mV

45 mV
ANSWER: C

A and B above
ANSWER: D
87. Calculate the output offset voltage of an
inverting amplifier using op-amp with an
input offset current of 10 nA. The circuit is
having an input resistance of 10 k and a
feedback resistance of 100 k.

11.5 mV

D. all of these
ANSWER: D
92. The approximate value of the bias-current
compensating resistor in op-amp circuits is

A.
B.
C.
D.

equal to the feedback resistor

equal to the input resistor
equal to the series combination
of the input and feedback
resistors

equal to the parallel combination

of the input and feedback
resistors
ANSWER: D

93. In op-amp analysis, the input offset voltage

is represented by

A.
B.
C.
D.

offset voltage of 101 mV. Calculate the

input offset voltage.

A.
B.
C.
D.

a battery
a signal generator
Thevenins voltage source

Nortons current source

ANSWER: A

0.01 mV

103.

between the inverting

ground terminal

and

A.

by reducing the value of the

feedback resistor

B.

between the non-inverting and

ground terminal

B.

by increasing the value of the

input resistor

between the inverting and noninverting terminal

C.

slew rate
response
ANSWER: D
104.

by a capacitor-compensation
technique

D.

by properly using and adjusting

the offset-null terminals
ANSWER: D

95. What is the effect of the input offset voltage

to the output voltage if the op-amp has no
feedback element?
causes the output to be always
at cutoff

A.

change
in
temperature

B.

causes the output to saturate

towards positive

component aging

C.

causes the output to saturate

towards negative

B.
C.
D.

causes the output to saturate

either towards positive or
negative
ANSWER: D

100.

A.

by
making
the
resistance small

feedback

B.

by
making
the
resistance large

feedback

C.

by making the input resistance

small

variations in supply voltage

101.

B.

Op-amps with an internal

compensating resistor to make
the output offset voltage zero.

A.
B.
C.
D.

by making the input resistance

large
ANSWER: A

input offset voltage

input offset current
slew rate

all of the above

ANSWER: C
102.

In large signal dc-amplifiers using opamp, which parameter has the least
effect on its performance?

A.

drift

110.

Op-amps with internal coupling

capacitor to block dc-voltages
and allows ac-voltages to pass.

The frequency at which the open-loop

gain of an op-amp is 0.707 times its
value at very low frequency

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.

a gain reduction by a factor of

10 per decade

B.

a gain reduction by a factor of

20 per decade

C.

a gain reduction by a factor of

10 per 10 Hz increased in
frequency

A reduction of op-amps voltage gain by

a factor of two each time the frequency
doubles.

A.
B.
C.
D.

2 dB/octave
2 dB/decade
6 dB/octave

6 dB/decade
ANSWER: C
111.

Frequency at which the voltage gain of

op-amp reduces to unity.

A.
B.
C.
D.

threshold frequency
break frequency

unity-gain frequency
cutoff frequency
bandwidth point

unity-gain bandwidth product

ANSWER: D

minimum frequency

operating frequency
ANSWER: B

diminishing factor

a gain reduction by a factor of

20 per 10 Hz increased in
frequency
ANSWER: A

Op-amps with internal active

components to make its gain
constant at the entire operating
frequency.
ANSWER: A
106.

roll-off

D.

D.

input offset current

Cutoff

What do we mean by a 20 dB/decade

roll-off?

internally

Op-amps with internal frequency

compensation
capacitor
to
prevent oscillation.

input offset voltage

Op-amp parameter(s) that is important

in large signal dc-amplification.

109.

frequency response

A.

will decrease

reduction step
ANSWER: B

drift

by

increases exponentially

The reduction of op-amps gain due to

increasing operating frequency.

A.
B.
C.
D.

frequency

input bias current

What do we mean
compensated op-amps?

C.

input bias current

all of the above

ANSWER: D

D.

97. An op-amp is wired as an inverting

amplifier with an input and feedback
resistances of 1 k and 100 k,
respectively. When the input signal is set to
zero, the output was found to have an

105.

Which op-amp parameter(s) that

normally affects its small signal dcamplification performance?

A.
B.
C.
D.

96. How can we minimize the effect of the

input offset current and input offset voltage
at the output offset voltage?

108.

slew rate
ANSWER: C

operating

all of the above

ANSWER: D

D.

and

If an op-amp is used to amplify small acsignals, what parameter you should

greatly consider to ensure better
performance?

A.
B.
C.
D.

99. What cause(s) the well-adjusted output

offset voltage of op-amps to change?

A.

drift and slew rate

also increases

decreases exponentially
ANSWER: C

input offset current and voltage

input bias current and voltage

What will happen to the voltage gain of

op-amp when its operating frequency is
increased?

A.
B.
C.
D.

For ac-amplifiers using op-amps what

parameters can affect its performance.

A.
B.
C.
D.

98. What is the most effective way of

minimizing the output offset voltage of an
op-amp?

D. either B and C above

ANSWER: B

input offset voltage

1.0 mV

A.

C.

107.

slew rate

input offset current

ANSWER: A

0.1 mV

10.0 mV
ANSWER: C

94. The battery representing the input offset

voltage in op-amp circuit analysis is
connected where?

B.
C.
D.

112.

The low and high cutoff frequencies of

an amplifier is also called

A.

corner frequencies

B.
C.
D.

0.707 frequencies

118.

3-dB frequencies

all of these are correct

ANSWER: D
113.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Calculate the cutoff frequency (fc)of an

op-amp having a unity-gain bandwidth
product B1 = 1 MHz and a open-loop
voltage gain AOL = 100,000.

A.
B.
C.
D.

20 Hz
100 Hz

1.0 MHz
1.167 MHz

120.

1% - 99%
5% - 95%

121.

10% - 90%
ANSWER: D
116.

The maximum output voltage rate of

change of an op-amp.

A.
B.
C.
D.

rise time
maximum voltage swing
differential rate

Factor(s)
or
parameter(s)
that
determine(s) the op-amps maximum
operating temperature

A.
B.
C.
D.

125.

slew rate

V+ > V-

123.

uses an inductor as its feedback

element

129.

V- = V+

126.

130.

a capacitor

127.

regenerative comparator
parallel comparator

131.

differential closed loop gain

An op-amp zero-crossing
without hysteresis,

detector

unity
Rf/Ri

4.0 mV

132.

10
100

CMRR

hash
interference

Which of the following of the resistor

combinations that provides lesser noise
in op-amp circuits?

A.

Make both the feedback and

input resistances as large as
possible

B.

Make the feedback as large as

possible, while the input as low
as possible.

C.

Make the feedback as low as

possible, while the input as
large as possible.

11

The gain of an inverting amplifier is

determined by the ratio of the feedback
and input resistors (Rf/Ri), meaning we
can select any value of resistors as long
as its ratio is the same. What op-amp
parameter that helps us determine the
appropriate values of these resistors?

noise

all of the above

ANSWER: D

1 + Rf/Ri

Calculate the closed-loop voltage gain

of an inverting amplifier having a
feedback and an input resistance of 100
k and 10 k, respectively.

A.

3.5 mV

The random voltage at the output of an

op-amp which could occupy the entire
bandwidth.

A.
B.
C.
D.

110
ANSWER: A
128.

2.5 mV

inductor

open-loop gain
common gain

1 + Rf/Ri

5.0 mV
ANSWER: D

capacitor

The voltage gain of an op-amp voltage

follower.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Rf/Ri

A unity-gain summing amplifier has

three inputs, V1 = 1.0 mV, V2 = 1.5 mV,
and V3 = 2.5 mV, calculate the total
output voltage.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Resistor

depends on the type of op-amp

ANSWER: A

analog comparator

equal to the open loop gain

equal to the common gain

ANSWER: C

An active integrator uses an op-amp,

what is its feedback element?

A.
B.
C.
D.

SR

What is the noise gain of op-amps?

A.
B.
C.
D.

a resistor
an inductor

PSRR

input bias current

ANSWER: D

The feedback element of a differentiator

constructed from op-amp is

RC network
ANSWER: B

V- > V+

closed loop gain

ANSWER: A

unity-gain bandwidth product

C.

A.
B.
C.
D.

What gain is significant when an op-amp

is used as a voltage comparator?

A.
B.
C.
D.

PSRR

B and C above
ANSWER: D

1.0 V/sec

window comparator
ANSWER: D
122.

uses a capacitor as its feedback

element

B.
C.
D.

an RC network
ANSWER: A

0.5 V/sec

Two comparators using op-amps,

configured such that it can detect
voltage levels within a certain range of
values rather than simply comparing
whether a voltage is above or below a
certain reference.

A.
B.
C.
D.

slew rate
ANSWER: D
117.

0.1 V/sec

V- and V+ are both zero

ANSWER: A

0% - 100%

B.

A.
B.
C.
D.

When an op-amp is used as a

comparator, the output voltage would be
+VSAT if

A.
B.
C.
D.

uses a resistor as its feedback

element

has no feedback
ANSWER: D

6.28 V/sec
ANSWER: C

0.857 MHz

A.

D.

What must be the slew rate of an opamp to be used in order to provide an

undistorted output voltage of .10 V ac a
frequency of 100,000 rad/sec?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Rise time is defined as the time required

for the output voltage to rise from
_______ to ________ of its final value.

A.
B.
C.
D.

100 kHz

124.
119.

2.334 MHz
ANSWER: C
115.

32 kHz

10 Hz

An op-amp has a specified transient

response rise time of 0.3 s, calculate
its unity-gain bandwidth.

A.
B.
C.
D.

16 kHz

1 MHz
ANSWER: A

200 Hz
ANSWER: A
114.

What is the maximum signal frequency

that can be used in an op-amp having a
specified slew rate of 0.5 V/sec? The
maximum output voltage desired is 5 V.

D.

Make the feedback and input

resistances
as
small
as
possible.
ANSWER: D
133.

In most ac-amplifiers using op-amps,

the feedback resistor is shunted with a
very small capacitance, what is its
purpose?

A.
B.
C.

to improve stability
to minimize
noise

high

D.

to
compensate
frequency loss
ANSWER: C
134.

138.

to prevent oscillation

high

139.

unity (1)
four (4)

six (6)
ANSWER: D
135.

Op-amps with internal frequency

compensation are very stable with
respect to signal frequencies. However,
the trade-off for frequency stability is
(are)

A.
B.
C.

limited small-signal bandwidth

frequency

D.

all of these
ANSWER: D
136.

What do we mean by
compensated op-amps?

A.
B.
C.

C.

op-amps that
application

has

unlimited

145.

141.

146.

high-stability op-amps

op-amps with provision to

externally
compensate
for
frequency stability
op-amps
whose
gain
externally compensated

142.

What is true about the external

frequency-compensation capacitor?

A.

the higher its value, the wider is

its bandwidth

B.

the lower its value, the wider is

its bandwidth

C.

the higher its value, the faster its

slew rate

for high-output current

147.

for high-frequency

0.2 mV

148.

2.0 mV
2.5 mV

Op-amps whose internal transistor

biasing can be controlled externally are
categorize as

A.

general purpose op-amps

8-pin DIP

151.

SMT

DIL

package

is

It must have a positive feedback

sufficient to overcome losses

TO-91
TO-116

152.

Source of energy that supply the

losses in tank circuit.

B.
C.

A resistor IC combination circuit.

Resonant circuit consist of
inductance and capacitance.

Circuits that produces alternating or

pulsating current or voltage.
Damper
Generator
oscillator

What do you call the oscillator circuit

that uses a tapped coli in the tuned
circuit?
Pierce
Colpitts
Hartley

Ultraudion
ANSWER: C

14-pin DIL
153.

What
determines
the
frequency of a crystal?

A.
B.
C.

PLCCs

resonant

external components
the temperature of the crystal
the size and thickness of the
crystal material

D. the hermitic seal

ANSWER: C

SOICs
LCCCs

Which condition must exist for a circuit

to oscillate?

A.

A.
B.
C.
D.

metal can
SMT

Which of the following is not an

essential part of an oscillator?

mixer
ANSWER: C

TO-99

all of the above

ANSWER: D
149.

C.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Example(s)
of
surface-mounted
technology (SMT) devices.

A.
B.
C.
D.

It must have a gain of less than

1

D. Regenerative feedback circuit.

ANSWER: B

metal can

flat-pack
ANSWER: C

5.0 mV
ANSWER: A
143.

input bias current

For high density ICs involving many opamps, what packaging is suitable?

A.
B.
C.
D.

The magnitude of the op-amps input

offset voltage before it can be classified
as a low-input offset voltage op-amp

A.
B.
C.
D.

150.

unity-gain bandwidth

TO-220
ANSWER: C

A and B above
ANSWER: D

is

A and B above
ANSWER: D

for high-output voltage

B.

open-loop gain and slew rate

Dual-in-line or
designated as

A.
B.
C.
D.

It must have a negative

feedback sufficient to cancel the
input

D. It must be neutralized
ANSWER: C

all of the above

ANSWER: A

general purpose op-amps

Generally, where does hybrid op-amps

found its application?

A.
B.
C.
D.

op-

The most popular op-amp packages are

the metal can, 8-pin DIP, and the SMT.
Which of these corresponds to TO-99?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Op-amps designed to operate at high

slew rate, about 2000 V/sec and at
high frequencies, more than 50 MHz.
high power op-amps

compensated

all of the above

ANSWER: D

externally

op-amps
with
frequencycompensation terminals

D. A and C above
ANSWER: B

op-amps with slew rate about

0.5 V/sec

A.

variable op-amps

What op-amp parameter(s) that can be

governed by the bias control in a
programmable op-amp?

A.
B.
C.
D.

op-amps with limited unity-gain

bandwidth up to approximately 1
MHz

high-frequency, high-slew rate

op-amps
ANSWER: D

D.

137.

144.

B.

A.
B.
C.
D.

slow slew rate

limited open-loop
response

0.3 - 3.0 F

D. A and B above
ANSWER: D
140.

programmable op-amps

externally
amps
ANSWER: B

30 - 300 nF

What do we mean by a general-purpose

op-amps?

A.

two (2)

B.
C.
D.

3 - 30 nF

3.0 - 30 F
ANSWER: D

Approximate the noise gain of an

inverting adder using op-amps if it has
five inputs.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

frequency
for

Typical value of the external frequencycompensating capacitor of op-amps.

154.

Type of oscillator whose frequency is

dependent on the charge and discharge
of RC networks.

A.
B.

Hartley oscillator
Copitts oscillator

C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Relaxation oscillator

Klystron oscillator
ANSWER: C
155.

Hartley oscillator
Copitts oscillator

161.

Relaxation oscillator

A self-excited oscillator in which the tank

is divided into input and feedback
portions by a capacitive voltage divider.

A.
B.
C.
D.

162.

Klystron oscillator
ANSWER: B
157.

A self-excited oscillator in which the tank

is divided into input and feedback
portions by an inductive voltage divider
or a tapped coil.

A.
B.
C.
D.

163.

Copitts oscillator
Relaxation oscillator

A circuit usually containing two

transistors or tubes in an RC-coupled
amplifier, the two active devices switch
each other alternately on and off.

A.
B.
C.
D.

159.

3.

astable

Monostable multivibrator

4.

165.

5.

A.
B.
C.
D.

monostable
astable

bistable
astable

unstable
ANSWER: C

bistable

1.

A device that transforms chemical energy

into electrical energy

A.

secondary battery

a secondary cell
a storage cell
an accumulator

nickel-cadmium cell
secondary cell
primary cell

lead-acid wet cell

ANSWER: C

free-running

monostable

Edison cell

What type of cell that cannot be recharged

which cannot restore chemical reaction?

A.
B.
C.
D.

astable

as

dry cell

all of the above

ANSWER: D

_______

bistable

Considered
multivibrator

Leclanche cell

If a cell can be charged after it is depleted,

it is considered as

A.
B.
C.
D.

astable multivibrator

Monostable

converter

lead-acid cell
ANSWER: C

bistable multivibrator

battery

6.

A cell whose chemical reaction is not

reversible

A.
B.
C.
D.

primary cell
secondary cell
rechargeable cell

solar cell
ANSWER: A

A voltage source in a single container

made from one or more cells combines in
series, parallel, or series-parallel.

A.
B.
C.
D.

photoelectric
thermocouple
battery

piezo-electric
ANSWER: C

generator

A secondary cell whose active positive

plate consists of nickel hydroxide, and
active negative-plate material is powdered
iron oxide mixed with cadmium. Its typical
output when fully charged is VO = 1.2V

A.
B.
C.
D.

unstable
ANSWER: B

Oscillator

Monostable multivibrator is also known

as

capacitor

bistable

actually

battery

8.

A battery means

A.
B.
C.

cell
ANSWER: D

monostable

Flip-flop is
multivibrator.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Signal generator

tristate
ANSWER: A
160.

164.

A multivibrator that generates one

output pulse for each input trigger pulse.

A.
B.
C.
D.

inductor combinations

unstable multivibrator
ANSWER: B

Multivibrator

Thyristor
ANSWER: A

capacitor combinations

Is also known as Eccles/Jordan circuit

A.
B.
C.
D.

Hartley oscillator

7.

A device that is capable of converting

chemical energy into electrical energy

A.
B.
C.
D.

unstable
ANSWER: B

Klystron oscillator
ANSWER: A
158.

2.

A multivibrator having two stable state

A.
B.
C.
D.

Relaxation oscillator

cell

primary battery
ANSWER: B

resistor combinations

resistor
and
combinations
ANSWER: D

Hartley capacitor
Copitts oscillator

direct shot

What determines the pulse time in a

monostable multivibrator?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Klystron oscillator
ANSWER: D
156.

single shot

one shot or single shot

ANSWER: D

A microwave oscillator

A.
B.
C.
D.

B.
C.
D.

one shot

cells connected in series

cells connected in parallel
cells connected
parallel

in

series-

D. all of the above

ANSWER: D
9.

A battery is used to

A.
B.
C.
D.

supply a steady dc voltage

supply an unstable dc voltage
supply an ac voltage

supply an ac/dc voltage

ANSWER: A
10. In a dry cell, what will happen to the
internal resistance as it aged?

A.
B.
C.
D.

decreases
increases
remains constant

decreases
or
increases,
depends on the chemical
composition
ANSWER: B
11. The maximum current a cell can deliver
through a 0.01 ohm load during testing

A.
B.
C.
D.

flash current
surge current
ideal current

full-load current
ANSWER: A
12. In batteries, the material used to insulate
the positive plates from negative plates are
technically called

A.
B.
C.
D.

insulator
break-point
coupler

separator
ANSWER: D

ANSWER: D
13. How long will a battery need to operate a
240 Watts equipment, whose capacity is
100Ah and 24 volts rating?

A.
B.
C.
D.

5 hrs
10 hrs
1 hr

0.10 hr
ANSWER: B
14. A battery is rated 20 A-hr and is delivering
a current of 2A. How long does it last?

A.
B.
C.
D.

1 hr
5 hrs
8 hrs

10 hrs
ANSWER: D
15. A primary cell with carbon and zinc as its
positive
and
negative
electrodes
respectively, and an electrolyte of either a
gel or paste. This is commonly known as
dry cell.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Leclanche cell
Edison cell
storage cell

solar cell
ANSWER: A
16. Find the output of a four (4) lead acid cells.

A.
B.
C.
D.

3.2 V
8.4 V
5.8 V

12 V
ANSWER: B
17. Silver-cadmium cell has a nominal opencircuit voltage of

A.
B.
C.
D.

1.05 V
1.5 V
2.1 V

2.2 V
ANSWER: A
18. Output of six carbon-zinc cells connected
in series

A.
B.
C.
D.

3V
6V
6.6 V
9V

19. The flat 9-V battery, has how many cells in

series?

A.
B.
C.
D.

3
4
6

9
ANSWER: C
20. Output of automotive battery with six leadacid cells in series

A.
B.
C.
D.

6V
12V
24V

48V
ANSWER: B
21. Substance, which generates a voltage
when exposed to light.

A.
B.
C.
D.

generating substance
photovoltaic material

22. A cell whose voltage is generated as a

function of light
photovoltaic cell
thermoelectric cell
photodiode

LED
ANSWER: A
23. Substance used in photovoltaic cells

A.
B.
C.
D.

Silicon
Selenium
Germanium

All of these
ANSWER: D
24. A junction between two conductors that
exhibits electrical characteristics under
condition of changing temperature

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

pn junction
photojunction
thermoelectric junction

hydroelectric junction
ANSWER: C

thermodynamics
thermojunction
electric heater

thermoelectricity
ANSWER: D
26. The source of mechanical power to turn
the rotors of alternators, large and small,
A.C. and D.C.

A.
B.
C.
D.

prime contactor
primer
prime mover

prime user
ANSWER: C
27. Electrical machines refer to machines that
convert ________

A.
B.
C.

thermoelectric generator

hydroelectric generator
ANSWER: B

A.
B.
C.
D.

25. Electricity that is generated due to heat, as

in thermocouple.

mechanical to electrical energy

electrical to mechanical energy
electrical energy of one form to
electrical energy of another form

D. all of the above

ANSWER: D
28. Electrical
machines
that
convert
mechanical energy to electrical energy.

A.
B.
C.
D.

generators
motors
cycloconverters

frequency converters
ANSWER: A
29. Electrical machine that converts ac voltage
to dc voltage, or vice versa.

A.
B.
C.
D.

generator
motor
rotary converter

frequency converter
ANSWER: C
30. Electrical machine that changes ac voltage
at one frequency to another ac voltage at
another frequency.

A.
B.
C.
D.

generator
motor
rotary converter

frequency converter
ANSWER: D

31. It consist of a single coil rotated in a

magnetic field and produces an A.C.
voltage.

A.
B.
C.
D.

field winding
armature
commutator

elementary generator
ANSWER: D
32. Generation of voltage in a generator can
only happen when?

A.
B.

there is a rotary conductor

C.

there is a relative motion

between conducting wires and
magnetic lines of force

D.

relative motion
conductor and

there is a magnetic field in a

conductor

there is a
between a
electric field
ANSWER: C

33. Two essential parts in rotating generators

A.

electro/permanent magnets and

armature winding

B.

electromagnets or permanent
magnets and commutator

C.

commutator
winding

and

armature

D. brushes and commutator

ANSWER: A
34. In electrical machines, what do you call the
set of conductors wound on laminated
cores of good magnetic permeability?

A.
B.
C.
D.

armature core
armature winding
rotary winding

rotary core
ANSWER: B
35. In dc generator, what
alternating emf to DC?

A.
B.
C.
D.

armature
commutator
diode

alternator
ANSWER: B
36. Generally, in dc generators

converts

the

A.

B.

C.

The armature winding is rotated

with respect to a stationary
magnetic field produced by
electromagnets or permanent
magnets.
The
electromagnets
or
permanent magnets (magnetic
fields) are rotated with respect
to the stationary armature
winding.
Current is sent into the armature
winding; or the armature
winding is usually placed in a
stationary laminated iron core
and the rotating element may or
may not be a set of magnet
poles, it depends on the type of
motor.

D.

The
armature
winding
is
supplied with current; or the
armature is placed inside a set
of radially supported magnetic
poles.
ANSWER: A
37. In electrical machines, what type of voltage
is generated at the armature winding?

A.
B.
C.
D.

dc
pulsating dc
ac

ac or dc depending on the type

of machine
ANSWER: C
38. Generally in ac generators

A.
B.

C.

D.

The armature winding is rotated

by a stationary magnetic field
produced by electromagnets or
permanent magnets.
Current is sent into the armature
winding; or the armature
winding is usually placed in a
stationary laminated iron core
and the rotating element may or
may not be a set of magnet
poles, it depends on the type of
motor.
The
electromagnets
or
permanent magnets (magnetic
fields) are rotated with respect
to the stationary armature
winding.
The
armature
winding
is
supplied with current; or the
armature is placed inside a set

of radially supported magnetic

poles.
ANSWER: C
39. A dc generator whose excitation is
produced by a winding connected to its
own positive and negative terminals.

A.
B.

series generator

C.
D.

self-excited shunt generator

separately
generator

excited

shunt

compound generator
ANSWER: C
40. What is true about field poles in electric
machines?

A.

there are always even number

of them (exist by pair)

B.

there are always an odd number

of them

C.

there are an even or an odd

number of them

D.

none of the above

ANSWER: A
41. In a compound generator, which field
winding usually, has a lower resistance?

A.
B.
C.
D.

series field winding

A.
B.
C.
D.

to reduce eddy current

to avoid contaminants
to provide isolation

to beautify the machine

ANSWER: A
45. An alternator with a lagging power factor of
0.8 will have a ________ voltage
regulation at unity power factor.

A.
B.
C.
D.

0%
less than
greater than

100%
ANSWER: C
46. With alternators connected in parallel, the
frequency of the system can be changed
by

A.
B.
C.

increasing the field excitation

decreasing the field excitation
changing the rpm of the prime
movers

D. synchronizing the prime movers

ANSWER: C
47. With alternators connected in parallel, the
voltage of the system can be changed by
changing the field excitation

armature winding

A.
B.

excitation winding
ANSWER: A

C.

changing the rpm of the prime

movers

shunt field winding

42. Which winding in a dc-compound

generator that is relatively made of fine
wires?

A.
B.
C.
D.

armature winding
excitation winding
shunt field winding

series field winding

ANSWER: C
43. What important characteristic you should
consider in choosing a dc-generator?

A.
B.
C.
D.

voltage capacity
current capacity
voltage vs. load

power rating
ANSWER: C
44. What is the purpose of laminating the field
poles and armature of a dc machine?

increasing the speed of the

prime movers

D. synchronizing the prime movers

ANSWER: A
48. If an ac generator is to be driven from
prime mover having variable speed, such
as aircraft engine, a ________ must be
used.

A.
B.
C.
D.

constant speed drive (CSD)

regulator
conditioner

peak limited
ANSWER: A
49. Find the frequency in kilocycles per second
in the armature of a 10 pole, 1,200 rpm
generator.

A.
B.

100
1000

C.
D.

10

0.1
ANSWER: D
50. What should be the speed of a 6-pole ac
generator in order to have a frequency of
50Hz?

A.
B.
C.
D.

100 rpm
500 rpm
1000 rpm

1500 rpm
ANSWER: C
51. What is the voltage regulation when the full
load voltage is the same as no-load
voltage assuming a perfect voltage
source?

A.
B.
C.
D.

100%
1%
10%

0%
ANSWER: D
52. Calculate the voltage regulation of a
generator having a no-load voltage of 220
V and a full load voltage of 180 V.

A.
B.
C.
D.

18%
22%
28%

32%
ANSWER: B
53. Usually used to drive low-speed alternators

A.
B.
C.
D.

diesel engines
jet propulsion engines
steam turbines

hydraulic turbines
ANSWER: D
54. Is usually
alternators

A.
B.
C.
D.

used

to

drive

high-speed

diesel engines
pneumatic engines
steam turbines

hydraulic turbines
ANSWER: C
55. Which statement
alternators?

is

true

regarding

A.

high-speed
alternators
smaller than low-speed

are

B.

low-speed
alternators
smaller than high-speed

are

C.

high-power
alternators
smaller than low-power

are

high-voltage alternators
smaller than low-voltage
ANSWER: A

are

D.

56. For what reason, why carbon brushes are

widely used dc machines?

A.
B.
C.
D.

it is abundant
it is cheap
it has a high voltage drop

it lubricates and polishes the

contacts
ANSWER: D
57. Alternators have less chance to hunt if
driven by

A.
B.
C.
D.

steam turbines
hydroturbines
diesel turbines

nuclear reactor
ANSWER: A
58. In alternators, what is the purpose of
damper windings?

A.
B.
C.
D.

ANSWER: C
61. Description used for generators trying to
self-adjust its parameters before paralleling
with on line generators.

A.
B.
C.
D.

62. In changing power from one generator to

another, what do you call the operational
sequence wherein the incoming generator
is connected first before removing the
existing generator?
No Break
(NBPT)

B.
C.
D.

UPS

on-line operation
series operation
cascaded operation

parallel operation
ANSWER: D
60. In paralleling ac generators, ________ is
very important.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Transfer

LIFO

63. What do you mean by break power

transfer?

A.
B.
C.

it protects overloading
ANSWER: C

A.
B.
C.
D.

Power

Standby Power transfer

ANSWER: A

it maintain constant speed

59. What term applies to the use of two or

more generators to supply a common
load?

jogging

A.

The incoming generator will be

connected first to the bus bar
before
disconnecting
the
existing generator.
The present on-line generator
will be disconnected first before
connecting
the
incoming
generator.
The incoming generator will only
be connected to the bus bar
when the bus bar breaks.

D.

The present on-line generator

will be disconnected first and
then reconnected together with
the incoming generator.
ANSWER: B
64. How alternators rated?

A.
B.
C.
D.

in Watts
in kW
in kVar

in kVA
ANSWER: C

voltage level
current level
phase angle
internal resistance

65. In electrical power distribution, what do you

call the first distribution line from the main
generating station?

A.

primary distribution lines

sub transmission lines

secondary distribution lines

ANSWER: A
66. The lines which carry the energy from the
transformer to a customers services are
called ________.

sequencing

alighning
ANSWER: C

it prevents over speeding

it prevents hunting

synchronizing

B.
C.
D.

main transmission lines

A.
B.
C.
D.

main transmission lines

primary distribution lines

A.

uses a dc-generator to supply

dc-excitation to the rotating field

B.
C.
D.

uses pulsating dc

has an ac or dc depending on
the type of machine
ANSWER: A
72. Generally in dc motors

A.

the armature winding is rotated

by a stationary magnetic field
produced by electromagnets or
permanent magnets.

B.

current is sent into the armature

winding; or the armature
winding is usually placed in a
stationary laminated iron core
and the rotating element may or
may not be a set of magnet
poles, it depends on the type of
motor.

C.

the
electromagnets
or
permanent magnets (magnetic
fields) are rotated with respect
to the stationary armature
winding.

sub transmission lines

secondary distribution lines

ANSWER: D
67. In electrical power Generating/distribution
Company, which do you think is their
highest expenses?

A.
B.

generation of power

C.
D.

power transmission

distribution of power to the

consumers

substations
ANSWER: B
68. In electrical power distributions, what
insulator is generally used?

A.
B.
C.
D.

rubber
wood
plastic

porcelain
ANSWER: D

D.

the armature winding is supplied

with current; or the armature is
placed inside a set of radially
supported magnetic poles.
ANSWER: D
73. In ac motors, generally

A.

current is sent into the armature

winding; or the armature
winding is usually placed in a
stationary laminated iron core
and the rotating element may or
may not be a set of magnet
poles, it depends on the type of
motor.

B.

the armature winding is supplied

with current; or the armature is
placed inside a set of radially
supported magnetic poles.

C.

the armature winding is rotated

by a stationary magnetic field
produced by electromagnets or
permanent magnets.

69. Electrical machines refer to machines that

convert ________

A.
B.
C.

mechanical to electrical energy

electrical to mechanical energy
electrical energy of one form to
electrical energy of another form

D. all of the above

ANSWER: D
70. Electrical machines that convert electrical
energy to mechanical energy.

A.
B.
C.
D.

generators
motors
rotary converters

frequency converters
ANSWER: B
71. Synchronous type of ac-motor,

uses alternator

D.

the
electromagnets
or
permanent magnets (magnetic
fields) are rotated with respect
to the stationary armature
winding.
ANSWER: A

74. Among the dc motors, which produces the

highest torque?

A.
B.
C.
D.

series
shunt
compound

differentially compounded
ANSWER: A
75. Dc motor that has the most stable speed.

A.
B.
C.
D.

differentially compounded
compound
shunt

series
ANSWER: C
76. In dc motors, when does severe arcing
happens?

A.
B.
C.
D.

during starting
during rated speed
during speed fluctuation

during shutdown
ANSWER: A
77. What is the primary reason why carbon
brushes are preferred over copper brushes
in dc motors?

A.
B.
C.
D.

they have low loss

they are more strong
they produce less arcing

all of the above

ANSWER: C
78. In dc motors, the emf developed which
opposes to the supplied voltage.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

induced emf
coercive emf

79. To minimize arcing during starting of dc

motors, a resistance should be added to
limit the current in the ________
series field winding
shunt field winding
armature winding

all of these
ANSWER: C

shunt

using interpoles & brush shifting

A.
B.
C.
D.

cumulatively compounded

speed

can

be

87. Considered as a variable speed motor

A.
B.
C.
D.

dc motors
ac motors
ac & dc motors

reduces
increases
becomes maximum

83. When can we get a maximum mechanical

power from a dc motor?
Eb = V
Eb = 1V

A.

directly proportional to the field

strength

B.

inversely proportional to the field

strength
to

the

D. A and C are correct

ANSWER: D
85. One causes why the shaft torque is less
than the developed armature torque of a dc
motor.
field loss
brushes loss
friction loss

A.
B.

by varying the supply voltage

C.

by
varying
resistance

by changing the effective

number of conductors in series
the

armature

D. by varying the field strength

ANSWER: D

field excitation
load
armature resistance

90. In choosing a motor for a particular

application, what characteristic you should
consider?

A.
B.
C.
D.

speed-torque
speed-armature current
speed efficiency

speed power
ANSWER: A
91. What will happen to the dc shunt motor if
the load torque greatly increases?

A.
B.

almost

remains

92. What will happen to a dc series motor

when its load is removed?

A.
B.

the motor will stop

C.
D.

the torque remains the same

the motor speed remains the

same

the motor will overspeed

ANSWER: D
93. A motor whose speed increases as the
load is increased.

supply voltage
ANSWER: B

84. The torque of a dc motor is

eddy current

shunt

88. What is the most common method used in

varying the speed of a dc motor?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Eb = 2V
ANSWER: B

A.
B.
C.
D.

differentially compounded

89. The running speed of a dc series motor is

greatly affected by what factor?

Eb = 0

directly proportional
armature current

compounded

series
ANSWER: D

becomes zero
ANSWER: C

C.

using compensatory winding

the speed
constant

D. B and C are correct

ANSWER: D

easily

82. When a dc motor has no load, what will

happen to the back emf?

A.
B.
C.
D.

using interpoles

B & C are correct

ANSWER: D

ac or dc motors
ANSWER: A

A.
B.
C.
D.

C.

86. For heavy-duty dc motor, how does the

effect of armature reaction be corrected?

81. Motors whose

controlled.

A.
B.
C.
D.

ANSWER: D

series

differentially compounded
ANSWER: A

residual emf

counter emf or back emf

ANSWER: D

A.
B.
C.
D.

80. Which dc motors whose speed is greatly

affected by a change in load? It will even
run-away if the load is removed.

the speed will decrease

there will be a great increase in
current

A.
B.
C.
D.

series dc
dc shunt
cumulatively compounded

differentially compounded
ANSWER: D
94. Factor(s) that affect iron losses in a dc
motor.

A.
B.
C.
D.

flux
speed
armature resistance and flux

A and B are correct

ANSWER: D
95. One advantage of a cumulatively
compounded motor is that it does not run
widely at light loads, this feature is due to

A.
B.
C.
D.

shunt winding
brake winding
series winding

clutch winding
ANSWER: A
96. In applications where an almost constant
speed is required, a _______ motor is a
good choice.

A.
B.
C.
D.

dc shunt
dc series
cumulatively compounded

differentially compounded
ANSWER: A
97. In applications where a high torque is
needed during starting a _______ motor is
preferred.

A.
B.
C.
D.

dc shunt
dc series
differentially compounded

cumulatively compounded
ANSWER: B
98. In applications where sudden heavy loads
happen for short duration, a _______
motor is the best choice.

A.
B.
C.
D.

dc shunt
cumulatively compounded

99. In motors of the same rating, which has the

least starting torque?
dc shunt
dc series
differentially compounded

cumulatively compounded
ANSWER: A
100. Factor(s) that affect friction and winding
loses in dc motors.

A.
B.
C.
D.

speed
armature current
interpoles

armature resistance
ANSWER: A
101. In dc motors, power loss is contributed
greatly by

A.
B.
C.
D.

flux loss
core loss
copper loss

mechanical friction
ANSWER: C
102. Dirt on the commutator may produce

A.
B.
C.
D.

isolation
excessive sparking
power loss

lower torque
ANSWER: B
103. Motor vibrations are usually caused by

A.
B.

much brush tension

worn bearings
ANSWER: D
104. When a motor is overloaded, it will usually

A.
B.
C.
D.

slow down
speed up
vibrate

overheat
ANSWER: D

dc series

differentially compounded
ANSWER: C

A.
B.
C.
D.

C.
D.

loose coupling
dirt on the commutator

105. Which motor that produces the highest

increase in torque considering the same
increase in current?

A.
B.
C.
D.

dc shunt
dc series
differentially compounded

cumulatively compounded
ANSWER: B
106. When an armature opens in dc motor, it
may cause

A.
B.
C.
D.

intermittent sparking
an increase in speed
the motor to slow down

the motor to stop rotating

ANSWER: A
107. Why do motors take large current during
starting?

A.

the armature resistance is still

low

B.
C.
D.

the field produced is still weak

it has to break the momentum

theres still a low back emf

ANSWER: D
108. In dc motors, the speed will

A.

increase with an increase in

field strength

B.

decrease with an increase in

field strength

C.

decrease as the supply voltage

is increased

D. B and C are correct

ANSWER: B
109. When armature current is increased in a dc
motor, its armature reaction will

A.

also increase

B.
C.
D.

decrease
increase exponentially

decrease exponentially
ANSWER: A
110. Why does in dc motor, brushes are
positioned such that they will be with the
direction of the rotation?

A.
B.
C.
D.

to reduce sparking
to last long
to have less loss

all of the above

ANSWER: A
111. Motors are used to convert electrical
energy to mechanical energy. What type
of motor that is best suited for heavyload application?

A.
B.
C.
D.

dc series motors
dc compound motors
single phase motors

polyphase motors
ANSWER: D
112. DC shunt motor speed can be controlled
electronically by using a _______ in
series with the armature winding.

A.
B.
C.
D.

thyrector
potentiometer
rheostat

thyristor
ANSWER: D
113. Which thyristor is commonly used is motor
speed control?

A.
B.
C.
D.

triac
diac
SCR

SUS
ANSWER: C
114. In controlling motor speed, the SCRs
controls the

A.
B.
C.
D.

number of pulses
phase angle
firing angle

any of these
ANSWER: C

115. How do you reverse the rotation of a dc

shunt motor?

A.

By reversing the direction of the

field
current,
leaving
the
armature current the same.

B.

By reversing the direction of the

armature current, leaving the
field current the same.

C.

By reversing both field and

armature current

D. Either A or B
ANSWER: D
116. In motor speed control, what is responsible
for SCR firing?

A.
B.
C.
D.

trigger circuit
threshold circuit
reference circuit

holding circuit
ANSWER: A
117. A circuit that converts ac-voltage to dcvoltage

A.
B.
C.
D.

rectifier
inverter
dc-converter

ac-converter
ANSWER: A
118. Conversion from dc-voltage to another dcvoltage requires a

A.
B.
C.
D.

inverter
cycloconverter
dc-converter

ac-converter
ANSWER: C
119. A converter that changes ac-voltage to
another ac-voltage level.

A.
B.
C.
D.

inverter
cycloconverter
dc-converter

ac-converter
ANSWER: D
120. What converter must be used if one wished
to change dc-voltage into ac-voltage?

A.
B.
C.

inverter
cycloconverter
dc-converter

D. ac-converter
ANSWER: A
121. A

127. Short-circuit test with transformers

always done on what winding?

converter that changes ac-voltage

frequency from one to another.

A.
B.
C.
D.

inverter
cycloconverter
dc-converter

122. In electronic converters, what signal is

mostly used to trigger the active device?
sine-wave
square-wave
triangular-wave

An inductance and resistance

A parallel resonant circuit
A capacitor and an inductor

Two coils wound on a common

core
ANSWER: D
124. Transformer is considered by many as an
efficient device due to the fact that
it uses an inductive coupling
it is magnetically coupled
it is a static device

125. With transformer, what is measured when

performing open-circuit test?
turns ratio
copper loss
leakage reactance

turns impedance
ANSWER: B
126. Open-circuit test with transformers
always done on what winding?

A.
B.
C.
D.

low-voltage
high-voltage
primary

secondary
ANSWER: A

increase

with

forced-air cooling
oil-cooling

130. For transformers, zero efficiency happens

when it has
no-load
1/2 of full-load

131. For transformers,

happens when

greater than that of secondary

maximum

copper loss is zero

C.

the primary and

windings are equal

efficiency

almost equal
secondary
ANSWER: D

as

that

of

A.

its magnetizing current will be

very high

B.

its core permeability will be

greatly increased

C.

its core permeability will be

greatly reduced

copper loss is equal to constant

loss
secondary

the leakage reactances of both

windings are equal
ANSWER: B
132. In constructing transformers, the primary
and secondary windings should have
good electrical coupling
loose magnetic coupling
tight magnetic coupling

A.
B.
C.

it will have a very high core loss

its impedance will decrease
its core permeability will be
greatly increased

D.

its core permeability will be

greatly reduced
ANSWER: A
137. How are the primary and secondary
coupled in autotransformers?

A.
B.
C.
D.

alternating
and

sometimes

139. What do you think will happen to a

transformer when its primary is
connected to a DC supply?

A.
B.
C.
D.

It will become more efficient

It will become less efficient
It will have good regulation

It might burn out

ANSWER: D

exactly twice that of secondary

136. What will happen if a power transformer is

to be operated at a very high frequency?

A.
B.

A.
B.
C.

less than that of the secondary

its impedance will increase

ANSWER: A

2/3 of full-load

pulsating

power and impedance

D.

D.

is

power and current

voltage per turn and ampereturns

ANSWER: D

A.
B.
C.
D.

constant

alternating
stable
ANSWER: C

power and voltage

140. Generally, in what application you consider

the use of core-type transformers?

A.
B.
C.
D.

135. At very low frequencies, transformers woks

poorly because

natural air cooling

water cooling
ANSWER: C

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

134. In transformers, the amount of copper used

in the primary is

decrease

full-load
ANSWER: A

it is electrically coupled
ANSWER: C

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

become zero

129. Cooling system for transformers

ratings less than 5kVA

123. A transformer consist of the following:

A.
B.
C.
D.

primary

not be affected
ANSWER: C

sawtooth-wave
ANSWER: B

A.
B.
C.
D.

high-voltage

128. When the transformer secondary winding

is short-circuited, its primary inductance
will

A.
B.
C.
D.

138. In a single-phase transformer, the core flux

is

D. best inductive coupling

ANSWER: C
133. What are the two parameters in
transformers that are the same in both
primary and secondary?

low-voltage

secondary
ANSWER: A

ac-converter
ANSWER: B

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

is

electrically
magnetically
electrically and magnetically

capacitively
ANSWER: C

low voltage and low current

low voltage and high current
high voltage and low current

high voltage and high current

ANSWER: C
141. In

________ transformers, when its

primary is energized the secondary
should never be open-circuited.

A.
B.
C.
D.

power
voltage
current

matching
ANSWER: C
142. Considered as an ideal transformer

A.

the one with no losses and

leakage reactance

B.
C.
D.

the one with 100% regulation

the one with zero efficiency

the one with equal primary and

secondary
ANSWER: A
143. What is the effect of air gaps at the
transformer core?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Its reluctance is decreased

It increases eddy current
It decreases hysteresis loss
It increases magnetizing current

ANSWER: D
150. What is true about core-type transformers?
144. ________ currents are wasteful currents
which flows in cores of transformers and
produces heat.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Residual
Sneak

will also increase

will become infinite

A.
B.
C.
D.

146. Leakage flux in transformers will cause

copper loss to increase
copper loss to decrease
eddy current to decrease

in

true power
reactive power
apparent power

148. In transformers, the voltage per turn at the

primary is ________ the secondary.
less than that of
greater than that of
a factor of

the same as
ANSWER: D
149. In transformer windings, the more number
of turns
the higher is the voltage
the lower is the voltage
the lower is the impedance

the higher is the current

ANSWER: A

50%
85%

to decrease eddy current loss

to increase eddy current loss
to decrease copper loss

153. Large transformers have approximately an

efficiency of

virtual power
ANSWER: C

A.
B.
C.
D.

15%

to decrease hysteresis loss

ANSWER: A

voltage drop in the windings

ANSWER: D

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

152. What is the purpose of laminating the core

of a transformer?

nothing will happen

ANSWER: D

A.
B.
C.
D.

It has a very long magnetic path

100%
ANSWER: C

will decrease

147. The increase in temperature

transformer is mainly due to

It has a longer magnetic path

151. Practically how many percent is copper

loss to the total loss in transformers?

145. What will happen to the eddy current loss

in transformers when the load is
increased?

A.
B.
C.
D.

It has a shorter magnetic path

It has an infinite magnetic path

ANSWER: A

Eddy

Magnetizing
ANSWER: B

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

25%
45%
75%

95%
ANSWER: D
154. The loss in a transformer due to the
changing field is called

A.
B.
C.
D.

leakage
hysteresis loss
eddy loss

keeper
ANSWER: B
155. The ratio of the amount of magnetic flux
linking a secondary coil compared to the
flux generated by the primary coil:

A.
B.
C.
D.

coupling factor
mutual coupling
coefficient of coupling

hysteresis factor
ANSWER: C

156. Mutual inductance between two coils can

be decreased by

A.
B.
C.
D.

moving the coils apart

inserting an iron core
moving the coils close

reducing the reluctance

ANSWER: A
157. An advantage of full-wave rectifier over
half-wave rectifier.

A.

Each diode can cool-off during

half of each input cycle

B.
C.

The ripple frequency is lower

The tube will conduct during
both halves of the input cycle

D.

Output voltage is lower with

more ripple
ANSWER: C
158. One of the following items below is not one
of the main components of an
alternating current power supply.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Power transformer
Voltage regulator
Rectifier

Filter
ANSWER: C
159. Most electronic devices/circuits require dcvoltage to operate. A battery is a good
power source, however, its operating
time is limited. The use of battery also
proves to be expensive. A more
practical alternative is to use the
household main supply, and since this is
an ac-voltage, it must be converted to a
dc-voltage. The circuit that converts this
ac-voltage to a dc-voltage is called

A.
B.
C.
D.

rectifier
clamper
filter

regulator
ANSWER: A
160. A rectifier that uses either the positive or
negative portion only of the main acsupply

A.
B.
C.
D.

half-wave
full-wave
full-wave bridge

all of the above

ANSWER: A

161. For a half-wave rectifier, the average

output voltage is _______ of the
maximum ac-voltage.

A.
B.
C.
D.

31.8%
45%
63.6%

90%
ANSWER: A
162. Percent ripple of a half-wave rectifier.

A.
B.
C.
D.

24%
48%
63.6%

121%
ANSWER: D
163. Calculate the dc-voltage at the output of a
half-wave rectifier with a 12Vrms input.

A.
B.
C.
D.

2.7 V
3.8 V
4.5 V

5.4 V
ANSWER: D
164. To double the capability of the half-wave
rectifier, a _______ must be used.

A.
B.
C.
D.

full-wave rectifier
full-wave bridge
dual-supply

A or B is correct
ANSWER: D
165. Fullwave rectifier defers from fullwave
bridge in what aspect?

A.

fullwave uses two diodes, while

four for fullwave bridge

B.

diodes PIV in fullwave is twice

that of fullwave bridge

C.

fullwave generates less heat

than fullwave bridge

D. all of the above

ANSWER: D
166. Common to both full-wave and full-wave
bridge rectifiers

A.
B.
C.

dc-voltage
ripple factor
ripple frequency and percent
ripple

D. all are correct

ANSWER: D
167. Find direct current voltage from a full-wave
rectifier with 120 V peak rectified
voltage.

A.
B.
C.
D.

60 V
7.639 V
76.39 V

6.0 V
ANSWER: C
168. The dc-voltage of a full-wave bridge
rectifier.

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.318 Vmax
0.45 Vmax
0.636 Vmax

0.90 Vmax
ANSWER: C
169. Relate the magnitude of the dc-output
voltage to the ac input rms voltage of a
full-wave rectifier.

A.
B.
C.
D.

VDC = 0.318 Vrms

VDC = 0.45 Vrms
VDC = 0.636 Vrms

VDC = 0.90 Vrms

ANSWER: D
170. Determine the dc-voltage of a full-wave
bridge rectifier when the input acvoltage is 24 Vrms.

A.
B.
C.
D.

7.63 V
10.8 V
15.3 V

21.6 V
ANSWER: D
171. Ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier.

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.318
0.48
0.9

1.21
ANSWER: B
172. To improve the dc output voltage of a
power supply, a _______

A.
B.

shunt resistor may be installed

limiting resistor may be installed

C.

feedback
installed

element

may

be

D.

filter capacitor may be installed

ANSWER: D
173. Factor(s) that can reduce the ripple voltage
of a power supply.

A.
B.
C.
D.

filter capacitance
increase in input frequency

174. Making the filter capacitor large in a power

supply results to
an increase of the ripple voltage
an increase of the dc-voltage
a decrease
frequency

of

the

ripple

D.

A and B above
ANSWER: B
175. Find the ripple factor (kr) of a sinusoidal
signal with peak ripple of 4 volts on an
average of 30.

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.094
0.130

176. Calculate the peak-to-peak ripple voltage

of a 20 V full-wave power supply with a
filter capacitor C = 220 F when
delivering a load current of 50 mA.
2.0 Vpp
3.79 Vpp
5.67 Vpp

7.9 Vpp
ANSWER: A
177. In capacitor-filtered power supply, what will
happen to the ripple voltage if the load is
disconnected?

A.
B.
C.
D.

1.44 Vrms
2.88 Vrms

3.54 Vrms
ANSWER: B
179. A 20-Vdc power supply was found to have
a ripple voltage of 2 Vrms when
supplying 1.5 amps load. Calculate its
percent ripple.

A.
B.
C.
D.

7.5 %
10.0 %
12.5 %

15.0 %
ANSWER: B
180. Which power supply filter
smallest ripple voltage?

A.
B.
C.
D.

gives

the

capacitor filter
RC-filter
LC-filter

multi-section LC-filter
ANSWER: D

increases
becomes infinite
becomes unpredictable

drops to zero
ANSWER: D

181. Ripple voltage in power supplies causes

unwanted effects on the load it is
supplying, i.e. a hum in audio amplifiers.
To minimize this effect several filtering
techniques are used, however, ripple
still exists. What is a better alternative to
reduce further the ripples?

A.
B.
C.
D.

truncation
clipping
clamping

regulation
ANSWER: D
182. A voltage regulator connected in parallel
with the load.

A.
B.
C.
D.

series regulator
parallel regulator
shunt regulator

switching regulator
ANSWER: C
183. Which regulator is the most efficient?

A.
B.

series
shunt

C.
D.

switching

modulating
ANSWER: B
184. Voltage reference element in most voltage
regulators

1.77 Vrms

0.013

0.94
ANSWER: A

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

reduction of load current

all of the above

ANSWER: D

A.
B.
C.

178. For a power supply with a peak-to-peak

ripple voltage of 5 Vpp, determine its
rms ripple.

A.
B.
C.
D.

diac
thyrector
zener diode

transistor
ANSWER: C
185. In voltage regulators, what do you call the
element/device that controls the amount
of current/voltage/power?

A.
B.
C.
D.

sampling circuit
comparator
limiter

control element
ANSWER: D
186. The element/device used as a comparator
in most voltage regulators.

A.
B.
C.
D.

zener diode
BJT
IGBT

op-amp
ANSWER: D
187. Sampling circuit used in most voltage
regulators.

A.
B.
C.
D.

voltage divider network

bleeder network
crowbar

bootstrap circuit
ANSWER: A
188. Most voltage regulators used _______ as
their control element.

A.
B.
C.
D.

BJT
SBS
UJT

JFET
ANSWER: A
189. The most efficient voltage regulator and is
therefore used in high-current highvoltage applications.

A.
B.

series regulators
shunt regulators

C.
D.

hybrid regulators

switching regulators
ANSWER: D
190. A 12 VDC power supply is regulated using
7805 IC and is used in TTL circuits that
require a 0.2 amps current. Determine
the dropout voltage of the system.

A.
B.
C.
D.

4V
5V
6V

7V
ANSWER: D
191. A load draws 1 A current from a 10-V
regulated power supply. Calculate the
power dissipated by the regulator if it
has an input voltage of 16 V.

A.
B.
C.
D.

6 Watts
10 Watts
12 Watts

16 Watts
ANSWER: A
192. Three-terminal fixed positive voltage
regulators commonly used in industry.

A.
B.
C.
D.

78XX series
79XX series
723 IC regulator

317 regulator
ANSWER: A
193. What is the regulated output voltage of a
7924 regulator?

A.
B.
C.
D.

+4V
-4V
+ 24 V

- 24 V
ANSWER: D
194. A three-terminal variable positive voltage
regulator

A.
B.
C.
D.

317
337
723

741
ANSWER: A
195. What three-terminal IC regulator that has a
variable negative voltage output?

A.
B.
C.
D.

317

196. In a three-terminal adjustable positive

voltage regulator (317), what is the
band-gap voltage between the output
terminal and adjustment terminal?
1.25 V
2.5 V
3.25 V

4.125 V
ANSWER: A
197. Typical ripple rejection of most threeterminal voltage regulators

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.1 %
0.8 %
1.2 %

2.0 %
ANSWER: A
198. The three-terminal voltage regulators, such
as the 78XX series has a typical current
rating of 1.5 amperes. If a high current is
required, say 30 amperes, how will you
make modifications from this regulator in
order to provide the required current?

A.
B.
C.
D.

by cascading them
by the use of a crowbar circuit
by connecting them in parallel

by the use of external pass

transistor
ANSWER: D
199. What is the simplest way of protecting
power
supplies
from
reversepolarity/reverse-current flow?

A.
B.
C.
D.

by a forward-biased diode
by a reverse-biased diode
by a crowbar circuit

by a snubber circuit
ANSWER: B
200. A crowbar circuit is used

A.

to monitor the temperature of a

power supply and switches the
cooling fan when a threshold
temperature is reached.

C.

as
voltage
reference
regulated power supplies.

723

741
ANSWER: B

A.
B.
C.
D.

B.

337

to monitor the output current of

a
power
supply
and
automatically shuts down the
system when an overload occur.

as an over-voltage protection in
power supplies.
ANSWER: D
201. Technique(s) in using low-power, lowvoltage transistors in high voltage
regulators.
ground return regulation

C.
D.

connecting them in series

205. Active devices used in switching regulators

may experience large over-currents
during conduction (turn-on-state) and
large over-voltages during turn-off.
These excessive currents and voltages
may cause distraction or damage of the
active devices. How do we protect
them?

A.
B.
C.
D.

by lifting the regulator above

ground

A.
B.
C.
D.

series
shunt
switching

A.
B.
C.
D.

203. In switching regulators, what are the

semiconductor devices that can be used
as controllable power switches?
BJTs and MDs
MOSFETs and IGBT
GTOs and thyristors

A.

very small off-state leakage

current and high on-state
current ratings

B.

large forward and reverse

blocking voltage and very small
on-sate voltage

by shunting a thyrector

power conditioners
UPS
power inverters

line scanning
ANSWER: A
207. A power supply that continuously provides
protection
against
undervoltage,
overvoltage and even power outages.

A.
B.
C.
D.

all of the above

ANSWER: D
204. In voltage regulators, the control element
plays a major part in providing proper
and efficient regulation. What are the
desirable characteristics of the control
element to be used if excellent regulator
is desired?

by providing a buck-boost circuit

206. One of the major concerns in power

electronics is to clean-up or shape-up
the utility-supply voltage (the wall-outlet
220 V/60 Hz) from disturbances such
as, overvolt, undervolt, voltage spikes,
and harmonic distortions. What circuit is
used for this?

UPS
ANSWER: C

A.
B.
C.
D.

by the use of a crowbar circuit

by installing a snubber circuit

ANSWER: D

all of the above

ANSWER: D
202. Which of the regulators dissipates less
power and therefore generates less
heat?

short turn-on and turn-off times

so that it can be used in highspeed switching regulators

D. all of the above

ANSWER: D

in

D.

A.
B.

C.

standby power supply

uninterruptible power supply
power conditioners

regulated power supply

ANSWER: B
1.

What is the degree of exactness of

measurement when compared to the
expected value of the variable being
measured?
A. Accuracy
B. Error
C. Deviation
D. Precision
ANSWER: A

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

The art or process of determining the

existence or knowing the magnitude of
something, directly or indirectly in terms of
a recognized standard.
A. Measurement
B. Testing
C. Recording
D. Evaluating
ANSWER: A
A procedure or sequence of operations for
determining whether a component or
equipment is functioning or working
normally.
A. Measurement
B. Test
C. Recording
D. Evaluating
ANSWER: B
In measurement, what do you call the
degree of exactness compared to the
expected value of the variable being
measured?
A. precision
B. accuracy
C. sharpness
D. correctness
ANSWER: B
A measure of consistency or repeatability
of measurements is called
A. precision
B. accuracy
C. sharpness
D. correctness
ANSWER: A
Precision is also known as
A. correctness
B. accuracy
C. sharpness
D. reproducibility
ANSWER: D
In measurements, the sum of a set of
numbers divided by the total number of
pieces of data in the given set is called
A. geometric mean
B. algebraic mean
C. arithmetic mean
D. effective value
ANSWER: C
The deviation of a reading from the
expected value
A. accuracy
B. precision
C. error

D. difference
ANSWER: C
9.

Errors due to frictions of the meter

movement, incorrect spring tension,
improper calibration or faulty instruments:
A. Observational errors
B. Environmental errors
C. Instrument errors
D. Gross errors
ANSWER: C

10. When an instrument is subjected to harsh

environments such as high temperature,
strong
magnetic,
electrostatic
or
electromagnetic field, it may have
detrimental effects and cause errors known
as
A. Observational errors
B. Environmental errors
C. Instrument errors
D. Gross errors
ANSWER: B
11. Errors introduced by the observer or user.
A. Observational errors
B. Environmental errors
C. Instrument errors
D. Gross errors
ANSWER: A
12. Errors in analog meter reading due to your
physical position with respect to the meter
scale.
A. parallax error
B. angular error
C. linear error
D. deviation
ANSWER: A
13. What do you call the difference between
any number within the set of numbers and
the arithmetic mean of that set of
numbers?
A. parallax error
B. angular error
C. linear error
D. deviation
ANSWER: D
14. An instrument or device having recognized
permanent or stable value that is used as a
reference.
A. standard instrument/device
B. reference instrument/device
C. fixed instrument/device
D. ideal instrument/device
ANSWER: A

15. The smallest change in a measured

variable to which an instrument will
respond.
A. quantize value
B. resolution
C. minimum
D. step size
ANSWER: B
16. A device or mechanism used to determine
the value of a quantity under observation.
A. measuring kit
B. evaluator
C. instrument
D. sensor
ANSWER: C
17. What is the basic unit for measuring
current flow?
A. coulomb
B. ampere
C. atomic weight
D. volt
ANSWER: B
18. An instrument used to detect and measure
the presence of electrical current is
generally called
A. DArsonval meter
B. electrodynamometer
C.
galvanometer
D. potentiometer
ANSWER: C
19. What is the common type of meter
movement?
A. Fixed coil
B. Farad
C. DArsonval
D. Digital
ANSWER: C
20. A
permanent-magnet
moving-coil
instrument.
A. induction instrument
B. DArsonval meter movement
C. moving-iron instrument
D. moving-magnet instrument
ANSWER: B
21. An instrument which depends on current in
one or more foxed-coils acting on one or
more pieces of soft iron, at least one of
which is movable.
A. moving-magnet instrument
B. moving-iron instrument
C. DArsonval meter movement
D. induction instrument
ANSWER: B

22. What is that device, which depends on the

action of a movable permanent magnet, in
aligning itself in the resultant field,
produced either by a fixed permanent
magnet and adjacent coil or coils carrying
current, or by two or more current-carrying
coils whose axes are displaced by a fixed
angle?
A. DArsonval meter movement
B. induction instrument
C. moving-magnet instrument
D. moving-iron instrument
ANSWER: C
23. What ammeter is mostly used in measuring
high-frequency currents?
A. electrostatic
B. moving-coil
C. dynamometer
D. thermocouple
ANSWER: D
24. Measurement of high dc-voltages is usually
done by using
A. Electrostatic
B. moving-coil
C. dynamometer
D. thermocouple
ANSWER: A
25. Measuring instrument that can be used
only to measure voltages.
A. electrostatic
B. thermocouple
C. dynamometer
D. permanent-magnet moving-coil
ANSWER: A
26. This instrument measures temperatures by
electric means, especially temperatures
beyond
the
range
of
mercury
thermometers.
A. pyrometer
B. electrostatic instrument
C. moving-magnet instrument
D. permanent-magnet moving-coil
instrument
ANSWER: A
27. This instrument refers to that one, which
measures the intensity of the radiation,
received from any portion of the sky.
A. megaohmmeter
B. pyranometer
C. Megger
D. galvanometer
ANSWER: B

28. What is the normal indication on a megger

(megohmmeter) when checking insulation?
A. one
B. infinity
C. middle of scale
D. zero
ANSWER: B
29. Resistance
measuring
instrument
particularly used in determining the
insulation resistance.
A. megaohmmeter
B. Megger
C. galvanometer
D. A or B are correct
ANSWER: D
30. An electrodynamic meter used to measure
power
A. hook-on type voltmeter
B. wattmeter
C. watt-hour meter
D. multi-meter
ANSWER: B
31. A device used to mechanically measure
the output power of a motor.
A. dynamometer
B. Megger
C. concentric-vane instrument
D. radial-vane instrument
ANSWER: A
32. An indicating instrument whose movable
coils rotate between two stationary coils,
usually used as wattmeter.
A. induction-type meter
B. radial-vane instrument
C. electrodynamometer
D. concentric-vane instrument
ANSWER: C
33. Dynamometers are mostly used as
A. voltmeter
B. ammeter
C. ohmmeter
D. wattmeter
ANSWER: D
34. What damping method is generally used in
dynamometers?
A. spring
B. fluid friction
C. eddy-current damping
D. air friction
ANSWER: D
35. Which dynamometer instrument has a
uniform scale?

A. voltmeter
B. ammeter
C. ohmmeter
D. wattmeter
ANSWER: D
36. For a dynamometer to be able to measure
high current, a ________ should be used.
A. shunt resistor
B. multiplier
C. CVDT
D. current transformer
ANSWER: D
37. Error in voltmeter reading is due to
A. insertion
B. loading
C. battery aging
D. conversion
ANSWER: B
38. Error in ammeter reading id due to
A. insertion
B. loading
C. battery aging
D. conversion
ANSWER: A
39. Which type of meter requires its own power
source?
A. A voltmeter
B. An ammeter
C. An ohmmeter
D. A wattmeter
ANSWER: C
40. Error in ohmmeter reading is due to
A. insertion
B. loading
C. battery aging
D. meter friction
ANSWER: C
41. Decreasing the value of the shunt resistor
of an ammeter, its current measuring
capability
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. none of the above
ANSWER: A
42. Increasing the value of the series resistor
of a voltmeter, its voltage measuring
capability
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. none of the above

ANSWER: A
43. A device that is used to measure current
without opening the circuit
A. megger test
B. clamp probe
C. ammeter
D. multi-meter
ANSWER: B
44. Which of the ammeter below that has no
insertion error?
A. DArsonval meter
B. clamp-meter
C. micrometer
D. meter with current transformer
ANSWER: B
45. To prevent damage of the multirange
ammeter during selection, a/an _______
should be used.
A. direct shunt
B. selected shunt
C. Ayrton shunt
D. shunt fuse
ANSWER: C
46. For the greatest accuracy, what should be
the input impedance of a VOM be?
A. 1,000 ohms/V
B. 50,000 ohms/V
C. as large as possible
D. as small as possible
ANSWER: C

50. In order to make an accurate measurement

as possible, the internal resistance of a
voltmeter must be
A. as high as possible
B. as low as possible
C. proportional to the voltage range
D. proportional to the current range
ANSWER: A
51. An ammeter has a full-scale deflection
current of 100mA. If the same ammeter is
used to measure a full-scale current of 1.0
ampere, what is the value of the shunt
resistor in ohms if the voltage across the
meter is 9.0 volts?
A. 9.0
B. 10
C. 900
D. 100
ANSWER: B
52. What is the purpose of the rheostat in
ohmmeter?
A. balancing resistance
B. counter resistance of measured
circuit
C. coil resistance
D. compensate aging battery of the
meter
ANSWER: D

47. Voltage measurement in a high impedance

circuit requires a voltmeter with
A. low input impedance
B. high input impedance
C. high voltage probe
D. low voltage probe
ANSWER: B

53. The zero-adjust control in an analog type

ohmmeter is used to
A. compensate for the differing
internal battery voltage
B. make sure the pointer is moving
correctly
C. align the infinity resistance
position
D. align the zero-voltage position
ANSWER: A

48. A meter has a full-scale current of 50A,

what is its sensitivity?
A. 20k/V
B. 20V/
C. 50k/V
D. 50A/V
ANSWER: A

54. The scale of a hot wire instrument is a/an

__________ function.
A. linear
B. squared
C. log
D. exponential
ANSWER: B

49. If a meter with a full-scale current of 100A

is used as an ac voltmeter with half-wave
rectification, its ac sensitivity is
A. 10,000 /V
B. 4,500 /V
C. 9,000 /V
D. 100 /V
ANSWER: B

55. Moving iron instrument have a scale

function that is
A. log
B. exponential
C. linear
D. squared
ANSWER: D

56. To increase the measuring capability of a

moving-iron ac ammeter, a _______
should be used.
A. shunt
B. multiplier
C. swamping resistors
D. different number of turns of
operating coil
ANSWER: D

63. The force(s) that is(are) acting on the

pointer of an indicating instrument as it rest
on its final deflected position. (Note:
damping torque is 0).
A. controlling torque
B. deflecting torque
C. damping torque
D. A & B above
ANSWER: D

57. Which electrical instruments below is the

most sensitive?
A. moving-iron
B. dynamometer
C. thermocouple
D. PMMC
ANSWER: D

64. What is(are) the force(s) acting on the

pointer of an indicating instrument when it
is in motion?
A. controlling
and
deflecting
torques
B. damping and deflecting torques
C. controlling and damping torques
D. controlling, damping, deflecting
torques
ASNWER: D

58. Basically, a PMMC instrument can be used

only in
A. ac measurements
B. dc measurements
C. rms measurements
D. all of the above
ANSWER: B
59. Controlling torque in PMMC.
A. spring action
B. magnetic action
C. electromagnetic action
D. tension cable
ANSWER: A
60. What damping method is used in induction
type ammeters?
A. air friction
B. electrostatic damping
C. fluid friction
D. eddy current damping
ANSWER: D
61. Induction type instruments are mostly used
as
A. voltmeter
B. ammeter
C. wattmeter
D. watt-hour meter
ANSWER: D
62. In indicating instruments, what will happen
to the controlling torque if the deflection
becomes greater?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unchanged
D. drops to zero
ANSWER: A

65. Material that is mostly used as a pointer in

indicating instruments.
A. soft iron
B. aluminum
C. silver
D. stainless
ANSWER: B
66. A Kelvin electrostatic voltmeter uses what
method of damping?
A. fluid friction
B. spring action
C. mechanical friction
D. eddy-current damping
ANSWER: A
67. Shunts in meters should have
_________ temperature coefficient
resistance.
A. positive
B. negative
C. very small
D. very large
ANSWER: C

a
of

68. In a moving coil ammeter, a _________ is

connected in series with the soil to
compensate for temperature variations.
A. limiting resistor
B. shunt resistor
C. multiplier
D. swamping resistor
ANSWER: D
69. Where can we use the dynamometer?
A. dc only
B. ac only
C. dc and ac

D. peak measurement
ANSWER: C
70. What is the meter that depends for its
operation on the forces of attraction and
repulsion between electrically charged
bodies?
A. induction instrument
B. electrostatic instrument
C. moving-magnet instrument
D. DArsonval meter movement
ANSWER: B
71. What do you call of an instrument that
depends for its operation on the reaction
between magnetic flux set up by currents
in fixed windings and other currents set up
by electromagnetic induction in movable
conducting parts?
A. induction instrument
B. electrostatic instrument
C. moving-magnet instrument
D. DArsonval meter movement
ANSWER: A
72. A meter for its operation, it depends on a
movable iron vane which aligns itself in the
resultant field of a permanent magnet and
an adjacent current carrying coil.
A. induction instrument
B. electrostatic instrument
C. moving-magnet instrument
D. permanent-magnet moving coilinstrument
ANSWER: D
73. What is the measuring instrument that
uses the force of repulsion between fixed
and movable magnetized iron vanes, or the
force between a coil and a pivoted vaneshaped piece of soft iron to move the
indicating pointer?
A. pyrometer
B. vane-type instrument
C. electrostatic instrument
D. moving-magnet instrument
ANSWER: B
74. Its an electrostatic voltmeter in which an
assembly of figure 8 shaped metal
plates rotates between the plates of a
stationary assembly when a voltage is
applied between the assemblies. The
length of the arc of rotation is proportional
to the electrostatic attraction and thus, to
the applied voltage.
A. varmeter
B. variometer
C. potentiometer

D. Kelvin voltmeter
ANSWER: D
75. What is that instrument used for measuring
the strength and direction of magnetic
fields?
A. varmeter
B. potentiometer
C. magnetometer
D. Kelvin voltmeter
ANSWER: C
76. What do you call of that instrument used
for measuring reactive power in vars?
A. varmeter
B. pyrometer
C. reactive volt-ampere meter
D. A or C is correct
ANSWER: D
77. What is this instrument or circuit that has
four or more arms, by means of which one
or more of the electrical constants of an
unknown component may be measured?
A. bridge
B. Hazeltine circuit
C. Loftin White circuit
D. DArsonval meter movement
ANSWER: A
78. A four-arm bridge. Al arms of which are
predominantly
resistive;
used
for
measuring resistance.
A. bridge
B. resistance bridge
C. Wheatstone bridge
D. B or C is correct
ANSWER: D
79. This is the method of using a Wheatstone
bridge to determine the distance from the
test point to a fault in a telephone or
telegraph line or cable.
A. Mesh
B. Varley loop
C. Batten system
D. Cordonnier system
ANSWER: B
80. This refers to a four-arm ac bridge used for
measuring inductance against a standard
capacitance.
A. Maxwell bridge
B. slide-wire bridge
C. resistance bridge
D. Wheatstone bridge
ANSWER: A

81. Refers to an ac bridge for measuring the

inductance and Q of an inductor in terms of
resistance, frequency and a standard
capacitance.
A. Hay bridge
B. Maxwell bridge
C. slide-wire bridge
D. Wheatstone bridge
ANSWER: A
82. This is a special bridge for measuring very
low resistance (0.1 or less). The
arrangement of the bridge reduces the
effects of contact resistance, which causes
significant error when such low resistances
are connected to conventional resistances
bridges.
A. Hay bridge
B. Maxwell bridge
C. Wheatstone bridge
D. Kelvin double bridge
ANSWER: D
83. A type of four-arm capacitance bridge in
which the unknown capacitance is
compared with a standard capacitance.
This bridge is frequently employed in
testing electrolytic capacitors, to which a dc
polarizing voltage is applied during the
measurement. What is this bridge?
A. Hay bridge
B. Maxwell bridge
C. Schering bridge
D. Wheatstone bridge
ANSWER: C
84. What do you call of that frequencysensitive bridge in which two adjacent
arms are resistances and the other two
arms are RC combinations?
A. Hay bridge
B. Wein bridge
C. Maxwell bridge
D. Schering bridge
ANSWER: B
85. When the capacitors of a Wein bridge are
replaced by inductors, the bridge becomes
A. Wein-bridge filter
B. variometer
C. Schering bridge
D. Wein inductance bridge
ANSWER: D
86. A simplified version of the Wheatstone
bridge wherein, two of the ratio arms are
replaced by a 100 cm long Manganin of
uniform cross-sections and provided with a
slider.
A. Hay bridge

B. Schering bridge
C. slide-wire bridge
D. Wein inductance bridge
ANSWER: C
87. Bridge used to measure both inductive and
capacitive
impedances
at
higher
frequencies.
A. Hay bridge
B. Schering bridge
C. Wein bridge
D. radio-frequency bridge
ANSWER: D
88. A bridge wherein all legs are electrically
identical
A. balance bridge
B. balance circuit
C. balance line
D. all of the above
ANSWER: A
89. Comparison between dc and ac measuring
instruments
A. generally, ac instruments are
less
sensitive
than
dc
instruments
B. errors such as induced emfs,
frequency
variations,
and
harmonic-current components
are only present in ac
instruments
C. in ac instruments, higher value
of current is needed than in dc
instruments to produce the
same deflection
D. all of these are correct
ANSWER: D
90. What is an electronic instrument capable of
showing on screen and maybe on print,
relative spacing of transmitter carriers, their
sidebands and harmonics?
A. Counters
B. Spectrum analyzer
C. Triggered oscilloscope
D. Multimeter
ANSWER: B
91. An instrument capable of displaying
simultaneously the amplitude of signals
having different frequencies.
A. oscilloscope
B. spectrum analyzer
C. VTVM
D. Logic analyzer
ANSWER: B
92. Spectrum analyzer is
A. a real-time analyzer

B.
C.

a non-real time analyzer

the same as a wave analyzer in
all aspects
D. an instrument not dependent on
frequency
ANSWER: A
93. Indications of spectrum
presented by means of
A. a moving meter
B. an iron vane
C. a CRT
D. a LED
ANSWER: C

analyzer

is

94. An electronic measuring device that

provide instantaneous visual indication of
voltage excursions.
A. voltmeter
B. power meter
C. oscilloscope
D. power line meter
ANSWER: C
95. An instrument that is capable of displaying
waveforms by means of fluorescence in a
CRT.
A. oscilloscope
B. wave analyzer
C. spectrum analyzer
D. distortion analyzer
ANSWER: A
96. Types of oscilloscopes that are able retain
the display for a longer period for analysis.
The display is retained by the use of flood
gun.
A. sampling oscilloscope
B. digital storage oscilloscope
C. storage oscilloscope
D. delayed sweep oscilloscope
ANSWER: C
97. What do call an oscilloscope that uses
sampling technique in processing signals
having frequencies beyond its normal
capabilities?
A. sampling oscilloscope
B. digital storage oscilloscope
C. storage oscilloscope
D. delayed sweep oscilloscope
ANSWER: A
98. Generally, oscilloscope uses what type of
deflection?
A. magnetic deflection
B. electromagnetic deflection
C. static deflection
D. electrostatic deflection

ANSWER: D
99. A device or instrument, which delivers
signals of pre3cise frequency and
amplitude, usually over a wide range.
A. synthesizer
B. frequency generators
C. signal generators
D. modulators
ANSWER: C
100.

The two most common audio oscillators

are
A. Wein bridge and Colpitts
B. Wein bridge and phase-shift
C. Colpitts and Hartley
D. Hartley and phase-shift
ANSWER: B

101.

What are the two most popular RF

oscillators
A. Wein bridge and Colpitts
B. Wein bridge and phase-shift
C. Colpitts and Hartley
D. Hartley and phase-shift
ANSWER: C

102.

A device or instrument able to generate

noise with accurate voltage for test
purposes.
A. signal generator
B. synthesizer
C. frequency generator
D. noise generator
ANSWER: D

103.

When do you need a noise generator?

A. When starting an oscillators
B. When
evaluating
noise
performance of an oscillator
C. When
evaluating
noise
characteristics of an amplifier
D. When performing modulation
analysis
ANSWER: C

104.

In RF or microwave system, what

instrument is used to measure the
incidental and reflected signals.
A. oscilloscope
B. reflectometer
C. incident-wave meter
D. spectrum analyzer
ANSWER: B

105.

A type of photometer used to measure

reflection.
A. photodiode
B. reflectometer

C. incident-wave meter
D. LED
ANSWER: B
106.

107.

108.

A.

A tunable RF instrument, which, by means

of a sharp dip of an indicating meter,
indicates resonance with an external circuit
under test.
A. reflectometer
B. inclinometer
C. dip meter
D. Grid-dip meter
ANSWER: C
A type of dip meter employing a vacuum
tube oscillator, whose indicating dc
microammeter is in the grid circuit.
A. reflectometer
B. inclinometer
C. dip meter
D. Grid-dip meter
ANSWER: D

by using manual switches and

rheostats
B. by using variable reactance and
transformers
C. by using electronic switches,
such as diodes, transistors
thyratrons, and thyristors
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
3.

4.

In meter movement, how do you prevent

the meter from oscillation and overswing?
A. by shorting
B. by coupling
C. by swamping
D. by damping
ANSWER: D
5.

109.

When the meter is insufficiently damped, it

is considered as
A. underdamped
B. overdamped
C. critically damped
D. negatively damped
ANSWER: A
6.

110.

A meter when _______ damped will

become insensitive to small signals.
A. underdamped
B. overdamped
C. critically damped
D. negatively damped
ANSWER: B
7.

1.

One type of circuit control device which

may be manual, automatic or multi-contact
A. fuse
B. breaker
C. switch
D. relay
ANSWER: B
8.

2.

What are the primary methods

controlling electrical power?

of

Common method(s) of controlling electrical

power with reactance
A. switching a tapped inductor
B. using a saturable reactor
C. by a matching transformer
D. A and B above
ANSWER: D
A reactive device used in controlling
electrical power by using two windings on a
common iron core. The control winding is
supplied with small dc-current which
causes the reactance of large ac-winding
to change accordingly.
A. tapped inductor
B. saturable reactor
C. auto transformer
D. LVDT
ANSWER: B
A saturable reactor with regenerative
feedback.
A. tapped inductor
B. auto transformer
C. LVDT
D. magnetic amplifier
ANSWER: D
Thyratrons in industrial electronics refers to
____________.
A. a gas-filled diode
B. a vacuum tube
C. gas-filled triode
D. an electron triode
ANSWER: C
An electronic switch that has the highest
single-device current capacity and can
withstand overloads better.
A. Thyristors
B. ignitrons
C. SCR
D. triac
ANSWER: B
A semiconductor, electronic switch that has
the highest single-device current rating
A. thyristor
B. triac

C. SCR
D. Quadric
ANSWER: C
9.

ANSWER: A

The purpose of installing thyrectors across

the incoming power lines to the speed
control system is to ___________
A. cause the motor to caution
B. protect drive circuits from high
voltage transient surges
C. increase the counter emf
D. allow the field winding current to
continue flowing
ANSWER: B

10. Semiconductor devices equivalent

thyratrons are generally called
A. thyrector
B. thyristor
C. diac
D. ignitron
ANSWER: B

to

11. Using electronic devices as switches, what

is(are) the general methods of controlling
electrical power?
A. phase control
B. zero-voltage switching
C. static switching
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
12. Which power control switching method that
greatly generates RFI or EMI and is
therefore
limited
to
low-frequency
applications?
A. phase control
B. zero-voltage switching
C. inverter control
D. static switching
ANSWER: A
13. One of the electronic semiconductor
devices known as diac, function as
A. four terminal multi-directional
switch
B. two terminal bi-directional switch
C. two
terminal
unidirectional
switch
D. three terminal bi-directional
switch
ANSWER: B
14. Which of the trigger diodes has the highest
holding voltage?
A. bidirectional-trigger diac
B. bidirectional-diode-thyristor diac
C. Shockley diode
D. thyrector

15. General term of electronic devices used to

control or trigger large-power switching
devices.
A. thyristor
B. thyrector
C. break-over devices
D. triggering devices
ANSWER: C
16. A break-over device that is basically a
diode.
A. thyristor
B. thyrector
C. thyratron
D. triggering diode
ANSWER: D
17. A four-element solid state device that
combi9nes the characteristics of both
diodes and transistors
A. varactor
B. zener diode
C. tunnel diode
D. SCR
ANSWER: D
18. The most popular thyristor
electrical power controllers
A. SCR
B. triac
C. SCS
D. PUT
ANSWER: A

used

in

19. Find the two stable operating conditions of

an SCR.
A. Conducting and non-conducting
B. Oscillating and quiescent
C. NPN conduction and PNP
conduction
D. Forward conducting and reverse
conducting
ANSWER: A
20. How do you stop conduction during which
SCR is also conducting?
A. remove voltage gate
B. increase cathode voltage
C. interrupt anode current
D. reduce gate current
ANSWER: C
21. How do we turn ON or trigger an SCR?
A. by making the gate (G) positive
with respect to its cathode (K)
B. by making the gate (G) positive
with respect to its anode (A)

C.

by making the cathode more

positive with respect to the
anode
D. A and C above
ANSWER: A
22. What is true about SCRs after they are
being switched ON?
A. The anode (A) to cathode (K)
continues to conduct even if the
gate triggering voltage is
removed.
B. The gate (G) must be provided
with the required holding current
to continue its conduction.
C. A small holding voltage at the
gate is required for a continuous
conduction.
D. B and C above
ANSWER: A
23. The voltage across the anode (A) and
cathode (K) terminals of an SCR when
conducting.
A. holding voltage
B. breakdown voltage
C. breakback voltage
D. trigger voltage
ANSWER: A
24. The minimum amount of current needed
for an SCR to conduct continuously.
A. holding current
B. triggering current
C. threshold current
D. average sustaining current
ANSWER: A
25. What is(are) the condition(s) in triggering
SCR?
A. The gate voltage must be equal
to or greater than the triggering
voltage.
B. The gate current must be equal
to or greater than the triggering
current.
C. The anode (A) must be positive
with respect to the cathode.
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
26. The voltage decreased across the anode
(A) and cathode (K) of an SCR from nonconducting state to conducting state.
A. holding voltage
B. forward breakdown voltage
C. triggering voltage
D. breakback voltage
ANSWER: D

D.

27. An SCR rated 10 A is used as the

controlling switch in a circuit powered by
50Vdc. When the SCR fires ON, its anode
(A) to cathode (K) voltage was observed to
be 2 V. Calculate the breakback voltage of
the SCR.
A. 25 Vdc
B. 32 Vdc
C. 41 Vdc
D. 48 Vdc
ANSWER: D
28. The needed voltage at the gate of an SCR
before it conducts.
A. minimum-gate trigger voltage
B. maximum-gate trigger voltage
C. minimum-gate
peak-inverse
voltage
D. maximum-gate
peak-inverse
voltage
ANSWER: A
29. What is(are) the gate limitation(s) of SCRs
and triacs?
A. maximum-gate
power
dissipation
B. maximum-gate
peak-inverse
voltage
C. maximum-gate trigger current
and voltage
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
30. How can we extend the rating of SCRs?
A. by external cooling
B. by external circuitry
C. by
connecting
them
in
series/parallel
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
31. Use of heat sinks, forced air, and water
cooling are examples of external cooling in
SCRs and other devices. Which of these is
the only recommended to be used for the
largest power dissipating device?
A. metal heat sinks
B. forced air
C. water cooling
D. A and B above
ANSWER: C
32. How can we increase the forward-voltage
blocking capability of SCRs?
A. by connecting them in series
B. by connecting them in parallel
C. by cascading them

by connecting back to back in

parallel
ANSWER: A
33. In connecting two SCRs in series, during
OFF state, the voltage source must be
properly shared between them, but due to
devices differences, there might be
unequal voltages across each SCR. How
do we equalize these voltages?
A. by installing a snubber circuit
B. by adding a gate-to-cathode
resistor
C. by shunting a capacitor across
the anode (A) and cathode (K)
of each SCR
D. by using a blocking-equalizing
resistor
ANSWER: D
34. What is true regarding blocking-equalizing
resistors in SCRs connected in series?
A. Blocking-equalizing resistors are
shunted across each SCR.
B. The value of these resistors is
about 10% of the value of the
blocking resistance of the SCR
it is shunted with.
C. These resistors increases the
leakage current towards the
load.
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
35. A circuit used for voltage equalization
during ON-OFF switching action of SCRs
in series.
A. snubber circuit
B. crow-bar
C. clipper
D. clamper
ANSWER: A
36. When a high current is needed, SCRs are
connected in parallel. The problem with
paralleled SCRs is, when they are not
perfectly matched, one will conduct first
before the other and carries the full-load
current that is for sure greater than its
maximum rating. To avoid this situation,
both SCRs should be turned ON at the
same time. How can we do this?
A. by using high triggering gate
voltage
B. by using a gate-triggering
transformer
C. by using reactors
D. all of the above are possible
ANSWER: D

37. In controlling electrical power using phase

control method with SCR/triac being the
active device, what do we call the period of
the cycle before the device switches to
conduction?
A. trigger time
B. trigger delay time
C. firing frequency
D. firing delay angle
ANSWER: D
38. How many times per second does an SCR
is turned ON and OFF when it is operated
in a full-wave phase control at a line
frequency of 60 Hz?
A. 30 times
B. 60 times (HV)
C. 90 times
D. 120 times (FW)
ANSWER: D
39. A three terminal device that behaves
roughly like SCR, except that it can
conduct current in either direction when at
ON.
A. thyristor
B. SUS
C. SBS
D. GTO
ANSWER: C
40. What is the difference between a triac and
a silicon bilateral switch (SBS)?
A. An SBS is usually used as
breakover device, while a triac
is a load controlling device.
B. An SBS is for low voltage
applications, while a triac is
generally for high voltage
applications.
C. An SBS has better and stable
symmetrical-firing voltage than a
triac.
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
41. A triac can be triggered ON by the
application of a
A. positive voltage at the gate with
respect to MT1
B. negative voltage at the gate with
respect to MT1
C. positive or negative gate voltage
with respect to MT2
D. all of the above are correct
ANSWER: D
42. Which are the three terminals of a TRIAC?

A. Gate, anode 1 and anode 2

B. Gate, source and sink
C. Base, emitter and collector
D. Emitter, base 1 and base 2
ANSWER: A
43. What are the three terminals of a triac?
A. anode 1 (A1), anode 2 (A2) and
gate (G)
B. mainterminal
1
(MT1),
mainterminal 2 (MT2), and gate
(G)
C. anode (A), cathode (K) and gate
(G)
D. both A and B are acceptable
ANSWER: D
44. A silicon bilateral switch may be
considered as s small power triac, and has
three terminals namely,
A. anode 1 (A1), anode 2 (A2) and
gate (G)
B. mainterminal
1
(MT1),
mainterminal 2 (MT2), and gate
(G)
C. anode (A), cathode (K) and gate
(G)
D. both A and B are acceptable
ANSWER: D
45. A thyristor that is very similar to an SCR
except that it has low voltage and current
ratings. It is very temperature stable, and is
therefore suitable to be used as triggering
device.
A. UJT
B. GTO
C. SBS
D. SUS
ANSWER: D
46. Silicon
unilateral
switches
(SUSs)
generally have a breakover voltage of 8 V,
however, this value can be altered by
normally connecting a zener diode. How is
the diode installed?
A. across the gate (G) and cathode
(K) terminals, with the diodes
anode at the gate
B. anode to anode, cathode to
cathode
C. diodes cathode to SUSs anode
and diodes anode to SUSs
cathode
D. diodes cathode to SUSs gate
and diodes anode to SUSs
cathode
ANSWER: D

47. A silicon unilateral switch (SUS) has a

forward breakover voltage of 8 V. a zener
diode is connected between its gate and
cathode terminals with the diodes cathode
at SUSs gate. If the zener voltage is 3.9 V,
what is the new forward breakover voltage
of the device?
A. 0.49 V
B. 2.05 V
C. 4.50 V
D. 11.9 V
ANSWER: C
48. Thyristor whose characteristic curve
closely resembles that of SCRs and
SUSs, except that its forward breakover
voltage (+VBO) is not alterable, for the
device has no gate terminal.
A. diac
B. thyrector
C. UJT
D. Shockley diode
ANSWER: D
49. What will happen to the forward breakdown
or breakover voltage of SCRs and triacs if
the gate current is increased?
A. will decrease
B. will also increase
C. will not change
D. will either increase or decrease,
it depends on their current
coefficient
ANSWER: A
50. A UJT or unijunction transistor is a three
terminal breakover-type switching device.
Its three terminals are called base 1, base
2, and emitter. Though this is a transistor
and has base and emitter terminals, this
operates very different from a BJT and is
not used as a linear amplifier. Its
applications are for
A. timers and oscillators
B. signal generators
C. triggering control for SCRs and
triacs
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
51. A UJT has an internal resistances of RB1 =
6 K and RB2 = 3 K, what is its interbase
resistance?
A. 2 K
B. 3 K
C. 6 K
D. 9 K
ANSWER: D

52. For a unijunction transistor (UJT) to witch

ON
A. the base 1 voltage should be
greater than the peak voltage
B. the base 2 voltage should be
greater than the peak voltage
C. the emitter voltage should be
greater than the peak voltage
D. the voltage between the emitter
and base 1 should be greater
than the peak voltage when
emitter being more positive
ANSWER: D

A. squeeze interval
B. weld interval
C. hold interval
D. standby interval
ANSWER: A
58. After the squeeze interval, what comes
next in an automatic welding system?
A. squeeze interval
B. weld interval
C. hold interval
D. standby interval
ANSWER: B

53. Semiconductor devices with inherent ONOFF behavior and has no linear operating
regions are called thryistors. Examples are
SCRs, triacs, SUSs, SBSs, Shockley
diodes, diacs, PUTs, and SCSs. In
selecting thyristors for a particular
application, which of the statement below
is generally desirable?
A. thyristors with high current and
voltage ratings
B. thyristors with high holding
current/voltage
C. faster thyristors
D. thyristors with high breakbackvoltage
ANSWER: D

59. During the welding or weld interval, when a

welding current is flowing the system is
said to be at
A. weld interval
B. cool subinterval
C. heat subinterval
D. hold interval
ANSWER: C

54. Why does thyristors with high breakback

voltage desirable?
A. it dissipates less power
B. it generates less heat
C. it is more efficient
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D

61. After the welding interval, it goes to

_________ interval wherein the electrode
pressure is maintained on the metal
surfaces.
A. cool subinterval
B. heat subinterval
C. hold interval
D. standby interval
ANSWER: C

55. Portion in the welding process interval

during which the welding current is flowing
is called ____________.
A. cool sub-interval
B. released interval
C. squeeze interval
D. heat sub-interval
ANSWER: D
56. In automatic welding system, basically
there are how many intervals?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
ANSWER: B
57. In automatic welding what do you call the
first interval wherein the material to be
welded are held together?

60. The portion of the weld interval during

which the current is absent
A. cool subinterval
B. heat subinterval
C. hold interval
D. standby interval
ANSWER: A

62. Next to hold interval is __________ interval

in automatic welding system.
A. squeeze
B. cool
C. standby
D. release
ANSWER: D
63. After the release interval in automatic
welding, the system will go to
A. cool interval
B. squeeze interval
C. standby interval
D. hold interval
ANSWER: C
64. Refers to the system that has no feedback
and is not self correcting

A. Close-loop system
B. Coal slurry system
C. Feed forward control system
D. Open-loop system
ANSWER: D
65. The system is ____________ if a position
servo system does not respond to small
changes in the input.
A. under stabilized
B. underdamped
C. stabilized
D. overdamped
ANSWER: D
66. What is the purpose of using a differential
synchro instead of a regular synchro?
A. Handles more signals only
B. Performs
addition
and
subtraction function only
C. Differential synchros can handle
more signals and also performs
addition
and
subtraction
function
D. Handles two signals only
ANSWER: C
67. Industrial circuit or system that is not selfcorrecting
A. open-loop
B. closed-loop
C. system with feed back
D. non-servo
ANSWER: A
68. What do you call a circuit or system that is
self-correcting?
A. open-loop
B. closed-loop
C. system without feed back
D. servo
ANSWER: B
69. Open-loop in control system means:
A. it has no feedback
B. it is not self-correcting
C. it is not self-regulating
D. all are correct
ANSWER: D
70. In control system, closed-loop means:
A. it has feedback
B. it is self-correcting
C. it is self-regulating
D. all are correct
ANSWER: D
71. When a closed-loop system is used to
maintain physical position it is referred as

A. gyro system
B. feedback system
C. servo system
D. differential system
ANSWER: C
72. In closed-loop system, what do you call the
difference in the measured value and the
set value or desired value?
A. error
B. differential voltage
C. potential difference
D. threshold
ANSWER: A
73. Error signal in closed-system is also known
as
A. difference signal
B. deviation
C. system deviation
D. all are correct
ANSWER: D
74. In a closed-loop control system, when the
error signal is zero the system is at
A. null
B. saturation
C. cut-off
D. halt
ANSWER: A
75. The small error signal or system deviation
where the system cannot correct anymore
A. threshold
B. holding
C. offset
D. bias
ANSWER; C
76. A good closed-loop control system has the
following characteristics
A. with very small offset signal or
voltage
B. quick response
C. highly stable
D. all are correct
ANSWER: D
77. In control system, the manner in which the
controller reacts to an error is termed as
A. mode of operation
B. type of operation
C. mode of control
D. reaction style
ANSWER: C
78. What are the general basic modes of
control in control system?
A. On-Off

B. Proportional
C. Proportional plus integral
D. Proportional plus derivative
ANSWER: D
79. Mode of control wherein the controller has
only two operating states. This mode is
also known as bang-bang control.
A. On-Off
B. Proportional
C. Proportional plus integral
D. Proportional plus derivative
ANSWER: A
80. ____________ is a mode of control
wherein the controller has a continuous
range of possible position, not just two as
in bang-bang control.
A. On-Off
B. Proportional
C. Proportional plus integral
D. Proportional plus derivative
ANSWER: B
81. Proportional mode of control wherein the
controller is not only considering the
magnitude of the error signal but as well as
the time that is has persisted.
A. On-Off
B. Proportional
C. Proportional plus integral *
D. Proportional plus derivative
ANSWER: C
82. Proportional mode of control wherein the
controller is not only considering the
magnitude of the error signal but as well as
its rate of change.
A. Proportional
B. Proportional plus integral
C. Proportional plus derivative *
D. Proportional plus integral plus
derivative
ANSWER: C
83. What is (are) being considered in
Proportional plus Integral plus Derivative
(PID) mode of control?
A. error signal magnitude
B. error signal period of occurrence
C. error signal rate of change
D. all are considered *
ANSWER: D
84. If On-Off mode of control is the simplest,
what is its opposite or the most complex?
A. Proportional
B. Proportional plus integral
C. Proportional plus derivative

D.

Proportional plus integral plus

derivative *
ANSWER: D
85. The __________ are two of the most
common mechanical configuration of
industrial robots.
A. Spherical and pneumatic
B. Articulated arm and cylindrical *
C. Spherical and hydraulic
D. Jointed-arm and electric
ANSWER: B
86. One advantage of hydraulic actuator in
industrial robots include _____________.
A. great force capability handling
heavy loads *
B. lower operating cost than the
other type
C. low initial cost than the other
type
D. clean-no oil leaks
ANSWER: A
87. ____________ includes tow of the actuator
type used in industrial robots.
A. Pneumatic and Jointed-arm
B. Hydraulic and Pneumatic
C. Electric and Spherical
D. Hydraulic and Cylindrical
ANSWER: B
88. A system in which the precise movement
of a large load is controlled by a relatively
weak signal.
A. hydraulic
B. electro
C. synchro
D. servo
ANSWER: D
89. A programmable, multifunction manipulator
designed to move materials, parts, tools or
specific devices.
A. Industrial robot
B. Android
C. Actuator
D. End effector
ANSWER: A
90. The technology for automations
A. avionics
B. cryogenics
C. cryotronics
D. robotics
ANSWER: D
91. What is(are) the common mechanical
configurations for industrial robots?

A. articulated-arm or jointed-arm
B. spherical configuration
C. cylindrical configuration
D. all of these
ANSWER: D
92. The number of axis a robot is free to move
is called
A. freedom axis
B. degrees of freedom
C. movement degrees
D. mechanical axis
ANSWER: B

D. All of these are correct

ANSWER: D
105.
99. Advantages of pneumatic actuators:
A. lower initial and operating cost
than hydraulic actuators
B. Clean, no oil leaks
C. Quick response
D. All are correct
ANSWER: D
100.

93. Actuators used in industrial robots

A. electric motors
B. fluid motors
C. fluid cylinders
D. all of these are correct
ANSWER: D
94. Which of the actuators that has the
greatest force capability?
A. electric
B. hydraulic fluid
C. pneumatic
D. magnetic
ANSWER: B
95. Actuator that requires the highest initial
cost:
A. electric
B. hydraulic
C. pneumatic
D. magnetic
ANSWER: B
96. Robot actuator that
operating cost:
A. electric
B. hydraulic
C. pneumatic
D. magnetic
ANSWER: B

101.

102.

has the highest

103.

97. The most messy robot actuator:

A. electric
B. hydraulic
C. pneumatic
D. magnetic
ANSWER: B
98. Advantages of electric actuators:
A. Lower initial cost than either
hydraulic or pneumatic
B. Much lower operating cost than
hydraulic
C. Accurate positioning and good
velocity control

ANSWER: B

104.

Advantages of hydraulic actuators

A. Great holding strength when
stopped
B. Accurate positioning and good
velocity control
C. Intrinsically safe in flammable
environment such as painting
D. All of these are correct
ANSWER: D
Disadvantages of pneumatic actuators:
A. Weak force capability
B. Not so much holding strength
when stopped as compared to
hydraulic system
C. Accurate
positioning
and
velocity control is impossible
D. All of these are correct
ANSWER: D
Disadvantages of electric actuators in
industrial robots:
A. Less
force
capability
as
compared to hydraulic system
B. Very little holding strength when
stopped which causes a heavy
load to sag
C. Usually requires mechanical
brakes
D. All are correct
ANSWER: D
A robot software or program that produces
only two-position motion for a given robot
axis.
A. positive-stop
B. point-to-point
C. continuous-path
D. hard interrupt
ANSWER: A
A robot program that has the ability to
move a robot to any position within the
range but without specific path.
A. positive-stop program
B. point-to-point program
C. continuous path program
D. compound program

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

1.

A robot program that has the ability to

move a robot to any position within the
range with specific path.
A. positive-stop program
B. point-to-point program
C. continuous path program
D. compound program
ANSWER: C
When a robot moves on several axis at the
same time, it is to have
A. intrinsic motion
B. extrinsic motion
C. compound motion
D. universal motion
ANSWER: C
In robotics, SCARA means:
A. Selective Compliant Articulated
Robot Arm
B. Selective Compliant Assembly
Robot Arm
C. Selective
Computer-Actuated
Robot Arm
D. A and B are correct
ANSWER: D
SCARA Robots has how many axis of
motion?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
ANSWER: B
SCARA Robots are designed for what
applications?
A. Machining
B. Welding
C. Assembling
D. Handling heavy loads
ANSWER: C
Why is SCARA Robot attractive in
industry?
A. because it is relatively cheaper
B. because it can carry very heavy
loads
C. because it has unlimited
movement
D. all of the above
ANSWER: A

An English mathematician who invented

the slide rule in 1622.
A. Blaise Pascal

B. Clifford Berry
C. Charges Babage
D. William Oughtred
ANSWER: D
2.

Built a computer in 1946 at the Institute of

Advance Study (IAS), Princeton, USA, that
uses
binary numbers and stores
information.
A. Vannevar Bush
B. John Van Neumann
C. John Atannasoff
D. Clifford Berry
ANSWER: B

3.

An electronic device design to accept data

performs prescribed computational and
logical operations at high speed and output
the results of this operation.
A. Compiler
B. Simulator
C. Computer
D. Digital machine
ANSWER: C

4.

First commercial computer introduce in

1953 that uses valves.
A. IBM-1400
B. UNIVAC
C. IBM-701
D. ENIAC
ANSWER: B

5.

The first electronic computer and was

completed in 1946.
A. ENIAC
B. UNIVAC
C. EDVAC
D. Whirlwind I
ANSWER: A

6.

ENIAC was developed at

A. University of Pennsylvania
B. Massachusetts
Institute
Technology
C. Cambridge University
D. Bell Laboratories
ANSWER: A

7.

of

Who constructed ENIAC and UNIVAC?

A. William Oughtred
B. Presper Eckert and John W.
Mauchly
C. John von Neumann
D. William Oughtred and Jon von
Neumann
ANSWER: B

8.

9.

ENIAC consist of how many vacuum

tubes?
A. 1,500 tubes
B. 3,575 tubes
C. 13,575 tubes
D. 18,000 tubes
ANSWER: D
ENIAC could perform _________ additions
or up to _________ multiplications per
second.
A. 1,000 / 100
B. 1,500 / 150
C. 3,000 / 300
D. 5,000 / 500
ANSWER: D

10. Whirlwind I, develop at Massachusetts

Institute of Technology is capable of
_________ operations per second.
A. 1,000
B. 5,000
C. 10,000
D. 20,000
ANSWER: D
11. Refers to the increased use of data
conversion circuits as a result of increased
application.
A. Op Amps
B. Linear circuit
C. Computers
D. Digital equipment
ANSWER: C
12. What is a group of circuits that provides
timing and signals to all operations in the
computer?
A. Output unit
B. Memory unit
C. Control unit
D. Input unit
ANSWER: C
13. Refers to the part of computer that
performs mathematical operations.
A. CPU
B. Flip-flop
C. Assembly language
D. ALU
ANSWER: D
14. What does ALU which carries arithmetic
and logic operations process?
A. Binary coded decimal
B. Hexadecimal numbers
C. Octal numbers
D. Binary numbers
ANSWER: D

15. What is the smallest part of a computer

language?
A. binary
B. byte
C. bit
D. word
ANSWER: C
16. A digital word consisting of only four bits is
called a
A. dibit
B. quad
C. pixel
D. nibble
ANSWER: D
17. Electronics
methodology
in
solving
application problems using circuits, in
which there are only two possible voltage
levels.
A. digital electronics
B. switching techniques
C. state diagramming
D. bistable electronics
ANSWER: A
18. In digital electronics, there are mainly two
possible voltage levels and these make
_____ number system to be useful in its
analysis.
A. binary
B. octal
C. hexadecimal
D. all of the above
ANSWER: A
19. 1 and 0 in binary number system are used
to represent the two different voltage levels
or logic levels in digital circuits. However,
in most applications, a long string of 1s
and 0s occur, and makes the data
presentation nasty. To condense this long
string of 1s and 0s, the ___________
number system is (are) also used.
A. octal
B. decimal
C. hexadecimal
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
20. How many symbols are used in octal digital
number system?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 8
D. 2
ANSWER: C

21. How many symbols does hexadecimal

digital number system used?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 8
D. 32
ANSWER: A
22. What is the equivalent of decimal number
11 in binary?
A. 1101
B. 1110
C. 1111
D. 1011
ANSWER: D
23. Which of the following is not used in
hexadecimal digital symbols?
A. A
B. C
C. H
D. F
ANSWER: C
24. What is the equivalent of decimal 7 in
octal?
A. 21
B. 49
C. 7
D. 14
ANSWER: C
25. The decimal 36020 is equivalent
hexadecimal ___________.
A. 8CB4
B. 88BC
C. 8BC8
D. 884C
ANSWER: A

to

26. What is the equivalent of decimal 14 in

binary?
A. 1110
B. 1011
C. 1101
D. 1111
ANSWER: A
27. The code 1011 in BCD is
A. 24
B. Letter A
C. 11
D. Invalid
ANSWER: D
28. Conversion from binary to octal number
system needs a grouping of bits by
A. Two
B. Three

C. Four
D. Five
ANSWER: B
29. Convert the given binary
1010011.01 to octal system.
A. 511.1
B. 511.2
C. 123.1
D. 123.2
ANSWER: D

number

30. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the

binary number 1010011.01?
A. 53.4
B. 53.1
C. A6.1
D. A6.4
ANSWER: A
31. The most practical way of converting
hexadecimal numbers to binary is to give
each number its _________ equivalent
bits.
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
ANSWER: C
32. The binary equivalent of the hexadecimal
number ECE.5
A. 1110 1100 1110.0101
B. 1110 1100 1110.101
C. 1101 1100 1101.101
D. 1101 1100 1101.0101
ANSWER: A
33. Convert (1111 1111 1111 1111)2 to
decimal number.
A. 32 767
B. 32 768
C. 65 535
D. 65 536
ANSWER: C
34. Find the sum of binary number 1010 and
0011.
A. 1021
B. 1101
C. 1011
D. 1111
ANSWER: B
35. Get the sum of (110.1101)2 and (11.01)2.
A. 1010.0101
B. 1010.0001
C. 1101.0101
D. 0111.1010

ANSWER: B
36. What is the difference between the given
binary numbers, 110.1101 and 11.01?
A. 110.0000
B. 111.1010
C. 11.1010
D. 11.1001
ANSWER: D
37. Find the radix-minus one complement of
(110.1101)2.
A. 111.0010
B. 010.0011
C. 1.001
D. 001.0010
ANSWER: D
38. Give
the
true
(1101.1100)2.
A. 0010.0011
B. 10.0011
C. 10.01
D. 0010.0100
ANSWER: D

complements

of

39. Mathematics
used
in
expressing,
analyzing, and designing of digital
electronic circuits.
A. Boolean algebra
B. Numerical methods
C. Statistical approach
D. Logical mathematics
ANSWER: A
40. Method(s) used in simplifying Boolean
algebra.
A. Karnaugh map
B. Map-entered variable technique
C. Quine-McCluskey
tabular
method
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
41. Karnaugh map is the most commonly used
method in simplifying Boolean expression
or logical functions. In this method only 1s
and 0s are entered into the table, while
________ includes variables into the table.
A. Boolean algebra
B. Map-entered variable technique
C. Superposition method
D. Quine-McCluskey
tabular
method
ANSWER: B
42. A suitable method in simplifying Boolean
expression when the system deals with
more than six variables.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Boolean algebra
Karnaugh map
Map-entered variable technique
Quine-McCluskey
tabular
method
ANSWER: D
43. What level is used to represent logic 1 in a
negative logic circuit?
A. negative transition level
B. low level
C. positive transition level
D. high level
ANSWER: B
44. What level is used to represent logic 0 in
a negative logic circuit?
A. high level
B. low level
C. negative transition level
D. positive transition level
ANSWER: A

A. OR gate
B. AND gate
C. NOR gate
D. NAND gate
ANSWER: A
50. A solid state device which only gives a 1
output if all inputs are also 1 is called
A. an AND gate
B. a NAND gate
C. a NOR gate
D. an OR gate
ANSWER: A
51. Only when all inputs are logic one that this
gate can delver an output of logic one.
A. NOR gate
B. AND gate
C. NAND gate
D. XOR gate
ANSWER: B

45. _________ is a gate which has two or

more low inputs signals to get a low output.
A. AND
B. Inverter
C. OR
D. NAND
ANSWER: C

52. A solid state logical device which only

gives a 1 output if all inputs are 0 is
called a _________ gate.
A. NOT
B. NOR
C. NAND
D. OR
ANSWER: B

46. What is the logic circuit having two or more

inputs but only output, with high output of
any or all inputs are high, with low output
only if all inputs are low?
A. AND gate
B. OR gate
C. NOR gate
D. NAND gate
ANSWER: B

53. To cause a three-state buffer to output 0-1

levels, the following must be true:
A. The output enable must be false
B. The output enable must be true
C. The information must have been
stored in the buffer
D. The signal OE must be at logic
1
ANSWER: D

47. A logic gate whose output is HIGH when a

single HIGH at its input is present.
A. OR gate
B. NOR gate
C. AND gate
D. NAND gate
ANSWER: A

54. The rapidly flashing logic probe tip tells you

that the logic node being probe
A. Has rapidly changing logic
activity
B. Is struck
C. Is at an illegal logic level
D. Has an unstable logic activity
ANSWER: A

48. An output of logic zero can be generated

by what logic gate(s) if all inputs are zero?
A. OR gate
B. AND gate
C. NOR gate
D. NAND gate
ANSWER: A
49. Logic gate that generates an output of logic
zero if and only if all inputs are zero.

55. ______________
is
a
comparator.
A. Wired OR
B. Exclusive OR
C. NOR gate
D. Exclusive NOR
ANSWER: D

single

bit

56. _____________ refers to the class of logic

circuit containing flip-flops.
A. Combinational
B. Sequential
C. Linear
D. Feedback
ANSWER: B
57. What is the counter that follows the binary
sequence?
A. Binary counter
B. Simplex counter
C. Shift counter
D. Decimal counter
ANSWER: A
58. What logic circuit is analogous to a single
pole mechanical selector switch?
A. Decoder
B. Encoder
C. Multiplexer
D. Exclusive OR
ANSWER: C
59. An encoder is an MSI (medium-scaleintegrated) circuit that
A. Provides an output code that
corresponds to which of a set of
input line is true
B. Provides a storage of a certain
number of binary bits
C. Selects a given output based on
binary input code
D. Provides for delivering one of
two or more inputs to an output
ANSWER: A
60. _____________ is called the time sharing
of one line with multiplex signals.
A. Simultaneous transmission
B. Bi-directional
C. Relay
D. Multiplexing
ANSWER: D
61. Data selector is also called
A. Encoder
B. Decoder
C. Multiplexer
D. Demultiplexer
ANSWER: C
62. _____________ refers to a function of a
decade counter digital IC.
A. Provides one output pulse for
every 10 inputs pulses
B. Adding two decimal numbers
C. Producing 10 output pulses for
every 1 pulse

D.

Decoding a decimal number for

display on seven-segment
ANSWER: A
63. ___________ refers to BCD counter:
A. Decade counter
B. Shift register
C. Frequency divider
D. Binary counter
ANSWER: A
64. In a system with MOS devices, the main
bus loading factor is likely to be
A. Resistive
B. Current
C. Capacitive
D. Static charge
ANSWER: C
65. When a logic circuit rejects an unwanted
signal, this is termed as ___________.
A. Logic levels
B. Noise margin
C. Power consumption
D. Propagation delay
ANSWER: B
66. Speed of a logic circuit is normally
expressed as _________.
A. Logic levels
B. Speed immunity
C. Propagation delay
D. Power consumption
ANSWER: C
67. What is a multi-wire connection between
digital circuits?
A. Bus
B. Wire wrap
C. Multiplexed cable
D. Cable ribbon
ANSWER: A
68. What is the process used to describe
analog-to-digital conversion?
A. Binarize
B. Linearize
C. Digitize
D. Analogize
ANSWER: C
69. What is the process of converting multiple
analog input signals sequentially to digital
output?
A. Time division multiplexing
B. Analog to digital conversion
C. Space division multiplexing
D. Pulse code modulation
ANSWER: A

70. What do you call a circuit that changes

pure binary code into ASCII?
A. Decoder
B. Encoder
C. Demultiplexer
D. Code converter
ANSWER: D
71. The output pulses of the logic pulser
_________.
A. Can damage logic circuits
B. Are too many for the logic probe
to respond to
C. Can only force high nodes to
low
D. Can be used to overdrive logic
nodes high or low
ANSWER: D
72. Circuits used to implement
expression or equations.
A. Logic gates/circuits
B. Digital circuits
C. Binary circuits
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

Boolean

D. A and C
ANSWER: A
77. Gate with HIGH output level every time
one of its inputs goes LOW.
A. NOR gate
B. NAND gate
C. XNOR gate
D. B and C
ANSWER: B
78. What logic gate that gives an output of
logic one if there is an odd number of 1s at
the input?
A. NOR gate
B. NAND gate
C. XOR gate
D. XNOR gate
ANSWER: C
79. Logic gate that gives a HIGH output when
the input has an even number of 1s.
A. NOR
B. NAND
C. XOR
D. XNOR
ANSWER: D

73. Logic gate whose output is HIGH when

one or all of its inputs is LOW.
A. OR gate
B. NOR gate
C. AND gate
D. NAND gate
ANSWER: D

80. A circuit that converts the input logic level

to its complement.
A. Inverter
B. NOR gate with all inputs tied
C. NAND gate with all inputs tied
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

74. What logic gate that generates an output of

logic zero (LOW) only when all its inputs
are logic one (HIGH)?
A. OR gate
B. NOR gate
C. AND gate
D. NAND gate
ANSWER: D

81. If the fan out of a logic gate is not enough,

a/an ___________ should be used.
A. Inverter
B. Amplifier
C. Buffer
D. Isolator
ANSWER: C

75. Only when all inputs are LOW thus, this

logic gate produces an output of HIGH.
A. NOR gate
B. NAND gate
C. AND gate
D. NOR and NAND
ANSWER: A

82. A buffer multiplies the number of gates a

certain output can drive, and this can also
be used as a/an
A. Voltage follower
B. Current amplifier
C. Isolator
D. All of the above are correct
ANSWER: D

76. A logic gate whose output is logic zero

every time one of its inputs goes to logic
one.
A. NOR gate
B. NAND gate
C. XOR gate

83. Is considered as a controlled inverter.

A. XOR
B. NOR
C. NAND
D. AND
ANSWER: A

84. A logic gate that can be wired to function

like any other gate.
A. International gate
B. Flexible gate
C. Variable gate
D. Universal gate
ANSWER: D
85. Known as universal gates.
A. OR and AND
B. AND and NAND
C. OR and NOR
D. NOR and NAND
ANSWER: D
86. How many NAND-gates are needed to
have an AND function?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
ANSWER: A
87. The number of NAND-gates needed to
form an OT-gate.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
ANSWER: B
88. OR function can be achieved by suing how
many NOR gates?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
ANSWER: A
89. Which of the following is the probable
output if all inputs of a TTL gate are binary
1?
A. Determinable
B. Binary 0
C. Binary 1
D. Indeterminate
ANSWER: B
90. Logic devices are broadly divided or
categorized into two families, bipolar and
MOS. What are the examples of bipolar?
A. RTL and DTL
B. IIL and ECL
C. TTL and HLDTL
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

91. CMOS, NMOS, and PMOS belong to MOS

family, what is (are) the significance of
these devices?
A. They
have
lower
power
dissipation than bipolar devices
B. They are generally slower than
bipolar devices
C. They are most sensitive to
electrostatic
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
92. Refers to the ability of logic circuit it
withstand noise superimposed on its input
signal.
A. LOW noise immunity
B. HIGH noise immunity
C. Noise immunity
D. Noise figure
ANSWER: C
93. The number of logic gates of the same
family that can be connected to the input of
a particular gate without degrading the
circuit performance.
A. Fan-in
B. Fan-out
C. Input-drive
D. Input noise immunity
ANSWER: A
94. Refers to the number of logic gate of the
same family that can be driven by a single
output of a particular logic gate.
A. Output drive
B. Output noise margin
C. Fan-in
D. Fan-out
ANSWER: D
95. A bipolar logic family that uses resistors as
its input circuit.
A. RTL
B. DTL
C. ECL
D. TTL
ANSWER: A

97. A logic circuit family with a supply voltage

of 25 V, and are generally used in industry
where machinery causes electrical noise
and large power line transients to occur.
A. HLDTL
B. 74HXX
C. NMOS
D. CMOS
ANSWER: A
98. A variation of transistor-transistor-logic
(TTL) wherein transistors base and
collector junctions are clamped with a
Schottky diode.
A. ECL
B. STTL
C. I2L
D. CML
ANSWER: B
99. In a transistor-transistor logic (TTL), if the
base collector junction of a transistor is
clamped with a Schottky diode it becomes
Schottky TTL. What is the significance of
having this diode?
A. It increases the switching speed
B. It
decreases
the
power
dissipation
C. It increases the noise margin
D. It increases the fan-out
ANSWER: A
100.

Which of the bipolar logic circuits is the

fastest?
A. TTL
B. STTL
C. SCTL
D. ECL
ANSWER: D

101.

Other name of emitter-coupled logic (ECL).

A. CML
B. CSL
C. NSL
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

102.
96. Logic family that uses diodes and
transistors as its circuit elements. This
logic family is more resistant to noise than
RTL.
A. DTL
B. TTL
C. ECL
D. I2L or IIL
ANSWER: A

Of all bipolar logic families, TTL is widely

used. What do you think is (are) the
reason(s) why?
A. Its speed is just enough for most
applications
B. Its
power
consumption/dissipation
is
manageable
C. It has a good noise immunity
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

103.

104.

105.

106.

Of the MOS logic family, which is the

fastest?
A. PMOS
B. NMOS
C. CMOS
D. VMOS
ANSWER: C
PMOS are generally supplied with a
voltage up to
A. 5.5 V
B. 12 V
C. 15 V
D. 24 V
ANSWER: D
CMOS are normally supplied a voltage up
to what value?
A. 5.5 V
B. 12 V
C. 15 V
D. 24 V
ANSWER: C
PMOS and CMOS have normally different
supply requirements. However, both can
be operated from the same power supply
provided it should be up to the CMOS
limitation (15 V). CMOS output can drive
directly PMOS inputs, but not PMOSs
output to CMOSs input. How do you
interface PMOS to CMOS?
A. By providing a pull-down
resistor at the interconnection
(PMOS output to CMOS input)
B. By providing a pull-up resistor at
the interface
C. By inserting a series limiting
resistor between PMOS output
and CMOS input
D. By interfacing through an opencollector transistor configuration
ANSWER: A

107.

NMOS can be interfaced to CMOS by

providing a
A. Pull-up resistor
B. Pull-down resistor
C. Limiting resistor
D. Coupling capacitor
ANSWER: A

108.

A digital IC whose output transistor has no

internal pull-up resistor.
A. Open-collector configuration
B. Open-emitter configuration
C. Totem-pole output
D. Tri-sate output
ANSWER: A

109.

In digital ICs, such as buffers and registers,

what output configuration is used if they
are intended for busing?
A. Totem-pole
B. Tri-state output
C. Complementary
D. Open-collector
ANSWER: B

110.

The output configuration of most CMOS

ICs.
A. Totem-pole
B. Open-source
C. Darlington
D. Complementary
ANSWER: D

111.

In TTL ICs, which input configurations

gives a high-input impedance at both logic
states (HIGH and LOW state)?
A.
MET
B.
Input with kicker transistor
C.
Diode cluster input
D.
Substrate PNP input
ANSWER: D

112.

What is the purpose of the internal

clamping diodes at the input of a logic
circuit?
A.
To minimize negative ringing
effects
B.
To minimize positive ringing
effects
C.
To regulate the input signal
D.
To
protect
reverse-polarity
connection
ANSWER: A

113.

In TTL ICs with more than one gate

available, sometimes not all gates are
used. How ill you handle these unused
gates?
A.
Force the output to go LOW
B.
Force the output to go HIGH
C.
Provide pull-down resistors to all
inputs
D.
Provide all inputs with pull-up
resistors
ANSWER: B

114.

How ill you handle unused inputs in a logic

gate/ logic IC?
A.
Leave them floating
B.
Pull them down
C.
Pull them up
D.
Pull them down or up,
depending on circuit function
ANSWER: D

115.

116.

117.

118.

119.

120.

121.

What is the memory element used in

clocked sequential logic circuit?
A.
Gates
B.
Flip-flop
C.
Static-RAM
D.
Read-only memory
ANSWER: B
A static memory will store information
A.
As long as power is applied to
the memory
B.
Even when power is not applied
to the memory
C.
As long as power is applied and
the memory is refreshed
periodically
D.
When power is applied at
regular intervals
ANSWER: B
What is the reason why more cells can be
stored in a given area with dynamic cells?
A.
They consume less power
B.
They are similar
C.
They are larger
D.
They travel faster
ANSWER: B
A ______________ is a solid state
memory device, which depends on the
magnetic polarization of domains, usually
in a garnet type material.
A.
Magnetic disk
B.
Magnetic core
C.
Magnetic bubble
D.
Magnetic drum
ANSWER: C

C.
512
D.
Not determined by sets of input
ANSWER: C
122.

123.

124.

Clock periods are measured from

___________.
A.
The high level to the low level
B.
The low level to the high level
C.
Similar points on the clock
waveform
D.
The clock pulse at 50% of its
low or high levels
ANSWER: C
Determine which item is not a storage
device.
A.
Card readers
B.
CD-ROM
C.
Diskettes
D.
Magnetic tape
ANSWER: A
What is the function of flip-flop as logic
element?
A.
Stores binary data
B.
Generates clock signal
C.
Relay data
D.
Makes decision
ANSWER: A

125.

_____________ is not a type of flip-flop.

A.
RS
B.
Latch
C.
D
D.
Register
ANSWER: D

126.

______________ are non-semiconductor

devices still used in digital memories.
A.
Gates
B.
Flip-flops
C.
Relay
D.
Magnetic cores
ANSWER: D

What is the higher voltage level in digital

gates and flip-flop circuits?
A.
Yes or One
B.
One or Zero
C.
Zero or No
D.
Yes or No
ANSWER: A

127.

The density of data recorded on magnetic

tape is measured in
A.
Bit stuffing rate
B.
Bit error rate
C.
Bits per inch
D.
Bits per second
ANSWER: C

_____________ is a byte data stored in a

memory location.
A.
8 bits
B.
Character
C.
4 bits
D.
Memory word
ANSWER: D

128.

_____________ is called retrieving data

from memory.
A.
Accessing
B.
Getting
C.
Encoding
D.
Reading

A memory circuit that has 9 address inputs

has how many storage locations?
A.
1024
B.
256

ANSWER: A
129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

134.

135.

____________ can erase EPROMS.

A.
Applying a 21-volt pulse
B.
Applying ultraviolet rays
C.
Turning off the power
D.
Blowing fuse
ANSWER: B
___________ is a segment register which
normalcy access variables in the program.
A.
Extra
B.
Stack
C.
Data
D.
Code
ANSWER: B
____________ is a storage device used to
accommodate a difference in rate of flow of
data or time of occurrence of events when
transmitting from one device to another.
A.
Accumulator
B.
Buffer
C.
Modem
D.
Register
ANSWER: B
_____________ is a device that stay on
once triggered and store one or two
conditions as a digital circuit.
A.
Gate
B.
Latch
C.
Integrator
D.
Oscillator
ANSWER: B
The typical number of bits per dynamic
memory location is
A.
1
B.
8
C.
2
D.
16
ANSWER: A
______________ is an output applied to
Read Only Memory (ROM).
A.
Multiplexer
B.
Address
C.
Input code
D.
Data
ANSWER: B
____________ is a kind of memory where
only manufacture can store program and
has s group of memory locations each
permanently storing a word.
A.
ROM
B.
SOS memory
C.
RAM

D.
Hard memory
ANSWER: A
136.

In shift registers made up of several flipflops, the clock signal indicates ________.
A.
A bit of information stored in flipflop
B.
Information of time
C.
What time is it
D.
When to shift a bit of data from
input of the flip-flop to the output
ANSWER: D

137.

What do you call the duration within it

takes to read the content of a memory
location after it has been addressed?
A.
Execution time
B.
Data rate
C.
Cycle time
D.
Access time
ANSWER: D

138.

A static memory generally contains

A.
Row and column decoders
B.
No decoders
C.
Row decoders
D.
Column decoders
ANSWER: A

139.

___________ is called a memory device

which holds fixed set of data in a circuit.
A.
RAM
B.
Register
C.
Logic
D.
ROM
ANSWER: D

140.

An interval required to address and read

out memory word.
A.
Propagation delay
B.
Pulse duration
C.
Setting time
D.
Access time
ANSWER: D

141.

___________ refers to a circuit that stores

pulses and produces an output pulse when
specified numbers of pulses are stored.
A.
Counter
B.
Register
C.
Flip-flop
D.
Buffer
ANSWER: A

142.

A dynamic memory will store information

A.
As long as power is applied to
the memory

B.

As long as power is applied and

the memory is refreshed
periodically
C.
Even when power is not applied
to the memory
D.
When power is applied at
regular interval
ANSWER: B
143.

144.

145.

146.

Several gates combined to form the basic

memory element.
A.
Multivibrator
B.
Register
C.
ROM
D.
Flip-flop
ANSWER: D
An RS flip-flop constructed from NORgates would have an undefined output
when the inputs R/S combinations are
A.
LOW / LOW
B.
LOW / HIGH
C.
HIGH / LOW
D.
HIGH / HIGH
ANSWER: D
When a flip-flop is constructed from two
NAND-gates, its output will be undefined if
the R/S inputs are
A.
LOW / LOW
B.
LOW / HIGH
C.
HIGH / LOW
D.
HIGH / HIGH
ANSWER: A
A flip-flop whose output is always the same
as its input. This is sometimes used as
delay element.
A.
RS flip-flop
B.
D flip-flop
C.
T flip-flop
D.
JK flip-flop
ANSWER: B

C.
Cascaded flip-flop
D.
Master/slave flip-flop
ANSWER: D
149.

150.

A flip-flop without an undefined output state

condition whatever the input combination is
A.
JK flip-flop
B.
T flip-flop
C.
D flip-flop
D.
All of the above
ANSWER: D

151.

Group of flip-flops used to store more bits.

A.
Register
B.
ROM
C.
PROM
D.
All of the above
ANSWER: A

148.

Flip-flop that changes state every time the

input is triggered.
A.
RS flip-flop
B.
Master slave flip-flop
C.
T flip-flop
D.
JK flip-flop
ANSWER: C
Flip-flop arrangement, such that the first
receives its input on the positive edge of a
clock pulse, and the other receives its input
from the output of the first during the
negative edge of the same pulse.
A.
Clocked RS flip-flop
B.
Clocked JK flip-flop

157.

158.

152.

153.

154.
147.

Combination of flip-flop, arranged so that

they can be triggered at the same time.
A.
Clocked flip-flop
B.
Delayed flip-flop
C.
Sequential flip-flop
D.
Asynchronous flip-flop
ANSWER: A

156.

155.

Sequential access digital memory uses

what storage circuit?
A.
Parallel register
B.
Shift register
C.
Dynamic RAM
D.
EEPROM
ANSWER: B
Memory whose contents are lost when,
electrical power is removed.
A.
Nonvolatile
B.
Temporary
C.
Dynamic
D.
Volatile
ANSWER: D
One of the following can program PROMs.
A.
Biasing bipolar transistor
B.
Blowing fuse
C.
Effusing input
D.
Charging a gate
ANSWER: B
Type of memory wherein the data are
permanently stored. Usually the storing of
data is done during manufacturing of the
component.
A.
ROM
B.
PROM
C.
EPROM
D.
EEPROM
ANSWER: A

159.

160.

161.

162.

A semiconductor memory device in which

data can be stored after fabrications.
A.
PROM
B.
EPROM
C.
EEPROM
D.
All of the above
ANSWER: D
A type of ROM that allows data to be
written into the device by a programmer.
After it has been programmed it cannot be
reprogrammed again.
A.
PROM
B.
EPROM
C.
EEPROM
D.
A and B above
ANSWER: A
What memory device that can be
programmed, and reprogrammed after the
old programs are erased usually by an
ultraviolet light?
A.
EEPROM
B.
EPROM
C.
RPROM
D.
B and C
ANSWER: D
A variation of PROM, wherein its stored
data can be erased by electrical signal
instead of ultraviolet light.
A.
EEPROM
B.
Dynamic ROM
C.
RAM
D.
EEPROM and dynamic RAM
ANSWER: A
A nonvolatile memory
A.
ROM
B.
PROM and RPROM
C.
EPROM and EEPROM
D.
All are correct
ANSWER: D
What is the time interval to undertake a
refresh operation in a typical dynamic
RAM?
A.
2 ms
B.
200 ms
C.
50 microsec.
D.
22 microsec.
ANSWER: A
Semiconductor-based,
volatile
data
storage device that can be written and read
randomly.
A.
RAM
B.
PROM

C.
EPROM
D.
EEPROM
ANSWER: A
163.

Random access memory

recharging of capacitors.
A.
SRAM
B.
DRAM
C.
Dynamic storage
D.
A and B
ANSWER: B

that

needs

164.

Dynamic RAM (DRAM) uses capacitor as

its data storage element, while static RAM
(SRAM) uses what?
A.
Inductor
B.
Magnet
C.
Register
D.
Flip-flop
ANSWER: D

165.

Type of memory that is formed by a series

of magnetic bubbles at the substrate.
A.
Magnetic disk
B.
Bubble sort
C.
Bubble chart
D.
Bubble memory
ANSWER: D

166.

Non-semiconductor digital memory device.

A.
Magnetic core
B.
Magnetic domain
C.
Saturable core
D.
Ferromagnetic domain
ANSWER: A

167.

A hardware used to program a PROM.

A.
Microcomputer
B.
Data loader
C.
Encoder
D.
PROM programmer
ANSWER: D

168.

Computer hardware device constructed to

perform shifting of its contained data.
A.
Parallel register
B.
Serial to parallel register
C.
Shift register
D.
ALU
ANSWER: C

169.

Register wherein data can be serially

inputted, while the output can be retrieved
in parallel manner.
A.
Serial to parallel register
B.
Parallel storage
C.
Parallel to serial register
D.
Serial register
ANSWER: A

170.

171.

172.

173.

174.

Digital device similar to that of a ROM and

whose internal connections of logic arrays
can be programmed by passing high
current through fusible links.
A.
PLA
B.
PAL
C.
APL
D.
A and B
ANSWER: D
What is the difference between a read only
memory (ROM) and a programmable logic
array (PLA)?
A.
All input combinations of a ROM
produce an output, while in a
PLA, some input combinations
do not affect the output.
B.
Only the OR-functions in a ROM
are programmable, whereas in a
PLA, both OR and ANDfunctions are programmable.
C.
In ROM, all the possible states
must be programmed, while not
all for a PLA.
D.
All of the above
ANSWER: D
The difference between a programmable
logic array (PLA) and a programmable
array logic (PAL) is that,
A.
With PLA, only OR-gates are
programmable, whereas both
OR and AND gates are
programmable in PAL
B.
With PLA, both OR and ANDgates are programmable, while
in PAL only OR-gate is
programmable
C.
With PLA, both OR and ANDgates are programmable, while
in PAL, only AND-gate is
programmable
D.
Only
AND-gate
is
programmable
with
PLA,
whereas both OR and ANDgates are programmable for
PAL
ANSWER: C
A circuit used for selecting a single output
from multiple inputs.
A.
Universal logic module (ULM)
B.
Demultiplexer
C.
Tri-state
D.
Logic array
ANSWER: A
Another name for universal logic module
(ULM)

A.
Multiplexer
B.
Decoder
C.
Coder
D.
Shift register
ANSWER: A
175.

176.

177.

178.

179.

180.

181.

A.
Program
B.
RAM
C.
Command
D.
Flowchart
ANSWER: A

A device/circuit used to separate two or

more signals from one line.
A.
Decoder
B.
Demodulation
C.
Demodifier
D.
Demultiplexer
ANSWER: D

182.

An electronic counter in which bistable

units are cascaded to form a loop.
A.
Ring counter
B.
Twisted ring counter
C.
UP/DOWN counter
D.
Bistable counter
ANSWER: A

183.

What is formed when the complemented

output of the last stage of a shift register is
fed back to the input of the first stage?
A.
Ring counter
B.
Twisted ring counter
C.
Decade counter
D.
UP/DOWN counter
ANSWER: B
A digital circuit that produces logic 1 output
pulse for every 10 input pulses.
A.
Decade scaler
B.
Divider
C.
Chopper
D.
Multiplexer
ANSWER: A
Binary codes are converted into ASCII by
what circuit?
A.
Decoder
B.
Demultiplexer
C.
Degenerator
D.
Code converter
ANSWER: D
The technical term used when signals are
converted from analog-to-digital.
A.
Digitize
B.
Quantize
C.
Coded
D.
All of the above
ANSWER: A
________________ is a sequence of
instructions that tells the computer
machine on how available data shall be
processed.

184.

185.

186.

187.

Diagram showing procedures that are

followed, and actions taken is called
A.
Functional block diagram
B.
Circuit diagram
C.
Flow chart
D.
Schematic diagram
ANSWER: C
What is the medium of communication with
a computer where programs are written in
mnemonics?
A.
Assembly language
B.
High level language
C.
Machine language
D.
Low-level language
ANSWER: C
A _________ a program which converts
instruction written in a source language
into machine code, which can be read and
acted upon by the computer.
A.
Source code
B.
Assembler
C.
Application software
D.
Compiler
ANSWER: B
A detailed step by step set of direction
telling a computer exactly how to proceed
to solve a specific problem or process as
specific task.
A.
Sequence
B.
Flow chart
C.
Computer program
D.
Process
ANSWER: C
What is a program that translated Englishlike word of high-level language into the
machine language of a computer?
A.
Compiler
B.
Assembler
C.
Monitor program
D.
Interpreter
ANSWER: A
___________ is a software that converts a
high level language program into machine
or assembly language program.
A.
ALU
B.
Cross-assembler
C.
Compiler
D.
CPU

ANSWER: C
188.

The purpose of the fetch cycle in a

computer is to ____________.
A.
Obtain instruction
B.
Obtain input data
C.
Obtain memory data
D.
Implement a specific operation
ANSWER: A

189.

_____________ refers to a program that

translates and then immediately executes
statements in a high level language.
A.
Interpreter
B.
Synchronous
C.
Interface
D.
Operating system
ANSWER: A

190.

A _____________ is an instruction in a
source language that is to be replaced by a
defined sequence of instructions in the
same source language.
A.
Statement
B.
Source code
C.
Mnemonic
D.
Macro-instruction
ANSWER: D

191.

A very high-dense and probably the most

versatile integrated circuit used in digital
electronics. It is known to function as the
central processing unit of most computer
applications.
A.
Microcomputer
B.
Micro-integrated
C.
Macro-integrated
D.
Microprocessor
ANSWER: D

192.

The smallest computer in terms of physical

size
A.
Microcomputer
B.
Minicomputer
C.
Mainframe
D.
Host computer
ANSWER: A

193.

A logic/digital circuit that generates an

output code for every input signal.
A.
Enhancer
B.
Compressor
C.
Encoder
D.
Decoder
ANSWER: C

194.

What code that gives each digit of a

decimal number with a corresponding
binary equivalent?

A.
Binary code
B.
Gray code
C.
ASCII
D.
Binary coded decimal
ANSWER: D
195.

196.

D.
CLI
ANSWER: B
202.

Which of the code below is considered as

minimum-change code?
A.
Gray code
B.
ASCII
C.
BCD
D.
ARINC
ANSWER: A
A 7-bit alphanumeric code that is widely
used
A.
Gray code
B.
ASCII
C.
BCD
D.
ARINC
ANSWER: B

203.

204.

197.

The op-code of a computer instruction

A.
Mnemonic
B.
Bionic
C.
Operand
D.
Program
ANSWER: A

198.

An instruction that causes the program to

go another task.
A.
FLIP
B.
SUB
C.
JUMP
D.
MOVE
ANSWER: C

205.

An instruction that can move data from

memory to the accumulator.
A.
FETCH
B.
MOVE
C.
ACC
D.
LOAD
ANSWER: D

206.

C.
High-level language
D.
4GL or 4th generation language
ANSWER: D

An instruction, which means clear the

interrupt mask.
A.
ACC
B.
DEL
C.
CANCEL
D.
CLI
ANSWER: D
Refers to a condition wherein the result of
an arithmetic operation is more negative
than the capacity of the output register.
A.
Error
B.
Negative infinite
C.
Overflow
D.
Underflow
ANSWER: D
Refers to a condition wherein the result of
an arithmetic operation is more than the
capacity of the output register.
A.
Error
B.
Infinite
C.
Overflow
D.
Underflow
ANSWER: C

209.

210.

211.

212.
Machine instructions represented
mnemonics is considered as
A.
Machine language
B.
Personal language
C.
Assembly language
D.
Coded language
ANSWER: C

by

213.
199.

200.

201.

An instruction tat moves

accumulator to the memory
A.
FETCH
B.
MOVE
C.
STORE
D.
LOAD
ANSWER: C

data

from

Part of the instruction cycle where the

instruction is moved from memory to the
instruction register.
A.
ACC
B.
FETCH
C.
MOVE

The
first
generation
language
of
instruction, and is considered as the most
primitive instruction that can be given to a
computer.
A.
Machine language
B.
Assembly language
C.
COBOL
D.
4GL
ANSWER: A
214.

207.

208.

COBOL, FORTRAN, and ALGOL are

examples of
A.
Machine language
B.
Assembly language
C.
High-level language
D.
4GL
ANSWER: C
An advanced programming language,
more advanced than high-level language.
A.
Machine language
B.
Assembly language

215.

Translator from high-level program to

machine instructions
A.
Assembler
B.
Converter
C.
Encoder
D.
Compiler
ANSWER: D
Translates source program
program
A.
Assembler
B.
Converter
C.
Encoder
D.
Compiler
ANSWER: D

to

B.
Hardware
C.
Assembler
D.
Program
ANSWER: D
216.

The instructions and data in a computer

system is referred to as
A.
Software
B.
Hardware
C.
Program
D.
CPU
ANSWER: A

217.

Refers to digital interface in which data

characteristics
are
individually
synchronized and may be sent at a time.
A.
Half-duplex
B.
Asynchronous
C.
Synchronous
D.
Simplex
ANSWER: B

218.

A network facility used to connect

individual similar network segments
forming a larger extended network is called
_________.
A.
Routers
B.
Relays
C.
Repeaters
D.
Bridges
ANSWER: C

219.

What is the circuit that detects bit error in

binary characters?
A.
Decoder
B.
Parity detector
C.
Server
D.
Comparator
ANSWER: B

220.

A device that enables users to transmit

computer data and fax messages along
telephone lines
A.
Converter
B.
Facsimile
C.
Demodulator
D.
Modem
ANSWER: D

221.

What do you call the devices that allow

computers to communicate with other
computers through telephone lines or radio
frequency?
A.
Modems
B.
Disk
C.
Mouse
D.
Super computers
ANSWER: A

object

Assemble language to machine language

translator
A.
Assembler
B.
Converter
C.
Compiler
D.
Transponder
ANSWER: A
A program in a programming language, as
written by the programmer.
A.
Source program
B.
Object program
C.
Machine program
D.
Original program
ANSWER: A
A source program can run in computer only
after translation into a machine code by a
compiler. This machine code is referred as
the
A.
Source program
B.
Object program
C.
Interpreter
D.
Mnemonic
ANSWER: B
A program that can read a source program
in high-level language, translates, and
executes the statement in one operation.
A.
Mnemonic
B.
Object program
C.
Interpreter
D.
Assembler
ANSWER: C
A sequence of instructions or statements
designed to tell the computer how to carry
out a particular processing task.
A.
Software

222.

223.

What network facility used to interconnect

distinct networks physically?
A.
Relays
B.
Routers
C.
Repeaters
D.
Bridges
ANSWER: D

A.
Hierarchical network
B.
Peer-to-peer network
C.
Local Area Network
D.
Wide Area Network
ANSWER: A
230.

Files in E-mail communication are send

thru ____________.
A.
Disk
B.
Mailbox
C.
Wires
D.
Attachment
ANSWER: D
231.

224.

225.

226.

227.

228.

229.

The first recipient in E-mail communication.

A.
Host
B.
Mail box
C.
Computer
D.
Disk
ANSWER: A
The interconnections of computers,
terminals, and other equipment.
A.
Cluster
B.
Network
C.
Cascading
D.
Bonding
ANSWER: B
A network classification that is usually built
and owned by a single company or
governmental organization.
A.
Private data network
B.
Public data network
C.
Switched network
D.
Node
ANSWER: A
A network that is built and owned by a
common carrier.
A.
Public data network
B.
Private data network
C.
Leased line network
D.
Node
ANSWER: A
Network configuration that let computers
share their resources.
A.
Peer-to-peer network
B.
Hierarchical network
C.
Permanent virtual circuit
D.
Local Area Network
ANSWER: A
A computer network configuration that
makes the host computer manages a
network of dependent terminals.

232.

233.

234.

235.

A network switching that creates a

dedicated temporary connection between
computers in a network.
A.
Circuit switching
B.
Message switching
C.
Packet switching
D.
Virtual switching
ANSWER: A
The component that provides control or
supporting services for other computers,
terminals, or devices in a network.
A.
Host
B.
Communications controller
C.
Cluster controller
D.
Interface equipment
ANSWER: A
It is a type of computer networking
technology that is used to connect
computers that are located within the same
room, building, or complex.
A.
Internet
B.
Intranet
C.
Local area network
D.
Wide area network
ANSWER: C
It is a fast computer with a large amount of
secondary storage, to which all of the other
computers in a network have access for
data storage and retrieval.
A.
Mainframe
B.
Maincomputer
C.
File server
D.
Workstation
ANSWER: C
It is also known as cooperative processing
that involve using two or more networked
computers to perform an application task.
A.
Client computing
B.
Server computing
C.
Distributed processing
D.
Client/server computing
ANSWER: D
A type of server that allows multiple users
to take advantage of a single printing
device.
A.
Printer server
B.
Client server
C.
Network server
D.
File server

ANSWER: A
236.

237.

This topology is the most efficient

centralized network for a small company
A.
Bus
B.
Ring
C.
Tree
D.
Star
ANSWER: D
It is the other term that is used to refer to a
central device into which each node of a
star network is directly connected.
A.
Hub
B.
Central pointer
C.
Router
D.
Repeater
ANSWER: A

238.

It is simply the term that is used to refer to

an I/O device that relies entirely on the
host computer for processing.
A.
Keyboard
B.
Terminal
C.
Monitor
D.
Mouse
ANSWER: B

239.

Workstations in a star network that can

operate without storage devices.
A.
Diskless
B.
Wireless
C.
Disked
D.
Wired
ANSWER: A

240.

A ___________ network requires that

message travel around the ring to nthe
desired destination.
A.
Star
B.
Bus
C.
Tree
D.
Ring
ANSWER: D

241.

Networks that transmit data across town

using electromagnetic signals are called
____________.
A.
LANs
B.
WANs
C.
MANs
D.
All of the above
ANSWER: C

242.

The process of choosing a terminal on a

network to receive data is called _______.
A.
Polling
B.
Selection
C.
Contention

D.
Option
ANSWER: B
243.

A microcomputer attached to a network

requires a __________.
A.
Dongle
B.
Network interface card
C.
RS-232
D.
Software
ANSWER: B

244.

To ___________ is to send a file to a

remote computer
A.
Upload
B.
Download
C.
Call
D.
Transmit
ANSWER: A

245.

To ___________ is to receive a file from a

remote computer.
A.
Upload
B.
Download
C.
Call
D.
Transmit
ANSWER: B

246.

It is term that is used to describe the

conventions of how network components
communicate with each other.
A.
Network model
B.
Network layer
C.
Network topology
D.
Network protocol
ANSWER: D

247.

It is term that is used to describe the form

or the shape of a network.
A.
Network model
B.
Network layer
C.
Network topology
D.
Network protocol
ANSWER: C

248.

__________ is the process of asking each

remote terminal, one at a time, if it has
data to send.
A.
Polling
B.
Selection
C.
Contention
D.
Option
ANSWER: A

249.

__________ network topology has more

than one level of host computer.
A.
Star
B.
Bus
C.
Hierarchical
D.
Ring

ANSWER: C
250.

It describes its System Services Control

Point (SSCP), Logical Units (LU), and
Physical
Units
(PU)
as
network
addressable units.
A.
Internetworking
B.
Digital network architecture
C.
Open system interconnection
D.
Systems network architecture
ANSWER: D

251.

Networks that include telecommunications

are called __________.
A.
LANs
B.
WANs
C.
MANs
D.
All of the above
ANSWER: B

252.

A multi-network IBM token ring network is

also a __________ network.
A.
Star
B.
Bus
C.
Tree
D.
Mesh
ANSWER: A

253.

Network topology, where stations are

connected to a concentric ring through a
ring interface unit (RIU).
A.
Bus
B.
Mesh
C.
Token Ring
D.
Tree
ANSWER: C

254.

A _________ will decide which route the

message or messages should follow
through the network.
A.
Router
B.
Bridge
C.
Repeater
D.
Gateway
ANSWER: A

255.

Used in connecting networks at different

sites.
A.
Router
B.
bridge
C.
repeater
D.
gateway
ANSWER: B

256.

Similar to a bridge, which connects

networks at different sites, it connects
networks with different protocols.
A.
Router
B.
Bridge

C.
Gateway
D.
Repeater
ANSWER: C
257.

Used to extend the length of a network or

to expand the network.
A.
Router
B.
Bridge
C.
Gateway
D.
Repeater
ANSWER: D